RT03 - 08.19.11 - SL Periodicity Quiz
unit1蔡基刚 学术英语 答案
Unit 1 Choosing a TopicCritical ReadingU n d e rs ta n d in g th e te x tT A S K 1Key words Laypeople, radiation, understandingObjective To investigate lay people,knowledge o f radiation phenomena and riskMethods used Questionnaires and interviewsT A S K 21Respondents were aware o f the harmful health effects o f radiation, while they had a little understanding o f the concept o f radiation.2 There are a big proportion o f respondents who support to continue the production o f nuclearpower.3The mass media plays a very important role in the misunderstanding o f radiation.4 A school program should be designed to analyzing everyday conceptions about radiation.T A S K 3Paras.1-2e f b a Paras.3-6k h c d Para. 7b c h a Paras.8-11f a i k Paras.12-18d h g f Paras.19-20g c a b Paras.21-28i j a h c h g da b e j f i g d f e gh g c j b d e a b c ei d h e fk b c g d e fT A S K 41-5254136-1097106811-15131511141216-20201918171621-25252321242226-28272628T A S K 51The answer reveals that the respondents fa il to understand that a new nucleus w ill be produced when a radioactive atom is broken.2 According to the view o f constructivists, a person’s ideas w ill survive school education and forman important basis fo r new learning.3The solution is to consider lay ideas and combine factual knowledge w ith practical or political factors.T A S K 6D ifferent types o f radioactive elements w ill make different health effects, according to characteristics o f each type.T A S K 7It may be argued that the population should have a sufficient understanding o f radiation phenomena to secure individual safety as w ell as democratic decisions. To attain this, it is necessary fo r the communicators o f radiation inform ation to be fam iliar w ith the laypeople’s perceptions o f these phenomena. A questionnaire survey was conducted to examine non-experts’ conceptions o f radiation phenomena. The survey revealed an incomplete understanding o f concepts such as radioactive decay, h a lf-life and absorption o f radia tio n and a lack o f differentiation o f between radiation and radioactive materials. Many respondents did not distinguish between sources o f ionising radiation and other environmental hazards. Nuclear power plants and submarines were the most feared sources o f radiation. There are indications that the lay understanding o f radiation phenomena and risk is to a large extent formed by mass media and that “school knowledge” o f these phenomena is not applied in situations belonging to the “real w orld”To resolve this problem, new teaching and inform ation procedures are needed. These should take into account the learners’ perceptions and should integrate “school knowledge”w ith considerations belonging to the “real w orld”.E n h a n c in g la n g u a g e a b ilityT A S K 21betrays, conception2 renders3exem plified, perception4 prevalent, secure5 prior to6 proportion, gloomy7 alternatives8 characterized, constitutes, hazard9 From the standpoint of, ranks10 external, a prerequisiteT A S K 31include: contain, embrace, encompass, comprise, be composed of, consist of2 valid: powerful, convincing, sensible, rational, viable, credible, plausible, weighty, well-founded,cogent, well-grounded3basic: underlying, fundamental, essential, root, prime, primary4 danger:hazard, risk, threat, menace, peril, jeopardize5 describe: depict, portray, characterize, narrate, outline, represent6 different: discrepant, contrary, conflicting, contradictory, inconsistent, incompatible,incongruous, various, diverse7 cause:prompt, move, inspire, stimulate, urge, spur, motivate, induce, evoke, instigate, impel8 c la rify: account for, ju stify, explain, illum inate, clear up, rationalize, elucidate ,explicate9highlight: emphasize, stress, accent, feature, underline, spotlight, accentuate, give prominence to, attach importance to, give priority to, underscore10 factor: component, item, element, ingredient, constituent, contributorD o in g re s e a rc h p ro je c tsT A S K 11Solvent, pesticide, smoke, viral aggressions, ultrave radiation and ionizing radiation.2 Cells could identify the DNA damage, and remove the damaged part and re-synthesis to repair theDNA.3 The Stochastic effects are not systematic to each person being exposed. Their development couldnot be predicted by the scale o f individual which is opposite from the determinist effect.4 The healthy surroundings may be exposed to radiation during the treatment.5 Radiation dose should be keep as low as possible.academic WritingU n d e rs ta n d in g a re se a rch re p o rt o r re s e a rc h a rtic leT A S K 21Four. They are problem section, procedures section, result section and discussion section.2 Because it w ill contribute to the credibility o f the research.3 It can allow the reader to duplicate the experiment if there is some doubt about your findings.4 It may evaluate the research results fu lly, point out what questions remain unanswered andperhaps suggest directions for further research.5 Accuracy, clarity, and completeness.D e c id in g on a to p icT A S K 21G enetically Engineering -> The Impact o f Genetically Engineering -> The Impact o f Genetically Engineering on A gricultural Practice / Food Shortage2 Breast-feeding P ractice -> Breast-feeding Practice in Chinese B ig C ities^The Impact o fUrbanization on Breast-feeding Practice in Chinese Big Cities3 In te rn e t Technology -> The General Impact o f Internet Technology on Education ->ThePositive Impacts o f Internet Technology on Teaching M ethodologyT A S K 311) V ulnerabilities and the R isk from Global W arming2) Social Issues and Global W arming3) The Impacts o f Global W arming on Food ProductsGenetically M odified Foods and Health IssuesControversies as to Genetically M odified FoodsThe Development o f Genetically M odified Foods in ChinaThe Future o f Nuclear EnergySafety Issues about Nuclear Power PlantsWaste Management and Nuclear Power PlantsScience Fraud in the M edical FieldScience Fraud in ChinaResearch Pressure and Science FraudF o rm u la tin g re se a rch q u e stio n sT A S K 11Nuclear Waste1) W hat is nuclear waste?2) W hy is it d iffic u lt to dispose o f nuclear waste?3) W hat harm ful effects if nuclear waste is not appropriately disposed of?4) How to dispose o f nuclear waste safely and economically?2 Threats o f A rtific ia l Intelligence1) W hat are the present threats o f a rtificia l intelligence?2) W hat are the future threats?3) How can human beings control those threats?3 Global W arm ing and Its Effects1) What is Global warming?2) How does it affect agriculture?3) How does it affect our environment?4) How does it affect our health?4 Genetically M odified Foods1) What are advantages and disadvantages o f GMFs?2) Why do GMFs gain more popularity in the developing countries?3) How safe are GMFs?4) What are the effects o f GMFs on human health?T A S K 2M y topic: Science Fraud Epidemic in China1It is prevalent in universities and scientific institutes.2 There are many reports and articles discussing science fraud.3It is manageable since the study involves questionnaire and interviews.Research Questions1 What is the current situation o f science fraud in tertiary institutions?2 What are the underlying causes fo r the prevalence o f science fraud?3What measures could be taken to address the problem?W r itin g a w o rk in g title T A S K 21 Question titles are not appropriate. It is better to use “Economic Effects o f Climate Change”2 Good3 Impacts o f Global Warming on China4 Good5 Good6 Good 7Good3Literacy SkillsA v o id in g p la g ia ris m T A S K 11 Y 2 Y 3 Y 4 Y 5 Y 6 Y 7 N 8 Y 9Y10 Y T A S K 31 N ot common knowledge 2 N ot 3 N ot 4 N ot 5NotC ita tio n T A S KNumerous research studies demonstrate consistently that teaching promotes both language acquisition and academic Kasper, 1994; Krueger & Ryan, 1993; Snow & B rinton,Wesche, 1993). Students receiving linked instruction perform better in language courses than those not receiving such instruction (Kasper, 1997). They reap the benefits o f significantcontent-based second language success (Grabe & Stoller, 1997; 1997; S tryker & Leaver, 1997;gains in the second language, e.g., in the receptive skills o f listening and reading (Burger et al., 1997; Ready & Wesche, 1992) and in the productive skills o f w ritin g(Burger, 1989) and speaking (B urger &Chretien. 2001).They also achieve comparable or even better mastery o f d isciplinary content than ESL students or native English-speaking students not receiving content-based language instruction (Andrade &M akaafi, 2001; B abbitt, 2001; Kasper, 1994; W inter, 2004).The topic sentence is “content-based second language teaching promotes both language acquisition and academic success.”The w rite r uses literature evidence to support the idea in term s o f speaking, reading and w ritin g.Q u o tin gT A S K 11Author-focused version: According to Anyanwu (1983), most Nigerians believe that “urban existence is synonymous w ith extreme individual and community poverty”.Information-focused version: Influenced by western cultures,most Nigerians believe that “urbanexistence is synonymous w ith extreme individual and community poverty” (Anyanwu, 1883).2 Author-focused version: Anyanwu (1983) suggested that mothers should be educated “how to prepareand use hygienically acceptable supplementary foods”.Information-focused version: We may educate mother ““how to prepare and use hygienicallyacceptable supplementary foods” (Anyanwu, 1983).S u m m a riz in gT A S K 11 c. b. a. d2 b. a. c. d3 a. d. c. bT A S K 21Chinese big cities suffer from growing traffic problems.2 Some long and complicated sentences mean very little.3 The basic tenet o f constructivism holds that learners themselves construct knowledge, rather thanreceive it from outside.4 Some educationalists contend that deciding on a major is the most critical decision students facewhen entering college, whereas others argue that the most important thing fo r students to discover in university is their true interests, because many establish careers not related to the major they studied in college.5 The majority o f American Internet users, especially teenagers, use SNS, which has altered the paceand process o f making and maintaining friendships.6 According to Hirshi and Gottfredson, the propensity (倾向)o f someone to commit crime comesfrom his or her lack o f self-control, whereby the urge to feed desires causes one to even break the law.T A S K 31Gordon & Taylor (1989) believes that although most people feel a great deal o f anguish when faced w ith w riting tasks, this feeling can be managed by developing personal procrastination- avoidance strategy.2 Frick (1991) claims that history has demonstrated that technology affects education profoundly.Considering the definition o f technology broadly, one may say that prehistoric people usedprim itive technologies to teach skills to their young.3 Hewitt (1996) believes that acts o f academic dishonesty undermine the validity o f teaching andlearning.4 Edelso (2002) claims that legal rights and safeguards lead to investments by individuals, which hasa higher impact on raising living standards o f countries than these countries,natural resourceshave.。
Risk-Based Qualification for 21 Century
A White Paper onRisk-Based Qualification for the 21st Century ForwardThe pharmaceutical industry is experiencing change at an incredible pace. Recent and significant product recalls, coupled with extreme pressure to reduce costs to the consumer while maintaining product quality, have brought great scrutiny to the industry. Once “economic proof” suppliers, manufacturers are now forced to compete on a quality and cost basis like never before. An area within our industry that is ripe for change is the facility and equipment qualification process. The current process is document intensive and does little to add value and provide assurance that the product manufactured is of the highest quality. The current process also does not follow a clear path of patient risk mitigation and clear product and process understanding. At the same time the present practices in most companies are very cost ineffective. There is a potential benefit in streamlining these practices by establishing industry standards and mechanisms, which ensure the quality and feasibility of a facility or equipment project from the initial user requirements to the final performance qualification.This whitepaper defines the principles upon which such practices should be based. It gives the directions for how ISPE, in cooperation with industry and regulators, aims to establish a risk-based approach to qualification. This is in accordance with the risk-based thinking that both industry and regulators are striving to attain.A Qualification Task Team, convened at the request of ISPE's International Leadership Forum in response to challenges from FDA, has drafted the attached White Paper on "Risk-Based Qualification for the 21st Century." The task team has received input from over three-dozen representatives of industry, equipment vendors, validation consultants, and regulators. Several white papers on this subject have been drafted and reviewed by staffs within pharmaceutical companies from August 2004 through January 2005. The attached white paper represents the evolution of ideas from the previous white papers, which culminated in an intensive workshop on the subject that was held at ISPE’s Tampa Conference in February 2005.9 March 2005 1 Rev 2Both the FDA and industry recognize that for most companies, qualification (IQ/OQ/PQ) has become an expensive, time-consuming process that adds little value in terms of ensuring equipment is fit for use in pharmaceutical manufacturing. This task team was challenged to recommend far-reaching changes to how qualification is structured and executed, in order to improve the industry's ability to deliver manufacturing facilities that meet product and process quality requirements in a timely and cost-effective manner. This whitepaper proposes that the equipment and facility commissioning and qualification activities should follow a risk-based approach based on the concept of risk mitigation for patients. For simple standard manufacturing equipment that are extensively used in the industry, the required effort should be far less than for complex custom-built equipment. For very quality-competent suppliers, the C&Q activities need not overlap much with the supplier's good engineering practices, to include supplier's own inspections and testing.Furthermore, the user's C&Q activities should depend on documented quality activities, including testing conducted by the supplier or integrator of an equipment or facility. This reliance could be justified based on an independent vendor or equipment certification scheme, or it could be supported by a risk assessment/ quality audit assessment by the customer in a manner similar to GAMP practices.This guidance should be in the form of internationally accepted standards through ASTM, possibly supplemented by ISPE technical documents. Such standards and guidance need to strip away the non-value added aspects that currently plague qualification practices, and focus instead on demonstrating, through PQ, that user requirements have been met. As a proposal to accomplish this, the team identified a number of principles upon which improvement can be based. It is the team's belief that if both industry and regulators can reach agreement in these areas, and provide clear guidance that all will adhere to, significant cost and time savings can be achieved, while at the same time improving the quality of systems and equipment for the manufacture of pharmaceutical products.Statement of the Current SituationIn March, 2001, ISPE published Volume 5 of the Pharmaceutical Engineering Guides for New and Renovated Facilities, “Commissioning and Qualification.” This guide was developed by an international team from pharmaceutical manufacturers and suppliers, and was subject to FDA review and endorsement. Many organizations within the industry have implemented some or all of the principles found within the Commissioning and Qualification Baseline Guide. Implementation has ranged from simple use of system impact assessments to eliminate qualification of indirect and no-impact systems, to full use of all guide principles, including component impact assessments focused on only those aspects that can affect product quality, and maximizing use of documented good engineering practices. In such cases, IQ/OQ protocols have been reduced to a few pages, identifying the 10% or so of components and functions necessary to meet user requirements and support quality manufacturing, referencing GEP documentation to avoid repeated inspections and testing.However, much improvement remains to be realized. As this paper is being written, a number of major pharmaceutical manufacturing capital projects, either planned or in progress, are struggling with issues such as:•The ISPE guide is not a regulatory document nor even regulatory guidance – fear that field inspectors won’t respect guide principles.•Projection of OQ protocols running thousands of pages per unit operation.•Unwillingness (due to fear of regulatory action and entrenched practices) to narrow focus of IQ/OQ/PQ to just that which can affect product quality.•Designs are not perfect – writing IQ against the detailed design (as per the V-model) leads to unnecessary and excessive deviations. Project teams areprocessing hundreds of such deviations, few or none of which results in fieldchanges, but instead are simply a paper exercise.•Pre-mature implementation of regulatory change control.•How to qualify PAT systems.The current situation needs to be improved in several major ways:1.The C&Q Guide provided the impact assessment process to reduce systemssubject to qualification (i.e., avoid the qualification “bullet”). The entire way inwhich we perform qualification needs to be revised so that it no longer representsa bullet to be avoided.2.Guidance or standards are needed that not only define a minimum standard, butalso state what is excessive.3.Guidance or standards are needed that are recognized as official, e.g., that carrythe same weight as an FDA or ICH guidance document.4.The FDA and international community have shifted to a risk-based approach tocompliance. This represents opportunity for further evolution of C&Q practices.Shifting the Qualification ParadigmA risk-based approach to qualification means that we must first understand our processes, and be able to identify and assess the risks to product quality inherent in a particular manufacturing process. We must then ensure that adequate risk-control mechanisms have been incorporated into the design; these risk-control mechanisms should be the focus of our qualification efforts. Items that pose little or no risk to product quality should not receive regulatory attention; the assumption of some risk is inevitable.The current qualification paradigm is based on a comprehensive verification of installation and operation against detailed functional requirements and detailed design specifications. This needs to shift to a focus on just those aspects that can directly affect product quality. Those aspects need to be determined using principles of risk management as espoused by FDA and international regulators. The project team and vendors, exercising good engineering practices and judgment, should confirm that the installation and operation is acceptable from an engineering perspective; IQ/OQ should audit the GEP/ commissioning work to confirm that those quality-impacting aspects have been achieved. The PQ is the true test of acceptability as defined by a process-based user requirements specification. More focus should be applied to design qualification, to ensure Quality by Design objectives have been met.Process Analytical Technology systems can be very sophisticated – these systems often use a custom process model and control scheme based on detailed process understanding. If we were to apply today’s “brute force” or “shotgun” method of qualification, excessive time and money will be required to validate these systems, which will discourage their implementation. New, innovative approaches to testing these systems, which include consideration of new knowledge gained during such testing, must be defined and deployed to the industry.Principles for 21st Century QualificationA group of over 20 representatives, primarily senior managers from industry, plus consultants and regulators, met in Tampa on 14 February 2005 to complete work on a set of guiding principles for this effort. The group agreed on 10 principles of good Commissioning and Qualification Practices:1.Focus on that which affects product quality. Qualifying equipment to putapproved protocols on the shelf is not the end goal; qualifying processes shouldbe the primary focus. To achieve this, definition and control of a process-basedUser Requirement Specification is an important function with quality impact. The primary quality and regulatory focus should be to ensure critical processparameters, critical functions, and critical design features that could affect productquality are defined and controlled.2.Requirements. User requirements, based on the process (and not on equipment orsystems), are the key to acceptability. The PQ is generally where userrequirements are confirmed as being satisfied. Hence, IQ/OQ are subordinate in importance to the PQ.3.Risk assessments, process development and experimental design are used toidentify critical features, functions, and critical process parameters. Thesebecome the basis for qualification (IQ/OQ/PQ). Having a solid processunderstanding will foster regulatory expectations for Quality by Design.4.Only critical process parameters will be used as the basis on which to define theformal “qualification information.” This should also include any physical design features or control functions that could impact the ability to clean, sterilize,sanitize, or properly manufacture the product, to the extent these activities impact product quality and safety.5.All activities must contribute value to the start-up and delivery of manufacturingcapacity. We won’t do anything just for the sake of regulatory compliance.Activities that are simply a paperwork exercise, resulting in no impact toinstallation, operation, or performance of systems, should be reduced oreliminated. Engineering judgment should be used to determine how to inspect or test specific features and functions of equipment and systems.6.Risk-based asset delivery. Different types of equipment and systems (custom,off-the-shelf, simple, complex, etc.) require different levels of attention to ensure quality. An approach to defining how much “good engineering practice” should be applied to a given item, based on risk of problems, should be applied rather than “cook book” lists of activities and documents. The GAMP categories use this approach for automation systems; similar approaches for equipment andsystems should be defined and described.7.Value-added documents. Documents serve a useful purpose of controllingactivities, they ensure completeness, and they serve as a record of what occurred.Only data which serves a useful purpose should be collected. Acceptability of documents should be based on technical merit; documents should not be “dressed up” to meet some imagined regulatory expectation. The operations andmaintenance groups should determine the acceptability of turnover packages, for it is they who will ultimately use them for on-going operations and maintenance.e of supplier documentation. Supplier’s standard inspection and testdocumentation may be used and no other documents be produced that duplicate this information, provided that documentation clearly shows the items of interest have been verified or tested in an appropriate manner. This is subject to thesupplier being of adequate quality.9.Test planning. Defined tests should only be carried out once (at an agreedlocation and by agreed parties, i.e. either by the supplier or by the manufacturingcompany, with accountabilities agreed upfront), unless there is a clear justification for undertaking further tests at a later stage of commissioning. Commissioningshould be a comprehensive activity, with IQ/OQ as an audit that commissioningverified the quality-impacting items. PQ may involve additional testing. Sometests may occur at different stages of development/ implementation and therefore appear to be repeats.10.Fostering innovation. Any program must remain flexible enough to apply soundand qualified scientific and engineering judgment based on the situation at hand.We must not be too prescriptive as to stifle innovation.Action PlanISPE’s Qualification Task Team has studied this subject for the past six months. We believe the above principles are sound. Some of them are already contained in the current Baseline Commissioning and Qualification Guide. However, it is our assessment that additional development of the Guide is needed to further streamline how industry performs these tasks. It is time to update the Guide and move further down the path to rationalize qualification practices in our industry.It is our assessment that consensus based standards would benefit the industry, by providing a clear set of expectations (as well as what is not expected) that both industry and regulators would adhere to. It is our understanding that consensus standards such as from ASTM are required by Executive Order to be used by US federal agencies. The development of these standards would, by their nature, ensure input and consensus from all interested parties. We believe that concise standards, backed up by an updated, complimentary Baseline Guide, would be valuable tools for industry and could cause a major improvement in how we deliver GMP manufacturing capacity.The Qualification Task Team also identified a number of concerns and pitfalls that we expect to encounter as we first debate the specifics of change, and then attempt to implement such change throughout the industry:1.Where does responsibility and accountability lie when equipment later provesfaulty?2.What is an appropriate level of oversight to ensure vendors and project teams aredoing what they are supposed to do?3.How will we deploy consensus standards to regulators world-wide, and what sortof transition acceptance phase will be needed?4.The focus on user requirements is good, but more clarification on what userrequirements are is needed.5. A process is needed to deal with legacy systems. How should be take advantageof knowledge of existing products and processes?6.How is “engineering judgment” gauged or applied? It is a sound concept butfurther definition will be needed.7.We will need to define required documentation. We should look to how otherworld-class industries achieve quality in their manufacturing facilities – what do they find adds value/ is necessary?8.We mustn’t be too prescriptive such that we stifle innovation and creativity.9.We mustn’t let standards be a barrier to entry of new vendors with noveltechnology or a better mousetrap.10.Significant organizational change will be necessary, and this may be the biggestbarrier to success. The QA organization will need to refocus away from thedetails of individual installation and operational test cases and protocols, andinstead focus on critical features and risks to product quality, based on processunderstanding and risk assessments and confirmed by a comprehensive PQ. ISPE’s Qualification Task Team requests endorsement from ILF as to the general basis for this initiative, endorsement for the 10 guiding principles, and endorsement regarding the recommended path forward – creation of qualification standards and concurrent updating of the Commissioning and Qualification Baseline Guide.Respectfully submitted, Qualification Task Team Steering CommitteeBrian Lange, Merck & Co., Inc.Bruce Davis, Astra ZenecaPaul D’Eramo, Johnson & JohnsonTim Howard, Eli Lilly and CompanyGert Moelgaard, NNE A/SRobert Chew, Commissioning Agents, Inc.ILF SponsorsRon Branning, GenentechUlrich Rudow, Johnson & Johnson。
2024年3月《认证通用基础》真题
2024年3月《认证通用基础》试题1.WTO/TBT协议规定了各成员国合格评定的原则的目的是为了()。
A.减少合格评定活动对贸易的负面影响B.增加各成员国的贸易壁垒C.提高合格评定活动的约束性D.提升合格评定活动对贸易的影响参考答案:A【考题解析】参考《合格评定》P9为减少合格评定活动对贸易的负面影响,WTO/TBT协议规定了各成员国合格评定的原则。
2.认证是有关产品、过程、管理体系、人员的()。
A.第一方声明B.第二方声明C.第三方声明D.公共性评价和检查参考答案:C【考题解析】《合格评定》P37认证是有关产品,过程、体系和人员的第三方证明。
3.合格评定活动中对选取和确定活动及其结果的适宜性、充分性和有效性进行的验证是()。
A.证明B.检验C.验收D.复核参考答案:D【考题解析】参看《合格评定》P21复核(review);针对合格评定对象满足规定要求的情况,对选取和确定活动及其结果的适宜性、充分性和有效性进行的验证。
4.在现场审核时应尽量减少审核活动与受审核方工作的()。
A.交流B. 互动C.相互干扰D.时间重要参考答案:C【考题解析】参看审核概论P85其缺点是:一个过程往往涉及多个部门,审核过程中会出现一个部门重复往返接受审核的情况,效率较低。
在部门较多的情况下,受审核方的各部门会全程等候,对受审核方的正常工作过程干扰较大。
5.GB/T27021.1,IDTISO/IEC17021—1《合格评定管理体系审核机构要求第1部分:要求》规定:"应对整个认证周期制订审核方案,以清晰地识别所需要的审核活动,使客户的管理体系符合认证所依据标准或其他规范B. 监督C. 确定D.复核与证明参考答案:A【考题解析】参看《合格评定基础》P81:选取阶段是要确定采用何种要求和方法,选取何种信息来实施对合格评定的对象的评价,怎样从申请中确定评价的范围和对象等。
包括选取方案、选取评价方法和要素、选取体系的要求数量、抽样方案要求、选取评价的对象等。
近期111-Oxidation of pyrite and iron sulfide by manganese dioxide in marine sediments(1)
PII S0016-7037(00)00589-5Oxidation of pyrite and iron sulfide by manganese dioxide in marine sedimentsA.S CHIPPERS *andB.B.J ØRGENSENMax Planck Institute for Marine Microbiology,Celsiusstrasse 1,D-28359Bremen,Germany(Received May 30,2000;accepted in revised form October 18,2000)Abstract —Oxidation of pyrite (FeS 2)under anaerobic conditions in marine sediments is experimentally shown for the first time.In slurry experiments with 55FeS 2and a MnO 2rich marine sediment an oxidation of 55FeS 2was detected which decreased with depth and decreasing concentration of MnO 2in the sediment.FeS 2and iron sulfide (FeS)were oxidized chemically at pH 8by MnO 2but not by nitrate or amorphic Fe(III)oxide.Elemental sulfur and sulfate were the only products of FeS oxidation,whereas FeS 2was oxidized to a variety of sulfur compounds,mainly sulfate plus intermediates such as thiosulfate,trithionate,tetrathionate,and pentathionate.Thiosulfate was oxidized by MnO 2to tetrathionate while other intermediates were oxidized to sulfate.The reaction products indicate that FeS 2was oxidized via the “Thiosulfate-mechanism”and FeS via the “Polysulfide-mechanism”(Schippers and Sand,1999).The processes are summarized by the overall equations:FeS 2ϩ7.5MnO 2ϩ11H ϩ3Fe(OH)3ϩ2SO 42Ϫϩ7.5Mn2ϩϩ4H 2O (1)FeS ϩ1.5MnO 2ϩ3H ϩ3Fe(OH)3ϩS O ϩ1.5Mn 2ϩ(2)For FeS 2oxidation the reaction rates related to the mineral surface area were 1.02and 1.12nmol m Ϫ2s Ϫ1fortotal dissolved S and total dissolved Fe,respectively.Since these values are in the same range as previously published rates for the oxidation of FeS 2by Fe(III),and since Fe(III)is a well-known oxidant for FeS 2even at circumneutral pH,Fe(III)is assumed also to be the oxidant for FeS and FeS 2in the presence of MnO 2.At the iron sulfide surface,Fe(III)is reduced to Fe(II)which is reoxidized to Fe(III)by MnO 2.Thus,an Fe(II)/Fe(III)shuttle should transport electrons between the surfaces of the two solid compounds.Copyright ©2001Elsevier Science Ltd1.INTRODUCTIONPyrite (FeS 2)and iron sulfide (FeS)play a central role in the sulfur and iron cycles of marine sediments (Berner,1984;Luther et al.,1986;1991;Jørgensen and Bak,1991;Canfield and Teske,1996;Berner and Petsch,1998).H 2S is formed during organic matter degradation by sulfate reducing bacteria(Jørgensen,1982).A part of the H 2S is oxidized to S 2O 32Ϫwhich is a key intermediate of the sulfur cycle in marinesediments.The S 2O 32Ϫmight be reduced again to H 2S,oxidizedto SO 42Ϫ,or disproportionated to H 2S and SO 42Ϫ(Bak and Cypionka,1987;Jørgensen,1990;Thamdrup et al.,1994;Fin-ster et al.,1998).A part of the H 2S reacts with iron compounds and precipitates as FeS or FeS 2(Berner,1984;Canfield,1989;Howarth and Jørgensen,1984;Jørgensen and Bak,1991;Rais-well and Canfield,1998).FeS 2is presumably formed by the reaction of FeS with H 2S or with polysulfides (Drobner et al.,1990;Luther,1991;Rickard and Luther,1997;Morse,1999).Sulfate reducing bacteria are suggested to stimulate the trans-formation of FeS into FeS 2(Donald and Southam,1999).Iron sulfides may be buried in the sediment or oxidized by oxygen after transport by bioturbation to the sediment surface (Ferdelman et al.,1997).Iron sulfides may also be oxidized within the anoxic sediment where NO 3Ϫ,Fe(III)-oxides,or MnO 2are available as potential electron acceptors.Garcia-Gil and Golterman (1993)decribed FeS-mediateddenitrification in a marine sediment.Such anaerobic FeS oxi-dation with NO 3Ϫas electron acceptor may be catalyzed by Thiobacillus denitrificans (Garcia-Gil and Golterman,1993)or by anaerobic Fe(II)oxidizing and NO 3Ϫreducing bacteria (Straub et al.,1996;Benz et al.1998).Aller and Rude (1988)described the complete oxidation of solid phase acid volatile sulfide (AVS)to sulfate by manganese oxide in marine sediment according to the overall equation:FeS ϩ4MnO 2ϩ8H ϩ3Fe 2ϩϩSO 42Ϫϩ4Mn 2ϩϩ4H 2O (3)Since sulfate production was inhibited by dinitrophenol or azide they concluded that bacteria are involved in the oxidation process.They did not find evidence for an oxidation of iron sulfides with Fe(III)oxides as electron acceptor.In contrast to anaerobic FeS oxidation,the oxidation of the quantitatively more important FeS 2in anoxic marine sediments has not been shown experimentally to date.Here we report on the oxidation of FeS 2in a MnO 2rich marine sediment using 55FeS 2as an isotopically labeled tracer.Furthermore,to elucidate the pathways of the non-biologic oxidation of FeS 2and FeS by MnO 2,the sulfur chemistry was studied in detail.For the oxidation of metal sulfides two dif-ferent chemical pathways were described,the “Thiosulfate-mechanism”for the degradation of FeS 2,MoS 2,and WS 2,and the “Polysulfide-mechanism”for the degradation of other,acid soluble metal sulfides (Schippers et al.,1996;1999;Schippers and Sand,1999;Sand et al.,2001).In the Thiosulfate-mecha-*Author to whom correspondence should be addressed(aschippe@mpi-bremen.de).PergamonGeochimica et Cosmochimica Acta,Vol.65,No.6,pp.915–922,2001Copyright ©2001Elsevier Science Ltd Printed in the USA.All rights reserved0016-7037/01$20.00ϩ.00915nism FeS2is attacked by Fe(III)hexahydrate ions and thiosul-fate occurs as thefirst sulfur intermediate as suggested also by Luther(1987;1990);Moses et al.(1987)and Moses and Herman(1991).Thiosulfate itself is oxidized by Fe(III)to tetrathionate which hydrolyzes to sulfate and disulfane-mono-sulfonic acid.This latter highly reactive compound is oxidized by Fe(III)to trithionate,which subsequently hydrolyzes to sulfate and thiosulfate,thus closing the circle of thiosulfate degradation.The stable endproduct of this sequence of reac-tions is sulfate.As by-products elemental sulfur and pentathio-nate might occur.In the Polysulfide-mechanism,metal sulfides are attacked by Fe(III)and protons,resulting in the formation of elemental sulfur via polysulfides as intermediates.Elemental sulfur is subsequently oxidized to sulfate by bacteria presum-ably via disproportionation of elemental sulfur(Thamdrup et al.,1993;Canfield and Thamdrup,1994).2.MATERIALS AND METHODS2.1.Iron SulfidesFour types of iron sulfides were used for oxidation experiments:acommercially available FeS;a coarse FeS2;afine FeS2;afine55FeS2.The mineralogy of the iron sulfides was determined by X-ray diffrac-tion.All iron sulfides were stored under dinitrogen until use.FeS was obtained form Aldrich(34316-1,Ϫ100mesh,99.9%).FeS(troilite)and pyrrhotite(Fe7S8)were the main minerals.Fe(elementaliron),FeS2(pyrite),and S O(elemental sulfur)were detected in minoramounts of less than10%each.Coarse FeS2originated from an ore processingflotation plant.Thedried FeS2was sieved and the grain size of50to100m was used forexperiments.A modified procedure described by Moses et al.(1987)was used for purification.The FeS2was washed with boiling6N HCl,rinsed twice with deionized water,and rinsed three times with acetone.FeS2(pyrite)was the only mineral detected by X-ray diffraction.Fine FeS2was prepared as previously described(Berner,1969;Sweeney and Kaplan,1973;Fossing and Jørgensen,1989).A solutionof14.4g Na2Sϫ9H2O(65mmol)in50mL deionized water wasmixed with a solution of16.7g FeSO4ϫ7H2O(65mmol)in50mLdeionized anoxic water in a250mLflask.FeS precipitated immediately and2.1g elemental sulfur(65mmol)was added under stirring.All chemicals used were of analytical grade.Theflask was bubbled with dinitrogen,sealed,and incubated at65°C for4d and at85°C foranother4d.The FeS2was washed twice with1N HCl to remove freesulfide and FeS.Further purification was done as described above forthe coarse FeS2.Thefine FeS2was dried under a stream of dinitrogen.Pyrite and marcasite in minor amounts were the only detectable min-erals.The surface area was2.9m2gϪ1measured by the BET-method (Brunauer et al.,1938).Fine55FeS2was prepared by a similar procedure but a fewL of55Fe-tracer(55FeCl3in0.1mol/L HCl,Ͼ180mol/L Bq/mg Fe,Amer-sham,UK)was added to the FeSO4solution.To check the amount oftracer incorporated into the mineral,100g55FeS2was dissolved in18 mL aqua regia and diluted to100mL with deionized water.To100L of this solution,9.9mL deionized water and10mL scintillation liquid (Ultima Gold XR,Packard)were added.Radioactivity was measured on a Canberra-Packard2400TR liquid scintillation counter.The55FeS2 had an activity of150kBq/g.2.2.Anoxic FeS or FeS2Oxidation ExperimentsNitrate,amorphic Fe(III)oxide,and MnO2were tested for theirability to oxidize FeS or FeS2chemically in the absence of oxygen.Amorphic Fe(III)oxide and MnO2were freshly prepared as describedby Lovley and Phillips(1986);Lovley and Phillips(1988).Suspensions were made to afinal concentration of1mol LϪ1Fe or1mol LϪ1Mn.For the experiments,0.5g of either FeS,coarse FeS2,orfine FeS2wereweighed into250mLflasks.To each assay,50mL of a1mol/LNaHCO3solution and50mL of either a NaNO3solution(25g/L),asuspension of amorphic Fe(III)oxide,or a suspension of MnO2wereadded.Five parallel assays were prepared for each combination of ironsulfide and oxidizing agent.Suspensions containing only iron sulfidesor MnO2were prepared as controls.Since elemental sulfur occurred as an impurity in iron sulfides,assays with elemental sulfur instead ofmetal sulfide were also prepared.The pH remained at8(Ϯ0.5)for allexperiments.Theflasks were closed with air-tight butyl rubber seals,evacuated,and gassed with a mixture of CO2/N2(10/90,v/v)three times.All assays were incubated at20°C in the dark.Thiosulfate is a FeS2oxidation product(Schippers et al.,1996).Totest the stability of thiosulfate in the presence of MnO2,similar exper-iments as described above were done using10mM NaS2O3ϫ5H2O instead of iron sulfides.To exclude a catalytic influence of bacteria,additional experimentswere conducted under sterile conditions.The metal sulfides were drysterilized at120°C under dinitrogen over night andflasks,rubber seals,solutions,and suspensions were sterilized in an autoclave at120°C for25min.Samples were taken with a syringeflushed with a mixture of CO2/N2 (10/90,v/v)and aliquots of3mL were taken from each experiment.A1-mL aliquot was placed in a2-mL Eppendorf tube for analysis ofsulfur species.For Mn(II),Fe(II),and Fe(III)ion analysis,1-mL aliquotwas added to0.2mL6N HCl in another tube.For the determination oftotal Mn and total non-pyritic Fe,a1-mL aliquot was added to amixture of0.3mL6N HCl and0.2mL hydroxylammoniumchlorid(which dissolves Fe(III)oxides and MnO2but not FeS2)in a third tube.Since HCl dissolves FeS,metal analysis was carried out only for assayswith FeS2.All Eppendorf tubes were shaken and centrifuged.The supernatantfrom thefirst tube was quantitatively removed and used for analysis ofsulfate,thiosulfate,and polythionates.To quantitatively extract ele-mental sulfur from the pellet,1mL of ethanol was added and the tubewas whirled until the pellet was totally suspended.After10min ofultrasonic treatment the sample was centrifuged again.Elemental sulfurwas analyzed in the supernatant.The supernatants of the second and thethird tube were diluted with0.5mol/L HCl for analysis of Mn(II),Fe(II),and Fe(III)ions.2.3.Slurry Experiments with55FeS2and Marine SedimentTo study the importance of FeS2oxidation by MnO2in marinesediments,a MnO2rich sediment from the deepest part of Skagerrak (the sea between Denmark and Norway,Station S9,700m water depth)was used for experiments.Canfield et al.(1993a,b)reported a concen-tration of175mol MnO2per cm3of surface sediment.The MnO2content decreased with depth and at9cmϽ10mol MnO2per cm3was detected.From this site,a sediment core was collected in a10-cmwide Plexiglas tube using a multicorer on a cruise in April1999.Thetop10cm of the core were sliced into sections of1cm.Flasks werecompletelyfilled with samples of each section and stored at4°C.Forthe experiments,50g55FeS2(7.5kBq)was weighed into small serumbottles,and3g sediment plus7mLfiltered anoxic seawater wereadded.Theflasks were closed with air-tight butyl rubber seals,evac-uated,and subsequently gassed with a mixture of CO2/N2(10/90,v/v) three times.All assays were incubated at20°C in the dark.To inhibit bacterial activity,parallel experiments were carried outwith1mM2,4-dinitrophenol and20mM NaN3added as inhibitors (Aller and Rude,1988).Samples were taken from each assay with a syringeflushed with amixture of CO2/N2(10/90,v/v)and aliquots of1mL were added to a mixture of0.3mL6N HCl and0.2mL hydroxylammoniumchlorid in2mL-Eppendorf-tubes to dissolve all non-pyritic iron.Subsequently,all tubes were shaken and centrifuged.One ml of the supernatant wasdiluted with9mL deionized water and10mL scintillation liquid wasadded.Radioactivity was measured as described above.The superna-tant was also used for the determination of the total Mn content of thesamples.The pellet was used for a second Fe(II)and Fe(III)extractionprocedure with a citrate-dithionite solution according to Peiffer andStubert(1999).The radioactivity in the supernatant showed that thefirst extraction procedure was almost quantitative.2.4.Chemical AnalysisAll chemical analyses were done by ion chromatography(DionexDX500consisting of a data system Chromeleon,a pump GP40,an916 A.Schippers and B.B.Jørgensenautosampler AS50,a column oven LC30,an electrochemical detector ED40with an anion-suppressor ASRS,and a diode array detector UVD340S).All columns originated from Dionex except the column Hypersil ODS5m(Supelco Inc.).Eluents were degassed with helium before use and stored under helium.The following measurement con-ditions were used for the different compounds:1.Sulfate was measured by anion exchange chromatography withsuppressed conductivity detection(Dionex-application,eluent:9mM Na2CO3,flow:1mL/min,precolumn:AG9HC,column:AS9HC,suppressor at100mV).2.Thiosulfate and polythionates were measured by ion-pair chroma-tography with diode array detection(application according to Steu-del et al.,1987,eluent:2mM tetrabutylammoniumchloride,1mMNa2CO3,pH7.7(NaOH or HCl),addition of25%acetonitrile,flow:1mL/min,column:Hypersil ODS5m,measurement at215nm).3.Elemental sulfur was measured by reversed phase chromatographywith diode array detection(application according to Steudel et al., 1981,eluent:pure methanol,flow:1mL/min,column:Hypersil ODS5m,measurement at254nm).4.Mn(II),Fe(II),and Fe(III)ions were measured by cation exchangechromatography with post column derivatisation and photometry (Dionex-application,technical note10,method A,eluent:7.0mM PDCA(Pyridine-2,6-dicarboxylic acid),66mM potassium hydrox-ide,74mM formic acid,5.6mM potassium sulfate,flow:1.2 mL/min,precolumn:CG5A,column:CS5A,post column deriva-tisation using a PC10Pneumatic Controller and a375L knitted reaction coil,derivatisation reagent:0.5mM PAR(4-(2-Pyridylazo) Resorcinol),1.0mol/L2-dimethyl-aminoethanol,0.5mol/L ammo-nium hydroxide,0.3mol/L sodium bicarbonate,reagentflow rate:0.7mL/min,diode array detection,measurement at530nm.Toavoid Fe(II)oxidation,oxygen was removed from the analyticalcolumn by pumping a solution of12.6g/L Na2SO3through thecolumn for two hours before starting measurements.3.RESULTS3.1.Iron Sulfide Oxidation by MnO2FeS and FeS2were chemically oxidized by MnO2in abicarbonate buffered solution whereas NO3Ϫand amorphic Fe(III)oxide did not oxidize these iron sulfides.In the controlexperiments with iron sulfides and without oxidizing agents,aformation of oxidation products did not take place and MnO2 was not dissolved in the absence of iron sulfides.Furthermore, elemental sulfur was not oxidized by any of the oxidizing agents tested(data not shown).The products from the chemicaloxidation of FeS,of coarse FeS2,and offine FeS2by MnO2areshown in Figure1.In the case of FeS,elemental sulfur and sulfate were the only oxidation products detected.Sulfate in-creased linearily as the only sulfur product detectable duringthe oxidation of coarse FeS2,whereas the oxidation offine FeS2produced a variety of oxidation products in high amounts.Sulfate was the main product and increased over a month to30 mM.Sulfate formation was highest during thefirst15 d. Tetrathionate accumulated until day15to12mmol S LϪ1and then deceased again.Thiosulfate and trithionate increased to around5mmol S LϪ1,whereas pentathionate occurred only at concentrations below1mmol S LϪ1.Longer-chained polythio-nates or elemental sulfur were not formed.The concentration of Mn(II)increased to120mmol LϪ1due to MnO2reduction. Thiosulfate is oxidized to tetrathionate by Fe(III)in theThiosulfate-mechanism of oxic FeS2degradation.To verify ifthis reaction occurs with MnO2as oxidant as well,the oxida-tion of thiosulfate by MnO2is shown in Figure2.Within5h2/3of the thiosulfate was oxidized by MnO2,mainly to tetra-thionate,some sulfate and a little pentathionate.During the oxidation of FeS and FeS2by MnO2,the samesulfur compounds were formed in experiments conducted un-der sterile conditions(data not shown),suggesting that the oxidation was purely chemical.However,lower amounts of sulfur compounds than shown in Figure1were detected,pre-sumably because of a lowered reactivity of the MnO2afterheat-sterilization which may change the crystallinity of MnO2 (Lovley,1991).3.2.Stoichiometry and Reaction Rates of FeS2Oxidationby MnO2To reveal the stoichiometry of the oxidation offine FeS2byMnO2,the sum of all sulfur compounds shown in Figure1C was calculated for day15,22,28,and38and is shown(total dissolved S)together with the Mn(II)and total dissolvedFe Fig.1.Products of the chemical oxidation of(A)FeS,of(B)coarse FeS2,and of(C)fine FeS2by MnO2.For thefine FeS2also theformation of Mn(II)due to reduction of MnO2is shown.Forfive parallel experiments standard deviations of the mean wereϽϮ5%for sulfate,ϽϮ10%for thiosulfate,ϽϮ20%for polythionates,andϽϮ25%for elemental sulfur and Mn(II)ions.The following concen-trations were used:1mol LϪ1MnO2and57mol LϪ1FeS(0.5g)or42mol LϪ1FeS2(0.5g).917Anoxic pyrite and iron sulfide oxidationvalues in Figure 3.Total dissolved S and total dissolved Fe remained nearly constant,with the concentration of S twice as that of Fe.This result indicates that FeS 2was not further dissolved after day 15.In contrast,the concentration of Mn(II)continued to increase over time,presumably due to the reaction of intermediate sulfur compounds such as thiosulfate and poly-thionates with MnO 2.As shown in Figure 1C the concentration of tetrathionate as the main sulfur intermediate decreased after the day 15and sulfate increased further,indicating an oxidation of tetrathionate to sulfate by MnO 2.At the end of the experi-ment when 2/3of the total dissolved sulfur had been com-pletely oxidized to sulfate,the dissolved Mn/S molar ratio was 2.5and the Mn/Fe ratio was 5.The fine FeS 2consisted of pyrite and minor amounts of marcasite.Wiersma and Rimstidt (1984)showed that the oxi-dation rates for both minerals do not differ significantly.There-fore,(surface catalyzed)oxidation rates were calculated per surface area for the total fine FeS 2during the first 15d of the experiment as described by Peiffer and Stubert (1999).For the calculation,the amounts of total dissolved S or Fe after 15d and the total surface area of the FeS 2were used.For total dissolved S and total dissolved Fe the rates were 1.02and 1.12nmol m Ϫ2s Ϫ1,respectively.3.3.55FeS 2Oxidation in a MnO 2Rich Marine SedimentTo study the importance of FeS 2oxidation by MnO 2in nature,slurry experiments with different sections of a MnO 2-rich marine sediment and 55FeS 2as tracer were carried out.The oxidation of 55FeS 2was measured as radioactivity of the non-pyritic,HCl extractable 55Fe in slurries prepared from different depths after two weeks of incubation (Fig.4).Both the amount of 55Fe oxidized and the content of Mn where highest within the top 2cm of the sediment and decreased with depth.Below 7.5cm,where the content of Mn did not exceed 0.2%(w/w),a dissolution of FeS 2was not detectable.Bacterial inhibitors did not influence the FeS 2dissolution (data not shown).To analyse the relation between the Mn content of a sedi-ment and the amount of 55FeS 2that has been dissolved,Mn and 55Fe values from Figure 4were plotted in Figure 5.There was a significant linear correlation between the Mn content of the sediment and the oxidation of added 55FeS 2,indicating that MnO 2is indeed the oxidant for FeS 2.4.DISCUSSIONThe results of this study show for the first time experimen-tally that pyrite,the quantitatively most important metal sulfide,may be chemically oxidized in anoxic marine sediments by MnO 2.In contrast,NO 3Ϫor amorphic Fe(III)oxide did not serve asoxidants.Fig.2.Products of the chemical oxidation of thiosulfate by MnO 2.Fig.3.Products of the oxidation of fine FeS 2by MnO 2on day 15,22,28,and 38of the experiment.Total dissolved S represents the sum of all sulfur compounds shown in Fig.1C.Total dissolved Fe represents precipitated Fe(III).Soluble Fe(III)or Fe(II)were notdetected.Fig.4.Dissolution of 55FeS 2in slurry experiments with samples from different depths of a MnO 2rich marine sediment,station S9,Skagerrak (Canfield et al.;1993a;b).The amount of 55FeS 2dissolved was measured as HCl-extractable 55Fe and related to the total amount of 55Fe.The amount of total Mn was determined after reduction of MnO 2.Fig.5.Linear correlation between the total Mn content at different sediment depths and the amount of 55FeS 2dissolved,measured as with HCl extractable 55Fe (y ϭ2.3x –58and r ϭ0.97,␣ϭ0.1%).918 A.Schippers and B.B.JørgensenBoth FeS 2and MnO 2are insoluble solid compounds and it is not known how electrons are transported from FeS 2to MnO 2.Alternatively,a tight contact of the surfaces of the two solid compounds might enable a direct electron transfer,or electrons might be transported via an electron-shuttling compound.We assume that Fe(II)/Fe(III)cycling transports electrons based on the following reasons:A)Fe(III)was detected in our experiments and is a well-known oxidant for FeS 2(Wiersma and Rimstidt,1984;Luther,1987;Williamson and Rimstidt,1994;Sand et al.,2001):FeS 2ϩ14Fe 3ϩϩ8H 2O 315Fe 2ϩϩ2SO 42Ϫϩ16H ϩ(4)Despite the low solubility of Fe(III)at circumneutral pH,Fe(III)may serve as oxidant if it remains adsorbed onto the surface of FeS 2(Luther,1987;1990;Moses et al.,1987;Moses and Herman,1991;Peiffer and Stubert,1999).B)The surface related reaction rates of 1.02and 1.12nmol m Ϫ2s Ϫ1for FeS 2oxidation by MnO 2are in the low range of the rates described for the oxidation of FeS 2by Fe(III)at circumneutral pH,1.1to 39nmol m Ϫ2s Ϫ1(summarized by Peiffer and Stubert,1999).This could imply that in our exper-iments Fe(III)is the oxidant for FeS 2as well.C)It was shown that Fe(II)is oxidized by MnO 2.Postma and Appelo (2000)describe this reaction by the following equation:2Fe 2ϩϩMnO 2ϩ2H 2O 32FeOOH ϩMn 2ϩϩ2H ϩ(5)Fe(III)generated by the reaction of Fe(II)with MnO 2could react with FeS 2before it precipitates as FeOOH.D)The coupling of the redox pairs FeS 2/Fe(III)and Fe(II)/MnO 2has been suggested for the dissolution of low grade ores or ocean bed nodules in acid media (Paramguru and Kanungo,1998;Kanungo,1999).E)Molecular-orbital theory considerations by Luther (1987;1990);support Fe(II)/Fe(III)cycling.Fe(II)is a d 6(t 2g 6)electronconfiguration and Mn(IV)is a d 3(t 2g 3)electron configuration.The t 2g orbitals are filled in case of Fe(II)and half-filled in case of Mn(IV)which imparts the stability for these metal ions.For both solids,FeS 2and MnO 2,to react with each other,a ligand would have to dissociate as both reactants touched,but thisdoes not occur.Soluble Fe(II),which has a t 2g 4e g *2electron configuration,is high spin and labile,thus it can adsorb to andreact with MnO 2to form Fe(III).Soluble Fe(III)has d 5(t 2g 3e g 2)electron configuration and is therefore a labile cation that can undergo ligand exchange and is therefore able to react with the S 22Ϫligand of FeS 2.In our experiments,fine FeS 2was oxidized to a variety of sulfur compounds,mainly sulfate plus intermediates such as thiosulfate,trithionate,tetrathionate,and pentathionate.The formation of these intermediates in the course of FeS 2oxida-tion has been shown previously for the oxic FeS 2oxidation by which FeS 2is degraded via the Thiosulfate-mechanism (Schip-pers et al.,1996;1999;Schippers and Sand,1999;Sand et al.,2001).According to the molecular-orbital theory Fe(III)hexa-hydrate ions attack FeS 2,oxidize S 22Ϫto thiosulfate and con-sequently cleave the chemical bonding between the Fe(II)andthe S 22Ϫin the FeS 2lattice.As a consequence,thiosulfate and Fe(II)occur as dissolution products (Luther,1987;1990;Moses et al.,1987;Moses and Herman,1991).The Fe(II)is oxidized to regenerate Fe(III)for further attack,while thiosul-fate is oxidized via tetrathionate,disulfane-monosulfonic acid and trithionate to mainly sulfate in a cyclic pathway.The results of the present study are in agreement with the Thiosulfate-mechanism.Thus,we conclude that anaerobic FeS 2oxidation by MnO 2proceeds via the Thiosulfate-mecha-nism as well.Since sulfate is the endproduct of the overall reaction,we suggest that the oxidation of FeS 2by MnO 2proceeds by the following reaction:FeS 2ϩ7.5MnO 2ϩ11H ϩ3Fe(OH)3ϩ2SO 42Ϫϩ7.5Mn 2ϩϩ4H 2O(6)According to this equation,the stoichiometry of the products is 3.75for Mn/S and 7.5for Mn/Fe.At the end of our experiments with fine FeS 2,2/3of the dissolved pyritic sulfur was com-pletely oxidized to sulfate.We calculated stoichiometries of 2.5for Mn/S and 5for Mn/Fe (Fig.3)which are exactly 2/3of the stoichiometries above and,therefore,in agreement with Eqn.6.In our experiments with the oxidation of coarse FeS 2only low amounts of sulfate were produced.Apparently,too little FeS 2was oxidized to allow detectable levels of sulfur interme-diates to accumulate.The surface area of the coarse FeS 2was not high enough to be measured by the BET-method,thus,reaction rates could not be calculated.Summarizing our results,a model of FeS 2oxidation by MnO 2is shown in Figure 6.We postulate that electrons are transported via the Fe(II)/Fe(III)-shuttle if FeS 2and MnO 2are in a close contact.Fe(II)and Fe(III)should be adsorbed onto the surface of FeS 2because our experiments with amorphic Fe(III)oxide have shown that precipitated Fe(III)does not oxidize FeS 2.However,while amorphic Fe(III)oxides preci-pitated to the FeS 2surface do not alone oxidize FeS 2,they may serve as an electron conduit (Eggleston et al.,1996).Electrons might flow from FeS 2via Fe(III)oxides to adsorbed Fe(III)or via Fe(III)oxides directly to MnO 2.In our experiments with MnO 2,only precipitated Fe(III)but not Fe(II)was detected by extraction with HCl,indicating that the reaction betweenFe(II)Fig.6.Model of anoxic FeS 2oxidation by MnO 2via the Fe(II)/Fe(III)-shuttle.919Anoxic pyrite and iron sulfide oxidation。
ANSI ISA RP12.06.01-2003 Recommended Practice for Wiring Methods-Part 1
Recommended Practice forWiring Methods forR E C O M M E N D E D P R A C T I C EANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-2003Recommended Practice for Wiring Methods for Hazardous (Classified) Locations Instrumentation Part 1: Intrinsic SafetyISBN: 1-55617-865-4Copyright © 2003 by ISA —The Instrumentation, Systems, and Automation Society. All rights reserved. Not for resale. Printed in the United States of America. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means (electronic mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise), without the prior written permission of the Publisher.ISA67 Alexander DriveP.O. Box 12277Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27709ANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-2003 ——3PrefaceThis preface, as well as all footnotes and annexes, is included for information purposes and is not part of ANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-2003.This document has been prepared as part of the service of ISA⎯the Instrumentation, Systems, and Automation Society⎯toward a goal of uniformity in the field of instrumentation. To be of real value, this document should not be static but should be subject to periodic review. Toward this end, the Society welcomes all comments and criticisms and asks that they be addressed to the Secretary, Standards and Practices Board; ISA; 67 Alexander Drive; P. O. Box 12277; Research Triangle Park, NC 27709; Telephone (919) 549-8411; Fax (919) 549-8288; E-mail: standards@.The ISA Standards and Practices Department is aware of the growing need for attention to the metric system of units in general, and the International System of Units (SI) in particular, in the preparation of instrumentation standards. The Department is further aware of the benefits to USA users of ISAstandards of incorporating suitable references to the SI (and the metric system) in their business and professional dealings with other countries. Toward this end, this Department will endeavor to introduceSI-acceptable metric units in all new and revised standards, recommended practices, and technicalreports to the greatest extent possible. Standard for Use of the International System of Units (SI): The Modern Metric System, published by the American Society for Testing & Materials as IEEE/ASTM SI 10-97, and future revisions, will be the reference guide for definitions, symbols, abbreviations, andconversion factors.It is the policy of ISA to encourage and welcome the participation of all concerned individuals andinterests in the development of ISA standards, recommended practices, and technical reports. Participation in the ISA standards-making process by an individual in no way constitutes endorsement bythe employer of that individual, of ISA, or of any of the standards, recommended practices, and technical reports that ISA develops.CAUTION — ISA ADHERES TO THE POLICY OF THE AMERICAN NATIONAL STANDARDS INSTITUTE WITH REGARD TO PATENTS. IF ISA IS INFORMED OF AN EXISTING PATENT THAT IS REQUIRED FOR USE OF THE DOCUMENT, IT WILL REQUIRE THE OWNER OF THE PATENT TO EITHER GRANT A ROYALTY-FREE LICENSE FOR USE OF THE PATENT BY USERS COMPLYING WITH THE DOCUMENT OR A LICENSE ON REASONABLE TERMS AND CONDITIONS THAT ARE FREE FROM UNFAIR DISCRIMINATION.EVEN IF ISA IS UNAWARE OF ANY PATENT COVERING THIS DOCUMENT, THE USER IS CAUTIONED THAT IMPLEMENTATION OF THE DOCUMENT MAY REQUIRE USE OF TECHNIQUES, PROCESSES, OR MATERIALS COVERED BY PATENT RIGHTS. ISA TAKES NO POSITION ON THE EXISTENCE OR VALIDITY OF ANY PATENT RIGHTS THAT MAY BE INVOLVED IN IMPLEMENTING THE DOCUMENT. ISA IS NOT RESPONSIBLE FOR IDENTIFYING ALL PATENTS THAT MAY REQUIRE A LICENSE BEFORE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE DOCUMENT OR FOR INVESTIGATING THE VALIDITY OR SCOPE OF ANY PATENTS BROUGHT TO ITS ATTENTION. THE USER SHOULD CAREFULLY INVESTIGATE RELEVANT PATENTS BEFORE USING THE DOCUMENT FOR THE USER’S INTENDED APPLICATION.HOWEVER, ISA ASKS THAT ANYONE REVIEWING THIS DOCUMENT WHO IS AWARE OF ANY PATENTS THAT MAY IMPACT IMPLEMENTATION OF THE DOCUMENT NOTIFY THE ISA STANDARDS AND PRACTICES DEPARTMENT OF THE PATENT AND ITS OWNER.ADDITIONALLY, THE USE OF THIS DOCUMENT MAY INVOLVE HAZARDOUS MATERIALS, OPERATIONS OR EQUIPMENT. THE DOCUMENT CANNOT ANTICIPATE ALL POSSIBLE APPLICATIONS OR ADDRESS ALL POSSIBLE SAFETY ISSUES ASSOCIATED WITH USE IN HAZARDOUS CONDITIONS. THE USER OF THIS DOCUMENT MUST EXERCISE SOUND PROFESSIONAL JUDGMENT CONCERNING ITS USE AND APPLICABILITY UNDER THE USER’SANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-2003 — 4 —PARTICULAR CIRCUMSTANCES. THE USER MUST ALSO CONSIDER THE APPLICABILITY OF ANY GOVERNMENTAL REGULATORY LIMITATIONS AND ESTABLISHED SAFETY AND HEALTH PRACTICES BEFORE IMPLEMENTING THIS DOCUMENT.THE USER OF THIS DOCUMENT SHOULD BE AWARE THAT THIS DOCUMENT MAY BE IMPACTED BY ELECTRONIC SECURITY ISSUES. THE COMMITTEE HAS NOT YET ADDRESSED THE POTENTIAL ISSUES IN THIS VERSION.The following people served as voting members of ISA Subcommittee SP12.6:NAME COMPANY D. Bishop, Managing Director ConsultantR. Masek, Chair CSA InternationalN. Abbatiello Eastman Kodak Co.R. Allen Honeywell Inc.W. Bennett Pepperl + Fuchs Inc.K. Boegli Phoenix Contact Inc.C. Bombria ConsultantJ. Bossert Hazloc Inc.R. Cardinal Bently Nevada LLCA. Engler EGS Electrical GroupT. Feindel R. Stahl Inc.W. Fiske Intertek Testing ServicesL Goettsche ConsultantB. Larson Turck Inc.J. Miller Detector Electronics Corp.A. Mobley 3M Co.O. Murphy Brooks InstrumentsE. Olson Ellis Engineering Co.J. Oudar ExLoc Corp.A. Page MSHA Approval & Certification CenterB. Schaefer Underwriters Laboratories Inc.P. Schimmoeller CSA InternationalT. Schnaare Rosemount Inc.D. Wechsler Dow Chemical Co.C. Wellman DuPont EngineeringThe following people served as voting members of ISA Committee SP12:NAME COMPANY T. Schnaare, Chair Rosemount Inc.W. Lawrence, Vice Chair FM ApprovalsD. Bishop, Managing Director ConsultantN. Abbatiello Eastman Kodak CompanyD. Ankele Underwriters Laboratories Inc.B. Apel MSA InstrumentA. Ballard Crouse Hinds Division of Cooper IndustriesW. Bennett Pepperl + Fuchs Inc.K. Boegli Phoenix Contact Inc.R. Brodin Fisher Controls Intl. Inc.R. Buschart PC & E Inc.R. Cardinal Bently Nevada Corp.C. Casso Schlumberger Oilfield ServicesM. Coppler Ametek Inc.J. Cospolich Waldemar S. Nelson & Company Inc.ANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-2003 ——5J. Costello Henkel CorporationS. Czaniecki Intrinsic Safety Concepts Inc.T. Dubaniewicz NIOSHU. Dugar Mobil Chemical CompanyA Engler EGS Electrical GroupT. Feindel R. Stahl Inc.W. Fiske Intertek Testing ServicesG. Garcha GE Power SystemsD. Jagger 9 Darnton GardensF. Kent Honeywell Inc.J. Kuczka KillarkB. Larson Turck Inc.E. Magison ConsultantR. Masek ABB AutomationA. Mobley 3M CompanyA. Page MSHA Approval & Certification CenterJ. Propst Equilon EnterprisesP. Schimmoeller CSA InternationalD. Wechsler Dow Chemical CompanyC. Wellman DuPont EngineeringThis document was approved for publication by the ISA Standards and Practices Board on 22 October 2002.NAME COMPANYM. Zielinski, Chair Emerson Process ManagementD. Bishop David N Bishop, ConsultantD. Bouchard PapricanM. Cohen ConsultantM. Coppler Ametek, Inc.B. Dumortier Schneider ElectricW. Holland Southern CompanyE. Icayan ACES IncA. Iverson Ivy OptiksR. Jones Dow Chemical CompanyV. Maggioli Feltronics CorporationT. McAvinew ForeRunner CorporationA. McCauley, Jr. Chagrin Valley Controls, Inc.G. McFarland Westinghouse Process Control Inc.R. Reimer Rockwell AutomationJ. Rennie Factory Mutual Research CorporationH. Sasajima Yamatake CorporationI. Verhappen Syncrude Canada Ltd.R. Webb POWER EngineersW. Weidman Parsons Energy & Chemicals GroupJ. Weiss KEMA ConsultingM. Widmeyer Stanford Linear Accelerator CenterC. Williams Eastman Kodak CompanyG. Wood Graeme Wood ConsultingThis page intentionally left blank.——ANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-20037Table of Contents Preface (3)1 Purpose (9)2 Scope (9)3 Definitions (9)4 Article 504 and 505 of the NEC (ANSI/NFPA 70-2002) with explanation (14)5 Guidelines for combinations of apparatus under the entity concept (44)andinspection (46)6 MaintenanceAnnex A — Explanatory notes (49)Annex B — Wiring in hazardous (classified) locations (53)Annex C — Marking for the zone classification system (55)Annex D — References (57)This page intentionally left blank.ANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-2003—9—1 Purpose1.1 This recommended practice is intended to promote the uniform installation of intrinsically safe systems for hazardous (classified) locations. Information is provided to clarify and explain the requirements of Articles 504 and 505 of the National Electrical Code ®(NEC ®) ANSI/NFPA 70. (For further information, see Annex A.)NOTE ⎯ Throughout clause 3 and 4, text that has been excerpted from the National Electrical Code ® (NEC ® ) is distinguished from the main body of text as follows:• NEC® Article 500, 504 and 505 text is shaded and indented at the left and right margins.excerptedNEC®text (such as articles on sealing) is shaded but not indented.• OtherText from the National Electrical Code ® (NEC ®) is reprinted with permission from NFPA 70-2002, the National Electrical Code ®, Copyright© 2001, National Fire Protection Association, Quincy, MA 02269.National Electrical Code ® and NEC ® are registered trademarks of the National Fire Protection Association, Inc., Quincy, MA 02269.1.2 This recommended practice applies to the installation of intrinsically safe systems for use in hazardous (classified) locations.2 Scope2.1 This recommended practice provides guidance to those who design, install, and maintain intrinsically safe systems for hazardous (classified) locations.2.2 This recommended practice should be used in conjunction with nationally recognized codes that cover wiring practices — such as the National Electrical Code ®(NEC ®), ANSI/NFPA 70, and the Canadian Electrical Code (CEC) Part I, CSA C22.1.2.3 This recommended practice is not intended to:a) include guidance for designing, testing, or repairing intrinsically safe or associated apparatus; orb) apply to the use of portable equipment, except as shown on the control drawing.3 DefinitionsFor purposes of this recommended practice, the following definitions apply:3.1 approved:acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction (for additional information, see NEC ® Article 100).3.2 associated apparatus:Associated Apparatus: Apparatus in which the circuits are not necessarily intrinsicallysafe themselves, but that affect the energy in the intrinsically safe circuits and are reliedon to maintain intrinsic safety. Associated apparatus may be either of the following:—10ANSI/ISA-RP12.06.01-2003 —1. Electrical apparatus that has an alternative-type protection for use in the appropriatehazardous (classified) location, or2. Electrical apparatus not so protected that shall not be used within a hazardous(classified) location.FPN No. 1: Associated apparatus has identified intrinsically safe connections forintrinsically safe apparatus and also may have connections for nonintrinsically safeapparatus.FPN No. 2: An example of associated apparatus is an intrinsic safety barrier, which is anetwork designed to limit the energy (voltage and current) available to the protectedcircuit in the hazardous (classified) location, under specified fault conditions.3.3 authority having jurisdiction (AHJ):the organization, office, or individual responsible for approving equipment, materials, an installation, or a procedure.3.4 channel:an ungrounded conductor in a grounded intrinsically safe circuit, or a conductor and its reference in a galvanically isolated intrinsically safe circuit.3.5 controldrawing:Control Drawing: A drawing or other document provided by the manufacturer of theintrinsically safe or associated apparatus, or of the nonincendive field wiring apparatus orassociated nonincendive field wiring apparatus, that details the allowed interconnectionsbetween the intrinsically safe and associated apparatus or between the nonincendivefield wiring apparatus or associated nonincendive field wiring apparatus.3.6 corrective maintenance:any maintenance activity that is not normal in the operation of equipment and requires access to the equipment's interior. Such activities are expected to be performed by qualified personnel who are aware of the hazards involved. Such activities typically include locating causes of faulty performance, replacement of defective components (see 6.2.1), adjustment of internal controls, and the like. Corrective maintenance is referred to simply as maintenance in clause 6.3.7 different intrinsically safe circuits:Different Intrinsically Safe Circuits: Intrinsically safe circuits in which the possibleinterconnections have not been evaluated and identified as intrinsically safe.3.8 entity evaluation:a method used to determine acceptable combinations of intrinsically safe apparatus and connected associated apparatus that have not been investigated in such combination.3.8.1 Entity parameters for intrinsically safe apparatus:C i : Total equivalent internal capacitance of the apparatus that is considered as appearingacross the connection facilities of the apparatus.I i or I max : Maximum current (peak a.c. or d.c.) that can be applied to the connection facilities of theintrinsically safe apparatus circuits without invalidating intrinsic safety. The maximuminput current may be different for different terminals.L i : Total equivalent internal inductance of the apparatus that is considered as appearing across the connection facilities of the apparatus.L i/R i: The maximum value of ratio of inductance to resistance that is considered as appearing across the terminals of the intrinsically safe apparatus.P i: Maximum power in an external intrinsically safe circuit that can be applied to the connection facilities of the apparatus. The maximum input power may be different fordifferent terminals.U i or V max : Maximum voltage (peak a.c. or d.c.) that can be applied to the connection facilities of the apparatus without invalidating the type of protection. The maximum input voltage may bedifferent for different terminals.3.8.2 Entity parameters for associated apparatus:C o or C a : Maximum capacitance in an intrinsically safe circuit that can be connected to theconnection facilities of the apparatus.I o. or I sc : Maximum current (peak a.c. or d.c.) in an intrinsically safe circuit that can be taken fromthe connection facilities of the apparatus.L o or L a : Maximum inductance in an intrinsically safe circuit that can be connected to the connection facilities of the apparatus.L o/R o or L a/R a: The maximum value of ratio of inductance to resistance that may be connected to the intrinsically safe circuit of the associated apparatus.P o : Maximum electrical power in an intrinsically safe circuit that can be taken from the apparatus.U o or V oc : Maximum output voltage (peak a.c. or d.c.) in an intrinsically safe circuit that can appear under open-circuit conditions at the connection facilities of the apparatus.3.8.3 Additional entity parameters for associated apparatus with multiple channels may include the following:I t : The maximum DC or peak AC current that can be drawn from any combination ofterminals of a multiple-channel associated apparatus configuration.V t : The maximum DC or peak AC open circuit voltage that can appear across anycombination of terminals of a multiple-channel associated apparatus configuration.3.9 galvanic isolation:the transfer of electrical power or signal from one circuit to another by means that do not include a direct electrical connection (e.g., through an isolating transformer or optical coupler).3.10 hazardous (classified) location:a location in which fire or explosion hazards may exist due to flammable gases or vapors, flammable liquids, combustible dust, or ignitable fibers or flyings.3.11 identified:Identified (as applied to equipment). Recognizable as suitable for the specificpurpose, function, use, environment, application, and so forth, where described in aparticular Code requirement.FPN: Some examples of ways to determine suitability of equipment for a specificpurpose, environment, or application include investigations by a qualified testinglaboratory (listing and labeling), an inspection agency, or other organizationsconcerned with product evaluation.3.12 intrinsic safety:a type of protection in which a portion of the electrical system contains only intrinsically safe equipment (apparatus, circuits, and wiring) that is incapable of causing ignition in the surrounding atmosphere. No single device or wiring is intrinsically safe by itself (except for battery-operated, self-contained apparatus such as portable pagers, transceivers, gas detectors, etc., which are specifically designed as intrinsically safe, self-contained devices), but is intrinsically safe only when employed in a properly designed intrinsically safe system. Also see "associated apparatus."3.13 intrinsic safety barrier:a network designed to limit the energy (voltage and current) available to the protected circuit in the hazardous (classified) location, under specified fault conditions (see ISA 12.01.01).3.14 intrinsic safety ground system:a grounding system that has a dedicated conductor isolated from the power system, except at one point, so that ground currents will not normally flow, and that is reliably connected to a grounding electrode in accordance with Article 250 of the NEC ®.3.15 intrinsically safe apparatus:Intrinsically Safe Apparatus: Apparatus in which all the circuits are intrinsically safe.3.16 intrinsically safe circuit:Intrinsically Safe Circuit: A circuit in which any spark or thermal effect is incapable ofcausing ignition of a mixture of flammable or combustible material in air under prescribedtest conditions.FPN: Test conditions are described in ANSI/UL 913-1997 Standard for Safety,Intrinsically Safe Apparatus and Associated Apparatus for Use in Class I, II, and III,Division 1, Hazardous (Classified) Locations.3.17 intrinsically safe systems:Intrinsically Safe System: An assembly of interconnected intrinsically safe apparatus,associated apparatus, and interconnecting cables in that those parts of the system thatmay be used in hazardous (classified) locations are intrinsically safe circuits.FPN: An intrinsically safe system may include more than one intrinsically safe circuit.3.18 labeled:equipment or materials to which has been attached a label, symbol, or other identifying mark of an organization that is acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction and concerned with product evaluation, that maintains periodic inspection of production of labeled equipment or materials, and by whose labeling the manufacturer indicates compliance with appropriate standards or performance in a specified manner (for additional information, see NEC ® Article 100).3.19 listed:equipment, materials or services included in a list published by an organization acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction and concerned with evaluation of products or services, that maintains periodic inspection of production of listed equipment or materials or periodic evaluation of services, and whose listing states that the equipment, material or services either meets appropriate designated standards or has been tested and found suitable for a specified purpose. (See NEC ® Article 100.)3.20 qualified person:one who has skills and knowledge related to the construction and operation of the electrical equipment and installations and has received safety training on the hazards involved.3.21 simple apparatus:Simple Apparatus. An electrical component or combination of components of simpleconstruction with well-defined electrical parameters which does not generate more than1.5 volt, 100 milliamps and 25 milliwatts, or a passive component which does notdissipate more than 1.3 watts and which is compatible with the intrinsic safety of thecircuit in which it is used.FPN: The following apparatus are examples of simple apparatus:a) Passive components, for example switches, junction boxes, resistance temperaturedevices and simple semiconductor devices such as LEDs;b) Sources of generated energy, for example thermocouples and photocells, which do notgenerate more than 1.5 V, 100 mA and 25 mW.3.22 unclassified locationsUnclassified Location:Locations determined to be neither Class I, Division 1; Class I, Division 2; Class I,Zone 0; Class I, Zone 1; Class I, Zone 2; Class II, Division 1; Class II, Division 2;Class III, Division 1; Class III, Division 2; or any combination thereof.3.23 wiring drawing:a drawing or other document created by the user based upon the relevant control drawings. The wiring drawing is used by the installer to determine the type, color, and size of the wire used to connect each terminal of the equipment used in the intrinsically safe circuit.4 Article 504 and 505 of the NEC (ANSI/NFPA 70-2002) with explanation504.1 Scope. This article covers the installation of intrinsically safe (I.S.) apparatus,wiring, and systems for Class I, II, and III locations.504.2 Definitions.Associated Apparatus: Apparatus in which the circuits are not necessarily intrinsicallysafe themselves, but that affect the energy in the intrinsically safe circuits and are reliedon to maintain intrinsic safety. Associated apparatus may be either of the following:Intrinsic safety barriers are a common form of associated apparatus. These barriers are connected between the intrinsically safe apparatus and the control equipment. Their primary purpose is to limit the energy to the hazardous location under fault conditions. They may also provide isolation, signal conditioning, or both. There are also many types of associated apparatus that normally are not referred to as intrinsic safety barriers, but have energy-limiting circuits suitable for connection directly to intrinsically safe apparatus. An example of this type of associated apparatus is a controller that is not itself intrinsically safe, but has connections for intrinsically safe sensors.504.3 Application of Other Articles. Except as modified by this article, all applicablearticles of this Code shall apply.Although intrinsically safe circuits are inherently low-energy circuits, they may still be shock hazards because of the operating voltage.Clause 500.7 (E) provides an exception for intrinsically safe apparatus and wiring from the requirements of Articles 501 through 503 and 510 through 516. All other articles of the Code apply to intrinsically safe wiring, except as exempted by specific articles.If the rated voltage of the circuit exceeds 60 volts DC or 30 volts AC, the wiring requirements for Class 3 circuits apply. (See NEC ®Article 725.)Other articles may apply, depending on the functional application — e.g., Article 725 for cables installed in ducts, plenums, risers, and other air-handling spaces, Article 760 for fire protective signaling systems, and Article 800 for communications circuits.504.4 Equipment Approval. All intrinsically safe apparatus and associated apparatusshall be listed.Exception: Simple apparatus, as described on the control drawing, shall not be requiredto be listed.Electrical equipment that is listed or labeled by a nationally recognized testing laboratory (NRTL) normally will be accepted by the AHJ. The AHJ may also accept specialized equipment not listed or labeled by a NRTL, with appropriate technical justification. A written report of the investigation and conclusion should be kept on file, and the markings on the equipment should identify the report. For additional information see NEC 90.7.504.10 Equipment Installation.(A) Control Drawing. Intrinsically safe apparatus, associated apparatus, and otherequipment shall be installed in accordance with the control drawing(s).Exception: A simple apparatus that does not interconnect intrinsically safe circuits.FPN: The control drawing identification is marked on the apparatus.There are three basic types of control drawings:a) Intrinsically safe apparatus and associated apparatus are both specified by manufacturer and modelnumber. (See figure 4.1 for an example.)b) Intrinsically safe apparatus is specified by manufacturer and model number for connection toassociated apparatus specified by entity parameters. (See figures 4.2a and 4.2b for an example.) c) Associated apparatus is specified by manufacturer and model number for connection to intrinsicallysafe apparatus that is specified by entity parameters or to simple apparatus. (See figures 4.3a and4.3b for an example.)Control drawings that are combinations of the above types are also possible. For example, control drawings for intrinsically safe apparatus often specify permissible connections to specific associated apparatus and also specify entity parameters to allow additional flexibility in selecting associated apparatus. (See figure 4.3c for an example.)To ensure that a given interconnection forms an intrinsically safe system, it is necessary to obtain control drawings that specify each intrinsically safe apparatus and associated apparatus to be interconnected. If a control drawing of the type shown in figure 4.1 that correctly describes the interconnection is available, only that control drawing is necessary.If the intrinsic safety of the system is to be based on the comparison of entity parameters, it is necessary to obtain a control drawing for each intrinsically safe apparatus and associated apparatus. Care should be taken to ensure that the entity parameters used in the comparison apply to the specific set(s) of terminals to be interconnected.If the system includes only simple apparatus connected to an associated apparatus, only the associated apparatus control drawing is necessary. Multiple channels of associated apparatus should not be connected to a single simple apparatus unless specifically permitted by the control drawing.Frequently, the user creates a wiring drawing based on the control drawings provided by the manufacturers of the intrinsically safe apparatus and associated apparatus or other specification sheets that provide information such as terminal identification.NOTE — Figures 4.1, 4.2a, 4.2b, 4.3a, 4.3b and 4.3.c were provided by the SP12.02 subcommittee.Figure 4.1 — Example of a control drawing for an intrinsically safe systemFigure 4.2a — Example of a control drawing for an intrinsically safe apparatus with entity parameters for Division 1 and Zone 0Figure 4.2b— Example of control drawing for an intrinsically safe apparatus with entity parameters for Zone 1Figure 4.3a — Example of a control drawing for an associated apparatus with entity parameters for Division 1 and Zone 0。
________________________________________________ Session S3C MINORITY ENGINEERING PROGRAM C
________________________________________________ 1Joseph E. Urban, Arizona State University, Department of Computer Science and Engineering, P.O. Box 875406, Tempe, Arizona, 85287-5406, joseph.urban@ 2Maria A. Reyes, Arizona State University, College of Engineering and Applied Sciences, Po Box 874521, Tempe, Arizona 852189-955, maria@ 3Mary R. Anderson-Rowland, Arizona State University, College of Engineering and Applied Sciences, P.O. Box 875506, Tempe, Arizona 85287-5506, mary.Anderson@MINORITY ENGINEERING PROGRAM COMPUTER BASICS WITH AVISIONJoseph E. Urban 1, Maria A. Reyes 2, and Mary R. Anderson-Rowland 3Abstract - Basic computer skills are necessary for success in an undergraduate engineering degree program. Students who lack basic computer skills are immediately at risk when entering the university campus. This paper describes a one semester, one unit course that provided basic computer skills to minority engineering students during the Fall semester of 2001. Computer applications and software development were the primary topics covered in the course that are discussed in this paper. In addition, there is a description of the manner in which the course was conducted. The paper concludes with an evaluation of the effort and future directions.Index Terms - Minority, Freshmen, Computer SkillsI NTRODUCTIONEntering engineering freshmen are assumed to have basic computer skills. These skills include, at a minimum, word processing, sending and receiving emails, using spreadsheets, and accessing and searching the Internet. Some entering freshmen, however, have had little or no experience with computers. Their home did not have a computer and access to a computer at their school may have been very limited. Many of these students are underrepresented minority students. This situation provided the basis for the development of a unique course for minority engineering students. The pilot course described here represents a work in progress that helped enough of the students that there is a basis to continue to improve the course.It is well known that, in general, enrollment, retention, and graduation rates for underrepresented minority engineering students are lower than for others in engineering, computer science, and construction management. For this reason the Office of Minority Engineering Programs (OMEP, which includes the Minority Engineering Program (MEP) and the outreach program Mathematics, Engineering, Science Achievement (MESA)) in the College of Engineering and Applied Sciences (CEAS) at Arizona State University (ASU) was reestablished in 1993to increase the enrollment, retention, and graduation of these underrepresented minority students. Undergraduate underrepresented minority enrollment has increased from 400 students in Fall 1992 to 752 students in Fall 2001 [1]. Retention has also increased during this time, largely due to a highly successful Minority Engineering Bridge Program conducted for two weeks during the summer before matriculation to the college [2] - [4]. These Bridge students were further supported with a two-unit Academic Success class during their first semester. This class included study skills, time management, and concept building for their mathematics class [5]. The underrepresented minority students in the CEAS were also supported through student chapters of the American Indian Science and Engineering Society (AISES), the National Society of Black Engineers (NSBE), and the Society of Hispanic Professional Engineers (SHPE). The students received additional support from a model collaboration within the minority engineering student societies (CEMS) and later expanded to CEMS/SWE with the addition of the student chapter of the Society of Women Engineers (SWE) [6]. However, one problem still persisted: many of these same students found that they were lacking in the basic computer skills expected of them in the Introduction to Engineering course, as well as introductory computer science courses.Therefore, during the Fall 2001 Semester an MEP Computer Basics pilot course was offered. Nineteen underrepresented students took this one-unit course conducted weekly. Most of the students were also in the two-unit Academic Success class. The students, taught by a Computer Science professor, learned computer basics, including the sending and receiving of email, word processing, spreadsheets, sending files, algorithm development, design reviews, group communication, and web page development. The students were also given a vision of advanced computer science courses and engineering and of computing careers.An evaluation of the course was conducted through a short evaluation done by each of five teams at the end of each class, as well as the end of semester student evaluations of the course and the instructor. This paper describes theclass, the students, the course activities, and an assessment of the short-term overall success of the effort.M INORITY E NGINEERING P ROGRAMSThe OMEP works actively to recruit, to retain, and to graduate historically underrepresented students in the college. This is done through targeted programs in the K-12 system and at the university level [7], [8]. The retention aspects of the program are delivered through the Minority Engineering Program (MEP), which has a dedicated program coordinator. Although the focus of the retention initiatives is centered on the disciplines in engineering, the MEP works with retention initiatives and programs campus wide.The student’s efforts to work across disciplines and collaborate with other culturally based organizations give them the opportunity to work with their peers. At ASU the result was the creation of culturally based coalitions. Some of these coalitions include the American Indian Council, El Concilio – a coalition of Hispanic student organizations, and the Black & African Coalition. The students’ efforts are significant because they are mirrored at the program/staff level. As a result, significant collaboration of programs that serve minority students occurs bringing continuity to the students.It is through a collaboration effort that the MEP works closely with other campus programs that serve minority students such as: Math/Science Honors Program, Hispanic Mother/Daughter Program, Native American Achievement Program, Phoenix Union High School District Partnership Program, and the American Indian Institute. In particular, the MEP office had a focus on the retention and success of the Native American students in the College. This was due in large part to the outreach efforts of the OMEP, which are channeled through the MESA Program. The ASU MESA Program works very closely with constituents on the Navajo Nation and the San Carlos Apache Indian Reservation. It was through the MESA Program and working with the other campus support programs that the CEAS began investigating the success of the Native American students in the College. It was a discovery process that was not very positive. Through a cohort investigation that was initiated by the Associate Dean of Student Affairs, it was found that the retention rate of the Native American students in the CEAS was significantly lower than the rate of other minority populations within the College.In the spring of 2000, the OMEP and the CEAS Associate Dean of Student Affairs called a meeting with other Native American support programs from across the campus. In attendance were representatives from the American Indian Institute, the Native American Achievement Program, the Math/Science Honors Program, the Assistant Dean of Student Life, who works with the student coalitions, and the Counselor to the ASU President on American Indian Affairs, Peterson Zah. It was throughthis dialogue that many issues surrounding student success and retention were discussed. Although the issues andconcerns of each participant were very serious, the positiveeffect of the collaboration should be mentioned and noted. One of the many issues discussed was a general reality that ahigh number of Native American students were c oming to the university with minimal exposure to technology. Even through the efforts in the MESA program to expose studentsto technology and related careers, in most cases the schoolsin their local areas either lacked connectivity or basic hardware. In other cases, where students had availability to technology, they lacked teachers with the skills to help them in their endeavors to learn about it. Some students were entering the university with the intention to purse degrees in the Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) areas, but were ill prepared in the skills to utilize technology as a tool. This was particularly disturbing in the areas of Computer Science and Computer Systems Engineering where the basic entry-level course expected students to have a general knowledge of computers and applications. The result was evident in the cohort study. Students were failing the entry-level courses of CSE 100 (Principals of Programming with C++) or CSE 110 (Principals of Programming with Java) and CSE 200 (Concepts of Computer Science) that has the equivalent of CSE 100 or CSE 110 as a prerequisite. The students were also reporting difficulty with ECE 100, (Introduction to Engineering Design) due to a lack of assumed computer skills. During the discussion, it became evident that assistance in the area of technology skill development would be of significance to some students in CEAS.The MEP had been offering a seminar course inAcademic Success – ASE 194. This two-credit coursecovered topics in study skills, personal development, academic culture issues and professional development. The course was targeted to historically underrepresented minority students who were in the CEAS [3]. It was proposed by the MEP and the Associate Dean of Student Affairs to add a one-credit option to the ASE 194 course that would focus entirely on preparing students in the use of technology.A C OMPUTERB ASICSC OURSEThe course, ASE 194 – MEP Computer Basics, was offered during the Fall 2001 semester as a one-unit class that met on Friday afternoons from 3:40 pm to 4:30 pm. The course was originally intended for entering computer science students who had little or no background using computer applications or developing computer programs. However, enrollment was open to non-computer science students who subsequently took advantage of the opportunity. The course was offered in a computer-mediated classroom, which meantthat lectures, in- class activities, and examinations could all be administered on comp uters.During course development prior to the start of the semester, the faculty member did some analysis of existing courses at other universities that are used by students to assimilate computing technology. In addition, he did a review of the comp uter applications that were expected of the students in the courses found in most freshman engineering programs.The weekly class meetings consisted of lectures, group quizzes, accessing computer applications, and group activities. The lectures covered hardware, software, and system topics with an emphasis on software development [9]. The primary goals of the course were twofold. Firstly, the students needed to achieve a familiarity with using the computer applications that would be expected in the freshman engineering courses. Secondly, the students were to get a vision of the type of activities that would be expected during the upper division courses in computer science and computer systems engineering and later in the computer industry.Initially, there were twenty-two students in the course, which consisted of sixteen freshmen, five sophomores, and one junior. One student, a nursing freshman, withdrew early on and never attended the course. Of the remaining twenty-one students, there were seven students who had no degree program preference; of which six students now are declared in engineering degree programs and the seventh student remains undecided. The degree programs of the twenty-one students after completion of the course are ten in the computing degree programs with four in computer science and six in computer systems engineering. The remaining nine students includes one student in social work, one student is not decided, and the rest are widely distributed over the College with two students in the civil engineering program and one student each in bioengineering, electrical engineering, industrial engineering, material science & engineering, and mechanical engineering.These student degree program demographics presented a challenge to maintain interest for the non-computing degree program students when covering the software development topics. Conversely, the computer science and computer systems engineering students needed motivation when covering applications. This balance was maintained for the most part by developing an understanding that each could help the other in the long run by working together.The computer applications covered during the semester included e-mail, word processing, web searching, and spreadsheets. The original plan included the use of databases, but that was not possible due to the time limitation of one hour per week. The software development aspects included discussion of software requirements through specification, design, coding, and testing. The emphasis was on algorithm development and design review. The course grade was composed of twenty-five percent each for homework, class participation, midterm examination, and final examination. An example of a homework assignment involved searching the web in a manner that was more complex than a simple search. In order to submit the assignment, each student just had to send an email message to the faculty member with the information requested below. The email message must be sent from a student email address so that a reply can be sent by email. Included in the body of the email message was to be an answer for each item below and the URLs that were used for determining each answer: expected high temperature in Centigrade on September 6, 2001 for Lafayette, LA; conversion of one US Dollar to Peruvian Nuevo Sols and then those converted Peruvian Nuevo Sols to Polish Zlotys and then those converted Polish Zlotys to US Dollars; birth date and birth place of the current US Secretary of State; between now and Thursday, September 6, 2001 at 5:00 pm the expected and actual arrival times for any US domestic flight that is not departing or arriving to Phoenix, AZ; and your favorite web site and why the web site is your favorite. With the exception of the favorite web site, each item required either multiple sites or multiple levels to search. The identification of the favorite web site was introduced for comparison purposes later in the semester.The midterm and final examinations were composed of problems that built on the in-class and homework activities. Both examinations required the use of computers in the classroom. The submission of a completed examination was much like the homework assignments as an e-mail message with attachments. This approach of electronic submission worked well for reinforcing the use of computers for course deliverables, date / time stamping of completed activities, and a means for delivering graded results. The current technology leaves much to be desired for marking up a document in the traditional sense of hand grading an assignment or examination. However, the students and faculty member worked well with this form of response. More importantly, a major problem occurred after the completion of the final examination. One of the students, through an accident, submitted the executable part of a browser as an attachment, which brought the e-mail system to such a degraded state that grading was impossible until the problem was corrected. An ftp drop box would be simple solution in order to avoid this type of accident in the future until another solution is found for the e-mail system.In order to get students to work together on various aspects of the course, there was a group quiz and assignment component that was added about midway through the course. The group activities did not count towards the final grade, however the students were promised an award for the group that scored the highest number of points.There were two group quizzes on algorithm development and one out-of-class group assignment. The assignment was a group effort in website development. This assignment involved the development of a website that instructs. The conceptual functionality the group selected for theassignment was to be described in a one-page typed double spaced written report by November 9, 2001. During the November 30, 2001 class, each group presented to the rest of the class a prototype of what the website would look like to the end user. The reports and prototypes were subject to approval and/or refinement. Group members were expected to perform at approximately an equal amount of effort. There were five groups with four members in four groups and three members in one group that were randomly determined in class. Each group had one or more students in the computer science or computer systems engineering degree programs.The three group activities were graded on a basis of one million points. This amount of points was interesting from the standpoint of understanding relative value. There was one group elated over earning 600,000 points on the first quiz until the group found out that was the lowest score. In searching for the group award, the faculty member sought a computer circuit board in order to retrieve chips for each member of the best group. During the search, a staff member pointed out another staff member who salvages computers for the College. This second staff member obtained defective parts for each student in the class. The result was that each m ember of the highest scoring group received a motherboard, in other words, most of the internals that form a complete PC. All the other students received central processing units. Although these “awards” were defective parts, the students viewed these items as display artifacts that could be kept throughout their careers.C OURSE E VALUATIONOn a weekly basis, there were small assessments that were made about the progress of the course. One student was selected from each team to answer three questions about the activities of the day: “What was the most important topic covered today?”, “What topic covered was the ‘muddiest’?”, and “About what topic would you like to know more?”, as well as the opportunity to provide “Other comments.” Typically, the muddiest topic was the one introduced at the end of a class period and to be later elaborated on in the next class. By collecting these evaluation each class period, the instructor was able to keep a pulse on the class, to answer questions, to elaborate on areas considered “muddy” by the students, and to discuss, as time allowed, topics about which the students wished to know more.The overall course evaluation was quite good. Nineteen of the 21 students completed a course evaluation. A five-point scale w as used to evaluate aspects of the course and the instructor. An A was “very good,” a B was “good,” a C was “fair,” a D was “poor,” and an E was “not applicable.” The mean ranking was 4.35 on the course. An average ranking of 4.57, the highest for the s even criteria on the course in general, was for “Testbook/ supplementary material in support of the course.” The “Definition and application of criteria for grading” received the next highest marks in the course category with an average of 4.44. The lowest evaluation of the seven criteria for the course was a 4.17 for “Value of assigned homework in support of the course topics.”The mean student ranking of the instructor was 4.47. Of the nine criteria for the instructor, the highest ranking of 4.89 was “The instructor exhibited enthusiasm for and interest in the subject.” Given the nature and purpose of this course, this is a very meaningful measure of the success of the course. “The instructor was well prepared” was also judged high with a mean rank of 4.67. Two other important aspects of this course, “The instructor’s approach stimulated student thinking” and “The instructor related course material to its application” were ranked at 4.56 and 4.50, respectively. The lowest average rank of 4.11 was for “The instructor or assistants were available for outside assistance.” The instructor keep posted office hours, but there was not an assistant for the course.The “Overall quality of the course and instruction” received an average rank of 4.39 and “How do you rate yourself as a student in this course?” received an average rank of 4.35. Only a few of the students responded to the number of hours per week that they studies for the course. All of the students reported attending at least 70% of the time and 75% of the students said that they attended over 90% of the time. The students’ estimate seemed to be accurate.A common comment from the student evaluations was that “the professor was a fun teacher, made class fun, and explained everything well.” A common complaint was that the class was taught late (3:40 to 4:30) on a Friday. Some students judged the class to be an easy class that taught some basics about computers; other students did not think that there was enough time to cover all o f the topics. These opposite reactions make sense when we recall that the students were a broad mix of degree programs and of basic computer abilities. Similarly, some students liked that the class projects “were not overwhelming,” while other students thought that there was too little time to learn too much and too much work was required for a one credit class. Several students expressed that they wished the course could have been longer because they wanted to learn more about the general topics in the course. The instructor was judged to be a good role model by the students. This matched the pleasure that the instructor had with this class. He thoroughly enjoyed working with the students.A SSESSMENTS A ND C ONCLUSIONSNear the end of the Spring 2002 semester, a follow-up survey that consisted of three questions was sent to the students from the Fall 2001 semester computer basics course. These questions were: “Which CSE course(s) wereyou enrolled in this semester?; How did ASE 194 - Computer Basi cs help you in your coursework this semester?; and What else should be covered that we did not cover in the course?”. There were eight students who responded to the follow-up survey. Only one of these eight students had enrolled in a CSE course. There was consistency that the computer basics course helped in terms of being able to use computer applications in courses, as well as understanding concepts of computing. Many of the students asked for shortcuts in using the word processing and spreadsheet applications. A more detailed analysis of the survey results will be used for enhancements to the next offering of the computer basics course. During the Spring 2002 semester, there was another set of eight students from the Fall 2001 semester computer basi cs course who enrolled in one on the next possible computer science courses mentioned earlier, CSE 110 or CSE 200. The grade distribution among these students was one grade of A, four grades of B, two withdrawals, and one grade of D. The two withdrawals appear to be consistent with concerns in the other courses. The one grade of D was unique in that the student was enrolled in a CSE course concurrently with the computer basics course, contrary to the advice of the MEP program. Those students who were not enrolled in a computer science course during the Spring 2002 semester will be tracked through the future semesters. The results of the follow-up survey and computer science course grade analysis will provide a foundation for enhancements to the computer basics course that is planned to be offered again during the Fall 2002 semester.S UMMARY A ND F UTURE D IRECTIONSThis paper described a computer basics course. In general, the course was considered to be a success. The true evaluation of this course will be measured as we do follow-up studies of these students to determine how they fare in subsequent courses that require basic computer skills. Future offerings of the course are expected to address non-standard computing devices, such as robots as a means to inspire the students to excel in the computing field.R EFERENCES[1] Office of Institutional Analysis, Arizona State UniversityEnro llment Summary, Fall Semester , 1992-2001, Tempe,Arizona.[2] Reyes, Maria A., Gotes, Maria Amparo, McNeill, Barry,Anderson-Rowland, Mary R., “MEP Summer Bridge Program: A Model Curriculum Project,” 1999 Proceedings, American Society for Engineering Education, Charlotte, North Carolina, June 1999, CD-ROM, 8 pages.[3] Reyes, Maria A., Anderson-Rowland, Mary R., andMcCartney, Mary Ann, “Learning from our MinorityEngineering Students: Improving Retention,” 2000Proceedings, American Society for Engineering Education,St. Louis, Missouri, June 2000, Session 2470, CD-ROM, 10pages.[4] Adair, Jennifer K,, Reyes, Maria A., Anderson-Rowland,Mary R., McNeill, Barry W., “An Education/BusinessPartnership: ASU’s Minority Engineering Program and theTempe Chamber of Commerce,” 2001 Proceeding, AmericanSociety for Engineering Education, Albuquerque, NewMexico, June 2001, CD-ROM, 9 pages.[5] Adair, Jennifer K., Reyes, Maria A., Anderson-Rowland,Mary R., Kouris, Demitris A., “Workshops vs. Tutoring:How ASU’s Minority Engineering Program is Changing theWay Engineering Students Learn, “ Frontiers in Education’01 Conference Proceedings, Reno, Nevada, October 2001,CD-ROM, pp. T4G-7 – T4G-11.[6] Reyes, Maria A., Anderson-Rowland, Mary R., Fletcher,Shawna L., and McCartney, Mary Ann, “ModelCollaboration within Minority Engineering StudentSocieties,” 2000 Proceedings, American Society forEngineering Education, St. Louis, Missouri, June 2000, CD-ROM, 8 pages.[7] Anderson-Rowland, Mary R., Blaisdell, Stephanie L.,Fletcher, Shawna, Fussell, Peggy A., Jordan, Cathryne,McCartney, Mary Ann, Reyes, Maria A., and White, Mary,“A Comprehensive Programmatic Approach to Recruitmentand Retention in the College of Engineering and AppliedSciences,” Frontiers in Education ’99 ConferenceProceedings, San Juan, Puerto Rico, November 1999, CD-ROM, pp. 12a7-6 – 12a7-13.[8] Anderson-Rowland, Mary R., Blaisdell, Stephanie L.,Fletcher, Shawna L., Fussell, Peggy A., McCartney, MaryAnn, Reyes, Maria A., and White, Mary Aleta, “ACollaborative Effort to Recruit and Retain UnderrepresentedEngineering Students,” Journal of Women and Minorities inScience and Engineering, vol.5, pp. 323-349, 1999.[9] Pfleeger, S. L., Software Engineering: Theory and Practice,Prentice-Hall, Inc., Upper Saddle River, NJ, 1998.。
国家留学基金委指定英语培训统考英语样题
考试注意事项整个试卷共120题,听力部分有30道题,长度约25分钟,该部分结束后立即开始语法词汇部分,然后是填充部分和阅读部分。
这三部分时间统用,共80分钟。
听力录音长度约21分钟,共30题,其中10题有惩罚措施:做对得1分,做错扣0.5分。
因此建议:不要做没有把握的题。
阅读部分中第111-120题亦有惩罚措施:做对得1分;做错扣1分。
请先下载听力试题的声音文件(MP3格式)。
按鼠标右键,用―目标另存为...‖将声音文件下载到硬盘上,然后用相关软件播放。
试题的标准答案附在最后。
请自己核对答案。
最终成绩的换算表:Part I Listening Comprehension (听力理解) 每个正确答案乘以 1Part II Grammar and Vocabulary (语法、词汇) 每个正确答案乘以 0.6Part III Cloze (填充) 每个正确答案乘以 0.8Part IV Reading Comprehension (阅读理解) 每个正确答案乘以 1四项换算后的成绩之和为总分。
满分为100分。
录取等级参考标准如下:高级班:65分以上中级班:50-64分准中级班:35-49分基础班:20-34分Part I Listening ComprehensionSection ADirections :In this section, you will hear 10 short statements. The statements will be spoken just once. They will not be written out for you, and you must listen carefully in order to understand what the speaker says.When you hear a statement, you will have a period of 15 to 20 seconds to read the four sentences in your test book and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer by drawing with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets.Listen to the following example:You will hear:You will read:[A] He's been living in Beijing for a long time.[B] He used to live in Beijing.[C] He's gone to Beijing for a short visit.[D] He should stay longer in Beijing,Sentence [B] "He used to live in Beijing" is closest in meaning to the statement "He is no longer living in Beijing." Therefore you should choose answer [B].1. [A] Tom is riding a bike.[B] The bike is upside down.[C] Tom is repairing the bike.[D] Tom is cleaning his bike.2. [A] Professor Graff doesn't usually write on the blackboard.[B] Students are rarely bored in Professor Grafts class.[C] The professor uses graphs when she lectures.[D] Students in the graphic arts course don't take notes.3. [A] They are with them.[B] It is with them.[C] They are with her.[D] He is with her.4. [A] I passed the test because I studied hard.[B] I won't do well on the test if I don't study.[C] I failed the test because I didn't study enough.[D] I'll study hard so I can pass the test.5. [A] How long is the school term?[B] Why did you turn over the stool?[C] I wish I know how to get to the dormitory.[D] I want the term to end soon.6. [A] The boat owner must be rich.[B] This man must be the owner.[C] Those men are both rich.[D] The boat has a monkey on it.7. [A] Alice answered Jean's question.[B] Alice allowed Jean to respond.[C] Jean's response was questionable.[D] Alice accepted the answer.8.[A] Bob bought a new pair of sandals.[B] Bob's sandals were fixed.[C] The shoemaker only made sandals.[D] The shoemaker wore sandals.9.[A] We have to go to a party after work.[B] We are going to have a party when the house has been painted.[C] We went to a huge party after the house was painted.[D] We'll go to the party if the house is painted.10. [A] They read about the invention in the news report.[B] The inventor wrote an interesting news report.[C] A reporter asked the inventor some questions.[D] The reporter was watching the news.Section BDirections:In this section you will hear 10 short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. You will hear the question only once. When you have heard the question, you will have a period of 15 to 20 seconds to read the four possible answers marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] and decide which is the best answer. Mark your answer on the answer sheet by drawing with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets.Example :You will hear:'You will read:[A] At the office.[B] On his way to work.[C] Home in bed.[D] Away on vacation.From the conversation, we know that Bill is sick and will have to stay in bed until Monday. The best answer, then, is [C] "Home in bed." Therefore, you should choose answer [C].11. [A] On the steps.[B] By the window.[C] At s store.[D]In a bank.12. [A] It's almost time for lunch.[B] Only a few strawberries will be eaten at lunch.[C] There are just enough strawberries for lunch.[D] There won't be many people for lunch.13.[A] No one knows how Mary gets to work.[B] It's surprising that Mary could repair the record player.[C] She threw the old records away.[D] She doesn't think the record player works.14. [A] In a railroad station.[B] In a bus terminal.[C] In a restaurant.[D] In a hotel room.15. [A] At the information desk.[B] On the platform.[C] On the train.[D] Near the stairs.16. [A] Eighteen.[B] Nineteen.[C] Twenty.[D] Twenty-eight.17. [A] He gave homework.[B] He prepared a test.[C] He opened the book to page 20.[D] He went to the cinema.18. [A] He doesn't understand the question.[B] He will definitely not lend her the money.[C] He will lend her the money.[D] He might lend her the money.19. [A] She lost her money.[B] The price of postage went up.[C] She didn't know where the post office.[D] The post office was closed today.20. [A] Zero.[B] One.[C]Two.[D] Three.Section CDirections :In this section you will hear several brief talks and/or conversations. You will hear them once only. After each one, you will hear some questions. You will hear each question once only. After you hear the question, you will have 1 5 to 20 seconds to choose the best answer from the four choices given. Mark your answer on the answer sheet by drawing with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets.21. [A] A person's character.[B] A person's voice characteristics.[C] A person's health.[D] A person's profession.22. [A] The strength of the speaker.[B] The force of air that comes from the lungs.[C] The weight of the speaker.[D] The height of the speaker.23. [A] The highness or lowness of sounds.[B] The loudness of sounds.[C] The force of sounds.[D] The speed of sounds.24. [A] The Student Activities Office will open.[B] Seniors will measure their heads.[C] Students will order new school hats.[D] Seniors will graduate.25. [A] All students[B] All seniors[C] All graduating seniors[D] All faculty26. [A] What kind of ceremony there will be[B] How to order the graduation outfit[C] How much to pay for the clothes[D] Where to go for graduation27. [A] Rent them[B] Buy them[C] Clean them[D] Measure them28. [A] Michael Jackson.[B] Muhammad Ali[C] A very famous actor.[D] A very famous and powerful president.29. [A] He was a gold medal winner in Olympics.[B] He is the younger brother of Michael Jackson.[C] He had some influence on the president of the U.S.[D] He is quite popular with the American young people today.30. [A] They usually don't live long.[B] They usually are quickly forgotten by the public.[C] They don't know where to hide themselves.[D] They are usually very fat.Part II Grammatical Structure and Vocabulary(30 minutes )Section ADirections :There are 10 sentences in this section. Beneath each sentence there are 4 words or phrases marked [A], [B], [C] and [D]. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Mark your answer on the answer sheet by drawing with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets.Example: I have been to the Great Wall three times ___ 1979.[A] from[B] after[C] for[D] sinceThe sentence should read, "I have been to the Great Wall three times since 1979." Therefore you should choose [D].31. Those foreign visitors look very ____.[A] smartly[B] wildly[C] like friends[D] friendly32.It ____ every day so far this month.[A] is raining[B] rains[C] has rained[D] rained33. James has just arrived, but I didn't know he ____ until yesterday.[A] will come[B] was coming[C] had been coming[D] came34. She ought to ___ my letter a week ago. But she was busy with her work.[A] have answered[B] answering[C] answer[D] be answered35. The house ____ windows are broken is unoccupied.[A] its[B] whose[C] which[D] those36. _____ of gold in California caused many people to travel west in hope of becoming rich.[A] The discovering[B] To discover[C] The discovery[D] On discovering37. _____ the Wright brothers successfully flew their airplane.[A] The century was beginning[B] It was the beginning of the century[C] At the beginning of the century[D] The beginning of the century38. After a brief visit to New Orleans,____.[A] returning to New York and beginning to write his greatest poetry did Walt . Whitman.[B] Walt Whitman returned to New York and began to write his greatest poetry.[C] Walt Whitman was writing his greatest poetry when he returned to New York.[D] having returned to New York Walt Whitman wrote his greatest poetry.39. We wish that you ____ such a lot of work , because we know that you would have enjoyed theparty.[A] hadn't had[B] hadn't[C] didn't have had[D] hadn't have40. Since your roommate is visiting her family this weekend, why_____ you have dinner with ustonight[A] will[B] won't[C]do[D] don'tSection BDirections :There are 10 sentences in this section. Each sentence has four parts underlined. The four underlined parts are marked [A], [B], [C] and [D]. Identify the one underlined part that is wrong. Mark your answer on the answer sheet by drawing with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets.Example:A number of foreign visitors were taken to the industrial exhibition which they sawA B C Dmany new products.Answer [C] is wrong because the sentence should read, "A number of foreign visitors were taken to the industrial exhibition where they saw many new products." So you should choose[C].41. Thomas is most excellent in the family.A B C D42. By 1642 all towns in the colony of Massachusetts was required by law to have schools.A B C D43. Both moths and butterflies have a keen sense of sight, smell, and tasting.A B C D44.The plane took off after holding up for hours by fog.A B C D45. Smith sold most of his belongings. He has hardly nothing left in the house.A B C D46. The reason why I decided to come here is because this university has a goodA B CDepartment of English.D47.If he would have finished his paper a little sooner, he would have graduated this term.A B C D48. Most experts agree that there have never been such an exciting series ofA B Cbreakthroughs in the search for a cancer cure as we have seen recently.D49. If one does not have respect for himself, you cannot expect others to respect him.A B C D50. The South is mostly Democrat politically, when the North has both DemocratsA B C Dand Republicans.Section CDirections:There are 20 sentences in this section. Each sentence has a word or phrase underlined. There are four words or phrases beneath each sentence. Choose the one word or phrase which would best keep the meaning of the original sentence if it were substituted for the underlined part. Mark your choice on the answer sheet by drawing with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets.Example: The initial step is often the most difficult.[A] quickest[B] longest[C] last[D] firstThe best answer is [D] because "first" has the same meaning as "initial" in the sentence. Therefore you should choose [D].51. The initial talks were the base of the later agreement.[A] first[B] quickest[C] last[D] longest52. She is quiet and pious at church in the morning but gossips all afternoon.[A]gentle[B] smiling[C]joyful[D] devout53. The weatherman said, "It will be chilly this afternoon."[A] wet[B] turbid[C] hot[D] cold54. He walked to his bedroom cautiously because he heard strange sounds in it.[A] happily[B] carefully[C] curiously[D] noisily55. Apparently she never got my letter after all.[A] Evidently[B] Disappointedly[C] Luckily[D] Anxiously56. Placing tags on ducks and geese as they migrate is one method of studying the behavior of birds.[A] sleep for winter[B] move from one place to another[C] flee their enemies[D] search for food57. In September, 1835, Darwin's vessel arrived at the Galapagos Islands.[A] assistant[B] cargo[C] ship[D] gun58. Movie studios often boost a new star with guest appearances on television talk shows.[A] attack[B] watch[C] denounce[D] promote59. When products advertise extensively on television, they are often ridiculously overpriced.[A] inexpensive[B] costly[C] valueless[D] overabundant60. John and his brother have entirely different temperaments.[A] likings[B] dispositions[C] tastes[D] objectives61. Seeds are contained in the center of fleshy fruit such as apples and pears.[A] core[B] focus[C] nucleus[D] median62. One of the responsibilities of a forest ranger is to drive slowly through the area in search of animals in distress.[A] cruise[B] tiptoe[C] skid[D] mare63. Mrs. Palmer was offended by the clerk's mean remark.[A] tasty[B] nasty[C] misty[D] musty64. Most recipients of the peace prize are given the award in person, but sometimes the award is givenposthumously.[A] when the person is out of the country[B] after the person has died[C] to political prisoners[D] by mail65. Seeing the Grand Canyon from the air is a sight to behold.[A] hold upon[B] remember[C] anticipate[D] gaze upon66: Mythical creatures have been a part of the folklore of many cultures throughout the centuries.[A] Appealing[B] Magical[C] Legendary[D] Fighting67. Everyone would like a panacea for health problems.[A] protection against[B] advice for[C] a cure-all for[D] a decrease in68. In the fall it is gratifying to see stalks of wheat ready for harvest.[A] terrifying[B] satisfying[C] surprising[D] relaxing69. A bad winter storm can paralyse an urban area.[A] immobilise[B] evacuate[C] isolate[D] stabilise70. Even though he was obese, Oliver Hardy gained fame as a comedian.[A] dying[B] crazy[C] unhappy[D]fatPart III ClozeDirections: For each blank in the following passage, choose the best answer from the choices in the column on the right. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and draw a short bar across the corresponding letter.There is a lot of luck in the drilling foroil. The [71] may just miss the oil although it is near;[72], it may strike oil at a fairly high[73]. When the drill goes down, itbrings [74] soil. The sample of soil from various depths areexamined for traces of [75]. If they are disappointed at one place, thedrillers go to [76]. Great sums ofmoney [77] spent, for example in the deserts of Egypt, in ‗prospecting‘ for oil. Sometimes[78] is found. When you buy a few gallons of petrol for our cars, we pay not only the [79] of the petrol, but also part of the cost if the search that 71.[A] time[B] man[C] drill[D] plan72. [A] at last[B] in the end[C] as a result[D] on the other hand73. [A] level[B] time[C] place[D] price74. [A] down[B] up[C] on[D] in75. [A] sand[B] water[C] oil[D] gas76. [A] another[B] the other[C] others[D] one another77. [A] are[B] is[C] has been[D] have been78. [A] a little[B] little[C] a few[D] few79. [A] amount[B] price[C] cost[D] drilling北京语言大学出国人员培训部/入学考试样题/2013is [ 80 ] going on.When the crude oil is obtained from the field, it is taken to the refineries.[ 81 ].The commonestform of treatment is [ 82 ]. When the oil is heated, the first vapours[ 83 ] are cooled and become the finest petrol. Petrol has a lowboiling[ 84 ]; if a little is poured into the hand, it soon vaporizes.Gas that comes off the [ 85 ] lateris condensed into paraffin. [ 86 ] the lubricating oils of variousgrades are produced. What [ 87 ] is heavy oil that is used as fuel.There are four main areas ofthe world [ 88 ] deposits of oil appear.The first is [ 89 ] of the Middle East.Another is thearea [ 90 ] North and South America, and the third, between Asia and Australia. The fourth area is the part near the North Pole. 80. [A] often[B] frequently[C] busily[D] always81. [A] to be treated[B] to treat[C] for treatment[D] for treating82. [A] heated[B] to be heated[C] to heat[D] heating83. [A] to rise[B] rises[C] rising[D] risen84. [A] level[B] place[C] point[D] degree85. [A] ground[B] air[C] oil[D] water86. [A] Then[B] Last of all[C] Afterwards[D] Lately87. [A] remains[B] remain[C] remained[D] remaining88. [A] there[B] which[C] that[D] where89. [A] the one[B] one[C] that[D] this90. [A] between[B] among[C] above[D] belowPart IV Reading Comprehension(40 minutes)Directions:In this part there are passages followed by questions or unfinished statements, each with four suggested answers. Choose the one you think is the best answer. Mark your choice on the answer sheet by drawing with a pencil a short bar across the corresponding letter in the brackets. Questions 91-94 are based on the following passage:The fiddler crab is a living clock. It indicates the time of day by the color of its skin, which is dark by day and pale by night. The crab's changing skin color follows a regular 24-hour cycle that exactly matches the daily rhythm of the sun.Does the crab actually keep time, or does its skin simply respond to the sun's rays, changing color according to the amount of light that strikes it? To find out, biologists kept crabs in a dark room for two months. Even without daylight the crab's skin color continued to change precisely on schedule.This characteristic probably evolved in response to the rhythm of the sun, to help protect the crab from sunlight and enemies. After millions of years it has become completely regulated inside the living body of the crab.The biologists noticed that once each day the color of the fiddler crab is especially dark, and that each day this occurs fifty minutes later than on the day before. From this they discovered that each crab follows not only the rhythm of the sun but also that of the tides. The crab's period of greatest darkening is precisely the time of low tide on the beach where it was caught!91. The fiddler crab is like a clock because it changes color[A] in a regular 24-hour rhythm.[B] in response to the sun's rays.[C] at low tide.[D] every fifty minutes.92. The crab's changing color[A] tells the crab what time it is.[B] protects the crab from the sunlight and enemies.[C] keeps the crab warm.[D] is of no real use.93. When the fiddler crabs were kept in the dark, they[A] did not change color.[B] changed color more quickly.[C] changed color more slowly.[D] changed color on the same schedule.94. The best title for the passage is[A] The Rhythmic Cycles of the Sun and Tide[B] Discoveries in Biology[C] A Scientific Study[D] A living ClockThere is another example of the revolution in railway signaling and safety measures which can also be attributed to the widespread introduction of electricity in the last decade of the nineteenth century. The track circuit, patented by one William Robinson as far back as 1872, was based on a simple principle. A section of track is insulated at the rail joints from the adjoining sections, and an electrically-operated switch or relay is maintained in the closed position by a low-voltage current passing continually through the rails. The effect of the entry of a train on the insulated section is to short-circuit this current through its wheels and axles with the result that the switch opens. It will be appreciated that should the current fail or should an accidental short-circuit take place, the device will behave as if a train were on the section. However, it will obey the essential requirement of every safety device that in the event of failure the danger signal is given.95. What does the paragraph preceding this one probably discuss?[A] Another one of Robinson's inventions[B] A twentieth-century safety device[C] An electrically-operated safety device[D] Railroading in the mid-nineteenth century96. In the last sentence in the passage, what does the word "it" refer to?[A] An accidental short-circuit[B] A danger signal[C] A safety device[D] A train97. Which of the following statements is TRUE?[A] Railway signaling improved with the American Revolution.[B] The last century saw great progress in railway signaling device.[C] The track circuit is a simple application of a complex principle.[D] The widespread introduction of electricity took place around 1910.98. If a short-circuit takes place, what will happen to the section containing the safety device?[A] A fire will start.[B] A danger signal will be given.[C] A train will derail.[D] The electrically operated switch will close.99. What is the result when a train passed over a section with a low-voltage current?[A] It will derail.[B] A switch opens.[C] A danger signal is given.[D] It will shock the crew.100. What is the topic of this passage?[A] The development of electrical safety devices[B] The inventions of William Robinson[C] The danger of railroad accidents[D] The operation of an electrical safety device for trainsLife near the shore everywhere is affected by the tides, which come and go twice each day in a cycle of about twelve-and-a-half hours —just different enough from the daily cycle of the sun so that there can be no regular relationship between the shore being alternately wet and dry and alternately light and dark. The extent of the tides varies greatly, from as little as one foot in inland seas like the Mediterranean, to fifty feet or so in the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia. In some parts of the world, one of the two daily tides rises higher and falls lower than the other; and tides at the time of new moon and full moon are generally greater than at other times. The extent of the intertidal zone thus varies from day to day as well as from place to place.The kinds of organisms living in the region between the tidal limits depend very much on whether the shore is rocky, sandy, or muddy. Rocky shores have the most obviously rich faunas, because of the firm anchorage for both animals and plants, and because of the small pools left by the retreating seas. Sandy shores, especially when exposed to surf (as they usually are), have the fewest kinds of animals.101. Which of the following factors does not affect the extent of the tides?[A] Place[B] Time[C] The moon[D] The composition of the shore soil102. The time span between tides[A] varies as much as the extent of the tides.[B] is a more constant phenomenon than the extent of the tides.[C] is shorter in inland seas.[D] and the extent of tides depend upon each other.103. The two tides in a given day[A] may vary in extent.[B] never vary in extent.[C] always vary in extent.[D] only vary in extent at the time of a new moon or a full moon.104. The composition of the intertidal soil affect[A] the nature of tides.[B] the temperature of the water in that area.[C] the amount of animals and plants living in that area.[D] the level of pollution in that area.105. Muddy shores[A] have poorer faunas than do sandy shores.[B] have richer faunas than do rocky shores.[C] have poorer faunas than do rocky shores, but richer faunas than do sandy shores.[D] have no faunas at all.106. The smallest tides occur in[A] open seas.[B] inland.[C] bays.[D] deeper seas.Reading is the key to school success and, like any skill, it takes practice. A child learns to walk by practising until he no longer has to think about how to put one foot in front of the other. A great athlete practices until he can play quickly, accurately, without thinking. Tennis players call that "being in the zone." Educators call it "automaticity."A child learns to read by sounding out the letters and decoding the words. With practice, he stumbles less and less, reading by the phrase. With automaticity, he doesn't have to think about decoding the words, so he can concentrate on the meaning of the text.It can begin as early as first grade. In a recent study of children in Illinois schools, Alan Rossman of Northwestern University found automatic readers in the first grade who were reading almost three times as fast as the other children and scoring twice as high on comprehension tests. At fifth grade, the automatic readers were reading twice as fast as the others, and still outscoring them on accuracy, comprehension and vocabulary."It's not I.Q. but the amount of time a child spends reading that is the key to automaticity," according to Rossman. Any child who spends at least 3.5 to 4 hours a week reading books, magazines or newspapers will in all likelihood reach automaticity. At home, where the average child spends 25 hours a week watching television, it can happen by turning off the set just one night in favour of reading.You can test your child by giving him a paragraph or two to read aloud - something unfamiliar but appropriate to his age. If he reads aloud with expression, with a sense of the meaning of the sentences, he probably is an automatic reader. If he reads haltingly, one word at a time, without expression or meaning, he needs more practice.107. The first paragraph tells us____.[A] what automaticity is[B] how accuracy is acquired[C] how a child learns to walk[D] how an athlete is trained108. An automatic reader[A] sounds out the letters[B] concentrates on meaning[C] has a high I.Q.[D] pays much attention to the structures of sentences109. The Illinois study shows that the automatic reader's high speed[A] costs him a lot of work[B] affects his comprehension[C] leads to his future success[D] doesn't affect his comprehension110. A bright child[A] also needs practice to be an automatic reader[B] always achieves great success in comprehension tests[C] becomes an automatic reader after learning how to read[D] is a born automatic readerQuestions 111 - 116 are based on the following passage:The Triumph of Unreason?Neoclassical economics is built on the assumption that humans are rational beings who have a clear idea of their best interests and strive to extract maximum benefit (or ―utility‖, in economist-speak) from any situation. Neoclassical economics assumes that the process of decision-making is rational. But that contradicts growing evidence that decision-making draws on the emotions—even when reason is clearly involved.The role of emotions in decisions makes perfect sense. For situations met frequently in the past, such as obtaining food and mates, and confronting or fleeing from threats, the neural mechanisms required to weigh up the pros and cons will have been honed by evolution to produce an optimal outcome. Since emotion is the mechanism by which animals are prodded towards such outcomes, evolutionary and economic theory predict the same practical consequences for utility in these cases. But does this still apply when the ancestral machinery has to respond to the stimuli of urban modernity?One of the people who thinks that it does not is George Loewenstein, an economist at Carnegie Mellon University, in Pittsburgh. In particular, he suspects that modern shopping has subverted the decision-making machinery in a way that encourages people to run up debt. To prove the point he has teamed up with two psychologists, Brian Knutson of Stanford University and Drazen Prelec of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, to look at what happens in the brain when it is deciding what to buy.In a study, the three researchers asked 26 volunteers to decide whether to buy a series of products such as a box of chocolates or a DVD of the television show that were flashed on a computer screen one after another. In each round of the task, the researchers first presented the product and then its price, with each step lasting four seconds. In the final stage, which also lasted four seconds, they asked the volunteers to make up their minds. While the volunteers were taking part in the experiment, the researchers scanned their brains using a technique called functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). This measures blood flow and oxygen consumption in the brain, as an indication of its activity.The researchers found that different parts of the brain were involved at different stages of the test. The nucleus accumbens was the most active part when a product was being displayed. Moreover, the level of its activity correlated with the reported desirability of the product in question.When the price appeared, however, fMRI reported more activity in other parts of the brain. Excessively high prices increased activity in the insular cortex, a brain region linked to expectations of pain, monetary loss and the viewing of upsetting pictures. The researchers also found greater activity in this region of the brain when the subject decided not to purchase an item.Price information activated the medial prefrontal cortex, too. This part of the brain is involved in rational calculation. In the experiment its activity seemed to correlate with a volunteer's reaction to both product and price, rather than to price alone. Thus, the sense of a good bargain evoked higher activity levels in the medial prefrontal cortex, and this often preceded a decision to buy.People's shopping behaviour therefore seems to have piggy-backed on old neural circuits evolved for anticipation of reward and the avoidance of hazards. What Dr Loewenstein found interesting was the separation of the assessment of the product (which seems to be associated with the nucleus accumbens) from the assessment of its price (associated with the insular cortex), even though the two are then synthesised in the prefrontal cortex. His hypothesis is that rather than weighing the present good against future alternatives, as orthodox economics suggests happens, people actually balance the immediate pleasure of the prospective possession of a product with the immediate pain of paying for it.That makes perfect sense as an evolved mechanism for trading. If one useful object is being。
2001年1月北京地区研究生英语学位课统考试题
2001年1月北京地区研究生英语学位课统考试题:Paper OnePart I Listening Comprehension (15 minutes, 15 points)Section A ( 1 point each)1.A The faculty members are having a party.B The faculty members have no time to study economics andmanagement.C The faculty members are very busy and have no time for the regularmeal.D The faculty members are making time to do some physicalexercises.2. A Devices used in classroom. B Music instruments.C Experimental deviceD School facilities3. A Buying a car B Car insurance C Buying car parts D Car repair4. A Buying some medicine in a drugstore.B Giving a lecture on the symptoms of common cold.C Complaining about his illness.D Discussing the scientific discoveries in medicine.5. A Seasonal sports B A plan for a vacation C Taking a test D Ways to save time.6. A A professor B An astronaut B A travel agent D An economist7. A To support her family B To shop in the regular women’s department.C To slim downD To keep herself busy8. A Someone who is in charge of huntingB A boss of a companyC A job-seeking advisorD Someone who is in charge of looking for talents for his company.9. A An investment consultant and her client.B A bank teller and her customer.C An insurance agent and her client.D A stock-holder and his trustee.Section B (1 point each)10. A They have plentiful resources.B They are very generous.C They are richer than people in other countries.D They think consuming more can stimulate the development of their economy.11. A They were afraid that other people would occupy their houses.B They could make the land richer with the ashes.C They could get their nails quicker and easier.D They liked to see the hardwoods go up in smoke.12. A American banks use expensive stationary.B American people destroy things that other people save.C Too many names of vice-presidents are listed on the bank pages.D The large English bank sent him a letter in a used envelop.13. A We are very clear about how people make friends.B Most people have about six friends.C People don’t usually rely on their new friends.D People can’t make friends if they have different backgrounds.14 A Having the same friends B Talking with the same frequency.C Being from similar social classes.D Sharing similar ideas and interests.15. A Their common ideas, beliefs, attitudes and interests.B Their shared emotions and experiences.C Their similarity at age and background.D Their economic conditions and social position.Part II. V ocabulary (10 minutes, 10 points )Section A ( 0.5 point each)16 The factory union’s grievance committee met with the authorities to protes t the workers’ firing.A personnelB investmentC salvationD complaint17. Most high school students look up to the players on the football team.A envyB respectC trustD pursue18. The first major outburst of musical creativity in the United States occurred at the end of the nineteenth century.A surgeB outcomeC performanceD breakthrough19. The ruthless teacher put Bill down for the blunder he made in his oral presentation.A asked him to sit downB dismissed him from the classC made him feel humbleD recorded his mistake20. The earthquake took a heavy toll when most of the local residents were sound asleep.A was minor in intensityB occurred suddenlyC brought about much confusionD caused a heavy loss in human lives21. Despite the smooth development of Sino-American relations, many of America’s policies aim to contain China.A condemnB includeC restrainD occupy22. Studies of feasibility have to be conducted before we embark on this gigantic project.A evaluateB inspectC terminateD start23. Many of the things which seem like fixed stars are born of fierce struggle and apparent defeat.A outsideB superficialC inevitableD incredible24. A pilot study often precedes large-scale experimentation that will last several years.A experimentalB quickC subsequentD leading25. Frequent exposure to perilous substances will lead to a gradualdeterioration of health.A hazardousB radioactiveC wastefulD artificialSection B (0.5 point each)26. I think the only ____ to have towards the business we are is -----the best is yet to come.A poseB inclinationC attitudeD instinct27. China’s Olympic gold medalists are on a lecture ____ across the country.A tripB journeyC tourD visit28. I’d like to take this opportunity to ___my heart-felt gratitude to all those present.A intendB extendC exposeD content29. Language is ___ in the sense that there is no absolute standard by which to judge the acceptability of a sentence.A traditionalB practicalC conventionalD habitual30. Unless this issue is properly ____, it will have serious implications for the future of these infants.A addressedB preservedC citedD edited31. Readers will find that a library’s collection of books usually ___ two categories: fiction and non-fiction.A falls intoB runs intoC separates intoD turns into32. President Clinton has given an advisory panel of experts just 90 days to ____proposals for government action.A come up withB let out atC put to useD bear in mind33. The footsteps of countless visitors have ____the threshold of the building.A torn downB worn outC worn awayD torn off34. Because of the important nature of the letter, it was classified as ________A sacredB outstandingC confidentialD valuable35. After a weekend of intense political ____ the three main parties agreed to work together to form a government.A speculationB specificationC separationD segregationPart III Close Test ( 10 minutes, 15 points, 1 point each)A recent report on population trend conducted by the 36 of the Worldwatch Institute identifies signs of slowing growth in some countries. It says populations in 32 countries ---- all in the industrialized world ---- have stabilized because of declining birthrates. But in a handful of developing countries where population is slowing, the cause isn’t something to 37 , because more people are dying.This trend is called “population fatigue”, and it’s beginning in many of the developing countries that have experienced 38 birthrates andsharp population growth for several decades. Governments in these countries are now having trouble dealing with feeding, housing and educating an increasing number of children, 39 at the same time confronting the falling water 40 , deforestation and soil erosion that rapid population growth brings. In these countries any new threat---- infectious disease, drought or famine--- can become a 41 crisis.AIDS is a case 42 . WHO estimates that one-quarter of the adult population of Zimbabwe and Botswana are infected with the AIDS virus, 43 , these countries stands to lose at least one-quarter of their labor force in the next decade from AIDS alone, a situation 44 since the yellow fever swept through Europe in the 14th century.Social unrest is also increasing in these countries. One example is the 45 conflict between the Tutsis and the Hutus in Rwanda, where population pressure reduced cropland 46 where it could no longer feed those who lived on it. Demands on the world fisheries and shared water resources are likely to spark similar conflicts. Already the waters of the Nile are so heavily used that little reaches the Mediterranean, so any increase in demand or 47 in allocation will also increase tension.The bottom line is that human population growth is 48 to slow one way or the other. Developing societies will either recognize problems 49 the horizon and act to encourage smaller families -----or unchecked births will have their 50 in rising death rates.36. A group B panel C tank D council37. A confound B console C congratulate D celebrate38. A diminishing B soaring C swerving D plunging39. A while B as C nevertheless D whereas40. A table B level C scale D index41. A full-length B full-hearted C full-time D full-blown42. A in mind B in sum C in point D in line43. A e.g. B i.e. C etc. D et al.44. A unchallenged B unparalleled C paralleled D challenged45. A longstanding B immortal C tedious D past46. A into an account B at a degree C to a point D by an extent47. A increase B inclination C share D shift48. A designed B designated C destined D defined49. A on B at C in D to50. A value B cost C pay D pricePart IV Reading Comprehension (45 minutes, 30 points, 1 point each) Passage OneChristopher Sercye, 15, was playing basketball in his neighborhood when a gun fight erupted. Sercye, an innocent bystander, was shot by three teenage gang members.Fortunately for Sercyc, all of this occurred next to Ravenswood Hospital in Chicago, Illinois. At least one would think, if you were shot itwould be fortunate to be next to a hospital. But unfortunately , the Hospital emergency room workers refused to treat him as he lay breeding to death in the alley outside the hospital, saying the hospital policy forbidden them from going outside. Until 30 minutes after the shooting ,a frustrated policeman finally took him inside. Sercye died an hour later. Many people accused the hospital and their workers of violating the Good Samaritan Law.Good Samaritan Laws first came to main-stream attention after France photographers were charged in France with not coming to Princess Diana’s aid after her fatal car crash. Most European countries have Good Samaritan Laws. Minnesota, Vermont and Wisconsin are the only American states that have Good Samaritan Laws.According to experts, even when no duty is spelled out people may have common-law obligations to provide aid in emergencies.There is no group more qualified to help in an emergency such as a shooting than those in a hospital. To rely entirely on others to bring the injured to them is ridiculous when the injured are dying right outside their building.Policies need to be changed, laws need to be written and Ravenswood Hospital should to be prosecuted and made an example of so this never happens again.51. The main purpose of the author in writing this article is __________A to reveal the serious situation of school shooting in the USB to tell us the misfortune of Christopher SercyeC to tell us something about the Good Samaritan LawD to condemn the hospital workers for their misconduct52. Which of the following is true according to the passage?A The Good Samaritan laws are to punish the hospital workers for refusing to treat the injured in an emergency.B Minnesota, Vermont and Wisconsin are the only states that have the Good Samaritan Laws.C The Good Samaritan Law first came into effect in France.D The Good Samaritan Law requires a person to summon aid or help in an emergency.53. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?A It is an obligation for the French photographers to rescue Princess Diana in the car crash.B The hospital and their workers have violated their state law.C Gang violence is a serious problem in Chicago.D What the hospital and their workers did was against the very nature of their purpose.54. By “spelled out” ( in paragraph 4) , the author most probably means _______A bound to by lawB shown in a written formC stated clearlyD formulated by the law makers.Passage TwoExcessive sugar has a strong mal-effect on the functioning of active organs such as the heart, kidneys and the brain. Shipwrecked sailors who ate and drank nothing but sugar for nine days surely went through some of this trauma.This incident occurred when a vessel carrying a cargo of sugar was shipwrecked in 1793. The five surviving sailors were finally rescued nine days after the accident. They were in a wasted condition due to starvation, having consumed nothing but sugar.French physiologist F. Magendie was inspired by that incident to conduct a series of experiments with animals. In the experiments, he fed dogs a diet of sugar and water. All the dogs wasted and died.The shipwrecked sailor and the French physiologi st’s experimental dogs proved the same point. As a steady diet, sugar is worse than nothing. Plain water can keep you alive for quite some time. Sugar and water can kill you. Humans (and animals) are “unable to subsist on a diet of sugar”. The dead dogs in Pro fessor Magendie’s laboratory al erted the sugar industry to the hazards of free scientific inquiry. From that day to this, the sugar industry have invested millions of dollars in behind-the-scenes, subsidized science. The best scientific names that money could buy havebeen hired, in the hope that they could one day come up with something at least pseudoscientific in the way of glad tidings about sugar.It has been proved , however, that (1) sugar is a major factor in dental decay; (2) sugar in a pers on’s diet does cause overweight; (3) removal of sugar from diets has cured symptoms of crippling, worldwide diseases such as diabetes, cancer and heart illnesses.Sir Frederick Banting noticed in 1929 that, among sugar plantation owners who ate large amounts of their refined stuff diabetes was common. Among native cane-cutters, who only got to chew the raw cane, he saw no diabetes.However, the story of the public relations attempts on the part of the sugar manufacturers began in Britain in 1808 when the Committee of West India reported to the House of Commons that a prize of twenty-five guineas (英旧币,值21先令) had been offered to anyone who could come up with the most satisfactory experiments to prove that unrefined sugar was good for feeding and fattening oxen, cows, hogs and sheep. Food for animals is often seasonal, always expensive. Sugar, by then, was dirt cheap. People weren’t eating it fast enough.Naturally, the attempt to feed livestock with sugar in England in 1808 was a disaster.55. All of the following are true about sugar EXCEPT ________A Refined sugar alone can be a diet for people to live on for a few days.B Sugar can cause diabetes, cancer and heart diseases.C Unrefined sugar was once good and very cheap if used to feed and fatten livestock.D Sugar can’t be used as a daily diet.56. Sugar manufacturers have ___________A tried hard to make experiments on their own with sugar on humans and animals.B invested millions of dollars in buying best names of scientists to sell sugar.C hoped to encounter some scientific findings about sugar.D tried hard to establish public relations in order to open the market for sugar.57. The word “trauma” ( in paragraph 1) most probably means _________A diseased conditionB dangerous situationC terrible shipwreckD excessive sugar intake58. The sugar manufacturers have invested millions of dollars in behind-the-scenes, subsidized science because they _________A began to realize the benefits of scientific experiments.B began to realize the hazards of eating sugar.C were afraid that the trade of sugar would be prohibited by the government.D hoped to find something pleasing, even in the guise of science, about sugar.59. In the last part of the passage, the sentence “Food for animals is often seasonal, always expensive” means food for animals is often _____A different and expensive in different seasons.B similar and expensive in different seasons.C seasoned and expensiveD eaten with spices and thus expensive60. We can safely conclude that _____A people in the 19th century were eager to eat sugar.B if shipwrecked sailors had drunk fresh water, things would have been even worse.C one or more scientists have been hired to cheat in regard to sugar.D scientists can do nothing without the money subsidized secretly.Passage ThreeUndoubtedly, Internet technology will change the way we live, work , communicate and do business. But beware of those (who proclaim this to be a New Era of profitability). As in the so-called New Eras of the past---- brought on by earlier technological breakthroughs--- this one carries the seeds of its own destruction. The phenomenal growth of Internet businesses is already fueling a Klondike-style gold rush, with fartoo many diggers looking for far too little gold. Economics teaches us that it is hard to become an upstart with a basically free commodity. Think of ice in the Arctic, sand in the desert, seawater in the ocean or, for that matter, the seemingly unlimited “hot air” on the Net.In the 20th century, the proliferation of cars , radios, movies, televisions, mass retailers and computers all inspired a sense that we had begun a New Era. Each breakthrough promised new riches and unprecedented industrial boom ----proved to be disastrous for most investors. But in the long run, they always failed to deliver to investors the expected rewards. Why the letdown? In part because every great innovator invariably attracted great imitators, who competed with the original and eventually depressed his “excessive” profit margin by commoditizing the invention. Furthermore, great inventions have always been followed by greater innovations, which, through the process known as creative destruction, render the previous new technology obsolete. And when inventions become vital to the economy, they are frequently brought under the control of governments via regulation, nationalization and, in extreme cases, expropriation.Take the Erie Canal, which was completed in 1825. Its success led to the great American canal boom of the 1830s. It ended just a few years later in a tremendous failure, as most of the other canals failed to make money. The Eire, too , began to suffer from competition, first fromrailroads and, eventually, from trucks. In the end, the railroad industry---which helped create an unprecedented industrial boom---proved to be disastrous for most investors. By 1895, most U.S. railroads had to be restructured.Now-familiar technologies like cars, radios , cash registers and mainframe computers were all at some point new and revolutionary. But the spread of the technologies led inevitably to the demise of their creators’ “excessive” profits, as each became just another commodity. Don’t think for a minute that the internet will be any different.61. The purpose of this passage is ______________A to pour cold water on the booming Internet industry.B to exemplify why New Eras of the past failed.C to justify the profitability of Internet business.D to explore the prosperity and decline of New Eras.62. It is implied in the passage that _____A most Internet companies are unlikely to be out of business soon.B after beating the competitors, the survived Internet companies can achieve some meaningful earnings.C the growth of the Internet businesses is too fast.D the spread of a new invention can make people live better.63. The current booming of Internet industry is compared to _____A ice in the ArcticB sand in the desertC seawater in the oceanD aKlondike-style gold rush64. All the following account for the letdowns of New Eras of the past EXCEPT ___________A the emergence of imitation after innovation.B the competition between imitation and innovation.C even greater innovation after great invention.D exclusive intervention by the government.65. The Erie Canal is mentioned in the passage because _________A its success led to the great American canal boom in the 1830s.B it ended just a few years later in a tremendous failure.C it suffered from competition from railroads and trucks.D it proved to be less profitable than its investors expected.66. The word “demise” in the last paragraph most probably means _____A profitabilityB prospersC termination C destructionPassage FourIn 1957, a Ft. Lee. NJ drive-in theater tachistoscopically flashed the words DRINK COCA COLA and EAT POPCORN for 1/3000th of a second every 5 seconds throughout the movie during a 6-week run of the film Picnic. The subliminal (下意识) message was the brainchild of NY market researcher, James Vicary, who boasted that Coke sales in the lobby increased 58% and that popcorn sales rose 18%. An avalanche ofcriticism from outraged citizens and congressmen produced more research on the subject and conflicting result have been bandied ever since. Since subliminal, tachistoscopic advertising was so severely criticized in 1958-59, the concept of subliminal learning has been hard for people to embrace. However, the experience demonstrated that people can be taught to respond positively to very brief images. Researchers have shown that negative personality traits and bad habits can be significantly altered with the use of subliminal suggestions. The human biocomputer, the brain, all too often accumulates many negative programs over a span of years. Positive subliminals can serve to replace these self-limiting, self-imposed feelings of hate, anger, depression, fear, rejection, self-doubt and other non-productive psychological reactions with new and powerful response expressions. Thus, subliminal learning offers a self-help alternative to anybody wishing to avail themselves of it. In 1983, self-improvement tapes via tachistoscopic blips were available from Stimutech Inc. to be played through a computer and into your TV. Positive suggestive cues could thereby be absorbed while watching your normal televised programming. A tachistoscopic flash at 1/100th of a second is normally subliminal, but when you are told to expect it, it becomes consciously acknowledgeable. The more unconscious your daily life pattern happens to be, the more susceptible (easily affected) you are to yielding to subliminal subtleties. If you have a mental block againstcertain behaviour, the effect on such behavior will be lessened using subliminals. If you are open and unsuspecting, the effect is greatly enhanced.67. What is the purpose of the passage?A To prevent people from accepting the concept of subliminal learning.B To persuade people to accept the concept of subliminal learning.C To show the bad advertising effect of subliminal and tachitoscopic sounds and images.D To introduce the origin of subliminal learning.68. The word “tachitoscopically” in line 1 of the passage probably means_________A very quicklyB surprisinglyC hurriedlyD radically69. What is NOT true about subliminal messages?A They are shown at an internal of 1/100th to 1/3000th of a second advertising.B They are accepted without people’s awareness.C If responded to positively, they can serve to replace negative emotions with new and powerful expressions.D There are subliminal messages on tapes for the public to absorb subconsciously through computer or TV.70. Which of the following is not stated but implied?A The more you are open and unsuspecting, the more effect ofsubliminals you can expect.B People will be more easily affected by subliminal subtleties in more unconscious daily life patterns.C Subliminals can be used to reduce the effect of a mental block.D Subliminal input can contribute to the process of self-healing.71. What conclusion can you draw from the passage?A A tachitoscopic flash at 1/100th of a second will be more effective if you are told to expect it.B It is hard for people to embrace the concept of subliminal learning.C The negative programs accumulated in the past years should have been got rid of long ago.D Subliminal messages have the potential to excite, arouse, anger or calm human behaviour.Passage FiveFor nearly a century, the house and other artificial structures of the Appalachian region have played a prominent role in its representation in books, magazines, and film. From nineteen-century magazine illustrations of single-room log cabins to twentieth-century television programs focusing on unpainted, one- or two-room company houses, the dominant image of the region has been the ruined, weather-beaten Appalachian home. Some of these presentations are authentic, some are contrived, but nearly all are selective. Interpreters of Appalachian culture havetended to focus on extremes and, as a result, have misrepresented Appalachian life. A survey of the New River Gorge area in West Virginia revealed a much more diverse landscape than has been described in the past. While project researchers did locate log cabins and abandoned coal towns, they also found considerable architectural variety. Contrary to past reports, the New River Gorge cultural landscape reflects the history of a community that designed, built, and used its buildings according to individual tastes and principles.The territory is dotted with homes whose original appearances have been altered to suit the occupant. These individually styled buildings may appear queer to the outsider, but their meanings is revealed through an understanding of the local history. Many of the homes were originally constructed by coal companies for their workers. Whole towns of box houses cheap, fast to build, and temporary were constructed at one time. Today, West Virginians commonly call box houses “Jinn Linns”. One local resident related a story concerning the origin of the term. Jenny Lynn, a coal camp resident, decided to distinguish her home from the other identical box houses in her camp by nailing narrow strips over the spaces between the vertical boards, creating the board siding now characteristic of these houses. Soon many others followed her example and eventually named the house type after her.Unlike Jenny Lynn, most coal camp residents were required tomaintain their box houses according to strict company standards. As the coal boom declined, however, companies began selling the homes to their tenants. Having obtained the freedom to maintain their homes according to their own standards, residents altered their houses or added rooms or porches, resulting in the variety of box houses visible in the region today. Others decided to leave the company camps altogether. Many purchased modern pre-manufactured houses , for example, the Lustron, an all-steel factory-made home manufactured in Ohio between 1948 and 1950. Unlike the Jinn Linn, the home was durable, easy to maintain, and strong. Innovative construction materials are also produced locally. Bluish cinder blocks, byproducts of the coal industry, have been used to construct homes, churches, gymnasiums, and barns throughout the Gorge. These and other colorful materials, including glazed tile, are often used in striking combination, and an unusual amount of care is given to decorative detail.The complex balance between formal design and personal expression is a striking feature of the New River Gorge landscape. Like the quilts made in the region, much of the architecture is pieced together from locally made and recycled materials. Materials rarely used in combination in other areas are carefully pieced together into a landscape filled with personal meaning.72. Why did the Appalachian homes make a simple and unifiedimpression on people in the past?A Because they all appeared the same in magazine illustrations.B Because the interpretations of the Appalachian culture were misleading.C Because Appalachian region has played a prominent role in its presentation of American architecture in the 19th century.D Because all of the houses were of the same style in the past.73. By saying that popular presentations of Appalachian architecture “nearly all are selective”( in paragrap h 1) the author means that they _________A present only one facet of Appalachian architecture.B focus on public buildings rather than on private homes.C show only the most attractive side of Appalachian architecture.D represent the perceptions only of the residents themselves.74. Which of the following aspects of New River Gorge houses surprised the researchers of a recent survey?A Their uniformityB Their unusually large sizeC The ease with which they were built and maintained.D Their differences in design and construction.75. Which of the following best expresses the author’s main point in telling the story of Jenny Lynn?A Residents of the coal camps modified their originally identical homes。
CHAPTER 9
CHAPTER 9TEACHING NOTESThe coverage of RESET in this chapter recognizes that it is a test for neglected nonlinearities, and it should not be expected to be more than that. (Formally, it can be shown that if an omitted variable has a conditional mean that is linear in the included explanatory variables, RESET has no ability to detect the omitted variable. Interested readers may consult my chapter in Companion to Theoretical Econometrics, 2001, edited by Badi Baltagi.) I just teach students the F statistic version of the test.The Davidson-MacKinnon test can be useful for detecting functional form misspecification, especially when one has in mind a specific alternative, nonnested model. It has the advantage of always being a one degree of freedom test.I think the proxy variable material is important, but the main points can be made with Examples9.3 and 9.4. The first shows that controlling for IQ can substantially change the estimated return to education, and the omitted ability bias is in the expected direction. Interestingly, education and ability do not appear to have an interactive effect. Example 9.4 is a nice example of how controlling for a previous value of the dependent variable – something that is often possible with survey and nonsurvey data – can greatly affect a policy conclusion. Computer Exercise 9.3 is also a good illustration of this method.I rarely get to teach the measurement error material, although the attenuation bias result for classical errors-in-variables is worth mentioning.The result on exogenous sample selection is easy to discuss, with more details given in Chapter 17. The effects of outliers can be illustrated using the examples. I think the infant mortality example, Example 9.10, is useful for illustrating how a single influential observation can have a large effect on the OLS estimates.With the growing importance of least absolute deviations, it makes sense to at least discuss the merits of LAD, at least in more advanced courses. Computer Exercise 9.9 is a good example to show how mean and median effects can be very different, even though there may not be “outliers” in the usual sense.SOLUTIONS TO PROBLEMS9.1 There is functional form misspecification if 6β≠ 0 or 7β≠ 0, where these are the populationparameters on ceoten 2 and comten 2, respectively. Therefore, we test the joint significance of these variables using the R -squared form of the F test: F = [(.375 - .353)/(1 - .375)][(177 –8)/2] ≈ 2.97. With 2 and ∞ df , the 10% critical value is 2.30 awhile the 5% critical value is 3.00. Thus, the p -value is slightly above .05, which is reasonable evidence of functional formmisspecification. (Of course, whether this has a practical impact on the estimated partial effects for various levels of the explanatory variables is a different matter.)9.2 [Instructor’s Note: Out of the 186 records in VOTE2.RAW, three have voteA88 less than 50, which means the incumbent running in 1990 cannot be the candidate who received voteA88 percent of the vote in 1988. You might want to reestimate the equation dropping these three observations.](i) The coefficient on voteA88 implies that if candidate A had one more percentage point of the vote in 1988, she/he is predicted to have only .067 more percentage points in 1990. Or, 10 more percentage points in 1988 implies .67 points, or less than one point, in 1990. The t statistic is only about 1.26, and so the variable is insignificant at the 10% level against the positive one-sided alternative. (The critical value is 1.282.) While this small effect initially seems surprising, it is much less so when we remember that candidate A in 1990 is always the incumbent. Therefore, what we are finding is that, conditional on being the incumbent, the percent of the vote received in 1988 does not have a strong effect on the percent of the vote in 1990.(ii) Naturally, the coefficients change, but not in important ways, especially once statistical significance is taken into account. For example, while the coefficient on log(expendA ) goes from -.929 to -.839, the coefficient is not statistically or practically significant anyway (and its sign is not what we expect). The magnitudes of the coefficients in both equations are quite similar, and there are certainly no sign changes. This is not surprising given the insignificance of voteA88.9.3 (i) Eligibility for the federally funded school lunch program is very tightly linked to being economically disadvantaged. Therefore, the percentage of students eligible for the lunch program is very similar to the percentage of students living in poverty.(ii) We can use our usual reasoning on omitting important variables from a regressionequation. The variables log(expend ) and lnchprg are negatively correlated: school districts with poorer children spend, on average, less on schools. Further,3β< 0. From Table 3.2, omitting lnchprg (the proxy for poverty ) from the regression produces an upward biased estimator of 1β[ignoring the presence of log(enroll ) in the model]. So when we control for the poverty rate, the effect of spending falls.(iii) Once we control for lnchprg , the coefficient on log(enroll ) becomes negative and has a t of about –2.17, which is significant at the 5% level against a two-sided alternative. Thecoefficient implies that 10math∆≈ -(1.26/100)(%∆enroll ) = -.0126(%∆enroll ). Therefore, a 10% increase in enrollment leads to a drop in math10 of .126 percentage points.(iv) Both math10 and lnchprg are percentages. Therefore, a ten percentage point increase in lnchprg leads to about a 3.23 percentage point fall in math10, a sizeable effect.(v) In column (1) we are explaining very little of the variation in pass rates on the MEAP math test: less than 3%. In column (2), we are explaining almost 19% (which still leaves much variation unexplained). Clearly most of the variation in math10 is explained by variation in lnchprg . This is a common finding in studies of school performance: family income (or related factors, such as living in poverty) are much more important in explaining student performance than are spending per student or other school characteristics.9.4 (i) For the CEV assumptions to hold, we must be able to write tvhours = tvhours * + e 0, where the measurement error e 0 has zero mean and is uncorrelated with tvhours * and eachexplanatory variable in the equation. (Note that for OLS to consistently estimate the parameters we do not need e 0 to be uncorrelated with tvhours *.)(ii) The CEV assumptions are unlikely to hold in this example. For children who do not watch TV at all, tvhours * = 0, and it is very likely that reported TV hours is zero. So if tvhours * = 0 then e 0 = 0 with high probability. If tvhours * > 0, the measurement error can be positive or negative, but, since tvhours ≥ 0, e 0 must satisfy e 0 ≥ -tvhours *. So e 0 and tvhours * are likely to be correlated. As mentioned in part (i), because it is the dependent variable that is measured with error, what is important is that e 0 is uncorrelated with the explanatory variables. But this is unlikely to be the case, because tvhours * depends directly on the explanatory variables. Or, we might argue directly that more highly educated parents tend to underreport how much television their children watch, which means e 0 and the education variables are negatively correlated.9.5 The sample selection in this case is arguably endogenous. Because prospective students may look at campus crime as one factor in deciding where to attend college, colleges with high crime rates have an incentive not to report crime statistics. If this is the case, then the chance ofappearing in the sample is negatively related to u in the crime equation. (For a given school size, higher u means more crime, and therefore a smaller probability that the school reports its crime figures.)SOLUTIONS TO COMPUTER EXERCISESC9.1 (i) To obtain the RESET F statistic, we estimate the model in Computer Exercise 7.5 andobtain the fitted values, say i lsalary . To use the version of RESET in (9.3), we add ( ilsalary )2 and ( ilsalary )3 and obtain the F test for joint significance of these variables. With 2 and 203 df , the F statistic is about 1.33 and p -value ≈ .27, which means that there is not much concern about functional form misspecification.(ii) Interestingly, the heteroskedasticity-robust F -type statistic is about 2.24 with p -value ≈ .11, so there is stronger evidence of some functional form misspecification with the robust test. But it is probably not strong enough to worry about.C9.2 [Instructor’s Note: If educ ⋅KWW is used along with KWW , the interaction term issignificant. This is in contrast to when IQ is used as the proxy. You may want to pursue this as an additional part to the exercise.](i) We estimate the model from column (2) but with KWW in place of IQ . The coefficient on educ becomes about .058 (se ≈ .006), so this is similar to the estimate obtained with IQ , although slightly larger and more precisely estimated.(ii) When KWW and IQ are both used as proxies, the coefficient on educ becomes about .049 (se ≈ .007). Compared with the estimate when only KWW is used as a proxy, the return to education has fallen by almost a full percentage point.(iii) The t statistic on IQ is about 3.08 while that on KWW is about 2.07, so each is significant at the 5% level against a two-sided alternative. They are jointly very significant, with F 2,925≈8.59 and p -value ≈ .0002.C9.3 (i) If the grants were awarded to firms based on firm or worker characteristics, grant could easily be correlated with such factors that affect productivity. In the simple regression model, these are contained in u .(ii) The simple regression estimates using the 1988 data arelog()scrap = .409 + .057 grant (.241) (.406)n = 54, R 2 = .0004.The coefficient on grant is actually positive, but not statistically different from zero.(iii) When we add log(scrap 87) to the equation, we obtain88log()scrap = .021 - .254 grant 88 + .831 log(scrap 87) (.089) (.147) (.044)n = 54, R 2 = .873,where the year subscripts are for clarity. The t statistic for H 0: grant β= 0 is -.254/.147≈ -1.73.We use the 5% critical value for 40 df in Table G.2: -1.68. Because t = -1.73 < -1.68, we reject H 0 in favor of H 1: grant β< 0 at the 5% level.(iv) The t statistic is (.831 – 1)/.044≈ -3.84, which is a strong rejection of H 0.(v) With the heteroskedasticity-robust standard error, the t statistic for grant 88 is -.254/.142≈ -1.79, so the coefficient is even more significantly less than zero when we use theheteroskedasticity-robust standard error. The t statistic for H 0: 87log()scrap β= 1 is (.831 – 1)/.071 ≈ -2.38, which is notably smaller than before, but it is still pretty significant.C9.4 (i) Adding DC to the regression in equation (9.37) givesinfmort = 23.95 - .567 log(pcinc ) - 2.74 log(physic ) + .629 log(popul ) + 16.03 DC (12.42) (1.641) (1.19) (.191) (1.77) n = 51, R 2 = .691, 2R = .664.The coefficient on DC means that even if there was a state that had the same per capita income, per capita physicians, and population as Washington D.C., we predict that D.C. has an infant mortality rate that is about 16 deaths per 1000 live births higher. This is a very large “D .C. effect.”(ii) In the regression from part (i), the intercept and all slope coefficients, along with their standard errors, are identical to those in equation (9.38), which simply excludes D.C. [Of course, equation (9.38) does not have DC in it, so we have nothing to compare with its coefficient and standard error.] Therefore, for the purposes of obtaining the effects and statistical significance of the other explanatory variables, including a dummy variable for a single observation is identical to just dropping that observation when doing the estimation.The R -squareds and adjusted R -squareds from (9.38) and the regression in part (i) are not the same. They are much larger when DC is included as an explanatory variable because we are predicting the infant mortality rate perfectly for D.C. You might want to confirm that the residual for the observation corresponding to D.C. is identically zero.C9.5 With sales defined to be in billions of dollars, we obtain the following estimated equation using all companies in the sample:rdintens= 2.06 + .317 sales - .0074 sales 2 + .053 profmarg (0.63) (.139) (.0037) (.044)n = 32, R 2 = .191, 2R = .104.When we drop the largest company (with sales of roughly $39.7 billion), we obtainrdintens= 1.98 + .361 sales - .0103 sales 2 + .055 profmarg (0.72) (.239) (.0131) (.046)n = 31, R 2 = .191, 2R = .101.When the largest company is left in the sample, the quadratic term is statistically significant, even though the coefficient on the quadratic is less in absolute value than when we drop the largest firm. What is happening is that by leaving in the large sales figure, we greatly increase the variation in both sales and sales 2; as we know, this reduces the variances of the OLSestimators (see Section 3.4). The t statistic on sales2 in the first regression is about –2, which makes it almost significant at the 5% level against a two-sided alternative. If we look at Figure 9.1, it is not surprising that a quadratic is significant when the large firm is included in the regression: rdintens is relatively small for this firm even though its sales are very large compared with the other firms. Without the largest firm, a linear relationship between rdintens and sales seems to suffice.C9.6 (i) Only four of the 408 schools have b/s less than .01.(ii) We estimate the model in column (3) of Table 4.3, omitting schools with b/s < .01:log()salary= 10.71 -.421 (b/s) + .089 log(enroll) -.219 log (staff)(0.26) (.196) (.007) (.050)- .00023 droprate+ .00090 gradrate(.00161) (.00066)n = 404, R2 = .354.Interestingly, the estimated tradeoff is reduced by a nontrivial amount (from .589 to .421). This is a pretty large difference considering only four of 408 observations, or less than 1%, were omitted.C9.7 (i) 205 observations out of the 1,989 records in the sample have obrate > 40. (Data are missing for some variables, so not all of the 1,989 observations are used in the regressions.)(ii) When observations with obrat > 40 are excluded from the regression in part (iii) of Problem 7.16, we are left with 1,768 observations. The coefficient on white is about .129 (se ≈ .020). To three decimal places, these are the same estimates we got when using the entire sample (see Computer Exercise C7.8). Perhaps this is not very surprising since we only lost 203 out of 1,971 observations. However, regression results can be very sensitive when we drop over 10% of the observations, as we have here.β does not seem very sensitive to the sample (iii) The estimates from part (ii) show that ˆwhiteused, although we have tried only one way of reducing the sample.C9.8 (i) The mean of stotal is .047, its standard deviation is .854, the minimum value is –3.32, and the maximum value is 2.24.(ii) In the regression jc on stotal, the slope coefficient is .011 (se = .011). Therefore, while the estimated relationship is positive, the t statistic is only one: the correlation between jc and stotal is weak at best. In the regression univ on stotal, the slope coefficient is 1.170 (se = .029), for a t statistic of 38.5. Therefore, univ and stotal are positively correlated (with correlation= .435).(iii) When we add stotal to (4.17) and estimate the resulting equation by OLS, we getlog()wage = 1.495 + .0631 jc + .0686 univ + .00488 exper + .0494 stotal (.021) (.0068) (.0026) (.00016) (.0068)n = 6,758, R 2 = .228For testing βjc = βuniv , we can use the same trick as in Section 4.4 to get the standard error of the difference: replace univ with totcoll = jc + univ , and then the coefficient on jc is the difference in the estimated returns, along with its standard error. Let θ1 = βjc - βuniv . Then1ˆ.0055 (se .0069)θ=-=. Compared with what we found without stotal , the evidence is even weaker against H 1: βjc < βuniv . The t statistic from equation (4.27) is about –1.48, while here we have obtained only -.80.(iv) When stotal 2 is added to the equation, its coefficient is .0019 (t statistic = .40). Therefore, there is no reason to add the quadratic term.(v) The F statistic for testing exclusion of the interaction terms stotal ⋅jc and stotal ⋅univ is about 1.96; with 2 and 6,756 df , this gives p -value = .141. So, even at the 10% level, theinteraction terms are jointly insignificant. It is probably not worth complicating the basic model estimated in part (iii).(vi) I would just use the model from part (iii), where stotal appears only in level form. The other embellishments were not statistically significant at small enough significance levels to warrant the additional complications.C9.9 (i) The equation estimated by OLS isnettfa = 21.198 - .270 inc + .0102 inc 2 - 1.940 age + .0346 age 2( 9.992) (.075) (.0006) (.483) (.0055)+ 3.369 male + 9.713 e401k(1.486) (1.277)n = 9,275, R 2 = .202The coefficient on e401k means that, holding other things in the equation fixed, the average level of net financial assets is about $9,713 higher for a family eligible for a 401(k) than for a family not eligible.(ii) The OLS regression of 2ˆi u on inc i , 2i inc , age i , 2i age , male i , and e401k i gives 22ˆu R = .0374, which translates into F = 59.97. The associated p -value, with 6 and 9,268 df , is essentially zero. Consequently, there is strong evidence of heteroskedasticity, which means that u and the explanatory variables cannot be independent [even though E(u |x 1,x 2,…,x k ) = 0 is possible].(iii) The equation estimated by LAD isnettfa = 12.491 -.262 inc + .00709 inc2-.723 age + .0111 age2( 1.382) (.010) (.00008) (.067) (.0008)+ 1.018 male + 3.737 e401k(.205) (.177)n = 9,275, Psuedo R2 = .109Now, the coefficient on e401k means that, at given income, age, and gender, the median difference in net financial assets between families with and without 401(k) eligibility is about $3,737.(iv) The findings from parts (i) and (iii) are not in conflict. We are finding that 401(k) eligibility has a larger effect on mean wealth than on median wealth. Finding different mean and median effects for a variable such as nettfa, which has a highly skewed distribution, is not surprising. Apparently, 401(k) eligibility has some large effects at the upper end of the wealth distribution, and these are reflected in the mean. The median is much less sensitive to effects at the upper end of the distribution.C9.10 (i) About .416 of the mean receive training in JTRAIN2, whereas only .069 receive training in JTRAIN3. The men in JTRAIN2, who were low earners, were targeted to receive training in a special job training experiment. This is not a representative group from the entire population. The sample from JTRAIN3 is, for practical purposes, a random sample from the population of men working in 1978; we would expect a much smaller fraction to have participated in job training in the prior year.(ii) The simple regression gives78re = 4.55 + 1.79 train(0.41) (0.63)n = 445, R2 = .018Because re78 is measured in thousands, job training participation is estimated to increase real earnings in 1978 by $1,790 – a nontrivial amount.(iii) Adding all of the control listed changes the coefficient on train to 1.68 (se = .63). This is not much of a change from part (ii), and we would not expect it to be. Because train was supposed to be assigned randomly, it should be roughly uncorrelated with all other explanatory variables. Therefore, the simple and multiple regression estimates are similar. (Interestingly, the standard errors are the same to two decimal places.)(iv) The simple regression coefficient on train is 15.20 (se = 1.15). This implies a huge negative effect of job training, which is hard to believe. Because training was not randomly assigned for this group, we can assume self-selection into job training is at work. That is, it is the low earning group that tends to select itself (perhaps with the help of administrators) into job training. When we add the controls, the coefficient becomes .213 (se = .853). In other words, when we account for factors such as previous earnings and education, we obtain a small but insignificant positive effect of training. This is certainly more believable than the large negative effect obtained from simple regression.(v) For JTRAIN2, the average is 1.74, the standard deviation is 3.90, the minimum is 0, and the maximum is 24.38. For JTRAIN3, the average is 18.04, the standard deviation is 13.29, the minimum is 0, and the maximum is 146.90. Clearly these samples are not representative of the same population. JTRAIN3, which represents a much broader population, has a much larger mean value and much larger standard deviation.(vi) For JTRAIN2, which uses 427 observations, the estimate on train is similar to before, 1.58 (se = .63). For JTRAIN3, which uses 765 observations, the estimate is now much closer to the experimental estimate: 1.84 (se = .89).(vii) The estimate for JTRAIN2, which uses 280 observations, is 1.84 (se = .89); it is a coincidence that this is the same, to two digits, as that obtained for JTRAIN3 in part (vi). For JTRAIN3, which uses 271 observations, the estimate is 3.80 (se = .88).(viii) When we base our analysis on comparable samples – roughly representative of the same population, those with average real earnings less than $10,000 is 1974 and 1975 – we get positive, nontrivial training effects estimates using either sample. Using the full data set in JTRAIN3 can be misleading because it includes many men for whom training would never be beneficial. In effect, when we use the entire data set, we average in the zero effect for high earners with the positive effect for low-earning men. Of course, if we only have experimental data, it can be difficult to know how to find the part of the population where there is an effect. But for those who were unemployed in the two years prior to job training, the effect appears to be unambiguously positive.。
民航机务英语试题及答案
民航机务英语试题及答案一、选择题(每题2分,共20分)1. The term "N1" refers to the speed of the engine in relation to:A. Ground speedB. Indicated AirspeedC. True AirspeedD. Rotational speed of the engine答案:D2. What does "MEL" stand for in aviation maintenance?A. Minimum Equipment ListB. Maximum Equipment ListC. Maintenance Equipment ListD. Manual Equipment List答案:A3. The "PBH" maintenance concept is based on:A. Parts per millionB. Parts per hourC. Power by hourD. Performance based on hours答案:B4. Which of the following is NOT a type of aircraft engine?A. Piston engineB. Jet engineC. Rocket engineD. Steam engine答案:D5. The term "VOR" refers to a type of navigation system that is:A. VisualB. Radio-basedC. Satellite-basedD. Infrared答案:B6. What does "ATC" stand for in aviation?A. Air Traffic ControlB. Automatic Temperature ControlC. Advanced Technology CenterD. Airline Transport Certificate答案:A7. The "TCAS" system is used for:A. CommunicationB. Collision avoidanceC. Takeoff and landing assistanceD. Turbine control and safety答案:B8. What is the meaning of "RVSM" in aviation?A. Reduced Vertical Separation MinimumB. Radio Visual Signaling ModeC. Radar Vertical Speed MeasurementD. Remote Visual Surveillance Module答案:A9. "EFIS" stands for:A. Electronic Flight Information SystemB. Electronic Flight Instrument SystemC. Enhanced Flight Information ServiceD. Electronic Flight Indicator System答案:B10. The "ICAO" is an organization that deals with:A. International trade regulationsB. International aviation standards and practicesC. International customs operationsD. International cargo agreements答案:B二、填空题(每空1分,共10分)11. The international distress signal "MAYDAY" is pronounced as _________.答案:Mayday12. An aircraft's "T/O" stands for _________.答案:Takeoff13. The "FAR" refers to the Federal Aviation _________.答案:Regulations14. The "RAM" in aircraft systems usually stands for_________.答案:Random Access Memory15. The term "SID" in aviation is short for _________.答案:Standard Instrument Departure16. "Landing gear" is also known as _________ gear.答案:Landing17. The "PFD" in aviation is an acronym for _________.答案:Primary Flight Display18. "CVR" is the abbreviation for the _________.答案:Cockpit Voice Recorder19. The term "GPWS" refers to a system known as the _________.答案:Ground Proximity Warning System20. "TCAS" is an acronym for Traffic _________ and Collision Avoidance System.答案:Collision Avoidance System三、简答题(每题5分,共30分)21. Explain the purpose of an aircraft's transponder.答案:An aircraft's transponder is a device that sendsout a coded signal in response to a received interrogation signal from ground-based secondary surveillance radar (SSR). This allows air traffic controllers to identify and track the aircraft's position and altitude.22. What is the significance of the "EFB" in modern aviation?答案:The Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) is a collection of electronic tools and systems that replace the traditional paper-based charts, manuals, and documents used by pilots. It enhances efficiency, reduces workload, and improves safety by providing quick access to a wide range of information.23. Describe the role of an "AOG" situation in aviation.答案:Aircraft on Ground (AOG) refers to a situation where an aircraft is grounded due to a technical issue that cannot be resolved quickly. It is a critical event for airlines as it impacts operations, schedules, and can incur significant costs.24. What does "ETOPS" stand for and what does it regulate?答案:ETOPS stands for Extended-range Twin-engine Operational Performance Standards. It is a set of regulations established by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) that specifies the operational requirements for。
2023cupt题目
2023cupt题目English Answer:Task 1: Data Augmentation.One of the primary challenges of working with natural language data is the scarcity of labeled examples. This constraint can result in overfitting and poorgeneralization performance of models trained on relatively small datasets. Data augmentation techniques can be employed to mitigate this issue by artificially expanding the training set with diverse and realistic examples.Data augmentation can be categorized into two main types:1. Syntactic transformations: These techniques modify the syntactic structure of the input data without affecting its meaning. Examples include synonym replacement, word deletion, and sentence shuffling.2. Semantic transformations: These techniques preserve the syntactic structure but introduce subtle semantic changes. Methods such as paraphrasing, back-translation, and adversarial training fall under this category.Task 2: Text Classification Model Selection.Selecting the appropriate text classification model depends on several factors, including:1. Data characteristics: The size, complexity, and quality of the training data should inform the choice of model. For small datasets, simpler models like logistic regression or Naive Bayes may suffice, while complex datasets may require deep learning models or ensemble methods.2. Task requirements: The specific classification task, such as binary or multi-class classification, will influence the selection of model architecture.3. Computational resources: The availability oftraining time and computational power can limit the choice of models. Some models, such as large transformer networks, require extensive training and may not be feasible for resource-constrained settings.Common text classification models include:Logistic regression.Naive Bayes.Support Vector Machines.Random Forests.Gradient Boosting Machines.Transformers.Task 3: Model Evaluation and Comparison.Evaluating and comparing the performance of different text classification models is crucial for identifying the optimal model for a given task. Common evaluation metrics include:1. Accuracy: Proportion of correctly classified instances.2. Precision: Proportion of true positives among all predicted positives.3. Recall: Proportion of true positives among all actual positives.4. F1-score: Harmonic mean of precision and recall.To compare models effectively, consider the following:1. Use a held-out test set: Avoid using the training data for evaluation to prevent overfitting.2. Use multiple metrics: Relying on a single metric canbe misleading, as different metrics may provide complementary insights into model performance.3. Consider statistical significance: Performstatistical tests to determine if observed differences in model performance are statistically significant.中文回答:任务1,数据增强。
guidelines-omcl-computerised-systems-annex1-march2018中英
General European OMCL Network (GEON) QUALITY MANAGEMENT DOCUMENTPA/PH/OMCL (08) 87 R6VALIDATION OF COMPUTERISED SYSTEMS ANNEX 1 – VALIDATION OF EXCEL SPREADSHEETSFull document titleand reference Validation of Computerised SystemsAnnex 1 – Validation of Excel Spreadsheets PA/PH/OMCL (08) 87 R6 Document type Guideline Legislative basis - Date of first adoption May 2009 Date of original entry into forceJuly 2009 Date of entry into force of revised documentAugust 2018Previous titles/other references / last valid version Validation of Computerised SystemsAnnex 1: Validation of computerised calculation systems: example of validation of in-house softwarePA/PH/OMCL (08) 87 2R Custodian Organisation The present document was elaborated by the OMCL Network / EDQM of the Council of Europe Concerned NetworkGEONPA/PH/OMCL(08)87R6–Annex1of the OMCL Network Guideline“Validation of Computerised Systems”Validation of Excel SpreadsheetsANNEX 1 OF THE OMCL NETWORK GUIDELINE“VALIDATION OF COMPUTERISED SYSTEMS”VALIDATION OF EXCEL SPREADSHEETSNote: Mandatory requirements in this guideline and its annexes are defined using the terms«shall» or «must». The use of «should» indicates a recommendation. For these parts of the text other appropriately justified approaches are acceptable. The term «can» indicates a possibility or an example with non-binding character.1. INTRODUCTIONThis is the 1st Annex of the core document “Validation of Computerised Systems”, and it should be used in combination with the latter when planning, performing and documenting the validation process of Excel® spreadsheets used for the processing of laboratory data.This Annex presents an example of Excel spreadsheet validation, which should be used in combination with the general requirements and recommendations given in the core document.2. INSTALLATION AND SECURITYTo guarantee that only the latest validated version of the spreadsheet is being used and to maintain the validated state of the spreadsheet, all validated Excel spreadsheets should be stored with read- only access rights for the end users (e.g., on a protected network share). Only responsible persons should have write access to the network share.为确保只有经验证过的Excel表被使用且一直维持其验证状态,所有被验证的Excel表的终端用户应该只有只读权限(比如:受保护的网络共享)。
Moment methods for structural reliability
Abstract F ir st-order reliability method (FORM) is considered to be one of the most reliable computational methods. In the last decades, researchers have examined the shortcomings of FORM, primarily accuracy and the difficulties involved in searching for the design point by iteration using the derivatives of the performance function. In o rde r to improve upon FORM, several structural reliability methods have been developed based on FORM, such as second-order reliability method (SORM), importance sampling Monte~Carlo simulation, first-order third-moment reliability method (FOTM), and response surface approach (RSA). In the present paper, moment methods for structural reliability are investigated. Five moment method formulas are presented a nd investigated, and the accuracy and efficiency of these methods are demonstrated using numerical examples. The moment methods, being very simple, have no shortcomings with respect to design points, and requires neither iteration nor the computation of derivatives, and thus are convenient to be applied to structural reliability analysis. © 2001 Elsevier Science L td. All rights reserved.
LINEAR MODELLING AND IDENTIFICATION OF A MOBILE ROBOT WITH DIFFERENTIAL DRIVE
2 Robot Modelling
Figure 1 presents a diagram of the kind of robot we consider in this work. The robot has two wheels, driven by two independent electric motors. The wheels are placed at each side of the robot, in such a position that their rotation axis are coincident. The robot configuration is represented by the position of the center of the axis between the two wheels in the Cartesian space (x and y ) and by its orientation θ (angle between the vector of the robot orientation and the abscissas axis). v θ,ω
and left motors, K is the matrix which transforms the electrical signals u into forces to be generated by the robot wheels, M is the generalized inertia matrix and B is the generalized damping matrix, which includes terms of viscous friction and electric resistance.
quizzes练习题
Quizzes 练习题一、选择题1. 下列哪个选项是计算机操作系统中用于进程调度的重要数据结构?A. 队列B. 栈C. 链表D. 树2. 下列哪种编程语言是动态类型语言?A. JavaB. PythonC. C++D. CA. POSTB. GETC. PUTD. DELETE4. 下列哪个数据库管理系统使用SQL作为查询语言?A. MySQLB. MongoDBC. RedisD. MemcachedA. 冒泡排序B. 快速排序C. 插入排序D. 堆排序6. 下列哪个选项是计算机网络安全中的对称加密算法?A. RSAB. AESC. DSAD. ECCA. DijkstraB. FloydWarshallC. KruskalD. Prim8. 下列哪个选项是计算机科学中的图论问题?A. 快速排序B. 单源最短路径C. 求解背包问题D. 求解N皇后问题9. 下列哪个选项是计算机科学中的动态规划问题?A. 快速排序B. 单源最短路径C. 求解背包问题D. 求解N皇后问题10. 下列哪个选项是计算机科学中的贪心算法问题?A. 快速排序B. 单源最短路径C. 求解背包问题D. 求解最小树二、填空题1. 在计算机科学中,二叉树中的节点包含两个指针,分别指向其______和______。
2. 在计算机科学中,哈希表是一种基于______的数据结构。
3. 在计算机科学中,递归算法的设计思想是______。
4. 在计算机科学中,TCP协议是一种______协议。
5. 在计算机科学中,操作系统中的进程和线程的主要区别是______。
6. 在计算机科学中,冒泡排序的平均时间复杂度为______。
7. 在计算机科学中,快速排序的平均时间复杂度为______。
8. 在计算机科学中,计算机网络的OSI模型共有______层。
9. 在计算机科学中,计算机网络的TCP/IP模型共有______层。
10. 在计算机科学中,计算机硬件系统由______和______两大部分组成。
itil-foundation-v3考试题库
EX0-101 ITIL Foundation v.3Exam AQUESTION 1What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual ServiceImprovement (CSI)?Return On Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), qualityA.Strategic, tactical and operationalB.CCritical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities.Technology, process and serviceD.Answer: DQUESTION 2Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?To prevent Problems and their resultant IncidentsA.To manage Problems throughout their lifecycleB.CTo restore service to a user.To eliminate recurring IncidentsD.Answer: CQUESTION 3Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:Services and ComponentsA.BServices and Business Processes.CComponents and Business Processes.Services, Components and Business ProcessesD.Answer: AQUESTION 4Contracts are used to define:AThe provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider.The provision of goods and services by SuppliersB.Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer C.Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreementD.Answer: BQUESTION 5Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?Requirement to always call the Service Desk for service requestsA.Web front-endB.CMenu-driven range of self help and service requests.A direct interface into the back-end process-handling softwareD.Answer: AQUESTION 6Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?The Service ProviderA.BThe Service Level Manager.CThe Customer.The Finance departmentD.Answer: AQUESTION 7Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service Operation to perform?1. Communication between Data Centre shifts2. Communication related to changes3. Performance reporting4. Routine operational communicationA1 only.2 and3 onlyB.C1, 2 and 4 only.DAll of the above.Answer: DQUESTION 8How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?As many as necessary to complete the activityA.BOnly one - the process owner.C.Two - the process owner and the process enactorD.Only one - the process architectAnswer: BQUESTION 9What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?A.Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers B.Reporting intervals should be set by the Service ProviderC.Reports should be produced weeklyD.Service reporting intervals must be the same for all servicesAnswer: AQUESTION 10Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?A .A set of specialised organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form ofservicesB .A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole,operatingtogether for a common purposeC.The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activitiesD.Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activitiesAnswer: AQUESTION 11Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?1. Roles2. Activities3. Functions4. ResponsibilitiesA.1 and 3 onlyB.All of the aboveC.2 and 4 onlyD.1, 2 and 4 onlyAnswer: DQUESTION 12Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder2. It defines activities that are executed by a single functionBoth of the aboveA.1 onlyB.Neither of the aboveC.2 onlyD.Answer: BQUESTION 13What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?The Service Strategy and Service Transition booksA.The ITIL Complementary GuidanceB.The Service Support and Service Delivery booksC.Pocket GuidesD.Answer: BQUESTION 14Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supportedA.To provide training and certification in project managementB.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management C.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release D.Answer: BQUESTION 15What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle A.To proactively prevent all outages to IT ServicesB.To design and build processes that will meet business needsC.DTo deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers.Answer: DQUESTION 16Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?A .To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption ordisasterB.To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customersC .To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building areprotected fromthreats, damage or lossD.To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementationAnswer: DQUESTION 17What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?A.An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organizationB.An agreement between the service provider and an external organizationC.A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basisD.A document that describes business services to operational staffAnswer: AQUESTION 18Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?A.A measurement of costB.A function described within Service TransitionC.The team of people responsible for implementing a releaseD.The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released togetherAnswer: DQUESTION 19The BEST definition of an Incident is:A.An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service B.An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT ServiceC.Any disruption to service whether planned or unplannedD .Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether theservice isimpacted or not Answer: BQUESTION 20In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?A .An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted anyusersB.An Incident is passed to second-level supportC .A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurringIncidentsD.Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing itAnswer: CQUESTION 21Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?A.A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet knownB.The cause of two or more IncidentsC.A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the businessD.The cause of one or more IncidentsAnswer: DQUESTION 22Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:A.People, Process, Partners, SuppliersB.People, Process, Products, TechnologyC.People, Process, Products, PartnersD.People, Products, Technology, PartnersAnswer: CQUESTION 23What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:1. What is the vision?2. Where are we now?3. Where do we want to be?4. How do we get there?5. Did we get there?6. ?A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?B.How much did it cost?C.How do we keep the momentum going?D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?Answer: CQUESTION 24Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?A.Processes and functionsB.Maturity and costC.The end to end serviceD.Infrastructure availabilityAnswer: CQUESTION 25The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services B.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of servicesC.To create and populate a Service CatalogueD.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT servicesAnswer: DQUESTION 26Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?A.Supplier Management and Service Level ManagementB.Supplier Management and Demand ManagementC.Demand Management and Service Level ManagementD.Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level ManagementAnswer: AQUESTION 27Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT?A .The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are beingconsidered for future developmentB .The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only hasinformationabout services which are being considered for future developmentC .The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only hasinformationabout services which are live, or being prepared for deploymentD.Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thingAnswer: CQUESTION 28Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?A.Service Level ManagementB.IT Operations ManagementC.Capacity ManagementD.Incident ManagementAnswer: BQUESTION 29Consider the following list:1. Change Authority2. Change Manager3. Change Advisory Board (CAB)What are these BEST described as?A.Job descriptionsB.FunctionsC.TeamsD.Roles, people or groupsAnswer: DQUESTION 30Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?A .Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release andDeploymentManagementB .Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service RequestManagementC .Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration ManagementD .Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management,RequestFulfilmentAnswer: AQUESTION 31Which of the following statements is CORRECT?A.The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data BaseB .The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration ManagementSystemC .The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge ManagementsystemD.The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management DatabaseAnswer: CQUESTION 32Major Incidents require:A.Separate proceduresB.Less urgencyC.Longer timescalesD.Less documentationAnswer: AQUESTION 33Which of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?A .Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when aservice hasbeen disruptedB .Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption tonormal service.This includes technical staffC .All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service DeskactivityD .Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staffmanageinfrastructure devices not services Answer: BQUESTION 34What is the BEST description of a Major Incident?A .An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround canbe foundB.An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolveC.An Incident logged by a senior managerD.An Incident which has a high priority or high impact on the businessAnswer: DQUESTION 35Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcomeA.1 onlyB.Both of the aboveC.2 onlyD.Neither of the aboveAnswer: BQUESTION 36Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?A.Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each otherB.Urgency should be based on impact and priorityC.Impact should be based on urgency and priorityD.Priority should be based on impact and urgencyAnswer: DQUESTION 37Hierarchic escalation is best described as?A.Notifying more senior levels of management about an IncidentB.Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skillC .Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customersatisfactionD.Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level AgreementAnswer: AQUESTION 38Which of the following BEST describes a Service Request?A.A request from a User for information, advice or for a Standard ChangeB.Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay forC.Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interfaceD .Any Request for Change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Managerwithout aChange Advisory Board (CAB) meetingAnswer: AQUESTION 39Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?A.Service StrategyB.Service TransitionC.Service OperationD.Continual Service ImprovementAnswer: CQUESTION 40Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?A.To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request themB .To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the ServiceDeskC.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard servicesD.To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requestedAnswer: BQUESTION 41Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?A.Request FulfilmentB.Service Portfolio ManagementC.Service DeskD.IT FinanceAnswer: AQUESTION 42Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?1. Local Service Desk2. Virtual Service Desk3. IT Help Desk4. Follow the SunA1, 2 and 4 only.2, 3 and 4 onlyB.1, 3 and 4 onlyC.D1, 2 and 3 only.Answer: AQUESTION 43Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?ANetwork Management and Application Management.Technical Management and Change ManagementB.IT Operations Control and Facilities ManagementC.DFacilities Management and Release Management.Answer: CQUESTION 44Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?AWisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge.Data - Information - Knowledge - WisdomB.Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - DataC.DInformation - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom.Answer: BQUESTION 45Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?AKnowledge.InformationB.WisdomC.DData.Answer: CQUESTION 46The BEST processes to automate are those that are:ACarried out by Service Operations.Carried out by lots of peopleB.Critical to the success of the business missionC.DSimple and well understood.Answer: DQUESTION 47Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?1. Data mining and workflow tools2. Measurement and reporting systems3. Release and deployment technology4. Process DesignA2, 3 and 4 only.1, 3 and 4 onlyB.C1, 2 and 3 only.All of the aboveD.Answer: CQUESTION 48Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)A.BCustomer and User satisfaction.CUnderstanding Service Requirements and Warranty.Utility and WarrantyD.Answer: DQUESTION 49Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?AMeasurement, methods and metrics.Service Design PackageB.Service Portfolio DesignC.Process definitionsD.Answer: BQUESTION 50What is the Service Pipeline?A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stageB.All services except those that have been retiredC.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) D.All complex multi-user servicesAnswer: AQUESTION 51Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are heldB .A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs)are storedand protectedC.A database that contains definitions of all media CIsD .A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are storedandprotectedAnswer: BQUESTION 52In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to: A.IT Infrastructure and ApplicationsB.Services, technology and toolsC.Goods provided by third parties to support the IT ServicesD.All assets belonging to the Service ProviderAnswer: BQUESTION 53Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:A.Service Design: Design the processesB.Service Strategy: Develop the offeringsC.Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deploymentD.Service Operation: IT Operations ManagementAnswer: AQUESTION 54Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?Service Catalogue ManagementA.BService Level Management.CIT Service Continuity Management.Capacity ManagementD.Answer: DQUESTION 55Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in1, 2 and 3 onlyA.1 and2 onlyB.1, 2 and 4 onlyC.DAll of the above.Answer: AQUESTION 56Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?Continual Service ImprovementA.Business Relationship ManagementB.Service Level ManagementC.Availability ManagementD.Answer: CQUESTION 57Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goalsA 1 onlyBAll of the above.1 and2 onlyC.1 and 3 onlyD.Answer: BQUESTION 58Reliability is a measure of:The availability of a service or componentA.BThe level of risk that could impact a service or process.How long a service or component can perform its function without failingC.DA measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working.Answer: CQUESTION 59Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?Change ManagementA.Service Portfolio ManagementB.Supplier ManagementC.Continual Service ImprovementD.Answer: CQUESTION 60The Supplier Management process includes:1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements 2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business1 and2 onlyA.1 onlyB.All of the aboveC.D1 and 3 only.Answer: CQUESTION 61Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:A configuration management database (CMDB)A.A capacity database (CDB)B.A configuration management system (CMS)C.A capacity management information system (CMIS)D.Answer: DQUESTION 62Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?Capacity ManagementA.Incident ManagementB.Service Level ManagementC.Financial ManagementD.Answer: AQUESTION 63IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:1: Design of the service technology2: Business continuity strategy3: Business Impact Analysis4: Risk assessment1, 2 and 4 onlyA.1, 2 and 3 onlyB.2, 3 and 4 onlyC.1, 3 and 4 onlyD.Answer: CQUESTION 64A change process model should include:1 - The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing defined, including handling issues and unexpected events2 - Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation3 - Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions4 - Complaints procedures1,2 and 3 onlyA.B All of the aboveC.1 and2 onlyD.1,2 and 4 onlyAnswer: AQUESTION 65Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?A.The Change Advisory BoardB.A person that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.C .A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type ofchange.D.The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each changeAnswer: CQUESTION 66Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management processA.A change to a contract with a supplierB.A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposesC.An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incidentD.A change to a business process that depends on IT ServicesAnswer: DQUESTION 67Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?A .To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Designand that willaccomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectivesB .To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of relatedassets andservice components that are compatible with each otherC .To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested,verified and/oruninstalled or backed out if appropriateD.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed serviceAnswer: AQUESTION 68Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?A A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systemsB .A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery ofservice tocustomersC.Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support FunctionD .A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertiseand overallmanagement of the IT InfrastructureAnswer: DQUESTION 69Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?A.Technical ManagementB.Service DeskC.IT Operations ControlD.Facilities ManagementAnswer: DQUESTION 70Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?A.Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are notB.Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service AssetC.Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are notD.Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service AssetAnswer: BQUESTION 71A risk is:A.Something that won't happenB.Something that will happenC.Something that has happenedD.Something that might happenAnswer: DQUESTION 72A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is:A.The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each partyB.An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organizationC.An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplierD.An agreement between the Service Provider and their customerAnswer: DQUESTION 73The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is called:A.A Service Level PackageB.A Service Transition PackageC.A Service Design PackageD.A New Service PackageAnswer: CQUESTION 74When should tests for a new service be designed?A.At the same time as the service is designedB.After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition C.As part of Service TransitionD.Before the service is designedAnswer: AQUESTION 75Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?A .Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;ContinuallyImproveB .Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do wekeep themomentum going?C .Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement theplan; Checkthe plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solutionD .What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?;Did we getthere?; How do we keep the momentum going?。
银行招聘之银行招聘职业能力测验考前冲刺试卷含答案讲解
银行招聘之银行招聘职业能力测验考前冲刺试卷含答案讲解单选题(共20题)1. To which organization did Mr. Pareja submit paperwork?A.Big Sky NetworksB.Virginia Chamber of CommerceC.Superior TelecommunicationsD.State Bureau of Businesses【答案】 B2. __________ the 2008 Olympic Games will be held in Beijing is quite clear to the people all over the world.A.ThatB.WhetherC.WhatD.If【答案】 A3. 在Word 2000的编辑状态下,打开了文档“myl.doc”,把当前文档以“my2.doc”为名进行“另存为”操作,则( )。
A.当前文档是myl.DocB.当前文档是my2.docC.当前文档是myl.doc与my2.docD.myl.doc与my2.doc全部关闭【答案】 B4. 商店以每盘10元的价格购进一批磁带.又以每盘12元的价格出售。
卖到还剩5盘时,除全部成本外还获利40元.这批磁带共有多少盘?()A.40B.45C.50D.55【答案】 C5. 根据下列资料,完成116-120题。
A.2006年1月,我国基本型乘用车(轿车)保持旺销,当月销售近30万辆B.2006年1月.上海通用轿车月销量超过2.5万辆C.2006年1月,销量位居前五名的汽车企业依次为:上海大众、上海通用、北京现代、奇瑞和东方日产D.2006年1月。
一汽夏利在轿车中销量位居第七【答案】 C6. What can we learn about the middle class families from the text? __________A.They blamed the government for the tuition increaseB.Their income remained steady in the last decadeC.They will try their best to send kids to collegeD.Their debts will be paid off within 25 years【答案】 C7. 在下列针对中央银行资产项目的变动中,导致存款机构准备金减少的是()。
2022年08月浙江大学高性能嵌入式计算科研团队度科研岗位招聘笔试参考题库含答案解析
2022年08月浙江大学高性能嵌入式计算科研团队度科研岗位招聘笔试参考题库含答案解析(图片可自由调整大小)全文为Word可编辑,若为PDF皆为盗版,请谨慎购买!卷I一.高等教育法规(共15题)1.坚定走()的文明发展道路,建设魅力中国,为人民创造良好生产生活环境,为全球生态安全作出贡献。
A.生产发展、生活美好、环境美丽B.生产发展、生活富裕、生态良好C.经济增长、生活富裕、社会和谐D.经济发展、生活富裕、自然美丽答案:B本题解析:暂无解析2.下列论述错误的是()。
A.法是统治阶级意志的体现,只能由国家制定B.法律是规定权利和义务的行为规范C.法律依靠国家强制力来得以实施D.法的规范作用主要包括指引、评价、预测、教育等方面答案:A本题解析:暂无解析3.根据《中外合作办学条例》规定,中外合作办学机构应以何种语言为基本教学语言文字()A.普通话和规范汉字B.英语C.合作外方规范语言D.由合作双方商定答案:A本题解析:暂无解析4.下列()不是我国教育权法律救济体制中的制度的一种。
A.学生申诉制度B.行政复议制度C.行政诉讼制度D.司法调解制度答案:D本题解析:我国教育权法律救济体制主要由以下各项制度构成:教师申诉制度、学生申诉制度、行政复议制度、行政诉讼制度、行政赔偿制度和民事诉讼制度。
5.下列属于教育法规表现形式的是()。
A.决议B.决定C.通知D.实施细则答案:D本题解析:暂无解析6.学校派张老师参加省里的骨干教师培训,但扣其绩效工资五百元,这()。
A.侵犯了教师进修培训权B.加强了经费管理C.体现了按劳取酬D.节约了办学成本答案:A本题解析:教师有参加当地教育行政部门或学校列入计划的各种形式的进修和其他培训的权利。
7.江苏真题:按照我国教育行政复议的程序规定,下列()不是我国教育行政复议程序的环节。
A.申请B.反馈C.审理D.决定答案:B本题解析:教育行政复议程序基本上分为申请、受理、审理、决定和执行几个步骤。
金融专业基础2003【试题+答案】
对外经济贸易大学2003年攻读硕士学位研究生入学考试(金融学院)金融学:专业基础课(试题代码:471)所有答题(包括英语的判断题和选择题)均做在答卷纸上,并在每题答案前标明各级题号。
答在本试题卷上无效。
本试卷共4页。
一、True-False Questions (1×15=15 points. Please write “T” for true statements or “F” forfales statements following every question number on your answer sheet)1.International investment position is a concept of stocks.n currency market does not belong to European currency market.3.Tariff is of expenditure shifting policies, but monetary policy is just one of expenditure switching policies.4.Yankee bond is a kind of Eurobonds.5.Foreign exchange control is mainly aimed at residents.6.The theoretical foundation of commodity arbitrage is the Law of One Price, so is that of interest arbitrage.7.The meaning of foreign exchange at premium or discount in direct quotation system is just the opposite of that in indirect quotation system.8.Monetary Approach to exchange rate determination is actually another version of Purchasing Power Parity Theory.9.Interest Parity Theory is about determination of short-run exchange rate.10.Buying in the international gold market will increase international reserves.11.Free floating of exchange rate leads to a huge drain on foreign exchange reserves.12.Devaluating native currency may improve on trade account balance.13.In buyer’s credit, payment at sight is required.14.Bretton Woods System can be regarded as an exchange rate system of gold exchange standard.15.Reverse position in IMF is included in general drawing rights.答案:1T 2F 3F 4F 5F 6t 7F 8F 9 T 10F 11F 12F 13F 14F 15F二、Single or Multiple-Choice Questions(2×10=20 points. In each question, at least oneanswer in true. If your choices are right but fewer than the standard, you will still get fewer points. Please write the letters of your choice following every question number on your answer sheet)1.Meade’s conflict will take place in conditions ofa. unemployment and deficit in the balance of paymentsb. unemployment and surplus in the balance of paymentsc. inflation and deficit in the balance of paymentsd. inflation and surplus in the balance of payments2.Which of the following organizations are included in the world bank group?a. International Bank for Reconstruction and Developmentb. International Development Associationc. International Finance Companyd. Bank for International settlements3.Assume that annual interest rate of Great British pound is 21% and that of US dollar is 9%, then according to Interest Parity Theory Great British pound relative to US dollar in 3 monthsforward exchange market will be devaluated bya. 30%b. 12%c. 10%d. 7.5%e. 4%f. 3%4.Bretton Woods System is the result ofa. White Planb. Keynes Planc. Brady Pland. Marshall Plan5.Currencies determining value of SDRs after 1999 includea. Swiss Francb.United State Dollarc. French Francd. Deutsche Marke. Italian Liraf. Great British Poundg. Japanese Yenh. Euro6.According to Balance of Payment Theory of Exchange Rate , which of the following factors will lead to devaluation of native of native currency?a. domestic interest rate level upb. foreign GNP increasedc. native GNP increasedd. domestic price level up7.Eurodollat meansa. US dollar in Europeb. US dollar outside USAc. a general term of US dollars in the whole worldd. US dollar reserve8.In general, a letter of credit isa. irrevocableb. confirmedc. unconfirmedd. transferablee. nontransferable9.In Absorption Approach to the balance of payments , the direct influence of devaluation on absorption includesa. cash balances effectb. terms-of-trade effectc. income redistribution effectd. monetary illusion effecte. idle resources effect10. When economy is in conditions of inflation and deficit in the balance of payments, which of policy mixes should be practiced by Mundell Assignment Rule?a. decreasing fiscal expenditure and raising interest rateb. increasing fiscal expenditure and reducing interest ratec. increasing fiscal expenditure and raising interest rated. decreasing fiscal expenditure and reducing interest rate答案:1ad 2abc 3f 4ab 5cde 6cd 7b 8 9acd 10ac三、简答题(每小题4分,共36分)1.什么是边际效用递减规律?答:(1)基数效用论者的两个基本概念就是总效用和边际效用。
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RT03 – SL Periodicity Review Quiz
Name……………………………………………………..
1.Which pair of elements reacts most readily?
A. Li + Br2
B. Li + Cl2
C. K + Br2
D. K + Cl2
2. Rubidium is an element in the same group of the periodic table as lithium and sodium.
It is likely to be a metal which has a
A. high melting point and reacts slowly with water.
B. high melting point and reacts vigorously with water.
C. low melting point and reacts vigorously with water.
D. low melting point and reacts slowly with water.
3.The compounds Na2O, Al2O3 and SO2 respectively are
A. acidic, amphoteric and basic.
B. amphoteric, basic and acidic.
C. basic, acidic and amphoteric.
D. basic, amphoteric and acidic.
4. Which of the following properties of the halogens increase from F to I?
I. Atomic radius
II. Melting point
III. Electronegativity
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
5.Which properties of period 3 elements increase from sodium to argon?
I. Nuclear charge
II. Atomic radius
III. Electronegativity
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
6.Which general trends are correct for the oxides of the period 3 elements (Na2O to Cl2O)?
I. Acid character decreases.
II. Electrical conductivity (in the molten state) decreases.
III. Bonding changes from ionic to covalent.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
7.Describe the acid-base character of the oxides of the period 3 elements Na to Ar. For sodium oxide and sulfur
trioxide, write balanced equations to illustrate their acid-base character.
(Total 3 marks)
8.Explain why
(i) the first ionization energy of magnesium is lower than that of fluorine.
(2)
(ii) magnesium has a higher melting point than sodium.
(3)
(Total 5 marks)
9.(i) Describe three similarities and one difference in the reactions of lithium and potassium with water.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(4)
(ii) Give an equation for one of these reactions. Suggest a pH value for the resulting solution, and give a reason for your answer.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(3)
(Total 7 marks)
10.Table 8 of the Data Booklet gives the atomic and ionic radii of elements. State and explain the difference between
(i) the atomic radius of nitrogen and oxygen.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(2)
(ii) the atomic radius of nitrogen and phosphorus.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(1)
(iii) the atomic and ionic radius of nitrogen.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(2)
(Total 5 marks)。