天津市滨海新区2019_2020学年高二英语上学期期末检测试题

天津市滨海新区2019-2020学年高二英语上学期期末检测试题本试卷分为第I卷（听力）、第11卷（选择题）、第III卷（非选择题）三部分。

试卷满分150分.考试时间100分钟。

第I卷听力（满分30分）
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分〉
第一节（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分）
听下面五段对话.每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位听完每段对话后.你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题.每段对话仅读一遍。

1. How is the weather now?
A. Cloudy;
B. Rainy.
C. Sunny.
2.Who is coming to visit the woman?
A. Tom.
B. Man
C. John.
3.Why did the woman have a bad day ?
A. She couldn't find anything.
B. She was late for work.
C. She was lost.
4.Where is the man's raincoat?
A. On the bus.
B. At home.
C. In the office.
5. What are the speakers mainly discussing?
A. Which hotel they will choose.
B. When they will book a hotel.
C. What the hotel on the seaside is like.
第二节（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
听下面几段材料.每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置,听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小每小题5秒钟；听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

每段材料读两遍。

听下面一段对话，回答第6至第8三个小题。

6. When did the woman start to go on a diet?
A. Two months ago.
B. Three months ago.
C. Five months ago.
7. What did the woman's trainer advise her to do?
A. Eat less.
B. Exercise more.
C. Change her eating habits.
8. What will the man probably try to do next?
A. Join a running club.
B. Eat smaller meals a day.
C. Ask the woman's trainer for help.
听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11三个小题。

9. Why is Mr Smith leaving his position?
A. To change a job.
B. To travel around the world.
C. To move to another country.
10. How does the man feel about Mr Smith's leaving?
A. Surprised.
B. Pleased.
C. Angry.
11 . What will the man do on Friday afternoon?
A. Plan for a meeting.
B. Visit a lawyer.
C. Attend a party.
听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15四个小题。

12.What can people do in the center?
A. Play volleyball.
B. Play basketball.
C. Go wall climbing.
13. How much will it cost to come to the center for a day?
A. $15.
B.$l8
C. $25.
14.What is the maximum of the group booking?
A.5.
B.8
C.18.
15.Who is Peter Wright?
A.A manager.
B. An operator.
C. A coach.
第II卷选择题（满分90分）
第二部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分52.5分）
第一节单项填空（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

16. The new law has come into effect, and __ number of wild animals here is
on _________ i ncrease now.
A. the; the
B. a; the
C. the; /
D. a: /
17. David asked his nephew to ____ his bag while he headed for a drink at the airport.
A. run out of
B. keep an eye on
C. make up for
D. take advantage of
18.Sorn. I would have come earlier, but I __ that you were waiting.
A. didn't know
B. hadn't known
C. don't know
D. haven't known
19.Tom was so wild about computer games that he would stay online for ten hours ___________a day.
A. in the end
B. in particular
C. on end
D. on purpose
20.—He was a real sportsman. ____ he is not very well-known.
— _____. Besides, he was young.
A. though: I am afraid not
B. since; You are sure
C. even if: I agree absolutely
D. because; That's that point
21 .We forbid _____ here. Who has permitted you _____ here?
A. smoke; smoking
B. smoking; to smoke
C. smoking; smoking
D. to smoke; smoking
22.It makes no ____ to me whether he will go to the city or not. Anyhow, I will go.
A. thing
B. difference
C. matter
D. affair
23. The man pulled out a gold watch, _ were made of small diamonds.
A. the hands of whom
B. whom the hands of
C. which the hands of
D. the hands of which
24. A hearty laugh relieves physical tension, your muscles relaxed for over half an hour.
A. to leave
B. leaving
C. left
D. leave
25.I remember a ______ f amous scientist said that we should believe in ourselves first of all.
A. some
B. certain
C. sure
D. other
26. When he was still very young, Ba Jin __ the reputation he still enjoys today as one of China's greatest writers.
A. founded
B. started
C. established
D. made
27. As teachers, we should be ____ of our students' feelings. And then they will trust us.
A. anxious
B. afraid
C. delighted
D. considerate
28. The hall had no spare seats left last night. , the performance achieved
a great success.
A. Immediately
B. Fortunately
C. Surprisingly
D. Obviously
29.Shakespeare's play Hamlet_____ into at least ten different films over the past years.
A. had been made
B. was made
C. has been made
D. would be made
30.You _______ have carried all these parcels yourself. the shop would have delivered them if you had asked them.
A. may not
B. needn't
C. can't
D. mustn't
第二节完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从31〜50各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出量佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Be a Good One
庸之才）.When you choose the path of excellence through this life, you will bring
it is to be satisfied.
31. A. linked B. ensured C. proved D. invented
32. A. need B. take C. make D. bring
33. A. greedy B. famous C. polite D. generous
34. A. actor B. conductor C. performer D. musician
35. A. failed B. worked C. acted D. lived
36. A. choices B. jobs C. chances D. fortunes
37. A. Or B. So C. But D. And
3 8. A. card B. violin C. basketball D. piano
39. A. hard B. memorable C. unforgettable D. wonderful
40. A. bother B. seek C. struggle D. afford
41. A. recorded B. played C. wrote D. liked
42. A. surprised B. satisfied C. ashamed D. terrified
43. A. edge B. chair C. blanket D. floor
44. A. Thus B. Therefore C. Instead D. However
45. A. money B. cost C. charge D. fee
46. A. form B. meaning C. title D. beauty
47. A. adapted B. turned C. responded D. led
48. A. honest B. good C. wise D. positive
49. A. content B. patient C. popular D. busy
50. A. experience B. present C. addict D. receive
第三部分阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A
Silvano Lattanzi, the master of made — in — Italy shoemaking, was totally conquered by a painting hung in the entrance hall of the very modem Rich Gate, the luxury district in Shanghai.
The painting, before which he knelt down to show his admiration, is the Rich Gale Rose painted by Liu Linghua. who's known as the “Chinese Van Gogh".
It was in May 2016 that Lattanzi first met Liu Linghua who was working on his 15-square-meter great piece. Lattanzi, from the country where Renaissance began, saw the painting accidentally and was immediately impressed by its beauty. He told others that he never imagined that Western oil-painting techniques could be developed so well by a Chinese and that this was the best painting he had ever seen.
In the eyes of Westerners, Lattanzi is a great master of shoemaking, fashion and arts. His admiration for the Rich Gate Rose well shows the high level of Liu‘s painting. Ever since this, the two art masters of different nationalities, different ages and different cultural backgrounds have forged a profound friendship.
When Lattanzi came back to China six months later with the pair of shoes he made for Liu, he insisted on delivering the shoes to Liu himself. The two friends met again al the Rich Gale and Liu Linghua presented an embroidery（刺绣）of his master work The Drunken Beauty in return.
Liu expressed repeatedly that his works should be explained by painting and not
the greatest painters. A leading light or a grand master of art, Liu pays little attention to it. Liu thinks actions are more important than words.
51.We can know from the passage that ___ .
A. Lattanzi specially came to see the painting
B. Lattanzi is best at oil painting in Europe
C. Liu presented an oil painting to Lattanzi in return
D. the Rich Gate Rose is an excellent oil painting
52.What does Liu think of the compliments on his paintings?
A. He thinks his works are worthy of the compliments.
B. He cares much about the compliments.
C. He thinks the words can encourage him all the time.
D. He thinks the words can't well explain his works.
A. no better than
B. different from
C. as good/important as
D. ahead of
54.What's the right order of the following things according to the passage?
a. Silvano Lattanzi and Liu Linghua became true friends.
b. Silvano Lattanzi knelt down in front of the Rich Gate Rose.
c. Liu Linghua presented Silvano Lattanzi an embroidery.
d. Liu Linghua met Silvano Lattanzi for the first tim
e.
e. Silvano Lattanzi came back to China and met Liu Linghua again at the Rich Gate
with the shoes he made for Liu.
A. e-d-a-c-b
B. a-c-b-d-e
C. b-e-d-a-c
D. b-d-a-e-c
55. What's the best title for this passage?
A. Chinese Van Gogh.
B. Friendship between Masters.
C. Western Oil Painting.
D. A Shoemaking Master.
B
The United States Department of Agriculture has a program called Wildlife Services. Its job is to help protect agricultural and other resources. Often that means helping farmers deal with unwelcome visitors. This organization has experts from different fields and it has set up thousands of inquiry centers all over the country where farmer can explain their difficulty and get practical help.
One example from midlife Services of its work involved a farmer in Washington State in the Pacific Northwest. Several years ago, thousands of Canada geese landed on his fields. The geese began to eat his carrot crop. Biologists from the program suggested that the farmer use noise-making devices and other measures to scare the large birds away. These efforts succeeded, which made the farmer quite happy. midlife Services also has a livestock protection program. The program just offers suggestions to keep those unwelcome visitors away instead of killing them. The Wildlife Services program is part of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, or APHIS. APHIS offers some suggestions of ways to keep away predators. For example, try to keep food and water safe from wildlife. Fences may help keep out wolves, especially if the fences are at least two meters high.
Experts suggest providing secure shelter for chickens, sheep and other animals that could be attacked. They also suggest using lights above places where these animals are kept. And they advise people who see wolves to chase them away by shouting, making loud noises or throwing rocks. And to protect livestock, consider using guard animals
such as dogs and donkeys, which are very effective.
For home gardeners, a two-meter fence might help keep out deer. To keep out rabbits, a wire fence has to be only about a half-meter high. It should extend fifteen centimeters underground to keep rabbits from digging under it. If snakes are a problem, remove dead trees and cut high grass to destroy their hiding places. Due to its effective work, ever since the Wildlife Services was started, it has been well received by farmers all over the States and neighboring countries such as Canada and Mexico.
56. What does wildlife Services aim to help farmer handle?
A. Animals that attack farmers.
B. People who pollute the farmland.
C. People who don't care about wildlife.
D. Animals that do harm to crops or livestock.
57. It can be inferred from Paragraph 2 that .
A. the cabbage crop was eaten up by Canada geese
B. the farmer didn't have a gun to kill those Canada geese
C. Wildlife Services involves some biologists in its group
D. the farmers like to eat Canada geese very much
58. What is mainly discussed in Paragraph 3 and Paragraph 4?
A. Ways to protect livestock.
B. Ways to deal with wolves.
C. How to protect crops.
D. How to hunt wildlife.
59. Why should the bottom of the fence extend about 15 centimeters into the ground?
A. Wolves can climb over it easily.
B. The strong wind might blow it away.
C. Snakes can cross it from under the ground.
D. Rabbits may enter by digging holes under it.
60. Where does the passage probably come from?
A. A tourist brochure.
B. A science magazine.
C. An entertainment program.
D. A business report.
C
We walk, talk and sleep with our phones. But are we more — or less-connected? Just as remarkable as the power of mobility, over everything from love to global development, is how fast it all happened. It is hard to think of any tool, any instrument, any object in history with which so many developed so close a relationship so quickly as we have with our phones. Not the knife or match, the pen or page. Only money comes close—always at hand, don't leave home without it. But most of us don't take a wallet to bed with us. don't reach for it and check it every few minutes, and however useful money is in pursuit of fame, romance, revolution, it is inert compared with a smart phone — which can replace your wallet now anyway.
So how do we feel about this? To better understand attitudes about mass mobility, Time,in cooperation with Qualcomm, started the Time Mobility Poll, a survey of close to 5,000 people of all age groups and income levels in eight countries. Even the best survey can be only a snapshot in time, but this is revealing a lot about both where we are now and where the mobile wave is taking us next.
Not for a day —in most cases not even for an hour. In Time's Poll, 1 in 4 people check it every 30 minutes, 1 in 5 every 10 minutes. A third of respondents admitted that being without their mobile for even short periods leaves them feeling anxious. It is a form of sustenance, that constant feed of news and notes and nonsense, to be the point that twice as many people would pick their phones over their lunch if forced to choose. Three-quarters of 25-to 29-year-olds sleep with their phones.
Americans are grateful for the connection and convenience their phones provide, helping them search for a lower price, navigate a strange city, expand a customer base or track their health and finances, their family and friends. But in some ways Americans are still ambivalent（矛盾的）; more than 9 in 10 Brazilians and Indians agreed that being constantly connected is mostly a good thing. America's 76% was actually the lowest score.
61 .What can have a comparison with phones?
A. A pen.
B. A knife.
C. A match.
D. Money.
62.It can be inferred that a smart phone can also have the function of
A. paying bills
B. helping sleep
C. pursuit money
D. cutting things
63.Why did Time start the Time Mobility Poll?
A. Because it wanted to cooperate with Qualcomm.
B. Because it wanted to know where the mobile wave was taking us.
C. Because it wanted to learn people's attitudes to mass mobility
D. Because it wanted to know how well the mobile wave went.
64.What does Paragraph 3 mainly tell us?
A. Mobile phones have become a tool to sleep with.
B. Mobile phones have become a way to get news.
C. Mobile phones have become a tool to order food.
D. Mobile phones have become a must in daily life.
65.According to the passage. Americans are less .
A. likely to show appreciation to their phones
B. constantly connected than Indians
C. likely to search for a lower price
D. likely to find ways in a strange city
第Ⅲ卷非选择题（满分30分）
第四部分写作（共两节，满分30分）
第一节阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读短文，并按照题目要求用英语回答问题。

As a child growing up, I have very few memories of the times when we gathered as a family to sit down and eat dinner together. I grew up in a home where both of my parents worked. My mother taught school, and my father worked during the night at a local chemical plant. There was not much time available for us to sit down to eat dinner together due to my parents' conflicting work schedules and the extracurricular activities in which my sister and I participated.
It wasn't until I got married and had two children of my own that I began to realize the importance of eating dinner together. In my family there are elements that take us away from each other, day in and day out, but as a mother I feel it is my responsibility to bring us all back together again at the end of the day. In my house, dinner time is a time of thanks. I give thanks for the food we share, but I am more thankful for the family I share it with. Dinner time is a time for us to share our day, and reflect on our thoughts. It is also a time when we learn about honesty, perseverance, courage, sympathy and friendship. Above all it is a time when my family
are able to connect with the ones they love.
As I look at the bread basket which sits on my kitchen table, I am reminded of how the basket's tight weave resembles the tightly woven strands（线）of my family.
I believe that through our family dinner, we will not only pass around the meat and potatoes, but we will also hand round virtues that will shape and mold（塑造）us so that we can forever embrace one another just as the basket embraces the bread.
66. Why couldn't the author's family eat dinner together when she was young?
(No more than 15 words)
67. What does the underlin ed word “if in Paragraph 2 refer to?
(No more than 2 words)
68. What does the author think the dinner time actually is for her family?
(No more than 10 words)
69. What is the author's purpose in writing the passage?
(No more than 15 words)
70. What do you think of eating dinner together with your family? Please give your reason.
(No more than 25 words)
第二节书面表达(满分20分)
71.假设你是李华。

你校学生会要招募一名英语导游，陪同今年寒假期间即将来校访问的美国学生参观滨海新区。

请你根据下列提示向你校负责招募工作的外教Mr. Johnson用英语写一封自荐信。

(1) 爱好英语，口语表达能力强，曾在学校举办的英语演讲比赛中获奖；
(2) 性格开朗，善于与人沟通，责任心强；
(3) 滨海新区出生，熟悉本地区的历史、文化。

注意：
(1) 词数:.不少于100词；
(2) 可适当加入细节，使内容充实，行文连贯：
(3) 信的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。

参考词汇：英语演讲比赛the English Speech Contest
滨海新区Binhai New Area
Dear Mr. Johnson,
I'm writing to apply for the English-speaking guide in this winter vacation.
Looking forward to your earliest reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
滨海新区2019-2020学年度第一学期期末检测试卷
高二年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分听力(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
1-5. CBABA 6-10.ACBBA 11-15. CCACA
第二部分英语知识运用
第一节单项填空(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
16-20. ABACC 21-25. BBDBB 26-30. CDDCB
第二节完形填空(共20小题：每小题1.5分，满分30分)
31-35. CABDA 36-40. BCDAD 41-45. BADCA 46-50. DCBAD 第三部分阅读理解(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
51-55. DDCDB 56-60. DCADB 61-65. DACDB
第四部分写作第一节阅读表达(共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分)
66. Because of her parents,different (conflicting) working time (schedules) and children'、 extracurricular activities.
67. I he food.
68. It's a time to improve (strengthen, enhance) communication among family members. (Or: It's a time to connect (combine) family members together.)
69. To tell us it is important to have family dinner together.
(Or: To tell the readers it's important to eat dinner together with family members.)
70. Open
第二节书面表达(满分20分) Dear Mr. Johnson,
I'm writing to apply for the English-speaking guide in this winter vacation.
I'm qualified for the position for the following reasons. First of all, as a senior high student, I'm crazy about English and fluent in oral English, which contributes to my winning the prize in the English Speech Contest held at our school.
Besides, I have an optimistic personality, with an open mind and excellent communication skills to get along well with others. And with a strong sense of responsibility, I'm, able to lake on the task independently.
Above all, as a native of Binhai New Area, I have a good command about its history and culture. So I'm sure that I will be the right person for the work.
I would appreciate it if I'm offered the opportunity. I'll spare no effort to do it well. Looking forward to your earliest reply.
Yours,
Li Hua 阅读表达评分标准
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。

2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后综合给分。

3.词数少于100的，从总分中减去2分。

4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的
连贯性及语言的得体性。

5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。

每错误书写3个单词从总分中减去1分，原则上不超过3分，重复的不计。

英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

标点符号错误，将视其对交际的影响程度酌情分。

6.如书写较差，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。

二、各档次的给分范围和要求。