2019-2020学年无锡天一实验学校高三英语第四次联考试卷及答案

2019-2020学年无锡天一实验学校高三英语第四次联考试卷及答案第一部分阅读（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项
A
The history ofpop art begins with abstract art. Pop art emerged from the foundation of abstract art in the 1950s, first gaining recognition in Great Britain, then establishing itself in the United States in the 1960s.
In the 1930s and 1940s, abstract art was greatly popular, but people began to hate this art form. Most abstract art produced in this era could be found in art galleries or the homes of the elite(名流), not in the homes of everyday people. Pop art sprung onto the scene as the people's art.
Some art critics say pop art is a rebellion against abstract art; others say it is an extension of abstract art. You can see elements of abstract art in many pop art prints, especially those that consist of a collage（拼贴画）of images. However, some pop art pieces have nothing to do with abstract art, looking more like a photo of a popular consumer item, which impressed people deeply.
Richard Hamilton and Eduardo Paolozzi were two of the first contemporary pop art pioneers recognised in Great Britain. They were a part of the Independent Group, an organised group of British artists who wanted to challenge ruling modernist approaches to culture. They recognised the value of modern advertising and comic book images. They used these popular images in art as a social commentary, often building irony and humour into their artworks, thus creating a new form of art. These pieces were mass-produced and sold at affordable prices.
When pop art took off in the United States, it expanded to include a celebration of kitsch and the common images found in movies and television. Andy Wharhol is perhaps the most famous American pop art artist, known for his prints of the actress Marilyn Monroe, the singer Elvis Presley and of Campbell's soup cans. Andy Wharhol was inspired by images from advertisements and common consumer items. He also made a series of paintings which showed images of car accidents.
1. Why did people dislike abstract art?
A. People found it hard to understand.
B. Ordinary people couldn't afford it.
C. People disliked enjoying it in galleries.
D. It wasn't based on everyday life.
2. What impression do pop art works leave on people?
A. They are a rebellion against abstract art.
B. They have many elements of abstract art.
C. They are created so real.
D. They are products of advertisers.
3. The Independent Group was set up to ________.
A. introduce a new art form to the world
B. develop modern advertising further
C. create new comic book images
D. make British culture better known
B
Faming is a tradition among many in South Dakota, one that is not always easy to keep in the family. But one family has survived four generations and hopes to continue long into the future. The year was 1933 when Ed VanderWal's father first stepped onto the farm. Now 80 years later, Ed carries the passion(热情) his father gave him for farming every daywhile working the fields on the family farm in Volga.
“Well, I was in the first grade when my dad moved here to this farm and I grew up on the farm. And that's what I was interested in doing more,” Ed said. But that love of working the land didn't stop with Ed. He's passed it down to his six sons. Some of them run farms of their own now, but two of them, Scott and David, still work side by side with their dad every day.
Some people might worry that working sun up to sun down with family seven days a week would lead to a few family spats(争吵). But for the VanderWals, the constant time together works just fine.
“When families work together on a farm, it's a challenge at times getting along. Everyone has to pull their weight and do their share. And that, of course, transfers from one generation to the next,” Scott said.
And while they all get along like any family, with good days and bad, it's tradition that keeps each generation teaching the next.
“But we taught them to work with animals at a young age, like most farmers do. So it's nice to be able to pass that tradition onto the next generation,” Scott said.
The youngest generation of the VanderWals, Ed's three grandsons and a granddaughter, all started learning farming techniques at a young age.
4. Why did Ed VanderWal devote himself to the farm?
A. Because he grew up on the farm.
B. Because he was affected by his father.
C Because he could do nothing but work on the farm.
D. Because he wanted to set a good example for his sons.
5. What can we know from Paragraph 2?
A. Managing a farm is a real challenge.
B. Ed has divided his farms into six parts.
C. Ed taught his sons how to work on farms.
D. Scott and David own their own farms now.
6. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The VariderWals have strict family rules.
B. Ed's tradition has great effect on the local.
C. Ed's grandchildren will drop out of school.
D. Ed's farms have no lack of successors (继承者).
7. What's the best title of the passage?
A. A Faming Family.
B. A Successful Farmer.
C. The Agricultural 'Tradition.
D. The Agricultural Generation.
C
Volunteer Day
What better way is there to enjoy your own hobbies while helping others at the same time? Come to Volunteer Day and choose which activity you’d like to join for the day. See below for a schedule of events on Volunteer Day.
Volunteer Day schedule:
7:30am.: Meet at the Community (社区) Center for juice and bagels.
8:00—8:30 a.m.: Choose which activity you’d like to help with for the day.
8:30 a.m.: Board the bus to your activity site.
9:00 a.m.—3:30 p.m.: Work as a volunteer.
3:30 p.m.: Board the bus that will take you back to the Community Center.
See below for a list of volunteer opportunities for Volunteer Day so you can begin thinking about which activity you might want to join.
A list of volunteer activities:
Paint houses: Do you enjoy making art? If so, this volunteer opportunity might be just right for you! Happy Homes is a local organization that provides home repairs for needy people in the form of painting. For elderly or physically disabled people who cannot do repairs to their homes, Happy Homes provides volunteer painters to repaint old homes; outside or in. Happy Homes also provides painters to create beautiful wall paintings inside
schools or community centers.
Plant flowers: Do you enjoy being outside in nature? City Parks Association has many great opportunities for people who love to be outdoors. Help plant flowers and bushes in city parks; help lay paths at Cave Springs Park, or help pick up rubbish around the river banks. These activities are very active, so remember to be prepared with plenty of drinking water!
Read to children: Do you enjoy working with young children? Do you like books? Love and Learning is an organization that provides volunteers to help children with learning disabilities. Read books out loud to groups of children four to six years old, or read one-on-one with struggling readers seven to eight years old.
Play with animals: Do you love animals? Lovely Friends is an organization that visits local animal shelters and provides volunteers to spend time with the animals while their cages are being cleaned. Play with puppies, snuggle with cats, or hand-feed rabbits.
8. At what time do volunteers leave for their activity sites?
A. 7:30 a.m..
B. 8:00 a.m.
C. 8:30 a.m.
D. 9:00 a.m.
9. An outdoor lover probably takes part in ______.
A. Plant flowers
B. Paint houses
C. Read to children
D. Play with animals
10. What do Lovely Friends volunteers do?
A. Read books to children.
B. Spend time with animals.
C. Help plant bushes in parks.
D. Pick up garbage along the river.
11. The purpose of the passage is to _________.
A. educate children
B. attract volunteers
C. comfort the elderly
D. encourage the disabled
D
The health benefits of staying active are already well-known. It can help you manage weight, keep blood sugar levels down and reduce risk factors for heart disease.
Now, a new study suggests that regularly playing sports, especially badminton or tennis, is not only healthy but also reduces your risk of death, at any age, by approximately 50%. This is a big scale population study to explore the health benefits of sports in terms of death rate. The study evaluated responses from 80, 306 adults aged 30 and above inEnglandandScotland, who were surveyed about their health, lifestyle and exercise patterns.
After adjusting factors such as age, sex, weight, smoking habits, alcohol use, education and other forms of exercise besidesthe named sports, the researchers compared the risk of death among people who took part in a sport to those who didn’t. The percentage of reduced risk of death was found to be: 47% for racket（球拍）sports, 28% for swimming and 15% for cycling.
In addition to this, the study didn’t find any significant reduction in the risk for sports like running and football. The findings also exposed that over 44% of the participants met the guidelines for the recommended exercise levels to stay fit and healthy, which amounts to 150 minutes of moderate(适度的) physical activity in a week.
Does this mean you stop running or playing football and switch to tennis instead? Every kind of sport and physical activity has different physical, social and mental benefits attached to it. The apparent lack of benefits of running and football could result from several variables that were not taken into account.
Being active helps you feel happier and live longer. So, the most important step is to take part in any kind of sport that you are likely to enjoy and follow in the long term.
12. How is the study conducted?
A. By doing comparative experiments.
B. By analyzing previous data.
C. By evaluating survey information.
D. By tracking participants for a long time.
13. What does the underlined part “the named sports” refer to?
A. Ball sports.
B. Racket sports.
C. Individual sports.
D. Traditional sports.
14. What can we infer from paragraph 5?
A. Few people will play football.
B. Tennis will become more popular.
C. The result of this study is wrong.
D. The study needs to be further improved.
15. What does the author advise people to do?
A. Stick to any sport that you like.
B. Play badminton and tennis only.
C. Stop running and playing football.
D. Do any sport according to guidelines.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

选项中有两项为多余选项We all do little things to boost the way we feel and think throughout the day. Something as simple as taking a walk or eating a piece of chocolate can brighten your mood almost instantly, thanks tocertain chemical reactions that occur in the brain.___16___If you're going through something complex, you need a more permanent practice.
That's where writing comes in.
As Mental Health Awareness Month begins,it's worth learning about the ways that you can use writing to support your mental well-being.___17___
Use writing for mindfulness. Mindfulness is a tried-and-true technique for improving mental wellness,but can writing have the same effect?___18___By focusing on a particular moment and getting it all out there on the page, you can free yourself from any of the other concerns that are crowding your mind. This way, you can use writing as an approach to mindfulness and as a way of relieving stress.
Another benefit to writing is its ability to clear your mind of worries, negative thoughts, or sources of pain.___19___Fortunately, writing can speed up the process of restoring mental clarity.
___20___People were more likely to talk to others about a painful event after writing about it privately,which powerfully suggests that writing can indirectly lead to reaching out for support, which can mean even greater healing and relief.
Through the process of populating a blank page with letters and words, writing can be a useful mental health tool that both records your experiences and allows you to work through them.
A. Become more self-aware.
B. These pleasures are just temporary, however.
C. There's real power behind the pen—here's why.
D. Writing is also the best method of self-care treatment.
E. Clearing yourbrain of negative thoughts can be really tough work.
F. Actually,the act of writing for a mere 20 minutes each day can work.
G. This is because writing tends to stimulate questions about your life and direction-
第二部分语言运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项We climbed Mount Kinabalu the other day. It was our first____21____toSabah. It was a slow drive along country roads as we____22____Ranau. Ranau was a picturesque mountainside town where people____23____vegetables and fruit. At almost 5000 feet above sea level, the air was____24____cool.
The next morning, we were____25____and set off to a breakfast. Then we were assigned guides before our____26____, excited and fearful of what____27____ahead of us. By 6:30 a. m. , we were on a trail that climbed vertically into the jungle. The going was slow as we mounted up the narrow steep____28____. Although it was____29____, it wasn’t as bad as I had imagined. So I was in front of the group most of the_____30_____.
There were exotic plants and curious monkeys that made the trip_____31_____.
As we climbed, we had to take several_____32_____regularly. Then finally we reached the hut at Panar Laban. The night we spent there was miserable but_____33_____as the temperature dropped to minus 1. We tried to sleep as we had to_____34_____the climb at 2:45 a.m. the next morning.
With only the comforting voice of_____35_____, we grabbed our torches and_____36_____our way up rocks in the dark. As the hours passed, we watched the night grow_____37_____and as we reached the summit, dawn_____38_____over the horizon like a scene from a National Geographic Special. I was_____39_____the clouds at 13,000 feet or more. This is a day I will always remember, the day I_____40_____Kinabalu.
21. A. meeting B. trip C. reply D. task
22. A. looked B. hoped C. headed D. longed
23. A. grew B. selected C. gathered D. tasted
24. A. hardly B. eventually C. occasionally D. pleasantly
25. A. shouted B. awakened C. caught D. raised
26. A. voyage B. ride C. reach D. climb
27. A. lay B. came C. roared D. drove
28. A. paces B. entrances C. paths D. cliffs
29. A. impossible B. tough C. disturbing D. hopeless
30. A. road B. mountain C. way D. distance
31. A. exciting B. convenient C. imaginary D. safe
32. A. places B. steps C. positions D. breaks
33. A. cold B. warm C. memorable D. tragic
34. A. continue B. quit C. interrupt D. experience
35. A. leaders B. guides C. villagers D. tourists
36. A. overlooked B. planned C. demonstrated D. felt
37. A. noisier B. quieter C. darker D. brighter
38. A. broke B. became C. started D. turned
39. A. below B. above C. against D. beyond
40. A. arrived B. left C. conquered D. expected
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式
The Temple of Heaven Park, Tiantan in Chinese, is located in the Dongcheng District,Beijing. It is the___41.___(large) and most representative existing masterpiece amongChina’s ancient sacrificial buildings.___42.___(original), theTempleofHeavenwas the place where emperors of the Ming Dynasty and Qing Dynasty held the Heaven Worship Ceremony. First___43.___(build) in 1420, the 18th year of the reign of Emperor Yongle of the Ming Dynasty, the Temple of Heaven was enlarged and rebuilt during the reigns of the Ming emperor Jiajing and the Qing emperor Qianlong. In 1988, it___44.___(open) to the public as a park, showing ancient philosophy, history and religion. Its grand architectural style and profound cultural implication give___45.___insight into the practices of the ancient Eastern civilization.
Covering an area of 2,700,000 square meters, it is larger than theForbidden City,___46.___is enclosed by a long wall.___47.___(it) northern part within the wall is semicircular symbolizing the heavens and the southern part is square symbolizing the earth,___48.___(reflect) an ancient Chinese thought of “the heaven is round and the earth is square”. The main buildings lie___49.___the south and north ends of the middle axis of the inner part. The most significant is the Circular Mound Altar (Huanqiutan) to hold many____50.____(ceremony).
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节短文改错（满分10分）
51.短文改错
Before the holiday, I thought about doing something meaningfully. Suddenly, I remembered that there was a lot of primary school students putting up small shops and sell red bags on the street last Spring Festival. Wanting to have a try, so I begged my father to support him. He bought some lovely red bags and small toy. For the first time in my life I begin to sell things at the gate of the park. This experience of selling taught me the secret of communicating strangers, and I understood what hard it is for my parents to make money.
第二节书面表达（满分25分）
52.假定你是李华，你校国际部要举行一场校园音乐会，并请你在开幕式上致辞。

内容包括：
1.活动目的；
2.活动组织；
3.活动预期。

注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

注：选拔赛﹣qualification trial
参考答案
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. C 9. A 10. B 11. B
12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A
16. B 17. C 18. F 19. E 20. D
21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. C 31. A 32.
D 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C
41. largest
42. Originally
43. built 44. was opened
45. an 46. which
47. Its 48. reflecting
49. at 50. ceremonies
51.(1).meaningfully → meaningful
(2).was → were
(3).sell → selling
(4).删除so
(5).him → me
(6).toy → toys
(7).begin → began
(8).the → a
(9).在communicating 后加with
(10).what → how
52.略。