福建省宁德市2020-2021学年高二上学期期末考试英语试题1

宁德市2020—2021学年度第一学期期末高二质量检测
英语试题
注意事项：
1、本试卷共12页。

满分150分。

答题时间120分钟。

2、答题前，考生务必将自己的班级、姓名填写在试卷的相应位置。

3、全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在本试卷上无效。

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What was the weather like on weekend?
A. Cloudy.
B. Sunny.
C. Windy.
2. What does the woman need to buy?
A. Sunglasses.
B. A sun hat.
C. Shorts.
3. Why will the man go outside?
A. He needs to walk the dog.
B. He wants to do some exercise.
C. He has to go to work.
4. W hat is the woman’s favorite color now?
A. Blue.
B. Black.
C. Red.
5. Who invented the table tennis?
A. The Chinese.
B. The British.
C. The Germans.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。

听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。

6. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. At a store.
B. In the man’s room.
C. In a theatre.
7. What kind of music does the woman like?
A. Jazz music.
B. Rock music.
C. Country music.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。

8. What is the matter with the woman?
A. She has lost her way.
B. She has missed the bus.
C. She can’t find the subway station.
9. How far is Central Park from here?
A. It’s 59 miles away.
B. It’s two blocks away.
C. It’s about an hour’s walk.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Schoolmates.
B. Colleagues.
C. A couple.
11. What is the man’s problem?
A. He fears to take elevators.
B. He doesn’t like his new job.
C. His parents don’t understand him.
12. How did the woman overcome her problem?
A. By changing a job.
B. By turning to the man.
C. By taking a class.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题
13. When might the birthday party be?
A. On Thursday.
B. On Friday.
C. On Saturday.
14. What will the man do for the woman?
A. Check her car.
B. Buy the present.
C. Pick her up to the party.
15. What birthday gift will the man give to Tom?
A. A hat.
B. A gift card.
C. A C
D.
16. How will they celebrate Tom’s birthday?
A. Go to a movie.
B. Eat out in a restaurant.
C. See a band performance.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. Which activity does the speaker believe is best for losing weight?
A. Running.
B. Cycling.
C. Rowing.
18. How many calories does running burn per hour?
A. 400.
B. 500.
C. 600.
19. What does the speaker advise drinking before exercising?
A. Coffee.
B. Sugary drinks.
C. Water.
20. What music is suggested for exercise?
A. Your favorite songs.
B. Music with fast rhythm.
C. Songs you can sing along to.
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A
With its wonderful coastline and many historic sites, Croatia is the ideal destination for the family wishing to combine beach with a bit of culture.
BEST TIME TO GO
High season for Croatia is from July to August but the Croatian coast is wonderful from spring on. Swimming is generally possible from May to September when the sea is still around 23°C. But if you arrive in April, you may enjoy Carnival in Rijeka.
COST
Croatia is still reasonably inexpensive as a Mediterranean destination, but prices go up in July and August. Privately-run rooms are also often a better bet than hotels, which tend to be unfriendly. If you haven’t made a reservation, the local tou rist offices or travel agencies will be able to help. There is usually a 30% discount for stays longer than three nights. The agencies offer a very reasonable deal on a flight plus car hire.
GETTING AROUND
Croatia is a small country; it only takes a few hours at most to travel from one region to another. It might be worth staying in one place for the whole holiday and doing day trips. The buses, rather than the trains, reach the places of great distance.
21. When is Croatia most visited?
A. In May.
B. In September.
C. In July.
D. In April.
22. Which is true about local travel agencies?
（背面还有试题）
A. They tend to be unfriendly.
B. They offer a 30% discount.
C.They charge a little more in winter.
D. They arrange flight plus car hire at good price.
23. Where is the text probably from?
A.A book review.
B. A science report.
C. A travel magazine.
D. A diary.
B
John B. Goodenough, an engineering professor from the University of Texas at
Austin(UT-Austin), won the 2019 Nobel Prize for Chemistry for his work on developing lithium-ion batteries (锂电池). He was the oldest person to win a Nobel Prize.
Goodenough, who was born in 1922, identified and developed the key materials that can power portable electronics, leading to the wireless revolution. Today, batteries using Goodenough’s inventions are used worldwide for mobile phones, power tools, laptops, tablets and other wireless devices, as well as electric vehicles.
Goodenough received a bachelor’s degree in mathematics from Yale University at 21 and a doctor’s degree in physics from the University of Chicago when he was 30. He beat the odds against him, first overcoming dyslexia (阅读困难症) as a child, and then the claim of a teacher who told him in his 20s that he had started too late to be successful in physics.
He began his career in 1952 at Lincoln Laboratory at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), where he laid the groundwork for the development of random-access memory (RAM) for the digital computer.
After MIT, Goodenough became a professor and head of the Inorganic Chemistry Laboratory at the University of Oxford, where in 1979 he discovered it would be possible to store energy in rechargeable batteries through lithium cobalt oxide (锂钴氧化物). That discovery helped develop the lithium-ion battery.
Goodenough joined UT-Austin in 1986, where his groundbreaking work continued.
At 98 years old, he still continues to push the boundaries of materials science. In spite of the lithium-ion battery being well-developed and available as a commercial product, it has its limitations. It can’t be charged too fast or overcharged. Goodenough still wants to see some new developments.
“I hope UT-Austin still keeps me employed,” Goodenough once joked.
24. When did Goodenough achieve a doctor’s degree?
A. In 1922.
B. In 1943.
C. In 1952.
D. In 1979.
25. Where did Goodenough lay the basis for RAM?
A. At the University of Texas.
B. At the University of Oxford.
C. At the University of Chicago.
D. At the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
26. How can we describe Goodenough?
A. Considerate.
B. Determined.
C. Generous.
D. Modest.
27. Which of the following could be the best title?
A. Time waits for no man
B. Make the world “G oodenough”
C. Born poor, achieved great
D. Never too old to learn
C
Every Thursday morning, a snake-like queue forms outside streetwear brand Supreme’s store in Soho as fans line up in the hope of walking away with bags filled with limited edition clothing “dropped” that day. Among them are teenagers. T hey’ve come for the purpose of buying items to resell on Depop, a youth-targeted auction(竞拍) app.
And it’s not just Supreme.Generation Z—those born between the mid-1990s and early 2000s—are buying from streetwear brands such as Yeezy, and Nike to resell on platforms such as Depop, and eBay.
Forget delivering newspapers or working in the local supermarket. Instead, these teens are devoting hours every week to reselling limited edition goods, a job that’s earning them up to several thousand pounds a month.
Reuben Wall was just 14 when he became hooked on selling items online after he bought one extra Rubik’s Cube by accident. “I sold it for double the price that I got it for,” says Wall, now 18. He then spent the money buying two more and sold those on eBay, before purchasing more. From there he moved on to reselling other items. He says he will read comments and polls(投票) on Twitter to evaluate the popularity of a certain product. But s ometimes items will “brick”, so sometimes he takes a loss.
Depop founder Simon Beckerman says the app has “opened the doors” to a new generation using a marketplace for the first time. He says Generation Z aren’t afraid of building businesses from their bedrooms. “There’s very little risk in trying,” he adds. “There’s so much uncertainty around us nowadays that being your own boss is a v ery appealing idea.”
28. W hat’s the author’s purpose in writing Paragraph 1?
A. To introduce the topic.
B. To show his attitude.
C. To reach a conclusion.
D. To state a problem.
29. The underlined phrase “became hooked on” in paragraph 4 can be rep laced by “______.”
A. felt uncertain about
B. became crazy about
C. was tired of
D. was opposed to
30. How does Reuben Wall decide what to sell?
A. By consulting Simon Beckerman.
B. By studying the price difference.
C. By using different auction apps.
D. By analyzing online data.
31. What can we learn about Generation Z?
A. They prefer Depop to eBay.
B. They devote hours to delivering.
C. They love staying in their rooms.
D. They tend to build up their own businesses.
D
An National Health Service (NHS) study shows that after a five-day training course, nurses and psychology (心理学) graduates can treat depression as well as expert therapists (治疗专家). A cheap talking therapy, known as behavioural activation (BA), was just as effective as the gold-standard treatment, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) (认知行为疗法), in easing even serious depression.
David Richards, professor of mental health services research at the University of Exeter, who led the study, said, “Our findings challenge the advantage of CBT, the leading evidence-based psychological therapy for depression. BA should be a frontline treatment for depression in the UK.”
The NHS is attempting to offer talking therapy to 600,000 more people a year by 2020 under a plan to improve mental health care, and bosses are likely to welcome cheaper choices at a time when finances are tight.
BA aims to help people with depression by changing how they act, encouraging them to deal with problems through more positive activities and avoiding ones that make the problem worse. CBT encourages people to challenge their thoughts to avoid negative beliefs.
The study offered 440 patients either CBT or BA, and a year later two thirds of both groups said that symptoms were less than half as bad as they had been.
In the NHS, BA is likely to be offered by either nurses or psychology graduates with some mental health experience.
Liz England, of the Royal College of GP s, said, “Anything that makes it easier for our patients to get psychological therapies is something t o be welcomed.”
32. What is the advantage of BA over CBT?
A. It’s cheaper.
B. It’s more effective.
C. It’s a time saving therapy.
D. It’s a gold-standard therapy.
33. How does BA help people with depression?
A. By changing their behaviour.
B. By challenging their thoughts.
C. By avoiding negative beliefs.
D. By offering evidence-based therapy.
34. Who is likely to offer behavioural activation in NHS?
A. Those who work for NHS.
B. A student who majors in psychology.
C. A nurse who has received the training course.
D. Those who have some mental health experience.
35. What’s Liz’s attitude towards behavioural activation?
A. Puzzled.
B. Skeptical.
C. Favorable.
D. Disapproving.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

选项中有两项为多余选项。

Most of you probably want to have a few more weeks of summer holidays, but it is back-to-school time. New classrooms, new teachers and new classmates may make some of you really nervous. Don't worry. 36 .
Smile. I know that sounds like a small thing, but it's huge! One little smile goes a long way. Remember that most of the students at school are feeling just as nervous as you are. 37 Hold your head high and be confident.I know you might be feeling shy. 38
When others see you looking down or keeping a worried look on your face, they will think you don't want to be their friend. Believe that you are someone special!
39 There is no reason to be afraid that other students don't want to meet you. Be brave. Think how you feel when someone talks to you. They'll feel the same way. Here's how you do it—Hi. My name is .... What's your name?
Join a club. If you want to find new friends, you’ll need to start b y finding new people to be friends with. 40 You can join any club depending on your interests.
A. Introduce yourself.
B. Accept invitations.
C. It’s a perfect opportunity to start a conversation.
D. And they are looking for a friendly smiling face, too!
E. However, staring at the ground will not help you make friends.
F.Here are some tips on how to make new friends in high school.
G. Clubs provide a friendly environment for you to communicate with others.
第三部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

In 1991, I went to visit my grandma in an old folks’ home. At the time, she was 89, and I was 28. I felt a bit 41 , because the place was full of people at the last stage of their life. I didn’t know how to 42 that.
When I saw Grandma, they were having a 43 in the hall. After she introduced me, a woman in a wheelchair beside told me how much she 44 dancing. So I asked her to dance and she 45 accepted my invitation with a big smile. I 46 her to the open area, and I lifted her arm up and spun her wheelchair around, and we laughed a lot. When I wheeled her back, I 47 a lot of little old ladies smiling at me. So I 48 with them and we snowballed the party into a great dancing ball.
Of course, I danced with Grandma. While dancing, I asked how she dealt with 49 . She said: “Just accept the number of candles on the cake. Life won’t stay the same. So accept the 50 and make every day count. There’s a 51 that golden years are a time to celebrate accomplishments and 52 gained from experience.” Then I realized how 53 it was for me to see the old as they saw themselves. They weren’t thinking that much about growing older. 54 , they lived at the moment and 55 that room like stars.
41. A. delighted B. relaxed C. angry D. depressed
42. A. prove B. handle C. arrange D. possess
43. A. conference B. discussion C. party D. lesson
44. A. hated B. missed C. tolerated D. ignored
45. A. gladly B. unwillingly C. secretly D. cautiously
46. A. rushed B. demanded C. supported D. wheeled
47. A. noticed B. predicted C. stopped D. suggested
48. A. argued B. danced C. met D. agreed
49. A. hardship B. failure C. ageing D. friendship
50. A. explanations B. invitations C. suggestions D. changes
51. A. goal B. story C. dream D. theory
52. A. knowledge B. burden C. health D. luck
53. A. frightening B. easy C. rare D. ridiculous
54. A. Instead B. Strangely C. Besides D.Suddenly
55. A. warmed up B. lit up C. cleaned D. shared
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
（背面还有试题）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。

第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节应用文写作（满分15分）
假设你是李华，你校将邀请市红十字会开展应急救护培训活动，请写封邮件邀请你的英国朋友Jack 参加，要点包括：
1. 时间、地点；
2. 活动内容。

注意：
1. 词数80左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

参考词汇：红十字会the Red Cross
Dear Jack,
Yours,
Li Hua 第二节读后续写(满分25 分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节，使之构成一个完整的故事。

Ahn cleaned windows actively, a necessity for her family’s new Vietnamese restaurant. They had turned the room from ordinary to enjoyable, but everything had to be absolutely perfect: unique decorations, skillful employees and delicious traditional food. Then customers would love the place which would make the business a success.
Ahn felt tired and stopped to have a rest. When she looked outside the restaurant, she saw a girl about her age, with red hair, walking along the street slowly. Ahn’s family had recently moved into his neighborhood, so she had few friends.
The girl paused to study the sign announcing their opening and then looked directly at Ahn with a friendly smile. Ahn smiled back shyly and lifted a hand, accidentally waving with the cleaning cloth. They girl laughed with amusement and waved back happily.
Ahn hesitated (犹豫) because she was not accustomed to starting friendship, but she felt brave with the girl’s kind behavior. So she opened the door. “Hello,” she said, adding t he first thing that entered her head, "do you like Vietnamese food?"
“I don’t know, but I like to try new things,” the girl answered, and then she introduced hers elf as Gabriela.
Ahn could not think of a new conversation until she had a sudden idea. “Please wait here,” she requested, “and I’ll be right back.” She ran into the kitchen and explained her idea to her father. He was supportive, so seconds later Ahn gave a small package to Gabriela. “Some Vietnamese candy for you to try,” she explained. “If you enjoy it, I hope you’ll return to the restaurant sometime, or even come after school. when I’ll be here preparing for the dinner service.”
“Excellent, I’ll see you around soon.” Gabriela headed down the street, glancing back with a cheerful wave. Ahn spent the rest of the afternoon with anxiety, hoping Gabriela really would return and not think Ahn’s gift was strange.
The following day, Ahn decorated the restaurant with some artificial flowers and landscape pictures. She was admiring her achievement when she heard unexpected knocking.
Paragraph 1:
It turned out to be Gabriela, signaling to her with a plate in hand.
Paragraph 2:
And then, they sat and enjoyed the cakes with amusement.
宁德市2020–2021学年度第一学期期末高二质量检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分听力（共20小题, 每小题1.5分, 满分30分）
1-5 BABCB 6-10BAACA 11-15ACCBC 16-20CCAAB
第二部分阅读理解
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分）
21-23CDC 24-27CDBB 28-31ABDD 32-35AACC
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40FDEAG
第三部分英语知识运用
第一节完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）
41-45DBCBA 46-50DABCD 51-55DACAB
第二节语法填空（共10个空；每空1.5分, 满分15分；与参考答案不符的不得分。

）
56. companies 57. personal 58. it 59. pointed 60. will happen
61. which/that 62. to lift 63. especially 64. needs 65. or
第四部分写作（共两节满分40分）
第一节、应用文写作
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。

2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确
定或调整档次，最后给分。

3. 词数少于60从总分中减去2分，多写不扣分。

4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的
连贯性。

5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。

评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑英、
美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。

内容要点:
1、写邮件的目的；
2. 时间、地点；
3. 活动内容。

各档次的给分范围和要求
应用文写作评分细则
1、先按照5个档次的给分范围对号入座，依据要点、行文、词汇、语法、词数、书写等酌情
确定分数。

2、书面表达共3个内容要点，每个内容要点4分，共12分，语言准确性（包括行文通顺、
流畅、可读性强，语法结构，语句间的连接成分等）3分，合计15分。

漏掉一个要点扣4分。

3、出现两三个小错误，根据文章需要使用了较高级词汇、较复杂结构，有效使用了语句间的
连接成分，全文结构紧凑，可读性强，也可以评高分(13分),评卷教师要敢于评高分。

4、确定档次后，时态错误较多，在本档内扣2-3分，时态错误较少扣1分。

5、写出一个要点给4分。

6、要点齐全，错误相对较多，但不影响理解，可评（7—9分）。

要点齐全，错误很多，但不
影响理解，可评（4—6分）。

7、拼写错误、词汇错误只出现一个，不影响意思表达，不扣分。

错2—3个扣1分，5个以上
扣2分。

8、时态错误一个扣1分，多个时态错误扣分不超过3分。

9、要点认定：
考生须用比较完整的句子表达出要点。

如只写出关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为表达出该要点。

在表达要点的句子中，如果考生写出主谓结构及关键信息，但主谓结构有严重语言错误（如时态、语态，动词或只写出情态动词而无主语），酌情扣分（扣0.5或1分）。

10、在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定分值：1—2个错误，取该档次分值的高线；3—4
个错误，取该档次分值的中线；5个错误，取该档次分值的低线；6个以上错误，可以降一档，取降档后该档分值的中高线。

10个左右错误，取其降档后的低线。

Dear Jack,
How is everything going? I am writing to invite you to join me in First Aid Training. It will take place from 2pm to 4pm on February 1 in our school gym.
Held by the city Red Cross , the training tells us how to deal with emergencies around us, such as allergy, burns and heart attack. The skills will make a life and death difference if we are in need. If you are interested, please let me know.
Look forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua. 第二节、读后续写
评分原则:
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。

2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡
量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。

3.词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。

4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
(2)内容的丰富性；
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
(4)上下文的连贯性。

5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑。

6. 如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。

各档次的给分范围和要求
参考范文：
Paragraph 1:
It turned out to be Gabriela, signaling to her with a plate in hand. The plate was covered with plastic packaging. Ahn smiled with excitement and opened the door with a friendly greeting. Gabriela held out the plate. She brought some cakes made from her grandmother’s recipe to thank Ahn for the d elicious candy. Ahn happily invited Gabriela to come in and showed her around. Gabriela looked around the room and enjoyed the flowers and landscape pictures. “They are really wonderful, and I’m delighted to see your restaurant.”
Paragraph 2:
And then, they sat and enjoyed the cakes with amusement. Ahn told Gabriela that she intended to design a poster for the restaurant and needed some assistance. “Are you good with vocabulary?” she asked. “Certainly!” Gabriela said, adding, “I’m happy you moved into the neighborhood and also excited I have a new friend.” Ahn smiled, hoping that the restaurant would make a great impression on the neighborhood and that she and Gabriela would develop a close and long friendship.
宁德市2020—2021学年度第一学期期末高二英语勘误
在第四部分写作第二节读后续写文章结束后增加以下内容：
注意：
续写词数应为150左右；。