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Testpassport最新 70-680题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam. 70-680TS. Windows 7, Configuring Title.Version. DEMO1. You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You need to configure the monitor on the computer to turn off after 30 minutes of inactivity. What should you do?A.From Personalization, change the theme.B.From Display, change the display settings.C.From Action Center, change the Action Center settings.D.From Power Options, change the current power plan settings.Answer:D2. You have a stand-alone computer that runs Windows 7. You open Windows Update as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that you can manually change the Windows Update settings on the computer. What should you do?A.Log on to Windows 7 as member of the Administrators group.B.From the local Group Policy, modify the Windows Update settings.C.Right-click Windows Update and select Run as administrator.D.Right-click the command prompt, select Run as administrator, and then run Wuapp.exe. Answer:B3. You need to increase the size of a paging file. What should you do?A.From Disk Management, shrink the boot partition.B.From Disk Management, shrink the system partition.C.From System, modify the Advanced system settings.D.From System, modify the System protection settings.Answer:C4. You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You open the Disk Management snap-in as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that you can create a new partition on Disk 0. What should you do?A.Shrink volume C.press volumeC.C.Convert Disk 0 into a dynamic disk.D.Create and initialize a Virtual Hard Disk (VHD).Answer:A5. You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer is configured as shown in the following table. You plan to install a new application that requires 40 GB of space. The application will be installed to C.\app1. You need to provide 40 GB of free space for the application. What should you do?A.Create a shortcut.B.Create a hard link.C.Create a mount point.D.Change the quota settings.Answer:C6. You have two computers named Computer1 and Computer2 that run Windows7. Both computers are members of an Active Directory domain. Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is enabled on both computers. You need to remotely create additional disk volumes on Computer1 from Computer2. What should you do?A.On Computer2, run Winrs and then run Diskpart.B.On Computer2, run Winrs and then run Diskmgmt.msc.C.On Computer1, install the Telnet Client and then run Diskpart from Computer2.D.On Computer1, install the Telnet Client and then use Disk Management from Computer2. Answer:A7. You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The Windows Experience Index displays the subscores in the following table. You need to increase the Windows Experience Index base score. What should you do?A.Add more RAM.B.Add a second hard disk.C.Upgrade the video adapter.D.Upgrade to a faster processor.Answer:C8. You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You need to view the processes that currently generate network activity. What should you do?A.Open Resource Monitor and click the Network tab.B.Open Windows Task Manager and click the Networking tab.C.Open Event Viewer and examine the NetworkProfile Operational log.D.Open Performance Monitor and add all the counters for network interface.Answer:A9. You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You configure the computer to automatically install all updates. You need to verify whether a specific update is installed. What should you do?A.In Event Viewer, examine the Application log.B.In Windows Update, examine the update history.C.At the command prompt, run Wusa.exe and specify the /kb parameter.D.At the command prompt, run Verifier.exe and specify the /query parameter.Answer:B10. You have 15 computers that run Windows 7. You need to implement a monitoring solution that meets the following requirements..Sends an e-mail notification when an application error is logged in the event log.Runs a script to restart the computer if an application error occurs between 17.00 and 07.00 .Minimizes the administrative effort required to monitor applicationsWhat should you do?A.On all the computers, configure a custom view. Configure a custom task for the application error events.B.On a computer, configure a custom view to display the application errors. Configure a custom task for the application error events.C.On a central computer, configure an event subscription. On all of the computers, configure a custom task in the Forwarded Events log.D.On all the computers, configure an event subscription to a central computer. On the central computer, configure a custom task in the Forwarded Events log.Answer:D。

Testpassport最新IBM CATE 000-101题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-101Title :Version : DemoVirtualization Technical Support for Aix and LinuxThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. Which of the following statements is true regarding implementing Live Partition Mobility on two existing POWER6 based systems?A.The systems must use internal storage for boot purposes.B.All virtualized ethernet adapters must be numbered below 10.C.The mobile partition's network and disk access must be virtualized.D.Each system must be controlled by a different Hardware Management Console (HMC). WArialCourier NewZANSWER: C2. Which of the following statements is true regarding virtual Ethernet redundancy?A.Specifying an IP Address to ping is optional with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is optional with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.B.Specifying an IP Address to ping is optional with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is required with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.C.Specifying an IP Address to ping is required with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is required with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) Failover.D.Specifying an IP Address to ping is required with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is optional with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.WArialCourier NewZANSWER: D3. Which of the following can be used to re-deploy a system configuration in a disaster recovery scenario?A.System planB.System profileC.Critical console dataD.VIO server partition profileWArialCourier NewZANSWER: A4. A customer has 5 older POWER5 systems and they want to consolidate them onto a POWER6 system. What information is important to analyze when deciding how to design the new machine using the System Planning Tool?A.vmstat and iostat data from the older machinesB.The number of CPUs that were installed in the original machinesC.Data from Workload Estimator (WLE) and IBM Performance Management (PM)D.Performance data that is collected from the new system after it has been put into production WArialCourier NewZANSWER: CThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.5. The system administrator for a company plans to consolidate the workload of several ageing servers onto a new Power server. The administrator's intention is to virtualize all network and disk resources for each LPAR in the new system using VIOS 1.x.Which of the following is correct regarding MAC addresses and World Wide Port Names (WWPN) in a client partition?A.Each client LPAR will have its own MAC address and WWPN.B.Each client LPAR will have no unique MAC address or WWPN.C.Each client LPAR will have its own MAC address, but no unique WWPN.D.Each client LPAR will have no unique MAC address, but will have its own WWPN.WArialCourier NewZANSWER: C6. An administrator has a Power 570 in default configuration with a 4 port 1 Gbps Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE) adapter. A new application requires that the MCS value for the first port group of the IVE adapter be set to 1.If this change is made, what is the maximum number of logical ports, across both port groups, that the IVE adapter can provide?A.4B.16C.20D.32WArialCourier NewZANSWER: C7. A company has a new Power 570. They will install 2 LPARs and 1 VIO server. All networking will be virtualized.Their application requires a large amount of bandwidth, and Link Aggregation on the VIO server will be utilized.They have 4 dual port gigabit Ethernet cards. The network infrastructure team has advised the implementation team that they are able to allocate 8 ports split between two switches, SwitchA and SwitchB.How can Link Aggregation (LA) be configured for maximum possible bandwidth available for the LPARs?A.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing 2 ports from SwitchA and 2 ports from SwitchB, no backup interfaces.B.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing any 4 of the 8 available gigabit Ethernet interfaces and 1 backup interface.C.Configure 1 LA device with all 8 gigabit Ethernet interfaces split between the two switches, and no backup interface.D.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing 4 gigabit Ethernet interfaces connected to the same switch, no backup interfaces.WArialCourier NewZANSWER: D8. Which functionality would a customer use to share available CPU resources between AIX and Linux partitions on a Power system?A.Dynamic LPARB.Micro PartitionsC.Entitled capacityD.Multiple Shared Processor PoolsWArialCourier NewZANSWER: B9. A customer is interested in server consolidation of their AIX and POWER Linux (SLES 10) environments and sees virtualization as an important component of this.Which of the following options provides the required virtualization and optimizes the use of the hardware?A.A VIO server can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk for both AIX and Linux clients.B.A VIO server partition with the PowerVM Lx86 for x86 installed can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk for both AIX and Linux clients.C.A VIO Server partition can provide virtualization of network and disk for AIX clients. A separate Linux partition can provide virtualization of network and disk to Linux clients.D.A VIO Server can provide virtualization of network and disk for AIX clients. A separate Linux partition running PowerVM Lx86 for x86 can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk to Linux clients. WArialCourier NewZANSWER: A10. A customer has a requirement to provide VLAN tagging and a highly available network infrastructure for the logical partitions. A dual VIO server environment with Shared Ethernet Adapters (SEAs) is in place. How can the customer support these requirements?A.Create a SEA failover infrastructure with each having a Virtual Ethernet with a unique PVID mapping to a Virtual Ethernet on the LPAR with unique PVID.B.Create a SEA failover infrastructure with each having a Virtual Ethernet with the same PVID mapping to a Virtual Ethernet on the LPAR with the same PVID.C.Create a Network Interface Backup (NIB) infrastructure with each SEA having a Virtual Ethernet with the same PVID mapped to a Virtual Ethernet with the corresponding PVID on the LPAR.D.Create a Network Interface Backup (NIB) infrastructure with each SEA having a Virtual Ethernet with a different PVID. Map one to a Virtual Ethernet with the corresponding PVID on the client LPAR. WArialCourier NewZANSWER: B。

Testpassport最新IBM 000-008题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam . 000-008Title .Version . DemoIBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1Implementation1.Why is a data source required?A.Data source contains data required for impact event enrichment.B.Data source contains data required for calculating server downtime.C.Data source contains data required for services and other related service information.D.Data source contains data required for LDAP configurations, including login attempts and errors. Answer:C2.Which two steps are performed when creating a user interface for a customer that involves custom canvases? (Choose two.)A.Spend a couple of days mocking up some examples.B.Develop the operational requirements with the customer.C.Show some quick examples before doing extensive development.D.Determine if one will be using static or dynamic visual elements.E.Specify the screen real estate with the customer so that one has room.Answer:C D3.A customer will install IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 (Tivoli Business Service Manager) in an environment with an existing OMNIbus installation. Which two groups should be interviewed when designing the Tivoli Business Service Manager services? (Choose two.)work group to obtain firewall informationB.database administrators to obtain database informationC.monitoring group to find out how their enterprise is monitoredD.OMNIbus administrators to find out which events are coming into OMNIbusE.operation group to find out what they want to see on Tivoli Business Service Manager console Answer:D E4.When utilizing Oracle database information to create IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager service models, what is the primary method used to create service models?A.ESDAsB.Discovery Library Toolkit modelsC.event-based automatic population rulesD.data fetcher automated population rulesAnswer:A5.When planning the deployment of IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1, which primary task must be performed to create a document of deployment?A.Determine the database for deployment.B.Determine the schema for operational displays.C.Determine the operational display requirements.D.Determine roll-out architecture across the environments.Answer:D6.Which two steps are used to help document the customer's service requirements? (Choose two.)A.Determine which CPAs are reviewed.B.Determine the number of incoming events.C.Determine what interacts with the solution.D.Determine which ports will be used to access the data sources.E.Determine the size of the organization and the number of end users.Answer:B E7.Which application is used by IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager to provide details about the relationship among network assets?A.IBM Tivoli ImpactB.IBM Tivoli Asset Manager for ITC.IBM Tivoli Dependency Discovery ManagerD.IBM Tivoli Application Performance ManagementAnswer:C8.What is needed, in addition to documentation, access to and knowledge of a client's existing monitoring system, to effectively implement IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager?A.project timelineB.database structures for ESDA'sC.security policies of the clientD.personnel responsible for existing productsAnswer:D9.What are three sources for a Discovery Library Toolkit? (Choose three.)A.DB2 V9.5B.WebSphere Application ServerC.zSeries Discovery Library AdapterD.Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery ManagerE.physical topology layout in Tivoli Enterprise PortalF.any Tivoli or non-Tivoli source with conforming IDML booksAnswer:C D F10.What should be asked first when reviewing a trend perspective?A.What kind of presentation layer will this trend perspective require?B.What kind of data source is needed and what is the polling interval for the key performance indicators (KPIs)?C.Is the trend, long-term or short-term and what are the trend calculation intervals?D.Is there historical data and forecast data in the KPIs?Answer:C11.Which three customers are interviewed to gather requirements for deploying a business service management solution? (Choose three.)A.facilities staffB.external vendorsC.research department managementrmation technology managementE.line of business owners and product managementF.data center operations and network operations personnelAnswer:D E F12.An IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 (Tivoli Business Service Manager) administrator is designing a new service model. What has to be done so that the service status is accurately propagated up the hierarchy?A.Create correct aggregation rules.B.Create correct auto-population rules.C.Create correct incoming status rules.D.Make correct child-parent hierarchical relation for all Tivoli Business Service Manager services. Answer:A13.Which operating system prevents the successful installation of the Data server when working with the Hardware Deployment team?A.HP UXB.IBM AIXC.Sun SolarisD.Microsoft WindowsAnswer:A14.IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 is to be installed at a customer site by a consultant in two weeks. What must be done to ensure that the software is available?A.Send the customer a list of software to download from Passport Advantage.B.Download the software and burn a DVD to take to the customer site when installing.C.Download the software and place it on a thumb drive for the customer from Extreme Leverage.D.Wait until arriving at the customer site and download the software to make sure everything is available. Answer:A15.What are the minimum hardware requirements when planning an IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 Dashboard server installation?A.2 GB RAM, 4 CPU, 2 GB disk spaceB.4 GB RAM, 4 CPU, 8 GB disk spaceC.2 GB RAM, 2 CPU, 4 GB disk spaceD.1.5 GB RAM, 2 CPU, 4 GB disk spaceAnswer:C16.Which two pieces of information are required regarding user authentication when planning an IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 installation? (Choose two.)A.Which user groups are the users in?B.Will OMNIbus be used for using authentication?C.Are there any special password policies implemented?D.Are the users defined on Windows or UNIX/Linux systems?E.Is a file-based repository or an LDAP repository being used?Answer:B E17.What can simplify SQL query creation in data fetchers?A.Database viewsB.Database indexesC.Left Outer joinsD.Automation scriptsAnswer:A18.Which two sources of data can IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 use as input to create and drive its service models? (Choose two.)A.CSV filesB.LDAP serversC.SQL databasesD.OMNIbus eventswork devicesAnswer:C D19.Which step is recommended before exporting from the IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager (Tivoli Business Service Manager) V4.1.x system?A.Suspend ITM Situations.B.Stop the XML Toolkit Service.C.Shut down the ObjectServer(s).D.Shut down data sources used by data fetchers.Answer:B20.What is the first step to be taken when configuring IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 (Tivoli Business Service Manager) for certificate-based authenticated communications to the ObjectServer?A.Retrieve the ObjectServer certificate and save it to the truststore.B.Enable SSL for the primary ObjectServer by modifying RAD_com.sybase.jdbc3.SybDriver.props with USESSLPRIMARY=TRUE.C.Generate a certificate that will be used for the ObjectServer and the Tivoli Business Service Manager object store.D.Generate a certificate for the Tivoli Business Service Manager object store, extract it and install it on the ObjectServer.Answer:A。

Testpassport最新 000-009题库考题分享

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-009Title :Version : DEMOIBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.1.1Implementation1. How can the client be enabled to write the Host Integrity script to the disk?A. set a condition in a custom requirement to write the scriptB. set it in the Host Integrity policy under Advanced settingsC. enable debug logging through the registry on the endpointD. enable from the Clients tab under the Endpoint Machines PropertiesAnswers: C2. Which role is required to perform virtualization tasks?A. Provisioning AnalystB. Deployment AdministratorC. Provisioning AdministratorD. Automation Package DeveloperAnswers: C3. if the global variable TCA Create.EO.SAP is set to true on IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manger server and the UNIX target computer was discovered by Initial Discovery,after Installing Tivoli Common Agent on this target computer ,which Server Access Points(SAP) should be present on this target with default configuration?A. SSH-Server, Agent-ServerB. RXA-Server, Agent-ServerC. RXA-Server,SDI-SAP,Agent-ServerD. SSH-Server,SDI-SAP,Agent-ServerAnswers: D4. What are three types of operation accepted by the dcmQueryCommand command?A. DCMInsert. DCMImport,and DCMDeleteB. DCMInsert, DCMExport,and DCMUpdateC. DCMinsert, DCMChange, and DCMDeleteD. DCMInsert,DCMChange, and DCMDeleteAnswers: C5. A Windows IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager(TPM) server,by default,has the IBM Tivoli Directory Server Instance service configured for a manual start, After booting , the Tivoli Directory Server Instance has been manualty started . what is the final step to activate the TPM server?A. Nothing else is required ,TPM is ready to goB. Select/click the TPM start icon on the desktopC. Start WebSphere and then select the TPM start iconD. Start WebSphere byselecting the start WebShphere iconAnswers: D6. In which instance is a federated agent deployed?A. when the network has broadband linksB. when the network environment has DS4 trunk linesC. when the network environment is designed with high performing routersD. when the network environment has slow links and target machines are located remotelyAnswers: D7. Running an Initial Discovery without explicit authorization credentials results in the discovered devices being added on to which group?A. static groupB. unknown resourcesC. untyped dynamic groupD. default provisioning groupAnswers: B8. Click the Exhibit button.Which action results in what this Exhibit shows?A. a failed Deployment Engine activityB. a Tivoli Common Agent reinstallationC. the execution of ./installguide_solaris2.sh commandD. the execution of /opt/Tivoli/ep/runtime/agent/endpoint.sh start commandAnswers: C9. what are the two main requirements for running the xmlConvert command?(Choose two.)A. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager (TPM) must be running before issuing this commandB. the user must be logged into the TPM Web Interface as °ti oad m iC. The TPM engines must be shutdown and only the middleware components runningD. The data in encrypted format must have already been exported by dcmexport commandE. The TPM Computers that are being used must be running the same version of TPMAnswers: AE10. Which two scripts are required to be created and distributed to the target computer when creating a custom inventory discovery by using extensionsA. Pre and postB. hw_scn.ext and sw_scn.extC. inventory id and platform extensionD. my_table.windows.mif.backup and my_table.mif.backupAnswers: A11. An Operating System Patches and Updates scan has been run and checked against a group of Windows computers. A recommended Microsoft Office patch does not appear on the list.What are two potential reasons for this? (Choose two)A. The wsusscn2.cab file is corruptB. The deadline to install the patch has not been reachedC. The Windows patch has not been approved in the data center modelD. The latest wuascan.cab file was not copied to the LocalFileRepository.E. When the Microsoft patches were acquired, the discovery to Include the Office Product Family was not configured.Answers: CE12. In the Compliance tab of a particular computer, the Operating System Patches and Updates compliance check shows it is not compliant. What should be investigated to make the computer compliant?A. Review the computer¯s P r ope rti es t aB. Review the computer¯s R eco mm enda ti ons t aC. Review the computer¯s So ft w a r e and H a r d w a r e t absD. Run the recommendations report for that computerAnswers: B13. A Tivoli Common Agent is already deployed in a development environment and needs to have a faster polling Interval for testing purposes. Which configuration file controls the polling rate of the target?A. tca.propertiesB. jes.propertiesC. endpoint.propertiesD. cdsclient.propertiesAnswers: D14. On a UNIX or Linux operating system, which command can ben used to start the Agent Manager?A. startServer.shB. startAMServer.shC. startAgentManager.shD. startAgentMangerServer.shAnswers: A15. IN IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.1.1 patch management ,which two tasks are allowed to be performed by a Provisioning Configuration Librarian Provisioning role?(Choose two)A. Publish patchesB. Monitor path installationC. Discover and reboot target computersD. Organzie and maintain the patch catalogE. Scan the target computers for missing patchesAnswers: DE16. Which three supported languages can be used in the definition of a scriptlet inside a provisioning workflow?(Choose three)A. PHPB. C++C. kshD. PerlE. JythonF. VBScriptAnswers: CDF17. As a prerequisite for Windows patch management on IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.1.1 , on which operating system should the Microsoft patch download server be installed?A. any Windows Server operating systemB. Windows Server 2008 Standard EditionC. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise EditionD. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP2Answers: A18. When planning for a multi-server topology ,which three components can be installed on a machine other than the IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager server?(Choose three)A. database serverB. directory serverC. middleware serverD. deployment engineE. Administrative workstationF. scalable distribution serverAnswers: ABEThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.19. Which IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.1.1 configuration parameter must be configured on a UNIX endpoint to enable scriptlet support?A. root user authenticationB. Sevure Shell service access pointC. Rivest,Shaw,Adleman service access pointD. Remote Execution and Access service access pointAnswers: B20. What are the two steps that must ve performed before running a Windows Operating System Patches and Updates check in a scalable distribution infrastructure environment?(Choose two)A. The wsuscn2.cab file must be distributed to the targetsB. The file system must be scanned for sufficient disk spaceC. The Windows Update Agent must be Installed on the targetsD. The Windows patch acquisition(Microsoft Updates Discovery) must be runE. The Microsoft Windows Sever Update Services server must be updated with the latest Microsoft patchesAnswers: CD。

Testpassport最新 IBM 000-071题库

Testpassport最新IBM 000-071题库Testpassport IBM certifications III 000-071试题库由资深IT认证讲师和IBM certifications III产品专家结合PROMETRIC的真实考试环境最新原题倾心打造.题库覆盖了当前最新的真实考题，并且全部附有正确答案，我们承诺题库对IBM certifications III000-071(IBM eserver x series technical principle v5)考试原题完整覆盖.000-071 题库助您轻松通过认证考试.需要完整考题的请登录查询最新题库1. The IBM eServer xSeries 236 server indicated an error during the power on self test (POST). Theserver madeseveral beeps and stopped. Which IBM resource would be best to determine the cause of this failure?A. IBM eServer xSeries tuning RedBookB. IBM eServer xSeries 236 server Users GuideC. IBM eServer xSeries 236 server Hardware Maintenance ManualD. IBM eServer xSeries 236 server Installation and Setup GuideAnswer: C2. A customer has purchased an additional ServeRAID 6M card together with an EXP-400 and disks. Atechnician has been called to install this option into an xSeries 365 that has free slots. The customer doesnotwant to use Hot Add PCI. The technician should do which of the following after discussing the requiredconfiguration?A. Attend the site, power down the server, and install the option.B. Power down the server and install the card in slot 1. Cable up the EXP-400 and use ServerGuide toconfigurethe RAID option as the server re-boots from the ServerGuide CD.C. Power down the server and install the options as requested. Power up the server and then wait for twominutes to allow the server to boot, and power up the EXP-400. Use IBM Director to configure the BIOS.D. Download the latest drivers and firmware before attending the site to install according to the user guide.Readthe COG (Configurations and Options Guide) for information regarding the supported slots for this card.Beforecommencing, ensure a backup of data is carried out.Answer: D3. Which IBM tool is required to utilize Remote Deployment Manager4.11?A. IBM Director 4.xB. IBM AdStar Distribution Manager 3.1C. Tivoli Enterprise Storage Manager 5.1D. IBM Software Distribution Manager 1.0.2Answer:A4. Which two of the following tasks can be performed with ServerGuide?A. Install the OSB. Upgrade the current OSC. Update system device driversD. Update system BIOS and firmwareE. Install third party applicationsAnswer:AD5. A ServeRAID adapter is being installed in an IBM eServer xSeries server. Prior to installing a NOS,whatembedded utility provides an overview of the current RAID settings?A. IBM ServeRAID ManagerB. SCSI BIOS Set-Up utilityC. IPSSEND GETCONFIG commandD. ServeRAID Mini-Configuration programAnswer: D6. An xSeries technician is asked to upgrade a customer's system by adding more drives to an installed11-driveEXP-400. The rack is complex with many populated EXP-400s installed. The technician wants to addextradrives to the enclosure. Which two of the following methods could be employed to visually identify theexistingphysical drives connected on this controller?A. Reboot the server and press CTRL-I at bootup to enter the ServeRAID Mini-Config utility. Select"IdentifyDrives Within An Array."B. Enter ServeRAID manager and expand the controller concerned. Right click on the "Physical Drive"and select"set drive state to defunct." The drive will be identified by a solid amber light.C. Enter ServerGuide CD and expand the controller concerned. Right click on the "physical Drive" andselect"Identify Physical Drive" in turn for each drive. The drive will be identified by a flashing light.D. Enter ServeRAID manager and expand the controller concerned. Right click on the "Physical Drive"and select"Identify Physical Drive (number)" in turn for each drive. The drive will be identified by a flashing light.E. Enter ServeRAID manager and expand the controller concerned. Right click on "Channel(number)"and select"Identify SCSI channel(number)." Drives concerned will be identified by flashing lights.Answer: DE7. A customer has an IBM x445 server installed with an RXE-100 external I/O drawer. A number of cardsarealready installed within the machine, and the customer has purchased a pair of Ethernet adapters.Whichprocedure would ensure that the system is configured for optimal performance?A. Use Active PCI Manager in IBM Director Server Plus Pack to identify the recommended slots for thecards.B. Install one card in the x445 server and the other card in the RXE-100 to ensure that bus loading is keptto aminimum.C. Slide out the RXE-100 and take the lid off to check for free slots and select two immediately adjacentfree slotsof the right length.D. View the rear of the RXE-100 and identify already installed cards and install the new cards in the twoslots thatare most distant from each other to ensure the cards are not on the same PCI Bus.Answer:A8. The IBM eServer xSeries 336 contains three similar ports at the back of the unit. Two of these ports areusedfor the on-board Ethernet. What is the remaining port used for?A. Central Electronics Complex (CEC)B. Service Processor Ethernet portC. RS485 Systems Management PortD. Integrated Server Maintenance Controller (ISMC) Answer: B。

Testpassport 最新 646-578题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 646-578Title :Version : DemoASAM Advanced Security for Account Managers Exam1. When do you align customer business requirements with the needed solution functionality?A. when preparing for the business requirements workshopB. while conducting the business requirements workshopC. during preliminary technical discoveryD. in a technology strategy meetingAnswer: B2. A company believes that buying and installing a firewall can solve their security problems. What reason for insufficient security is this customer illustrating?A. risk analysisB. lack of perceived riskC. quantifying risksD. quickly evolving networks and applicationsAnswer: B3. How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?A. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate solution to be developed.B. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.C. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.D. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.Answer: A4. How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?A. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.C. It is point product-based.D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.Answer: A5. What trigger question would you use when assessing the benefit of a secure network access solution?A. Have you ever experienced business disruption from an Internet attack, such as viruses or worms?B. Do you want to provision your VPN, firewall, and IPS devices with a single management system?C. Do you think you have a thorough strategy for detecting and correlating network intrusions?D. What type of end users and applications need to access your network?Answer: D6. What are two outcomes of preparing for the business requirements workshop? (Choose two.)A. aligning the solution with customer business needsB. defining stakeholdersC. discovering which requirements conflict with the solutionD. defining detailed customer requirementsAnswer: BD7. Which scenario illustrates a breach in security integrity?A. A system upgrade slows the network down and prevents employees from accessing data.B. Service is disrupted due to a power outage.C. An unauthorized party obtains a credit card number.D. Someone is able to cast a large number of votes in an online poll.Answer: D8. Which government regulation was designed to restore investor confidence in the financial reporting of public companies?A. Basel IIB. PCIC. SOX ActD. GLBAAnswer: C9. Which government regulation specifies which patient information must be kept private, how companies must secure the information, and the standards for electronic communication between medical providers and insurance companies?A. Basel IIB. GLB ActC. HIPAAD. USA PATRIOT ActAnswer: C10. Which two of these describe how security contributes to profitability? (Choose two.)A. by not complying with government regulationsB. by enabling businesses to gain the maximum advantage from advanced technologiesC. by decreasing downtime and productivity lossesD. by providing access to information based on need rather than locationE. by providing the company an insurance policyAnswer: BC11. During the optimize phase, how can the account manager help the customer reach operational excellence?A. by enabling ongoing improvement of system performance and functionalityB. by evaluating the solution against competitor performanceC. by making recommendations for integration of the security solutionD. by defining project milestonesAnswer: A12. How do you calculate risk quantitatively for SLE?A. single loss expectancy divided by the annualized rate of occurrenceB. exposure factor multiplied by the asset valueC. cost of recovery multiplied by the number of compromised serversD. average revenue per hour divided by the hourly server downtimeAnswer: B13. Which compliance standard will directly affect the security policy of a local bookstore?A. PCIB. SOX ActC. HIPPAD. Basel IIAnswer: A14. Which government regulation was implemented to promote world financial stability by coordinating definitions of capital and risk assessment across countries?A. BS 7799/ISO 17799B. SOXC. HIPAAD. Basel IIE. USA PATRIOT ActAnswer: D15. Which two of these activities does the risk analysis process include? (Choose two.)A. Determine the potential for each type of threat.B. Identify potential threats.C. Determine the impact on business.D. Prioritize security needs due to cost.E. Determine vulnerabilitiesAnswer: BC。

Testpassport最新Symantec ST0-079 题库下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : ST0-079Title :Version : DEMOSymantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS)The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. In addition to storing messages for Spam Quarantine and Suspect Virus Quarantine, which type of messages can the Control Center store?A.notification messagespliance triggered messagesC.delivered messagesD.deleted messagesANSWER: B2. To reach Message Audit logs, which tab should be selected in the Brightmail Control Center?A.StatusB.AdministrationC.ReportsplianceANSWER: A3. Which feature requires Invalid Recipient Handling to be enabled?A.Bounce Attack PreventionB.Directory Harvest Attack recognitionC.Reputation LookupD.FastpassANSWER: B4. An administrator has navigated through Status -> LDAP Synchronization.Which tab will display details about an LDAP Synchronization?A.LDAP to ScannersB.LDAP to CCC.LDAP Status to LDAPANSWER: B5. A client needs to import structured customer data.Which resource is used for this requirement?A.recordsB.dictionariesC.regular expressionsD.patternsANSWER: A6. What does the Fastpass feature do?A.skips virus scanning for known virusesB.skips resource intensive spam scanning stepsC.passes incoming mail directly to the downstream MTAD.bypasses scanning on outgoing mailANSWER: BThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.7. Which feature of Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 detects Non-Delivery Reports (NDR) created by an attacker?A.Directory Harvest AttackB.Anti-Phishing FilterC.Bounce Attack PreventionD.Symantec Probe NetworkANSWER: C8. What is the Heuristic Detection (Bloodhound) feature designed to detect?A.unknown virusesB.fuzzy matches against compliance rulesC.regex matchesD.Denial of Service (DoS) attacksANSWER: B9. What happens to a message that is forwarded to the Suspect Virus Quarantine?A.It is automatically deleted after one week.B.It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.C.It is placed in the administrator's queue for review.D.It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.ANSWER: B10. True file typing is a feature used to combat which behavior?A.spammingB.renamingC.phishingD.spimmingANSWER: B11. Which two email authentication technologies are included in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0? (Select two.)A.Sender IDB.POP before SMTPC.Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)D.Certified EmailE.Sender Policy Framework (SPF)ANSWER: AE12. Spam Rule sets are automatically downloaded from Symantec on a regular basis.How often are these rule sets refreshed?A.every 5 to 10 minutesB.every 30 to 60 minutesC.every 3 to 5 hoursD.every dayANSWER: A13. Which two tasks are performed by the SMTP session component of the MTA? (Select two.)A.It verifies the IP address reputation with the BMServer.B.It performs aliasing/masquerading for messages.C.It reports the message as spam.D.It applies the specified queue thresholds.E.It interacts with the BMServer to access the filtering modules.ANSWER: BD14. Which service retrieves new and updated email filters from Symantec Security Response through HTTPS file transfer?A.LiveUpdateB.ConduitC.Brightmail EngineD.MTAANSWER: B15. What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)A.It provides message management services.B.It routes messages for delivery.C.It hosts Spam Quarantine.D.It downloads virus definitions.E.It runs filters.ANSWER: AC16. Which MTA operation is used if incoming messages need to be stopped while waiting for new virus definitions?A.Accept and deliver messages normallyB.Pause message scanning and deliveryC.Do not accept incoming messagesD.Accept but do not scan incoming messagesANSWER: B17. Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue scanning and delivery of messages?A.Accept and deliver messages normallyB.Pause message scanning and deliveryC.Do not accept incoming messagesD.Accept but do not scan incoming messagesANSWER: C18. What are two parts of the Control Center? (Select two.)A.Message StoreB.LDAP Sync ServiceC.Brightmail EngineD.LiveUpdate ConduitE.Suspect Virus QuarantineANSWER: BE19. What is the recommended hard-drive size for a scanner-only virtual machine?A.60GBB.80GBC.100GBD.160GBANSWER: A20. What is the minimum required memory size for virtual machine deployments?A.1GBB.2GBC.4GBD.6GBANSWER: B。

Testpassport 最新 1Z0-040题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 1Z0-040Title :Version : DEMOOracle database 10g:new features for adminsitrators1. You have three temporary tablespace groups named G1, G2, and G3 in your database.You are creating a new temporary tablespace as follows:CREATE TEMPORARY TABLESPACE TEMP1 TEMPFILE '/u1/data/temp1.dbf' SIZE 10M TABLESPACE GROUP '';Which statement regarding the above command is correct?A.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G1.B.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G3.C.It will not add the tablespace TEMP1 to any group.D.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in the default group.E.It will throw an error with message 'specified group is not available'.F.It will create a new group with a system-generated name and add the tablespace TEMP1 to it. Answer: C2. You want to perform the database backup when user activity on your system is low, such as between 12:00 a.m. and 2:00 a.m.Which command terminates with an error if the backup is not complete at the end of the specified duration?A.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 MINIMIZE LOAD DATABASE;B.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL FILESPERSET 1 DATABASE;C.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL MINIMIZE TIME DATABASE;D.RMAN> BACKUP AS COPY DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL MINIMIZE LOAD DATABASE;Answer: A3. Which two statements regarding the FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY view are correct? (Choose two.)A.You can find information about only active transactions from the view.B.You can find information about read only transactions from the view.C.You require the SELECT ANY TRANSACTION system privilege to access the view.D.You can find information about both active and committed transactions from the view.E.You require the SELECT ON FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY object privilege to access the view.Answer: CD4. You have three production databases, HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB, that use the same ASM instance. At the end of the day, you execute the following command on the ASM instance to shut down:SQL> shutdown immediate;What is the result of executing this command?A.All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the ABORT mode.B.The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running.C.The ASM instance is still functional, but the other instances are shut down.D.All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.E.HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.F.HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the NORMAL mode and the ASM instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.Answer: D5. Which two statements regarding the Policy Framework in Enterprise Manager (EM) are correct? (Choose two.)A.Policy violations are prioritized as High, Medium, or Informational by category.B.Policies can be disabled completely, or flagged as ignored, for the specified target.C.Policies can be flagged as ignored, but never completely disabled, for the specified target.D.Policy violations must be corrected, otherwise the database will shut down until corrective action occurs.Answer: AB6. You plan to create an external table from the EMPLOYEES, DEPARTMENTS, and LOCATIONS database tables. Which method or command should you use to create and populate the external table?A.the expdp and impdp commandsB.conventional export and importC.CREATE TABLE.. and SQL*LoaderD.CREATE TABLE.. and INSERT INTO.. SELECT.. FROM..E.CREATE TABLE.. ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL ..AS SELECT.. FROM..Answer: E7. You need to ensure that the database users should be able to use the various flashback query features in order to go back in time by four hours. What would you do to achieve this? (Choose two.)A.set SQL_TRACE=TrueB.set UNDO_RETENTION=14400C.set FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET=240D.set LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL=240E.set DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET=14400F.issue ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON; commandG.set the RETENTION GUARANTEE clause for the undo tablespaceAnswer: BG8. You created a locally managed tablespace by using the following SQL statement:CREATE TABLESPACE hr_tbsDATAFILE 'data.dat' SIZE 1M REUSEAUTOEXTEND ON MAXSIZE 100M;The warning and critical tablespace usage threshold values are set to 85% and 97%, respectively. Which two statements regarding the threshold-based alerts generation for the HR_TBS tablespace are correct? (Choose two.)A.A critical alert will be generated when 97 MB space is used.B.A critical alert will be generated when 970 KB space is used.C.A warning alert will be generated when 85 MB space is used.D.A warning alert will be generated when 850 KB space is used.E.A critical alert will be generated when 970 KB is left as free space.F.A warning alert will be generated when 850 KB is left as free space.G.No critical alert will be generated because it is a small file tablespace.H.No warning alert will be generated because the tablespace is autoextensible.Answer: AC9. You are checking every 10 minutes for alerts regarding the violation of tablespace usage threshold. Some of the tablespaces' fullness was not detected on time. As a result the transactions were aborted before you had a chance to resolve the space issue. What would you do to avoid transaction failures?e bigfile tablespaces (BFTs)B.enable resumable space allocationC.modify the background process PMON settingsD.modify the LOG_CHECKPOINT_TIMEOUT parameterE.reduce the default tablespace usage threshold values for the databaseAnswer: B10. You explicitly specified the tablespace usage threshold values while creating a tablespace. You need to revert to the database-wide default tablespace usage threshold values for the tablespace. WhichPL/SQL package would you use?A.DBMS_STATSB.DBMS_ALERTC.DBMS_SPACED.DBMS_MONITORE.DBMS_SERVER_ALERTF.DBMS_SPACE_ADMINAnswer: E11. An online tablespace, TEST_TBS, is full and you realize that no server-managed tablespace threshold alerts were generated for the TEST_TBS tablespace. What could be the reason, if theTEST_TBS tablespace does not include autoextensible data files?A.TEST_TBS is a small file tablespace.B.TEST_TBS is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).C.TEST_TBS is the default temporary tablespace.D.TEST_TBS is a dictionary-managed tablespace.E.Threshold values for the TEST_TBS tablespace are not explicitly specified.Answer: D12. View the Exhibit and examine the SQL statement used to create the EMP table.You need to shrink the EMP table segment. Which SQL statement would you execute as a prerequisite before you execute the ALTER TABLE emp SHRINK SPACE; command?A.ALTER TABLESPACE emp OFFLINE;B.ALTER TABLESPACE emp READ ONLY;C.ALTER TABLE emp DEALLOCATE UNUSED;D.ALTER TABLE emp ENABLE ROW MOVEMENT;E.ALTER TABLE emp DISABLE ALL TRIGGERS;F.ALTER TABLE emp ENABLE NOVALIDATE CONSTRAINT emp_last_name_nn;Answer: D13. You executed the following SQL statement to shrink the EMPLOYEES table segment stored in the EXAMPLE tablespace:ALTER TABLE employees SHRINK SPACE CASCADE;Which statement is correct in this scenario?A.The data in the segment will be compacted but the high water mark will not be adjusted.B.The EMPLOYEES table will be changed to read-only mode during the shrink operation.C.The indexes created on the EMPLOYEES table will need to be rebuilt after the shrink operation is over.D.The shrink behavior will be cascaded to all dependent segments of the table that support a shrink operation.E.Data manipulation language (DML) operations will not be possible on the EMPLOYEES table during the COMPACTION phase of the shrink operation.Answer: D14. View the exhibit and examine the sparsely populated EMP table segment.You execute the following SQL command.ALTER TABLE emp SHRINK SPACE;Identify how the data in the segment will be reorganized as a result of the above statement.A. Exhibit 1.B. Exhibit 2.C. Exhibit 3D. Exhibit 4E. Exhibit 5Answer: A15. You have 100 segments in the USERS tablespace. You get an alert that the USERS tablespace is running low on space. You decide to shrink some segments. Which option would you use to determine which segments to shrink?A.Segment AdvisorB.SQL Tuning AdvisorC.SQL Access AdvisorD.Segment Resource EstimationE.Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)Answer: A16. You have 100 segments in the USERS tablespace. You realize that the USERS tablespace is running low on space. You can use Segment Advisor to _____.A.add data files to the tablespaceB.identify the segments that you should shrinkC.modify the storage parameters for the tablespaceD.automatically shrink the segments with unused spaceE.check the alerts generated for the tablespace that is running low on spaceAnswer: B17. Which are the three levels at which the Segment Advisor generates advice? (Choose three.)A.block levelB.object levelC.schema levelD.segment levelE.tablespace levelAnswer: BDE18. View the Exhibit and examine the highlighted alert.You have received an alert with the Category specified as Snapshot Too Old. Which page would you open from the Advisor Central page to determine the system recommendations to avoid such alerts in future?A.ADDMB.Memory AdvisorC.Segment AdvisorD.Undo ManagementE.SQL Tuning AdvisorF.SQL Access AdvisorAnswer: D19. The system was running a normal workload during the last 24 hours. You need to ensure that with the same workload you should be able to flashback tables by three hours. What would you do to find the system recommendations for the undo retention period and the undo tablespace size?A.set DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET=10800B.create a new scheduler window for the time period of 24 hours and use the optimizer statisticsC.modify the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot time interval to three hours and use ADDMfindingsD.specify New Undo Retention as three hours and Analysis Time period as Last One Day in the Undo Advisor page and use its recommendationsAnswer: D20. View the Exhibit and examine the recommendation graph provided for a test database by the Undo Advisor.The graph recommends that the size of undo tablespace should be set to _____.A.1 MBB.6 MBC.10 MBD.15 MBE.11 MBAnswer: E。

Testpassport最新IBM 000-966题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam . 000-966Title .Version . DemoXIV Storage System Technical Solutions Version2ing the XCLI, which qualifiers are required to create a thin provisioned pool?A.pool, hard size, soft size, snapshot sizeB.pool, hard size, soft size, read block behaviorC.pool, resize allowed, maximum volumes, maximum snapshotsD.pool, read block behavior, maximum volumes, maximum snapshotsAnswer:A2.To improve system redundancy using its grid architecture, where in the XIV System can a partition be mirrored?A.on disks in other modulesB.on same disk in different modulesC.on different disks in the same moduleD.on same disk, in same module, and in different modulesAnswer:A3.Which two solutions, once installed and configured, can be used to move workloads without disruption? (Choose two)A.XIV partitionsB.XIV Data Mover (XDM)C.SAN Volume ControllerD.XIV Data Migration FunctionE.Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication V4Answer:C D4.When defining a volume on a thin-provisioned pool on an XIV System, the size of the volume is limited byA.the hard capacity of the volumeB.the 2 TB maximum volume size on XIVC.the hard capacity of the storage poolD.the soft capacity of the storage poolAnswer:D5.On the XIV System, what is the approximate rebuild time for a 1 TB drive that is 50% utilized?A.5 minutesB.15 minutesC.30 minutesD.120 minutesAnswer:B6.A customer has ordered a 10 module XIV System. How many interface modules are active in this configuration?A.3B.4C.5D.6Answer:B7.When using the SAN Volume Controller (SVC) as a host for a full 15 module XIV Storage System, how many ports are recommended to be connected to the SVC?A.8B.12C.16D.24Answer:B8.What helps ensure that the XIV System's cache does NOT become a bottleneck?A.central cache locking mechanisme of industry standard chip technologyC.each module is responsible for caching the data in that moduleD.having all modules understand what is held in cache at all timesAnswer:C9.What is a requirement to connect a V6R1 IBM i host to an XIV Storage System?A.XIV firmware V10.0.8B.Host Attachment Kit V1.0.1C.SAN Volume Controller (SVC) V4.2D.Virtual I/O Server (VIOS) V2.1.1Answer:D10.What are benefits of the XIV Storage System's distribution compared to traditional mid-level striping distributions?A.no orphan space and optimal distribution over timeB.no orphan space and optimal distribution at time of creationC.minimal performance tuning and automatic capacity allocationD.consistent distribution and regular performance tuning requiredAnswer:A11.What is required for IBM System i multi-pathing when connecting to an IBM XIV System?e native multipath drivers supported by VIOSB.IBM i multi-pathing across two IBM Virtual I/O ServersC.logical volume connected to VIOS via multiple physical host portsD.two VIOS partitions provide redundant paths to the same set of LUNsAnswer:C12.Which XIV System feature helps to decrease total cost of ownership by simplification of the configuration process?A.ease of creating RAID groupsB.mapping volumes to physical drivesmon SDD / SDDPCM for multipathingD.easy to use Graphical User Interface (GUI)Answer:D13.An administrator is migrating data from legacy storage to an XIV System. What is the behavior of the host systems during this process?A.all volumes are transferred in parallel ensuring equal accessB.the same volumes are seen from both the XIV System and the legacy systemC.host I/O continues normally as long as the legacy system is not powered offD.performance is reduced as the XIV System duplicates 1 MB partitions across all drivesAnswer:C14.Which feature helps keep copies consistent during a re-sync or link failure while remote mirroring?A.MPIOB.snapshotC.thin provisioningD.redirect-on-writeAnswer:B15.What is the recommended release of SAN Volume Controller (SVC) firmware when connecting the XIV Storage System to SVC?A.4.2.0.5B.4.2.1.8C.4.3.0.1D.4.3.1.4Answer:D16.In an XIV System, what reduces the occurrence of double disk failure?A.quick rebuild times utilizing all drivesB.IBM XIV patented disk architecture combined with 4x cooling fansC.continuous scrubbing that realigns the blocks for optimum data integrityD.SATA drives that are exclusively manufactured to meet IBM XIV requirementsAnswer:A17.An XIV System is regaining redundancy after a drive failure in a 15 module system. From how many drives is data being read?A.12B.72C.168D.180Answer:C18.An IBM Service Representative replaces a data module in an XIV System. What happens to the data when the new module is installed?A.a new data table is createdB.a new inode table is createdC.a new matrix table is createdD.a new distribution table is createdAnswer:D19.A customer wishes to purchase a storage controller for a mixed workload of random I/O and sequential backups. The customer has heard that SATA is good for sequential but has bad performance on random workloads, and is thus reluctant to purchase an XIV System. What should the technical specialist's response be?A.The XIV System excels at mixed workloads due to the distribution of partitions.B.The XIV System excels at mixed workloads due to the use of redundant Ethernet switches.C.The XIV System excels at mixed workloads due to the use of multi-processor interface modules.D.The XIV System excels at mixed workloads due to the mixture of fibre channel and iSCSI host connections.Answer:A20.In an XIV System, from where do the XIV modules boot?A.SSDs in Data Modulespact Flash in each moduleC.A hard drive internal to Data ModulesD.Hidden partition in Disk 1 of each moduleAnswer:B。

Testpassport最新IBM CATE 000-200题库免费下载

The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 000-200IBM Storage Sales V1Title:Version: DEMO1. Which of the following competitors offers customers a virtual tape solution for mainframes?A.SonyAppC.QuantumD.Sun Storage TekWArialCourier NewZXAnswer: D2. Which of the following customer environments is addressed by the NSeries?A.A customer wanting to implement a global file systemB.A customer with Windows CIFS and AIX NFS requirementsC.A customer who requires good scalability and performanceD.A customer who needs to consolidate multiple storage controllers under one management interface WArialCourier NewZXAnswer: B3. A retail customer is experiencing bottlenecks in their IT environment.Which of the following responses address this issue?A.Meet with the IT DirectorB.Present IBM's On Demand storage strategy to CFOC.Trial install of Tivoli Provisioning Manager (TPM)D.Perform Disk Magic study WArialCourier NewZXAnswer: A4. The Information Technology Director at a prospect is interested in purchasing the N3300, and has asked the storage specialist to help present the solution to the Finance Director.Which of the following should the storage specialist include in the proposal?A.CIFS and NFS support is included in the priceB.A configuration showing the technical detail of the solutionC.N3300 combines iSCSI, NAS and FiberChannel into a single storage solutionD.Lowers Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) and improves Return On Investment (ROI)WArialCourier NewZXAnswer: D5. A retail customer has a combination of Microsoft Windows file servers with direct attached storage and Power Systems with AIX database servers SAN attached to a DS4700. The DS4700 is reaching capacity, and the customer needs to migrate to a more scalable storage system.Which of the following would be most appropriate to ask first?A.Will all servers be SAN attached?B.What is the budget allocated for storage?C.What is the projected storage requirement?D.How much space is available in the current storage systems?WArialCourier NewZXAnswer: B6. The storage specialist is preparing the IBM System Storage DS6800 proposal for replacing a customer's EMC Symmetrix who's warranty has expired.Which of the following TCO advantages should be highlighted in the proposal?rger disk capacityB.Flexible warranty and lower power consumptionC.Standard three year warranty and no software maintenanceD.FlashCopy included versus extra cost for TimeFinder WArialCourier NewZXAnswer: B7. A small bio-technical company is interested in implementing an IBM Storage solution.Which of the following tools can be used to help justify the cost of an IBM System Storage solution to a customer?A.Disk MagicB.Total Cost of Ownership Now (TCO)C.Capacity MagicD.System Storage Productivity Center (SSPC) for diskWArialCourier NewZXAnswer: B8. A customer has Microsoft Windows, Sun, and Power servers with internal disk. They are porting several applications from other platforms to these servers and need 5 TB of shared disk.Which of the following is the most cost effective, highly available, shared storage solution for this customer?A.N5200B.DS8300 Storage ServerC.DS3400 Storage ServerD.DS5300 Storage ServerWArialCourier NewZXAnswer: D9. A healthcare customer is not satisfied with the utilization of their heterogeneous storage devices. Which of the following solutions should the IBM storage specialist recommend to better provision their storage on demand?A.Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)B.IBM SAN Volume Controller (SVC)C.IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center (TPC)D.Tivoli Provisioning Manager (TPM)WArialCourier NewZXAnswer: B10. A customer has a heterogeneous storage environment and their storage growth rate is 75% per year. Which of the following products would allow this customer to add new applications, new servers and more storage while not forcing them to schedule outages to add these upgrades?A.SAN Volume ControllerB.Tivoli Content ManagerC.Tivoli Storage ManagerD.System Storage Productivity Center (SSPC)WArialCourier NewZXAnswer: A。

Testpassport最新IBM 000-371 题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-371Title : Version : DEMOWeb Services Developmentfor IBM WebSphereApplication Server V7.0The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. Refer to the message in the exhibit.Replace the ??? in the message with the appropriate namespace.A. /2003/05/soap-envelopeB. /soap/envelope/C. /soap12/envelope/D. /soap11/envelope/Answer: A2. A company has a high business value JAX-WS provider Web Service and cannot afford to lose any messages.What kind of quality of service should be used in conjunction with WS-ReliableMessaging?A. Managed persistentB. Managed non-persistentC. Unmanaged non-persistentD. Managed persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)E. Managed non-persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)F. Unmanaged non-persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)Answer: D3. The TCP/IP Monitor can be used to check the following:A. SOAP/JMSB. HTTP HeaderC. WSDL documentD. SOAP messagesE. WS-I ComplianceAnswer: BDE4. A developer used wsimport to generate the skeleton code for a Web service implementation.What is the purpose of the generated ObjectFactory class?A. The ObjectFactory class is the generated Service Endpoint Interface classB. The ObjectFactory class is the generated service provider class that is used by the JAX-WS client.C. The ObjectFactory class takes the targetNamespace value and creates the directory structure.D. The ObjectFactory class allows you to programatically construct new instances of the Java representation for XML content.Answer: D5. Which of the following is used to invoke a Web service from an unmanaged client?A. JAX-WS dispatch APIB. Deployment descriptorC. @Resource annotationD. @WebServiceRef annotationE. Service and Interface classesAnswer: AE6. A company is migrating their current JAX-WS Web service running on IBM WebSphere Application Server V6.1 with the Feature Pack for Web Services to V7.0. The company wants to continue to support V6.1 service consumers.If the Web service has WS-AtomicTransaction enabled, what settings should be configured to support the widest range of clients?A. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Never" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy setB. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Supports" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy setC. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Mandatory" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy setD. Set the "Default WS-Tx specification level" to "1.0" in application policy set bindingsE. Set the "Default WS-Tx specification level" to "1.1" in application policy set bindings Answer: BD7. Why would a developer prefer to use SOAP Web services over REST Web services?A. To provide message level securityB. To allow integration with Web 2.0 applicationsC. To be able to use XML to format response messagesD. To be able to use the HTTP or HTTPS transport protocolsAnswer: A8. Which of the following business scenarios is the LEAST appropriate for Web services?A. Expanding the reach of your company information.B. Providing transactional services such as credit card payment processing.C. Making existing services available to a business process to orchestrate services.D. Enabling interoperability between heterogeneous services to create time-critical solutions. Answer: D9. What is the LEAST appropriate scenario for Web services?A. To integrate legacy systemsB. To propagate security contextC. To expose fine grained operationsD. To use with process choreographyE. For B2B (business to business) applicationsAnswer: C10. What is the biggest advantage of using Web services to create SOA solutions?A. They are implemented using Java and XMLB. They support a client-server programming modelC. They are used to create tightly coupled applicationsD. They are implemented using standardized technologiesAnswer: D11. The following methods are to be published as Web services to be invoked via SOAP messages and validated with a schema:public void myMethod(int x, float y);public void myMethod(int x);public void someOtherMethod(int x, float y);Which WSDL style should be used?A. RPC/literalB. RPC/encodedC. Document/encodedD. Document/literalE. Document/literal wrappedAnswer: A12. Which WSDL style is suited to sending binary tree nodes as part of a SOAP message?A. RPC/literalB. RPC/encodedC. Document/encodedD. Document/literalE. Document/literal wrappedAnswer: B13. A customer requires a Web service which ensures message delivery.Which transport should be proposed?A. SOAP/TCPB. SOAP/JMSC. SOAP/HTTPD. SOAP/SMTPE. SOAP/HTTPSAnswer: B14. When creating a Web service which requires reliable delivery of SOAP messages, which transport should be used?A. SOAP/TCPB. SOAP/JMSC. SOAP/HTTPD. SOAP/SMTPE. SOAP/HTTPSAnswer: B15. The WS-I Simple SOAP Binding Profile V1.0 mandates that a message must serialize the envelope according to which specification?A. XML 1.0B. WSDL 1.1C. SOAP 1.1D. HTTP 1.0Answer: A16. Which specification provides recommendations on the use of encodings to maximize interoperability?A. SAAJ V1.2B. JAX-RPC V1.0C. WS-CoordinationD. WS-I Basic Profile (BP) V1.1Answer: D17. Which of the following is MOST likely to improve the performance of SOAP-based Web services?A. Use message level securityB. Use fine-grained Web servicesC. Use document/literal instead of RPC/encodedD. Avoid stale data in the UDDI registry by turning off cachingAnswer: C18. An RPC/encoded Web service experiences poor performance at high message volumes.What can a developer do to improve this performance?A. Turn off marshallingB. Use binary encodingC. Use RPC/literal encodingD. Use document/literal encodingE. Redesign to use more granular messagingAnswer: CD19. How can a developer ensure that a fault will occur if the service does not recognize a SOAP header entry containing a transaction number?A. Set the faultCode value to soap:TransactionB. Include a Fault element in the SOAP messageC. Include a mustUnderstand attribute in the header entryD. Include a detail element containing application-specific elements according to the XML Schema Answer: C20. What must be included in a SOAP fault message when an error occurs due to a value in the message Body element?A. A detail elementB. A Body fault codeC. An application-specific fault codeD. A fault string element with a value of "Body"Answer: A。

Testpassport最新 70-642题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 70-642Title :Version : DemoWindows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure,Configuring1.Your company has a main office and two branch offices. Domain controllers in the main office host an Active Directory-integrated zone.The DNS servers in the branch offices host a secondary zone for the domain and use the main office DNS servers as their DNS Master servers for the zone.The company adds a new branch office. You add a member server named Branch3 and install the DNS Server server role on the server. You configure a secondary zone for the domain. The zone transfer fails. You need to configure DNS to provide zone data to the DNS server in the new branch office.What should you do?A.Run dnscmd by using the ZoneResetMasters option.B.Run dnscmd by using the ZoneResetSecondaries option.C.Add the new DNS server to the Zone Transfers tab on one of the DNS servers in the main office.D.Add the new DNS server to the DNSUpdateProxy Global security group in Active Directory Users and Computers.Answer: C2 Your company has a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008. You install an additional DNS server that runs Windows Server 2008. You need to delete the pointer record for the IP address 10.3.2.127. What should you do?e DNS manager to delete the 127.in-addr.arpa zone.B.Run the dnscmd /RecordDelete 10.3.2.127 command at the command prompt.C.Run the dnscmd /ZoneDelete 127.in-addr.arpa command at the command prompt.D.Run the dnscmd /RecordDelete 10.in-addr.arpa. 127.2.3 PTR command at the command prompt. Answer: D3.Your company has a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008, and the DNS Server server role. Server1 has one network interface named Local Area Connection. The static IP address of the network interface is configured as 10.0.0.1. You need to create a DNS zone named on Server1. Which command should you use?A.ipconfig /B.dnscmd Server1 /ZoneAdd /DSPrimaryC.dnscmd Server1 /ZoneAdd /Primary /file .dnssh interface ipv4 set dnsserver name= static 10.0.0.1 primaryAnswer: C4. Your company has an Active Directory domain named . All client computers run Windows Vista.The company has recently acquired a company that has an Active Directory domain named . A two-way forest trust is established between the domain and the domain.You need to edit the domain Group Policy object (GPO) to enable users in the domain to access resources in the domain.What should you do?A.Configure the DNS Suffix Search List option to , .B.Configure the Allow DNS Suffix Appending to Unqualified Multi-Label Name Queries option to True.C.Configure the Primary DNS Suffix option to , . Configure the Primary DNS Suffix Devolution option to True.D.Configure the Primary DNS Suffix option to , . Configure the Primary DNS Suffix Devolution option to False.Answer: A5.You manage a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 and the DNS Server server role. The DNS server hosts an Active Directory-integrated zone for your domain. You need to provide a user with the ability to manage records in the zone. The user must not be able to modify the DNS server settings. What should you do?A.Add the user to the DNSUpdateProxy Global security group.B.Add the user to the DNSAdmins Domain Local security group.C.Grant the user permissions on the zone.D.Grant the user permissions on the DNS server.Answer: C6. Your company has a single Active Directory forest that has an Active Directory domain named . A server named Server1 runs the DNS Server server role. You notice stale resource records in the zone. You have enabled DNS scavenging on Server1. Three weeks later, you notice that the stale resource records remain in . You need to ensure that the stale resource records are removed from . What should you do?A.Stop and restart the DNS Server service on Server1.B.Enable DNS scavenging on the zone.C.Run the dnscmd Server1 /AgeAllRecords command on Server1.D.Run the dnscmd Server1 /StartScavenging command on Server1.Answer: B7. Your company has a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2008 and the DNS role. The DNS domain is named . You need to ensure that inquiries about are sent to dnsadmin@. What should you do?A.Create a Signature (SIG) record for the domain controller.B.Modify the Name Server (NS) record for the domain controller.C.Modify the Service Location (SRV) record for the domain controller.D.Modify the Start of Authority (SOA) record on the domain controller.Answer: D8. Your company has two servers that run Windows Server 2008 named Server2 and Server3. Both servers have the DNS Server server role installed. Server3 is configured to forward all DNS requests to Server2. You update a DNS record on Server2. You need to ensure that Server3 is able to immediately resolve the updated DNS record. What should you do?A.Run the dnscmd . /clearcache command on Server3.B.Run the ipconfig /flushdns command on Server3.C.Decrease the Time-to-Live (TTL) on the Start of Authority (SOA) record of to 15 minutes.D.Increase the Retry Interval value on the Start of Authority (SOA) record of to 15 minutes.Answer: A9. Your company has a single Active Directory forest that has a domain in North America named and a domain in South America named . The client computers run Windows Vista. You need to configure the client computers in the North America office to improve the name resolution response time for resources in the South America office. What should you do?A.Configure a new Group Policy object (GPO) that disables the Local-Link Multicast Name Resolution feature. Apply the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.B.Configure a new Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Local-Link Multicast Name Resolution feature. Apply the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.C.Configure a new Group Policy object (GPO) that configures the DNS Suffix Search List option to , . Apply the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.D.Configure the priority value for the Service Location (SRV) records on each of the North America domain controllers to 5.Answer: C10. Your company has an Active Directory forest. All domain controllers run the DNS Server server role. The company plans to decommission the WINS service. You need to enable forest-wide single name resolution. What should you do?A.Enable WINS-R lookup in DNS.B.Create Service Location (SRV) records for the single name resources.C.Create an Active Directory-integrated zone named LegacyWINS. Create host (A) records for the single name resources.D.Create an Active Directory-integrated zone named GlobalNames. Create host (A) records for the single name resources.Answer: D11. Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office has a domain controller named DC1 that hosts a DNS primary zone. The branch office has a DNS server named SRV1 that hosts a DNS secondary zone. All client computers are configured to use their local server for DNS resolution. You change the IP address of an existing server named SRV2 in the main office. You need to ensure that SRV1 reflects the change immediately. What should you do?A.Restart the DNS Server service on DC1.B.Run the dnscmd command by using the /zonerefresh option on DC1.C.Run the dnscmd command by using the /zonerefresh option on SRV1.D.Set the refresh interval to 10 minutes on the Start of Authority (SOA) record.Answer: C12.Your company has a network that has an Active Directory domain. The domain has two servers named DC1 and DC2. You plan to collect events from DC2 and transfer them to DC1. You configure the required subscriptions by selecting the Normal option for the Event delivery optimization setting and by using the HTTP protocol. You discover that none of the subscriptions work. You need to ensure that the serversThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.support the event collectors. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct Answer: presents part of the solution. Choose three.)A.Run the wecutil qc command on DC1.B.Run the wecutil qc command on DC2.C.Run the winrm quickconfig command on DC1.D.Run the winrm quickconfig command on DC2.E.Add the DC2 account to the Administrators group on DC1.F.Add the DC1 account to the Administrators group on DC2.Answer: A D F13. Your company has a network that has 100 servers. A server named Server1 is configured as a file server. Server1 is connected to a SAN and has 15 logical drives. You want to automatically run a data archiving script if the free space on any of the logical drives is below 30 percent. You need to automate the script execution. You create a new Data Collector Set. What should you do next?A.Add the Event trace data collector.B.Add the Performance counter alert.C.Add the Performance counter data collector.D.Add the System configuration information data collector.Answer: B14 You have 10 standalone servers that run Windows Server 2008. You install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on a server named Server1. You need to configure all of the servers to receive updates from Server1. What should you do?A.Configure the Windows Update settings on each server by using the Control Panel.B.Run the wuauclt.exe /detectnow command on each server.C.Run the wuauclt.exe /reauthorization command on each server.D.Configure the Windows Update settings on each server by using a local group policy.Answer: D15. Your company has a server named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2008. DC1 has the DHCP Server server role installed.You find that a desktop computer named SALES4 is unable to obtain an IP configuration from the DHCP server.You install the Microsoft Network Monitor 3.0 application on DC1. You enable P-modein the NetworkMonitor application configuration. You plan to capture only the DHCP server-related traffic between DC1 and SALES4.The network interface configuration for the two computers is shown in the following table.You need to build a filter in the Network Monitor application to capture the DHCP traffic between DC1 and SALES4.Which filter should you use?A.IPv4.Address == 169.254.15.84 && DHCPB.IPv4.Address == 192.168.2.1 && DHCPC.Ethernet.Address == 0x000A5E1C7F67 && DHCPD.Ethernet.Address == 0x001731D55EFF && DHCPAnswer: D16.You perform a security audit on a server named Server1. You install the Microsoft Network Monitor 3.0 application on Server1. You find that only some of the captured frames display host mnemonic names in the Source column and the Destination column. All other frames display IP addresses. You need to display mnemonic host names instead of IP addresses for all the frames. What should you do?A.Create a new display filter and apply the filter to the capture.B.Create a new capture filter and apply the filter to the capture.C.Populate the Aliases table and apply the aliases to the capture.D.Configure the Network Monitor application to enable the Enable Conversations option. Recapture the data to a new file.Answer: C17.You perform a security audit of a server named CRM1. You want to build a list of all DNS requests that are initiated by the server. You install the Microsoft Network Monitor 3.0 application on CRM1. You capture all local traffic on CRM1 for 24 hours. You save the capture file as data.cap. You find that the size of the file is more than 1 GB. You need to create a file named DNSdata.cap from the existing capture file that contains only DNS-related data. What should you do?A.Apply the display filter !DNS and save the displayed frames as a DNSdata.cap file.B.Apply the capture filter DNS and save the displayed frames as a DNSdata.cap file.C.Add a new alias named DNS to the aliases table and save the file as DNSdata.cap.D.Run the nmcap.exe /inputcapture data.cap /capture DNS /file DNSdata.cap command.Answer: D18. Your company has a main office and one branch office. The main office has a print server named Printer1. The branch office has a print server named Printer2. Printer1 manages 15 printers and Printer2 manages seven printers. You add Printer2 to the Print Management console on Printer1. You need to send an automatic notification when a printer is not available. What should you do?A.Configure an e-mail notification for the Printers With Jobs printer filter.B.Configure an e-mail notification for the Printers Not Ready printer filter.C.Enable the Show informational notifications for local printers option on both print servers.D.Enable the Show informational notifications for network printers option on both print servers. Answer: B19.You have a server that runs Windows Server 2008. You create a new quota template. You apply quotas to 100 folders by using the quota template. You need to modify the quota settings for all 100 folders. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?A.Modify the quota template.B.Delete and recreate the quota template.C.Create a new quota template. Modify the quota for each folder.D.Create a file screen template. Apply the file screen template to the root of the volume that contains the folders.Answer: A20.Your company has a domain with multiple sites. You have a domain-based DFS namespace called \\\Management. The \\\Management namespace hierarchy is updated frequently. You need to configure the \\\Management namespace to reduce the workload of the PDC emulator. What should you do?A.Enable the Optimize for scalability option.B.Enable the Optimize for consistency option.C.Set the Ordering method option to Lowest cost.D.Set the Ordering method option to Random order.Answer: A。

Testpassport最新 ST0-91W题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : ST0-91WTitle : Version : DEMOSymantec NetBackup 7.0for Windows (STS)1. A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM. When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs.What should be done to resolve this error?A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup serversB. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bitC. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage serversD. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDPAnswer: B2. If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 administration console?A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)Answer: D3. A request is made to change volume residences.Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes? (Select two.)A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.B. All volumes must have barcode labels.C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.E. All volumes must have the same media type.Answer: AE4. An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 media server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.How should the administrator configure the storage units?A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unitB. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unitC. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drivesD. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit groupAnswer: B5. Refer to the exhibit.In the exhibit, the server_data policy is greyed out and marked with a red "X."What does this indicate?A. The policy is using a FlashBackup policy, but the Enterprise client is unlicensed.B. The policy is using an AdvancedDisk storage unit, but the Flexible Disk option is unlicensed.C. The policy's "go into effect" date is disabled or set to a date in the future.D. A backup run from this policy recently failed and the status is in the Activity Monitor.Answer: C6. An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list that includes the System_State directive.What happens when the backup runs?A. The backup runs successfully.B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.Answer: A7. In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)A. Optimized duplicationB. Duplicate copy to tapeC. Restore to an OpenStorage deviceD. Replicated copyE. Restore to a clientAnswer: BE8. Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup LiveUpdate?A. 6.0 GAB. 6.0 MP4C. 6.5 GAD. 7.0 GAAnswer: C9. An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Control column status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.What does this indicate?A. The drive is down.B. The drive is up and under operator control.C. The drive is up and it is empty.D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy.Answer: C10. Which command provides a list of disk pools required for restoring a client?A. nbdevqueryB. bpimagelistC. vmqueryD. bpdiskinfoAnswer: B11. Refer to the exhibit.An administrator needs to restore an individual file that was accidentally deleted from a server.When selecting the backup images for a restore, the folders listed in the left-pane window are greyed out.When selecting one of these folders, the list of files on the right-pane window is empty even though files have been backed up from this folder in the past.What can the administrator do to restore individual files in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface? A. The administrator needs to login to a system, such as the master server, that has permissions to run the restore job.B. The media with the data needs to be placed into the tape library, then the library needs to be inventoried.C. The media with the restore data is encrypted and the password needs to be supplied.D. The restore needs to be changed from a true image backup to a normal backup.Answer: D12. The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown" In which directory can these commands be found?A. install_path\NetBackup\binB. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmdC. install_path\NetBackup\bin\supportD. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodiesAnswer: A13. Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?A. BMR fileB. master server config fileC. support script outputD. DR fileAnswer: D14. An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time. Which option should be used?A. enable "Compression" in the policyB. use the FlashBackup policy typeC. enable "Collect True Image Restore" in the policyD. use the AFS policy typeAnswer: B15. In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?A. within the EMM databaseB. on the media serverC. on the master serverD. within the master server's Sybase databaseAnswer: C16. Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)A. MediaB. ImageC. VolumeD. EMME. DeviceAnswer: BD17. A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or disk.What is this called?A. file metadataB. backup policyC. catalog .f fileD. backup imageAnswer: D18. Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?A. DataB. ScratchC. NoneD. CatalogAnswer: C19. Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available" for policy storage? (Select two.)A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage unitsB. Media Manager and NDMP storage unitsC. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabledD. storage unit groupsE. storage units with available mediaAnswer: CE20. Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation? (Select two.)A. divide number of files by retention periodB. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention periodC. multiply number of backups per day by number of clientsD. multiply number of files by average length of file namesE. divide full backups by retention periodAnswer: BD。

Testpassport最新IBM System z Solution Sales V4 000-600 题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 000-600System z Solution Sales V4 Title:Version: DEMO1. The Solution edition for Data Warehousing includes which of the following components?A. Foundational z/OS and DB2 for z/OS software to deploy a warehousing database on z/OSB. DB2 for Linux on System z with Partitioning featureC. Information Management software and OPTIM Data Privacy SolutionD. A pre-defined hardware configuration of 2 general processors and 2 zIIPs with 16 GByte of memory for LPAR definitionWArialZAnswer: A2. When discussing the flexibility of System z family of servers with a prospective customer, which of the following is a key aspect?A. Binary compatibility between serversB. Hot pluggable processor and memory boardsC. Consistent CoD features with entire familyD. Ability to interchange features between systems WArialZAnswer: A3. A prospective manufacturing customer with an existing complex environment is requesting a proposal for a TSM data management solution. What should be the first step taken to validate the customer's project?A. Perform a TSM benchmarkB. Verify fundingC. Contact the IBM Software Sales ProfessionalD. Survey customer's current environmentWArialZAnswer: C4. A customer has a defined policy of deploying new applications on distributed platforms. The customer feels these platforms are "good enough" and less costly than their mainframe. A new, WebSphere-based, mission-critical core application is under development and the customer has asked for price quotes on the infrastructure for its deployment.Which of the following meets these needs?A. System z Solution Edition for WebSphereB. System z Solution Edition for DB2 and System z Solution Edition for WebSphereC. System z Solution Edition for Cloud Computing and System z Solution Edition for Application DevelopmentD. System z Solution Edition for DB2 and POWER6 servers for the application tierWArialZAnswer: A5. What determines whether a special bid is eligible for Solution Edition pricing?A. The bid includes incremental new workload representing growth on the platform and the business situation requires a bottom line price.B. The bid requires a bundled solution including hardware, software, maintenance and education.C. The competitive context demands a bottom line price which can be met by adding the solution to an existing LPAR.D. The bid includes incremental new workload on a shared outsourced machine providing a lowerTCA.WArialZAnswer: A6. The Solution Edition for Security with the System z mainframe and Centralized Identity and Access Management provides significant benefits.Which of the following describes those benefits?A. Avoid the risks and exposures on System z platform and on other platforms in a business computing environmentB. Avoid the risks and exposures on only the System z platform in a business computing environmentC. Avoid the risks and exposures on IBM servers only in a business computing environmentD. Avoid security risks for all customer installed servers in a business computing environmentAnswer: A7. A prospect with a large number of Windows servers distributed across the globe is considering migrating to single System z. The customer is very concerned with the rapid growth of his Windows support staff, and the space used by the servers in the various locations.Which of the following is likely to provide long term justification in this scenario?A. Reduced Footprint size at the central locationB. Technical skill requirementsC. Power requirementsD. High AvailabilityWArialZAnswer: B8. A System z10 retail customer with home written Cobol applications is considering replacement of their older z/OS server with new technology. They do not believe a replacement would be less costly than keeping their current server.Which of the following factors in z10 are relevant in convincing them otherwise?A. Application costs, z/OS maintenance, and floor spaceB. MSU software savings, hardware maintenance, software efficiencyC. z/OS administration, hardware maintenance, and database costsD. Floor space, power and cooling, z/OS maintenance, and hardware maintenanceWArialZAnswer: B9. A customer has selected the functionality from System z Solution Edition for Application Development but is concerned about the financial impact of ordering the Solution Edition compared with the same functionality as individual components.Which of the following best describes the financial impact of System z Solution Editions for a customer?A. Lower TCA and lower TCOB. Lower TCA but no impact on TCOC. Lower TCO but no impact on TCAD. Lower TCA but higher TCOWArialZAnswer: A10. What factors contribute to providing the lowest TCO for Java workloads deployed on z/OS?A. Ease of useB. Virtualized hardware and softwareC. Availability of ISV solution softwareD. IFL ICFWArialZAnswer: B。

Testpassport最新微软 70-515题库免费下载

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The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
A.Add the following markup to the default.skin file. <asp:Button ID="Help"></asp:Button> <asp:Button ID="Default"></asp:Button> Use the following markup for the buttons in the page. <asp:Button SkinID="Help">Help</asp:Button> <asp:Button SkinID="Default">Detail</asp:Button> B.Add the following markup to the default.skin file. <asp:Button SkinID="Help"></asp:Button> <asp:Button ID="Default"></asp:Button> Use the following markup for the buttons in the page. <asp:Button SkinID="Help">Help</asp:Button> <asp:Button SkinID="Default">Detail</asp:Button> C.Add the following code segment to default.skin. <asp:Button SkinID="Help"></asp:Button> <asp:Button></asp:Button> Use the following markup for the buttons in the page. <asp:Button SkinID="Help"></asp:Button> <asp:Button SkinID="Default">Detail</asp:Button> D.Add the following markup to default.skin. <asp:Button SkinID="Help"></asp:Button> Answer: D 5.You are creating an Web site. The site has a master page named Custom.master. The code-behind file for Custom.master contains the following code segment. public partial class CustomMaster : MasterPage { public string Region { get; set; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } You create a new page and specify Custom.master as its master page. You add a Label control named lblRegion to the new page. You need to display the value of the master page's Region property in lblRegion. What should you do? A.Add the following code segment to the Page_Load method of the page code-behind file. CustomMaster custom = this.Parent as CustomMaster; lblRegion.Text = custom.Region; B.Add the following code segment to the Page_Load method of the page code-behind file. CustomMaster custom = this.Master as CustomMaster; lblRegion.Text = custom.Region; C.Add the following code segment to the Page_Load method of the Custom.Master.cs code-behind file.

Testpassport最新 70-536(Csharp)题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 70-536CSharpTitle :Version : DemoTS: Framework 2.0-Application DevelopFoundation1.You are developing an application that stores data about your company's sales and technical support teams.You need to ensure that the name and contact information for each person is available as a single collection when a user queries details about a specific team. You also need to ensure that the data collection guarantees type safety.Which code segment should you use?A. Hashtable team = new Hashtable();team.Add(1, "Hance");team.Add(2, "Jim");team.Add(3, "Hanif");team.Add(4, "Kerim");team.Add(5, "Alex");team.Add(6, "Mark");team.Add(7, "Roger");team.Add(8, "Tommy");B. ArrayList team = new ArrayList();team.Add("1, Hance");team.Add("2, Jim");team.Add("3, Hanif");team.Add("4, Kerim");team.Add("5, Alex");team.Add("6, Mark");team.Add("7, Roger");team.Add("8, Tommy");C. Dictionary<int, string> team =new Dictionary<int, string>();team.Add(1, "Hance");team.Add(2, "Jim");team.Add(3, "Hanif");team.Add(4, "Kerim");team.Add(5, "Alex");team.Add(6, "Mark");team.Add(7, "Roger");team.Add(8, "Tommy");D. string[] team =new string[] {"1, Hance","2, Jim", "3, Hanif","4, Kerim", "5, Alex","6, Mark", "7, Roger","8, Tommy"};Answer: C2.You are working on a debug build of an application.You need to find the line of code that caused an exception to be thrown.Which property of the Exception class should you use to achieve this goal?A. DataB. MessageC. StackTraceD. SourceAnswer: C3.You are writing a method that returns an ArrayList named al.You need to ensure that changes to the ArrayList are performed in a thread-safe manner. Which code segment should you use?A. ArrayList al = new ArrayList();lock (al.SyncRoot){return al;}B. ArrayList al = new ArrayList();lock (al.SyncRoot.GetType()){return al;}C. ArrayList al = new ArrayList();Monitor.Enter(al);Monitor.Exit(al);return al;D. ArrayList al = new ArrayList();ArrayList sync_al = ArrayList.Synchronized(al);return sync_al;Answer: D4.You are writing a custom dictionary. The custom-dictionary class is named MyDictionary.You need to ensure that the dictionary is type safe.Which code segment should you use?A. class MyDictionary : Dictionary<string, string>B. class MyDictionary : HashTableC. class MyDictionary : IDictionaryD. class MyDictionary { ... }Dictionary<string, string> t =new Dictionary<string, string>();MyDictionary dictionary = (MyDictionary)t;Answer: A5.You are instantiating a variable to store only strings. The variable is named messageStore.You need to ensure that string messages are read and processed in the order in which they are received. Which code segment should you use?A. Stack<string> messageStore = new Stack<string>();messageStore.Push("This is a test message...");B. Stack messageStore = new Stack();messageStore.Push("This is a test message...");C. Queue messageStore = new Queue();messageStore.Enqueue("This is a test message...");D. Queue<string> messageStore = new Queue<string>();messageStore.Enqueue("This is a test message...");Answer: D6.You are developing an application to assist the user in conducting electronic surveys. The survey consists of 25 true-or-false questions.You need to perform the following tasks:øInitialize each answer to true.øMinimize the amount of memory used by each survey.Which storage option should you choose?A. BitVector32 answers = new BitVector32(1);B. BitVector32 answers = new BitVector32(-1);C. BitArray answers = new BitArray (1);D. BitArray answers = new BitArray(-1);Answer: B7.You are creating a class named Age.You need to ensure that the Age class is written such that collections of Age objects can be sorted. Which code segment should you use?A. public class Age {public int Value;public object CompareTo(object obj) {if (obj is Age) {Age _age = (Age) obj;return pareTo(obj);}throw new ArgumentException("object not an Age");}}B. public class Age {public int Value;public object CompareTo(int iValue) {try {return pareTo(iValue);} catch {throw new ArgumentException ("object not an Age");}}}C. public class Age : IComparable {public int Value;public int CompareTo(object obj) {if (obj is Age) {Age _age = (Age) obj;return pareTo(_age.Value);}throw new ArgumentException("object not an Age");}}D. public class Age : IComparable {public int Value;public int CompareTo(object obj) {try {return pareTo(((Age) obj).Value);} catch {return -1;}}}Answer: C8.You are creating a class named Temperature. The Temperature class contains a public field named F. The public field F represents a temperature in degrees Fahrenheit.You need to ensure that users can specify whether a string representation of a Temperature instance displays the Fahrenheit value or the equivalent Celsius value.Which code segment should you use?A. public class Temperature : IFormattable {public int F;public string ToString(string format, IFormatProvider fp) {if ((format == "F")|| (format == null)) return F.ToString();if (format == "C") return ((F - 32) / 1.8).ToString();throw new FormatException("Invalid format string");}}B. public class Temperature : ICustomFormatter {public int F;public string Format(string format, object arg,IFormatProvider fp) {if (format == "C") return ((F - 32) / 1.8).ToString();if (format == "F") return arg.ToString();throw new FormatException("Invalid format string");}}C. public class Temperature {public int F;public string ToString(string format, IFormatProvider fp) {The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.if (format == "C") {return ((F - 32) / 1.8).ToString();} else {return this.ToString();}}}D. public class Temperature {public int F;protected string format;public override String ToString() {if (format == "C")return ((F - 32) / 1.8).ToString();return F.ToString();}}Answer: A9.You write the following code.public delegate void FaxDocs(object sender, FaxArgs args);You need to create an event that will invoke FaxDocs.Which code segment should you use?A. public static event FaxDocs Fax;B. public static event Fax FaxDocs;C. public class FaxArgs : EventArgs {private string coverPageInfo;public FaxArgs(string coverInfo) {this.coverPageInfo = coverPageInfo;}public string CoverPageInformation {The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.get {return this.coverPageInfo;}}}D. public class FaxArgs : EventArgs {private string coverPageInfo;public string CoverPageInformation {get {return this.coverPageInfo;}}}Answer: A10.You need to write a multicast delegate that accepts a DateTime argument.Which code segment should you use?A. public delegate int PowerDeviceOn(bool result,DateTime autoPowerOff);B. public delegate bool PowerDeviceOn(object sender,EventArgs autoPowerOff);C. public delegate void PowerDeviceOn(DateTime autoPowerOff);D. public delegate bool PowerDeviceOn(DateTime autoPowerOff);Answer: C11.You develop a service application named FileService. You deploy the service application to multiple servers on your network.You implement the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)01 public void StartService(string serverName){02 ServiceController crtl = new03 ServiceController("FileService");04 if (crtl.Status == ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped){05 }06 }You need to develop a routine that will start FileService if it stops. The routine must start FileService on the server identified by the serverName input parameter.Which two lines of code should you add to the code segment? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)A. Insert the following line of code between lines 03 and 04:crtl.ServiceName = serverName;B. Insert the following line of code between lines 03 and 04:crtl.MachineName = serverName;C. Insert the following line of code between lines 03 and 04: = serverName;D. Insert the following line of code between lines 04 and 05:crtl.Continue();E. Insert the following line of code between lines 04 and 05:crtl.Start();F. Insert the following line of code between lines 04 and 05:crtl.ExecuteCommand(0);Answer: BE12.You are developing a routine that will periodically perform a calculation based on regularly changing values from legacy systems. You write the following lines of code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)01 bool exitLoop = false;02 do {0304 exitLoop = PerformCalculation();05 } while (!exitLoop);You need to write a code segment to ensure that the calculation is performed at 30-second intervals. You must ensure that minimum processor resources are used between the calculations.Which code segment should you insert at line 03?A. Thread.Sleep(30000);B. Thread.SpinWait(30000);C. Thread thrdCurrent = Thread.CurrentThread;thrdCurrent.Priority = ThreadPriority.BelowNormal;D. Thread thrdCurrent = Thread.CurrentThread;thrdCurrent.Priority = ThreadPriority.Lowest;E. Thread.SpinWait(30);Answer: A13.You are developing an application to perform mathematical calculations. You develop a class named CalculationValues. You write a procedure named PerformCalculation that operates on an instance of the class.You need to ensure that the user interface of the application continues to respond while calculations are being performed. You need to write a code segment that calls the PerformCalculation procedure to achieve this goal.Which code segment should you use?A. private void PerformCalculation() {...}private void DoWork(){CalculationValues myValues = new CalculationValues();Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(PerformCalculation));newThread.Start(myValues);}B. private void PerformCalculation() {...}private void DoWork(){CalculationValues myValues = new CalculationValues();ThreadStart delStart = newThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.ThreadStart(PerformCalculation);Thread newThread = new Thread(delStart);if (newThread.IsAlive) {newThread.Start(myValues);}}C. private void PerformCalculation (CalculationValues values) {...}private void DoWork(){CalculationValues myValues = new CalculationValues();Application.DoEvents();PerformCalculation(myValues);Application.DoEvents();}D. private void PerformCalculation(object values) {...}private void DoWork(){CalculationValues myValues = new CalculationValues();Thread newThread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(PerformCalculation));newThread.Start(myValues);}Answer: D14.You need to write a code segment that will create a common language runtime (CLR) unit of isolation within an application.Which code segment should you use?A. AppDomainSetup mySetup =AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation;mySetup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true";B. System.Diagnostics.Process myProcess;myProcess = new System.Diagnostics.Process();C. AppDomain domain;domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("MyDomain");D. ponent myComponent;myComponent = new ponent();Answer: C15.You need to write a code segment that will assign the name of the configuration file that the current application domain uses to a string variable named configFile.Which two code segments should you use to achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)A. AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CurrentDomain;configFile =domain.GetData("APP_CONFIG_FILE").ToString();B. AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CurrentDomain;AppDomainSetup setup = domain.SetupInformation;configFile = setup.ConfigurationFile;C. AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CurrentDomain;AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup();configFile = setup.ConfigurationFile;D. AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup();AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("current",null, setup);configFile = setup.ConfigurationFile;Answer: AB16.You are developing an application that dynamically loads assemblies from an application directory.You need to write a code segment that loads an assembly named Assembly1.dll into the current application domain.Which code segment should you use?A. AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CurrentDomain;string myPath = bine(domain.BaseDirectory,"Assembly1.dll");Assembly asm = Assembly.LoadFrom(myPath);B. AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CurrentDomain;string myPath = bine(domain.BaseDirectory,"Assembly1.dll");Assembly asm = Assembly.Load(myPath);C. AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CurrentDomain;string myPath = bine(domain.DynamicDirectory,"Assembly1.dll");Assembly asm = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Load(myPath);D. AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CurrentDomain;Assembly asm = domain.GetData("Assembly1.dll");Answer: A17.You need to write a code segment that will add a string named strConn to the connection string section of the application configuration file.Which code segment should you use?A. Configuration myConfig =ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None);myConfig.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings.Add(new ConnectionStringSettings("ConnStr1", strConn));myConfig.Save();B. Configuration myConfig =ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.ConfigurationUserLevel.None);myConfig.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings.Add(new ConnectionStringSettings("ConnStr1", strConn));ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("ConnectionStrings");C. ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings.Add(new ConnectionStringSettings("ConnStr1", strConn));ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("ConnectionStrings");D. ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings.Add(new ConnectionStringSettings("ConnStr1", strConn));Configuration myConfig =ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None);myConfig.Save();Answer: A18.You are creating an application that retrieves values from a custom section of the application configuration file. The custom section uses XML as shown in the following block.<ProjectSection name="Project1"><role name="administrator" /><role name="manager" /><role name="support" /></ProjectSection>You need to write a code segment to define a class named Role. You need to ensure that the Role class is initialized with values that are retrieved from the custom section of the configuration file.Which code segment should you use?A. public class Role : ConfigurationElement {internal string _ElementName = "name";[ConfigurationProperty("role")]The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.public string Name {get {return ((string)base["role"]);}}}B. public class Role : ConfigurationElement {internal string _ElementName = "role";[ConfigurationProperty("name", RequiredValue = true)]public string Name {get {return ((string)base["name"]);}}}C. public class Role : ConfigurationElement {internal string _ElementName = "role";private string _name;[ConfigurationProperty("name")]public string Name {get {return _name;}}}D. public class Role : ConfigurationElement {internal string _ElementName = "name";private string _name;[ConfigurationProperty("role", RequiredValue = true)]public string Name {The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.get {return _name;}}}Answer: B19.You create a class library that is used by applications in three departments of your company. The library contains a Department class with the following definition.public class Department {public string name;public string manager;}Each application uses a custom configuration section to store department-specific values in the application configuration file as shown in the following code.<Department><name>Hardware</name><manager>Amy</manager></Department>You need to write a code segment that creates a Department object instance by using the field values retrieved from the application configuration file.Which code segment should you use?A. public class deptElement : ConfigurationElement {protected override void DeserializeElement(XmlReader reader, bool serializeCollectionKey) {Department dept = new Department(); = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["name"];dept.manager =ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["manager"];return dept;The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.}}B. public class deptElement: ConfigurationElement {protected override void DeserializeElement(XmlReader reader, bool serializeCollectionKey) {Department dept = new Department(); = reader.GetAttribute("name");dept.manager = reader.GetAttribute("manager");}}C. public class deptHandler : IConfigurationSectionHandler {public object Create(object parent, object configContext,System.Xml.XmlNode section) {Department dept = new Department(); = section.SelectSingleNode("name").InnerText;dept.manager =section.SelectSingleNode("manager").InnerText;return dept;}}D. public class deptHandler : IConfigurationSectionHandler {public object Create(object parent, object configContext,System.Xml.XmlNode section) {Department dept = new Department(); = section.Attributes["name"].Value;dept.manager = section.Attributes["manager"].Value;return dept;}}Answer: CThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.20.You create a class that is derived from the Installer class. The class you create is used to perform a component installation.The component installation overwrites the value of a registry key. You create a method named GetRegValue that returns the current value of the registry key.You need to add a code segment that preserves the original value of the registry key if the component is uninstalled.Which code segment should you use?A. private void BeforeUninstallEventHandler(object sender, InstallEventArgs e) {e.SavedState.Add("original RegValue", GetRegValue());}B. private void CommittedEventHandler(object sender, InstallEventArgs e) {e.SavedState.Add("original RegValue", GetRegValue());}C. public override void Uninstall(IDictionary savedState) {base.Uninstall(savedState);savedState.Add("original RegValue", GetRegValue());}D. protected override void OnBeforeInstall(IDictionary savedState) {base.OnBeforeInstall(savedState);savedState.Add("original RegValue", GetRegValue());}Answer: D。

Testpassport最新MCSE 70-293题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam . 70-293Title .Version . DEMOPlanning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server2003 Network InfrastructureThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. You are a network administrator for your company. The network contains Windows Server 2003 computers and Windows XP Professional client computers. All computers are members of the same Active Directory forest. The company uses a public key infrastructure (PKI) enabled application to manage marketing data. Certificates used with this application are managed by the application administrators. You install Certificate Services to create an offline stand-alone root certification authority (CA) on one Windows Server 2003 computer. You configure a second Windows Server 2003 computer as a stand-alone subordinate CA. You instruct users in the marketing department to enroll for certificates byusing the Web enrollment tool on the stand-alone subordinate CA. Some users report that whentheyattempt to complete the enrollment process, they receive an error message on their certificate, as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Other users in the marketing department do not report receiving the error. You need to ensure that users in the marketing department do not continue to receive this error message. You also need to ensure that only users in the marketing department trust certificates issued by this CA. You create a new organizational unit (OU) named Marketing. What else should you do?A. Place all marketing department computer objects in the Marketing OU. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the Marketing OU. Publish the root CA's root certificate in the Trusted Root Certification Authorities section of the GPO.B. Place all marketing department user objects in the Marketing OU. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the Marketing OU. In the User Configuration section of the GPO, configure a certificate trust list (CTL) that contains the subordinate CA's certificate.C. Place all marketing department computer objects in the Marketing OU. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the Marketing OU. In the Computer Configuration section of the GPO, configure a certificate trust list (CTL) that contains the subordinate CA's certificate.D. Place all marketing department user objects in the Marketing OU. Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the Marketing OU. In the User Configuration section of the GPO, configure a certificate trust list (CTL) that contains the root CA's certificate.Answer: D2. Servers in your environment run Windows Server 2003. You plan to configure a highly available file server. You need to choose the appropriate high-availability technology and the minimum Windows Server 2003 edition for this server. Which technology and edition should you choose? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)A. failover clusteringB. Network Load BalancingC. Windows Server 2003, Standard EditionD. Windows Server 2003, Enterprise EditionAnswer: A D3. You are the network administrator for Contoso, Ltd. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named . The functional level of the domain is Windows Server 2003. The domain contains Windows Server 2003 computers and Windows XP Professional computers. The domain consists of the containers shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) All production server computer accounts are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Servers. All production client computer accounts are located in an OU named Desktops. There are Group Policy objects (GPOs) linked to thedomain, to the Servers OU, and to the Desktops OU. The company recently added new requirements to its written security policy. Some of the new requirements apply to all of the computers in the domain, some requirements apply to only servers, and some requirements apply to only client computers. You intend to implement the new requirements by making modifications to the existing GPOs. You configure 10 new Windows XP Professional computers and 5 new Windows Server 2003 computers in order to test the deployment of settings that comply with the new security requirements by using GPOs. You use the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) to duplicate the existing GPOs for use in testing. You need to decide where to place the test computer accounts in the domain. You want to minimize the amount of administrative effort required to conduct the test while minimizing the impact of the test on production computers. You also want to avoid linking GPOs to multiple containers. What should you do?A. Place all test computer accounts in the container.B. Place all test computer accounts in the Computers container.C. Place the test client computer accounts in the Desktops OU and the test server computer accounts in the Servers OU.D. Create a child OU under the Desktops OU for the test client computer accounts. Create a child OU under the Servers OU for the test server computer accounts.E. Create a new OU named Test under the container. Create a child OU under the Test OU for the test client computer accounts. Create a second child OU under the Test OU for the test server computer accounts.Answer: E4. Your company has a single Active Directory directory service domain. All servers in your environment run Windows Server 2003. You have a stand-alone server that serves as a Stand-alone root certificationauthority (CA). You need to ensure that a specific user can back up the CA and configure the audit parameters on the CA. What should you do?A. Assign the user account to the CA Admin role.B. Add the user account to the local Administrators group.C. Grant the user the Back up files and directories user right.D. Grant the user the Manage auditing and security log user right.Answer: B5. You are a network administrator for your company. You install Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition on two servers named Server1 and Server2. You configure Server1 and Server2 as a two-node server cluster. Server1 and Server2 are connected to a shared fiber-attached array. You configure the server cluster for file sharing. You configure Server1 as the preferred owner of the file sharing resources. You perform the following backups by using the Backup or Restore Wizard. Tuesday Wednesday Server1 Normal backup including system state Incremental backup and Automated System Recovery (ASR) backup Server2 Normal backup including system state Incremental backup and ASR backup On Thursday morning, Server2 experiences a hard disk failure. The failed disk contains only the operating system for Server2. You evict Server2 from the server cluster. You need to recover Server2 and restore it to the cluster. You need to minimize data loss and recovery time. What should you do?A. Restore the quorum disk signature and data from the Tuesday backup of Server1, and add Server2 to the server cluster.B. Restore Server2 by using ASR, and add Server2 to the server cluster.C. Restore the Tuesday backup of Server2, and add Server2 to the server cluster.D. Restore the Tuesday normal backup and the Wednesday incremental backup of Server2, and add Server2 to the server cluster.Answer: B6. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All computers on the network are members of the domain. The domain contains a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server1. You are planning a public key infrastructure (PKI) for the company. You want to deploy a certification authority (CA) on Server1. You create a new global security group named Cert Administrators. You need to delegate the tasks to issue, approve, and revoke certificates to members of the Cert Administrators group. What should you do?A. Add the Cert Administrators group to the Cert Publishers group in the domain.B. Configure the Certificates Templates container in the Active Directory configuration naming context to assign the Cert Administrators group the Allow - Write permission.C. Configure the CertSrv virtual directory on Server1 to assign the Cert Administrators group the Allow - Modify permission.D. Assign the Certificate Managers role to the Cert Administrators group.Answer: D7. Your company has a single Active Directory directory service domain. All servers in your environment run Windows Server 2003. Client computers run Windows XP or Windows Vista. You plan to create a security update scan procedure for client computers. You need to choose a security tool that supports all the client computers. Which tool should you choose?A. UrlScan Security ToolB. Enterprise Scan Tool (EST)C. Malicious Removal Tool (MRT)D. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)Answer: D8. Your company has a single Active Directory directory service domain. Servers in your environment run Windows Server 2003. Client computers run Windows XP or Windows Vista. You plan to create an internal centrally managed security update infrastructure for client computers. You need to choose a security update management tool that supports all the client computers. Which tool should you choose?A. Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) ToolkitB. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)C. Microsoft System Center Operations ManagerD. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)Answer: D9. Your company has an Active Directory directory service domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003. You are developing a security monitoring plan. You must monitor the files that are stored in a specific directory on a member server. You have the following requirements. Log all attempts to access the files.Retain log information until the full weekly backup occurs. You need to ensure that the security monitoring plan meets the requirements. What should your plan include?A. Configure a directory service access audit policy. Increase the maximum size of the security log.B. Configure a directory service access audit policy. Set the system log to overwrite events older than 7 days.C. Configure an object access audit policy for the directory. Increase the maximum size of the system log.D. Configure an object access audit policy for the directory. Set the security log to overwrite events older than 7 days.Answer: D10. You are a network administrator for your company. The network consists of multiple physical segments. The network contains two Windows Server 2003 computers named Server1 and Server2, and several Windows 2000 Server computers. Server1 is configured with a single DHCP scope for the 10.250.100.0/24 network with an IP address range of 10.250.100.10 to 10.250.100.100. Several users on the network report that they cannot connect to file and print servers, but they can connect to each other's client computers. All other users on the network are able to connect to all network resources. You run the ipconfig.exe /all command on one of the affected client computers and observe the information in the following table.You need to configure all affected client computers so that they can communicate with all other hosts on the network. Which two actions should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.A. Disable the DHCP service on Server2.B. Increase the IP address range for the 10.250.100.0/24 scope on Server1.C. Add global DHCP scope options to Server1 for default gateway, DNS servers, and WINS servers.D. Delete all IP address reservations in the scope on Server1.E. Run the ipconfig.exe /renew command on all affected client computers.F. Run the ipconfig.exe /registerdns command on all affected client computers.Answer: A E11. Your company has a single Active Directory directory service domain. All servers in your environment run Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers run Active DirectoryCintegrated DNS. You create several static host (A) resource records. You need to verify that the DNS server is sending the correct host records to all client computers. Which command-line tool should you use?A. netshB. tracertC. ntdsutilD. nslookupAnswer: D12. You are the network administrator for Tailspin Toys. The company has a main office and two branch offices. The network in the main office contains 10 servers and 100 client computers. Each branch office contains 5 servers and 50 client computers. Each branch office is connected to the main office by a direct T1 line. The network design requires that company IP addresses must be assigned from a single classful private IP address range. The network is assigned a class C private IP address range to allocate IP addresses for servers and client computers. Tailspin Toys acquires a company named Wingtip Toys. The acquisition will increase the number of servers to 20 and the number of client computers to 200 in theThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.main office. The acquisition is expected to increase the number of servers to 20 and the number of client computers to 200 in the branch offices. The acquisition will also add 10 more branch offices. After the acquisition, all branch offices will be the same size. Each branch office will be connected to the main office by a direct T1 line. The new company will follow the Tailspin Toys network design requirements. You need to plan the IP addressing for the new company. You need to comply with the network design requirement. What should you do?A. Assign the main office and each branch office a new class A private IP address range.B. Assign the main office and each branch office a new class B private IP address range.C. Assign the main office and each branch office a subnet from a new class B private IP address range.D. Assign the main office and each branch office a subnet from the current class C private IP address range.Answer: C13. You are a network administrator for Alpine Ski House. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain name is . The network contains three Windows Server 2003 domain controllers. You are creating the recovery plan for the company. According to the existing backup plan, domain controllers are backed up by using normal backups each night. The normal backups of the domain controllers include the system state of each domain controller. Your recovery plan must incorporate the following organizational requirements. Active Directory objects that are accidentally or maliciously deleted must be recoverable. Active Directory must be restored to its most recent state as quickly as possible. Active Directory database replication must be minimized.You need to create a plan to restore a deleted organizational unit (OU). Which two actions should you include in your plan? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)A. Restart a domain controller in Directory Services Restore Mode.B. Restart a domain controller in Safe Mode.C. Use the Ntdsutil utility to perform an authoritative restore operation of the Active Directory database.D. Restore the system state by using the Always replace the file on my computer option.E. Use the Ntdsutil utility to perform an authoritative restore operation of the appropriate subtree. Answer: A E14. Your company has an Active Directory directory service domain. The domain functional level is Windows Server 2003. The company has a main office with two domain controllers (DCs). Users log on to client computers by using user principal names (UPNs). You plan to set up a new branch office with one domain controller. You need to ensure that when the branch office domain controllers connection to the main office is unavailable, users in the branch office can log on to the domain. What should you do?A. Add a new domain controller in the branch office.B. Configure the branch office domain controller as a global catalog server.C. Transfer the RID Master role to the branch office domain controller.D. Transfer the Infrastructure Master role to the branch office domain controller.Answer: B15. All servers and client computers in your company are configured to use WINS for name resolution. The internal network is separated from a perimeter network (also known as DMZ) by a third-party firewall. Firewall rules do not allow name resolution between the internal network and the perimeter network. You move a Windows Server 2003 server named Server1 to the perimeter network. You need to ensure that all computers on the internal network can connect to Server1 by name. What should you do?A. Create an LMHOSTS file on Server1.B. Create a static WINS entry for Server1.C. Configure Server1 to use Broadcast (B-node) mode.D. Configure Server1 to use Peer-to-Peer (P-node) mode.Answer: B16. All servers in your environment run Windows Server 2003. Your companys network includes multiple network segments and multiple routers. A member server that has the Routing and Remote Access service (RRAS) installed provides Internet connectivity for all client computers. The RRAS server is located in a perimeter network (also known as DMZ). A client computer named Client1 is unable to connect to the Internet. The RRAS server is able to connect to the Internet. You need to pinpoint the location of the network issue. What should you do?A. Use the nbtstat command-line tool on Client1.B. Use the pathping command-line tool on Client1.C. Run the nbtstat -r command on the RRAS server.D. Run the ping -a Client1 command on the RRAS server.Answer: B17. Your company has 250 client computers connected to the office LAN. The company has a pool of five public IP addresses. All client computers have dynamically assigned IP addresses. You need to provide all client computers with Internet access. What should you use?A. DHCP Relay AgentB. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)C. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)D. Network Address Translation (NAT)/Basic FirewallAnswer: D18. Your company has an Active Directory directory service domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers are configured to audit specific events. You are developing a security monitoring plan for the domain controllers. You must back up the following information. Local logon attemptsDomain logon attemptsSecurity update installation attempts You need to specify the appropriate log files to back up. Which files should you specify?A. AppEvent.Evt and NTDS.EvtB. NTDS.Evt and SecEvent.EvtC. SecEvent.Evt and SysEvent.EvtD. AppEvent.Evt and SysEvent.EvtAnswer: C19. You are the network administrator for your company. The network contains Windows 98, Windows NT Workstation 4.0, and Windows XP Professional client computers. All computers run the latest services pack.The network contains a Windows Server 2003 file server named Server1. The company's written security policy requires that data communications must be encrypted by using IPSec whenever possible. Other than the default GPOs, there are no additional Group Policy objects (GPOs) within Active Directory or anyThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.local GPOs applied to the computers in the domain.You need to configure Server1 so that it meets the written security policy requirements without disabling access for any client computer. You also want to minimize session key negotiation times.Whtat should you do?To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box.Answer:The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.20. You are a network administrator for Alpine Ski House. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The network contains 50 Windows Server 2003 computers and 200 Windows XP Professional computers. Alpine Ski House does not use wireless networking. The network at Alpine Ski House is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Alpine Ski House enters into a strategic partnership with Adventure Works. Under the strategic partnership, Adventure Works will regularly send employees to Alpine Ski House. Your design team interviews Adventure Works administrators and discovers the following. Adventure Works employees require access to the Internet to retrieve e-mail messages and to browse the Internet. Adventure Works employees do not need access to the internal network at Alpine Ski House. Adventure Works employees all have portable computers that run Windows XP Professional, and they use a wireless network in their home office. The wireless network client computers of Adventure Works employees must be protected from Internet-based attacks.Adventure Works sends you a wireless access point that its employees will use to access the Internet through your network. You are not allowed to change the configuration of the wireless access point because any change will require changes to all of the wireless client computers. You need to develop a plan that will meet the requirements of Adventure Works employees and the security requirements of Alpine Ski House.The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Your solution must be secure and must minimize administrative effort. What should you do?A. Install the wireless access point on a separate subnet inside the Alpine Ski House network. Configure a router to allow only HTTP, IMAP4, and SMTP traffic out of the wireless network.B. Install the wireless access point on a separate subnet inside the Alpine Ski House network. Configure a VPN from the wireless network to the Adventure Works office network.C. Install the wireless access point on the Alpine Ski House perimeter network. Configure Firewall1 to allow wireless network traffic to and from the Internet. Configure Firewall2 to not allow wireless traffic into the Alpine Ski House network.D. Install the wireless access point outside Firewall1 at Alpine Ski House. Obtain IP addresses from your ISP to support all wireless users.Answer: C。

Testpassport最新 IBM certifications I 000-002题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-002Title :Version : DemoIBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.11.How many zone set(s) can be active at the same time?A.1B.3C.10D.unlimitedAnswer:A2.Which protocol is used to discover a CIMOM?A.SLPB.UDPC.TPCD.SNMPAnswer:A3.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center server directories and subdirectories need to be backed up on UNIX in case of a disaster?A./opt/IBM/TPCB./usr/IBM/Tivoli/tip and /usr/IBM/TPCC./opt/IBM/Tivoli/tip, /opt/IBM/replication, and /opt/IBM/TPCD./usr/IBM/Tivoli/tip, /usr/IBM/replication, and /opt/IBM/TPCAnswer:C4.What are the default server components that will get installed when a typical installation with Servers is selected?A.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and DeviceB.Tivoli Integrated Portal, Storage Resource agent, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data ServerC.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and Device, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for ReplicationD.Tivoli Integrated Portal, IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and DeviceAnswer:D5.Which two items must be configured in IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) to send an alert to Tivoli Enterprise Center/OMNIbus? (Choose two.)A.the default domain nameB.a fully qualified Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus ServerC.the IP address where Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus can be foundD.the Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus User ID and Password to gain accessE.the port number to which Tivoli Storage Productivity Center will direct Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus eventsAnswer:B E6.The customer is requesting performance monitoring of NetApp storage subsystems. Which agent is required?App CIM agent (ONTAP SMI-S agent)B.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Data agentC.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Storage Resource agentD.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Data agent and NetApp CIM agent7.What are the correct steps to create a zone set?A.Go to Fabric Manager->Fabrics->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.B.Go to Disk Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.C.Go to Data Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.D.Go to Fabric Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.Answer:D8.After SMI-S agent of the fabric has completed its discovery, what is the next step before creating zone or zone set?A.Run Probe.B.Run Discovery.C.Do not do anything else.D.Run Performance Monitor job.Answer:A9.Where does a user go to run a CIMOM Discovery on the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI?A.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOMB.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIM agentC.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> CIMOM DiscoveryD.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Discovery -> CIMOMAnswer:A10.What are two methods to determine if a CIM agent contains the devices that it manages, after it has been added successfully on IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI? (Choose two.)A.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM/Agents->Show Managed DevicesB.Administrative Services->Data Sources->CIMOM/Agents->Show Managed DevicesC.Administrative Services->Data Sources->CIMOM/Agents->Select CIMOM->Show Managed DevicesD.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM->Select CIMOM discovery log->Show Managed DevicesE.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM->Select CIMOM discovery log->expand on the CIMOM logAnswer:C E11.What is the minimum interval for data gathering by a switch performance monitor job?A.1 minuteB.5 minutesC.10 minutesD.15 minutesAnswer:B12.Which device currently supports for Single Sign-on with IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1?A.SVC 4.3.1B.DS8000 Release 4.2C.DS5000 (Firmware 7.50.12.00)D.Brocade switches managed by DCFM13.When submitting a storage optimization report job, will data be physically moved from one storage pool to another?A.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool.B.No. No physical data move will be done; it will only be simulated.C.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool but only when in the same format (CKD or FB).D.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool, but only when in the same type of subsystem. Answer:B14.Given a successful installation of IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center, which directory contains the current Device server logs?A.\logB.\data\logC.\device\logD.\data\serverAnswer:C15.How can a user validate that the data agents are registered successfully on the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI tree?A.Data Manager-> Data/Storage Resource agentsB.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center-> agentsC.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center-> Data agentsD.Administrative Services->Data Sources->Data/Storage Resource agentsAnswer:D16.In the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI, where can it be verified if a switch is enabled for performance monitoring?A.Fabric Manager -> FabricsB.Administrative Services -> Data Sources -> CIMOM agentsC.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Topology -> SwitchesD.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Configuration Utility, Fabric Manager tabAnswer:D17.Which information is collected from computers during the probe job?rmation about disks and disk controllersB.health information about fabric componentsrmation about file types and their ownershiprmation about operating system resources (swap-space, memory, and so on)Answer:A18.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) license is required for using the storage performance optimizer?A.Basic EditonB.Standard EditionC.Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for DiskD.Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for DataAnswer:B19.Policies are enforced when defined conditions are detected by a monitoring job. What are two requirements to be used in the Policy management function to manage and enforce policies? (Choosetwo.)A.quotasB.constraintsC.Security levelsD.System enforcerE.Data Management toolAnswer:A B20.Which group does the installer's user ID have to belong to when installing DB2 on a Windows platform?A.TCPADMINB.DB2 Users GroupC.Administrator GroupD.Windows Systems GroupAnswer:C21.For computer and file system groups in Data Manager, a Group By Cluster check box is displayed. What happens if this option is selected?A.The Available pane displays a cluster name next to any clustered computers and cluster resource groups.B.The Available pane automatically filters and hides any cluster aware computers from being displayed in the list.C.The Available pane provides an additional option of being able to filter and hide cluster aware computers from being displayed in the list.D.The Available pane displaying any computer or cluster resource group that belongs to a PowerHA or MSCS Cluster is grouped under its cluster name.Answer:D22.What are two prerequisites for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center to launch external tools? (Choose two.)A.It can be launched with a URL.B.It is a locally installed application.C.It must support Web 2.0 standard.D.It is a platform independent Java application.E.It runs in the same WebSphere server that the data server runs in.Answer:A B23.What is the minimum number of servers required to install DB2, IBM Tivoli Agent Manager and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for a small customer environment consisting of a single DS8000 and 10 host machines?A.1B.2C.3D.4Answer:A24.How many zone member(s) does a zone contain?A.oneB.fiveC.unlimitedD.Check with vendor documentation to see what is supported.Answer:D25.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center license is necessary for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center --> Analytics function usage?A.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for DataB.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Basic EditionC.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Limited EditionD.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Standard EditionAnswer:D26.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 media disk image contains the Storage Resource agent installation packages?A.Disk 1B.Disk 2C.Disk 3D.both Disk 1 and Disk 2Answer:D27.Upon completion of the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) upgrade, the Tivoli Storage Productivity Center database must be migrated by using the database migration tool. Which choice represents the database migration tools that can be executed to perform the database migration?A.db2update.bat or db2update.shB.migratetables.bat or migratetables.shC.partitiontables.bat or partitiontables.shD.migratepartitions.bat or migratepartitions.shAnswer:C28.Which jobs need to run in order to populate the database with all available information for a storage subsystem?A.Probe and ScanB.Discovery and ScanC.Discovery and ProbeD.Probe and Performance MonitorAnswer:C29.Which is a valid triggering condition for the scan job alert?A.Scan FailedB.Scan Completed SuccessfullyC.Scan Completed with WarningsD.Scan found more than 10,000 filesAnswer:A30.Which task must be performed before gathering information about NetWare volumes?A.Create profiles to define which Netware servers to scan.B.Create quotes to control how many NetWare volumes should be pinged and scanned.C.Configure Device Manager to discover all the NetWare servers in NDS trees and then run a ping job.D.Define a scan and include the NetWare volumes and file systems for which you want to gather detailed storage information.Answer:D。

Testpassport最新Juniper Networks JN0-202 题库免费下载

Version : DEMO
1/5
The safer , sier way to help you pass any IT exams.
1 .Which command allows real-time monitoring of interface statistics on interface so-0/0/0? A. monitor interface so-0/0/0 B. monitor traffic interface so-0/0/0 C. monitor statististics so-0/0/0 D. monitor so-0/0/0 Answer: A 2 .Which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged with the log firewall filter action? A. show log B. show log messages C. show firewall D. show firewall log Answer: D 3 .To create a stable IBGP peering arrangement, it is recommended that internal peering be created between the loopback interfaces of the IBGP peering routers. Why is the local-address command required for successful connectivity in this scenario? A. to send the BGP Open message B. to tell the local router which interface the update is going to be received on C. to tell the local router which interface to source the update from D. to authenticate using MD5 between these neighbors Answer: C 4. How can you identify all routes that are more specific than 10.0/16, excluding the exact match? A. route-filter 10.0/16 longer B. route-filter 10.0.0/17 longer C. route-filter 10.0/16 orlonger D. route-filter 10.0.0/17 upto /32 Answer: A 5. Which router feature will improve Routing Engine fail-over times? A. GRES B. RED C. MPLS D. VRRP Answer: A 6. Given the following policy: policy-statement limit-cust { from { route-filter 192.168.0.0/16 orlonger accept; route-filter 192.168.8.0/21 longer; route-filter 192.168.0.0/24 orlonger { metric 5;

Testpassport最新Microsoft MCTS 70-659题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 70-659Title : Version : DEMOTS: Windows Server 2008R2, Server VirtualizationThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. You install Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise (Full Installation).You need to add the Hyper-V role to the server.What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)A. Run the start /w hvconfig command.B. Run the start /w ocsetup Microsoft-Hyper-V command.C. Run the Add-WindowsFeature Hyper-V PowerShell cmdlet.D. Run the Add-WindowsFeature RSAT-Hyper-V PowerShell cmdlet.Answer: BC2. You add the Hyper-V role to your Windows Server 2008 R2 Datacenter server.You see the following error in the Windows system event log: °H ype-V launch failed: No-execute (NX) or DEP not enabled on processor 0x0 (check BIOS settings).You need to be able to start the Hyper-V services.What should you do?A. Remove and re-add the Hyper-V role.B. Restart the Hyper-V Virtual Machine Management service.C. Enable the Intel XD bit (exclude disable bit) or AMD NX bit (no execute bit).D. Enable the Intel Virtualization Technology (Intel VT) or AMD Virtualization (AMD-V).Answer: C3. You have a Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 server.You need to join the server to an existing Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.Which should you use?A. ocsetupB. hvconfigC. sc configD. net configAnswer: B4. You install Windows Server 2008 R2 (Server Core Installation) on a server.You need to be able to remotely manage storage on the server by using Disk Manager.What should you do?A. Install the Microsoft Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).B. Use the DISKPART utility to run the attributes volume clear readonly command for each volume.C. Run the netsh advfirewall Firewall set rule group="Remote Administration" new enable=yes command.D. Run the netsh advfirewall Firewall set rule group="Remote Volume Management" new enable=yes command.Answer: D5. You have a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V server with a single network adapter that is connected toa virtual network. The virtual network is configured as External. Virtual machines (VMs) running on the server are not able to communicate with the host server over the network.You need to ensure that VMs running on the server are able to communicate with the host server over the network.In Virtual Network Manager, what should you do?A. Select the Internal only connection type.B. Select the Private virtual machine network connection type.C. Select the Allow management operating system to share this network adapter check box.D. Clear the Allow management operating system to share this network adapter check box.Answer: C6. Your company has a Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 environment. You manage the virtual environment by using Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2.You are creating a virtual test environment by installing two child partitions. The test environment must be completely isolated from all production servers.You need to ensure that the child partitions can communicate with each other.Which connection type should you configure?A. PrivateB. InternalC. ExternalD. Dedicated hostAnswer: A7. You have a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V server with two network adapters named Adapter1 and Adapter2.You need to configure the server to host virtual machines (VMs) on different networks.Which two actions should you perform on the host server? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)A. Set Adapter1 as a management interface.B. Configure Adapter1 to support jumbo frames.C. Set Adapter2 in Trunk mode, and configure VM VLAN tags.D. Disable TCP Chimney support on Adapter2, and configure VM VLAN tags.Answer: AC8. You install Windows Server 2008 R2 (Server Core Installation) on a server. The server will store virtual machines (VMs) on a volume that is attached to the server by means of an iSCSI connection.You need to configure the server so that VMs can be stored on the iSCSI volume.Which two commands should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)A. iscsicli listTargetB. iscsicli qaddTargetC. iscsicli qloginTargetD. iscsicli AddConnectionAnswer: BC9. You are configuring a Windows Server?2008?R2 Hyper-V failover cluster. You configure five iSCSI logical unit numbers (LUNs) on shared storage, and you present them to the first server.Each LUN appears twice in the Disk Management console.You need to ensure that each LUN appears only once in the Disk Management console.What should you do?A. Reset the iSCSI initiator name to the default name.B. Install and configure Microsoft Multipath I/O (MPIO).C. In the Disk Management console, rescan the disks.D. In the Disk Management console, configure shadow copies.Answer: B10. You create a virtual machine (VM) on a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V server. The VM has a single VHD file that is connected to an IDE controller.You need to add five new virtual disks to the VM. You must minimize the amount of virtual hardware. What should you do?A. Add the virtual disks to IDE Controller 0.B. Add the virtual disks to an existing SCSI controller.C. Remove the virtual DVD drive, and add the virtual disks to IDE Controller?1.D. Add five SCSI controllers to the VM, and add one virtual disk to each SCSI controller.Answer: B。

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TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-007Title : Version : DEMOIBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbusV7.3 Implementation1. A customer is migrating from IBM Tivoli Enterprise Console (Tivoli Enterprise Console) to IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 (Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3). This customer's environment has many custom applications sending postemsg events to Tivoli Enterprise Console server.How will the custom applications send events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 environment by making only minimal changes on the custom applications?A.Custom applications should be reconfigured to send postmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 ObjectServer.B.Custom applications should be reconfigured to send postemsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 Tivoli EIF Probe.C.Custom applications should be reconfigured to send nco_sendmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 ObjectServer.D.Custom applications should be reconfigured to send sendmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 Probe for Tivoli Common Event Infrastructure.Answer: B2. Which IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 feature must be installed before probe installation?Probe ControlAdministratorProbe SupportProcess ControlAnswer: C3. The customer is upgrading from Tivoli Integrated Portal (Webtop 2.2) to Web GUI.Which file should be restored to get all the filters?A.install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/WebGUI_22B.install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/WebGUI_21C.install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/deprecatedD.install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/migrated_dataAnswer: C4. Which statement is true regarding Accelerated Event Notification channels?A.Channels cannot be copied and pasted from one ObjectServer to another.B.Any authenticated ObjectServer user may create a channel through the Netcool admin client.C.ObjectServer channels only support the broadcast of data from alerts.status, alerts.journal, and alerts.details.D.Although channels in different ObjectServers may be named differently, all channels within a single ObjectServer must have the same name in order for the broadcast function to work correctly. Answer: A5. Which two options are true about configuring Probes to use failover Netcool Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)A.The Probe's "NetworkTimeout" property should be set to 0.B.The Probe's "IsOSConnection" property should be set to 0.C.The Probe's "IsProxyConnection" property should be set to 1.D.The Probe's "Server" property should be configured to point at the primary Proxy Server.E.The Probe's "ServerBackup" property should be configured to point at the backup Proxy Server. Answer: DE6. Which two components are used in the Tivoli Integrated Portal console to create custom screens for users? (Choose two.)A.WindowB.FoldersC.PortletsD.ViewpointsE.External URLsAnswer: BE7. What does nco_p_syntax do?A.It connects to the ObjectServer, tests the rules file, and corrects any syntax errors.B.It connects to the ObjectServer, tests the rules file, and removes lines with syntax errors.C.It connects to the ObjectServer, tests the rules file,and displays any errors to the screen.D.It connects to the ObjectServer, tests the rules file, and comments out lines with syntax errors. Answer: C8. All the processes in the current ObjectServer are functioning normally. The customer security requirements have changed and all the data in the network must be passed securely.Which change will be made at the ObjectServer level?A.Just run the Active Event List in the secure mode.B.Start all the processes under the process control agent.C.ObjectServer data is encrypted by default so that no change is required.e SSL communication port and run the ObjectServer by using -secure option.Answer: D9. A customer has a large, complex environment to monitor, with many sources of events, some at remote sites. The event volume from these sources is high. There are requirements to do advanced correlation and event enrichment, as well as providing browser access to event list views for many operators. Based on the scenario, which type of installation is recommended?A.Multi Tier Architecture with Web GUIB.Single Tier Architecture with Web GUIC.Individual failover server pair per siteD.Web GUI and OMNIbus installed in single systemAnswer: A10. Which probe will be required to integrate events from IBM Tivoli Enterprise Console with IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus?A.TEC probeB.Syslog probeC.MTTrapd probeD.Tivoli EIF probeAnswer: D11. The customer wants all the events to be archived to a file with the name NCOMS.txt.Which type of gateway should be installed?A.Reporter GatewayB.Archiving GatewayC.Flat File GatewayD.Event File GatewayAnswer: C12. In the probe's rules files, what does the getload() function do?A.Return the CPU percentage the probe is using.B.Return the number of events processed per minute.C.Return the number of events processed per second.D.Return the percentage of events processed by the probe.Answer: C13. The $NCHOME/omnibus/log/NCOMS_profiler_report.log file contains the following information:Thu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Individual user profiles:Thu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: 'Administrator' (uid = 0) time on IBM-ADAF9B5BAFC: 0.020000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: 'PROBE' (uid = 0) time on server1: 55.050000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: 'GATEWAY' (uid = 0) time on server1: 0.000000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Grouped user profiles:Thu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Execution time for all connections whose application name is 'Administrator': 0.020000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Execution time for all connections whose application name is 'PROBE': 55.050000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Execution time for all connections whose application name is 'GATEWAY': 0.000000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2008: Total time in the report period (59.989325s): 55.070000sWhat can be deduced from the log file?A.The gateway is not running.B.There is a high load of events inserted from the probe.C.The bi-directional ObjectServer gateway is in failover mode.D.There are too many clients connected to the ObjectServer.Answer: B14. What is the purpose of the flood.rules file?A.Insert flood-related events.B.Calculate event rates for detecting event floods.C.Parse the information of flood events for correlation.D.Delete flood events from IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus.Answer: BThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.15. What does the $NCHOME/omnibus/log/servername_profiler_report.log file contain?A.historical ObjectServer event reportsrmation of all the profile roles created in the ObjectServerC.historical information of changes made to the ObjectServer propertiesrmation about the amount of time spent running SQL queries for ObjectServer connections Answer: D16. Which three groups are identified when creating users for IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus? (Choose three.)A.OperatorsB.Root GroupC.Super UsersD.Support StaffE.Desktop UsersF.AdministratorsAnswer: ACF17. Which action is required to define groups, once the IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus is installed?A.Verify that each group has access to the system.B.Test each user for system access before adding them to a group.C.Identify which role each user is going to have and assign them into groups.D.Disable default user accounts for System Administration and default Operations accounts. Answer: C18. What is taken into consideration while calculating sizing for a server that will only run an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus ObjectServer ?A.number of Web GUI maps configuredB.number of operator users configuredC.number of custom SQL triggers configuredD.number of Process Control agents configured within the solutionAnswer: C19. Which step is critical while calculating sizing for an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus system?A.Determine the display resolution used by system users.B.Determine the number of calls managed by system users.C.Determine if network bandwidth will support event throughput.D.Determine if a Database Cluster is connected through an OMNIbus Gateway.Answer: C20. Which step is critical while calculating sizing for an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus system?A.Determine the appropriate method for migration.B.Determine the number of events that will occur per hour.The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.C.Determine the number of users configured within OMNIbus.D.Determine the number of probes attached to the ObjectServer.Answer: B。