2012辽宁省学士学位课程外国语(英语)水平统一考试大纲(试行)
成人学位英语是60分及格吗 学士学位英语成绩多久有效
成人学位英语是60分及格吗学士学位英语成绩多久有效
本科或者本科毕业时申请学士学位是需要参加并通过学位英语考试的，但是很多小伙伴对英语这门科目都很头疼，学位英语考试是不是60分就算通过了呢，英语不好的小伙伴应该怎么通过学位英语考试呢?下面就为大家简单介绍一下关于学位英语考试这方面的相关情况吧。
学位英语60分就及格吗
首先大家应该了解，学位英语考试的命题范围是以《成人本科毕业生授予学士学位外国语水平统一考试考试大纲》为依据的。
考试试卷分为客观题和主观题，卷面总分100。
其次各省市对于学位英语的合格分数要求是不一样的，但是一般是60分就算通过。
比如说北京、四川学位英语的及格分数就是60分，而黑龙江学位英语考试合格线几乎每年都要低于60分。
因此还在好奇学位英语的及格分数的小伙伴们可以确定的就是，达到60分就算通过考试了。
学位英语成绩怎么查询
成人学位英语考试成绩查询方式主要有三种：一种方法是公布在学校网站上;另外一种方法是校园公布栏公布;还有一种方法就是班主任通知。
另外，需要申请复查成绩的考生在成绩公布后15日内向本校或当地教学服务中心提出申请。
学位英语成绩有效期是多久
成人学位英语考试的成绩是有有效期的，一般情况下学位英语的合格成绩有效期为4年，也就是说考生需要在有效期内获得学士学位，这一点大家一定要注意。
从以上内容大家可以得知，成人学士学位英语60分就及格了，考试难度也并不是很大，因此大家只要认真准备，相信都能够顺利通过考试。
辽宁学位英语考试大纲
辽宁学位英语考试大纲The Liaoning Degree English Test, a pivotal examination for students in the province, aims to assess the English proficiency of candidates who aspire to obtain a bachelor's degree. The test is structured to evaluate a wide range of skills, including listening, speaking, reading, and writing, ensuring that students are well-equipped to use English in academic and professional settings.Listening Comprehension。
The listening section tests the ability to understand spoken English in various contexts. Candidates listen to conversations, lectures, and discussions, answering questions that gauge their comprehension. This part of the test challenges students to discern main ideas, details, and implied meanings in spoken passages.Reading Comprehension。
Reading skills are assessed through passages that cover a variety of subjects. Students must demonstrate their ability to understand and analyze texts, identify key points, and infer the meanings of unfamiliar words through context. The reading section also includes tasks that require comparing and contrasting information, understanding the structure of texts, and evaluating arguments.Writing Skills。
辽宁学士学位英语历年作文真题2024
辽宁学士学位英语历年作文真题2024全文共3篇示例，供读者参考篇1Liaoning Bachelor's Degree English Essay 2024Part I: Choose one of the following topics and write an essay (200-250 words).1. Describe a person who has had a great influence on your life.2. Do you agree or disagree with the statement, "Money can't buy happiness"?3. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of living in a big city.4. What are the qualities of a good leader?5. If you could travel anywhere in the world, where would you go and why?6. What impact has social media had on society?Part II: Choose one of the following topics and write an essay (200-250 words).1. Should students be required to wear uniforms to school?2. What are the benefits and drawbacks of online learning?3. Do you think it is important to learn a second language? Why or why not?4. How has technology changed the way we communicate?5. What role does art play in society?6. Should smoking be banned in public places?Part III: Choose one of the following topics and write an essay (200-250 words).1. Describe your favorite book and explain why you enjoy it.2. Should parents be held responsible for their children's actions?3. Discuss the impact of climate change on the environment.4. What are the benefits of volunteering in your community?5. Do you think it is important to pursue higher education? Why or why not?6. How has globalization affected the world economy?Part IV: Write an essay in response to the following prompt (350-400 words).Discuss the importance of tolerance and respect in today's society. How can individuals promote these values in their everyday lives to create a more inclusive and harmonious community? Provide examples to support your argument.篇2Liaoning Bachelor's Degree English Writing Exam2024 Liaoning Bachelor's Degree English Writing Exam has always been a hot topic for college students. As an essential part of the English examination, the writing section not only tests students' language proficiency but also their ability to express ideas logically and critically. In this article, we will provide an overview of the past years' writing topics and some tips for students to prepare for the exam.In recent years, the writing topics for Liaoning Bachelor's Degree English Exam have covered a wide range of subjects, including social issues, environmental problems, education, technology, and culture. For example, topics like "The Impact of Social Media on Society", "Environmental Protection and Sustainable Development", "The Role of Education in PersonalGrowth", "The Influence of Technology on Communication", and "Cultural Exchange Between Eastern and Western Countries" have appeared in the exams.To excel in the writing section of the exam, students need to pay attention to the following tips:1. Understand the topic: Carefully read the writing prompt and make sure you understand the main idea and requirements. Brainstorm relevant ideas and organize them into a clear structure before you start writing.2. Use appropriate language: Use a variety of vocabulary and sentence structures to demonstrate your language proficiency. Avoid repetitive words and phrases, and try to use synonyms and idiomatic expressions to make your writing more engaging.3. Provide supporting details: Support your arguments with examples, facts, and statistics to make your writing more persuasive. Make sure your ideas are well-developed and organized logically.4. Take time to revise: Leave some time at the end to review and revise your writing. Check for spelling and grammar errors, improve coherence and cohesion, and make sure your ideas are presented in a cohesive and coherent manner.With proper preparation and practice, students can improve their writing skills and achieve better results in the Liaoning Bachelor's Degree English Exam. Good luck to all the candidates!Overall, the writing section of the Liaoning Bachelor's Degree English Exam is a challenging yet rewarding opportunity for students to showcase their language proficiency and critical thinking skills. By following the tips mentioned above and practicing regularly, students can improve their writing abilities and excel in the exam. Good luck to all the candidates!篇3Liaoning Bachelor's Degree English Writing Test 2024Part I: Writing (30 minutes)Directions: Write an essay on the following topic.Topic: Youth and Social MediaWith the rise of social media platforms such as Instagram, Facebook, and Twitter, young people today are more connected than ever before. However, many argue that social media has a negative impact on youth, leading to issues such as cyberbullying, unrealistic body image standards, and addiction.On the other hand, social media can also be a valuable tool for networking, activism, and self-expression.In your essay, discuss both the positive and negative aspects of social media on youth. Provide examples of how social media has been used for both good and bad, and offer your own perspective on how young people can navigate the challenges of social media in a healthy way.Part II: Translation (20 minutes)Directions: Translate the following passage into English.中国古代有一位名叫屈原的诗人，他是中国文学史上的重要人物之一。
成人高等教育本科生学士学位英语水平考试大纲(非英语专业第二版)
成人高等教育本科生学士学位英语水平考试大纲（非英语专业第二版）成人高等教育本科生学士学位英语水平考试大纲（非英语专业）第二版教育部学位与研究生教育发展中心高等教育出版社一、考试性质成人高等教育非英语专业学士学位英语水平考试是由各省级高等教育主管部门组织的统一考试，其目的是为了客观地测试非英语专业成人本科毕业生申请学士学位者的英语语言知识和运用能力，考査其是否达到普通本科教育非英语专业英语教学的一般要求。
二、考试要求成人高等教育非英语专业学士学位英语水平考试要求考生能够较熟练地掌握英语基本语法和常用词汇，具有较强的阅读能力和综合运用能力。
考生在运用能力方面应分别达到以下要求：（一）会话能够使用英语进行日常会话交流，根据对话的情景、场合、人物关系、身份和讲话人的意图及话语含义做出正确判断和用语选择，并能理解常见的英语口语的习惯用法。
（二）阅读能够综合运用英语知识和基本阅读技能，读懂难度适中的一般性题材（经济、社会、政法、历史、科普、管理等）和体裁（记叙文、议论文、说明文、应用文等）的英语文章。
阅读速度达到每分钟80个词。
具体要求为：1.能够掌握文章的中心思想、主要内容和细节；2.具备根据上下文把握词义的能力，理解上下文的逻辑关系；3.能够根据所读材料进行一定的推论；4.能够对文章的结构和作者的态度等做出一般的分析和判断。
（三）词汇掌握本考试大纲所规定的英语词汇、常用词组、常用词缀，并在阅读、写作等过程中具有相应的应用能力，即：1.领会式掌握4400个单词和550个常用词组；2.复用式掌握2000个左右的常用单词和搭配以及200个左右的常用词组；3.掌握一定数量的常用词缀，并能根据构词法和语境识别常见的派生词。
（四）语法掌握基本的英语语法知识，要求能在阅读、写作等过程中正确运用这些知识，达到正确理解、获取信息及表达思想的目的。
需要掌握的具体内容如下：1.名词、代词的数和格的构成及其用法；2.动词的基本时态、语态的构成及其用法；3.形容词、副词的比较级和最高级的构成及其用法；4.常用连接词、冠词的词义及其用法；5.非谓语动词（不定式、动名词、分词）的构成及其用法；6.虚拟语气的构成及其用法；7.各类从句的构成及其用法；8.基本句型的结构及其用法；9.强调句型的结构及其用法；10.常用倒装句的结构及其用法。
学位英语考试大纲
成人高等教育学士学位英语水平考试大纲一、考试性质成人高等教育学士学位英语水平考试是由各省级高等教育主管部门组织的统一考试，其目的是为了客观地测试成人本科毕业生申请学士学位者的英语语言知识和运用能力，考查其是否达到普通本科教育英语教学的一般要求。
二、考试要求成人高等教育学士学位英语水平考试要求考生能够较熟练地掌握英语基本语法和常用词汇，具有较强的阅读能力和综合运用能力。
考生在运用能力方面应分别达到以下要求：（一）会话能够使用英语进行日常会话交流，根据对话的情景、场合、人物关系、身份和讲话人的意图及话语含义做出正确判断和用语选择，并能理解常见的英语口语的习惯用法。
（二）阅读能够综合运用英语知识和基本阅读技能，读懂难度适中的一般性题材（经济、社会、政法、历史、科普、管理等）和体裁（记叙文、议论文、说明文、应用文等）的英语文章。
阅读速度达到每分钟80个词。
具体要求为：1. 能够掌握文章的中心思想、主要内容和细节；2. 具备根据上下文把握词义的能力，理解上下文的逻辑关系；3. 能够根据所读材料进行一定的推论；4. 能够对文章的结构和作者的态度等做出一般的分析和判断。
（三）词汇掌握本考试大纲所规定的英语词汇、常用词组、常用词缀，并在阅读、写作等过程中具有相应的应用能力，即：1. 领会式掌握4500个单词和500个常用词组；2. 复用式掌握2000个左右的常用单词和搭配以及200个左右的常用词组；3. 掌握一定数量的常用词缀，并能根据构词法和语境识别常见的派生词。
（四）语法掌握基本的英语语法知识，要求能在阅读、写作等过程中正确运用这些知识，达到正确理解、获取信息及表达思想的目的。
需要掌握的具体内容如下：1. 名词、代词的数和格的构成及其用法；2. 动词的基本时态、语态的构成及其用法；3. 形容词、副词的比较级和最高级的构成及其用法；4. 常用连接词、冠词的词义及其用法；5. 非谓语动词（不定式、动名词、分词）的构成及其用法；6. 虚拟语气的构成及其用法；7. 各类从句的构成及其用法；8. 基本句型的结构及其用法；9. 强调句型的结构及其用法；10. 常用倒装句的结构及其用法。
外国语水平考试的语种和学科综合水平考试的科目
关于做好2019年同等学力人员申请硕士学位外国语水平和学科综合水平全国统一考试报名工作的通知各有关学院及考生：根据国务院学位办和河南省学位办有关通知精神，现将2019年同等学力人员申请硕士学位外国语水平和学科综合水平全国统一考试（以下分别简称“外国语水平考试”、“学科综合水平考试”）工作的有关事宜通知如下：一、外国语水平考试的语种和学科综合水平考试的科目（一）全国统一组织的外国语水平考试的主要语种为：英语、俄语、法语、德语和日语，所用考试大纲见附件1。
申请我校非外国语专业的同等学力人员参加外国语水平考试的语种均为英语。
申请我校外国语专业的同等学力人员参加外国语水平考试的语种，与我校相应外国语言文学专业全日制在校硕士研究生培养方案中规定的第二外国语语种相同。
（二）学科综合水平考试的科目、学科范围、所用考试大纲及指南见附件2。
在附件2所列学科范围内以同等学力申请硕士学位的人员，除须通过我校硕士研究生培养方案规定的课程考试（包括外国语）夕卜，还须参加全国统一组织的外国语水平和相应学科的学科综合水平考试且均达到合格分数线，方能申请硕士学位论文答亠辩。
以同等学力申请马克思主义理论学科硕士学位的人员，可选考哲学或政治学学科综合水平考试；申请教育经济与管理专业硕士学位的人员，可选考公共管理或教育学学科综合水平考试。
二、考试时间2019年5月19日（星期日）外国语水平考试时间：9:00 —11:30学科综合水平考试时间：14:30 —17:30三、考试报名（一）外国语水平考试和学科综合水平考试的报名、考务组织和管理工作通过“全国同等学力人员申请硕士学位管理工作信息平台”（以下简称“信息平台”）进行。
（二）报名参加2019年同等学力全国统考的考生应具备以下资格：1.已获得学士学位，并在获得学士学位后工作三年以上（即2016年3月底以前获得学士学位），或虽无学士学位但已获得硕士或博士学位者。
对已获得的学士、硕士或博士学位为国（境）外学位的，其所获的国（境）外学位需经教育部留学服务中心认证。
辽宁省学士学位英语课程考试
辽宁省学士学位英语课程考试work Information Technology Company.2020YEAR辽宁省成人本科生学士学位英语课程考试Part I Vocabulary and Structure (0.5*30=15points)Directions: There are 30 incomplete sentences in this part. For each sentence there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one answer that best completes the sentence. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.1. If you want to start a business, you must have some______.A. incomeB. wealthC. capitalD. treasure2. The beef used to cost three dollars, but now the price ______ 50 cents.A. goes upB. went upC. has gone upD. had gone up3. Your answers on these tests are too much ______. You must have cheated.A. likeB. likingC. alikeD. likely4. All the other rooms are occupied. May I use this ______room?A. bareB. blankC. vacantD. hollow5. The picnic was _______ because of the rain.A. called forB. called outC. called onD. called off6. Those people once had fame and fortune; now ____is left to them is utter poverty.A. all whatB. all whichC. that allD. all that7. We were ______ for half an hour in the traffic jam and so we missed the train.A. held outB. held onC. held upD. held down8. If he can ______ the speed, he will win the race.A. maintainB. containC. makeD. take9. They ______ that the library be kept open during the holidays.A. convincedB. persuadedC. impressedD. urged10. With her children _______, she is now taking on more work responsibilities.A. growing upB. to grow upC. have grown upD. grown up11. Seven years old _______,Tom likes all kinds of _____ games.A. as he is …puzzlingB. as is he… puzzlingC. as he is …puzzledD. as is he…puzzled12. ______ enter university one day, I would work hard.A. Would I everB. Ever would IC. Ever should ID. Should I ever13. If only he _______what I tell him, but he won’t.A. had doneB. would doC. would have doneD. has done14. The doctor insisted that the patient_____ for three months.A. not to work too hardB. to take some vacationsC. took it easyD. should take it easy15. ______ what to do, the man telephoned the police.A. Not knownB. Not knowingC. Don’t knowD. Knowing not16. It’s no use _______with him over the matter. He will not change his mind.A. you argueB. your arguingC. of you arguingD. you to argue17. The early pioneers had to _____ many hardships to settle in the new land.A. go intoB. go throughC. go back onD. go along with18. Some members of the committee were opposed______ the club members’ money to redecorate the meeting hall.A. to useB. to usingC. to have useD. to be used19. ______, glasses can correct most sight defects in healthy eyes.A. When well fittedB. When fitting wellC. When being well fittedD. If to be fitted20. Through the window______.A. did the fresh air comeB. came the fresh airC. did come the fresh airD. the fresh air came21. I’d rather the money went to a______cause.A. worthwhileB. valueC. worthD. worthy of22. Law and medicine are _____ professions in most countries.A. respectiveB. respectedC. respectableD. respectful23._______with the size of the whole earth, the highest mountain does not seem high at all.A. When comparedB. CompareC. While comparingD. Comparing24. The basic features of the communication process are identified in one question: who says ______ through what channel to whom?A. howB. whenC. whatD. such25.No other quality is more important for a scientist to acquire_______ to observe carefully.A. asB. thanC. andD. but26. When______, this building will be the highest in Asia.A. completingB. it completesC. completedD. it completed27. _______, he failed to find a solution to the problem.A. Whatever he tried hardB. Whatever hard he triedC. However he tried hardD. However hard he tried28. This problem is very difficult to deal with. It’s really_______.A. convincingB. seriousC. toughD. impossible29. Unless you do something really bad, ______.A. your job here will be quite safeB. you’ll soon find a new jobC. you’ll be in big troubleD. you’ll be fired30. You are so lazy. The work _______ days ago.A. should have been finishedB. must have finishedC. must be finishedD. should be finishedPart II Reading Comprehension (2*20=40 points)Directions: There are 4 reading passages in this part. Each passage is followed by some questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. You should decide on the best choice and mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.IThe college operates on a quarter system, with three 11-week terms in the regular academic year(学年). A fourth quarter is offered in the summer and is divided into shorter sessions（学期）during which only one course at a time may be taken. A full quarter may be earned if a student enrolls for all of the summer sessions.In the three 11-week term, classes for five quarter hours of credit meet four full hours per week, and laboratory courses meet five full hours per week. Classes meet on Mondays, Tuesdays, and Fridays for one hour total time scheduled for laboratories. Courses for less than five-quarter hours meet for fewer hours per week.Scheduled physical education activities and fine arts participation activities meet for one hour twice weekly or the equivalent time once a week. In order not to interfere with class schedules at other times, Wednesdays are used for off-campus field trips, education participation assignments in public schools, off-campus physical education activities, faculty meetings, committee and council meeting and other special activities.31. According to the passage, the regular academic year consists of_______.A. three 11-week terms and the summer sessionsB. three 11-week termsC. summer sessionsD. the four quarter of the year32. In the summer quarter, a student can_______.A. have more than one courseB. take only one courseC. undoubtedly get a full quarter of creditD. take all the courses offered during the summer sessions at a time33. Classes for five-quarter hours of credit can meet on_______.A. Monday and Wednesday for two hours each dayB. Mondays and Tuesdays for two hours each dayC. Thursday or Friday for two hoursD. Monday, Tuesday, Thursdays or Friday for one hour34. Scheduled physical education activities meet for_______.A. two hours once a weekB. half an hour once a weekC. one hour twice two weekD. one hour once a week35. The most suitable title of the passage should be_______.A. Academic ProgramsB. the College Calendar (日历)C. College Participation (参与)D. College Administration (管理)IIWithin fifteen years Britain and other nations should be well on with the building of huge industrial complexes(集合体) for the recycling of waste. The word rubbish could lose its meaning because everything which goes into the dumps would be made into something useful. Even the most dangerous and unpleasant waste would provide energy if nothing else.The latest project is to take a city of around half a million inhabitants and discover exactly what raw materials go into it and what go out. The aim is to find out how much of these raw materials could be provided if a plant for recycling waste were built just outside the city. This plant would recycle not only mental such as steel, lead and copper, but also paper and rubber as well.Another new project is being set up to discover the best ways of sorting and separating the rubbish. When this project is complete, the rubbish will be processed like this: first, it will pass through sharp mental bars which will tear open the plastic bags in which rubbish is usually packed; then it will pass through a powerful fan to separate the lightest elements from the heavy solid; after that founders and rollers will break up everything that can be broken. Finally, the rubbish will pass under magnets, which will remove the bits of iron and steel; the rubber and plastic will then be sorted out in the final stage.The first full-scale(全面的)giant recycling plants are perhaps fifteen years away. Indeed, with the growing cost of transporting rubbish to move distant dumps, some big cities will be forced to build their own recycling plants before long.36.The phrase “should be well on with” (Para.1) most probably means______.A. get ready to startB. have achieved a great deal inC. have completed what was startedD. put an end to37. What is NOT mentioned as a part of the recycling process described in Para. 3?A. Sharpening mental barsB. Breaking up whatever is breakableC. Sorting out small pieces of mentalD. Separating light elements from the heavy ones38. What is the main reason for big cities to build their own recycling plants?A. To deal with wastes in a better wayB. To get raw materials locallyC. To get big profits from those plantsD. To protect the environment from pollution39. The first full-scale huge recycling plants______.A. will probably be in operation in fifteen yearsB. will probably take less than fifteen years to buildC. began to operate fifteen years agoD. will be built fifteen years later40. The passage is mainly about______.A. the location of recycling plantsB. new ways of recycling wastesC. a cheap way to get energyD. the probability of city environmentIIIPlay is the principal business of childhood, and in recent years research has shown the great importance of play in the development of a human being. From earliest infancy, every child needs opportunity and the right materials for play, and the main tools of play are toys. Their main function is to suggest, encourage and assist play. To succeed in this they must be good toys, which children will play with often, and will come back to again and again. Therefore it is important to choose suitable toys for different stages of a child’s development.In recent years research on infant development has shown that the standard a child is likely to reach, within the range of his inherited(继承的) abilities, is largely determined in the first three years of his life. So a baby’s ability to profit from the right play mate rials should not be underestimated. A baby who is encouraged and stimulated (刺激), talked to and shown things and played with, has the best chance of growing up successfully.In the next stage, from three to five years old, curiosity knows no bounds. Every type of suitable toy should be made available to the child, for trying out, experimenting and learning, for discovering his own particular ability. Bricks and jigsaws(七巧板)and construction toys; painting, scribbling(涂鸦) find making things; sand and water play; toys for imaginative and pretending play; the first social games for learning to play and get on with others.By the third stage of play development—from five to seven or eight years—the child is at school. But for a few more years play is still the best way of learning, at home or at school. It is easier to see which type of toys the child most enjoys.Until the age of seven or eight, play and work mean much the same to a child. But once reading has been mastered, then books and school become the main source of learning. Toys are still interesting and valuable, they lead on to new hobbies, but their significance has changed—to a child of nine or ten years, toys and games mean, as to adults, relaxation and fun.41. The passage tells us that as a child grows up, _______.A. he should be allowed to choose his own toysB. he should be given identical (同样的) toysC. he should be given different toysD. he should be given fewer and fewer toys42. According to the passage, the abilities a child has inherited from his parents______.A. determine his characterB. will not change after the age of threeC. partly determine the standard he is likely to reachD. to a large extent determine the choice of toys43. Who have the best chance of growing up successfully?A. Those who tend to overeatB. Those who are given a lot of toysC. Those who are given toys, talked to and played withD. Those who can share their toys with their playmates44. We learn from the passage that a child has boundless curiosity(好奇心)______.A. when he is twoB. when he is around fourC. when he is sixD. when he is eight45. The passage is mainly about_______.A. the importance of pre-school educationB. the importance of schoolingC. the role of play in a child’s developmentD. the choice of toys for adolescentsIVWhen television was first introduced into American society thirty years ago, writers and social scientists thought that this new invention would better American life. Television is going to bring American families closer together, predicted psychologist Joel Gold in 1949. Pictures which advertised television in the 1950s invariably showed a happy family gathered together in the living room, sharing the TV viewing experience. Who could have guessed that a quarter of a century later Mother would be in the kitchen watching a daytime drama, Dad would be in the living room watching a ball game, and the children would be watching cartoons in their bedroom?Television has certainly changed American life, but not the way the first critics predicted. The first televisions were enormously expensive, so most families owned only one. By 1975, however, 60% of American families owned two televisions or more; some middle class families had as many as five television sets under one roof. Such multi-set families may keep family members in the same house, but that hardly brings them together. In fact, family outings — hiking, going to the movies, going out to dinner — are often limited by TV because one or more family members don’t want to go: “I’ll miss my program.” is th e common complaint.Perhaps more important than the lack of family outings is the destruction of family time together at home. Social scientists in the 1950s could not have realized how much television Americans would watch in the 1980s; the average American watches 6 hours of TV a day. That leaves little time for the special family characteristics and traditions that used to be formed during long evenings together. The time devoted to games, songs, and hobbies — all shared activities — in the years before TV is now dominated by “the tube”. And especially damaging to family relationships is the elimination of the opportunities for talking: chatting, arguing, discussing. Without such communication, family life disintegrates.Domination is the key word. Families in America today schedule their lives around the television. Children rush home from school to watch their programs while they do their homework. Mother shops between her special programs. The ski slopes are nearly empty on Sunday; football on TV takes precedence. The family may even eat meals in front of the television. Moreover, television is used as a baby-sitter; small children nationwide spend countless hours in front of the TV, passively ingesting whatever flashes before their eyes. Parents use the television as a resource of reward and punishment: “If you mow the lawn, you can watch TV an extra hour tonight,” or “No TV for you. You didn’t do your homework”. Ultimately, life-styles revolve around a regular schedule of eating, sleeping, and watching television.Isn’t there a better family life than this dismal, mechanized arrangement According to social scientist Mary Helen Thuente, t he quality of life is diminished as family ties grow weaker, as children’s lives grow more and more separate from the ir parents, as the opportunities for living and sharing within a family are eliminated. Indeed, if the family does not accumulate shared experiences, it is not likely to survive. Consequently, if parents and children alike do not change their priorities, television will continue to exert its influence on American family life as baby-sitter, pacifier, teacher, role model, and supplier of morals, thus supplanting the place of the family in society.46. The main idea of paragraph 1 is that______.A. thirty years ago, television was introduced into American societyB. TV can get the families closer togetherC. instead of bringing American families closer together, television causes families ties to grow weakerD. mother, father and children all like to watch TV47. In paragraph 2, the phrase multi-set families means______.A. families with several televisionsB. families with two televisionsC. families with two radiosD. families with several radios48. Which of the following is NOT true?A. Television has brought great changes to American life.B. On Sunday most people watch football matches on TV instead of skiing.C. Small children spent a lot of time in front of the TV watching any program they can.D. It is easy for families with more than one television to bring their members together.49. In paragraph 3, the word “tube” refers to______.A. the televisionB. the radioC. the underground railwayD. the tooth tube50. Which statement is true?A. Children run to school for watching their TV programs.B. Eating, sleeping and watching television are now the life patterns for very few American people.C. The quality of life has nothing to do with family ties.D. The family will disappear if parents and children continue to spend too much time watching TV.Part III Cloze (0.5*20=10points)Directions: There are 20 blanks in the following passage. For each blank there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. You should choose the one that best fits into the passage. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.Human language is a system of symbols (符号). No other animal has a complex symbolic language that must be learned. Animal language is largely instinctive, 51_the basic human language is learned speech, composed 52 sounds that symbolize things, ideas, actions, and the like.The word “table”, for 53_, means a raised slab (平板) because we have agreed that it will be the symbol for 54 we know a table to be. Otherwise, there is 55_ at all “tablish” about the sound of the word. Written language uses letters or other 56 t o stand for the sounds of speech.We learn to read, often 57_considerable effort, by noticing or 58_ taught that groups of letters stand for the sounds that we already know 59 to speak. We learn to write, with even 60_effort, by learning to form the letters, 61_are symbols of sounds, and to put them together on 62_so that others can read what we “say”.Since human language is a form of human behavior, 63 is nothing absolute (绝对的) about it. It has 64_ slowly throughout human history and will 65_to develop.66 the English language there are perhaps 600,000 _67_, possibly more, but most of them are 68_only to specialists and are rarely 69_. The average mature person has a use vocabulary of about 10,000 words and a recognition vocabulary of 30,000 70 40,000 words.51. A. while B. because C. since D. so52. A. on B. of C. by D. in53. A. one B. sure C. example D. ever54. A. why B. which C. when D. what55. A. something B. none C. anything D. nothing56. A. words B. sounds C. signs D. letters57. A. with B. for C. under D. from58. A. having B. being C. are D. been59. A. what B. how C. which D. why60. A. larger B. fewer C. greater D. less61. A. they B. those C. which D. that62. A. magazines B. books C. desk D. paper63. A. there B. it C. which D. one64. A. developed B. reverted C. survived D. functioned65. A. remain B. continue C. go D. keep66. A. By B. At C. In D. On67. A. sounds B. words C. letters D. signs68. A. given B. seen C. felt D. known69. A. used B. asked C. talked D. pronounced70. A. from B. for C. of D. toPart IV Proof reading (1*5=5points)Directions: There is one error in each line of the passage. Proofread the passage and choose the errors. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.Where there were not natural gardens, the Japanese 71.______A B C Dhas made their own. Because the islands are so hilly, 72.______A B C Dthere is a great shortage of the soil, so every little bit 73.______A B C Dis used. No matter how tiny it may is, every home has its 74. _____A B C Down little garden. It is a country worth of a visit. 75._____A B C DPart V Translation (3*5=15points)Directions: Translate the following underlined sentences into Chinese.76. A transformation is occurring that should greatly boost living standards in the developing world.77. In fact, there is no scientific basis for theories pushing the genetic superiority of any one population over another.78. The mind, we now know, is not confined to the brain but is distributed throughout the body’s universe of cells.79. Education concerning how to survive an earthquake should be a major emphasis for all government programs and earthquake-related research projects.80. Officially, the U.S. Navy does not recognize the triangle as a danger zone and is convinced that “the majority of disappearances (in the triangle)can be attributed to the unique features of the area’s environment.”Part VI Writing (15points)Directions: Write a composition with the entitle “The Advantages of Keeping Pets ” in about 100 words based on the following words and expressions given below.Points that should be covered：1.宠物是好的伴侣，尤其是对于老人和小孩。
辽宁省高等学历继续教育学士学位英语考试大纲2020年定稿
辽宁省高等学历继续教育学士学位课程外国语（英语）水平统一考试大纲（辽宁省高等学历继续教育学士学位外语考试高校联盟2020年制定）一、总则为了客观地测试辽宁省申请高等学历继续教育学士学位人员的英语水平，保证辽宁省高等学历继续教育的学位授予质量，根据国务院学位委员会《学士学位授权与授予管理办法》（学位〔2019〕20号）文件精神及辽宁省“从2020年开始不再组织‘辽宁省成人本科生学士学位外语课程考试’”（辽学位办〔2019〕8号）等有关规定，结合我省实际情况，特制订本大纲。
本考试旨在测试考生是否达到本科生英语教学大纲所规定的各项要求，具有本科生英语教学大纲所规定的各项语言运用能力。
考生的考试结果将作为是否授予高等学历继续教育学士学位的主要依据之一。
二、考试要求考生能够较熟练地掌握英语基本语法和常用词汇，具有一定的阅读能力和翻译、写作等综合运用能力。
考生在英语语言的掌握和运用方面应达到以下要求：（一）词汇：领会式掌握4000个左右单词和500个左右常用词组，复用式掌握2000个左右常用单词和200个左右常用词组，并在阅读、翻译和写作等过程中具有相应的应用能力。
（二）语法：掌握基本的英语语法知识和结构，并在阅读、翻译和写作等过程中正确运用。
（三）阅读：能够综合运用英语知识和基本阅读技能，读懂难度适中的一般性题材（经济、社会、政法、历史、科普、管理等）和体裁（记叙文、议论文、说明文、应用文等）的英语文章。
能够掌握文章的中心思想、主要内容和细节；具备根据上下文领会词义的能力，理解上下文的逻辑关系；能够根据所读材料进行一定的推理；能够对文章的结构和作者的态度等做出分析和判断。
（四）翻译：能够在不借助词典的情况下，将一般难度、非专业性题材的汉语句子翻译成英语，能够准确表达原文的意思，译文通顺，用词基本正确，无重大语法错误。
（五）写作：能够用英语按照所给提纲或情景，说明或论述一般性的话题。
所写短文主题明确，条理清楚，语言规范。
全国高考英语试题和答案辽宁卷
2012年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(辽宁卷)英语本试卷分第一卷（选择题）和第二卷（非选择题）两部分。
考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一卷注意事项：1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选其他答案标号，不能答在试卷上，否则无效。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题：每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分）听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例；How much is the shirt?A. ￡19. 15B. ￡ 9. 15C. ￡9. 18答案是B。
1. Where does this conversation probably take place?A. In the bookstoreB. In a classroomC. In a library2. At what time will the film begin?A. 7:20B. 7:15C. 7:003.What are the two speakers mainly talking about?A. Their friend Jane.B. A weekend trip.C. A radio programme.4. What will the woman probably do?A. Catch a train.B. See the man off.C. Go shopping.4.Why did the woman apologize?A. She made a late delivery.B. She went to the wrong place.C. She couldn’t take the cake back.第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）听下面5段对话。
成考学士学位英语教学大纲(最新完整版)
成考学士学位英语教学大纲(最新完整版)成考学士学位英语教学大纲成人高考学士学位英语考试大纲是《成人高等教育本科生学士学位英语水平考试大纲（非英语专业）》（下面简称《大纲》）。
该大纲的编写目的是为了规范成人高等教育非英语专业学士学位英语考试，以适应成人高等教育发展的需要。
大纲适用于参加成人高等教育英语统考或成人高等教育非英语专业期末考试的学生，大纲规定考试应在120分钟内完成。
成人英语教学大纲《成人英语教学大纲》（以下简称《大纲》）是根据国家教育部颁发的《大学英语课程教学要求》而编写的。
本大纲适用于参加全国成人高等教育英语统一考试的学生。
参加其他各类成人高校英语统考和成教大学英语教学的学生也可使用。
《大纲》分为五个部分：第一部分为大纲说明，第二部分为教学对象与教学目标，第三部分为课程设置与教学要求，第四部分为教学内容，第五部分为考核与评估。
成考英语作文教学大纲成人高考英语作文考试大纲如下：一、指导思想英语写作能考查学生的语言组织能力，表达能力和对不同文体语篇的熟悉度。
从实用的角度出发，写作是信息的交流，思想的表达。
通过英语写作，可以提高学生对语言规律的认识和应用语言的熟练程度，从而提高英语语言的应用能力。
二、命题思路1.命题以《考试大纲》为依据，以考试说明为准绳，从有利于考查考生的基本英语水平出发，结合教学实际，突出英语基础知识，强调运用能力。
2.考试以客观题为主，兼有主观题。
3.试卷分为容易题、中等难度题和难度的题。
重点考查容易题。
4.难度适中，体现选拔性。
试卷总题量为100道。
5.全部用涂卡方式答题。
6.全部用英文作答。
三、考试内容及要求第一部分英语知识运用主要考查考生对英语知识的全面掌握情况，包括对词汇、语法和语篇的熟悉程度。
本部分要求考生具备扎实的英语基本功，能运用所学知识正确地表达思想。
试题的特点是知识覆盖面广，考点多，情景真实，语言规范，测试要点突出。
要求考生具有较敏锐的语感及丰富的词汇、语法知识，并能在特定的情景下灵活运用所学的词汇和句型。
各专业学位英语要求及学位英语考试大纲
1999秋后
（含1999秋）
经济学
东北
财经
大学
工商管理
平均成绩75分以上（含75分）
平均成绩70分以上（含70分）
无
●通过东北财经大学工商管理专业开放教育学士学位英语水平考试
●或申请学位前四年内通过国家大学英语四级考试（含其他语种）
良以上
（含良）
（75分）
2000秋后
（含2000秋）
管理学
良好以上
（75分）
2005春前
（含2005春）
工学
天津
大学
土木
工程
所有课程平均成绩不低于75分
参加由天津大学组织的“主干课程”考试，成绩合格。
主干课程为：建筑工程和建筑管理方向：土木工程力学、混凝土结构和工程经济与管理。
道路桥梁方向：土木工程力学、结构设计原理和工程经济与管理。
●通过各省级教育行政主管部门统一组织的申请成人高等教育学士学位外语水平考试
英语（商务）
平均成绩70分以上（含70分）
平均成绩65分以上（含65分）
无
●通过由对外经济贸易大学成人教育英语考试委员会组织的学位英语考试
●或通过全国高等教育英语专业本科四级统一考试（TEM-4）
●或取得全国大学英语六级证书或考试成绩达到425分
合格
（60分）
1999秋后
（含1999秋）
文学
对外
经济
外国语
大学
英语（教育）
平均成绩75分以上（含75分）
平均成绩70分以上（含70分）
无
第一外语：通过全国高等教育英语专业本科四级统一考试
第二外语：通过由北京外国语大学命题的第二外国语考试，成绩达到60分以上（含60分）
全国成人学士学位英语统一考试大纲
全国高等教育成人本科生申请学士学位英语统一考试大纲全国高等教育成人本科生申请学士学位英语统一考试大纲（教育部学位与研究生教育发展中心制定）总则为适应成人高等教育本科毕业生申请学士学位外语统一考试的要求，根据国务院学位委员会《关于授予成人高等教育本科毕业生学士学位暂行规定》和国务院学位委员会、原国家教育委员会《关于整顿普通高等学校授予成人高等教育本科毕业生学士学位工作的通知》的有关规定，参照普通本科英语教学大纲的要求，并结合成人高等教育本科英语教学的实际情况，特制订«全国高等教育成人本科生申请学士学位英语统一考试大纲»。
适应对象: 除全国高等教育成人本科生申请学士学位考生外,还对英语二 / 双学位考生做出了具体的要求。
这样会使考试更加规范，使广大考生能够熟悉英语考试的内容、题型、难度、及记分办法。
本大纲将于2011年开始执行。
现将有关问题作如下说明：成人英语教学的目的是培养学生具有较强的阅读能力，一定的英汉互译能力，和初步的听说能力，使他们能以英语为工具，获取专业所需要的信息，并为进一步提高英语水平打下较好的基础。
为此，本考试主要考核学生运用语言的能力，重点是考核学生的阅读能力以及对语法结构和词语用法的熟练程度。
本考试是一种标准化考试。
考试方式为笔试。
考试范围主要参照全日制文理科、本科英语教学大纲所规定的1—3级除听说以外的大部分内容。
在题型设计上，英汉互译部分和写作部分是主观性试题之外，其余试题均采用客观性的单项或多项选择题形式。
听说考试正在规划之中，待时机成熟时实施。
客观性试题有信度较高，覆盖面广的优点；而主观性试题有利于提高测试的效度，能更好的检测考生运用语言的能力。
为此，本考试采用主观题、客观题混合型，以保证良好的信度和效度，以利于未来全国统考、考查或评估。
本考试按百分制计分，满分为120分（其中100分为成人本科学士学位满分成绩，再加20分为二 / 双学位考生满分成绩 )。
辽宁省初中英语学科考试说明
辽宁省初中英语学科考试说明英语学科考试说明（征求意见稿）为贯彻落实教育部《关于进一步推进高中时期学校考试招生制度改革的意见》以及我省关于考试招生制度改革的相关文件，发挥考试评判对全面深化基础教育课程改革和学校教学工作的正确导向作用，现制定辽宁省初中学业水平考试英语学科考试说明。
一、命题依据初中英语学科学业水平考试依照《义务教育英语课程标准（2021年版）》（以下简称《英语课程标准》）所规定的初中英语毕业标准进行命题，目的是全面、准确地考查初中学生在英语学科学习方面达到国家课程标准所规定的初中毕业水平的程度。
二、命题原则1. 基础性：注重全面考查学生对初中英语学科基础知识和差不多技能的把握情形，遵循《英语课程标准》规定的五级目标差不多要求，确定考查内容与标准。
2. 应用性：着重考查学生的综合语言运用能力，幸免单纯考查语言知识，表达学生“用英语做情况”的理念。
3. 适切性：充分考虑学生的实际生活和身心进展水平。
试题贴近社会，贴近时代，具有教育意义。
4. 真实性：选用真实、地道的语言素材，设计比较真实的语言情境，考查学生在具体语境中运用语言的能力。
5. 科学性：确保语言知识准确，试卷结构规范、合理，确保试题的信度和效度，杜绝繁、偏、旧的试题，杜绝政治性、知识性、技术性错误。
6. 导向性：注重试题对初中英语教学的导向作用，全面考查学生听、说、读、写等技能，有助于减轻学生课业负担，有利于培养学生创新精神和实践能力。
三、考试内容与要求考查《英语课程标准》中五级目标要求的内容。
学生应在语言技能、语言知识、情感态度、学习策略、文化意识等方面达到相应水平。
语言技能听能依照语调和重音明白得说话者的意图。
能听明白有关熟悉话题的谈话，并能从中提取信息和观点。
能借助语境克服生词障碍、明白得大意。
能听明白接近自然语速的故事和叙述，明白得故事的因果关系。
能在听的过程中用适当方式做出反应。
能针对所听语段的内容记录简单信息。
说能就简单的话题提供信息，表达简单的观点和意见，参与讨论。
成人高等教育本科生学士学位英语水平考试大纲(非英语专业第二版))
成人高等教育本科生学士学位英语水平考试大纲(非英语专业)第二版教育部学位与研究生教育发展中心高等教育出版社一、考试性质成人高等教育非英语专业学士学位英语水平考试是由各省级高等教育主管部门组织的统一考试，其目的是为了客观地测试非英语专业成人本科毕业生申请学士学位者的英语语言知识和运用能力，考査其是否达到普通本科教育非英语专业英语教学的一般要求。
二、考试要求成人高等教育非英语专业学士学位英语水平考试要求考生能够较熟练地掌握英语基本语法和常用词汇，具有较强的阅读能力和综合运用能力。
考生在运用能力方面应分别达到以下要求：(一)会话能够使用英语进行日常会话交流，根据对话的情景、场合、人物关系、身份和讲话人的意图及话语含义做出正确判断和用语选择，并能理解常见的英语口语的习惯用法。
(二)阅读能够综合运用英语知识和基本阅读技能，读懂难度适中的一般性题材(经济、社会、政法、历史、科普、管理等)和体裁(记叙文、议论文、说明文、应用文等)的英语文章。
阅读速度达到每分钟80个词。
具体要求为：1.能够掌握文章的中心思想、主要内容和细节；2.具备根据上下文把握词义的能力，理解上下文的逻辑关系；3.能够根据所读材料进行一定的推论；4.能够对文章的结构和作者的态度等做出一般的分析和判断。
(三)词汇掌握本考试大纲所规定的英语词汇、常用词组、常用词缀，并在阅读、写作等过程中具有相应的应用能力，即：1.领会式掌握4400个单词和550个常用词组；2.复用式掌握2000个左右的常用单词和搭配以及200个左右的常用词组；3.掌握一定数量的常用词缀，并能根据构词法和语境识别常见的派生词。
(四)语法掌握基本的英语语法知识，要求能在阅读、写作等过程中正确运用这些知识，达到正确理解、获取信息及表达思想的目的。
需要掌握的具体内容如下：1.名词、代词的数和格的构成及其用法；2.动词的基本时态、语态的构成及其用法；3.形容词、副词的比较级和最高级的构成及其用法；4.常用连接词、冠词的词义及其用法；5.非谓语动词(不定式、动名词、分词)的构成及其用法；6.虚拟语气的构成及其用法；7.各类从句的构成及其用法；8.基本句型的结构及其用法；9.强调句型的结构及其用法；10.常用倒装句的结构及其用法。
【成人英语三级考试用书】三级考试=学位英语成人英语三级
【成人英语三级考试用书】三级考试=学位英语成人英语三级成人高等教育非英语专业学士学位英语水平考试（学位英语/学士学位英语/成人英语三级/成人学位英语/自考学位英语/学位外语考试）是由各省级高等教育主管部门组织的统一考试，其目的是为了客观地测试非英语专业成人本科毕业生申请学士学位者的英语语言知识和运用能力，考查其是否达到普通本科教育非英语专业英语教学的一般要求，是各省市成人高等教育本科毕业生获得成人学士学位的必备条件之一。
成人高等教育非英语专业学士学位英语水平考试要求考生能够较熟练地掌握英语基本语法和常用词汇，具有较强的阅读能力和综合运用能力。
因目前该考试不是全国统考，各省关于考试没有统一规定，各省学位办与考生所在院校规定教材大纲、报名条件、报名及考试时间、成绩有效期、考试次数，请考生以当地学位办或所在院校公布的文件为准。
说明：部分院校规定英语四级(CET4)或全国英语等级考试三级(PETS3)合格成绩可作为成人学士学位授予资格的有效英语成绩。
学位英语考试报名对象一般为拟申请学士学位的各类成人教育本科生，包括自考、成考、远程教育（网络教育及函授）、成人教育（继续教育）、电大专升本、高中升本科生等。
一般情况下，在哪个学校读本科、申请学士学位，就在哪个学校报名参加学位英语统一考试。
成人高等教育本科毕业生外语统一考试不是全国统考，所以各省市收费标准不同。
学位英语考试不是全国统考，各省市报名及考试时间不同，考试报名一般采取网上报名与现场确认相结合的方式进行。
具体报名及考试时间以当地学位办或考生所在院校公布的通知为准。
各省市报名方式、网上报名网址详情：各省市学位英语考试报名通知（汇总）北京学位英语考试每年举行两次，一般在5月和11月，每次考试时间为2个小时，即上午9：00-11：00。
上一年12月-本年3月和7月-9月完成报名工作，一般由院校组织报名，请考生们关注院校报名通知。
辽宁学位英语考试每年举行两次，分别在5月和11月，每次考试时间为2个小时，即上午9：00-11：00。
辽宁省物价局关于成人本科毕业生学士学位外语课程考试实行计算机摄像收费标准的批复
辽宁省物价局关于成人本科毕业生学士学位外语课程考试实行计算机摄像收费标准的批复
文章属性
•【制定机关】辽宁省物价局
•【公布日期】2003.05.23
•【字号】辽价函[2003]60号
•【施行日期】2003.06.01
•【效力等级】地方规范性文件
•【时效性】现行有效
•【主题分类】学位管理与研究生教育
正文
辽宁省物价局关于成人本科毕业生学士学位外语
课程考试实行计算机摄像收费标准的批复
（辽价函[2003]60号2003年5月23日）
省高中等教育招生考试委员会办公室：
你办《关于辽宁省成人本科生学士学位外国语课程考试报名收取计算机摄像费标准的请示》(辽招考办字[2003]83号)收悉。
为加强报名、考试和学位工作的管理，维护成人本科毕业生学士学位外国语课程考试的公正性和严肃性，经研究，现批复如下：
一、同意你办在该项考试中利用计算机摄像技术采集考生头像并收取摄像费，收费标准暂按省物价局《关于我省普通高校招生实行计算机摄像收费标准的函》(辽价费字[2000]27号)规定执行，即每生12元。
二、收费标准批复后，你办及有关收费单位实施收费前要按规定到同级物价部门申请办理《收费许可证》，亮证收费，并须在收费场所对收费标准进行公示，自觉接受监督检查和年审。
三、本批复自2003年6月1日起执行，有效期二年。
成人高等教育学士学位英语水平考试大纲非英语专业
成人高等教育学士学位英语水平考试大纲一、考试性质成人高等教育学士学位英语水平考试是由各省级高等教育主管部门组织的统一考试,其目的是为了客观地测试成人本科毕业生申请学士学位者的英语语言知识和运用能力,考查其是否达到普通本科教育英语教学的一般要求;二、考试要求成人高等教育学士学位英语水平考试要求考生能够较熟练地掌握英语基本语法和常用词汇,具有较强的阅读能力和综合运用能力;考生在运用能力方面应分别达到以下要求：一会话能够使用英语进行日常会话交流,根据对话的情景、场合、人物关系、身份和讲话人的意图及话语含义做出正确判断和用语选择,并能理解常见的英语口语的习惯用法;二阅读能够综合运用英语知识和基本阅读技能,读懂难度适中的一般性题材经济、社会、政法、历史、科普、管理等和体裁记叙文、议论文、说明文、应用文等的英语文章;阅读速度达到每分钟80个词;具体要求为：1. 能够掌握文章的中心思想、主要内容和细节；2. 具备根据上下文把握词义的能力,理解上下文的逻辑关系；3. 能够根据所读材料进行一定的推论；4. 能够对文章的结构和作者的态度等做出一般的分析和判断;三词汇掌握本考试大纲所规定的英语词汇、常用词组、常用词缀,并在阅读、写作等过程中具有相应的应用能力,即：1. 领会式掌握4500个单词和500个常用词组；2. 复用式掌握2000个左右的常用单词和搭配以及200个左右的常用词组；3. 掌握一定数量的常用词缀,并能根据构词法和语境识别常见的派生词;四语法掌握基本的英语语法知识,要求能在阅读、写作等过程中正确运用这些知识,达到正确理解、获取信息及表达思想的目的;需要掌握的具体内容如下：1. 名词、代词的数和格的构成及其用法；2. 动词的基本时态、语态的构成及其用法；3. 形容词、副词的比较级和最高级的构成及其用法；4. 常用连接词、冠词的词义及其用法；5. 非谓语动词不定式、动名词、分词的构成及其用法；6. 虚拟语气的构成及其用法；7. 各类从句的构成及其用法；8. 基本句型的结构及其用法；9. 强调句型的结构及其用法；10. 常用倒装句的结构及其用法;五翻译能够在不借助词典的情况下把一般难度、非专业性题材的英文句子或短文译成汉语,译文通顺,用词基本正确,无重大语法错误;英译汉的速度应达到每小时250词以上;六写作能够用英语撰写常见应用文,或能够按照所给提纲、情景或图表,说明或论述一般性的话题;所写短文要求主题明确,条理清楚,语言比较规范;三、试卷结构本考试试卷分试卷一和试卷二;试卷一为客观题,包括会话交际、阅读理解、词汇和语法、完形填空4个部分,考试时间为70分钟,满分为75分；试卷二为英译汉和短文写作,考试时间为50分钟,满分为25分;试卷一和试卷二考试时间共计120分钟,总分为100分;试卷各部分内容和结构如下：第一部分会话交际本部分包括两节,设以下两种题型,共10题;A节为接续对话,共5题;考生将在每一题上读到一段不完整的对话,及用以完成这段对话的4个选择项;要求考生针对对话内容从4个选择项中选出一个最佳答案,使整个对话得以完成;B节为对话理解,共5题;考生将在每一题上读到一段对话和一个针对对话内容的问题,之后将读到用以回答问题的4个选择项;要求考生从4个选择项中选出一个最佳答案;本部分满分为10分,每题1分;考试时间为10分钟;第二部分阅读理解本部分共有4篇短文,总长度为1200词左右;每篇文章后设5道题,共20题;考生须在理解文章的基础上从为每个问题提供的4个选择项中选出一个最佳答案;本部分满分为40分,每题2分;考试时间为35分钟;第三部分词汇和语法本部分共设20道题,其中10题为词汇题,10题为语法题;每一题中有一个空白,要求考生在理解句意的基础上在4个选择项中选择一个最佳答案;本部分满分为10分,每题分;考试时间为10分钟;第四部分完形填空本部分是一篇200～300词左右的一般性短文,短文中设10个空白,每个空白为一道题;考生须在理解短文意思的基础上从为每个空白提供的4个选择项中选出一个最佳答案,使短文的意思和结构恢复完整;本部分满分为10分,每题1分;考试时间为10分钟;第五部分英译汉本部分可以是一篇长度为120个左右英文词的短文,要求考生翻译全文；也可以是一个较长的段落,要求考生翻译其中带有下画线的5个句子;要求译文意思准确,文字通顺;本部分满分为15分,考试时间为25分钟;第六部分短文写作本部分可要求考生写一篇常见的应用文,也可用提纲、情景或图表做提示,要求考生说明或论述一个一般性话题,文章长度不低于100个英文词;本部分满分为15分,考试时间为30分钟;四、试卷题型、题量、记分及答题时间考试样卷Paper One 试卷一65 minutesPart I Dialogue Communication10 minutes, 10 pointsSection A Dialogue CompletionDirections: In this section, you will read 5 short incomplete dialogues between two speakers, each followed by four choices marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the answer that best suits the situation to complete the dialogue. Mark your answer on the ANSWER SHEET with a single bar through the center of the letter that indicates your choice.1. Speaker A: Would you mind me sitting hereSpeaker B: ________A. Yes, you may.B. Of course, go ahead.C. Well, you’d better not.D. I’m afraid not.2. Speaker A: Oh, John, nice to meet you here. How are you doingSpeaker B: ________A. Hi, I’m reading a newspaper.B. Not bad. How about youC. Hi, how are you doingD. Just so so, I’m afraid.3. Speaker A: You’re thinner than you once were, aren’t youSpeaker B: ________A. You bet I am.B. Mind your own business.C. It’s a pleasure of mine.D. I like to hear this.4. Speaker A: Bob, do you know you’ve got an A in the examination. CongratulationsSpeaker B: ________A. Yes. It’s quite easy for me.B. It’s very kind of you to say so.C. Thank you for the good news.D. Not at all, it’s nothing.5. Speaker A: Well, it is time for boarding.Speaker B: ________A. Have a pleasant journey.B. Have a nice party.to meet you.D. Hope you’ll feel better.Section B Dialogue ComprehensionDirections:In this section, you will read 5 short conversations. At the end of each conversation there is a question followed by 4 choices marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the best answer and mark your answer on the ANSWER SHEET with a single bar through the center of the letter that indicates your choice.6. MAN: Is it OK if I drop in at the bank to get some cashWOMAN: You’ll miss the train unless you hurry.QUESTION: What does the woman meanA. The man shouldn’t drop in at the bank.B. The man won’t be able to get the cash.C. The man must be quick in order to catch the train.D. The man should take his timewaiting for the train.7. WOMAN: How is your Grandma nowMAN: We all think she should take it easy after her fall.QUESTION: What does the man meanA. Grandma should be careful so as not to fall again.B. Grandma had a fall, but she is all right now.C. Grandma shouldn’t do so much work after her fall.D. Grandma shouldn’t be blamed for her fall.8. MAN: Would you like to have some ice-creamWOMAN: I wish I could, bu t I just can’t. I’m on a diet.QUESTION: What do we learn about the womanA. She is in a big hurry.B. She is trying to lose weight.C. She can’t eat anything at the moment.D. She never likes ice-cream.9. MAN: Do you think I should get this book on computersWOMAN: Well, it seems way beyond you.QUESTION: What does the woman think about the bookA. It’s suitable for the man.B. It’s unnecessary for the man.C. It’s within the man’s reach.D. It’s too difficult for the man.10. WOMAN: The front door is not convenient for the disabled.MAN: The door for wheelchairs is in the rear.QUESTION: What does the man meanA. Wheelchairs areprovided at the rear door.B. The front door is not for the disabled.C. The disabled could use the rear door.D. The rear door is as convenient as the front door.Part II Reading Comprehension 35 minutes, 40 pointsDirections: There are 4 passages in this part. Each passage is followed by 5 questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are 4 choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the best one and mark your answer on the ANSWER SHEET with asingle bar through the center of the letter that indicates your choice.Passage OneBook clubs are a great way to meet new friends or keep in touch with old ones, while keeping up on our reading and participating in lively and intellectually stimulating discussions. If you’re interested in starting a book club, you should consider the following options and recommendations.Before recruiting, think carefully about how many people you want to participate and also what the club’s focus will be. For example, some book clubs focus exclusively on fiction; others read nonfiction. Some are even more specific, focusing only on a particular type such as mysteries, science fiction, or romance. Others have a more flexible and open focus. All of these possibilities can make for a great club, but it is important to decide on a focus at the beginning so the guidelines will be clear to the group and potential member.After setting the basic principles, recruitment can begin. Notify friends and family, advertise in the local newspaperand on bulletin boards in local stores, colleges, libraries, and bookstores. When enough people express interest, schedule a kick-off meeting during which decisions will be made about specific guidelines that will ensure the club runs smoothly. This meeting will need to establish where the group will meet rotating homes or a public place such as a library or coffee shop; how often the group will meet, and on what day of the week and at what time; how long the meetings will be; how books will be chosen and by whom; who will lead the group if anyone; and whether snacks will be served and if so, who will supply them. By the end of this meeting, these guidelines should be set and a book selection and date for the first official meeting should be finalized.Planning and running a book club is not without challenges, but when a book club is run effectively, the experience can be extremely rewarding for everyone involved.11．When starting a book club, one should first.A．notify his friends and familyB．put an ad in a local newspaperC．decide on the focus and size of the clubD．consider when and where the group will meet12．According to Paragraph 2, the “focus” of a book club refers to.A．funds B．locationsC．book types D．members13．Which of the following would NOT be covered at the kick-off meeting A．Deciding on whether snacks will be served.B．Discussing whether to appoint a leader.C．Determiningthe club’s first selection.D．Planning the club’s yearly budget.14．Which of the following can be learned from the passageA．Starting a book club requires good planning.B．A book club is a place to make new friends.C．Starting one’s own book club is better than joining an existing one.D．Smaller groups are better for a variety of reasons.15．The best title for this passage could be“________”.A．Book Clubs: A Great Way to Meet Old FriendsB．Book Club Planning: A Great ChallengeC．Five Steps to Recruit Members for a Book ClubD．Starting a Successful Book Club: A GuidePassage TwoThe Mayan 玛雅Indians lived in Mexico for thousands of years before the Spanish arrived in the 1500s. The Maya were an intelligent, culturally rich people whose achievements were many. They had farms, beautiful palaces, and cities with many buildings. The Mayan people knew a lot about nature and the world around them. This knowledge helped them to live a better life than most people of that time, because they could use it to make their lives more comfortable and rewarding. Knowledge about tools and farming, for instance, made their work easier and more productive.The Maya believed in many gods, including rain gods, sun gods, and corn gods. The people built large temples to honor them. Skillful workers built cities around these temples. It was difficult for them to construct these cities, because they had no horses to carry the heavy stones they used to build with. Workers had to carry all of the building materials themselves. Today, many of these ancient Mayan cities and temples are still standing.Usually, only the priests lived in the cities. The other people lived in small villages in the forests. Their houses were much simpler than the elaborate structures in the cities. They lived in small huts with no windows. Most Maya lived a simple life close to nature.Measuring time was important to the Maya, so the Mayan priests made a system to keep track of time, and they made a calendar in which the year was divided into 18 months of 20 days each with five days left over. The Mayan calendar was far more accurate than the European calendars of the time.16. The Maya lived in Mexico ________.A. shortly before the Spanish arrivedB. long before the Spanish arrivedC. at the same time as the SpanishD. with the Spanish for thousands of years17. Many Mayan cities and temples ________.A. were constructed by the priestsB. were rebuilt several timesC. were built with heavy stonesD. were the miracles of god18. Most Mayanpeople lived in.A. beautiful citiesB. simple hutsC. primitive cavesD. stone temples19. What can we learn about the Mayan calendarA. It was based on European calendars.B. It was better than European calendars.C. It was as accurate as European calendars.D. It was copied by Europeans.20. What is the main idea of this articleA. The Mayan calendar was excellent.B. The Maya were excellent farmers.C. The Maya were intelligent people.D. The Mayan cities were difficult to build.Passage ThreeA young man was getting ready to graduate from college. For many months he had admired a beautiful sports car in a dealer’s showroom, and knowing his father could well afford it, he told him that was all he wanted.As Graduation Day approached, the young man waited for signs that his father had purchased the car. Finally, on the morning of his graduation, his father called him into his private study. His father told him how proud he was to have such a fine son, and told him how much he loved him. He handed his son a beautifully wrapped gift box. Curious, but somewhat disappointed, the young man opened the box and found a lovely, leather-bound Bible, with the young man’s name in gold. Angrily, he raised his voice to his father and said, “With all your money you give me a Bible” He then stormed out of the house, leaving the Bible.Many years passed and the young man was very successful in business. He had a beautiful home and a wonderful family, but realizing his father was very old, he thought perhaps he should go to see him. He had not seen him since that graduation day. Before he could make the arrangements, he received a telegram telling him his father had passed away, and willed all of his possessions to his son. He needed to come home immediately and take care of things.When he arrived at his father’s house, sudden sadness and regret filled his heart. He began to search through his father’s important papers and saw the still new Bible, just as he had left it years ago. With tears, he opened the Bible and began to turn the pages. As he was reading, a car key dropped from the back of the Bible. On the tag was the date of his graduation, and the words “PAID IN FULL”.21．The best title for this passage could be “________”.A．A Tragedy of Father and SonB．A Loving FatherC．The Holy BibleD．A Missed Gift22．On the Graduation Day, what did the father give his son as a giftA．A Bible and a sports car.B．A beautiful house.C．A lot of money.D．Some gold.23．Before his father’s death, the young man ________.A．learned a lot from his fatherB．got what he had longed forC．failed to understand his fatherD．kept contact with his father24．Which of the following statements is trueA．The young man made fortunes by himself after graduation.B．The young man was proud of his father.C．The father thought his son didn’t dese rve the sports car.D．The father couldn’t afford the graduation gift.25．It can be inferred from the passage that people________.A．shouldvisit their parents more oftenB．should cherish what they already haveC．shouldn’t desire more than they deserveD．should be grateful for whatever they are givenPassage FourIt is becoming more and more difficult to be sure that the food we eat is not actually harming us. We seem to get one food scare after another.Several of these, recently, have concerned genetically modified GM,转基因foods. Although some experts tell us that these foods will do us no harm and that the concern about them is just speculative, other experts say that GM food is potentially very damaging to the very best, the jury is still out on the matter.In many countries, products which have been genetically modified are supposed to show this information on their labels, but now some of the large food producers are saying that it is growing increasingly difficult to separate GM food from the conventional varieties.Pesticides 杀虫剂and chemical fertilizers are also a cause of concern. In the last few years, a great many people have started to buy organic produce, although this is much more expensive than that which is grown using conventional methods. They do so in an effort to stop filling their bodies, and those of their children, with poisonous chemicals.Thus there is an increased demand for organic food and this is not a temporary fashion. But some experts claim that organically grown food is no healthier than otherfood, because the poison level of the latter is not so high as to be harmful. Those who push for organic food may not be objective, but are part of the powerful food lobby, the chief concern of which is to increase organic food production with a corresponding increase in profits.The use of additives 添加剂is still another source of anxiety to consumers. These are often added to food to supposedly improve the colour or the flavour. However, it is thought that some of these may be the cause of allergies 过敏, or even the cause of behavioural problems in children.We have to eat to live. The problem is: what is safe to eat26．What is people’s main concern about GM foodsA．Some of them are not labeled with required information.B．They might pos ehazards we don’t know yet.C．They don’t have the same flavour as conventional foods.D．The sowing of them will damage the environment.27．What does the author mean by “the jury is still out on the matter” Para. 2 A．The matter is still uncertain.B．The matter needs a jury to judge.C．The jury to judge is not available.D．The matter is not important.28．In Paragraph 5, the author tries to tell readers that .A．experts agree that organic food is no healthier than other foodB．profit-makingmay be behind the drive to produce more organic foodC．the demand for organic food will not last longD．organic food may also contain poisonous chemicals29．It can be inferred from the last but one paragraph that food additives .A．may be harmful to children in particularB．are unnecessary in food productionC．are less poisonous than pesticidesD．do not improve the flavour30．Which of the following best describes the author’s view about the food we eat A．Unclear.B．Indifferent.C．Optimistic.D．Concerned.Part III Vocabulary and Structure 10 minutes, 10 pointsDirections:There are 20 incomplete sentences in this section. For each sentence there are 4 choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that best completes the sentence. Mark your answer on the ANSWER SHEET with a single bar through the center of the letter that indicates your choice.31. Villages have been built in ______ used to be part of a rainy forest.A. whereB. whichC. whatD. whether32. This performance at the concert ______ her as a singer of exceptional ability.A. foundedB. establishedC. createdD. erected33. The girl hurried back home, ______ find the door already locked.A. yet toB. only toC. close toD. next to34. The funny look on his face _______ me of what had happened the other day.A. remindedB. taughtC. rememberedD. told35. I’m afraid that ______ has read this book will not read it a second time.A. no matter whoB. whoeverC. whoD. those who36. Parents, without any exception, wish to see their child ______their expectationsA. face up toB. stand up toC. add up toD. live up to37. The Palace Museum, also ______ the Forbidden City, lies north of Tiananmen Square.A. known forB. known toC. known byD. known as38. She is quite positive about the ______ of the potential market of this new invention.A. outlineB. outlookC. outletD. output39. This young man accepted the offer, ______ to make a new start in his life.A. hopingB. hopedC. hopesD. to hope40. Ahigh ______ of protein in the blood can be a serious health concern.A. intensityB. densityC. levelD. extent41. On the train he met a girl who was the same age ______.A. like hisB. as heC. like himD. as him42. If ______ in the early stage, many types of cancer can be cured.A. detectedB. dissolvedC. determinedD. displayed43. She doesn’t look well today. She ______ herself recently.A. must overworkB. might overworkC. should have overworkedD. must have overworked44. Suffering from illness and ______, the old lady once attempted suicide.A. possessionB. depressionC. impressionD. expression45. These issues, although dealt with separately, are actually ______ the same nature.A. inB. ofC. byD. from46. Som ething is wrong with the computer. It won’t ______.A. close downB. settle downC. cut downD. shut down47. The professor asked the students some questions, but ______ of them was willing to answer.A. noneB. nobodyC. neitherD. all48. The ______ of this suspension bridge claimed dozens of lives in an instant.A. existenceB. departureC. explorationD. collapse49. ______ to my surprise, the manager wasn’t mad at me about my mistake.A. VeryB. FarC. MuchD. Extremely50. Mark needs to travel ________ with his varied business interests.A. extensivelyB. intenselyC. broadlyD. widelyPart IV Cloze Test10 minutes, 10 pointsDirections: There are 10 blanksin the following passage. For each numbered blank, there are 4 choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the best one and mark your answer on the ANSWER SHEET with a single bar through the center of the letter that indicates your choice.Every year, as the price of goods rises, the inflation refuses to 51 even from the high educational institutions.In the US, according to a 2005 survey by the College Board, 52 at state universities rose by an average of percent annually, after a year when inflation grew much less. At private schools it was up percent. The survey which 53 more than 3,000 colleges and universities did not provide clear reasons for the continued increases. It did say that the price of goods and services at universities have risen rapidly. Some of the fastest growth has been in employee health 54 , and professional salaries.Living expenses on campus have also 55 . At the University of Southern California student dining hall, a buffet meal 自助餐cost $5.50 in 2004. B ut now it’s $9. The US government often provides 56 assistance to students’lunch in primary and high schools, but these favorable policies usually don’t 57 universities. Some students said the food on campus is sometimes even more expensive than that at restaurants 58 campus.To compensate the rise in tuition and living expenses, the federal and state governments 59 universities and private sources have provided 60 for students. Of all the full time undergraduates about 62 percent have a grant covering 30-50 percent of their tuition, according to the College Board.51. A. stay away B. stand out C. step down D. set off52. A. fares B. payment C. charges D. tuition53. A. attended B. covered C. contained D. composed54. A. aids B. advantages C. benefits D. goods55. A. rolled up B. gone up C. sat up D. looked up56. A. management B. economic C. policy D. financial57. A. apply to B. fit into C. adjust to D. get into58. A. in B. to C. off D. over59. A. as well as B. the same as C. as far as D. such as60. A. solutions B. tips C. bonuses D. grantsPaper Two 试卷二55 minutesPart V Translation 25 minutes, 15 pointsDirections:Translate the following passage into Chinese and put your translation on the ANSWER SHEET.In many Western countries, a considerable number of parents have removed their children from school and are teaching them at home. Such children do all their normal lessons at home, often under the guidance of a parent. The first thing to consider is whether this is legal or not. In most countries it is, so long as parents can prove that their children are receiving an adequate education, equal to that provided by their state educational system. The next consideration is whether the parents have the time,self-discipline, intelligence and patience to teach their own child week after week, day in and day out, for hours on end. Then there is the problem of what will be taught, and how.Part VI Writing30 minutes, 15 pointsDirections:You are to write in no less than 100 words on the topic“What would you consider an ideal work environment” You could base your composition on the Chinese outline given below.工作环境包括很多方面：空间、空气、温度、光线、噪音、设施、伙伴……我想要的理想的工作环境是……样卷参考答案Part I Dialogue Communication10 minutes, 10 pointsSection A1. C2. B3. A4. C5. ASection B6．C 7．C 8．B 9．D 10．CPart II Reading Comprehension 35 minutes, 40 points11．C 12．C 13．D 14．A 15．D 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. A30. D Part III Vocabulary and Structure 20 minutes, 10 points31．C 32．B 33．B 34．A 35．B 36．D 37．D 38．B 39．A 40. C 41．D 42．A 43．D 44．B 45．B 46．D 47．A 48．D 49．C 50. A Part IV Cloze Test10 minutes, 10 points51. A 52. D 53. B 54. C 55. B 56. D 57. A 58. C 59. A 60. D Part V Translation25 minutes, 15 points参考译文在很多西方国家,已有相当多的家长把孩子从学校带回家自己教;这些孩子通常是在一位家长的指导之下在家里学习所有的标准课程;让孩子在家上学首先要考虑的是这样做是否合法;在多数国家这是合法的,只要家长能证明孩子受到了足够的教育,且与国家教育体制提供的教育质量相当;其次要考虑的是家长是否有时间,有自制力,有学识,有耐心,可以周复一周、日复一日地一连几个小时教自己的孩子;然后的问题就是教什么、怎么教;Part VI Writing30 minutes, 15 points参考作文What I would consider an ideal work environmentIf possible, I would like to work in an office that comes with many pieces of modern equipment. At my desk, I can breathe the fresh air in the morning and enjoy the warm sunlight through the window in winter. Meanwhile, there is no factory around that produces noise and pollution. During the break, I can step down the stairs and take a walk in the garden surrounding the office building. Of course, I would like to walk with my friendly colleagues, those whom I can turn to when facing difficulties at work.Needless to say, working in an ideal work environment will benefit us a lot both physically and mentally. Only if we work in an environment as comfortable as possible can we enjoy a nice career.。
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辽宁省学士学位课程外国语（英语）水平统一考试大纲（试行）
总则
为了客观地测试辽宁省申请学士学位人员的英语水平，保证学位授予质量，根据国务院学位委员会关于授予学士学位的有关规定，结合我省实际情况，特制订本大纲。
本考试目的是：检验考生掌握与运用英语知识的水平和能力，是否能够较好地用英语获取信息和传递信息。
这就要求考生具有较强的阅读能力和一定的翻译能力，同时也要求有一定的听说能力。
本考试旨在测试考生是否达到本科生英语教学大纲所规定的各项要求，具有本科生英语教学大纲所规定的各项语言运用能力。
考生的考试结果将作为是否授予学士学位的主要依据之一。
评价目标
本考试重点考察考生的听、读、写、译的能力（由于技术上的原因，本考试暂取消听力测试。
考生听力能力的测试由各院校在考生学习期间组织进行）。
考生在词汇量、语法知识、阅读理解、翻译能力和英文写作等方面应分别达到以下要求：
（一）词汇
掌握4000个左右的英语词汇，能在语言交际、翻译和写作中准确运用。
（二）语法知识
掌握英语的基本语法结构和常用句型，能正确理解由这些语法和句型所构成的句子。
（三）阅读理解
能综合运用英语语言知识和阅读技能，能读懂一般性题材的文章和科技文献。
要求能抓住文章大意、读懂细节，能理解上下文的逻辑关系，并领会作者的意图和态度。
阅读速度应达到每分钟70-90个单词。
（四）翻译能力
能在不借助词典的情况下，把一般日常生活和科学常识性的句子从英语译成汉语，能够准确表达原文的意思，译文通顺，用词基本准确、无重大语法错误。
（五）英语写作
考生应具备用英语书面表达思想的基本能力。
所写文章切合主题，能准确地表达思想、语意连贯、标点正确、无重大语法错误，30分钟内能写出不少于100个词的短文。
题型、题量、分值
本考试分试卷一和试卷二。
试卷一为客观性试题，试卷二为主观性试题，两卷总分为100分。
试卷一占总分的70%，试卷二占总分的30%。
达到总分的60%，且试卷二分值达到一定要求者，为合格。
试卷一包括词语用法和语法结构、阅读理解、完型填空、辨识错误四个部分。
试卷二为英译汉和英语写作两个部分。
试卷一和试卷二共六个部分，考试时间总计120分钟。
分述如下：
（一）词语用法和语法结构
本部分共设30题，每题0.5分。
参考答题时间为15分钟。
要求考生从所给的4个选项中选出最佳答案。
（二）阅读理解
本部分共设20题，每题2分，参考答题时间为35分钟。
阅读理解的短文为4篇，每篇约300个词。
要求考生在理解短文的基础上从每题所给的4个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
（三）完型填空
本部分共设20题，每题0.5分。
参考答题时间为15分钟。
题型为在一篇难度适中的短文中设置20个空白，每个空白为一题，要求考生从所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
（四）辨识错误
本部分共设5题，每题1分。
参考答题时间为5分钟。
题型为识别单句或短文中的错误。
单句辨错，每题标出4个词语或词组，要求考生找出其中有错误的一个。
短文辨错，要求考生根据上下文找出短文中的错误，并将有错误的部分填入答题卡上相应的位置。
每次考试在单句辨错和短文辨错中设其中一种题型。
（五）英译汉
本部分共设4题，总计15分。
参考答题时间为20分钟。
每题内容为单句翻译或翻译短文中的划线部分。
要求译文意思准确，文字通顺。
（六）英语写作
本部分设1题，15分。
参考答题时间为30分钟。
要求考生在规定时间内，按题目要求用英语写出一篇不少于100个词的短文。
短文应切合主题、语句连贯，表达思想基本准确，无重大语法错误。
题型、题数、分数与考试时间。