2010《投资学》A卷及答案
投资学习题+答案
投资学习题+答案一、单选题（共30题，每题1分，共30分）1、若提高一只债券的初始到期收益率,其他因素不变,该债券的久期( )。
A、变小B、无法判断C、变大D、不变正确答案：A2、以下说法不正确的是( )。
A、价格高开低收产生阴K线B、光头阳K线说明以当日最高价收盘C、价格低开高收产生阳K线D、今日价格高于前日价格必定是阳K线正确答案：D3、在周期天数少的移动平均线从下向上突破周期天数较多的移动平均线时,为股票的( )。
A、卖出信号B、买入信号C、等待信号D、持有信号正确答案：B4、合格的境内机构投资者的英文简称为( )。
A、QFIIB、QDIIC、RQFIID、RQDII正确答案：B5、有四种面值均为100元的债券,投资者预期未来市场利率会下降,应该买入( )。
债券名称到期期限票面利率甲 10年 6%乙 8年 5%丙 8年 6%丁 10年 5%A、乙B、丙C、甲D、丁正确答案：D6、投资与投机事实上在追求( )目标上是一致的。
A、风险B、处理风险的态度上C、投资收益D、组织结构上正确答案：C7、除权的原因不包括( )。
A、发放红股B、配股C、对外进行重大投资D、资本公积金转增股票正确答案：C8、一个股票看跌期权卖方承受的最大损失是( )。
A、执行价格减去看跌期权价格B、执行价格C、股价减去看跌期权价格D、看跌期权价格正确答案：A9、某项投资不融资时获得的收益率是20%,如果融资保证金比例为80%,则投资人融资时在该项投资上最高可以获得的收益率是( )。
A、28%B、40%C、58%D、45%正确答案：D10、股票看涨期权卖方承受的最大损失可能是( )。
A、无限大B、执行价格减去看涨期权价格C、看涨期权价格D、执行价格正确答案：A11、下面哪一种形态是股价反转向上的形态( )。
A、头肩顶B、三重顶C、双底D、双顶正确答案：C12、下列关于证券投资的风险与收益的描述中,错误的是( )。
A、在证券投资中,收益和风险形影相随,收益以风险为代价,风险用收益来补偿B、风险和收益的本质联系可以用公式表述为:预期收益率=无风险利率+风险补偿C、美国一般将联邦政府发行的短期国库券视为无风险证券,把短期国库券利率视为无风险利率D、在通货膨胀严重的情况下,债券的票面利率会提高或是会发行浮动利率债券,这种情况是对利率风险的补偿正确答案：D13、若提高一只债券的票面利率,其他因素不变,该债券的久期( )。
投资学10版习题答案10
CHAPTER 10: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORY ANDMULTIFACTOR MODELS OF RISK AND RETURN PROBLEM SETS1. The revised estimate of the expected rate of return on the stock would be the oldestimate plus the sum of the products of the unexpected change in each factor times the respective sensitivity coefficient:Revised estimate = 12% + [(1 × 2%) + (0.5 × 3%)] = 15.5%Note that the IP estimate is computed as: 1 × (5% - 3%), and the IR estimate iscomputed as: 0.5 × (8% - 5%).2. The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty, i.e., sources ofuncertainty that are of concern to many investors. Researchers should investigatefactors that correlate with uncertainty in consumption and investment opportunities.GDP, the inflation rate, and interest rates are among the factors that can be expected to determine risk premiums. In particular, industrial production (IP) is a goodindicator of changes in the business cycle. Thus, IP is a candidate for a factor that is highly correlated with uncertainties that have to do with investment andconsumption opportunities in the economy.3. Any pattern of returns can be explained if we are free to choose an indefinitely largenumber of explanatory factors. If a theory of asset pricing is to have value, it mustexplain returns using a reasonably limited number of explanatory variables (i.e.,systematic factors such as unemployment levels, GDP, and oil prices).4. Equation 10.11 applies here:E(r p) = r f + βP1 [E(r1 ) -r f ] + βP2 [E(r2 ) –r f]We need to find the risk premium (RP) for each of the two factors:RP1 = [E(r1 ) -r f] and RP2 = [E(r2 ) -r f]In order to do so, we solve the following system of two equations with two unknowns: .31 = .06 + (1.5 ×RP1 ) + (2.0 ×RP2 ).27 = .06 + (2.2 ×RP1 ) + [(–0.2) ×RP2 ]The solution to this set of equations isRP1 = 10% and RP2 = 5%Thus, the expected return-beta relationship isE(r P) = 6% + (βP1× 10%) + (βP2× 5%)5. The expected return for portfolio F equals the risk-free rate since its beta equals 0.For portfolio A, the ratio of risk premium to beta is (12 − 6)/1.2 = 5For portfolio E, the ratio is lower at (8 – 6)/0.6 = 3.33This implies that an arbitrage opportunity exists. For instance, you can create aportfolio G with beta equal to 0.6 (the same as E’s) by combining portfolio A andportfolio F in equal weights. The expected return and beta for portfolio G are then: E(r G) = (0.5 × 12%) + (0.5 × 6%) = 9%βG = (0.5 × 1.2) + (0.5 × 0%) = 0.6Comparing portfolio G to portfolio E, G has the same beta and higher return.Therefore, an arbitrage opportunity exists by buying portfolio G and selling an equal amount of portfolio E. The profit for this arbitrage will ber G–r E =[9% + (0.6 ×F)] - [8% + (0.6 ×F)] = 1%That is, 1% of the funds (long or short) in each portfolio.6. Substituting the portfolio returns and betas in the expected return-beta relationship,we obtain two equations with two unknowns, the risk-free rate (r f) and the factorrisk premium (RP):12% = r f + (1.2 ×RP)9% = r f + (0.8 ×RP)Solving these equations, we obtainr f = 3% and RP = 7.5%7. a. Shorting an equally weighted portfolio of the ten negative-alpha stocks andinvesting the proceeds in an equally-weighted portfolio of the 10 positive-alphastocks eliminates the market exposure and creates a zero-investment portfolio.Denoting the systematic market factor as R M, the expected dollar return is(noting that the expectation of nonsystematic risk, e, is zero):$1,000,000 × [0.02 + (1.0 ×R M)] - $1,000,000 × [(–0.02) + (1.0 ×R M)]= $1,000,000 × 0.04 = $40,000The sensitivity of the payoff of this portfolio to the market factor is zerobecause the exposures of the positive alpha and negative alpha stocks cancelout. (Notice that the terms involving R M sum to zero.) Thus, the systematiccomponent of total risk is also zero. The variance of the analyst’s profit is notzero, however, since this portfolio is not well diversified.For n = 20 stocks (i.e., long 10 stocks and short 10 stocks) the investor willhave a $100,000 position (either long or short) in each stock. Net marketexposure is zero, but firm-specific risk has not been fully diversified. Thevariance of dollar returns from the positions in the 20 stocks is20 × [(100,000 × 0.30)2] = 18,000,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $134,164.b. If n = 50 stocks (25 stocks long and 25 stocks short), the investor will have a$40,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is50 × [(40,000 × 0.30)2] = 7,200,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $84,853.Similarly, if n = 100 stocks (50 stocks long and 50 stocks short), the investorwill have a $20,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is100 × [(20,000 × 0.30)2] = 3,600,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $60,000.Notice that, when the number of stocks increases by a factor of 5 (i.e., from 20 to 100), standard deviation decreases by a factor of 5= 2.23607 (from$134,164 to $60,000).8. a.)(σσβσ2222e M+= 88125)208.0(σ2222=+⨯=A50010)200.1(σ2222=+⨯=B 97620)202.1(σ2222=+⨯=Cb. If there are an infinite number of assets with identical characteristics, then awell-diversified portfolio of each type will have only systematic risk since thenonsystematic risk will approach zero with large n. E ach variance is simply β2× market variance:222Well-diversified σ256Well-diversified σ400Well-diversified σ576AB CThe mean will equal that of the individual (identical) stocks.c. There is no arbitrage opportunity because the well-diversified portfolios allplot on the security market line (SML). Because they are fairly priced, there isno arbitrage.9. a. A long position in a portfolio (P) composed of portfolios A and B will offer anexpected return-beta trade-off lying on a straight line between points A and B.Therefore, we can choose weights such that βP = βC but with expected returnhigher than that of portfolio C. Hence, combining P with a short position in Cwill create an arbitrage portfolio with zero investment, zero beta, and positiverate of return.b. The argument in part (a) leads to the proposition that the coefficient of β2 mustbe zero in order to preclude arbitrage opportunities.10. a. E(r) = 6% + (1.2 × 6%) + (0.5 × 8%) + (0.3 × 3%) = 18.1%b.Surprises in the macroeconomic factors will result in surprises in the return ofthe stock:Unexpected return from macro factors =[1.2 × (4% – 5%)] + [0.5 × (6% – 3%)] + [0.3 × (0% – 2%)] = –0.3%E(r) =18.1% − 0.3% = 17.8%11. The APT required (i.e., equilibrium) rate of return on the stock based on r f and thefactor betas isRequired E(r) = 6% + (1 × 6%) + (0.5 × 2%) + (0.75 × 4%) = 16% According to the equation for the return on the stock, the actually expected returnon the stock is 15% (because the expected surprises on all factors are zero bydefinition). Because the actually expected return based on risk is less than theequilibrium return, we conclude that the stock is overpriced.12. The first two factors seem promising with respect to the likely impact on the firm’scost of capital. Both are macro factors that would elicit hedging demands across broad sectors of investors. The third factor, while important to Pork Products, is a poorchoice for a multifactor SML because the price of hogs is of minor importance tomost investors and is therefore highly unlikely to be a priced risk factor. Betterchoices would focus on variables that investors in aggregate might find moreimportant to their welfare. Examples include: inflation uncertainty, short-terminterest-rate risk, energy price risk, or exchange rate risk. The important point here is that, in specifying a multifactor SML, we not confuse risk factors that are important toa particular investor with factors that are important to investors in general; only the latter are likely to command a risk premium in the capital markets.13. The formula is ()0.04 1.250.08 1.50.02.1717%E r =+⨯+⨯==14. If 4%f r = and based on the sensitivities to real GDP (0.75) and inflation (1.25),McCracken would calculate the expected return for the Orb Large Cap Fund to be:()0.040.750.08 1.250.02.040.0858.5% above the risk free rate E r =+⨯+⨯=+=Therefore, Kwon’s fundamental analysis estimate is congruent with McCracken’sAPT estimate. If we assume that both Kwon and McCracken’s estimates on the return of Orb’s Large Cap Fund are accurate, then no arbitrage profit is possible.15. In order to eliminate inflation, the following three equations must be solvedsimultaneously, where the GDP sensitivity will equal 1 in the first equation,inflation sensitivity will equal 0 in the second equation and the sum of the weights must equal 1 in the third equation.1.1.250.75 1.012.1.5 1.25 2.003.1wx wy wz wz wy wz wx wy wz ++=++=++=Here, x represents Orb’s High Growth Fund, y represents Large Cap Fund and z represents Utility Fund. Using algebraic manipulation will yield wx = wy = 1.6 and wz = -2.2.16. Since retirees living off a steady income would be hurt by inflation, this portfoliowould not be appropriate for them. Retirees would want a portfolio with a return positively correlated with inflation to preserve value, and less correlated with the variable growth of GDP. Thus, Stiles is wrong. McCracken is correct in that supply side macroeconomic policies are generally designed to increase output at aminimum of inflationary pressure. Increased output would mean higher GDP, which in turn would increase returns of a fund positively correlated with GDP.17. The maximum residual variance is tied to the number of securities (n ) in theportfolio because, as we increase the number of securities, we are more likely toencounter securities with larger residual variances. The starting point is to determine the practical limit on the portfolio residual standard deviation, σ(e P ), that stillqualifies as a well-diversified portfolio. A reasonable approach is to compareσ2(e P) to the market variance, or equivalently, to compare σ(e P) to the market standard deviation. Suppose we do not allow σ(e P) to exceed pσM, where p is a small decimal fraction, for example, 0.05; then, the smaller the value we choose for p, the more stringent our criterion for defining how diversified a well-diversified portfolio must be.Now construct a portfolio of n securities with weights w1, w2,…,w n, so that ∑w i =1. The portfolio residual variance is σ2(e P) = ∑w12σ2(e i)To meet our practical definition of sufficiently diversified, we require this residual variance to be less than (pσM)2. A sure and simple way to proceed is to assume the worst, that is, assume that the residual variance of each security is the highest possible value allowed under the assumptions of the problem: σ2(e i) = nσ2MIn that case σ2(e P) = ∑w i2 nσM2Now apply the constraint: ∑w i2 nσM2 ≤ (pσM)2This requires that: n∑w i2 ≤ p2Or, equivalently, that: ∑w i2 ≤ p2/nA relatively easy way to generate a set of well-diversified portfolios is to use portfolio weights that follow a geometric progression, since the computations then become relatively straightforward. Choose w1 and a common factor q for the geometric progression such that q < 1. Therefore, the weight on each stock is a fraction q of the weight on the previous stock in the series. Then the sum of n terms is: ∑w i= w1(1– q n)/(1– q) = 1or: w1 = (1– q)/(1–q n)The sum of the n squared weights is similarly obtained from w12 and a common geometric progression factor of q2. Therefore∑w i2 = w12(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)Substituting for w1 from above, we obtain∑w i2 = [(1– q)2/(1–q n)2] × [(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)]For sufficient diversification, we choose q so that ∑w i2 ≤ p2/nFor example, continue to assume that p = 0.05 and n = 1,000. If we chooseq = 0.9973, then we will satisfy the required condition. At this value for q w1 = 0.0029 and w n = 0.0029 × 0.99731,000In this case, w1 is about 15 times w n. Despite this significant departure from equal weighting, this portfolio is nevertheless well diversified. Any value of q between0.9973 and 1.0 results in a well-diversified portfolio. As q gets closer to 1, theportfolio approaches equal weighting.18. a. Assume a single-factor economy, with a factor risk premium E M and a (large)set of well-diversified portfolios with beta βP. Suppose we create a portfolio Zby allocating the portion w to portfolio P and (1 –w) to the market portfolio M.The rate of return on portfolio Z is:R Z = (w ×R P) + [(1 –w) ×R M]Portfolio Z is riskless if we choose w so that βZ = 0. This requires that:βZ = (w ×βP) + [(1 –w) × 1] = 0 ⇒w = 1/(1 –βP) and (1 –w) = –βP/(1 –βP)Substitute this value for w in the expression for R Z:R Z = {[1/(1 –βP)] ×R P} – {[βP/(1 –βP)] ×R M}Since βZ = 0, then, in order to avoid arbitrage, R Z must be zero.This implies that: R P = βP ×R MTaking expectations we have:E P = βP ×E MThis is the SML for well-diversified portfolios.b. The same argument can be used to show that, in a three-factor model withfactor risk premiums E M, E1 and E2, in order to avoid arbitrage, we must have:E P = (βPM ×E M) + (βP1 ×E1) + (βP2 ×E2)This is the SML for a three-factor economy.19. a. The Fama-French (FF) three-factor model holds that one of the factors drivingreturns is firm size. An index with returns highly correlated with firm size (i.e.,firm capitalization) that captures this factor is SMB (small minus big), thereturn for a portfolio of small stocks in excess of the return for a portfolio oflarge stocks. The returns for a small firm will be positively correlated withSMB. Moreover, the smaller the firm, the greater its residual from the othertwo factors, the market portfolio and the HML portfolio, which is the returnfor a portfolio of high book-to-market stocks in excess of the return for aportfolio of low book-to-market stocks. Hence, the ratio of the variance of thisresidual to the variance of the return on SMB will be larger and, together withthe higher correlation, results in a high beta on the SMB factor.b.This question appears to point to a flaw in the FF model. The model predictsthat firm size affects average returns so that, if two firms merge into a largerfirm, then the FF model predicts lower average returns for the merged firm.However, there seems to be no reason for the merged firm to underperformthe returns of the component companies, assuming that the component firmswere unrelated and that they will now be operated independently. We mighttherefore expect that the performance of the merged firm would be the sameas the performance of a portfolio of the originally independent firms, but theFF model predicts that the increased firm size will result in lower averagereturns. Therefore, the question revolves around the behavior of returns for aportfolio of small firms, compared to the return for larger firms that resultfrom merging those small firms into larger ones. Had past mergers of smallfirms into larger firms resulted, on average, in no change in the resultant largerfirms’ stock return characteristics (compared to the portfolio of stocks of themerged firms), the size factor in the FF model would have failed.Perhaps the reason the size factor seems to help explain stock returns is that,when small firms become large, the characteristics of their fortunes (and hencetheir stock returns) change in a significant way. Put differently, stocks of largefirms that result from a merger of smaller firms appear empirically to behavedifferently from portfolios of the smaller component firms. Specifically, theFF model predicts that the large firm will have a smaller risk premium. Noticethat this development is not necessarily a bad thing for the stockholders of thesmaller firms that merge. The lower risk premium may be due, in part, to theincrease in value of the larger firm relative to the merged firms.CFA PROBLEMS1. a. This statement is incorrect. The CAPM requires a mean-variance efficientmarket portfolio, but APT does not.b.This statement is incorrect. The CAPM assumes normally distributed securityreturns, but APT does not.c. This statement is correct.2. b. Since portfolio X has = 1.0, then X is the market portfolio and E(R M) =16%.Using E(R M ) = 16% and r f = 8%, the expected return for portfolio Y is notconsistent.3. d.4. c.5. d.6. c. Investors will take on as large a position as possible only if the mispricingopportunity is an arbitrage. Otherwise, considerations of risk anddiversification will limit the position they attempt to take in the mispricedsecurity.7. d.8. d.。
《投资学》试题AB卷 答案
南开大学研究生课程考试试题投资学（AB卷）一、名词解释（每题5分，共20分）1.股票答：股票是有价证券的一种主要形式，它是股份有限公司发行的、用以证明投资者的股东身份和权益，代表对一家公司所有权的份额，并据以获取股息和红利的凭证。
2.资本配置线答：资本配置线（CAL)描述引入无风险借贷后，将一定量的资本在某一特定的风险资产组合m 与无风险资产之间分配，从而得到所有可能的新组合的预期收益与风险之间的关系。
3.半强有效市场答：又称次强有效市场假说半强式有效市场假说认为价格已充分反应出所有已公开的有关公司营运前景的信息。
这些信息有成交价、成交量、盈利资料、盈利预测值，公司管理状况及其它公开披露的财务信息等。
假如投资者能迅速获得这些信息，股价应迅速作出反应。
4.技术分析答：技术分析是指以市场行为为研究对象，以判断市场趋势并跟随趋势的周期性变化来进行股票及一切金融衍生物交易决策的方法的总和。
技术分析认为市场行为包容消化一切。
5.有价证券答：有价证券，是指标有票面金额，用于证明持有人或该证券指定的特定主体对特定财产拥有所有权或债券的凭证。
有价证券是虚拟资本的一种形式，它本身没价值，但有价格。
有价证券按其所表明的财产权利的不同性质，可分为三类：商品证券、货币证券及资本证券。
6.久期答：对债券有效到期日的衡量，被定义为以支付额的现值为权数，对截至到每次支付的支付次数的加权平均。
7.市盈率答：市盈率是某种股票每股市价与每股盈利的比率。
也它告诉投资者必须为公司每股股票所产生的每一元收益支付多少钱。
市盈率=股票市价÷每股净盈利，股票发行价格=市盈率×每股净盈利8.风险溢价答：风险溢价(Risk premium)，是一个人在面对不同风险的高低、且清楚高风险高报酬、低风险低报酬的情况下，个人对风险的承受度影响其是否要冒风险获得较高的报酬，或是只接受已经确定的收入。
而承受风险可能得到的较高报酬。
确定的收入与较高的报酬之间的差，即为风险溢价。
投资学第10版课后习题答案
CHAPTER 7: OPTIMAL RISKY PORTFOLIOSPROBLEM SETS1. (a) and (e). Short-term rates and labor issues are factors thatare common to all firms and therefore must be considered as market risk factors. The remaining three factors are unique to this corporation and are not a part of market risk.2. (a) and (c). After real estate is added to the portfolio, there arefour asset classes in the portfolio: stocks, bonds, cash, and real estate. Portfolio variance now includes a variance term for real estate returns and a covariance term for real estate returns with returns for each of the other three asset classes. Therefore,portfolio risk is affected by the variance (or standard deviation) of real estate returns and the correlation between real estatereturns and returns for each of the other asset classes. (Note that the correlation between real estate returns and returns for cash is most likely zero.)3. (a) Answer (a) is valid because it provides the definition of theminimum variance portfolio.4. The parameters of the opportunity set are:E (r S ) = 20%, E (r B ) = 12%, σS = 30%, σB = 15%, ρ =From the standard deviations and the correlation coefficient we generate the covariance matrix [note that (,)S B S B Cov r r ρσσ=⨯⨯]: Bonds Stocks Bonds 225 45 Stocks 45 900The minimum-variance portfolio is computed as follows:w Min (S ) =1739.0)452(22590045225)(Cov 2)(Cov 222=⨯-+-=-+-B S B S B S B ,r r ,r r σσσ w Min (B ) = 1 =The minimum variance portfolio mean and standard deviation are:E (r Min ) = × .20) + × .12) = .1339 = %σMin = 2/12222)],(Cov 2[B S B S B B S Sr r w w w w ++σσ = [ 900) + 225) + (2 45)]1/2= %5.Proportion in Stock Fund Proportionin Bond Fund ExpectedReturnStandard Deviation% % % %minimumtangencyGraph shown below.0.005.0010.0015.0020.0025.000.00 5.00 10.00 15.00 20.00 25.00 30.00Tangency PortfolioMinimum Variance PortfolioEfficient frontier of risky assetsCMLINVESTMENT OPPORTUNITY SETr f = 8.006. The above graph indicates that the optimal portfolio is thetangency portfolio with expected return approximately % andstandard deviation approximately %.7. The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio invested in the stockfund is given by:222[()][()](,)[()][()][()()](,)S f B B f S B S S f B B f SS f B f S B E r r E r r Cov r r w E r r E r r E r r E r r Cov r r σσσ-⨯--⨯=-⨯+-⨯--+-⨯[(.20.08)225][(.12.08)45]0.4516[(.20.08)225][(.12.08)900][(.20.08.12.08)45]-⨯--⨯==-⨯+-⨯--+-⨯10.45160.5484B w =-=The mean and standard deviation of the optimal risky portfolio are:E (r P ) = × .20) + × .12) = .1561 = % σp = [ 900) +225) + (2× 45)]1/2= %8. The reward-to-volatility ratio of the optimal CAL is:().1561.080.4601.1654p fpE r r σ--==9. a. If you require that your portfolio yield an expected return of14%, then you can find the corresponding standard deviation from the optimal CAL. The equation for this CAL is:()().080.4601p fC f C C PE r r E r r σσσ-=+=+If E (r C ) is equal to 14%, then the standard deviation of the portfolio is %.b. To find the proportion invested in the T-bill fund, rememberthat the mean of the complete portfolio ., 14%) is an average of the T-bill rate and the optimal combination of stocks and bonds (P ). Let y be the proportion invested in the portfolio P . The mean of any portfolio along the optimal CAL is:()(1)()[()].08(.1561.08)C f P f P f E r y r y E r r y E r r y =-⨯+⨯=+⨯-=+⨯-Setting E (r C ) = 14% we find: y = and (1 − y ) = (the proportion invested in the T-bill fund).To find the proportions invested in each of the funds, multiply times the respective proportions of stocks and bonds in the optimal risky portfolio:Proportion of stocks in complete portfolio = =Proportion of bonds in complete portfolio = =10. Using only the stock and bond funds to achieve a portfolio expectedreturn of 14%, we must find the appropriate proportion in the stock fund (w S) and the appropriate proportion in the bond fund (w B = 1 −w S) as follows:= × w S + × (1 −w S) = + × w S w S =So the proportions are 25% invested in the stock fund and 75% inthe bond fund. The standard deviation of this portfolio will be:σP = [ 900) + 225) + (2 45)]1/2 = %This is considerably greater than the standard deviation of %achieved using T-bills and the optimal portfolio.11. a.Even though it seems that gold is dominated by stocks, gold mightstill be an attractive asset to hold as a part of a portfolio. Ifthe correlation between gold and stocks is sufficiently low, goldwill be held as a component in a portfolio, specifically, theoptimal tangency portfolio.b.If the correlation between gold and stocks equals +1, then no onewould hold gold. The optimal CAL would be composed of bills andstocks only. Since the set of risk/return combinations of stocksand gold would plot as a straight line with a negative slope (seethe following graph), these combinations would be dominated bythe stock portfolio. Of course, this situation could not persist.If no one desired gold, its price would fall and its expectedrate of return would increase until it became sufficientlyattractive to include in a portfolio.12. Since Stock A and Stock B are perfectly negatively correlated, arisk-free portfolio can be created and the rate of return for thisportfolio, in equilibrium, will be the risk-free rate. To find theproportions of this portfolio [with the proportion w A invested inStock A and w B = (1 –w A) invested in Stock B], set the standarddeviation equal to zero. With perfect negative correlation, theportfolio standard deviation is:σP = Absolute value [w AσA w BσB]0 = 5 × w A− [10 (1 –w A)] w A =The expected rate of return for this risk-free portfolio is:E(r) = × 10) + × 15) = %Therefore, the risk-free rate is: %13. False. If the borrowing and lending rates are not identical, then,depending on the tastes of the individuals (that is, the shape oftheir indifference curves), borrowers and lenders could havedifferent optimal risky portfolios.14. False. The portfolio standard deviation equals the weighted averageof the component-asset standard deviations only in the special case that all assets are perfectly positively correlated. Otherwise, as the formula for portfolio standard deviation shows, the portfoliostandard deviation is less than the weighted average of thecomponent-asset standard deviations. The portfolio variance is aweighted sum of the elements in the covariance matrix, with theproducts of the portfolio proportions as weights.15. The probability distribution is:Probability Rate ofReturn100%−50Mean = [ × 100%] + [ × (-50%)] = 55%Variance = [ × (100 − 55)2] + [ × (-50 − 55)2] = 4725Standard deviation = 47251/2 = %16. σP = 30 = y× σ = 40 × y y =E(r P) = 12 + (30 − 12) = %17. The correct choice is (c). Intuitively, we note that since allstocks have the same expected rate of return and standard deviation, we choose the stock that will result in lowest risk. This is thestock that has the lowest correlation with Stock A.More formally, we note that when all stocks have the same expected rate of return, the optimal portfolio for any risk-averse investor is the global minimum variance portfolio (G). When the portfolio is restricted to Stock A and one additional stock, the objective is to find G for any pair that includes Stock A, and then select thecombination with the lowest variance. With two stocks, I and J, theformula for the weights in G is:)(1)(),(Cov 2),(Cov )(222I w J w r r r r I w Min Min J I J I J I J Min -=-+-=σσσSince all standard deviations are equal to 20%:(,)400and ()()0.5I J I J Min Min Cov r r w I w J ρσσρ====This intuitive result is an implication of a property of any efficient frontier, namely, that the covariances of the global minimum variance portfolio with all other assets on the frontier are identical and equal to its own variance. (Otherwise, additional diversification would further reduce the variance.) In this case, the standard deviation of G(I, J) reduces to:1/2()[200(1)]Min IJ G σρ=⨯+This leads to the intuitive result that the desired addition would be the stock with the lowest correlation with Stock A, which is Stock D. The optimal portfolio is equally invested in Stock A and Stock D, and the standard deviation is %.18. No, the answer to Problem 17 would not change, at least as long asinvestors are not risk lovers. Risk neutral investors would not care which portfolio they held since all portfolios have an expected return of 8%.19. Yes, the answers to Problems 17 and 18 would change. The efficientfrontier of risky assets is horizontal at 8%, so the optimal CAL runs from the risk-free rate through G. This implies risk-averse investors will just hold Treasury bills.20. Rearrange the table (converting rows to columns) and compute serialcorrelation results in the following table:Nominal RatesFor example: to compute serial correlation in decade nominalreturns for large-company stocks, we set up the following twocolumns in an Excel spreadsheet. Then, use the Excel function“CORREL” to calculate the correlation for the data.Decade Previous1930s%%1940s%%1950s%%1960s%%1970s%%1980s%%1990s%%Note that each correlation is based on only seven observations, so we cannot arrive at any statistically significant conclusions.Looking at the results, however, it appears that, with theexception of large-company stocks, there is persistent serialcorrelation. (This conclusion changes when we turn to real rates in the next problem.)21. The table for real rates (using the approximation of subtracting adecade’s average inflation from the decade’s average nominalreturn) is:Real RatesSmall Company StocksLarge Company StocksLong-TermGovernmentBondsIntermed-TermGovernmentBondsTreasuryBills 1920s1930s1940s1950s1960s1970s1980s1990sSerialCorrelationWhile the serial correlation in decade nominal returns seems to be positive, it appears that real rates are serially uncorrelated. The decade time series (although again too short for any definitiveconclusions) suggest that real rates of return are independent from decade to decade.22. The 3-year risk premium for the S&P portfolio is, the 3-year risk premium for thehedge fund portfolio is S&P 3-year standard deviation is 0. The hedge fund 3-year standard deviation is 0. S&P Sharpe ratio is = , and the hedge fund Sharpe ratio is = .23. With a ρ = 0, the optimal asset allocation is,.With these weights,EThe resulting Sharpe ratio is = . Greta has a risk aversion of A=3, Therefore, she will investyof her wealth in this risky portfolio. The resulting investment composition will be S&P: = % and Hedge: = %. The remaining 26% will be invested in the risk-free asset.24. With ρ = , the annual covariance is .25. S&P 3-year standard deviation is . The hedge fund 3-year standard deviation is . Therefore, the 3-year covariance is 0.26. With a ρ=.3, the optimal asset allocation is, .With these weights,E. The resulting Sharpe ratio is = . Notice that the higher covariance results in a poorer Sharpe ratio.Greta will investyof her wealth in this risky portfolio. The resulting investment composition will be S&P: =% and hedge: = %. The remaining % will be invested in the risk-free asset.CFA PROBLEMS1. a. Restricting the portfolio to 20 stocks, rather than 40 to 50stocks, will increase the risk of the portfolio, but it ispossible that the increase in risk will be minimal. Suppose that, for instance, the 50 stocks in a universe have the same standard deviation () and the correlations between each pair areidentical, with correlation coefficient ρ. Then, the covariance between each pair of stocks would be ρσ2, and the variance of an equally weighted portfolio would be:222ρσ1σ1σnn n P -+=The effect of the reduction in n on the second term on theright-hand side would be relatively small (since 49/50 is close to 19/20 and ρσ2 is smaller than σ2), but thedenominator of the first term would be 20 instead of 50. For example, if σ = 45% and ρ = , then the standard deviation with 50 stocks would be %, and would rise to % when only 20 stocks are held. Such an increase might be acceptable if the expected return is increased sufficiently.b. Hennessy could contain the increase in risk by making sure thathe maintains reasonable diversification among the 20 stocks that remain in his portfolio. This entails maintaining a low correlation among the remaining stocks. For example, in part (a), with ρ = , the increase in portfolio risk was minimal. As a practical matter, this means that Hennessy would have to spread his portfolio among many industries; concentrating on just a few industries would result in higher correlations among the included stocks.2. Risk reduction benefits from diversification are not a linearfunction of the number of issues in the portfolio. Rather, the incremental benefits from additional diversification are mostimportant when you are least diversified. Restricting Hennessy to 10 instead of 20 issues would increase the risk of his portfolio by a greater amount than would a reduction in the size of theportfolio from 30 to 20 stocks. In our example, restricting the number of stocks to 10 will increase the standard deviation to %. The % increase in standard deviation resulting from giving up 10 of20 stocks is greater than the % increase that results from givingup 30 of 50 stocks.3. The point is well taken because the committee should be concernedwith the volatility of the entire portfolio. Since Hennessy’sportfolio is only one of six well-diversified portfolios and issmaller than the average, the concentration in fewer issues mighthave a minimal effect on the diversification of the total fund.Hence, unleashing Hennessy to do stock picking may be advantageous.4. d. Portfolio Y cannot be efficient because it is dominated byanother portfolio. For example, Portfolio X has both higherexpected return and lower standard deviation.5. c.6. d.7. b.8. a.9. c.10. Since we do not have any information about expected returns, wefocus exclusively on reducing variability. Stocks A and C have equal standard deviations, but the correlation of Stock B with Stock C is less than that of Stock A with Stock B . Therefore, a portfoliocomposed of Stocks B and C will have lower total risk than aportfolio composed of Stocks A and B.11. Fund D represents the single best addition to complementStephenson's current portfolio, given his selection criteria. Fund D’s expected return percent) has the potential to increase theportfolio’s return somewhat. Fund D’s relatively low correlation with his current portfolio (+ indicates that Fund D will providegreater diversification benefits than any of the other alternativesexcept Fund B. The result of adding Fund D should be a portfolio with approximately the same expected return and somewhat lower volatility compared to the original portfolio.The other three funds have shortcomings in terms of expected return enhancement or volatility reduction through diversification. Fund A offers the potential for increasing the portfolio’s return but is too highly correlated to provide substantial volatility reduction benefits through diversification. Fund B provides substantial volatility reduction through diversification benefits but is expected to generate a return well below the current portfolio’s return. Fund C has the greatest potential to increase the portfolio’s return but is too highly correlated with the current portfolio to provide substantial volatility reduction benefits through diversification.12. a. Subscript OP refers to the original portfolio, ABC to thenew stock, and NP to the new portfolio.i. E(r NP) = w OP E(r OP) + w ABC E(r ABC) = + = %ii. Cov = ρOP ABC = =iii. NP = [w OP2OP2 + w ABC2ABC2 + 2 w OP w ABC(Cov OP , ABC)]1/2= [ 2 + + (2 ]1/2= % %b. Subscript OP refers to the original portfolio, GS to governmentsecurities, and NP to the new portfolio.i. E(r NP) = w OP E(r OP) + w GS E(r GS) = + = %ii. Cov = ρOP GS = 0 0 = 0iii. NP = [w OP2OP2 + w GS2GS2 + 2 w OP w GS (Cov OP , GS)]1/2= [ + 0) + (2 0)]1/2= % %c. Adding the risk-free government securities would result in alower beta for the new portfolio. The new portfolio beta will bea weighted average of the individual security betas in theportfolio; the presence of the risk-free securities would lowerthat weighted average.d. The comment is not correct. Although the respective standarddeviations and expected returns for the two securities underconsideration are equal, the covariances between each security andthe original portfolio are unknown, making it impossible to drawthe conclusion stated. For instance, if the covariances aredifferent, selecting one security over the other may result in alower standard deviation for the portfolio as a whole. In such acase, that security would be the preferred investment, assumingall other factors are equal.e. i. Grace clearly expressed the sentiment that the risk of losswas more important to her than the opportunity for return. Usingvariance (or standard deviation) as a measure of risk in her casehas a serious limitation because standard deviation does notdistinguish between positive and negative price movements.ii. Two alternative risk measures that could be used instead ofvariance are:Range of returns, which considers the highest and lowestexpected returns in the future period, with a larger rangebeing a sign of greater variability and therefore of greaterrisk.Semivariance can be used to measure expected deviations ofreturns below the mean, or some other benchmark, such as zero.Either of these measures would potentially be superior tovariance for Grace. Range of returns would help to highlightthe full spectrum of risk she is assuming, especially thedownside portion of the range about which she is so concerned.Semivariance would also be effective, because it implicitlyassumes that the investor wants to minimize the likelihood ofreturns falling below some target rate; in Grace’s case, thetarget rate would be set at zero (to protect against negativereturns).13. a. Systematic risk refers to fluctuations in asset prices causedby macroeconomic factors that are common to all risky assets;hence systematic risk is often referred to as market risk.Examples of systematic risk factors include the business cycle,inflation, monetary policy, fiscal policy, and technologicalchanges.Firm-specific risk refers to fluctuations in asset pricescaused by factors that are independent of the market, such asindustry characteristics or firm characteristics. Examples offirm-specific risk factors include litigation, patents,management, operating cash flow changes, and financial leverage.b. Trudy should explain to the client that picking only the topfive best ideas would most likely result in the client holdinga much more risky portfolio. The total risk of a portfolio, orportfolio variance, is the combination of systematic risk andfirm-specific risk.The systematic component depends on the sensitivity of theindividual assets to market movements as measured by beta.Assuming the portfolio is well diversified, the number ofassets will not affect the systematic risk component ofportfolio variance. The portfolio beta depends on theindividual security betas and the portfolio weights of those securities.On the other hand, the components of firm-specific risk (sometimes called nonsystematic risk) are not perfectly positively correlated with each other and, as more assets are added to the portfolio, those additional assets tend to reduce portfolio risk. Hence, increasing the number of securities in a portfolio reduces firm-specific risk. For example, a patent expiration for one company would not affect the othersecurities in the portfolio. An increase in oil prices islikely to cause a drop in the price of an airline stock butwill likely result in an increase in the price of an energy stock. As the number of randomly selected securities increases, the total risk (variance) of the portfolio approaches its systematic variance.。
投资学考试试题及答案
投资学考试试题及答案一、选择题（每题4分，共40分）1. 投资学是研究什么问题的学科？A. 资金的筹集和分配B. 资产的收益和风险C. 经济发展和社会进步D. 企业管理和决策2. 股票的收益主要由以下哪些因素决定？A. 利润收益B. 股息收益C. 股价上涨收益D. 所有选项都正确3. 以下哪种投资组合可以实现风险分散？A. 只投资一种股票B. 只投资一种债券C. 投资多种不同类型的资产D. 所有选项都无法实现风险分散4. 在现金流折现决策中，下列哪个指标可用来评估投资项目的收益性？A. 净现值B. 内部收益率C. 投资回收期D. 所有选项都正确5. 风险资产的预期收益率和风险程度之间的关系是：A. 收益率越高，风险越低B. 收益率越低，风险越低C. 收益率越高，风险越高D. 收益率与风险无关6. 以下哪个指标用于评估投资组合的风险和收益之间的关系？A. 夏普比率B. 贝塔系数C. 布朗修正系数D. 所有选项都正确7. 在股票市场上，以下哪个指标用于衡量股票价格波动的大小？A. 均值B. 方差C. 标准差D. 所有选项都正确8. 资产组合的有效前沿是指：A. 所有可行的资产组合构成的曲线B. 高收益率资产构成的曲线C. 低风险资产构成的曲线D. 所有选项都不正确9. 什么是资本资产定价模型（CAPM）？A. 一种基于资产收益率和市场风险的定价模型B. 一种用于计算股票价格的模型C. 一种用于计算债券收益率的模型D. 所有选项都不正确10. 标准差衡量的是：A. 资产的期望收益B. 资产的风险敞口C. 资产的现金流D. 所有选项都不正确二、判断题（每题4分，共20分）1. 长期债券的价格波动较大，风险相对较高。
( )2. 投资组合的风险可以通过对冲来降低。
( )3. 投资组合的效用函数反映了投资者对风险和收益的偏好。
( )4. 若两个资产间的相关系数为-1，则它们的收益率具有正相关关系。
( )5. 在投资组合理论中，有效前沿上的资产组合都具有最大效用。
2010《投资学》A卷及答案
上海金融学院2009--2010 学年度第二学期《投资学》课程A卷代码：23330295（集中考试考试形式：闭卷考试用时: 90 分钟）考试时只能使用简单计算器(无存储功能)试题纸一、单项选择题（每题1分，共10分；在答题纸上相应位置填入正确选项前的英文字母）：1、证券持有人面临预期收益不能实现，是证券的( )特征。
A、期限性B、收益性C、流通性D、风险性2、证券交易所内证券交易的竞价原则是( )。
A、时间优先，客户优先B、价格优先，时间优先C、数量优先D、市价优先3、以追求当期高收入为基本目标，以能带来稳定收入的证券为主要投资对象的证券投资基金是（）。
A、指数基金B、成长型基金C、收入型基金D、平衡型基金4、企业对其产品的未来需求的预期相对悲观，于是决定减少投资。
这往往会造成实际利率（）A、下降B、不变C、上升D、不确定5、风险厌恶程度越强的投资者，其效用无差异曲线越（）A、平缓B、陡峭C、水平D、下倾6、零贝塔值证券的期望收益率为（）。
A、市场收益率B、零收益率C、负收益率D、无风险收益率7、收益率曲线向右下方倾斜意味着在同一时点上，长期债券收益率( )短期债券收益率。
A、高于B、等于C、低于D、不能判断是否高于8、一张5年期零息票债券的久期是( )。
A、小于5年B、多于5年C、等于5年D、等同于一张5年期10%的息票债券9、考虑单指数模型，某只股票的阿尔法为0%。
市场指数的收益率为16%。
无风险收益率为5%。
尽管没有个别风险影响股票表现，这只股票的收益率仍超出无风险收益率11%。
那么这只股票的贝塔值是多少？（）A、0.67B、0.75C、1.0D、1.3310、已知一张3年期零息票债券的收益率是7.2%，第一年、第二年的远期利率分别为6.1%和6.9%，那么第三年的远期利率应为多少？( )A、7.2%B、8.6%C、6.1%D、6.9%二、多项选择题（每题1分，共10分；在答题纸上相应位置填入正确选项前的英文字母）：1、( )是金融资产。
投资学练习题A 答案版
练习题A一、填空题1.交易所的组织模式可以分为（会员制交易所）和（公司制交易所）两种类型。
2.投资主体按投资目标分为（成长型收入型和平衡型基金）。
3.证券投资基金的投资特点是（集合投资分散风险专业理财）。
4.股票可以分为（普通股和优先股）。
5.行业分析理论方法分为（定性分析方法和定量分析方法）。
6.（远期利率）是指投资者同意在未来的某一特定日期购买的零息票债券的到期收益率，记为fn。
7.技术分析是建立在（市场行为包括一切信息、价格沿趋势波动并保持趋势、历史会重复）三个假设的基础上。
8.现货－远期平价定理是进行（远期合约定价）的基础。
9.（期货合约）是一种在将来某一确定日期按照确定的价格交割特定数量资产的协议。
10.当股价突然暴涨，距离移动平均线很远，乖离过大时，就是（卖出）的时机。
11.ETF的申购是指投资者用指定的一篮子指数成份股实物向基金管理公司换取固定数量的(ETF份额)12.变异系数的值越大，表明获得该单位收益所承担的风险(越大)，即该资产越没有投资价值。
13.资产组合理论所要解决的核心问题是，以不同资产构建一个投资组合，提供确定组合中不同资产的权重，达到使组合(风险)最小的目的。
14.β系数所衡量的是市场(系统性风险)的大小。
15.(因子模型)不是均衡模型，而资本资产定价模型为均衡模型。
16.夏普指数和特雷纳指数衡量的是(单位风险)下的超额收益，而詹森指数给出的为(绝对差异率)。
17.(惯性投资策略)，也叫动量交易策略，即购入过去表现良好的股票，卖出前段时期表现不好的股票。
18.对给定的收益率变动幅度，债券利息率与债券价格的波动幅度呈(反比关系)。
19.市政债券是由州或地方政府发行的债券，一般具有(免税性)。
20.将远期利率与将来的期望即期利率之间的差称为(流动性溢价)。
21.市场上的有价证券具有多重职能，既可作为筹资工具，又可作为____，还可用于____.答案：投资工具，保值和投机。
（完整版）投资学第10版习题答案05
（完整版）投资学第10版习题答案05CHAPTER 5: RISK, RETURN, AND THE HISTORICALRECORDPROBLEM SETS1.The Fisher equation predicts that the nominal rate will equal the equilibriumreal rate plus the expected inflation rate. Hence, if the inflation rate increasesfrom 3% to 5% while there is no change in the real rate, then the nominal ratewill increase by 2%. On the other hand, it is possible that an increase in theexpected inflation rate would be accompanied by a change in the real rate ofinterest. While it is conceivable that the nominal interest rate could remainconstant as the inflation rate increased, implying that the real rate decreasedas inflation increased, this is not a likely scenario.2.If we assume that the distribution of returns remains reasonably stable overthe entire history, then a longer sample period (i.e., a larger sample) increasesthe precision of the estimate of the expected rate of return; this is aconsequence of the fact that the standard error decreases as the sample sizeincreases. However, if we assume that the mean of the distribution of returnsis changing over time but we are not in a position to determine the nature ofthis change, then the expected return must be estimated from a more recentpart of the historical period. In this scenario, we must determine how far back,historically, to go in selecting the relevant sample. Here, it is likely to bedisadvantageous to use the entire data set back to 1880.3.The true statements are (c) and (e). The explanations follow.Statement (c): Let = the annual standard deviation of the riskyσinvestments and = the standard deviation of the first investment alternative1σover the two-year period. Then:σσ?=21Therefore, the annualized standard deviation for the first investment alternative is equal to:σσσ<=221Statement (e): The first investment alternative is more attractive to investors with lower degrees of risk aversion. The first alternative (entailing a sequence of two identically distributed and uncorrelated risky investments) is riskierthan the second alternative (the risky investment followed by a risk-freeinvestment). Therefore, the first alternative is more attractive to investorswith lower degrees of risk aversion. Notice, however, that if you mistakenly believed that time diversification can reduce the total risk of a sequence ofrisky investments, you would have been tempted to conclude that the firstalternative is less risky and therefore more attractive to more risk-averseinvestors. This is clearly not the case; the two-year standard deviation of the first alternative is greater than the two-year standard deviation of the second alternative.4.For the money market fund, your holding-period return for the next yeardepends on the level of 30-day interest rates each month when the fund rolls over maturing securities. The one-year savings deposit offers a 7.5% holding period return for the year. If you forecast that the rate on money marketinstruments will increase significantly above the current 6% yield, then themoney market fund might result in a higher HPR than the savings deposit.The 20-year Treasury bond offers a yield to maturity of 9% per year, which is 150 basis points higher than the rate on the one-year savings deposit;however, you could earn a one-year HPR much less than 7.5% on the bond if long-term interest rates increase during the year. If Treasury bond yields rise above 9%, then the price of the bond will fall, and the resulting capital losswill wipe out some or all of the 9% return you would have earned if bondyields had remained unchanged over the course of the year.5. a.If businesses reduce their capital spending, then they are likely todecrease their demand for funds. This will shift the demand curve inFigure 5.1 to the left and reduce the equilibrium real rate of interest.b.Increased household saving will shift the supply of funds curve to theright and cause real interest rates to fall.c.Open market purchases of U.S. Treasury securities by the FederalReserve Board are equivalent to an increase in the supply of funds (ashift of the supply curve to the right). The FED buys treasuries withcash from its own account or it issues certificates which trade likecash. As a result, there is an increase in the money supply, and theequilibrium real rate of interest will fall.6. a.The “Inflation-Plus” CD is the safer investment because it guarantees thepurchasing power of the investment. Using the approximation that the realrate equals the nominal rate minus the inflation rate, the CD provides a realrate of 1.5% regardless of the inflation rate.b.The expected return depends on the expected rate of inflation over the nextyear. If the expected rate of inflation is less than 3.5% then the conventionalCD offers a higher real return than the inflation-plus CD; if the expected rateof inflation is greater than 3.5%, then the opposite is true.c.If you expect the rate of inflation to be 3% over the next year, then theconventional CD offers you an expected real rate of return of 2%, which is0.5% higher than the real rate on the inflation-protected CD. But unless youknow that inflation will be 3% with certainty, the conventional CD is alsoriskier. The question of which is the better investment then depends on yourattitude towards risk versus return. You might choose to diversify and investpart of your funds in each.d.No. We cannot assume that the entire difference between the risk-freenominal rate (on conventional CDs) of 5% and the real risk-free rate (oninflation-protected CDs) of 1.5% is the expected rate of inflation. Part of thedifference is probably a risk premium associated with the uncertaintysurrounding the real rate of return on the conventional CDs. This impliesthat the expected rate of inflation is less than 3.5% per year.7.E(r) = [0.35 × 44.5%] + [0.30 × 14.0%] + [0.35 × (–16.5%)] = 14%σ2 = [0.35 × (44.5 – 14)2] + [0.30 × (14 – 14)2] + [0.35 × (–16.5 – 14)2] = 651.175σ = 25.52%The mean is unchanged, but the standard deviation has increased, as theprobabilities of the high and low returns have increased.8.Probability distribution of price and one-year holding period return for a 30-year U.S. Treasury bond (which will have 29 years to maturity at year-end):Economy Probability YTM Price CapitalGainCouponInterest HPRBoom0.2011.0%$ 74.05-$25.95$8.00-17.95% Normal growth0.508.0100.00 0.008.008.00Recession0.307.0112.2812.288.0020.289.E(q) = (0 × 0.25) + (1 × 0.25) + (2 × 0.50) = 1.25σq = [0.25 × (0 – 1.25)2 + 0.25 × (1 – 1.25)2 + 0.50 × (2 – 1.25)2]1/2 = 0.8292 10.(a) With probability 0.9544, the value of a normally distributedvariable will fall within 2 standard deviations of the mean; that is,between –40% and 80%. Simply add and subtract 2 standarddeviations to and from the mean.11.From Table 5.4, the average risk premium for the period 7/1926-9/2012 was:12.34% per year.Adding 12.34% to the 3% risk-free interest rate, the expected annual HPR for the Big/Value portfolio is: 3.00% + 12.34% = 15.34%.12.(01/1928-06/1970)Small BigLow2High Low2HighAverage 1.03% 1.21% 1.46%0.78%0.88% 1.18%SD8.55%8.47%10.35% 5.89% 6.91%9.11%Skew 1.6704 1.6673 2.30640.0067 1.6251 1.6348Kurtosis13.150513.528417.2137 6.256416.230513.6729(07/1970-12/2012)Small BigLow2High Low2HighAverage0.91% 1.33% 1.46%0.93% 1.02% 1.13%SD7.00% 5.49% 5.66% 4.81% 4.50% 4.78%Skew-0.3278-0.5135-0.4323-0.3136-0.3508-0.4954Kurtosis 1.7962 3.1917 3.8320 1.8516 2.0756 2.8629No. The distributions from (01/1928–06/1970) and (07/1970–12/2012) periods have distinct characteristics due to systematic shocks to the economy and subsequent government intervention. While the returns from the two periods do not differ greatly, their respective distributions tell a different story. The standard deviation for all six portfolios is larger in the first period. Skew is also positive, but negative in the second, showing a greater likelihood of higher-than-normal returns in the right tail. Kurtosis is also markedly larger in the first period.13.a%88.5,0588.070.170.080.01111or i i rn i rn rr =-=+-=-++=b.rr ≈ rn - i = 80% - 70% = 10%Clearly, the approximation gives a real HPR that is too high.14.From Table 5.2, the average real rate on T-bills has been 0.52%.a.T-bills: 0.52% real rate + 3% inflation = 3.52%b.Expected return on Big/Value:3.52% T-bill rate + 12.34% historical risk premium = 15.86%c.The risk premium on stocks remains unchanged. A premium, thedifference between two rates, is a real value, unaffected by inflation.15.Real interest rates are expected to rise. The investment activity will shiftthe demand for funds curve (in Figure 5.1) to the right. Therefore theequilibrium real interest rate will increase.16. a.Probability distribution of the HPR on the stock market and put:STOCKPUT State of the Economy Probability Ending Price +Dividend HPREnding Value HPR Excellent 0.25$ 131.0031.00%$ 0.00-100%Good 0.45 114.0014.00$ 0.00-100Poor 0.25 93.25?6.75$ 20.2568.75Crash0.05 48.00-52.00$ 64.00433.33Remember that the cost of the index fund is $100 per share, and the costof the put option is $12.b.The cost of one share of the index fund plus a put option is $112. Theprobability distribution of the HPR on the portfolio is:State of the Economy Probability Ending Price +Put +Dividend HPRExcellent 0.25$ 131.0017.0%= (131 - 112)/112Good 0.45 114.00 1.8= (114 - 112)/112Poor 0.25 113.50 1.3= (113.50 - 112)/112Crash0.05 112.000.0= (112 - 112)/112c.Buying the put option guarantees the investor a minimum HPR of 0.0%regardless of what happens to the stock's price. Thus, it offers insuranceagainst a price decline.17.The probability distribution of the dollar return on CD plus call option is:State of theEconomyProbability Ending Value of CD Ending Value of Call Combined Value Excellent0.25$ 114.00$16.50$130.50Good0.45 114.00 0.00114.00Poor0.25 114.00 0.00114.00Crash 0.05 114.00 0.00114.0018.a.Total return of the bond is (100/84.49)-1 = 0.1836. With t = 10, the annual rate on the real bond is (1 + EAR) = = 1.69%.1.18361/10 b.With a per quarter yield of 2%, the annual yield is = 1.0824, or8.24%. The equivalent continuously compounding (cc) rate is ln(1+.0824) =.0792, or 7.92%. The risk-free rate is 3.55% with a cc rate of ln(1+.0355) =.0349, or 3.49%. The cc risk premium will equal .0792 - .0349 = .0443, or4.433%.c.The appropriate formula is , σ2(effective )= e2 × m (cc ) ×[e σ2(cc )1]where . Using solver or goal seek, setting thetarget cell to the known effective cc rate by changing the unknown variance (cc) rate, the equivalent standard deviation (cc) is 18.03% (excel mayyield slightly different solutions).d.The expected value of the excess return will grow by 120 months (12months over a 10-year horizon). Therefore the excess return will be 120 × 4.433% = 531.9%. The expected SD grows by the square root of timeresulting in 18.03% × = 197.5%. The resulting Sharpe ratio is120531.9/197.5 = 2.6929. Normsdist (-2.6929) = .0035, or a .35% probabilityof shortfall over a 10-year horizon.CFA PROBLEMS1.The expected dollar return on the investment in equities is $18,000 (0.6 × $50,000 + 0.4× ?$30,000) compared to the $5,000 expected return for T-bills. Therefore, theexpected risk premium is $13,000.2.E(r) = [0.2 × (?25%)] + [0.3 × 10%] + [0.5 × 24%] =10%3.E(r X) = [0.2 × (?20%)] + [0.5 × 18%] + [0.3 × 50%] =20%E(r Y) = [0.2 × (?15%)] + [0.5 × 20%] + [0.3 × 10%] =10%4.σX2 = [0.2 × (– 20 – 20)2] + [0.5 × (18 – 20)2] + [0.3 × (50 – 20)2] = 592σX = 24.33%σY2 = [0.2 × (– 15 – 10)2] + [0.5 × (20 – 10)2] + [0.3 × (10 – 10)2] = 175σY = 13.23%5.E(r) = (0.9 × 20%) + (0.1 × 10%) =19% $1,900 in returns6.The probability that the economy will be neutral is 0.50, or 50%. Given aneutral economy, the stock will experience poor performance 30% of thetime. The probability of both poor stock performance and a neutral economy is therefore:0.30 × 0.50 = 0.15 = 15%7.E(r) = (0.1 × 15%) + (0.6 × 13%) + (0.3 × 7%) = 11.4%。
《投资学》习题及其参考答案
《投资学》习题及其参考答案第1章投资概述一、填空题1、投资所形成的资本可分为和。
2、资本是具有保值或增值功能的。
3、按照资本存在形态不同，可将资本分为、、、等四类。
4、根据投资所形成资产的形态不同，可以将投资分为、、三类。
5、按研究问题的目的不同，可将投资分成不同的类别。
按照投资主体不同，投资可分为、、、四类。
6、从生产性投资的每一次循环来，一个投资运动周期要经历、、、等四个阶段。
一、填空题1、真实资本、金融资本2、持久性经济要素3、实物资本、无形资本、金融资本、人力资本4、实物资本投资、金融资本投资、人力资本投资5、个人投资、企业投资、政府投资、外国投资6、试比较主要西方投资流派理论的异同？7、资金筹集、分配、运用、回收与增值第2章市场经济与投资决定四、问答题1、一定的经济主体如何才能成为真正的投资主体？2、计划经济和市场经济下的投资决定有何不同？3、结合新制度经济学的有关知识，谈谈你对中国投融资制度改革的看法或建议。
四、问答题1、答：投资主体是指从事投资活动的法人和自然人。
投资主体是投资权利体、投资责任体和投资利益体的内在统一。
一定的经济主体要成为真正的投资主体必须具有三个特征：（1）拥有投资权利，能相对独立地作出投资决策，包括投资目标的确定、投资方式的选择等方面的自主决策。
（2）投资主体必须承担相应的投资风险和责任，包括承担的政治风险、经济风险、法律风险和社会道德风险。
（3）投资主体必须享有一定的投资收益，不能享受投资收益的法人或自然人不是真正的投资主体。
2、答：计划经济和市场经济下投资决定的不同表现在四个方面：（1）计划经济下的投资决定。
计划经济下的投资制度是政府主导型的投资制度。
这种投资制度的典型是改革前的前苏联、东欧、和中国等国家。
①投资主体。
政府是主要、甚至是唯一的投资主体。
政府投资主体以中央政府为主，包揽了各行各业的几乎所有投资。
企业不是投资主体，只是政府部门的附属和政府投资的实施者。
投资学10版习题答案
CHAPTER 14: BOND PRICES AND YIELDSPROBLEM SETS1. a. Catastrophe bond—A bond that allows the issuer to transfer“catastrophe risk” from the firm to the capital markets. Investors inthese bonds receive a compensation for taking on the risk in the form ofhigher coupon rates. In the event of a catastrophe, the bondholders willreceive only part or perhaps none of the principal payment due to themat maturity. Disaster can be defined by total insured losses or by criteriasuch as wind speed in a hurricane or Richter level in an earthquake.b. Eurobond—A bond that is denominated in one currency, usually thatof the issuer, but sold in other national markets.c. Zero-coupon bond—A bond that makes no coupon payments. Investorsreceive par value at the maturity date but receive no interest paymentsuntil then. These bonds are issued at prices below par value, and theinvestor’s return comes from the difference between issue price and thepayment of par value at maturity (capital gain).d. Samurai bond—Yen-dominated bonds sold in Japan by non-Japaneseissuers.e. Junk bond—A bond with a low credit rating due to its high default risk;also known as high-yield bonds.f. Convertible bond—A bond that gives the bondholders an option toexchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock ofthe firm.g. Serial bonds—Bonds issued with staggered maturity dates. As bondsmature sequentially, the principal repayment burden for the firm isspread over time.h. Equipment obligation bond—A collateralized bond for which thecollateral is equipment owned by the firm. If the firm defaults on thebond, the bondholders would receive the equipment.i. Original issue discount bond—A bond issued at a discount to the facevalue.j. Indexed bond— A bond that makes payments that are tied to ageneral price index or the price of a particular commodity.k. Callable bond—A bond that gives the issuer the option to repurchase the bond at a specified call price before the maturity date.l. Puttable bond —A bond that gives the bondholder the option to sell back the bond at a specified put price before the maturity date.2. The bond callable at 105 should sell at a lower price because the call provision is more valuable to the firm. Therefore, its yield to maturity should be higher.3.Zero coupon bonds provide no coupons to be reinvested. Therefore, the investor's proceeds from the bond are independent of the rate at which coupons could be reinvested (if they were paid). There is no reinvestment rate uncertainty with zeros.4.A bond’s coupon interest payments and principal repayment are not affected by changes in market rates. Consequently, if market ratesincrease, bond investors in the secondary markets are not willing to pay as much for a claim on a gi ven bond’s fixed interest and principalpayments as they would if market rates were lower. This relationship is apparent from the inverse relationship between interest rates and present value. An increase in the discount rate (i.e., the market rate. decreases the present value of the future cash flows. 5. Annual coupon rate: 4.80% $48 Coupon paymentsCurrent yield:$48 4.95%$970⎛⎫= ⎪⎝⎭6. a.Effective annual rate for 3-month T-bill:%0.10100.0102412.11645,97000,10044==-=-⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛b. Effective annual interest rate for coupon bond paying 5% semiannually:(1.05.2—1 = 0.1025 or 10.25%Therefore the coupon bond has the higher effective annual interest rate. 7.The effective annual yield on the semiannual coupon bonds is 8.16%. If the annual coupon bonds are to sell at par they must offer the same yield, which requires an annual coupon rate of 8.16%.8. The bond price will be lower. As time passes, the bond price, which isnow above par value, will approach par.9. Yield to maturity: Using a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 3; PV = -953.10; FV = 1000; PMT = 80; COMP iThis results in: YTM = 9.88%Realized compound yield: First, find the future value (FV. of reinvestedcoupons and principal:FV = ($80 * 1.10 *1.12. + ($80 * 1.12. + $1,080 = $1,268.16Then find the rate (y realized . that makes the FV of the purchase price equal to $1,268.16:$953.10 ⨯ (1 + y realized .3 = $1,268.16 ⇒y realized = 9.99% or approximately 10% Using a financial calculator, enter the following: N = 3; PV = -953.10; FV =1,268.16; PMT = 0; COMP I. Answer is 9.99%.10.a. Zero coupon 8%10% couponcouponCurrent prices $463.19 $1,000.00 $1,134.20b. Price 1 year from now $500.25 $1,000.00 $1,124.94Price increase $ 37.06 $ 0.00 − $ 9.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 37.06 $ 80.00 $ 90.74Pretax rate of return 8.00% 8.00% 8.00%Taxes* $ 11.12 $ 24.00 $ 28.15After-tax income $ 25.94 $ 56.00 $ 62.59After-tax rate of return 5.60% 5.60% 5.52%c. Price 1 year from now $543.93 $1,065.15 $1,195.46Price increase $ 80.74 $ 65.15 $ 61.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 80.74 $145.15 $161.26Pretax rate of return 17.43% 14.52% 14.22%Taxes†$ 19.86 $ 37.03 $ 42.25After-tax income $ 60.88 $108.12 $119.01After-tax rate of return 13.14% 10.81% 10.49%* In computing taxes, we assume that the 10% coupon bond was issued at par and that the decrease in price when the bond is sold at year-end is treated as a capital loss and therefore is not treated as an offset to ordinary income.† In computing taxes for the zero coupon bond, $37.06 is taxed as ordinary income (see part (b); the remainder of the price increase is taxed as a capital gain.11. a. On a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 40; FV = 1000; PV = –950; PMT = 40You will find that the yield to maturity on a semiannual basis is 4.26%.This implies a bond equivalent yield to maturity equal to: 4.26% * 2 =8.52%Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0426)2– 1 = 0.0870 = 8.70%b. Since the bond is selling at par, the yield to maturity on a semiannualbasis is the same as the semiannual coupon rate, i.e., 4%. The bondequivalent yield to maturity is 8%.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.04)2– 1 = 0.0816 = 8.16%c. Keeping other inputs unchanged but setting PV = –1050, we find abond equivalent yield to maturity of 7.52%, or 3.76% on a semiannualbasis.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0376)2– 1 = 0.0766 = 7.66%12. Since the bond payments are now made annually instead of semiannually,the bond equivalent yield to maturity is the same as the effective annual yield to maturity. [On a financial calculator, n = 20; FV = 1000; PV = –price; PMT = 80]The resulting yields for the three bonds are:Bond Price Bond Equivalent Yield= Effective Annual Yield$950 8.53%1,000 8.001,050 7.51The yields computed in this case are lower than the yields calculatedwith semiannual payments. All else equal, bonds with annual payments are less attractive to investors because more time elapses beforepayments are received. If the bond price is the same with annualpayments, then the bond's yield to maturity is lower.13.Price Maturity(years.BondEquivalentYTM$400.00 20.00 4.688% 500.00 20.00 3.526 500.00 10.00 7.177385.54 10.00 10.000 463.19 10.00 8.000 400.00 11.91 8.00014. a. The bond pays $50 every 6 months. The current price is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 6)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 6)] = $1,052.42 Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 6. Solve for PV = $1,052.42.If the market interest rate remains 4% per half year, price six months from now is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 5)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 5)] = $1,044.52Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 5. Solve for PV = $1,044.52.b. Rate of return $50($1,044.52$1,052.42)$50$7.904.0%$1,052.42$1,052.42+--===15.The reported bond price is: $1,001.250However, 15 days have passed since the last semiannual coupon was paid, so:Accrued interest = $35 * (15/182) = $2.885The invoice price is the reported price plus accrued interest: $1,004.1416. If the yield to maturity is greater than the current yield, then the bond offers the prospect of price appreciation as it approaches its maturity date. Therefore, the bond must be selling below par value.17. The coupon rate is less than 9%. If coupon divided by price equals 9%, and price is less than par, then price divided by par is less than 9%.18.Time Inflation in YearJust EndedPar Value Coupon Payment Principal Repayment 0 $1,000.001 2% 1,020.00 $40.80 $ 0.002 3% $1,050.60 $42.02 $ 0.00 31%$1,061.11$42.44$1,061.11The nominal rate of return and real rate of return on the bond in each year are computed as follows:Nominal rate of return = interest + price appreciationinitial priceReal rate of return = 1 + nominal return1 + inflation - 1Second YearThird YearNominal return 071196.0020,1$60.30$02.42$=+050400.060.050,1$51.10$44.42$=+Real return%0.4040.0103.1071196.1==- %0.4040.0101.1050400.1==- The real rate of return in each year is precisely the 4% real yield on the bond.19.The price schedule is as follows: Year Remaining Maturity (T).Constant Yield Value $1,000/(1.08)TImputed Interest (increase inconstant yield value)0 (now) 20 years$214.551 19 231.71 $17.162 18 250.25 18.54 19 1 925.93 201,000.0074.0720.The bond is issued at a price of $800. Therefore, its yield to maturity is: 6.8245%Therefore, using the constant yield method, we find that the price in one year (when maturity falls to 9 years) will be (at an unchanged yield. $814.60, representing an increase of $14.60. Total taxable income is: $40.00 + $14.60 = $54.6021. a. The bond sells for $1,124.72 based on the 3.5% yield to maturity .[n = 60; i = 3.5; FV = 1000; PMT = 40]Therefore, yield to call is 3.368% semiannually, 6.736% annually. [n = 10 semiannual periods; PV = –1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]b. If the call price were $1,050, we would set FV = 1,050 and redo part (a) to find that yield to call is 2.976% semiannually, 5.952% annually. With a lower call price, the yield to call is lower.c. Yield to call is 3.031% semiannually, 6.062% annually. [n = 4; PV = −1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]22. The stated yield to maturity, based on promised payments, equals 16.075%.[n = 10; PV = –900; FV = 1000; PMT = 140]Based on expected reduced coupon payments of $70 annually, theexpected yield to maturity is 8.526%.23. The bond is selling at par value. Its yield to maturity equals the couponrate, 10%. If the first-year coupon is reinvested at an interest rate of rpercent, then total proceeds at the end of the second year will be: [$100 *(1 + r)] + $1,100Therefore, realized compound yield to maturity is a function of r, as shown in the following table:8% $1,208 1208/1000 – 1 = 0.0991 = 9.91%10% $1,210 1210/1000 – 1 = 0.1000 = 10.00%12% $1,212 1212/1000 – 1 = 0.1009 = 10.09%24. April 15 is midway through the semiannual coupon period. Therefore,the invoice price will be higher than the stated ask price by an amountequal to one-half of the semiannual coupon. The ask price is 101.25percent of par, so the invoice price is:$1,012.50 + (½*$50) = $1,037.5025. Factors that might make the ABC debt more attractive to investors,therefore justifying a lower coupon rate and yield to maturity, are:i. The ABC debt is a larger issue and therefore may sell with greaterliquidity.ii. An option to extend the term from 10 years to 20 years is favorable ifinterest rates 10 years from now are lower than today’s interest rates. Incontrast, if interest rates increase, the investor can present the bond forpayment and reinvest the money for a higher return.iii. In the event of trouble, the ABC debt is a more senior claim. It hasmore underlying security in the form of a first claim against realproperty.iv. The call feature on the XYZ bonds makes the ABC bonds relativelymore attractive since ABC bonds cannot be called from the investor.v. The XYZ bond has a sinking fund requiring XYZ to retire part of theissue each year. Since most sinking funds give the firm the option toretire this amount at the lower of par or market value, the sinking fundcan be detrimental for bondholders.26. A. If an investor believes the firm’s credit prospects are poor in the nearterm and wishes to capitalize on this, the investor should buy a creditdefault swap. Although a short sale of a bond could accomplish the same objective, liquidity is often greater in the swap market than it is in theunderlying cash market. The investor could pick a swap with a maturitysimilar to the expected time horizon of the credit risk. By buying theswap, the investor would receive compensation if the bond experiencesan increase in credit risk.27. a. When credit risk increases, credit default swaps increase in valuebecause the protection they provide is more valuable. Credit defaultswaps do not provide protection against interest rate risk however.28. a. An increase in the firm’s times interest-earned ratio decreases thedefault risk of the firm→increases the bond’s price → decreases the YTM.b. An increase in the issuing firm’s debt-equity ratio increases thedefault risk of the firm → decreases the bond’s price → increases YTM.c. An increase in the issuing firm’s quick ratio increases short-runliquidity, → implying a decrease in default risk of the firm → increasesthe bond’s price → decreases YTM.29. a. The floating rate note pays a coupon that adjusts to market levels.Therefore, it will not experience dramatic price changes as marketyields fluctuate. The fixed rate note will therefore have a greater pricerange.b. Floating rate notes may not sell at par for any of several reasons:(i) The yield spread between one-year Treasury bills and othermoney market instruments of comparable maturity could be wider(or narrower. than when the bond was issued.(ii) The credit standing of the firm may have eroded (or improved.relative to Treasury securities, which have no credit risk.Therefore, the 2% premium would become insufficient to sustainthe issue at par.(iii) The coupon increases are implemented with a lag, i.e., onceevery year. During a period of changing interest rates, even thisbrief lag will be reflected in the price of the security.c. The risk of call is low. Because the bond will almost surely not sell for much above par value (given its adjustable coupon rate), it is unlikely that the bond will ever be called.d. The fixed-rate note currently sells at only 88% of the call price, so that yield to maturity is greater than the coupon rate. Call risk iscurrently low, since yields would need to fall substantially for the firm to use its option to call the bond.e. The 9% coupon notes currently have a remaining maturity of 15 years and sell at a yield to maturity of 9.9%. This is the coupon rate thatwould be needed for a newly issued 15-year maturity bond to sell at par.f. Because the floating rate note pays a variable stream of interestpayments to maturity, the effective maturity for comparative purposes with other debt securities is closer to the next coupon reset date than the final maturity date. Therefore, yield-to-maturity is anindeterminable calculation for a floating rate note, with “yield -to-recoupon date” a more meaningful measure of return.30. a. The yield to maturity on the par bond equals its coupon rate, 8.75%.All else equal, the 4% coupon bond would be more attractive because its coupon rate is far below current market yields, and its price is far below the call price. Therefore, if yields fall, capital gains on the bond will not be limited by the call price. In contrast, the 8¾% coupon bond canincrease in value to at most $1,050, offering a maximum possible gain of only 0.5%. The disadvantage of the 8¾% coupon bond, in terms ofvulnerability to being called, shows up in its higher promised yield to maturity.b. If an investor expects yields to fall substantially, the 4% bond offers a greater expected return.c. Implicit call protection is offered in the sense that any likely fallin yields would not be nearly enough to make the firm considercalling the bond. In this sense, the call feature is almost irrelevant.31. a. Initial price P 0 = $705.46 [n = 20; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 8]Next year's price P 1 = $793.29 [n = 19; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 7] HPR %54.191954.046.705$)46.705$29.793($50$==-+=b. Using OID tax rules, the cost basis and imputed interest under theconstant yield method are obtained by discounting bond payments at the original 8% yield and simply reducing maturity by one year at a time: Constant yield prices (compare these to actual prices to compute capital gains.: P 0 = $705.46P 1 = $711.89 ⇒ implicit interest over first year = $6.43P 2 = $718.84 ⇒ implicit interest over second year = $6.95Tax on explicit interest plus implicit interest in first year =0.40*($50 + $6.43) = $22.57Capital gain in first year = Actual price at 7% YTM —constant yield price =$793.29—$711.89 = $81.40Tax on capital gain = 0.30*$81.40 = $24.42Total taxes = $22.57 + $24.42 = $46.99c. After tax HPR =%88.121288.046.705$99.46$)46.705$29.793($50$==--+d. Value of bond after two years = $798.82 [using n = 18; i = 7%; PMT = $50; FV = $1,000]Reinvested income from the coupon interest payments = $50*1.03 + $50 = $101.50Total funds after two years = $798.82 + $101.50 = $900.32Therefore, the investment of $705.46 grows to $900.32 in two years:$705.46 (1 + r )2 = $900.32 ⇒ r = 0.1297 = 12.97%e. Coupon interest received in first year: $50.00Less: tax on coupon interest 40%: – 20.00Less: tax on imputed interest (0.40*$6.43): – 2.57Net cash flow in first year: $27.43The year-1 cash flow can be invested at an after-tax rate of:3% × (1 – 0.40) = 1.8%By year 2, this investment will grow to: $27.43 × 1.018 = $27.92In two years, sell the bond for: $798.82 [n = 18; i = 7%%; PMT =$50; FV = $1,000]Less: tax on imputed interest in second year:– 2.78 [0.40 × $6.95] Add: after-tax coupon interest received in second year: + 30.00 [$50 × (1 – 0.40)]Less: Capital gains tax on(sales price – constant yield value): – 23.99 [0.30 × (798.82 – 718.84)] Add: CF from first year's coupon (reinvested):+ 27.92 [from above]Total $829.97$705.46 (1 + r)2 = $829.97 r = 0.0847 = 8.47%CFA PROBLEMS1. a. A sinking fund provision requires the early redemption of a bond issue.The provision may be for a specific number of bonds or a percentage ofthe bond issue over a specified time period. The sinking fund can retireall or a portion of an issue over the life of the issue.b. (i) Compared to a bond without a sinking fund, the sinking fundreduces the average life of the overall issue because some of thebonds are retired prior to the stated maturity.(ii) The company will make the same total principal payments overthe life of the issue, although the timing of these payments will beaffected. The total interest payments associated with the issue willbe reduced given the early redemption of principal.c. From the investor’s point of view, the key reason for demanding asinking fund is to reduce credit risk. Default risk is reduced by theorderly retirement of the issue.2. a. (i) Current yield = Coupon/Price = $70/$960 = 0.0729 = 7.29%(ii) YTM = 3.993% semiannually, or 7.986% annual bond equivalent yield.On a financial calculator, enter: n = 10; PV = –960; FV = 1000; PMT = 35Compute the interest rate.(iii) Realized compound yield is 4.166% (semiannually), or 8.332% annualbond equivalent yield. To obtain this value, first find the future value(FV) of reinvested coupons and principal. There will be six payments of$35 each, reinvested semiannually at 3% per period. On a financialcalculator, enter:PV = 0; PMT = 35; n = 6; i = 3%. Compute: FV = 226.39Three years from now, the bond will be selling at the par value of $1,000because the yield to maturity is forecast to equal the coupon rate.Therefore, total proceeds in three years will be: $226.39 + $1,000 =$1,226.39Then find the rate (y realized. that makes the FV of the purchaseprice equal to $1,226.39:$960 × (1 + y realized.6 = $1,226.39 y realized = 4.166% (semiannual.Alternatively, PV = −$960; FV = $1,226.39; N = 6; PMT = $0. Solve for I =4.16%.b. Shortcomings of each measure:(i) Current yield does not account for capital gains or losses on bondsbought at prices other than par value. It also does not account forreinvestment income on coupon payments.(ii) Yield to maturity assumes the bond is held until maturity and that all coupon income can be reinvested at a rate equal to the yield to maturity.(iii) Realized compound yield is affected by the forecast ofreinvestment rates, holding period, and yield of the bond at the endof the investor's holding period.3. a. The maturity of each bond is 10 years, and we assume that couponsare paid semiannually. Since both bonds are selling at par value, thecurrent yield for each bond is equal to its coupon rate.If the yield declines by 1% to 5% (2.5% semiannual yield., the Sentinalbond will increase in value to $107.79 [n=20; i = 2.5%; FV = 100; PMT = 3].The price of the Colina bond will increase, but only to the call price of102. The present value of scheduled payments is greater than 102, butthe call price puts a ceiling on the actual bond price.b. If rates are expected to fall, the Sentinal bond is more attractive:since it is not subject to call, its potential capital gains are greater.If rates are expected to rise, Colina is a relatively better investment. Itshigher coupon (which presumably is compensation to investors for thecall feature of the bond. will provide a higher rate of return than theSentinal bond.c. An increase in the volatility of rates will increase the value of thefirm’s option to call back the Colina bond. If rates go down, the firm can call the bond, which puts a cap on possible capital gains. So, greatervolatility makes the option to call back the bond more valuable to theissuer. This makes the bond less attractive to the investor.4. Market conversion value = Value if converted into stock = 20.83 × $28 =$583.24Conversion premium = Bond price – Market conversion value= $775.00 – $583.24 = $191.765. a. The call feature requires the firm to offer a higher coupon (or higherpromised yield to maturity) on the bond in order to compensate theinvestor for the firm's option to call back the bond at a specified priceif interest rate falls sufficiently. Investors are willing to grant thisvaluable option to the issuer, but only for a price that reflects thepossibility that the bond will be called. That price is the higherpromised yield at which they are willing to buy the bond.b. The call feature reduces the expected life of the bond. If interestrates fall substantially so that the likelihood of a call increases,investors will treat the bond as if it will "mature" and be paid off at thecall date, not at the stated maturity date. On the other hand, if ratesrise, the bond must be paid off at the maturity date, not later. Thisasymmetry means that the expected life of the bond is less than thestated maturity.c. The advantage of a callable bond is the higher coupon (and higherpromised yield to maturity) when the bond is issued. If the bond is never called, then an investor earns a higher realized compound yield on acallable bond issued at par than a noncallable bond issued at par on the same date. The disadvantage of the callable bond is the risk of call. Ifrates fall and the bond is called, then the investor receives the call price and then has to reinvest the proceeds at interest rates that are lowerthan the yield to maturity at which the bond originally was issued. Inthis event, the firm's savings in interest payments is the investor's loss.6. a. (iii)b. (iii) The yield to maturity on the callable bond must compensatethe investor for the risk of call.Choice (i) is wrong because, although the owner of a callablebond receives a premium plus the principal in the event of a call,the interest rate at which he can reinvest will be low. The lowinterest rate that makes it profitable for the issuer to call thebond also makes it a bad deal f or the bond’s holder.Choice (ii) is wrong because a bond is more apt to be called wheninterest rates are low. Only if rates are low will there be aninterest saving for the issuer.c. (iii)d. (ii)。
《投资学》A卷及答案
上海金融学院2009--2010 学年度第二学期《投资学》课程A卷代码：（集中考试考试形式：闭卷考试用时: 90 分钟）考试时只能使用简单计算器(无存储功能)试题纸一、单项选择题（每题1分，共10分；在答题纸上相应位置填入正确选项前的英文字母）：1、证券持有人面临预期收益不能实现，是证券的( )特征。
A、期限性B、收益性C、流通性D、风险性2、证券交易所内证券交易的竞价原则是( )。
A、时间优先，客户优先B、价格优先，时间优先C、数量优先D、市价优先3、以追求当期高收入为基本目标，以能带来稳定收入的证券为主要投资对象的证券投资基金是（）。
A、指数基金B、成长型基金C、收入型基金D、平衡型基金4、企业对其产品的未来需求的预期相对悲观，于是决定减少投资。
这往往会造成实际利率（）A、下降B、不变C、上升D、不确定5、风险厌恶程度越强的投资者，其效用无差异曲线越（）A、平缓B、陡峭C、水平D、下倾6、零贝塔值证券的期望收益率为（）。
A、市场收益率B、零收益率C、负收益率D、无风险收益率7、收益率曲线向右下方倾斜意味着在同一时点上，长期债券收益率( )短期债券收益率。
A、高于B、等于C、低于D、不能判断是否高于8、一张5年期零息票债券的久期是( )。
A、小于5年B、多于5年C、等于5年D、等同于一张5年期10%的息票债券9、考虑单指数模型，某只股票的阿尔法为0%。
市场指数的收益率为16%。
无风险收益率为5%。
尽管没有个别风险影响股票表现，这只股票的收益率仍超出无风险收益率11%。
那么这只股票的贝塔值是多少（）A、 B、 C、 D、10、已知一张3年期零息票债券的收益率是%，第一年、第二年的远期利率分别为%和%，那么第三年的远期利率应为多少( )A、%B、%C、%D、%二、多项选择题（每题1分，共10分；在答题纸上相应位置填入正确选项前的英文字母）：1、( )是金融资产。
A、建筑物B、土地C、衍生证券D、债券2、金融期货的功能主要有( )。
投资学A卷标准答案
投资学A卷标准答案一．名词解释1.投资：个人投资者或机构投资者持有金融资产或实物资产，并获得资产所产生的与承担风险相对应的收益。
投资包含许多分类，如：实物投资和金融投资；长期投资与短期投资；直接投资与间接投资等。
2.备兑凭证：是广义的认股权证，是使得持有者能够以预定价格购买一种股票或多种股票组合的证券。
待到预定期限，投资者可根据股票当时价格来决定是否行权。
备兑权证是由相应股票对应公司之外的第三方发行的，一般是资信良好的金融机构。
发行备兑凭证是为了套现手中持有的股票或赚取备兑凭证发行溢价。
3.非系统风险：是总风险中除系统风险之外的偶发性风险，其产生的原因是由影响某只证券的独特事件所引起。
投资者可通过持有不同公司的股票，进行分散化持股来抵消非系统性风险。
4.有效组合：是一个可行的投资组合，它需要满足两个性质：一是没有其他可行的组合能以相同的风险提供更高的预期收益率；二是没有其他可行的组合能提供相同的预期收益率而表现出较小的风险，即有效组合是给定收益率下的最小方差组合或是给定方差下最高预期收益率组合。
5.分离定理：是指由于最优风险组合的存在，投资者根据自己的偏好决定应贷出或借入多少无风险证券，剩余的资金投资在最优风险组合上，这是投资者的最优选择。
最优风险组合使得投资者投资多少在风险组合上的金融决策与具体确定各风险证券的投资比例的投资决策分开。
即无论投资者的偏好如何，他在最优风险组合中各风险证券上的投资比例都相同。
二．单选1.C2.C3.B4.C5.B6.D7.A8.A9.B 10.C 11.B 12.C 13.B 14.D 15.D三．解：（1）从t=1开始每年的股息为：8.5/100=0.085 美元/股由于每年的股息固定不变，由股票的红利折现模型，知股价P0=0.085/8.5% =1美元/股（2）知t=1时发放的股息为（8.5-5）/100=0.035美元/股由于新投资，从t=2时每年的股息为（8.5+0.9）/100=0.094美元/股且从t=2时股息固定不变，由红利折现模型知：股价P0'=D1/(1+K)+D2/(1+K)2+D2/(1+K)3+...+D2/(1+K)n+...=D1/(1+K)+D2/K(1+K)=0.035/(1+8.5%)+0.094/8.5%(1+8.5%)=1.051美元/股则新的投资项目对公司股票现时（t=0）均衡价值的影响为：（P0'-P0）/P0=5.1%四．解：可知一年即期利率为7%，两年的即期利率为8%（1）该两年期的附息票债券在第一年末支付股息9元，在第二年支付股息与面值共109元。
投资学10版习题答案
CHAPTER 14: BOND PRICES AND YIELDSPROBLEM SETS1. a. Catastrophe bond—A bond that allows the issuer to transfer“catastrophe risk” from the firm to the capital markets. Investors inthese bonds receive a compensation for taking on the risk in the form ofhigher coupon rates. In the event of a catastrophe, the bondholders willreceive only part or perhaps none of the principal payment due to themat maturity. Disaster can be defined by total insured losses or by criteriasuch as wind speed in a hurricane or Richter level in an earthquake.b. Eurobond—A bond that is denominated in one currency, usually thatof the issuer, but sold in other national markets.c. Zero-coupon bond—A bond that makes no coupon payments. Investorsreceive par value at the maturity date but receive no interest paymentsuntil then. These bonds are issued at prices below par value, and theinvestor’s return comes from the difference between issue price and thepayment of par value at maturity (capital gain).d. Samurai bond—Yen-dominated bonds sold in Japan by non-Japaneseissuers.e. Junk bond—A bond with a low credit rating due to its high default risk;also known as high-yield bonds.f. Convertible bond—A bond that gives the bondholders an option toexchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock ofthe firm.g. Serial bonds—Bonds issued with staggered maturity dates. As bondsmature sequentially, the principal repayment burden for the firm isspread over time.h. Equipment obligation bond—A collateralized bond for which thecollateral is equipment owned by the firm. If the firm defaults on thebond, the bondholders would receive the equipment.i. Original issue discount bond—A bond issued at a discount to the facevalue.j. Indexed bond— A bond that makes payments that are tied to ageneral price index or the price of a particular commodity.k. Callable bond—A bond that gives the issuer the option to repurchase the bond at a specified call price before the maturity date.l. Puttable bond —A bond that gives the bondholder the option to sell back the bond at a specified put price before the maturity date.2. The bond callable at 105 should sell at a lower price because the call provision is more valuable to the firm. Therefore, its yield to maturity should be higher.3.Zero coupon bonds provide no coupons to be reinvested. Therefore, the investor's proceeds from the bond are independent of the rate at which coupons could be reinvested (if they were paid). There is no reinvestment rate uncertainty with zeros.4.A bond’s coupon interest payments and principal repayment are not affected by changes in market rates. Consequently, if market ratesincrease, bond investors in the secondary markets are not willing to pay as much for a claim on a gi ven bond’s fixed interest and principalpayments as they would if market rates were lower. This relationship is apparent from the inverse relationship between interest rates and present value. An increase in the discount rate (i.e., the market rate. decreases the present value of the future cash flows. 5. Annual coupon rate: 4.80% $48 Coupon paymentsCurrent yield:$48 4.95%$970⎛⎫= ⎪⎝⎭6. a.Effective annual rate for 3-month T-bill:%0.10100.0102412.11645,97000,10044==-=-⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛b. Effective annual interest rate for coupon bond paying 5% semiannually:(1.05.2—1 = 0.1025 or 10.25%Therefore the coupon bond has the higher effective annual interest rate. 7.The effective annual yield on the semiannual coupon bonds is 8.16%. If the annual coupon bonds are to sell at par they must offer the same yield, which requires an annual coupon rate of 8.16%.8. The bond price will be lower. As time passes, the bond price, which isnow above par value, will approach par.9. Yield to maturity: Using a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 3; PV = -953.10; FV = 1000; PMT = 80; COMP iThis results in: YTM = 9.88%Realized compound yield: First, find the future value (FV. of reinvestedcoupons and principal:FV = ($80 * 1.10 *1.12. + ($80 * 1.12. + $1,080 = $1,268.16Then find the rate (y realized . that makes the FV of the purchase price equal to $1,268.16:$953.10 ⨯ (1 + y realized .3 = $1,268.16 ⇒y realized = 9.99% or approximately 10% Using a financial calculator, enter the following: N = 3; PV = -953.10; FV =1,268.16; PMT = 0; COMP I. Answer is 9.99%.10.a. Zero coupon 8%10% couponcouponCurrent prices $463.19 $1,000.00 $1,134.20b. Price 1 year from now $500.25 $1,000.00 $1,124.94Price increase $ 37.06 $ 0.00 − $ 9.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 37.06 $ 80.00 $ 90.74Pretax rate of return 8.00% 8.00% 8.00%Taxes* $ 11.12 $ 24.00 $ 28.15After-tax income $ 25.94 $ 56.00 $ 62.59After-tax rate of return 5.60% 5.60% 5.52%c. Price 1 year from now $543.93 $1,065.15 $1,195.46Price increase $ 80.74 $ 65.15 $ 61.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 80.74 $145.15 $161.26Pretax rate of return 17.43% 14.52% 14.22%Taxes†$ 19.86 $ 37.03 $ 42.25After-tax income $ 60.88 $108.12 $119.01After-tax rate of return 13.14% 10.81% 10.49%* In computing taxes, we assume that the 10% coupon bond was issued at par and that the decrease in price when the bond is sold at year-end is treated as a capital loss and therefore is not treated as an offset to ordinary income.† In computing taxes for the zero coupon bond, $37.06 is taxed as ordinary income (see part (b); the remainder of the price increase is taxed as a capital gain.11. a. On a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 40; FV = 1000; PV = –950; PMT = 40You will find that the yield to maturity on a semiannual basis is 4.26%.This implies a bond equivalent yield to maturity equal to: 4.26% * 2 =8.52%Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0426)2– 1 = 0.0870 = 8.70%b. Since the bond is selling at par, the yield to maturity on a semiannualbasis is the same as the semiannual coupon rate, i.e., 4%. The bondequivalent yield to maturity is 8%.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.04)2– 1 = 0.0816 = 8.16%c. Keeping other inputs unchanged but setting PV = –1050, we find abond equivalent yield to maturity of 7.52%, or 3.76% on a semiannualbasis.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0376)2– 1 = 0.0766 = 7.66%12. Since the bond payments are now made annually instead of semiannually,the bond equivalent yield to maturity is the same as the effective annual yield to maturity. [On a financial calculator, n = 20; FV = 1000; PV = –price; PMT = 80]The resulting yields for the three bonds are:Bond Price Bond Equivalent Yield= Effective Annual Yield$950 8.53%1,000 8.001,050 7.51The yields computed in this case are lower than the yields calculatedwith semiannual payments. All else equal, bonds with annual payments are less attractive to investors because more time elapses beforepayments are received. If the bond price is the same with annualpayments, then the bond's yield to maturity is lower.13.Price Maturity(years.BondEquivalentYTM$400.00 20.00 4.688% 500.00 20.00 3.526 500.00 10.00 7.177385.54 10.00 10.000 463.19 10.00 8.000 400.00 11.91 8.00014. a. The bond pays $50 every 6 months. The current price is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 6)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 6)] = $1,052.42 Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 6. Solve for PV = $1,052.42.If the market interest rate remains 4% per half year, price six months from now is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 5)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 5)] = $1,044.52Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 5. Solve for PV = $1,044.52.b. Rate of return $50($1,044.52$1,052.42)$50$7.904.0%$1,052.42$1,052.42+--===15.The reported bond price is: $1,001.250However, 15 days have passed since the last semiannual coupon was paid, so:Accrued interest = $35 * (15/182) = $2.885The invoice price is the reported price plus accrued interest: $1,004.1416. If the yield to maturity is greater than the current yield, then the bond offers the prospect of price appreciation as it approaches its maturity date. Therefore, the bond must be selling below par value.17. The coupon rate is less than 9%. If coupon divided by price equals 9%, and price is less than par, then price divided by par is less than 9%.18.Time Inflation in YearJust EndedPar Value Coupon Payment Principal Repayment 0 $1,000.001 2% 1,020.00 $40.80 $ 0.002 3% $1,050.60 $42.02 $ 0.00 31%$1,061.11$42.44$1,061.11The nominal rate of return and real rate of return on the bond in each year are computed as follows:Nominal rate of return = interest + price appreciationinitial priceReal rate of return = 1 + nominal return1 + inflation - 1Second YearThird YearNominal return 071196.0020,1$60.30$02.42$=+050400.060.050,1$51.10$44.42$=+Real return%0.4040.0103.1071196.1==- %0.4040.0101.1050400.1==- The real rate of return in each year is precisely the 4% real yield on the bond.19.The price schedule is as follows: Year Remaining Maturity (T).Constant Yield Value $1,000/(1.08)TImputed Interest (increase inconstant yield value)0 (now) 20 years$214.551 19 231.71 $17.162 18 250.25 18.54 19 1 925.93 201,000.0074.0720.The bond is issued at a price of $800. Therefore, its yield to maturity is: 6.8245%Therefore, using the constant yield method, we find that the price in one year (when maturity falls to 9 years) will be (at an unchanged yield. $814.60, representing an increase of $14.60. Total taxable income is: $40.00 + $14.60 = $54.6021. a. The bond sells for $1,124.72 based on the 3.5% yield to maturity .[n = 60; i = 3.5; FV = 1000; PMT = 40]Therefore, yield to call is 3.368% semiannually, 6.736% annually. [n = 10 semiannual periods; PV = –1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]b. If the call price were $1,050, we would set FV = 1,050 and redo part (a) to find that yield to call is 2.976% semiannually, 5.952% annually. With a lower call price, the yield to call is lower.c. Yield to call is 3.031% semiannually, 6.062% annually. [n = 4; PV = −1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]22. The stated yield to maturity, based on promised payments, equals 16.075%.[n = 10; PV = –900; FV = 1000; PMT = 140]Based on expected reduced coupon payments of $70 annually, theexpected yield to maturity is 8.526%.23. The bond is selling at par value. Its yield to maturity equals the couponrate, 10%. If the first-year coupon is reinvested at an interest rate of rpercent, then total proceeds at the end of the second year will be: [$100 *(1 + r)] + $1,100Therefore, realized compound yield to maturity is a function of r, as shown in the following table:8% $1,208 1208/1000 – 1 = 0.0991 = 9.91%10% $1,210 1210/1000 – 1 = 0.1000 = 10.00%12% $1,212 1212/1000 – 1 = 0.1009 = 10.09%24. April 15 is midway through the semiannual coupon period. Therefore,the invoice price will be higher than the stated ask price by an amountequal to one-half of the semiannual coupon. The ask price is 101.25percent of par, so the invoice price is:$1,012.50 + (½*$50) = $1,037.5025. Factors that might make the ABC debt more attractive to investors,therefore justifying a lower coupon rate and yield to maturity, are:i. The ABC debt is a larger issue and therefore may sell with greaterliquidity.ii. An option to extend the term from 10 years to 20 years is favorable ifinterest rates 10 years from now are lower than today’s interest rates. Incontrast, if interest rates increase, the investor can present the bond forpayment and reinvest the money for a higher return.iii. In the event of trouble, the ABC debt is a more senior claim. It hasmore underlying security in the form of a first claim against realproperty.iv. The call feature on the XYZ bonds makes the ABC bonds relativelymore attractive since ABC bonds cannot be called from the investor.v. The XYZ bond has a sinking fund requiring XYZ to retire part of theissue each year. Since most sinking funds give the firm the option toretire this amount at the lower of par or market value, the sinking fundcan be detrimental for bondholders.26. A. If an investor believes the firm’s credit prospects are poor in the nearterm and wishes to capitalize on this, the investor should buy a creditdefault swap. Although a short sale of a bond could accomplish the same objective, liquidity is often greater in the swap market than it is in theunderlying cash market. The investor could pick a swap with a maturitysimilar to the expected time horizon of the credit risk. By buying theswap, the investor would receive compensation if the bond experiencesan increase in credit risk.27. a. When credit risk increases, credit default swaps increase in valuebecause the protection they provide is more valuable. Credit defaultswaps do not provide protection against interest rate risk however.28. a. An increase in the firm’s times interest-earned ratio decreases thedefault risk of the firm→increases the bond’s price → decreases the YTM.b. An increase in the issuing firm’s debt-equity ratio increases thedefault risk of the firm → decreases the bond’s price → increases YTM.c. An increase in the issuing firm’s quick ratio increases short-runliquidity, → implying a decrease in default risk of the firm → increasesthe bond’s price → decreases YTM.29. a. The floating rate note pays a coupon that adjusts to market levels.Therefore, it will not experience dramatic price changes as marketyields fluctuate. The fixed rate note will therefore have a greater pricerange.b. Floating rate notes may not sell at par for any of several reasons:(i) The yield spread between one-year Treasury bills and othermoney market instruments of comparable maturity could be wider(or narrower. than when the bond was issued.(ii) The credit standing of the firm may have eroded (or improved.relative to Treasury securities, which have no credit risk.Therefore, the 2% premium would become insufficient to sustainthe issue at par.(iii) The coupon increases are implemented with a lag, i.e., onceevery year. During a period of changing interest rates, even thisbrief lag will be reflected in the price of the security.c. The risk of call is low. Because the bond will almost surely not sell for much above par value (given its adjustable coupon rate), it is unlikely that the bond will ever be called.d. The fixed-rate note currently sells at only 88% of the call price, so that yield to maturity is greater than the coupon rate. Call risk iscurrently low, since yields would need to fall substantially for the firm to use its option to call the bond.e. The 9% coupon notes currently have a remaining maturity of 15 years and sell at a yield to maturity of 9.9%. This is the coupon rate thatwould be needed for a newly issued 15-year maturity bond to sell at par.f. Because the floating rate note pays a variable stream of interestpayments to maturity, the effective maturity for comparative purposes with other debt securities is closer to the next coupon reset date than the final maturity date. Therefore, yield-to-maturity is anindeterminable calculation for a floating rate note, with “yield -to-recoupon date” a more meaningful measure of return.30. a. The yield to maturity on the par bond equals its coupon rate, 8.75%.All else equal, the 4% coupon bond would be more attractive because its coupon rate is far below current market yields, and its price is far below the call price. Therefore, if yields fall, capital gains on the bond will not be limited by the call price. In contrast, the 8¾% coupon bond canincrease in value to at most $1,050, offering a maximum possible gain of only 0.5%. The disadvantage of the 8¾% coupon bond, in terms ofvulnerability to being called, shows up in its higher promised yield to maturity.b. If an investor expects yields to fall substantially, the 4% bond offers a greater expected return.c. Implicit call protection is offered in the sense that any likely fallin yields would not be nearly enough to make the firm considercalling the bond. In this sense, the call feature is almost irrelevant.31. a. Initial price P 0 = $705.46 [n = 20; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 8]Next year's price P 1 = $793.29 [n = 19; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 7] HPR %54.191954.046.705$)46.705$29.793($50$==-+=b. Using OID tax rules, the cost basis and imputed interest under theconstant yield method are obtained by discounting bond payments at the original 8% yield and simply reducing maturity by one year at a time: Constant yield prices (compare these to actual prices to compute capital gains.: P 0 = $705.46P 1 = $711.89 ⇒ implicit interest over first year = $6.43P 2 = $718.84 ⇒ implicit interest over second year = $6.95Tax on explicit interest plus implicit interest in first year =0.40*($50 + $6.43) = $22.57Capital gain in first year = Actual price at 7% YTM —constant yield price =$793.29—$711.89 = $81.40Tax on capital gain = 0.30*$81.40 = $24.42Total taxes = $22.57 + $24.42 = $46.99c. After tax HPR =%88.121288.046.705$99.46$)46.705$29.793($50$==--+d. Value of bond after two years = $798.82 [using n = 18; i = 7%; PMT = $50; FV = $1,000]Reinvested income from the coupon interest payments = $50*1.03 + $50 = $101.50Total funds after two years = $798.82 + $101.50 = $900.32Therefore, the investment of $705.46 grows to $900.32 in two years:$705.46 (1 + r )2 = $900.32 ⇒ r = 0.1297 = 12.97%e. Coupon interest received in first year: $50.00Less: tax on coupon interest 40%: – 20.00Less: tax on imputed interest (0.40*$6.43): – 2.57Net cash flow in first year: $27.43The year-1 cash flow can be invested at an after-tax rate of:3% × (1 – 0.40) = 1.8%By year 2, this investment will grow to: $27.43 × 1.018 = $27.92In two years, sell the bond for: $798.82 [n = 18; i = 7%%; PMT =$50; FV = $1,000]Less: tax on imputed interest in second year:– 2.78 [0.40 × $6.95] Add: after-tax coupon interest received in second year: + 30.00 [$50 × (1 – 0.40)]Less: Capital gains tax on(sales price – constant yield value): – 23.99 [0.30 × (798.82 – 718.84)] Add: CF from first year's coupon (reinvested):+ 27.92 [from above]Total $829.97$705.46 (1 + r)2 = $829.97 r = 0.0847 = 8.47%CFA PROBLEMS1. a. A sinking fund provision requires the early redemption of a bond issue.The provision may be for a specific number of bonds or a percentage ofthe bond issue over a specified time period. The sinking fund can retireall or a portion of an issue over the life of the issue.b. (i) Compared to a bond without a sinking fund, the sinking fundreduces the average life of the overall issue because some of thebonds are retired prior to the stated maturity.(ii) The company will make the same total principal payments overthe life of the issue, although the timing of these payments will beaffected. The total interest payments associated with the issue willbe reduced given the early redemption of principal.c. From the investor’s point of view, the key reason for demanding asinking fund is to reduce credit risk. Default risk is reduced by theorderly retirement of the issue.2. a. (i) Current yield = Coupon/Price = $70/$960 = 0.0729 = 7.29%(ii) YTM = 3.993% semiannually, or 7.986% annual bond equivalent yield.On a financial calculator, enter: n = 10; PV = –960; FV = 1000; PMT = 35Compute the interest rate.(iii) Realized compound yield is 4.166% (semiannually), or 8.332% annualbond equivalent yield. To obtain this value, first find the future value(FV) of reinvested coupons and principal. There will be six payments of$35 each, reinvested semiannually at 3% per period. On a financialcalculator, enter:PV = 0; PMT = 35; n = 6; i = 3%. Compute: FV = 226.39Three years from now, the bond will be selling at the par value of $1,000because the yield to maturity is forecast to equal the coupon rate.Therefore, total proceeds in three years will be: $226.39 + $1,000 =$1,226.39Then find the rate (y realized. that makes the FV of the purchaseprice equal to $1,226.39:$960 × (1 + y realized.6 = $1,226.39 y realized = 4.166% (semiannual.Alternatively, PV = −$960; FV = $1,226.39; N = 6; PMT = $0. Solve for I =4.16%.b. Shortcomings of each measure:(i) Current yield does not account for capital gains or losses on bondsbought at prices other than par value. It also does not account forreinvestment income on coupon payments.(ii) Yield to maturity assumes the bond is held until maturity and that all coupon income can be reinvested at a rate equal to the yield to maturity.(iii) Realized compound yield is affected by the forecast ofreinvestment rates, holding period, and yield of the bond at the endof the investor's holding period.3. a. The maturity of each bond is 10 years, and we assume that couponsare paid semiannually. Since both bonds are selling at par value, thecurrent yield for each bond is equal to its coupon rate.If the yield declines by 1% to 5% (2.5% semiannual yield., the Sentinalbond will increase in value to $107.79 [n=20; i = 2.5%; FV = 100; PMT = 3].The price of the Colina bond will increase, but only to the call price of102. The present value of scheduled payments is greater than 102, butthe call price puts a ceiling on the actual bond price.b. If rates are expected to fall, the Sentinal bond is more attractive:since it is not subject to call, its potential capital gains are greater.If rates are expected to rise, Colina is a relatively better investment. Itshigher coupon (which presumably is compensation to investors for thecall feature of the bond. will provide a higher rate of return than theSentinal bond.c. An increase in the volatility of rates will increase the value of thefirm’s option to call back the Colina bond. If rates go down, the firm can call the bond, which puts a cap on possible capital gains. So, greatervolatility makes the option to call back the bond more valuable to theissuer. This makes the bond less attractive to the investor.4. Market conversion value = Value if converted into stock = 20.83 × $28 =$583.24Conversion premium = Bond price – Market conversion value= $775.00 – $583.24 = $191.765. a. The call feature requires the firm to offer a higher coupon (or higherpromised yield to maturity) on the bond in order to compensate theinvestor for the firm's option to call back the bond at a specified priceif interest rate falls sufficiently. Investors are willing to grant thisvaluable option to the issuer, but only for a price that reflects thepossibility that the bond will be called. That price is the higherpromised yield at which they are willing to buy the bond.b. The call feature reduces the expected life of the bond. If interestrates fall substantially so that the likelihood of a call increases,investors will treat the bond as if it will "mature" and be paid off at thecall date, not at the stated maturity date. On the other hand, if ratesrise, the bond must be paid off at the maturity date, not later. Thisasymmetry means that the expected life of the bond is less than thestated maturity.c. The advantage of a callable bond is the higher coupon (and higherpromised yield to maturity) when the bond is issued. If the bond is never called, then an investor earns a higher realized compound yield on acallable bond issued at par than a noncallable bond issued at par on the same date. The disadvantage of the callable bond is the risk of call. Ifrates fall and the bond is called, then the investor receives the call price and then has to reinvest the proceeds at interest rates that are lowerthan the yield to maturity at which the bond originally was issued. Inthis event, the firm's savings in interest payments is the investor's loss.6. a. (iii)b. (iii) The yield to maturity on the callable bond must compensatethe investor for the risk of call.Choice (i) is wrong because, although the owner of a callablebond receives a premium plus the principal in the event of a call,the interest rate at which he can reinvest will be low. The lowinterest rate that makes it profitable for the issuer to call thebond also makes it a bad deal f or the bond’s holder.Choice (ii) is wrong because a bond is more apt to be called wheninterest rates are low. Only if rates are low will there be aninterest saving for the issuer.c. (iii)d. (ii)。
《投资学》模拟试卷参考答案
厦门大学网络教育2010-2011学年第一学期《投资学》课程模拟试卷（A）卷参考答案一、单项选择题（每小题1分，共10分）1、B解析：如果附加的风险可以得到补偿，那么风险厌恶者愿意承担风险。
风险资产组合回报率= 1 2%×0 . 4 + 2%×0 . 6 = 6%(没有风险溢价)2、B解析：市场风险、系统风险和可分散化的风险含义相同，是指不能通过分散化资产组合消除掉的风险。
个别风险、非系统风险和不可分散化的风险含义相同，是指能够通过分散化资产组合消除掉的风险。
3、C解析：有风险证券组合的方差是其中单个证券方差和它们之间协方差的加权和。
4、C解析：证券收益的相关性越低，资产组合的风险减少得越多。
5、B解析：对一个充分分散化的资产组合，唯一剩余的风险就是系统风险，用贝塔来测度。
6、A解析：对一个充分分散化的资产组合，唯一剩余的风险就是系统风险，根据C A P M模型，这也是唯一影响收益的因素。
7、D解析：E(R) = 6%+ 1.2 ( 12-6 )%= 13.2%8、B解析：在有效市场的强式条件下，股价及时反映全部市场信息，包括内部信息。
9、D10、B解析：利率的期限结构是两个变量—年份和到期收益率(假定其他因素不变)之间的关系。
二、计算题（每小题15分，共45分）1、 如果r f ＝6%，E(r M )＝1 4%，E(r P )＝1 8%的资产组合的β 值等于多少？ 答案：E(r P ) =r f +β [E(r M )- r f ]18 =6 + β (14-6 )β= 1 2 / 8 = 1 .52、 近日，计算机类股票的期望收益率是1 6%，M B I 这一大型计算机公司即将支付年末每股2美元的分红。
如果M B I 公司的股票每股售价为5 0美元，求其红利的市场期望增长率。
如果预计M B I 公司的红利年增长率下降到每年5%，其股价如何变化？定性分析该公司的市盈率。
答案：（1）k=D 1/P 0+g0.1 6 = 2 / 5 0 +g g= 0。
Dislfe2010证券投资学练习题及答案
生命是永恒不断的创造，因为在它内部蕴含着过剩的精力，它不断流溢，越出时间和空间的界限，它不停地追求，以形形色色的自我表现的形式表现出来。
－－泰戈尔证券投资学练习题一、单项选择题1、证券投资是指投资者购买（D）以获得红利、利息及资本利得的投资行为和投资过程。
A.基金券B.股票C.股票及债券D.有价证券及其衍生产品2、证券投资的目的是（C）A.证券流动性最大化与风险最小化B.证券投资价值区域化C.证券投资净效用最大化D.证券投资预期收益与风险固定化3、下列哪一种分析方法是从经济学、金融学、财务管理学及投资学等基本原理推导出来的。
（A）A.基本分析B.技术分析C.市场分析D.学术分析4、基本分析的理论基础是（C）A.博弈论B.市场的行为包含一切信息、价格沿趋势移动、历史会重复C.经济学、金融学、财务管理学及投资学等基本原理D.任何金融资产的真实价值等于这项资产的所有者的预期现金流的现值5、“市场永远是对的”是哪一个投资分析流派的观点？（B）A.基本分析流派B.技术分析流派C.心理分析流派D.学术分析流派6、下面哪种分析不属于技术分析（D）A.切线理论B.波浪理论C.循环周期理论D.财务指标理论7、直接监督管理我国证券期货市场的政府部门是下列哪个部门，其主要负责制定证券期货市场的方针政策、发展规划，起草证券期货市场的有关法律、法规，制定证券期货市场的有关规章，依法对证券期货市场上的违法违规行为进行调查、处罚，对证券经营机构及证券市场进行监管事宜。
（B）A.中国人民银行B.中国证监会C.中国保监会D.中国期货业协会8、购买平价发行的每年付息一次的债券，其到期收益率和票面利率的关系（C ）A．前者大于后者 B.后者大于前者 C.两者相等 D.两者无关9、下列关于封闭式基金的说法错误的是( D )A．封闭式基金的价格和股票的价格一样，可以分为发行价格和交易价格B．.确定基金价格最根本的依据是每基金单位资产净值及其变动情况C．封闭式基金的交易价格主要受到基金资产净值等因素的影响D．封闭式基金经常不断地按客户要求购回或者卖出基金单位。
(完整版)投资学第10版习题答案09
CHAPTER 9: THE CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODELPROBLEM SETS1.2.If the security’s correlation coefficient with the market portfolio doubles (with all other variables such as variances unchanged), then beta, and therefore the risk premium, will also double. The current risk premium is: 14% – 6% = 8%The new risk premium would be 16%, and the new discount rate for the security would be: 16% + 6% = 22%If the stock pays a constant perpetual dividend, then we know from the original data that the dividend (D) must satisfy the equation for the present value of a perpetuity:Price = Dividend/Discount rate50 = D /0.14 ⇒ D = 50 ⨯ 0.14 = $7.00At the new discount rate of 22%, the stock would be worth: $7/0.22 = $31.82The increase in stock risk has lowered its value by 36.36%.3. a.False. β = 0 implies E (r ) = r f , not zero.b.False. Investors require a risk premium only for bearing systematic(undiversifiable or market) risk. Total volatility, as measured by the standarddeviation, includes diversifiable risk.c.False. Your portfolio should be invested 75% in the market portfolio and 25% in T-bills. Then:β(0.751)(0.250)0.75P =⨯+⨯=4.The expected return is the return predicted by the CAPM for a given level ofsystematic risk.$1$5()β[()]().04 1.5(.10.04).13,or 13%().04 1.0(.10.04).10,or 10%i f i M f Discount Everything E r r E r r E r E r =+⨯-=+⨯-==+⨯-=()β[()].12.18.06β[.14.06]β 1.5.08P f P M f P P E r r E r r =+⨯-=+⨯-→==5.According to the CAPM, $1 Discount Stores requires a return of 13% based on its systematic risk level of β = 1.5. However, the forecasted return is only 12%. Therefore, the security is currently overvalued.Everything $5 requires a return of 10% based on its systematic risk level of β = 1.0. However, the forecasted return is 11%. Therefore, the security is currently undervalued.6.Correct answer is choice a. The expected return of a stock with a β = 1.0 must, onaverage, be the same as the expected return of the market which also has a β = 1.0.7.Correct answer is choice a. Beta is a measure of systematic risk. Since onlysystematic risk is rewarded, it is safe to conclude that the expected return will be higher for Kaskin’s stock than for Quinn’s stock.8.The appropriate discount rate for the project is:r f + β × [E (r M ) – r f ] = .08 + [1.8 ⨯ (.16 – .08)] = .224, or 22.4%Using this discount rate:Annuity factor (22.4%, 10 years)] = $18.09101$15NPV $40$40[$151.224t t ==-+=-+⨯∑The internal rate of return (IRR) for the project is 35.73%. Recall from your introductory finance class that NPV is positive if IRR > discount rate (or, equivalently, hurdle rate). The highest value that beta can take before the hurdle rate exceeds the IRR is determined by:.3573 = .08 + β × (.16 – .08) ⇒ β = .2773/.08 = 3.479. a.Call the aggressive stock A and the defensive stock D. Beta is the sensitivityof the stock’s return to the market return, i.e., the change in the stock returnper unit change in the market return. Therefore, we compute each stock’s betaby calculating the difference in its return across the two scenarios divided by the difference in the market return:.02.38.06.12β 2.00β0.30.05.25.05.25A D ---====--b.With the two scenarios equally likely, the expected return is an average of thetwo possible outcomes:E (r A ) = 0.5 ⨯ (–.02 + .38) = .18 = 18%E (r D ) = 0.5 ⨯ (.06 + .12) = .09 = 9%c.The SML is determined by the market expected return of [0.5 × (.25 + .05)] = 15%, with βM = 1, and r f = 6% (which has βf =0). See the following graph:The equation for the security market line is:E (r ) = .06 + β × (.15 – .06)d.Based on its risk, the aggressive stock has a required expected return of:E (r A ) = .06 + 2.0 × (.15 – .06) = .24 = 24%The analyst’s forecast of expected return is only 18%. Thus the stock’s alpha is:αA = actually expected return – required return (given risk)= 18% – 24% = –6%Similarly, the required return for the defensive stock is:E (r D ) = .06 + 0.3 × (.15 – .06) = 8.7%The analyst’s forecast of expected return for D is 9%, and hence, the stock has a positive alpha:αD = Actually expected return – Required return (given risk)= .09 – .087 = +0.003 = +0.3%The points for each stock plot on the graph as indicated above.e.The hurdle rate is determined by the project beta (0.3), not the firm’s beta. The correct discount rate is 8.7%, the fair rate of return for stock D.10.Not possible. Portfolio A has a higher beta than Portfolio B, but the expected returnfor Portfolio A is lower than the expected return for Portfolio B. Thus, these two portfolios cannot exist in equilibrium.11.Possible. If the CAPM is valid, the expected rate of return compensates only for systematic (market) risk, represented by beta, rather than for the standard deviation, which includes nonsystematic risk. Thus, Portfolio A’s lower rate of return can be paired with a higher standard deviation, as long as A’s beta is less than B’s.12.Not possible. The reward-to-variability ratio for Portfolio A is better than that of the market. This scenario is impossible according to the CAPM because the CAPM predicts that the market is the most efficient portfolio. Using the numbers supplied:.16.10.18.100.50.33.12.24A M S S --====Portfolio A provides a better risk-reward trade-off than the market portfolio.13.Not possible. Portfolio A clearly dominates the market portfolio. Portfolio A hasboth a lower standard deviation and a higher expected return.14.Not possible. The SML for this scenario is: E(r ) = 10 + β × (18 – 10)Portfolios with beta equal to 1.5 have an expected return equal to:E (r ) = 10 + [1.5 × (18 – 10)] = 22%The expected return for Portfolio A is 16%; that is, Portfolio A plots below the SML (α A = –6%) and, hence, is an overpriced portfolio. This is inconsistent with the CAPM.15.Not possible. The SML is the same as in Problem 14. Here, Portfolio A’s required return is: .10 + (.9 × .08) = 17.2%This is greater than 16%. Portfolio A is overpriced with a negative alpha:α A = –1.2%16.Possible. The CML is the same as in Problem 12. Portfolio A plots below the CML, as any asset is expected to. This scenario is not inconsistent with the CAPM.17.Since the stock’s beta is equal to 1.2, its expected rate of return is:.06 + [1.2 ⨯ (.16 – .06)] = 18%110110$50$6()0.18$53$50D P P PE r P P -+-+=→=→=18.The series of $1,000 payments is a perpetuity. If beta is 0.5, the cash flow should be discounted at the rate:.06 + [0.5 × (.16 – .06)] = .11 = 11%PV = $1,000/0.11 = $9,090.91If, however, beta is equal to 1, then the investment should yield 16%, and the price paid for the firm should be:PV = $1,000/0.16 = $6,250The difference, $2,840.91, is the amount you will overpay if you erroneously assume that beta is 0.5 rather than 1.ing the SML: .04 = .06 + β × (.16 – .06) ⇒ β = –.02/.10 = –0.220.r 1 = 19%; r 2 = 16%; β1 = 1.5; β2 = 1a.To determine which investor was a better selector of individual stocks we look at abnormal return, which is the ex-post alpha; that is, the abnormal return is the difference between the actual return and that predicted by the SML. Without information about the parameters of this equation (risk-free rate and market rate of return) we cannot determine which investor was more accurate.b.If r f = 6% and r M = 14%, then (using the notation alpha for the abnormal return):α1 = .19 – [.06 + 1.5 × (.14 – .06)] = .19 – .18 = 1%α 2 = .16 – [.06 + 1 × (.14 – .06)] = .16 – .14 = 2%Here, the second investor has the larger abnormal return and thus appears to be the superior stock selector. By making better predictions, the secondinvestor appears to have tilted his portfolio toward underpriced stocks.c.If r f = 3% and r M = 15%, then:α1 = .19 – [.03 + 1.5 × (.15 – .03)] = .19 – .21 = –2%α2 = .16 – [.03+ 1 × (.15 – .03)] = .16 – .15 = 1%Here, not only does the second investor appear to be the superior stock selector, but the first investor’s predictions appear valueless (or worse).21. a.Since the market portfolio, by definition, has a beta of 1, its expected rate of return is 12%.b.β = 0 means no systematic risk. Hence, the stock’s expected rate of return in market equilibrium is the risk-free rate, 5%ing the SML, the fair expected rate of return for a stock with β = –0.5 is:()0.05[(0.5)(0.120.05)] 1.5%E r =+-⨯-=The actually expected rate of return, using the expected price and dividend for next year is:$41$3()10.1010%$40E r +=-==Because the actually expected return exceeds the fair return, the stock is underpriced.22.In the zero-beta CAPM the zero-beta portfolio replaces the risk-free rate, and thus:E (r ) = 8 + 0.6(17 – 8) = 13.4%23. a.E (r P ) = r f + βP × [E (r M ) – r f ] = 5% + 0.8 (15% − 5%) = 13%α = 14% - 13% = 1%You should invest in this fund because alpha is positive.b.The passive portfolio with the same beta as the fund should be invested 80% in the market-index portfolio and 20% in the money market account. For this portfolio:E (r P ) = (0.8 × 15%) + (0.2 × 5%) = 13%14% − 13% = 1% = α24. a.We would incorporate liquidity into the CCAPM in a manner analogous to theway in which liquidity is incorporated into the conventional CAPM. In thelatter case, in addition to the market risk premium, expected return is alsodependent on the expected cost of illiquidity and three liquidity-related betaswhich measure the sensitivity of: (1) the security’s illiquidity to marketilliquidity; (2) the security’s return to market illiquidity; and, (3) the security’silliquidity to the market return. A similar approach can be used for theCCAPM, except that the liquidity betas would be measured relative toconsumption growth rather than the usual market index.b.As in part (a), nontraded assets would be incorporated into the CCAPM in afashion similar to part (a). Replace the market portfolio with consumptiongrowth. The issue of liquidity is more acute with nontraded assets such asprivately held businesses and labor income.While ownership of a privately held business is analogous to ownership of anilliquid stock, expect a greater degree of illiquidity for the typical privatebusiness. If the owner of a privately held business is satisfied with thedividends paid out from the business, then the lack of liquidity is not an issue.If the owner seeks to realize income greater than the business can pay out,then selling ownership, in full or part, typically entails a substantial liquiditydiscount. The illiquidity correction should be treated as suggested in part (a).The same general considerations apply to labor income, although it is probablethat the lack of liquidity for labor income has an even greater impact onsecurity market equilibrium values. Labor income has a major impact onportfolio decisions. While it is possible to borrow against labor income tosome degree, and some of the risk associated with labor income can beameliorated with insurance, it is plausible that the liquidity betas ofconsumption streams are quite significant, as the need to borrow against laborincome is likely cyclical.CFA PROBLEMS1. a.Agree; Regan’s conclusion is correct. By definition, the market portfolio lies onthe capital market line (CML). Under the assumptions of capital market theory, allportfolios on the CML dominate, in a risk-return sense, portfolios that lie on theMarkowitz efficient frontier because, given that leverage is allowed, the CMLcreates a portfolio possibility line that is higher than all points on the efficientfrontier except for the market portfolio, which is Rainbow’s portfolio. BecauseEagle’s portfolio lies on the Markowitz efficient frontier at a point other than themarket portfolio, Rainbow’s portfolio dominates Eagle’s portfolio.b.Nonsystematic risk is the unique risk of individual stocks in a portfolio that isdiversified away by holding a well-diversified portfolio. Total risk is composed ofsystematic (market) risk and nonsystematic (firm-specific) risk.Disagree; Wilson’s remark is incorrect. Because both portfolios lie on theMarkowitz efficient frontier, neither Eagle nor Rainbow has any nonsystematicrisk. Therefore, nonsystematic risk does not explain the different expected returns.The determining factor is that Rainbow lies on the (straight) line (the CML)connecting the risk-free asset and the market portfolio (Rainbow), at the point oftangency to the Markowitz efficient frontier having the highest return per unit ofrisk. Wilson’s remark is also countered by the fact that, since nonsystematic riskcan be eliminated by diversification, the expected return for bearingnonsystematic risk is zero. This is a result of the fact that well-diversifiedinvestors bid up the price of every asset to the point where only systematic riskearns a positive return (nonsystematic risk earns no return).2.E(r) = r f + β × [E(r M) −r f]Furhman Labs: E(r) = .05 + 1.5 × [.115 − .05] = 14.75%Garten Testing: E(r) = .05 + 0.8 × [.115 − .05] = 10.20%If the forecast rate of return is less than (greater than) the required rate of return,then the security is overvalued (undervalued).Furhman Labs: Forecast return – Required return = 13.25% − 14.75% = −1.50%Garten Testing: Forecast return – Required return = 11.25% − 10.20% = 1.05%Therefore, Furhman Labs is overvalued and Garten Testing is undervalued.3. a.4. d.From CAPM, the fair expected return = 8 + 1.25 × (15 - 8) = 16.75%Actually expected return = 17%α = 17 - 16.75 = 0.25%5. d.6. c.7. d.8. d.[You need to know the risk-free rate]9. d.[You need to know the risk-free rate]10.Under the CAPM, the only risk that investors are compensated for bearing is therisk that cannot be diversified away (systematic risk). Because systematic risk(measured by beta) is equal to 1.0 for both portfolios, an investor would expect the same rate of return from both portfolios A and B. Moreover, since both portfolios are well diversified, it doesn’t matter if the specific risk of the individual securities is high or low. The firm-specific risk has been diversified away for both portfolios.11. a.McKay should borrow funds and invest those funds proportionately inMurray’s existing portfolio (i.e., buy more risky assets on margin). In additionto increased expected return, the alternative portfolio on the capital marketline will also have increased risk, which is caused by the higher proportion ofrisky assets in the total portfolio.b.McKay should substitute low-beta stocks for high-beta stocks in order toreduce the overall beta of York’s portfolio. By reducing the overall portfoliobeta, McKay will reduce the systematic risk of the portfolio and, therefore,reduce its volatility relative to the market. The security market line (SML)suggests such action (i.e., moving down the SML), even though reducing betamay result in a slight loss of portfolio efficiency unless full diversification ismaintained. York’s primary objective, however, is not to maintain efficiencybut to reduce risk exposure; reducing portfolio beta meets that objective.Because York does not want to engage in borrowing or lending, McKaycannot reduce risk by selling equities and using the proceeds to buy risk-freeassets (i.e., lending part of the portfolio).12. a.Expected Return AlphaStock X5% + 0.8 × (14% - 5%) = 12.2%14.0% - 12.2% = 1.8%Stock Y5% + 1.5 × (14% - 5%) = 18.5%17.0% - 18.5% = -1.5%b.i. Kay should recommend Stock X because of its positive alpha, compared toStock Y, which has a negative alpha. In graphical terms, the expectedreturn/risk profile for Stock X plots above the security market line (SML),while the profile for Stock Y plots below the SML. Also, depending on theindividual risk preferences of Kay’s clients, the lower beta for Stock X mayhave a beneficial effect on overall portfolio risk.ii. Kay should recommend Stock Y because it has higher forecasted return andlower standard deviation than Stock X. The respective Sharpe ratios for StocksX and Y and the market index are:Stock X:(14% - 5%)/36% = 0.25Stock Y:(17% - 5%)/25% = 0.48Market index:(14% - 5%)/15% = 0.60The market index has an even more attractive Sharpe ratio than either of the individual stocks, but, given the choice between Stock X and Stock Y, Stock Y is the superior alternative.When a stock is held as a single stock portfolio, standard deviation is the relevant risk measure. For such a portfolio, beta as a risk measure is irrelevant. Although holding a single asset is not a typically recommended investment strategy, some investors may hold what is essentially a single-asset portfolio when they hold the stock of their employer company. For such investors, the relevance of standard deviation versus beta is an important issue.。
投资学10版习题答案11
CHAPTER 11: THE EFFICIENT MARKET HYPOTHESIS PROBLEM SETS1. The correlation coefficient between stock returns for two nonoverlapping periodsshould be zero. If not, returns from one period could be used to predict returns in later periods and make abnormal profits.2. No. Microsoft’s continuing profitability does not imply that stock market investorswho purchased Microsoft shares after its success was already evident would have earned an exceptionally high return on their investments. It simply means thatMicrosoft has made risky investments over the years that have paid off in the form of increased cash flows and profitability. Microsoft shareholders have benefitedfrom the risk-expected return tradeoff, which is consistent with the EMH.3. Expected rates of return differ because of differential risk premiums across allsecurities.4. No. The value of dividend predictability would be already reflected in thestock price.5. No, markets can be efficient even if some investors earn returns above the marketaverage. Consider the Lucky Event issue: Ignoring transaction costs, about 50% of professional investors, by definition, will “beat” the market in any given year. The probability of beating it three years in a row, though small, is not insignificant.Beating the market in the past does not predict future success as three years ofreturns make up too small a sample on which to base correlation let alone causation.6. Volatile stock prices could reflect volatile underlying economic conditions as largeamounts of information being incorporated into the price will cause variability in stock price. The efficient market hypothesis suggests that investors cannot earnexcess risk-adjusted rewards. The variability of the stock price is thus reflected in the expected returns as returns and risk are positively correlated.7. The following effects seem to suggest predictability within equity markets and thusdisprove the efficient market hypothesis. However, consider the following:a. Multiple studie s suggest that “value” stocks (measured often by low P/Emultiples) earn higher returns over time than “growth” stocks (high P/E multiples).This could suggest a strategy for earning higher returns over time. However, another rational argument may be that traditional forms of CAPM (such as Sharpe’s model) do not fully account for all risk factors that affect a firm’s price level. A firm viewed as riskier may have a lower price and thus P/E multiple.b. The book-to-market effect suggests that an investor can earn excess returns byinvesting in companies with high book value (the value of a firm’s assets minus its liabilities divided by the number of shares outstanding) to market value. A study by Fama and French1 suggests that book-to-market value reflects a risk factor that isnot accounted for by traditional one variable CAPM. For example, companiesexperiencing financial distress see the ratio of book to market value increase. Thus a more complex CAPM that includes book-to-market value as an explanatory variable should be used to test market anomalies.c. Stock price momentum can be positively correlated with past performance (shortto intermediate horizon) or negatively correlated (long horizon). Historical dataseem to imply statistical significance to these patterns. Explanations for this includea bandwagon effect or the behaviorists’ (see Chapter 12) explanation that there is atendency for investors to underreact to new information, thus producing a positive serial correlation. However, statistical significance does not imply economicsignificance. Several studies that included transaction costs in the momentummodels discovered that momentum traders tended to not outperform the efficientmarket hypothesis strategy of buy and hold.d. The small-firm effect states that smaller firms produce better returns than largerfirms. Since 1926, returns from small firms outpace large firm stock returns byabout 1% per year. Do small cap investors earn excess risk-adjusted returns?The measure of systemati c risk according to Sharpe’s CAPM is the stock’s beta (or sensitivity of returns of the stock to market returns). If the stock’s beta is the bestexplanation of risk, then the small-firm effect does indicate an inefficient market.Dividing the market into deciles based on their betas shows an increasingrelationship between betas and returns. Fama and French2 show that the empirical relationship between beta and stock returns is flat over a fairly long horizon (1963–1990). Breaking the market into deciles based on sizes and then examining therelationship between beta and stock returns within each size decile exhibits this flat relationship. This implies that firm size may be a better measure of risk than betaand the size-effect should not be viewed as an indicator that markets are inefficient.Heuristically this makes sense, as smaller firms are generally viewed as riskycompared to larger firms and perceived risk and return are positively correlated.1Fama, Eugene and Kenneth French, “Common Risk Factors in the Returns on Stocks and Bonds,” Journal of Finance 33:1, pp. 3-56.2 IbidIn addition this effect seems to be endpoint and data sensitive. For example, smaller stocks did not outperform larger stocks from the mid-1980s through the 1990s. In addition, databases contain stock returns from companies that have survived and do not include returns of those that went bankrupt. Thus small-firm data may exhibit survivorship bias.8. Over the long haul, there is an expected upward drift in stock prices based on theirfair expected rates of return. The fair expected return over any single day is verysmall (e.g., 12% per year is only about 0.03% per day), so that on any day the price is virtually equally likely to rise or fall. Over longer periods, the small expecteddaily returns accumulate, and upward moves are more likely than downward ones.Remember that economies tend to grow over time and stock prices tend to follow economic growth, so it is only natural that there is an upward drift in equity prices.9. c. This is a predictable pattern in returns that should not occur if the weak-formEMH is valid.10. a. Acute market inefficiencies are temporary in nature and are more easilyexploited than chronic inefficiencies. A temporary drop in a stock price due toa large sale would be more easily exploited than the chronic inefficienciesmentioned in the other responses.11. c. This is a classic filter rule that should not produce superior returns in anefficient market.12. b. This is the definition of an efficient market.13. a. Though stock prices follow a random walk and intraday price changes doappear to be a random walk, over the long run there is compensation forbearing market risk and for the time value of money. Investing differs from acasino in that in the long-run, an investor is compensated for these risks, whilea player at a casino faces less than fair-game odds.b. In an efficient market, any predictable future prospects of a company havealready been priced into the current value of the stock. Thus, a stock shareprice can still follow a random walk.c. While the random nature of dart board selection seems to follow naturallyfrom efficient markets, the role of rational portfolio management still exists. Itexists to ensure a well-diversified portfolio, to assess the risk-tolerance of theinvestor, and to take into account tax code issues.14. d. In a semistrong-form efficient market, it is not possible to earn abnormallyhigh profits by trading on publicly available information. Information aboutP/E ratios and recent price changes is publicly known. On the other hand, aninvestor who has advance knowledge of management improvements couldearn abnormally high trading profits (unless the market is also strong-formefficient).15. Market efficiency implies investors cannot earn excess risk-adjusted profits. If thestock price run-up occurs when only insiders know of the coming dividend increase, then it is a violation of strong-form efficiency. If the public also knows of theincrease, then this violates semistrong-form efficiency.16. While positive beta stocks respond well to favorable new information about theeconomy’s progress through the business cycle, they should not show abnormalreturns around already anticipated events. If a recovery, for example, is alreadyanticipated, the actual recovery is not news. The stock price should already reflect the coming recovery.17. a. Consistent. Based on pure luck, half of all managers should beat the marketin any year.b. Inconsistent. This would be the basis of an “easy money” rule: simply investwith last year's best managers.c. Consistent. In contrast to predictable returns, predictable volatility does notconvey a means to earn abnormal returns.d. Inconsistent. The abnormal performance ought to occur in January whenearnings are announced.e. Inconsistent. Reversals offer a means to earn easy money: just buy lastweek’s losers.18. The return on the market is 8%. Therefore, the forecast monthly return for Ford is:0.10% + (1.1 × 8%) = 8.9%Ford’s actual return was 7%, s o the abnormal return was –1.9%.19. a. Based on broad market trends, the CAPM indicates that AmbChaser stockshould have increased by: 1.0% + 2.0 × (1.5% – 1.0%) = 2.0%Its firm-specific (nonsystematic) return due to the lawsuit is $1 million per$100 million initial equity, or 1%. Therefore, the total return should be 3%. (Itis assumed here that the outcome of the lawsuit had a zero expected value.)b. If the settlement was expected to be $2 million, then the actual settlement wasa “$1 million disappointment,” and so the firm-specific return would be –1%,for a total return of 2% – 1% = 1%.20. Given market performance, predicted returns on the two stocks would be:Apex: 0.2% + (1.4 × 3%) = 4.4%Bpex: –0.1% + (0.6 × 3%) = 1.7%Apex underperformed this prediction; Bpex outperformed the prediction. Weconclude that Bpex won the lawsuit.21. a. E(r M) = 12%, r f = 4% and β = 0.5Therefore, the expected rate of return is:4% + 0.5 × (12% – 4%) = 8%If the stock is fairly priced, then E(r) = 8%.b.If r M falls short of your expectation by 2% (that is, 10% – 12%) then youwould expect the return for Changing Fortunes Industries to fall short of youroriginal expectation by: β× 2% = 1%Therefore, you would forecast a revised expectation for Changing Fortunes of:8% – 1% = 7%c. Given a market return of 10%, you would forecast a return for ChangingFortunes of 7%. The actual return is 10%. Therefore, the surprise due to firm-specific factors is 10% – 7% = 3%, which we attribute to the settlement.Because the firm is initially worth $100 million, the surprise amount of thesettlement is 3% of $100 million, or $3 million, implying that the priorexpectation for the settlement was only $2 million.22. Implicit in the dollar-cost averaging strategy is the notion that stock pricesfluctuate around a “normal” level. Otherwise, there is no meaning to statementssuch as: “when the price is high.” How do we know, for example, whether a price of $25 today will turn out to be viewed as high or low compared to the stock price six months from now?23. The market responds positively to new news. If the eventual recovery is anticipated,then the recovery is already reflected in stock prices. Only a better-than-expected recovery should affect stock prices.24. Buy. In your view, the firm is not as bad as everyone else believes it to be.Therefore, you view the firm as undervalued by the market. You are less pessimistic about the firm’s prospects than the beliefs built into the stock price.25. Here we need a two-factor model relating Ford’s return to those of both the broadmarket and the auto industry. If we call r I the industry return, then we would first estimate parameters α,β,βM INDin the following regression:FORD αββεM M IND INDr r r=+++Given these estimates we would calculate Ford’s firm-specific return as:FORD [αββε] M M IND INDr r r-+++This estimate of firm-specific n ews would measure the market’s assessment of the potential profitability of Ford’s new model.26. The market may have anticipated even greater earnings. Compared to priorexpectations, the announcement was a disappointment.27. Thinly traded stocks will not have a considerable amount of market researchperformed on the companies they represent. This neglected-firm effect implies agreater degree of uncertainty with respect to smaller companies. Thus positiveCAPM alphas among thinly traded stocks do not necessarily violate the efficientmarket hypothesis since these higher alphas are actually risk premiums, not market inefficiencies.28. The negative abnormal returns (downward drift in CAR) just prior to stockpurchases suggest that insiders deferred their purchases until after bad news wasreleased to the public. This is evidence of valuable inside information. The positive abnormal returns after purchase suggest insider purchases in anticipation of good news. The analysis is symmetric for insider sales.29. a. The market risk premium moves countercyclical to the economy, peaking inrecessions. A violation of the efficient market hypothesis would imply that investors could take advantage of this predictability and earn excess risk adjusted returns.However, several studies, including Siegel,3 show that successfully timing the3 Jeremy Siegel, Stocks for the Long Run: The Definitive Guide to Financial Market Returns and Long-Term Investment Strategies, 2002, New York: McGraw-Hill.changes have eluded professional investors thus far. Moreover a changing riskpremium implies changing required rates of return for stocks rather than aninefficiency with the market.b. As the market risk premium increases during a recession, stocks prices tend to fall.As the economy recovers, the market risk premium falls, and stock prices tend to rise. These changes could give investors the impression that markets overreact,especially if the underlying changes in the market risk premium are small butcumulative. For example, the October Crash of 1987 is commonly viewed as anexample of market overreaction. However, in the weeks running up to mid-October, several underlying changes to the market risk premium occurred (in addition tochanges in the yields on long-term Treasury Bonds). Congress threatened investors with a “merger tax” that would have truncated the booming merger industry andloosened the discipline that the threat of mergers provides to a firm’s management.In addition, the Secretary of Treasury threatened further depreciation in the value of the dollar, frightening foreign investors. These events may have increased themarket risk premium and lowered stock prices in a seeming overreaction.CFA PROBLEMS1. b. Semistrong form efficiency implies that market prices reflect all publiclyavailable information concerning past trading history as well as fundamentalaspects of the firm.2. a. The full price adjustment should occur just as the news about the dividendbecomes publicly available.3. d. If low P/E stocks tend to have positive abnormal returns, this would representan unexploited profit opportunity that would provide evidence that investorsare not using all available information to make profitable investments.4. c. In an efficient market, no securities are consistently overpriced or underpriced.While some securities will turn out after any investment period to haveprovided positive alphas (i.e., risk-adjusted abnormal returns) and somenegative alphas, these past returns are not predictive of future returns.5. c. A random walk implies that stock price changes are unpredictable, using pastprice changes or any other data.6. d. A gradual adjustment to fundamental values would allow for the use ofstrategies based on past price movements in order to generate abnormal profits.7. a.8. a. Some empirical evidence that supports the EMH:(i)Professional money managers do not typically earn higher returns thancomparable risk, passive index strategies.(ii)Event studies typically show that stocks respond immediately to thepublic release of relevant news.(iii)Most tests of technical analysis find that it is difficult to identify price trends that can be exploited to earn superior risk-adjusted investmentreturns.b.Some evidence that is difficult to reconcile with the EMH concerns simpleportfolio strategies that apparently would have provided high risk-adjustedreturns in the past. Some examples of portfolios with attractive historical returns:(i)Low P/E stocks.(ii)High book-to-market ratio stocks.(iii)Small firms in January.(iv)Firms with very poor stock price performance in the last few months.Other evidence concerns post-earnings-announcement stock price drift andintermediate-term price momentum.c. An investor might choose not to index even if markets are efficient because heor she may want to tailor a portfolio to specific tax considerations or to specificrisk management issues, for example, the need to hedge (or at least not add to)exposure to a particular source of risk (e.g., industry exposure).9. a. The efficient market hypothesis (EMH) states that a market is efficient ifsecurity prices immediately and fully reflect all available relevant information.If the market fully reflects information, the knowledge of that informationwould not allow an investor to profit from the information because stockprices already incorporate the information.i. The weak form of the EMH asserts that stock prices reflect all the informationthat can be derived by examining market trading data such as the history of pastprices and trading volume.A strong body of evidence supports weak-form efficiency in the major U.S.securities markets. For example, test results suggest that technical trading rulesdo not produce superior returns after adjusting for transaction costs and taxes.ii.The semistrong form states that a firm’s stock price reflects all publiclyavailable information about a firm’s prospects. Examples of publicly availableinformation are company annual reports and investment advisory data.Evidence strongly supports the notion of semistrong efficiency, but occasionalstudies (e.g., identifying market anomalies such as the small-firm-in-January orbook-to-market effects) and events (e.g. stock market crash of October 19, 1987) are inconsistent with this form of market efficiency. There is a questionconcerning the extent to which these “anomalies” result from data mining.iii. The strong form of the EMH holds that current market prices reflect allinformation (whether publicly available or privately held) that can be relevantto the valuation of the firm.Empirical evidence suggests that strong-form efficiency does not hold. If thisform were correct, prices would fully reflect all information. Therefore eveninsiders could not earn excess returns. But the evidence is that corporateofficers do have access to pertinent information long enough before publicrelease to enable them to profit from trading on this information.b. i. Technical analysis involves the search for recurrent and predictable patterns instock prices in order to enhance returns. The EMH implies that technical analysis is without value. If past prices contain no useful information for predicting futureprices, there is no point in following any technical trading rule.ii. Fundamental analysis uses earnings and dividend prospects of the firm,expectations of future interest rates, and risk evaluation of the firm to determineproper stock prices. The EMH predicts that most fundamental analysis is doomed to failure. According to semistrong-form efficiency, no investor can earn excessreturns from trading rules based on publicly available information. Only analysts with unique insight achieve superior returns.In summary, the EMH holds that the market appears to adjust so quickly toinformation about both individual stocks and the economy as a whole that notechnique of selecting a portfolio using either technical or fundamental analysis can consistently outperform a strategy of simply buying and holding a diversifiedportfolio of securities, such as those comprising the popular market indexes.c. Portfolio managers have several roles and responsibilities even in perfectlyefficient markets. The most important responsibility is to identify the risk/returnobjectives for a portfolio given the investor’s constraints. In an efficient market,portfolio managers are responsible for tailoring the portfolio to meet the investor’s needs, rather than to beat the mark et, which requires identifying the client’s return requirements and risk tolerance. Rational portfolio management also requiresexamining the investor’s constraints, including liquidity, time horizon, laws andregulations, taxes, and unique preferences and circumstances such as age andemployment.10. a. The earnings (and dividend) growth rate of growth stocks may be consistentlyoverestimated by investors. Investors may extrapolate recent growth too far intothe future and thereby downplay the inevitable slowdown. At any given time,growth stocks are likely to revert to (lower) mean returns and value stocks arelikely to revert to (higher) mean returns, often over an extended future timehorizon.b.In efficient markets, the current prices of stocks already reflect all known relevantinformation. In this situation, growth stocks and value stocks provide the samerisk-adjusted expected return.。
2011-5《投资学》A卷
上海金融学院2010 ~2011 学年度第二学期代码：23330295 《投资学》课程期末考试试卷本试卷系A卷，采用闭卷方式，集中考试考试时不能使用计算工具、只能使用简单计算器(无存储功能)。
（请将横线上不需要的文字用红笔划去）交教务处时间: 年月日送印时间: 年月日试题内容分布命题教师：殷林森室主任签章：__________ 系(部)主任签章________上海金融学院2010--2011 学年度第二学期《投资学》课程A卷代码：23330295（集中考试考试形式：闭卷考试用时: 90 分钟）考试时只能使用简单计算器(无存储功能)试题纸一、单项选择题（每题1分，共10分；在答题纸上相应位置填入正确选项前的英文字母）：1、按照风险从小到大排序，下列排序正确的是()。
A、储蓄存款，国库券，普通股，公司债券B、国库券，优先股，公司债券，商业票据C、国库券，储蓄存款，商业票据，普通股D、储蓄存款，优先股，商业票据，公司债券2、封闭式基金价格的主要决定因素是( )。
A、市场供求关系B、基金资产净值C、单位基金资产净值D、基金单位面值3、美联储在公开市场上抛售美国国债的行为将会导致货币供给量( )。
A、减少B、增加C、不确定D、不变4、你以20元购买了一股股票，一年以后你收到了1元的红利，并以29元卖出。
你的持有期收益率是( )。
A、45%B、50%C、5%D、40%5、套利定价理论中，一个充分分散风险的资产组合，组成证券数目越多，非系统风险就越接近( )。
A、1B、无穷大C、0D、-16、风险资产组合的有效边界( )。
A、处于全局最小方差边界的下半部分B、处于全局最小方差边界的上半部分C、处于全局最小方差边界上D、处于全局最小方差边界的内侧7、单指数模型用以代替市场风险因素的是( )。
A、市场指数，例如标准普尔500指数B、经常账户的赤字C、GNP的增长率D、失业率8、资本资产定价模型是在( )的预测模型。
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上海金融学院2009--2010 学年度 《投资学》课程A 卷（集中考试考试形式：闭卷考试时只能使用简单计算器（无存储功能）试 题 纸一、单项选择题（每题1分，共10分；在答题纸上相应位置填入正确选项前的 英文字母）：1、 证券持有人面临预期收益不能实现，是证券的 （） 特征。
A 、期限性B 、收益性C 、流通性D、风险性2、 证券交易所内证券交易的竞价原则是（）。
、价格优先，时间优先、市价优先 以能带来稳定收入的证券为主要投资对象的 、成长型基金 、平衡型基金 4、企业对其产品的未来需求的预期相对悲观， 于是决定减少投资。
这往往会造 成实际利率（） A 、下降B 、不变C 、上升D 、不确定5、风险厌恶程度越强的投资者，其效用无差异曲线越（ ）A 、平缓B 、陡峭C 6、零贝塔值证券的期望收益率为（ A 、市场收益率 B C 、负收益率D 7、收益率曲线向右下方倾斜意味着在同一时点上，长期债券收益率 （） 短期债券收益率。
A 、高于B 、等于C 、低于D 、不能判断是否高于 8 —张5年期零息票债券的久期是（）°A 、小于5年B 、多于5年C 等于5年D 等同于一张5年期10%勺息票债券 9、考虑单指数模型，某只股票的阿尔法为 0%市场指数的收益率为16%无风 险收益率为5%尽管没有个别风险影响股票表现，这只股票的收益率仍超出无 风险收益第二学期 代码：23330295 考试用时：90分钟）A 、时间优先，客户优先BC 、数量优先 D3、以追求当期高收入为基本目标， 证券投资基金是（ ）。
A 、指数基金 B C 、收入型基金 D 、水平 D 、下倾 ）° 、零收益率 、无风险收益率率11%那么这只股票的贝塔值是多少？（）A 、0.67B 、0.75C 、1.0D 、1.3310、已知一张 3年期零息票债券的收益率是 7.2%，第一年、第二年的远期利率分 别为 6.1%和6.9%，那么第三年的远期利率应为多少？ （ ）A 、7.2%B 、8.6%C 、 6.1%D 、6.9% 二、多项选择题（每题 1分，共 10分；在答题纸上相应位置填入正确选项前的 英文字母）： 1、 （ ） 是金融资产。
A 、建筑物 B 、土地 C 2、金融期货的功能主要有 （ ） A 、投资功能BC 、套期保值功能D A 、 该线表示对于投资者而言所有可行的风险与收益组合B 、 该线斜率表示每单位标准差的风险溢价C 、 该线斜率又称夏普比率D 该线总是一条直线 4、 有效投资组合集表示（ ）A 、给定方差下最大期望收益B 、给定方差下最小期望收益C 给定期望收益下最小方差D 、给定期望收益下最大方差 5、 证券市场线（ ）。
A 、描述的是在无风险收益率的基础上，某只证券的超额收益率是市场超额 收益率的函数B 能够估计某只证券的贝塔值C 能够估计某只证券的阿尔法值 A 、市场预期理论认为利率期限结构完全取决于对未来即期利率的市场预期 B 流动性偏好理论的基本观点认为长期债券是短期债券的理想替代物C 市场分割理论假设贷款者和借款者并不能自由地在利率预期的基础上将 证券从一个偿还期部分替换成另一个偿还期部分D 、在市场分割理论中，利率期限结构取决于短期资金市场供求状况与长期 资金、衍生证券 D、筹资功能、价格发现功能 、债券3、下面关于资本配置线 CAL 的说法正确的是（D 用标准差衡量风险6、 下列说法正确的是（A 、 大于零时，资产处于B 、 大于零时，资产处于C 、 小于零时，资产处于D 、 小于零时，资产处于 7、 关于利率期限结构的理）。
SML 线上方，价格被高估SML 线上方，价格被低估 SML 线下方，价格被低估 SML 线下方，价格被高估 列说法正确的是（ ）市场供求状况的比较8、下列说法正确的有：（）。
A、用现金流贴现模型计算股票内在价值时，当计算的内部收益率大于必要收益率时，可以考虑购买这种股票B用现金流贴现模型计算股票内在价值时，当计算的内部收益率小于必要收益率时，可以考虑购买这种股票C零增长模型假定对某种股票永远支付固定的股利D零增长模型适用于确定优先股的价值9、免疫的基本目的是（）。
A、消除违约风险 B 、创造一个净零的利率风险C抵消价格和再投资风险 D 、消除信用风险10、以下策略不能锁定期权投资者的收益和损失于某一范围的是：（）A、对敲 B 、货币期权价差C保护性看跌期权 D 、抛补的看涨期权三、判断题（每题1分，共10分；在答题纸上相应位置填入正确选项，正确的以V代表，错误的以X代表）：1、投资基金中的开放式基金，可以在市场上通过买卖变现，存续期满后，投资人可按持有的基金份额分享相应的剩余资产。
（）2、越厌恶风险的投资者越倾向于持有无风险资产。
（）3、最优风险资产组合的方差就是整体最小方差组合。
（）4、长期债券价格对利率变化的敏感性比短期债券低。
（）5、暂时免疫策略属于消极型债券投资策略之一。
（）6、股票波动性越大，看跌期权价值越小。
（）7、空头套期保值者是指在现货市场做多头，同时在期货市场做空头。
（）8、在一个充分分散化的资产组合中，公司系统风险被消除了，只有个别风险与期望收益有关。
（）9、一个被低估的证券收益率高于证券市场线的预测，因此它将落在证券市场线的下方。
（）10、债券的到期收益率与债券票面利率和债券市场价格有一定的联系。
（）四、问答题（共20分）：1如何利用系数判断资产或资产组合的价格误定及误定程度？（8分）2、影响期权价值的因素主要有哪些？如果这些变量发生变化，看涨期权、看跌期权的价值如何变化？（12分）五、计算题（共50 分）:1投资者借得20000美元去买A公司的股票，每股现价为40美元，投资者的账户初始保证金要求是50%维持保证金为35%两天后，股价降至35美元。
（1）投资者会收到追交保证金通知吗？（5分）（2）股价降至多少，投资者会收到追交保证金通知？（5分）2、一位基金管理人正在考虑3种基金的投资组合：股票基金E,债券基金D以及无风险资产短期国库券，其中相关的参数如下：期望收益为r E 20%，r D 10%，标准差为E 40%，D 15%，股票基金、债券基金的协方差cov（br E）4%，无风险资产收益率为r f 5%。
假设该基金管理人是风险厌恶的投资者，其风险厌恶系数A 4。
请根据以上条件，回答下面的问题：（1）请说明确定一个完整的投资组合的基本步骤；（5分）（2）请构建由股票基金E,债券基金D组成的最优风险投资组合；（5分）* _________ （「D 「f）E （「E r f）COV W D J E） _________（r D r f）E（r E n） D （「D n 「E h）COV^W E）（3）请确定由股票基金E,债券基金D组成的最优资本配线下的报酬-波动比率；（5分）（4）请确定基金管理人在这三类资产上的最优资产配置。
（5分）3、一年期零息债券的到期收益率为5%两年期零息债券的到期收益率为5% 息票率为12 % （每年付息）的二年期债券的到期收益率为 5.8%。
问投资银行是否有套利机会？该套利行为的利润是多少？（10分）4、目前A公司没有发放现金红利，并且在今后四年中也不打算发放。
它最近的每股收益为5美元，并被全部用于再投资。
今后四年公司的股权收益率预计为每年20%同时收益被全部用于投资。
从第五年开始，新投资的股权收益率预计每年下降到15% A公司的市场资本化率为每年15%（1）投资者估计A公司股票的内在价值为多少？（5分））假设现在它们的市场价格等于内在价值，投资者持有到明年，这一年间的持有期收益率为多少？（5分）上海金融学院2009--2010学年度第二学期《投资学》课程A卷代码：23330295（集中考试考试形式：闭卷考试用时:90分钟）注：本课程所用教材，教材名：《投资学》主编：茨维•博迪等出版社：机械工业出版社版次：2009年6月第一版答案及评分标准、单项选择题（每题1分，共10分）。
、多项选择题（每题1分，共10分）三、判断题（每题1分，共10分）四、问答题（共20分）:1、如何利用系数判断资产或资产组合的价格误定及误定程度？答：系数等于零的资产或资产组合落在证券市场线上，其价格处于均衡位置，定价合理。
系数大于零，资产或资产组合处于证券市场线上方，表明投资者对资产或资产组合的期望收益的判断和估计高于均衡时的期望收益，价格被低估。
系数小于零，资产或资产组合处于证券市场线下方，表明投资者对资产或资产组合的期望收益的判断和估计低于均衡时的期望收益，价格被高估。
2、影响期权价值的因素主要有哪些？如果这些变量发生变化，看涨期权、看跌期权的价值如何变化？答：影响期权价值的因素主要有股票价格S、执行价格X、股票波动性①、到期时间T、利率r f、及红利支付。
以下变量增加看涨价值价值的变化增加 降低 增加 增加 增加 降低看跌期权价值的变化 下降 上升 增加 增加 降低 增加五、计算题(共50分):1解答:(1) 保证金账户金额=股票市值-负债=1000P-20000, 保证金比率=(35x1000 -20000)/(35*1000) =42.9% 〉35%因此不会收到追加保证金的通知。
(5分)(2) 当(1000R20000)/1000P=35%即当P= 30.77美元或更低时，投资者将 收到追加保证金通知。
(5分) 2、解答： (1) 基本步骤：一、 确定组合资产中各类证券的收益特征值 (包括期望收益、方差、协方差等); 二、 利用最优质本配置线的确定方法确定最优风险资产组合；三、 利用效用最大化原理确定资产在无风险资产与风险资产组合之间的配置。
(2) 最优风险投资组合为股票基金E ,债券基金D 的配置比例，设分别为 W E * , Wj 。
根据使报酬-波动比率的原则，得:股票价格S 执行价格X 波动性C 到期时间T 利率rf 红利支付以下变量增加 股票价格S 执行价格X 波动性c 到期时间T 利率rf 红利支付*W D2(「D r f ) E (「E r f ) cov(dr E ) (T D r f ) (T E r f ) (T D r f T E r f ) COV OW E )(10% 5%) (40%)2 (20% 5%) 4%(10% 5%) (40%)2 (20% 5%) (15%)2(10% 5% 20% 5%) 4%0.59W E *1 W D* 0.41(3) 最优风险资产组合的期望收益r p :r P W D* r D W E * r E 0.1412*22 *22* *P W DDW EE2W D W E cov( r D , r E ) 0.054报酬-波动比率为：（4）根据效用最大化的原理，得出无风险资产与风险资产组合之间的配置比例: 其中风险资产的权重为债券的权重为 W D* y * 0.59 0.4210.248 无风险资产国库券的权重为1 y *0.5793解答：显然存在套利机会买进息票率为12%勺二年期债券，卖出一年期和两年期零息债券。