(完整word版)国际投资学第三章国际投资环境课后习题答案(个人总结)
国际投资学作业答案新范文
《国际投资学》作业集答案第一章国际投资概述一、名词解释1. 国际投资答：国际投资是各国官方机构、跨国公司、金融机构及居民个人等投资主题将其拥有的货币资本或产业资本，经跨国流动形成实物资产、无形资产或金融资产，并通过跨国经营得以实现价值增值的经济行为。
2.跨国公司答：跨国公司是指以雄厚的资本和先进的技术，通过对外直接投资在其他国家和地区设立子公司，从事国际化生产、销售活动的大型企业。
3.经济全球化答：指世界各国在全球范围内的融合。
二、简答题1.国际投资的主要特点答：投资主体单一化；投资环境多元化；投资目标多元化；投资运行复杂化；2.跨国公司与国内企业比较有哪些特点？答：第一，生产经营活动的跨国化；第二，实行全球性战略；第三，公司内部一体化原则。
三、论述题1. 书P35论述题第一题答：回答要点：（1）近年来跨国公司在中国的投资情况；（2）投资特征；（3）投资原因简要分析。
第二章国际直接投资理论一、名词解释1.内部化理论答：该理论认为世界市场是不完全竞争的市场，跨国公司为了其自身的利益，为客服外部市场的某些失效，以及某些产品的特殊性质或垄断势力的存在，导致企业市场交易成本的增加，而通过国际直接投资，将本来应在外部市场交易的业务转变为在公司所属企业之间进行，并形成一个内部市场。
2.产品生命周期答：（1）新产品创新阶段；（2）新产品的成熟阶段；（3）新产品的标准化阶段3.区位优势答：是指跨国公司在投资区位上具有的选择优势，，是发展对外直接投资时必须要考虑的重要因素。
二、简答题1.简述垄断优势理论的主要内容答：一、不完全竞争市场的形成不完全竞争是指由于规模经济、技术垄断、商标及产品差别等引起的偏离完全竞争的市场结构。
（一）产品和生产要素市场的不完全（二）由规模基金引起的市场不完全（三）由于政府干预经济而导致的市场不完全（四）由关税引起的市场不完全二、垄断优势理论的形成（一）技术优势；（二）先进的管理经验；（三）雄厚的资金实力；（四）全面而灵通的信息；（五）规模经济优势；（六）全球性的销售网络三、评价2.国际生产折中论的主要内容答：一、国际生产折中理论的形成二、国际生产折中理论产生的原因三、国际生产折中理论的核心（一）所有权优势；（二）内部化优势；（三）区位优势四、对国际生产折中理论的评价三、论述题1. 书P81论述题第一题答：（1）目前跨国公司内部贸易增加情况分析；（2）内部化优势理论；（3）理论对于现实的简要解释：主要是为了减少交易成本。
《国际投资学》答案
《国际投资学》作业答案第一章国际投资概述一、名词解释1. 国际投资是各国官方机构、跨国公司、金融机构及居民个人等投资主体将其所拥有的货币资本或产业资本，经跨国流动形成实物资产、无形资产或金融资产，并通过跨国经营得以实现价值增值的经济行为。
2.跨国公司是指依赖雄厚的资本和先进的技术，通过对外直接投资在其他国家和地区设立子公司，从事国际化生产、销售活动的大型企业。
3.经济全球化世界各国在全球范围内的经济融合二、简答题1.国际投资的主要特点第一，投资主体单一化；第二，投资环境多样化；第三投资目标多元化；第四，投资运行复杂化。
2.跨国公司与国内企业比较有哪些特点？第一，生产经营活动的跨国化，这是跨国公司的最基本特征；第二，实行全球性战略；第三，公司内部一体化原则。
三、论述题跨国公司进入中国的步伐明显加快，这一趋势还将继续保持下去。
跨国公司研发投入明显增加，跨国公司投资更倾向于独资方式，中国政府的优惠政策，低廉的劳动力、广阔的市场等第二章国际直接投资理论一、名词解释1.市场内部化是指企业为减少交易成本，减少生产和投资风险，而将该跨国界的各交易过程变成企业内部的行业。
2.产品生命周期是产品的市场寿命，即一种新产品从开始进入市场到被市场淘汰的整个过程3.区位优势是指跨国公司在投资区位上具有的选择优势二、简答题1.简述垄断优势理论的主要内容这一理论主要是回答一家外国企业的分支机构为什么能够与当地企业进行有效的竞争，并能长期生存和发展下去。
海默认为，一个企业之所以要对外直接投资，是因为它有比东道国同类企业有利的垄断优势，从而在国外进行生产可以赚取更多的利润。
这种垄断优势可以划分为两类：一类是包括生产技术、管理与组织技能及销售技能等一切无形资产在内的知识资产优势；一类是由于企业规模大而产生的规模经济优势。
2.国际生产折中论的主要内容对外投资主要是由所有权优势、内部化优势和区位优势这三个基本因素决定的。
邓宁认为决定对外直接投资的三项因素之间是相互关联、紧密联系的。
国际投资(杜奇华)课后思考题答案(精整版)
国际投资课后思考题第一章：国际投资导论一、国际投资的特征有哪些？1、国际投资的领域呈现不完全竞争性2、国际投资的目的呈现多样性3、国际投资的主体呈现双重性4、国际投资所使用的货币呈现多元化5、国际投资的环境呈现差异性6、国际投资的运行呈现曲折性7、国际投资的过程呈现更大的风险性二、国际投资的主体和客体包括哪些？（一）、国际投资的主体●跨国公司●国际金融机构●官方与半官方机构●个人投资者（二）、国际投资的客体1．货币性资产（Monetary Assets）●现金●银行存款●应收账款●国际债券●国际股票2．实物资产（Real Assets）●土地●建筑物●机器设备●零部件和原材料3．无形资产（Intangible Assets）●生产诀窍●管理技术●商标●商誉●技术专利三、国际投资历经了哪几个发展时期？1、起步阶段（18世纪末～1914年）●英、法、德、美、荷从事国际投资●国际投资主要流向自然资源丰富的地区2、低迷徘徊阶段（1914年～1945年）●国际投资的总额下降●国际投资方式仍然以国际间接投资为主3、恢复增长阶段（1946年～1979年）●国际投资的规模迅速扩大●国际投资的方式转变为国际直接投资为主4、逐渐发展阶段（20世纪80年代）●国际直接投资的规模迅速扩大●国际投资的流动转向以发达国家为主。
5、高速增长阶段（20世纪90年代）●国际直接投资总额大幅上升●国际直接投资产业分布的转化●国际投资主体向多元化发展●新兴的发展中国家成为国际投资的热点五、国际投资学的研究方法有哪些？●总量分析与个量分析相结合●静态分析与动态分析相结合●定性分析与定量分析相结合●历史分析与逻辑分析相结合●抽象分析与实证分析相结合●理论总结与实践操作相结合六、国际投资的最新发展趋势有哪些？●全球外国直接投资增速下降●大型跨国公司主宰全球经济●外国直接投资流量继续集中在欧、日、美●政府加速开放外国直接投资政策●签订了更多的双边协定和投资协议●中国将成为全球最具活力的外商投资地区第二章国际直接投资理论二、垄断优势理论与内部化理论的主要区别是什么？首先，垄断优势理论是以市场不完全作为跨国经营的前提内部化理论的目的是消除市场的不完全性；其次，垄断优势理论中由于市场不完全导致垄断排斥竞争内部化理论中由于市场不完全导致市场失灵再次，垄断优势理论注重技术垄断优势，是跨国经营的重要意义内部化理论中交易成本最小，注重保证跨国经营的优势最后，垄断优势理论适用于发达国家内部化理论既适用于发达国家，也适用于发展中国家，即可适用于国内，也可适用于国外。
(完整word版)国际投资学第三章国际投资环境课后习题答案(个人总结)
第三章国际投资环境1. 名词解释国际投资环境：影响国际投资的各种自然因素、经济因素、政治因素、社会因素和法律因素相互依赖、相互完善、相互制约所形成的的矛盾统一体。
硬环境:能影响投资的外部物质条件。
软环境:能影响国际直接投资的各种非物质形态的因素。
冷热比较分析法：从政治稳定性、市场机会、经济发展与成就、文化一元化等“热”因素和法令障碍、实质障碍、地理与文化差异等冷因素共7各方面对各国投资环境进行综合比较分析。
2.简述国际直接投资环境的重要性及其决定因素重要性：国际直接投资环境的优劣直接决定了一国对外资吸引力的大小。
决定因素：经济环境是最直接、最基本的因素。
3。
试总结各种国际投资环境评估方法的基本思路和共性基本思路和共性是将总投资环境分解为若干具体指标，然后再综合评判。
4. 案例分析分别运用等级尺度法和要素评价分类法对英国的投资环境进行计分和评价等级尺度法：1.货币稳定性（4—20分）2.近五年通货膨胀率（2—14分）3.资本外调（0-12分）4。
外商股权（0—12分）5.外国企业与本地企业之间的差别待遇和控制（0-12分）6.政治稳定性（0—12分）7.当地资本供应能力（0-10分）8。
给予关税保护的态度（2—8分）要素评价法：I=AE/CF(B+D+G+H)+x 投资环境激励系数（A) 城市规划完善度因子（B）利税因子（C）劳动生产率因子(D）地区基础因子（E）效率因子（F) 市场因子（G) 管理权因子（H）5。
试结合本章专栏3—1和专栏3-3，分析我国改善投资环境的重点和具体措施.改善投资环境的重点是改善软环境和社会因素中的价值观念、教育水平、社会心理与习惯.具体措施是降低贸易壁垒、提高私有财产保护程度、降低企业运行障碍、提高政府清廉程度、提高经济自由程度和提高法律完善程度。
本章小结国际投资环境是指影响国际投资的各种因素相互依赖、相互完善、相互制约所形成的矛盾统一体，国际直接投资环境的优劣直接决定了一国对外资吸引力的大小。
国际投资学习题及答案.doc
第一章际投资概述一、填空题1.国际投资除具有国内投资的一般特征外，还具有投资主体 _____________ ,投资客体_____________蕴含资产的_______________ ,等方面的特征。
2.国际投资客体主要包括 __________ 、_______________ 、 ____________ 等三类资产。
3. ___________________________________________ 根据投资主体类型，国际投资可分为和___________________________________________________ 。
4. ____________________________________ 当今国际投资的流动主要集中在、和这“大三角”之间。
5. _________________ 是当今发展中国家中吸引外资最多的国家。
二、选择题（单选）1.国际货币基金组织认为，视为对企业实施有效控制的股权比例一般是 ___ ?A 10%B 25%C 35%D 50%2.区分国际直接投资和国际间接投资的根本原则是 ____ 。
A股权比例B有效控制C持久利益D战略关系3.1914年以前，在全球国际投资中最大输出国是____ 。
A法国8美国C德国D英国4. ___________________________________ 近年来，国际投资发扎最快的产业部门.A第一产业B第二产业C第三产业D制造业5. _____________________________ 二次世界大战前，国际投资是以为主。
A证券投资B实业投资C直接投资D私人投资三、是非题1.国际投资一般而言较国内投资风险更大。
（）2.统计表明，国际直接投资较国际间接投资波动性更大。
（）3.国际投资的发展对世界经济的影响有百利无一害。
（）4.近年来，发展中国家在吸收FDT方面已超过发达国家，占据主要地位。
（）5.近年来，国际投资的发展很大程度上得益于政策的日益自由化。
国际投资学教程课后练习答案
第一章1.名词解释：国际投资：是指以资本增值和生产力提高为目标的国际资本流动，是投资者将其资本投入国外进行的一阴历为目的的经济活动。
国际公共（官方）投资: 是指一国政府或国际经济组织为了社会公共利益而进行的投资，一般带有国际援助的性质。
国际私人投资：是指私人或私人企业以营利为目的而进行的投资。
短期投资：按国际收支统计分类，一年以内的债权被称为短期投资。
长期投资：一年以上的债权、股票以及实物资产被称为长期投资。
产业安全：可以分为宏观和中观两个层次。
宏观层次的产业安全，是指一国制度安排能够导致较合理的市场结构及市场行为，经济保持活力，在开放竞争中本国重要产业具有竞争力，多数产业能够沈村冰持续发展。
中观层次上的产业安全，是指本国国民所控制的企业达到生存规模，具有持续发展的能力及较大的产业影响力，在开放竞争中具有一定优势。
资本形成规模：是指一个经济落后的国家或地区如何筹集足够的、实现经济起飞和现代化的初始资本。
2、简述20世纪70年代以来国际投资的发展出现了哪些新特点？（一）投资规模，国际投资这这一阶段蓬勃发展，成为世纪经济舞台最为活跃的角色。
国际直接投资成为了国际经济联系中更主要的载体。
（二）投资格局，1.“大三角”国家对外投资集聚化2.发达国家之间的相互投资不断增加 3.发展中国家在吸引外资的同时，也走上了对外投资的舞台(三)投资方式，国际投资的发展出现了直接投资与间接投资齐头并进的发展局面。
（四）投资行业，第二次世界大战后，国际直接投资的行业重点进一步转向第二产业。
3.如何看待麦克杜格尔模型的基本理念？麦克杜格尔模型是麦克杜格尔在1960年提出来，后经肯普发展，用于分析国际资本流动的一般理论模型，其分析的是国际资本流动对资本输出国、资本输入国及整个世界生产和国民收入分配的影响。
麦克杜格尔和肯普认为，国际间不存在限制资本流动的因素，资本可以自由地从资本要素丰富的国家流向资本要素短缺的国家。
资本流动的原因在于前者的资本价格低于后者。
《国际投资》第六版作业课后练习答案
第一章15/16/20第二章4/6/9/15/16/19/20第三章3/5/9/16/18第四章8/13/15/16/17第五章2/7/10/15/17第六章6/8/10/12/13文本:人参淫家Fish 汉化:fish&MonkEy协力排版:MonkEy 校对:无时间:无后期:无本汉化由马骝鱼汉化组制作,本作品来源于互联网供学习爱好者使用禁止用于商业盈利行为若因私自散布造成法律纠纷汉化组概不负责第一章15.问：假设在某一时点，巴克莱银行每英镑的美元标价为英镑对美元=1.4570。
兴业银行每美元的目标价位为美元对日元=128.17，米德银行每英镑的日元的套算汇率的标价为英镑对日元=183.a.不考虑买卖价差，此处是否存在套利机会b.加入存在套利机会，你要通过哪些步骤以获得套利利润？如果你有100万美元，你可以获利多少？解：a.根据题目可以求得美元对日元的汇率：£:¥= $:¥⨯ £:$ = 128.17 ⨯ 1.4570 = 186.74。
然而，米德银行的标价为£:¥=1：183，因此存在套利机会b.在存在£:¥=186.74的同时，米德银行汇率标价为£:¥=1：183，即英镑对日元价值在米德银行被相对低估，因此，你的套利步骤应建立为使用日元从米德银行购买英镑，有100万美元情况下，具体步骤如下：a. 在兴业银行售出美元以取得日元: 售出$1,000,000 以取得$1,000,000 ⨯ ¥128.17 / $ =¥128,170,000.b. 在米德银行出售日元以购买英镑:售出l ¥128,170,000 以购买¥128,170,000/(¥183 / £) =£700,382.51.c. 在巴克莱银行将英镑兑换为美元: 卖出£700,382.51 ，得到£700,382.51 ⨯ ($1.4570 /k, £) =$1,020,457.32.因此，获利为：$1,020,457.32 - $1,000,000 = $20,457.3216.吉姆擅长与套算汇率套利，在某一个时点，他注意到如下标价：以瑞士法郎标价的美元价值= 1.5971 瑞士法郎/美元以澳大利亚元标价的美元价值=1.8215 澳大利亚/美元以澳大利亚元标价的瑞士法郎价值=1.1450 澳大利亚元/瑞士法郎不考虑交易成本，基于这些标价，吉姆有套利机会吗？他应该怎样做来获取套利利润？他用100万美元可以套利多少？解：由题可知，澳元跟瑞士法郎之间的隐形汇率为SFr:A$ = $:A$ ⨯ SFr:$ = ($:A$) ÷ ($:SFr) = 1.8215/1.5971 = 1.1405。
《国际投资》各章练习题答案
7. 以下资产形式不属于国际储备一级储备的是（ D）。 A活期存款 B短期国库券 C商业票据 D 中期债券
8. 国际储备营运以稳健和安全为其首要原则。（O）
第5章练习
10. 名词解释：出口信贷
出口信贷：是出口国政府为了鼓励本国商品出口， 加强本国商品的国际竞争能力，所采取的对本国出 口给予利息补贴并提供信贷担保的中长期贷款。 11. 简答题：试简述官方国际投资的特殊性。
第6章练习
简答题：非股权参与方式和股权参与方式相比有何特点。
（1）非股权性； （2）非整合性； （3）非长期性； （4）灵活性。
论述题：跨国公司战略联盟的类型。
（1）战略研究开发联盟，主要是集合各自的技术优势，以专项技术为突 破口的联合及委托研究，目标在于缩短技术开发周期、分担技术开发成本 ，共享技术领先优势； （2）战略生产联盟，以行业为依托，集合各自的产品生产优势形成的联 合制造网络，目标在于集合联盟各方的生产技术优势，降低开辟新的生产 线和改装生产线时的风险； （3）战略营销联盟，主要是供应与外部销售方面的协议，目标在于集中 联盟各方的市场销售力量，降低保持市场地位或进入新市场的成本与风险 。
11. 简述金融衍生工具的特点。
9. 补偿贸易是出口方在进口方外汇资金短缺的情况下， 不以收取现汇为条件，向国外输出机器设备和转让技 术，待工程建成投产后再以产品形式分期收回其价款 的一种集投资、贸易、间接融资为一体的非股权参与 下资产营运的直接投资方式。（ O）
第6章练习
名词解释： 1. 绿地投资 2. 混合购并 3. 许可证安排
第3章练习
5. 凡是在2个以上的国家或地区拥有分支机构的企业就 是跨国公司。（ O ）
国际投资第三章课后习题答案
Chapter 3Foreign Exchange Determination andForecasting1. Applying expansionary macroeconomic policy, which results in higher goods prices and lower realinterest rates, will not reduce the balance of payments deficit. Higher prices will make the country’s goods less competitive internationally, and lower interest rates will discourage foreign capital. Thus, the balance of payments deficit will worsen instead of improve. On the other hand, (a), (b), and (d) will help in remedying the balance of payments deficit. Accordingly, the answer is (c).2. a. One advantage of a wider band is “emotional.” France could claim that it did not devalue itscurrency. Another advantage is flexibility. If there were no long-term fundamental reasons(inflation, balance of payments deficit, etc.) for a devaluation, the temporary pressure on thefranc could ease and the franc could later revert to its previous level. The disadvantage of a wider band is exchange rate uncertainty for all firms. A “credible” small band is preferable for firmsconducting international trade,b. A wider band makes speculation less attractive, because there is no guarantee that a central bankwill defend its currency until the wide fluctuation margin is reached.3. a. The American investor has paid a 25 percent premium over the price paid by a domestic investor.Yet, he receives the same dividends as the domestic investor. Therefore, his investment bears asmaller yield than it would for a domestic investor.b. Lifting of the exchange controls would be bad news to an existing foreign investor in Paf, sinceher asset could only be repatriated at the normal pif rate (1.00), while she had bought it at thefinancial rate (1.25).c. Lifting of the exchange controls would be good news to foreign investors planning to invest inPaf in the future, because they would no longer have to pay the 25 percent premium when buying assets in Paf.4. Remember that the Eurozone is made up of those countries in the EU that have adopted the euro ascommon currency. Statements I and III are clearly correct. Statement II is clearly not correct, because there is a possibility that more countries may join the Eurozone in future. For example, the British are debating whether to join the Eurozone.5. The statement is true. Because of riskless arbitrage, interest rate parity between two currencies wouldhold if the markets for both are free and deregulated. Developed financial markets tend to be more free and deregulated. A developing country is more likely to impose various forms of capital controls and taxes that impede arbitrage. A developing country is economically not as well integrated with the world financial markets as the developed markets are. Also, some smaller currencies can only be borrowed and lent domestically, and the domestic money markets of developing countries are more likely to be subjected to political risk.Chapter 3 Foreign Exchange Determination and Forecasting 156. a. Using the first-order approximation of PPP relationship, the variation in rupee to dollar exchangerate should equal the inflation differential between rupee and dollar. So, the rupee to dollarexchange rate should increase by 6 − 2.5 = 3.5%. That is, the rupee should depreciate by 3.5%relative to the dollar.b. The nominal dollar return for the U.S. institutional investor is approximately 12 − 5 = 7%. Thereal return for the U.S. investor is approximately 7 − 2.5 = 4.5%. The real return for the Indianinvestor is approximately 12 − 6 = 6%. Thus, the U.S. investor has a lower real return than theIndian investor. This is so because the rupee depreciated with respect to the dollar by more thanwhat the PPP relationship would indicate. Indeed, the difference between the real returns is6 − 4.5 = 1.5%, which is the same as the difference between the actual depreciation of the rupeeand the depreciation that should have occurred as per PPP (5 − 3.5 = 1.5%).7. If a country’s currency is undervalued, it means that the real prices of assets in this country are lowcompared with other countries. Also, the wages are lower in real terms than in other countries. Thus, investors from other countries would invest in this country to take advantage of low prices andwages. This action would help in the appreciation of the undervalued currency and restoration of the PPP in the long run. In terms of foreign trade, an undervalued currency implies that exports from this country would get a boost while imports would become less attractive. This would also help in the appreciation of the undervalued currency and restoration of the PPP in the long run.8. In risk-neutral efficient foreign exchange markets, the forward rate is the expected value of the futurespot rate. The forward rate can be computed using the interest rate parity relation. Because the exchange rate is given in $:SFr terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation isSFr $11r F Sr +=+ (that is, r SFr is a part of the numerator and r $ is a part of the denominator). Accordingly, the three-month forward rate is10.00951.4723 1.460010.0180F +==+ thus, the implied market prediction for the three-month ahead exchange rate is SFr1.4600 per $.9. As per the model, one € would be worth $0.9781 six months later. Based on the forward rate, one €would be worth $0.9976 six months later. Therefore, the market participants, who believe that the model is quite good, would buy the dollar in the forward market (sell euros). Consequently, the price of the euro forward would decrease (the dollar forward would increase) and the forward rate would become equal to $0.9781 per €. The spot exchange rate and the dollar and euro interest rates would change so as to be consistent with this forward rate. A look at the interest rate parity relationship— written in the form€$11r F S r+=+ as F and S are in €:$ terms—suggests that with the decrease in forward rate from $0.9976 per € to$0.9781 per €, the spot rate and interest rate in dollars are likely to go down and interest rate in euros is likely to go up.16 Solnik/McLeavey • Global Investments, Sixth Edition10. a. The forward rate can be computed using the interest rate parity relation. Because the exchange rate is given in £:$ terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation is$£11r F S r +=+ (that is, r $ is a part of the numerator, and r £ is a part of the denominator). Accordingly, the one-year forward rate is1.02001.5620$1.5283 per £1.0425F .== b. Based on the forward rate, one pound would be worth $1.5283 one year later. The model predictsthat one pound would be worth $1.5315 one year later. Thus, as per the model, the pound isunderpriced in the forward market. Accordingly, Dustin Green would buy pounds forward at$1.5283/£.c. If everyone were to buy pounds forward, the price of pounds forward would increase and becomeequal to $1.5315 per £. The spot exchange rate and the dollar and pound interest rates wouldchange so as to be consistent with this forward rate. A look at the interest rate parity relationship suggests that the spot rate and the interest rate in dollars are likely to go up and the interest rate in pounds is likely to go down, to be consistent with the increase in the forward rate.11. a. If the market participants are risk-neutral, the expected future spot exchange rate would be thesame as the current forward rate. The forward rate is determined based on the current spotexchange rate and the interest rate differential between the two currencies. Thus, the expectedfuture spot exchange rate would depend on the current spot exchange rate and the interest ratedifferential.b. If the market participants are risk-averse, the forward rate would differ from the expected futurespot exchange rate by the risk premium. The risk premium, based on the extent of risk aversionof the market participants, could be positive or negative. So, the expected future spot exchangerate is the forward rate less the risk premium. Since the forward rate is based on the current spot exchange rate and the interest rate differential between the two currencies, the expected futurespot exchange rate would depend on the current spot exchange rate, the interest rate differential, and the risk premium.12. There is some evidence of positive serial correlation in exchange rate movements (real and nominal).Hence, when a currency is going up, a reasonable forecast is that it will continue going up. Similarly, when a currency is going down, a reasonable forecast is that it will continue going down. However, at some point in time, the trend would reverse, and the problem is that a trend-based forecasting model cannot forecast when this turning point would occur. Although these turning points may be infrequent, they can be the occasion of a huge swing. The Mexican peso is a good example. For a few years until the end of 1994, the real value of the peso appreciated steadily. So, forecasters using trendmodels for the real exchange rates were quite successful for many months. However, in December 1994, the peso suddenly crashed and lost around half of its value.13. Statements (a), (c), and (d) are true. Statement (b) is not true, because the objective of central bankactivity in the foreign exchange market is not to profit from trading activities, but to implementmonetary policy and exchange rate targets.Chapter 3 Foreign Exchange Determination and Forecasting 17 14. A mean-reverting time series is one that may diverge from its fundamental value in the short run butreverts to its fundamental value in the long run. Empirical evidence suggests that exchange rates are mean reverting. The real exchange rates (observed exchange rate minus inflation) do deviate from the fundamental value implied by PPP in the short run, but tend to revert to the fundamental value in the long run.15. Most econometric models are unsuitable for short-term exchange rate forecasts, as they model long-term structural economic relationships. For long-term exchange rate forecasts, the use of econometric models has some problems. First, most of them rely on predictions for certain key variables, such as money supply and interest rates. It is not easy to forecast these variables. Second, the structuralcorrelation estimated by the parameters of the equation can change over time, so that even if allcausative variables are correctly forecasted, the model can still yield poor exchange rate predictions.In periods when structural changes are rapid compared with the amount of time-series data required to estimate parameters, econometric models are of little help.16. Technical analysis is more likely to be used for short-term exchange rate movements, while theeconometric approach is more likely to be used for long-term exchange rate movements. The manager of a currency hedge fund and currency traders change their foreign exchange positions quite quickly, and are interested in short-term changes in exchange rates. On the other hand, the manager of an international stock portfolio is unlikely to change his foreign exchange positions quickly, because the transaction costs of buying and selling stocks are quite high. Therefore, the manager of aninternational stock portfolio is more interested in the long-term movements in exchange rates.Similarly, the long-term strategic planner of a corporation is interested in the long-term movements.Accordingly, the answers are:a. Technical analysisb. Econometric approachc. Technical analysisd. Econometric approach17. a. The absolute values of prediction errors are as follows: Forward rate: 1.440 − 1.308 = 0.132;Analyst A: 1.410 − 1.308 = 0.102; and Analyst B: 1.580 − 1.308 = 0.272. Thus, the forecast byAnalyst A was the most accurate.b. The forward rate and Analyst B erroneously predicted that the SFr to $ exchange rate would goup from the then-spot rate of SFr 1.420 per $; that is, the SFr would depreciate. Only Analyst Acorrectly predicted that the Swiss franc would appreciate.18. a. The absolute values of forecast errors are as follows: Forward rate: 148.148 − 144.697 = 3.451;Commerzbank: 148.148 − 142 = 6.148; and Harris Bank: 156 − 148.148 = 7.852. Thus, theforecast as per the forward rate was the most accurate, followed by Commerzbank, and then byHarris Bank.b. Although the forward rate and Commerzbank were more accurate than Harris Bank, both of themerroneously predicted that the yen would appreciate relative to the dollar. Only Harris Bankcorrectly predicted that the yen would depreciate.18 Solnik/McLeavey • Global Investments, Sixth Editionc. Commerzbank’s forecast was ¥142 per $, which was less than the forward rate. Therefore, DavidBrock bought yen forward (sold dollars) at the rate of ¥144.697 per $. Because the actual rateturned out to be ¥148.148 per $, buying yen forward did not turn out to be the right strategy. On the other hand, Harris Bank’s forecast was ¥156 per $, which was more than the forward rate.Therefore, Brian Lee sold yen forward (bought dollars) at the rate of ¥144.697 per $. Because the actual rate turned out to be ¥148.148 per $, selling yen forward turned out to be the right strategy. d. Commerzbank’s forecast had a lower forecast error than Harris Bank’s in Part (a). However, inPart (c), it was right to buy and sell based on Harris Bank’s forecast and not Commerzbank’s.The reason is that Harris Bank’s forecast turned out to be on the right side of the forward rate,while Commerzbank’s did not.19. Let the forecasts made by the Industrial Bank of Japan at the beginning of period t for the beginningof period t + 1 be E (S t + 1|φt ). Let the forward rates quoted at the beginning of period t for thebeginning of period t + 1 be F t , and the actual spot rates at the beginning of periods t and t + 1 be S t and S t +1, respectively. The percentage forecast errors (∈and e ) for each forecast made by the Industrial Bank of Japan and the forward rate are computed as εt +1 = [S t +1 − E (S t +1|φt )]/S t and e t +1 = [S t +1 − F t ]/S t , respectively. The following table details the computations.Pd. S t F t E (S t +1|φt ) S t +1 εt +1e t +1 ε2t +1 e 2t +1 1 143.164 142.511 140 144.3000.03000.01250.0009 0.0002 2 144.300 143.968 141 152.7500.08140.06090.0066 0.0037 3 152.750 153.600 151 149.400−0.0105−0.02750.0001 0.0008 4 149.400 149.400 143 129.600−0.0897−0.13250.0080 0.0176 5 129.600 129.700 130 129.500−0.0039−0.00150.0000 0.0000 6 129.500 129.800 131 139.2500.06370.07300.0041 0.0053 MSE0.0033 0.0046RMSE 0.0573 0.0678 The RMSE for the Industrial Bank of Japan is lower than that for the forward rate. Thus, as per thelimited data set in this problem, the Industrial Bank outperformed the forward rate in terms ofaccuracy of the forecasts, as measured by the RMSE. We have not tested whether the difference in forecast performances is statistically significant.。
国际投资学教程(第四版)綦建红 答案
《国际投资学教程》（第四版）习题参考答案第一章 国际投资概述1．名词解释国际投资：是指以资本增值和生产力提高为目标的国际资本流动，是投资者将其资本投入国外进行的以盈利为目的的经济活动。
公共投资VS 私人投资：前者是指一国政府或国际经济组织为了社会公共利益而进行的投资，一般带有国际援助的性质；后者是指私人或私人企业以盈利为目的而进行的投资。
二者区分的关键点在于投资主体和投资目的。
长期投资VS 短期投资：二者区分的关键点在于时间，前者一年以上，后者一年之内。
产业安全：所谓产业安全，可以分为宏观和中观两个层次。
宏观层次的产业安全，是指一国制度安排能够导致较合理的市场结构及市场行为，经济保持活力，在开放竞争中本国重要产业具有竞争力，多数产业能够生存并持续发展。
中观层次上的产业安全，是指本国国民所控制的企业达到生存规模，具有持续发展的能力及较大的产业影响力，在开放竞争中具有一定优势。
资本形成规模：是指海外直接投资的进入通常会引致东道国资本存量的增加，并被认为是国际投资对东道国（尤其是发展中东道国）经济增长的重大贡献。
2．简述20世纪70年代以来国际投资的发展出现了哪些新特点？（1）投资规模：国际直接投资的增长率大大超过了同期世界总产值和世界出口的增长率，成为国际经济联系中更主要的载体。
（2）投资格局，三个要点：其一，“大三角”国家对外投资集聚化，即美国、日本和西欧三足鼎立的“大三角”国际投资格局得以形成。
不仅如此，“大三角”国家和发展中国家相比，在对外投资领域显示出绝对主导地位。
其二，发达国家之间的相互投资不断增加。
不仅在国际资本流动中占据2/3的比重，成为国际投资的主体，而且在全球直接投资中占有更加重要的地位，形成了明显的以德国为中心的欧盟圈、以美国为中心的北美圈和以日本为中心的亚洲圈，占据了发达国家之间资本输入的绝大部分。
其三，发展中国家在吸引外资的同时，也走上了对外投资的舞台。
（3）投资方式：20世纪80年代以来，国际投资的发展出现了直接投资与间接投资齐头并进的发展局面。
国际投资学(课后题)
第一章国际投资概述填空题1.国际投资除具有国内投资的一般特征外，还具有投资主体多元化，投资客体多样化，蕴含资产的跨国运营过程，等方面的特征。
2.国际投资客体主要包括实物资产、无形资产、金融资产等三类资产。
3.根据投资主体类型，国际投资可分为官方投资和海外私人投资。
4.当今国际投资的流动主要集中在美国、欧盟和日本这“大三角”之间。
5.中国是当今发展中国家中吸引外资最多的国家。
名词解释国际投资国际投资：指各类投资主体，包括跨国公司、跨国金融机构、官方与半官方机构和居民个人等，将其拥有的货币资本或产业资本，经跨国界流动与配置形成实物资产、无形资产或金融资产，并通过跨国运营以实现价值增殖的经济行为。
国际直接投资国际直接投资：又称为海外直接投资，指投资者参与企业的生产经营活动，拥有实际的管理、控制权的投资方式，其投资收益要根据企业的经营状况决定，浮动性较强。
国际间接投资国际间接投资：又称为海外证券投资，指投资者通过购买外国的公司股票、公司债券、政府债券、衍生证券等金融资产，依靠股息、利息及买卖差价来实现资本增值的投资方式。
简答题简述国际直接投资与国际间接投资的波动性差异。
（1）国际直接投资者预期收益的视界要长于国际证券投资者；（2）国际直接投资者的投资动机更加趋于多样性；（2）（3）国际直接投资客体具有更强的非流动性。
简述国际投资的性质。
（1）国际投资是社会分工国际化的表现形式；（2）国际投资是生产要素国际配置的优化；（3）国际投资是一把影响世界经济的“双刃剑”；（4）国际投资是生产关系国际间运动的客观载体；（5）国际投资具有更为深刻的政治、经济内涵。
简述国际投资的发展阶段。
（1）初始形成阶段(1914年以前)：这一阶段以国际借贷资本流动为主；（2）低迷徘徊阶段(1914-1945)：由于两次世界大战，这一期间的国际投资受到了较为严重的影响，发展历程曲折迟缓，仍以国际间接投资为主；（3）恢复增长阶段(1945-1979)：这一阶段国际直接投资的主导地位形成；（4）迅猛发展阶段(20世纪80年代以来)：这一阶段出现了直接投资与间接投资齐头并进的大发展局面，成为经济全球化至为关键的推动力。
国际投资学作业答案新范文上课讲义
《国际投资学》作业集答案第一章国际投资概述一、名词解释1. 国际投资答：国际投资是各国官方机构、跨国公司、金融机构及居民个人等投资主题将其拥有的货币资本或产业资本，经跨国流动形成实物资产、无形资产或金融资产，并通过跨国经营得以实现价值增值的经济行为。
2.跨国公司答：跨国公司是指以雄厚的资本和先进的技术，通过对外直接投资在其他国家和地区设立子公司，从事国际化生产、销售活动的大型企业。
3.经济全球化答：指世界各国在全球范围内的融合。
二、简答题1.国际投资的主要特点答：投资主体单一化；投资环境多元化；投资目标多元化；投资运行复杂化；2.跨国公司与国内企业比较有哪些特点？答：第一，生产经营活动的跨国化；第二，实行全球性战略；第三，公司内部一体化原则。
三、论述题1. 书P35论述题第一题答：回答要点：（1）近年来跨国公司在中国的投资情况；（2）投资特征；（3）投资原因简要分析。
第二章国际直接投资理论一、名词解释1.内部化理论答：该理论认为世界市场是不完全竞争的市场，跨国公司为了其自身的利益，为客服外部市场的某些失效，以及某些产品的特殊性质或垄断势力的存在，导致企业市场交易成本的增加，而通过国际直接投资，将本来应在外部市场交易的业务转变为在公司所属企业之间进行，并形成一个内部市场。
2.产品生命周期答：（1）新产品创新阶段；（2）新产品的成熟阶段；（3）新产品的标准化阶段3.区位优势答：是指跨国公司在投资区位上具有的选择优势，，是发展对外直接投资时必须要考虑的重要因素。
二、简答题1.简述垄断优势理论的主要内容答：一、不完全竞争市场的形成不完全竞争是指由于规模经济、技术垄断、商标及产品差别等引起的偏离完全竞争的市场结构。
（一）产品和生产要素市场的不完全（二）由规模基金引起的市场不完全（三）由于政府干预经济而导致的市场不完全（四）由关税引起的市场不完全二、垄断优势理论的形成（一）技术优势；（二）先进的管理经验；（三）雄厚的资金实力；（四）全面而灵通的信息；（五）规模经济优势；（六）全球性的销售网络三、评价2.国际生产折中论的主要内容答：一、国际生产折中理论的形成二、国际生产折中理论产生的原因三、国际生产折中理论的核心（一）所有权优势；（二）内部化优势；（三）区位优势四、对国际生产折中理论的评价三、论述题1. 书P81论述题第一题答：（1）目前跨国公司内部贸易增加情况分析；（2）内部化优势理论；（3）理论对于现实的简要解释：主要是为了减少交易成本。
国际投资学教程课后题答案(完整版)
第一章1.名词解释：国际投资：是指以资本增值和生产力提高为目标的国际资本流动，是投资者将其资本投入国外进行的一阴历为目的的经济活动。
国际公共（官方）投资: 是指一国政府或国际经济组织为了社会公共利益而进行的投资，一般带有国际援助的性质。
国际私人投资：是指私人或私人企业以营利为目的而进行的投资。
短期投资：按国际收支统计分类，一年以内的债权被称为短期投资。
长期投资：一年以上的债权、股票以及实物资产被称为长期投资。
产业安全：可以分为宏观和中观两个层次。
宏观层次的产业安全，是指一国制度安排能够导致较合理的市场结构及市场行为，经济保持活力，在开放竞争中本国重要产业具有竞争力，多数产业能够沈村冰持续发展。
中观层次上的产业安全，是指本国国民所控制的企业达到生存规模，具有持续发展的能力及较大的产业影响力，在开放竞争中具有一定优势。
资本形成规模：是指一个经济落后的国家或地区如何筹集足够的、实现经济起飞和现代化的初始资本。
2、简述20世纪70年代以来国际投资的发展出现了哪些新特点？（一）投资规模，国际投资这这一阶段蓬勃发展，成为世纪经济舞台最为活跃的角色。
国际直接投资成为了国际经济联系中更主要的载体。
（二）投资格局，1.“大三角”国家对外投资集聚化 2.发达国家之间的相互投资不断增加 3.发展中国家在吸引外资的同时，也走上了对外投资的舞台(三)投资方式，国际投资的发展出现了直接投资与间接投资齐头并进的发展局面。
（四）投资行业，第二次世界大战后，国际直接投资的行业重点进一步转向第二产业。
3.如何看待麦克杜格尔模型的基本理念？麦克杜格尔模型是麦克杜格尔在1960年提出来，后经肯普发展，用于分析国际资本流动的一般理论模型，其分析的是国际资本流动对资本输出国、资本输入国及整个世界生产和国民收入分配的影响。
麦克杜格尔和肯普认为，国际间不存在限制资本流动的因素，资本可以自由地从资本要素丰富的国家流向资本要素短缺的国家。
资本流动的原因在于前者的资本价格低于后者。
国际投资第三章课后习题答案
Chapter 3Foreign Exchange Determination andForecasting1. Applying expansionary macroeconomic policy, which results in higher goods prices and lower realinterest rates, will not reduce the balance of payments deficit. Higher prices will make the country’s goods less competitive internationally, and lower interest rates will discourage foreign capital. Thus, the balance of payments deficit will worsen instead of improve. On the other hand, (a), (b), and (d) will help in remedying the balance of payments deficit. Accordingly, the answer is (c).2. a. One advantage of a wider band is “emotional.” France could claim that it did not devalue itscurrency. Another advantage is flexibility. If there were no long-term fundamental reasons(inflation, balance of payments deficit, etc.) for a devaluation, the temporary pressure on thefranc could ease and the franc could later revert to its previous level. The disadvantage of a wider band is exchange rate uncertainty for all firms. A “credible” small band is preferable for firmsconducting international trade,b. A wider band makes speculation less attractive, because there is no guarantee that a central bankwill defend its currency until the wide fluctuation margin is reached.3. a. The American investor has paid a 25 percent premium over the price paid by a domestic investor.Yet, he receives the same dividends as the domestic investor. Therefore, his investment bears asmaller yield than it would for a domestic investor.b. Lifting of the exchange controls would be bad news to an existing foreign investor in Paf, sinceher asset could only be repatriated at the normal pif rate (1.00), while she had bought it at thefinancial rate (1.25).c. Lifting of the exchange controls would be good news to foreign investors planning to invest inPaf in the future, because they would no longer have to pay the 25 percent premium when buying assets in Paf.4. Remember that the Eurozone is made up of those countries in the EU that have adopted the euro ascommon currency. Statements I and III are clearly correct. Statement II is clearly not correct, because there is a possibility that more countries may join the Eurozone in future. For example, the British are debating whether to join the Eurozone.5. The statement is true. Because of riskless arbitrage, interest rate parity between two currencies wouldhold if the markets for both are free and deregulated. Developed financial markets tend to be more free and deregulated. A developing country is more likely to impose various forms of capital controls and taxes that impede arbitrage. A developing country is economically not as well integrated with the world financial markets as the developed markets are. Also, some smaller currencies can only be borrowed and lent domestically, and the domestic money markets of developing countries are more likely to be subjected to political risk.Chapter 3 Foreign Exchange Determination and Forecasting 156. a. Using the first-order approximation of PPP relationship, the variation in rupee to dollar exchangerate should equal the inflation differential between rupee and dollar. So, the rupee to dollarexchange rate should increase by 6 − 2.5 = 3.5%. That is, the rupee should depreciate by 3.5%relative to the dollar.b. The nominal dollar return for the U.S. institutional investor is approximately 12 − 5 = 7%. Thereal return for the U.S. investor is approximately 7 − 2.5 = 4.5%. The real return for the Indianinvestor is approximately 12 − 6 = 6%. Thus, the U.S. investor has a lower real return than theIndian investor. This is so because the rupee depreciated with respect to the dollar by more thanwhat the PPP relationship would indicate. Indeed, the difference between the real returns is6 − 4.5 = 1.5%, which is the same as the difference between the actual depreciation of the rupeeand the depreciation that should have occurred as per PPP (5 − 3.5 = 1.5%).7. If a country’s currency is undervalued, it means that the real prices of assets in this country are lowcompared with other countries. Also, the wages are lower in real terms than in other countries. Thus, investors from other countries would invest in this country to take advantage of low prices andwages. This action would help in the appreciation of the undervalued currency and restoration of the PPP in the long run. In terms of foreign trade, an undervalued currency implies that exports from this country would get a boost while imports would become less attractive. This would also help in the appreciation of the undervalued currency and restoration of the PPP in the long run.8. In risk-neutral efficient foreign exchange markets, the forward rate is the expected value of the futurespot rate. The forward rate can be computed using the interest rate parity relation. Because the exchange rate is given in $:SFr terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation isSFr $11r F Sr +=+ (that is, r SFr is a part of the numerator and r $ is a part of the denominator). Accordingly, the three-month forward rate is10.00951.4723 1.460010.0180F +==+ thus, the implied market prediction for the three-month ahead exchange rate is SFr1.4600 per $.9. As per the model, one € would be worth $0.9781 six months later. Based on the forward rate, one €would be worth $0.9976 six months later. Therefore, the market participants, who believe that the model is quite good, would buy the dollar in the forward market (sell euros). Consequently, the price of the euro forward would decrease (the dollar forward would increase) and the forward rate would become equal to $0.9781 per €. The spot exchange rate and the dollar and euro interest rates would change so as to be consistent with this forward rate. A look at the interest rate parity relationship— written in the form€$11r F S r+=+ as F and S are in €:$ terms—suggests that with the decrease in forward rate from $0.9976 per € to$0.9781 per €, the spot rate and interest rate in dollars are likely to go down and interest rate in euros is likely to go up.16 Solnik/McLeavey • Global Investments, Sixth Edition10. a. The forward rate can be computed using the interest rate parity relation. Because the exchange rate is given in £:$ terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation is$£11r F S r +=+ (that is, r $ is a part of the numerator, and r £ is a part of the denominator). Accordingly, the one-year forward rate is1.02001.5620$1.5283 per £1.0425F .== b. Based on the forward rate, one pound would be worth $1.5283 one year later. The model predictsthat one pound would be worth $1.5315 one year later. Thus, as per the model, the pound isunderpriced in the forward market. Accordingly, Dustin Green would buy pounds forward at$1.5283/£.c. If everyone were to buy pounds forward, the price of pounds forward would increase and becomeequal to $1.5315 per £. The spot exchange rate and the dollar and pound interest rates wouldchange so as to be consistent with this forward rate. A look at the interest rate parity relationship suggests that the spot rate and the interest rate in dollars are likely to go up and the interest rate in pounds is likely to go down, to be consistent with the increase in the forward rate.11. a. If the market participants are risk-neutral, the expected future spot exchange rate would be thesame as the current forward rate. The forward rate is determined based on the current spotexchange rate and the interest rate differential between the two currencies. Thus, the expectedfuture spot exchange rate would depend on the current spot exchange rate and the interest ratedifferential.b. If the market participants are risk-averse, the forward rate would differ from the expected futurespot exchange rate by the risk premium. The risk premium, based on the extent of risk aversionof the market participants, could be positive or negative. So, the expected future spot exchangerate is the forward rate less the risk premium. Since the forward rate is based on the current spot exchange rate and the interest rate differential between the two currencies, the expected futurespot exchange rate would depend on the current spot exchange rate, the interest rate differential, and the risk premium.12. There is some evidence of positive serial correlation in exchange rate movements (real and nominal).Hence, when a currency is going up, a reasonable forecast is that it will continue going up. Similarly, when a currency is going down, a reasonable forecast is that it will continue going down. However, at some point in time, the trend would reverse, and the problem is that a trend-based forecasting model cannot forecast when this turning point would occur. Although these turning points may be infrequent, they can be the occasion of a huge swing. The Mexican peso is a good example. For a few years until the end of 1994, the real value of the peso appreciated steadily. So, forecasters using trendmodels for the real exchange rates were quite successful for many months. However, in December 1994, the peso suddenly crashed and lost around half of its value.13. Statements (a), (c), and (d) are true. Statement (b) is not true, because the objective of central bankactivity in the foreign exchange market is not to profit from trading activities, but to implementmonetary policy and exchange rate targets.Chapter 3 Foreign Exchange Determination and Forecasting 17 14. A mean-reverting time series is one that may diverge from its fundamental value in the short run butreverts to its fundamental value in the long run. Empirical evidence suggests that exchange rates are mean reverting. The real exchange rates (observed exchange rate minus inflation) do deviate from the fundamental value implied by PPP in the short run, but tend to revert to the fundamental value in the long run.15. Most econometric models are unsuitable for short-term exchange rate forecasts, as they model long-term structural economic relationships. For long-term exchange rate forecasts, the use of econometric models has some problems. First, most of them rely on predictions for certain key variables, such as money supply and interest rates. It is not easy to forecast these variables. Second, the structuralcorrelation estimated by the parameters of the equation can change over time, so that even if allcausative variables are correctly forecasted, the model can still yield poor exchange rate predictions.In periods when structural changes are rapid compared with the amount of time-series data required to estimate parameters, econometric models are of little help.16. Technical analysis is more likely to be used for short-term exchange rate movements, while theeconometric approach is more likely to be used for long-term exchange rate movements. The manager of a currency hedge fund and currency traders change their foreign exchange positions quite quickly, and are interested in short-term changes in exchange rates. On the other hand, the manager of an international stock portfolio is unlikely to change his foreign exchange positions quickly, because the transaction costs of buying and selling stocks are quite high. Therefore, the manager of aninternational stock portfolio is more interested in the long-term movements in exchange rates.Similarly, the long-term strategic planner of a corporation is interested in the long-term movements.Accordingly, the answers are:a. Technical analysisb. Econometric approachc. Technical analysisd. Econometric approach17. a. The absolute values of prediction errors are as follows: Forward rate: 1.440 − 1.308 = 0.132;Analyst A: 1.410 − 1.308 = 0.102; and Analyst B: 1.580 − 1.308 = 0.272. Thus, the forecast byAnalyst A was the most accurate.b. The forward rate and Analyst B erroneously predicted that the SFr to $ exchange rate would goup from the then-spot rate of SFr 1.420 per $; that is, the SFr would depreciate. Only Analyst Acorrectly predicted that the Swiss franc would appreciate.18. a. The absolute values of forecast errors are as follows: Forward rate: 148.148 − 144.697 = 3.451;Commerzbank: 148.148 − 142 = 6.148; and Harris Bank: 156 − 148.148 = 7.852. Thus, theforecast as per the forward rate was the most accurate, followed by Commerzbank, and then byHarris Bank.b. Although the forward rate and Commerzbank were more accurate than Harris Bank, both of themerroneously predicted that the yen would appreciate relative to the dollar. Only Harris Bankcorrectly predicted that the yen would depreciate.18 Solnik/McLeavey • Global Investments, Sixth Editionc. Commerzbank’s forecast was ¥142 per $, which was less than the forward rate. Therefore, DavidBrock bought yen forward (sold dollars) at the rate of ¥144.697 per $. Because the actual rateturned out to be ¥148.148 per $, buying yen forward did not turn out to be the right strategy. On the other hand, Harris Bank’s forecast was ¥156 per $, which was more than the forward rate.Therefore, Brian Lee sold yen forward (bought dollars) at the rate of ¥144.697 per $. Because the actual rate turned out to be ¥148.148 per $, selling yen forward turned out to be the right strategy. d. Commerzbank’s forecast had a lower forecast error than Harris Bank’s in Part (a). However, inPart (c), it was right to buy and sell based on Harris Bank’s forecast and not Commerzbank’s.The reason is that Harris Bank’s forecast turned out to be on the right side of the forward rate,while Commerzbank’s did not.19. Let the forecasts made by the Industrial Bank of Japan at the beginning of period t for the beginningof period t + 1 be E (S t + 1|φt ). Let the forward rates quoted at the beginning of period t for thebeginning of period t + 1 be F t , and the actual spot rates at the beginning of periods t and t + 1 be S t and S t +1, respectively. The percentage forecast errors (∈and e ) for each forecast made by the Industrial Bank of Japan and the forward rate are computed as εt +1 = [S t +1 − E (S t +1|φt )]/S t and e t +1 = [S t +1 − F t ]/S t , respectively. The following table details the computations.Pd. S t F t E (S t +1|φt ) S t +1 εt +1e t +1 ε2t +1 e 2t +1 1 143.164 142.511 140 144.3000.03000.01250.0009 0.0002 2 144.300 143.968 141 152.7500.08140.06090.0066 0.0037 3 152.750 153.600 151 149.400−0.0105−0.02750.0001 0.0008 4 149.400 149.400 143 129.600−0.0897−0.13250.0080 0.0176 5 129.600 129.700 130 129.500−0.0039−0.00150.0000 0.0000 6 129.500 129.800 131 139.2500.06370.07300.0041 0.0053 MSE0.0033 0.0046RMSE 0.0573 0.0678 The RMSE for the Industrial Bank of Japan is lower than that for the forward rate. Thus, as per thelimited data set in this problem, the Industrial Bank outperformed the forward rate in terms ofaccuracy of the forecasts, as measured by the RMSE. We have not tested whether the difference in forecast performances is statistically significant.。
国际投资章节重点
01 国际投资概述〔习题参考答案〕一、名词解释1．国际投资:一国的个人或单位对他国的经营活动进行跨国界投资，以求获得较国内更高经济效益的经济2．国际直接投资:跨国投资者参与企业的生产经营活动，拥有实际的管理、控制权的投资方式。
3．国际间接投资:投资者通过购买外国公司股票、公司债券、政府债券、衍生证券等金融资产，依靠股息、利息及买卖差价来实现资本增值职能的投资方式。
二、简答题1．国际投资的性质1）是生产领域分工国际化的表现形式2）是生产关系国际间运动的客观载体3）具有深刻的政治和经济内涵。
2．国际投资的特点“跨国性”是国际投资的最显著特征，它由此而产生了如下特点：1．国际投资目的的多元化。
2．国际投资所使用的货币的多元化。
3．国际投资体现着一定的民族、国家的利益。
4．国际投资环境的差异性。
5．国际投资所包含的风险更大。
3．国际投资发展的条件（1）科技进步带来的生产力的飞跃（2）国际金融市场的发展。
（3）跨国公司的全球一体化经营战略。
（4）国际投资本身为世界经济增长作出的显著贡献。
4．资本输出与国际投资的区别资本输出是资本主义生产关系的输出，是资本主义宗主国与殖民地、半殖民地之间剥削关系的表现，是着重于生产关系分析的概念；国际投资是生产力发展所要求的生产要素流动的表现形式，着重于生产力分析的范畴。
5．国际投资和国际资本流动的联系与区别联系：国际资本流动包含的内容广泛，构成了国际投资的基础，国际投资必然包含在国际资本流动的范畴中。
区别：国际投资的本质特征在于它的赢利目标；而国际资本流动则应从一国与他国的资金往来角度划分的，它既包括了以赢利为目的国际投资，也包括带有资金融通性质的其他非投资性质的活动，如国际援助三、论述题1. 试述资本要素国际流动的内容经济学家在国际收支平衡表的资本项目中，以一年期为限把资本要素的国际流动分为短期资本和长期资本。
(1) 短期资本：包括暂时周转用的相互借贷，国际存款，购买一年内到期的汇票及证券等。
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第三章国际投资环境
1. 名词解释
国际投资环境：影响国际投资的各种自然因素、经济因素、政治因素、社会因素和法律因素相互依赖、相互完善、相互制约所形成的的矛盾统一体。
硬环境：能影响投资的外部物质条件。
软环境：能影响国际直接投资的各种非物质形态的因素。
冷热比较分析法：从政治稳定性、市场机会、经济发展与成就、文化一元化等“热”因素和法令障碍、实质障碍、地理与文化差异等冷因素共7各方面对各国投资环境进行综合比较分析。
2.简述国际直接投资环境的重要性及其决定因素
重要性：国际直接投资环境的优劣直接决定了一国对外资吸引力的大小。
决定因素：经济环境是最直接、最基本的因素。
3.试总结各种国际投资环境评估方法的基本思路和共性
基本思路和共性是将总投资环境分解为若干具体指标，然后再综合评判。
4. 案例分析
分别运用等级尺度法和要素评价分类法对英国的投资环境进行计分和评价
等级尺度法：1.货币稳定性（4-20分）2.近五年通货膨胀率（2-14分）3.资本外调（0-12分）4.外商股权（0-12分）5.外国企业与本地企业之间的差别待遇和控制（0-12分）6.政治稳定性（0-12分）7.当地资本供应能力（0-10分）8.给予关税保护的态度（2-8分）要素评价法：I=AE/CF(B+D+G+H)+x 投资环境激励系数（A）城市规划完善度因子（B）利税因子（C）劳动生产率因子（D）地区基础因子（E）效率因子（F）市场因子（G）管理权因子（H）
5. 试结合本章专栏3-1和专栏3-3，分析我国改善投资环境的重点和具体措施。
改善投资环境的重点是改善软环境和社会因素中的价值观念、教育水平、社会心理与习惯。
具体措施是降低贸易壁垒、提高私有财产保护程度、降低企业运行障碍、提高政府清廉程度、提高经济自由程度和提高法律完善程度。
本章小结
国际投资环境是指影响国际投资的各种因素相互依赖、相互完善、相互制约所形成的矛盾统一体，国际直接投资环境的优劣直接决定了一国对外资吸引力的大小。
投资者在进行对外投资活动时，必然要对投资环境进行分析与评价，尽管所使用的方法多种多样，但其思路是大致相同的，即将总投资环境分解为若干具体指标，然后再综合评判。