高一英语下学期期中试题 15

峨山彝族自治县第一中学2021-2021学年高一英语下学期期中试题本套试卷分第一卷〔选择题〕和第二卷(非选择题)两局部。

一共计12页。

一共150分。

考试时间是是120分钟。

考生答题时，请将答案答在答题卡上上，在套本套试卷上答题无效。

第I卷〔选择题一共115分〕
第一局部：听力(一共两节，满分是30分)
第一节(一共5小题；每一小题1. 5分，满分是7. 5分)
听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项里面选出最正确选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间是来答复有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1.What does the woman order?
A. A steak.
B. Hot chocolate.
C. A large fries.
2.What is the man doing?
A.Applying for a job.
B.Dinning at the cafeteria.
C.Asking for permission.
3.What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. Call Michelle.
B. Lend him a book.
C. Tell him a phone number.
4. What will the boy probably do next?
A. Brush his teeth.
B. Listen to a story.
C. Continue on playing games.
5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student.
B. Mother and son.
C. Friends.
第二节 (一共15小题；每一小题1.5分，满分是22.5分)
听下面5段对话或者独白。

每段对话或者独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项里面选出最正确选项。

听每段对话或者独白前，你将有时间是阅读各个小题，每一小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的答题时间是。

每段对话或者独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，答复第6至7题。

6. How does the woman feel about go-skarting (卡丁车) at first?
A. Unsure.
B. Curious.
C. Terrified.
7. Why don’t the go-skarts go very fast?
A. They are electric.
B. Only the adults get to drive them.
C. The children get trained to drive quickly.
听第7段材料，答复第8至10题。

8. Where are the speakers going tonight?
A. To a restaurant.
B. To a dance club.
C. To a shopping mall.
9. What type of shoes does the woman want to wear?
A. Something fancy.
B. Something that matches her dress.
C. Something for running.
10. What does the woman say about the second pair of shoes?
A. Pretty.
B. Hurt.
C. Slippery. 听第8段材料，答复第11至13题。

11. What can we learn about the man?
A. He is really hungry.
B. He usually doesn’t eat fast food.
C. He can’t afford an expensive lunch that day.
12. How long will it take to get to the man’s neighborhood by bus?
A. 15 minutes.
B. 20 minutes.
C. 30 minutes.
13. Where are the speakers probably going right after this conversation?
A. To a supermarket.
B. To a fast food place.
C. To a French restaurant.
听第9段材料，答复第14至17题。

14. What did the woman want to do tonight at first?
A. See a band.
B. Go to the movies.
C. Play a game.
15. How did the man get the information about the charity show?
A. On the Internet.
B. By text message.
C. After talking to Hugo.
16. How does the woman feel about the price at first?
A. It is ok.
B. It is low.
C. It is high.
17. Where are the speakers going to go tomorrow?
A. A movie theater.
B. A music club.
C. Nowhere.
听第10段材料，答复第18至20题。

18. Who are the listeners?
A. Teachers.
B. College students.
C. High school students.
19. What does the speaker encourage the listeners to do?
A. Achieve more.
B. Make more friends.
C. Give more and take less.
20. When will the speech about the future be held?
A. On Tuesday afternoon.
B. On Wednesday morning.
C. On Wednesday afternoon.
第二局部: 阅读理解(一共两节，满分是40分)
第一节〔一共15小题；每一小题2分，满分是30分〕
阅读以下短文,从每一小题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最正确选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A
Inside Out is one of my favorite Disney / Pixar movies. The story is about a young girl named Riley who moves from Minnesota to San Francisco with her family and how she deals with her emotions (情感) through the move. These five emotions in Riley's brain are Joy, Fear, Anger, Disgust (厌恶) and Sadness. These emotions play a very important role in her life. I can relate because I am an 11-year-old girl and I am very in touch with my emotions and pre-teen feelings.
The film is extremely beautiful and you couldn't ask for better direction from Pete Doctor. The use of the right colors for the characters is great. For example, Joy is yellow, Sadness is blue, Disgust is green, Fear is purple and Anger of course
is red. Sadness plays a main role in the story and it makes me wonder why we are told not to be sad. I think it's important to be sad when the time comes. The end of the movie pretty much got me and the whole audience (观众) (families, couples and even elderly people) in tears and I cried very hard.
I recommend (推荐) this movie for anyone from 8 to 18 because it has enough joy in it for younger kids to like it even though it does have some sad moments. I believe that adults will like it too. And I give it 4 out of 5 stars because it connects to an older audience even though it is designed for a younger audience. I think younger children can see this, but a parent would have to explain some things to them after the movie.
21. The author feels connected with the movie because she and the character Riley _____.
A. enjoy the same movie
B. have the same feelings
C. have the same move experience
D. have a similar family background
22. What does the author think of Pete Doctor's job?
A. Bad.
B. Just so-so.
C. Wonderful.
D. Disappointing.
23. After seeing the movie, the author has a new understanding of _____.
A. fear
B. sadness
C. anger
D. joy
24. In the author's eyes, the movie _____.
A. won't attract people over 18
B. is really unsuitable for children
C. will be popular among kids and adults
D. can easily be understood by younger kids
B
Christian Eijkman, a Dutch doctor, left the Netherlands for the island of Java. Many people on the island had a disease(疾病) called beri-beri. He was going there to try and find a cure.
At first, Eijkman thought some kind of germ (细菌) caused beri-beri. He raised some chickens. He didn't eat them, but made experiments on them. The local people were quite surprised at that. One day he noticed that his chickens became sick when they were fed the food most Javanese ate- refined white rice (精炼米). When he fed them with unrefined rice, also known as brown rice, they recovered. Eijkman realized that he had made an important discovery- that some things in food could prevent disease. These things were named vitamins (维生素). The Javanese were not getting enough
vitamins because they had actually removed the part that contains vitamins. Later, other diseases were also found to be caused by the lack of vitamins in a person's food. Today many people know the importance of vitamins and they make sure they have enough vitamins from the food they eat. If they don't, they can also take vitamin pills.
25. The underlined word "cure" in Paragraph 1 probably means ______.
A. a medical treatment
B. a kind of vitamin
C. a kind of germ
D. a kind of rice
26. Christian Eijkman went to the island of Java to ______.
A. spend his holiday
B. find ways to grow better crops
C. do some research about the island
D. help the Javanese with their illness
27. Why did Christian Eijkman raise some chickens?
A. To eat them.
B. To carry out his experiments.
C. To give the Javanese a surprise.
D. To make money by selling them.
28. We can learn from the passage that ______.
A. beri-beri was caused by chickens
B. the Javanese didn't like vitamins
C. Christian Eijkman's experiment was successful
D. the Javanese's disease was caused by a kind of germ
C
29. On the second day, the travelers will ______.
A. visit a museum
B. take a boat trip
C. have a KTV party
D. do some shopping
30. If one wants to know what Singapore was like in the past, he can visit ______.
A. the Handicraft Centre
B. Changi Airport
C. Sentosa
Island D. Chinatown
31. If one wants to spend less than 3,000 yuan on the air ticket, he can leave for Singapore on ______.
A. November 16, 2021
B. November 17, 2021
C. November 18, 2021
D. November 19, 2021
D
There are only 24 hours in a day, but people can use the time wisely. In other words, good time management is important if you want to succeed.
Knowing the importance of daily matters is the first step towards good time management. Write down the things that you want to do and organize them according to their level of importance. The important thing should be done first. If there are too many things that have to be done in one day, then you have to give up doing something that is less important on your list.
Besides this, you need to spend a specific amount of time doing all the activities you have written down and make sure you finish them on time. People often slow down in their work even though they know that time will never wait for them. Make sure you keep to your plan and finish the tasks one by one. Do not try to do too many things at once.
Also, you can group similar activities together and do them one by one. For example，you can group all the tasks you need to do in the office together and do them while you're in office. Do all the tasks that have to be done in one place first, and then move to the next place to do the other tasks.
“The bad news is that time flies. The good news is that you're the pilot,〞 said Michael Althsuler. Your future is in your hands, so remember to invest(HY)your time wisely from today on.
32．Which of the following things should be done first?
A．The most difficult things.
B．The most important things.
C．The things that weren't done yesterday.
D．The things that take the least time.
33．The author quoted the words by Althsuler to say that ________.
A．you can manage your time wisely
B．you can't control time
C．time passes quickly
D．everything has two sides
34．With which of the following would the author agree?
A．Never give up doing the least important things.
B．Successful people can make a day last longer than 24 hours.
C．Writing down daily tasks is the first step towards success.
D．Effective time management can help one to succeed.
35．The text is mainly about ________.
A．the importance of time management
B．ways to manage time effectively
C．ways to organize daily activities
D．the importance of doing tasks on time
第二节〔一共5小题；每一小题2分，满分是10 分〕
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项里面选出能填入空白处的最正确选项。

选项里面有两项
为多余选项。

Five steps to better handwriting
Some kids love handwr iting, but others hate when it’s time to put their pen
to paper. Maybe they are worried about their handwriting. Are you one of them? 36 Here are five steps that really work!
Get a great grasp. Try this — hold your pencil at the top and try to write your
name. Pretty hard? But when you hold your pencil the correct way, writing is much easier. 37 Hold it in place with your thumb, and your index (食指) and middle fingers.
Let the lines be your guide. Lined paper is your friend! Those lines can help you create letters that are the right size and proportion (平衡). 38 Also be sure to fill up the lined space completely. Those capital letters should be from the bottom line to the top one.
Slow down. If your writing is hard to read, try slowing down a little. If you rush, it’s hard to control where you stop and start your letters.
Lower the pressure (压力). 39 That makes it harder to make the smooth lines. Try easing up and don’t hold the pencil too tightly.
40 . Lots of games require you to write or draw pictures. So even though it’s not schoolwork, you’re still using the skills you need to control your pen better.
A. Ask for more advice
B. Play games
C. So “a〞should be half the height of a capital “A〞.
D. You’ve be en writing since you were a little kid.
E. Some kids press down really hard when they write.
F. The best way to hold a pen is to let it rest next to the base of your thumb.
G. The good news is that just about everyone can improve their handwriting.
第三局部英语知识运用〔一共两节，满分是45分〕
第一节完形填空〔一共20小题；每一小题1.5分，满分是30分〕
If there is one thing I have learned over the years，it is that life in this world is bittersweet．It has been and it 41 will be．I realized this early and every day I see further 42 of it．It is something that we all just have to 43 ．
When I was a boy, I cherished my books and toys，but then I 44 them all when our house was 45 in the middle of one night．When growing up，I loved the isolated(孤立的)woodlands and meadows that were my 46 ，but often I found myself playing 47 ．At school，I found learning fun and 48 ，but I was never as popular as I wanted to be．In college，I enjoyed the excitement of being out on my own，yet I still missed the love and 49 of home．
As I grew into adulthood，I fell in love and had my heart 50 ．I graduated from college，but I never 51 the success I thought l would get．I had three beautiful 52 that taught me so much about love，yet I watched my two sons 53 daily with Autism(孤独症)．I cherished the love that my Mom and Dad gave me，and then I 54 them die before I was 50．
Life is bittersweet which is full of ups and downs，twists and turns，successes and 55 ．Whether life makes us bitter or sweet， 56 ，is up to us．Anyhow，
we could 57 something from it．It is during the 58 times that we grow the strongest and our goodness is most 59 ．Stay strong．Love much．Live well．Please 60 your goodness and make this world a sweeter place for all．41．A．rarely B．forever
C．almost D．always
42．A．information B．action
C．experience D．evidence
43．A．respect B．accept
C．decline D．fight
44．A．borrowed B．picked
C．lost D．destroyed
45．A．burned down B．built up C. let out
D．turn apart
46．A．laboratory B．library
C．study D．playground
47．A．fairly B．badly
C．alone D．well
48．A．easy B．rapid
C．formal D．boring
49．A．conditions B．comforts
C．reliefs D．aids
50．A．won B．stolen C．broken D，failed
51．A．judged B．enjoyed
C．gained D．proved
52．A．children B．teachers
C．relatives D．friends
53．A．commit B．undertake C．operate D．struggle
54．A．watched B．sensed
C．heard D．noticed 55．A．difficulties B．failures
C．hardships D．diseases
56．A．however B．therefore
C．though D．otherwise
57．A．conclude B．benefit
C．realize D．learn
58．A．perfect B．sweet
C．tough D．suitable
59．A．needed B．showed
C．found D．kept
60．A．divide B．repay
C．receive D．share
第二节语法填空〔一共10小题；每一小题1.5分，满分是15分〕
Life pressure can be big enough, so we need to be surrounded by warm phrases,
or even some blind 61 (confident). Recently, many chat groups 62 (form) to show kindness and support to members. These “in-need-of-praise〞chat groups are 63 reflection of Chinese culture, where 64 (open) seeking and giving praise is uncommon, 65 (lead) many people to hide their
true emotions even from their families.
For young people, gaining recognition from peers is more important than getting approval. They can feel a sense of belonging and gain encouragement, 66 is beneficial to their mental health.
As long as people’s praise doesn’t sound 67 (sincere), we are likely
to welcome it. Most of us like praises, 68 they can raise our spirits, warm
our hearts and decrease fears and self-doubt.
However, anyone giving or receiving praise in such 69 (group) should
be cautious. And the biggest risk is the constant emphasis on the “false self〞, which makes ___70__ harder to see the “true self〞.
第II卷〔非选择题一共35分〕
第四局部：写作〔一共两节，满分是35分〕
第一节：短文改错〔一共10小题，每一小题1分，满分是10分〕
假设英语课上教师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌的以下作文。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏词符号∧，并在此符号下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线＼划掉。

修改：在错词下面划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1、每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2、只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。

It was a beautiful Sunday. Our teacher told us that there would an English corner after class. I set off soon after the last class in the afternoon. To my joyful, the English corner had just been on for a few minute. I took part on their talk. At first, I was afraid that my English was such poor and limited that I couldn’t followed them.
I was also afraid that anyone might laugh at me. But a smiling face here or an encouraging nod there soon put me at ease. The day was unforgettable. Though we speak only in simple English, we all believe that tomorrow we will make a greater progress. 第二节书面表达〔满分是25分〕
假定你是李华，将于今年七月从某外语毕业。

你从报纸上得知B & B公司要招聘一名英文秘书，你很感兴趣，要写一封求职信，
包括以下要点：1．年龄：18．
2. 学习情况：班级前5，英语口语好
3．兴趣和特长：打字快，喜欢阅读，听音乐
4．性格特点：积极向上
注意：1．词数100左右；
2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连接；
3．开头语和完毕语己为你写好。

2021-202学年高一英语下学期期中考试卷参考答案
第一局部：听力〔一共两节；每一小题1.5分，满分是30分〕
1-5. BACCB 6-10. AABBC 11-15. CBABA 16-20. CBCAC
第二局部：阅读理解〔一共两节, 满分是40分〕
第一节 (一共15小题；每一小题2分, 满分是30分)
21-24 BCBC 25-28 ADBC 29-31 ADC 32-35 BADB
第二节 (一共5小题；每一小题2分, 满分是10分)
36-40. GFCEB
第三局部英语知识运用〔一共两节，满分是45分〕
第一节完形填空〔一共20小题；每一小题1.5分，满分是30分〕
41-45 DDBCA 46-50 DCABC 51-55 CADAB 56-60 ADCAD
第二节语法填空〔一共10小题；每一小题1.5分，满分是15分〕
61. confidence 62. have been formed 63. a 64. openly 65.
leading 66. which 67. insincere 68. because 69.groups 70. it
第四局部写作(一共两节，满分是35分〕
第一节短文改错(一共10小题;每一小题1分，满分是10分〕
1. 在would后加上be
2. joyful改为joy
3. minute改为minutes
4. on改为in
5. such改为so
6. followed改为follow
7. anyone改为someone
8. or 改为and 9. speak改为spoke 10. 去掉a
第二节：书面表达〔满分是25分〕
Dear Sir/ Madam,
I learned from the newspaper that your company needs an English secretary. I’m really interested in this position so I am writing to apply for it.
I’m18 years old and will graduate from Xinxing Foreign Languages School this July. I’m an excellent student, among the top 5 in my class of 50 students. I’m good at English, especially spoken English. I often use the computer and I type very fast. In my spare time, I read a lot. Poems are my favorite. I enjoy music very much too. Being an active young person, I like sports and outdoor activities. Besides, I’m easy to get along with and I like to make friends. I hope I may be granted〔授予〕an interview, when I can explain my qualifications〔资格，条件〕more fully.
I am looking forward to your reply.
Sincerely/Yours,
LiHua
励志赠言经典语录精选句；挥动**，放飞梦想。

厚积薄发，一鸣惊人。

关于努力学习的语录。

自古以来就有许多文人留下如头悬梁锥刺股的经典的，而近代又有哪些经典的高中励
志赠言出现呢?小编筛选了高中励志赠言句经典语录，看看是否有些帮助吧。

好男儿踌躇满志，你将如愿;真巾帼灿烂扬眉，我要成功。

含泪播种的人一定能含笑收获。

贵在坚持、难在坚持、成在坚持。

功崇惟志，业广为勤。

耕耘今天，收获明天。

成功，要靠辛勤与汗水，也要靠技巧与方法。

常说口里顺，常做手不笨。

不要自卑，你不比别人笨。

不要自满，别人不比你笨。

高三某班，青春无限，超越梦想，勇于争先。

敢闯敢拼，**协力，争创佳绩。

丰富学校体育内涵，共建时代校园文化。

奋勇冲击，永争第一。

奋斗冲刺，誓要蟾宫折桂;全心拼搏，定能金榜题名。

放心去飞，勇敢去追，追一切我们为完成的梦。

翻手为云，覆手为雨。

二人同心，其利断金。

短暂辛苦，终身幸福。

东隅已逝，桑榆非晚。

登高山，以知天之高;临深溪，以明地之厚。

大智若愚，大巧若拙。

聪明出于勤奋，天才在于积累。

把握机遇，心想事成。

奥运精神，永驻我心。

“想”要壮志凌云，“干”要脚踏实地。

**燃烧希望，励志赢来成功。

楚汉名城，喜迎城运盛会，三湘四水，欢聚体坛精英。

乘风破浪会有时，直挂云帆济沧海。

不学习，如何养活你的众多女人。

不为失败找理由，要为成功想办法。

不勤于始，将悔于终。

不苦不累，高三无味;不拼不搏，高三白活。

不经三思不求教不动笔墨不读书，人生难得几回搏，此时不搏，何时搏。

不敢高声语，恐惊读书人。

不耻下问，学以致用，锲而不舍，孜孜不倦。

博学强识，时不我待，黑发勤学，自首不悔。

播下希望，充满**，勇往直前，永不言败。

保定宗旨，砥砺德行，远见卓识，创造辉煌。

百尺高梧，撑得起一轮月色;数椽矮屋，锁不住五夜书声。