河北省唐山市路南区2021-2022学年八年级上学期期末英语试卷(含答案无听力原文及音频)

2021—2022学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试卷
本试卷共100分，考试时间90分钟。

交卷时只交答题卡。

听力部分
I. 听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息(共5 小题；每小题1 分，满分5分)
1. A. suppose B. surprise C. support
2. A. grow up B. give up C. get up
3. A. make sure B. make sense C. make noises
4. A. Mr. Li went to Dalian by ship.
B. Mr. Li had a trip in Dalian.
C. Mr. Li went to Dalian on business.
5. A. I am interested in English.
B. I am good at English.
C. I have learned English for three years.
II. 听句子，选出该句的最佳答语(共5 小题；每小题1 分，满分5分)
6. A. Don't worry. B. I agree with you. C. Let's discuss it.
7. A. Singer. B. Singing. C. Songs.
8. A. Last week. B. Near a park. C. On Green Street.
9. A. English songs. B. Speaking skills. C. History.
10. A. I think so, too. B. Because it's funny. C. It is boring.
III. 听对话和问题，选择正确答案(共5 小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分)
11. What are they talking about?
12. What is the woman's hobby?
13. How does the girl feel now?
A. Nervous.
B. Happy.
C. Sad.
14. How many lessons does the girl have this morning?
A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Five.
15. What is the boy's favourite subject?
A. Science.
B. P. E.
C. English.
IV. 听短文和问题，选择正确答案(共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
16. How long does Simon spend on his hobby after school?
A.3 hours.
B. 4 hours.
C.5 hours.
17. What does the speaker think of the hobbies?
A. Hobbies takes too much time.
B. Hobbies are more important than homework.
C. Students should spend some time on their hobbies.
18. When are the Morgans making their New Year's plans?
A. On Sunday evening.
B. On Sunday morning.
C. On New Year's Day.,
19. What is Mrs. Morgan going to do next year?
A. Find a job.
B. Learn Chinese.
C. Visit London.
20. Where does Kate want to work next year?
A. In a restaurant.
B. In a school.
C. In a hospital.
V. 听短文填空(共5 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分 5分)
Information Sheet
George has lots of 21. .
He 22. travels by plane.
George wants to be a 23. because he would run a 24: .
George believes he can do 25.
笔试部分
VI. 单项选择(共 10 小题, 每小题 1 分, 满分 10分)
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

26. Little Tom likes making cars. He wants to be when he grows up.
A. a policeman
B. an engineer
C. a scientist
D. a pilot
27. We had great fun in visiting the farm. So, it was a(n) trip.
A. tiring
B. worrying
C. excellent
D. boring
28. I like my English teacher very much. He is kind hardworking.
A. either;or
B. not only; but also
C. not; but
D. neither; nor
29. Dr. Li advised me in bed for two weeks.
A. stay
B. staying
C. to stay
D. stayed
30. How many times Carl to the Great Wall?
——Only once.
A. does; go
B. did; go
C. has; gone
D. has; been
31.—— What's wrong with you, Eric? You look tired.
I to prepare for the final exam last night.
A. picked up
B. woke up
C. stayed up
D. put up
32. Li Hua made money working in a restaurant after school.
A. by
B. on
C. in
D. for
33. There be a fashion show on weekends, but I'm not sure.
A. must
B. can
C. would
D. might
34. In order to pass the exam, you need to work much now.
A. harder
B. hardest
C. hardly
D. hard
35. Did you make the kite ?
——No, our uncle made it for us.
A. yourself
B. yourselves
C. yours
D. himself
VII. 完型填空(共 10 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文，从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。

Sally was feeling very nervous before her interview at her new school. All her friends said it was a very good school. Many of her friends wanted to go there, too.
“I'm afraid that I'll be too shy. I don't feel 36 ,” Sally told her parents.
Her parents 37 her, “Don't be shy. I'm sure you'll do well.”said her mother.
“I’ll help you 38 some possible questions and answers,” said her father.
In the days before the interview, her parents were patient and kind. They gave Sally 39 about what to do and say at the interview.
On the day of the interview, Sally's parents went with her. When they were 40 outside the head teacher's office, they told her, “Just take a deep breath and do your best.” As Sally knocked on the door, she gave her parents a brave(勇敢的) smile.
The head teacher started the interview by asking,“What is your 41 ?”
For a moment Sally could not think of anything to say. She couldn't 42 what she had practiced with her parents. Then she thought of her mother's words: Just be yourself. So she relaxed and said,“I like drama(戏剧) and art. To be honest(诚实的),I'm not good at sport.”After that Sally had no 43 answering the other questions.
At the 44 of the interview, the head teacher shook hands with Sally and said,“I look forward to seeing you again, Sally.”
Sally looked 45 and confident when she came out of the head teacher's office.Her parents asked how she thought what she had done at the interview. Sally simply said,“I've done my best.”
36. A. nervous B. excited C. happy D. confident
37. A. encouraged B. advised C. surprised D. celebrated
38. A. find B. answer C. practice D. write
39. A. gifts B. advice C. chances D. show
40. A. listening B. watching C. playing D. waiting
41. A. name B. age C. hobby D. address
42. A. forget B. remember C. miss D. understand
43. A. way B. idea C. time D. problem
44. A. end B. moment C. start D. middle
45. A. worried B. relaxed C. bored D. tired
VIII. 阅读理解(共 10 小题, 每小题2 分, 满分 20分)
阅读A、 B、C三篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。

Advice on Traveling with Kids
Whether it's your first trip with your first child, or your fifth with your fifth, traveling with children will always be hard. From what to take to how to get there, it's full of worries.However, there is some advice that can save you from going crazy.
1. Just Do It! While the idea of traveling with children might be crazy, the most important thing to remember is: it will end. You will get there. You will make it.
2. Don't Overpack(带过多东西)! Remember that almost everything can be bought. It might not be the same in every way, but that should be fine. Diapers(纸尿裤) are often what people care most about. But believe me, there are diapers in almost every country.
3. Book(预定) Wisely! If you decide to stay in a hotel, take your time booking. You might have stayed there before and loved it, but think long and hard about it. Was your room up a big hill? Were there lots of steps? What might have been a great hotel for just the two of you can easily be terrible when you have a baby.
46. What does the writer think of traveling with children?
A. Impossible.
B. Dangerous.
C. Difficult.
D. Exciting.
47. Why is the writer against overpacking?
A. Lots of things won't be used.
B. Diapers take up too much space.
C. Kids can get used to other things soon.
D. Most things are easy to get.
48. What does the underlined word“it”refer to?
A. The hotel.
B. The travel.
C. The hill.
D. The walk.
B
I began dancing when I was five years old at a local dance center called“Classical Dance Center”. My mother put me in dance class because I was clumsy(笨拙的) and thought that dance would teach me to be graceful(优雅的).
There was something about my very first class that started my love for dance. I knew on that very day, in my very first dance class with Miss Martha, that when I grew up, I was going to be a dance teacher.
Being brought up by a single(单身的) mother taught me so much. I learned very early that I was the one to decide on my destiny(命运) and had to work hard in order to reach my goals. Mom was always willing to work overtime so that she could have a little more spending money to do something nice for my brother and me. Mom was there for me every time I stepped onto a stage.
When I was younger, Mom had money for only one dance class a week. When I was in high school my teacher Sharma allowed me to help her in return for free dance classes. I will never forget her words that I am in the right direction. After high school, I went to Montclair State University for six years, all of which was paid by loans(贷款) that I took on myself to pay back. After much hard work, I graduated(毕业).
Now that I am the dance teacher, I try my best every day to encourage my dancers. You don't have to be the best dancer in the world because at the end of the day, who cares if you can do 25 pirouettes(单脚尖旋转 )? That skill is only something you will be able to do for a while. What encourages me is the girl who dances on that stage with everything she has and does it with love coming from every part of her body.
49. How did the writer change after the first dance class?
A. She made many friends.
B. She worked hard at school.
C. She became interested in dancing.
D. She looked more graceful than ever.
50. What does the writer most probably encourage her students to do?
A. Dance with love.
B. Try to dance best.
C. Do pirouettes often.
D. Practice dancing every day.
51. What is the best title for the text?
A. My Dance Teacher
B. My Life of Dancing
C. My Love for Mom
D. My Favorite Student
C
Over a million(百万) people around the world lose their lives to car accidents each year. While nearly all of these deaths(死亡) are the results of human(人类) mistakes, there are no good ways to reduce(减少) the number of deaths. Surely the best plan is driverless technology(无人驾驶技术).
Driverless cars are no longer an idea of the future. With the technology for the driverless car already developed for quite a long time, and some important inventions already seen in some cars, the driverless car could soon be with us.
This is wonderful because people hope to reduce the number of road deaths through driverless technology; a research group in the United Kingdom says that driverless cars will lead to 2,500 fewer road deaths before 2030.
How are driverless cars safer? Firstly, driverless cars can help manage traffic. By using communication(交流) technologies to“talk”to each other, driverless cars find the best rmation such as how many kilometers between cars, traffic and time it takes to get to the place is sent to the cars. This means fewer chances of these cars running into each other.Secondly, the use of driverless cars means fewer accidents will happen because of human mistakes. For example, accidents caused(引起) by little sleep, drunk drinking or speeding will be stopped. Finally, the driverless technology of the future, will be safer than a human driver.
If lives can be saved by driverless cars, let's hope these cars are on our roads very soon.
52. The technology for the driverless car .
A. has just started
B. has been widely used
C. is not important
D. has been researched for long
53. What can driverless cars do?
A. Talk to their human owners.
B. Keep the same speed for long.
C. Get off the roads very easily.
D. Know how far they are from others.
54. What is Paragraph 4 mainly about?
A. The cause(原因) of road deaths.
B. The management of traffic.
C. The safety of driverless cars.
D. The development of driverless technology.
55. The writer wishes that driverless cars could be .
A. improved
B. put into use
C. invented
D. researched
IX. 任务型阅读(共5 小题; 每小题2 分, 满分 10分)
阅读下面短文，按要求完成56——60题。

Hobbies help you relax and keep your mind active, so get yourself one! Develop a hobby you really love with the help of the following advice.
Ask around for hobby ideas. What do your friends and neighbors do for fun? Find out!If you're interested in someone's stamp collection or movie-going club, you have a ready-made guide to a new area of interest.
Look for inspiration(灵感) from your past. How do you know what to try? One way is to let your memories(记
忆) be your guide. What hobbies did you enjoy as a kid? Did you play the piano, love drawing or riding a bike? Did
you look forward to summer camp so you could put on a play? Looking backward(向后) may help you uncover a forgotten hobby, one that you could bring back into your life right now.
Find a hobby by shopping for it. If you had to spend $50 in a craft-store (工艺品店),what would you buy? Many craft-store projects are 90% done. Buy one and finish that final 10 %. It's very proud to be able to say you've made something yourself. These project kits (成套工具) are a simple way to try something and see if you like it.
56、57题完成句子；58题简略回答问题；59题找出并写下全文的主题句；60题将文中画线句子译成汉语。

56. Hobbies help you relax and .
57. If you want to develop a hobby, you can ask around for .
58. What may help you find a forgotten hobby?
59.
60.
X. 词语运用 (共7 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分7分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词(有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式)。

What do you think life will be like in the future? I don't think we will have to do so much housework at home because robots can help us. For example, they will help 61. (we) cook. The food they cook will be 62. (healthy) and more delicious. We will fall in love with such food. Then we will spend more time 63. (read) books which can make sound. We will only need to listen 64. them. There will be 65. new kind of clothes. They will be warm in winter and cool in summer. Rockets will 66. (probable) become very common transport.
67. (scientist) are making science develop faster and faster. I believe our dream will come true soon.
XI. 基础写作(包括A、B、C三部分,A部分3分,B部分5分,C部分10分,共18分)
A)68. 仿照示例，抄写下面一段材料。

要求：材料完整，大小写正确，整齐美观。

字体不限。

(3分) 示例:
It is said that the greatest tragedy in life is not that people aim too high and miss; it is that people aim too low and hit.
B) 连词成句 (共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。

句末标点已给出。

69. unique, makes, what, you
70. isn't, my, enough, voice, good
.
71. is, before, safer, than, it
72. can, some photos, send, me, you, to
73. there is, my, a, in, neighborhood, bakery
C)书面表达(满分 10分)
74.如今骑自行车的人越来越多，自行车是重要的交通工具之一，骑自行车是人们锻炼身体的好方式。

请以 Riding Bikes Becomes More and More Popular为题写一篇短文,短文内容必须包括以下要点：
1) 自行车是一种非常方便的交通工具；
2) 自行车价格便宜，人们都可以买得起；
3) 骑自行车是一种好的锻炼身体的方式；
4) 骑自行车可以节约能源，利于环保。

提示词: energy能源;protect 保护; environment 环境;convenient 方便的
注意： (1) 短文须包括所有提示内容，可适当发挥；
(2) 文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名；
(3) 词数 70 个左右。

Riding Bikes Becomes More and More Popular
八年级英语试卷答案 2022.1
听力部分(25分)
I.1-5 CABAC II.6-10 BBABC III. 11-15 CACBA IV. 16-20 BCABC V.21. hobbies 22. seldom 23. manager. 2 4. business 2 5. better
笔试部分(75分)
VI. 26-30 BCBCD 31-35 CADAB
VII.36-40 DACBD 41-45 CBDAB
VIII.46-48 CDA 49-51 CAB 52-55 DDCB
IX. 56. keep your mind active 57. hobby ideas 58. Looking backward.
59. Develop a hobby you really love with the help of the following advice.
60. 能够说你自己制作了某样东西是非常令人骄傲的。

X. 62. healthier 63. reading 64. to
65. a 66. probably 67. Scientists
XI. A)68. 内容完整1 分, 大小写规范 1分,整齐美观1分。

参考译文：人生最大的悲剧，不是志存高远而失手，而是放低目标且命中。

B) 69. What makes you unique?.
70. My voice isn't good enough.
71. It is safer than before.
72. Can you send some photos to me?
73. There is a bakery in my neighborhood.
C)书面表达评分标准
第一档(9-10分)符合题意要求，表达完整，.条理清楚，语言正确无误。

第二档(6-8分)符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清楚，语言基本无误。

第三档(4-5分)基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清楚，语言有部分错误。

第四档(0-3分)不符合题意要求，表达不清楚，逻辑关系混乱，语言错误很多。