2023年广东省万阅百校联盟中考三模英语试题(含答案)

机密★启用前
2023年广东省初中生学业质量监测
（万阅百校联盟检测）
英语
本试卷共10页，81小题，满分120分。

考试用时90分钟。

注意事项: 1.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。

将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。

2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。

3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。

不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。

考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A.听句子（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。

每个句子听两遍。

1. Which festival is the speaker talking about?
A B C
2. What kind of problem is mentioned?
A B C
3. Where was the speaker this afternoon?
A B C
4. What instrument will Maggie learn to play in her spare time?
A B C
5. How tall is Peter?
A B C
B.听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。

每段对话听两遍。

听第一段对话，回答第6小题。

6. Where is the bank?
A. Behind the bookstore.
B. Across from the bookstore.
C. Next to the bookstore.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。

7. When can the speakers watch TV?
A. On Fridays.
B. On Saturdays.
C. On Sundays.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。

8. Who is Mr. Black probably?
A. Kate's father.
B. Kate's classmate.
C. Kate's teacher.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。

9. What does Jack think of the movie?
A. Touching.
B. Scary.
C. Funny.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。

10. What is Mary going to do tomorrow?
A. To visit the museum.
B. To care for her sister.
C. To do volunteer work.
听第六段对话，回答第11~12小题。

11. How many hours does George spend on the phone every day?
A. l hour.
B. 2 hours.
C. 3 hours.
12. What will George probably do next?
A. Watch fun videos.
B. Develop a new hobby.
C. Talk with Miss Wang.
听第七段对话，回答第13~15小题。

13. Why does Lily look worried?
A. Because she failed the English test.
B. Because she was late for the English test.
C. Because she was afraid of the English test.
14. Where will Lily find Miss Brown?
A. In the library.
B. In the classroom.
C. In the teachers’ office.
15. When will Lily go to ask for help?
A. After history class.
B. Before English class.
C. After English class.
C.听短文（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。

短文听两遍。

16. Who got David chickens?
A. His friends.
B. His parents.
C. His grandparents.
17. What did David do when he was 6?
A. He sold many chickens.
B. He joined a farming club.
C. He ran a business.
18. What did David's dad help him with?
A. Building a chicken house.
B. Giving chickens food and water.
C. Raising different kinds of pets.
19. Which place does David sell his chickens to?
A. A market.
B. A factory.
C. A store.
20. Why is David proud?
A. Because he can help people to become rich.
B. Because he can provide good meat for people.
C. Because he can make money by selling chickens.
D.听填信息（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一则关于家庭欢乐日的介绍。

请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。

短文听两遍。

E.情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。

选项中有一项为多余选项。

A. That's a good idea.
B. Well, that was because I refused to help with the housework.
C. What can I do for you?
D. You could help with housework when she's busy.
E. Why not start from easy ones like doing the dishes or taking out the rubbish?
F. What should I do?
W: Hello! This is Miss Ann's Student Hotline. 26
M: Hello! This is Tom. Last night, I argued with my mum. Now, she is still very angry with me. 27
W: May I ask the reason why you argued?
M: 28
W: Oh, I see. First, you could write her a letter to say sorry.
M: 29
W: And most importantly, as a family member, you are supposed to share the housework with your parents.
M: Yeah, I get that. But doing housework is really difficult for me.
W: 30
M: That sounds great. I will try. Thank you very much. Bye! 193.029
W: My pleasure. Bye!
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。

Oulu is a city in Finland. The city gets five months of snow a year. Winter temperatures can dropdown to -25℃.
31 this does not stop bikers. Biking all year round is very common. People there are used to the winter. They don't think of it as 32 challenge.
The city calls 33 the “capital of winter cycling(骑行)”. The way the city is setup helps bikers. The whole city 34 about 1, 000 kilometers of bike roads so far. Now the city is opening up new bike roads which are
almost six 35 wide.
The government does so much 36 the bikers. Workers plow(铲雪)the bike roads before the car roads. They ride on the bike roads before plowing, so they can learn 37 the weather influences cycling. Cycling managers write weekly reports to tell people how well the roads 38 . Sometimes, snow covers traffic signs. To avoid danger, they use projectors(投影仪) 39 traffic signs on the snow. With more work done, the government has made Oulu a much 40 city in this snow world!
31. A. But B. And C. So
32. A. a B. an C. the
33. A. it B. its C. itself
34. A. builds B. built C. has built
35. A. meter B. meters C. meters’
36. A. for B. as C. with
37. A. why B. how C. what
38. A. keep B. kept C. are kept
39. A. shine B. to shine C. shining
40. A. safe B. safer C. safest
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。

A unicorn(独角兽) is a kind of animal. They look like horses, but one thing is 41 Unicorns have a pointy horn(角) in the middle of their head. People have written about unicorns in many stories. Still, no one has seen a 42 one. But a girl named Betty really believes in them. She wants one to be her 43
Betty is a first-grader and 44 in a city. Recently, she sent a letter to Animal Control that gives pet licenses(许可证). She asked 45 in the letter, “Dear Jessy, I wonder if I can have a unicorn as my pet in my backyard.”
Jessy, head of Animal Control, felt surprised because nobody else had ever 46 a unicorn license. But she liked the girl's interesting 47 .So she wrote, “To keep a unicorn, you have to 48 three rules. First, clean its horn every month. Second, it must be 49 watermelon once a week. Third, take it to see sunlight, moonlight and rainbows.”
Betty's mother has a 50 for what comes next. She will take Betty to Animal Control on her birthday. There, the family will receive a printed unicorn license together with a toy unicorn Betty's pet until she finds are alone.
41. A. difficult B. different C. dangerous D. doubtful
42. A. big B. pretty C. new D. real
43. A. toy B. pet C. letter D. story
44. A. lives B. works C. travels D. arrives
45. A. proudly B. hurriedly C. politely D. loudly
46. A. fought for B. waited for C. paid for D. asked far
47. A. gift B. joke C. idea D. effort
48. A. follow B. explain C. make D. discover
49. A. sold B. fed C. thrown D. shown
50. A. plan B. rule C. festival D. research
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。

A
Educational games for students cover different subjects like science, math, English, arts and soon. These games help them to learn different subjects in a more interesting way in and out of class. Below are two games that can help you with language learning.
Game 1: Conversation game
How to play
●Divide10 students into 5 groups.
●Each group gets 10 words and the members sit face to face.
●Each group has 1 minute to make a conversation.
●If one group uses the 10wordsina meaningful way in a one-minute conversation, it can score.
Why to play
●It can teach you the art of conversation.
●It can help you use words in different contexts(语境).
Game 2: Word chain（链）
How to play
●Pick a subject, like cities, animals and soon.
●The first person speaks out a word connected with the subject.
●The next person has to give a word beginning with the last letter of the first word and also connected with the subject.
●The one who fails to give a suitable word quickly is out.
Why to play
●It's a good way to help you recollect and remember the words you have learned.
51. What subject can the two games help with?
A. Math.
B. Science.
C. English.
D. Arts.
52. What do students need to do in both games?
A. To invite 10 students each time.
B. To sit face to face.
C. To give the answers quickly.
D. To make conversations.
53. How can a group score in Game 1?
A. By making 5 sentences in different contexts.
B. By talking with the partner for the longest time.
C. By making the most conversations with the partner.
D. By using 10wordsina meaningful way in 1 minute.
54. In Game 2, what should the next person say if the first person says “India”?
A. America.
B. Africa.
C. Italian.
D. Insect.
55. Where is the passage most probably from?
A. A science book.
B. A school magazine.
C. A travel guide.
D. news website.
D
Today, we are building more islands than ever before. Why are islands built? One big reason is tourism. For example, the Pearl Island in Qatar, a fantastic man-made island with excellent five-star hotels, is popular with tourists around the world. Another reason is to provide more land for people in crowded cities. Flevoland, the largest man-made island, is home to more than 400, 000 people. ▲For example, in 2021, Denmark planned to build an island for about 600 wind turbines (风力涡轮机) that could turn wind power into electricity.
With more islands being built, the cost comes along. To build islands, workers take tons of sand and stones from the bottom of these a, making the water become cloudy. If it gets too hazy, sunlight can't pass through. It's bad for coral reefs(珊瑚礁) and sea plants that need plenty of sunlight to live. If they are dying, other sea life that depends on them for food will be in danger. It doesn't have to be this way. Engineers have created some ways to reduce the bad effects. For example, they use a special net(网) to stop sand from spreading through the sea while working. They also create “living seawall(海堤)” which provides friendly living conditions for sea life.
Actually, whether or not to build islands is not a simple question. Perhaps its bright sides are far more important to humans. It also calls for more attention to be paid to the environment in the process. Let's take action in a smart way!
56. Why was the Pearl Island in Qatar built?
A. To takes and out of the sea.
B. To provide land for airports.
C. To interest visitors worldwide.
D. To turn wind power into electricity.
57.Which of the following can be the best to fill in “ ▲”in Paragraph 1?
A. People also build islands to make good use of energy.
B. So people in crowded cities have more living space.
C. Wind turbines play an important role in our lives as well.
D. Because it needs a large area of land to build new homes.
58. What does the underlined word “hazy” in Paragraph 2mean?
A. Warm.
B. Unclear.
C. Bright.
D. Uncertain.
59. What does the writer mean in the last paragraph?
A. It's not acceptable to build man-made islands.
B. People can easily solve problems of building islands.
C. Man-made islands will bring much harm to the life on earth.
D. People should take action to avoid the harm of building islands.
60. Which can be the best title for the passage?
A. Why We Build More Islands
B. The Cost of Man-Made Islands
C. A Creative Way to Build Islands
D. Man-Made Islands and the Environment
配对阅读。

左栏是五则在华留学生的留言，右栏是七则中国网友的回复，请将留言和回复进行匹配，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。

五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请阅读下面短文，在所给的每个空格中填入一个形式正确、意义相符的单词，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。

Over the past 13 years, 31-year-old Li Hongjia has helped nearly 500deaf-mute(聋哑的) children return to school. Li was born 66 central China. When she was in college, she began working with deaf-mute children as a 67 in a rehabilitation(康复) center. At first, Li wanted to be a designer after graduation as her parents expected, but the volunteer service experience 68 her mind. She wanted to be a teacher at the center to help these children more. And she made it. However, it wasn't 69 for Li to work in the center at first. Li couldn't afford a big room 70 she only got 800 yuan a month. She had to live in a small room of 71 than 10 square meters. Even the bed was 72 with two chairs by herself. The biggest problem came from Li's 73 .They couldn't accept their daughter's job. Her father even refused to see her. But when he saw the children for the first time, he was touched 74 and got a better understanding of his daughter's work.
Li tries 75 best to teach the children to speak. “If a job is only for money, I would not choose it,” Li said. “This job gives me a great sense of achievement.”
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A.回答问题（本题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
请阅读下面短文，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。

要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整切题，并把答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。

There once was a little weed(野草) that grew in a field. All around it stood tall and beautiful flowers. Crowds of bees and butterflies came to them because of their sweet smells and bright colors. The little weed felt unsatisfied, for its own flowers were tiny and simple.
One spring morning, three children came to play in the field. “Let's pick some flowers for our grandma!” said one. “That's a good idea!” said another. “She will love all these bright and beautiful flowers!”
“What about that one?” the littlest child said, pointing at the little weed. “Forget it!” laughed the oldest brother. “That's just a worthless weed!”
Hearing this, the little weed felt sad. “Am I really worthless?” it asked itself. “Why was I even put on this Earth?”
When winter came, all flowers were gone, leaving the little weed standing alone in the field. Just then, it noticed some birds flying high above the field. “We are hungry!” they shouted. The little weed felt sorry for the poor birds and called out to them, “Hey! Down here! I have pods(豆荚) full of tasty seeds(种子) that you can eat!”
“You're so kind!” The birds ate up the seeds thankfully. “They're delicious. We can't find anything better than what you gave us!”
76. What were the little weed's flowers like?
77. Who did the three children pick some flowers for?
78. What did the oldest brother think of the little weed?
79. When did the birds came above the field?
80. How did the little weed feel finally?
B.书面表达（本题15分）
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将作文写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。

81.“尺有所短，寸有所长”，每个人都有自己独特的禀赋和价值。

某英文杂志社举办“How I found my shining point”的主题征文比赛，请根据自己的经历写一篇短文投稿。

内容包括:
（1）描述一次发现自己闪光点的经历；
（2）介绍发现闪光点的方法（两种）。

作文要求:
（1）不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和考生的真实姓名。

（2）语句连贯，词数80左右。

作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。

Everyone has his or her shining points.
机密★启用前
2023 年广东省初中生学业质量监测
（万阅百校联盟检测）
英语试题参考答案及评分参考
一、听说应用（本大题分为A、B、C、D、E五部分，共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）
B. 听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
C. 听短文（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
E. 情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B 两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（本题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
76. They were tiny and simple. / Tiny and simple.
77. They picked some flowers for their grandma. / Their grandma.
78. He thought it was just a worthless weed. / Worthless.
79. When winter came. / In winter.
80. It felt happy and confident. / Happy and confident.
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
Everyone has his or her shining points. I used to believe that I was a shy girl and didn’t get on well with others. One day, my classmate Mary shared her terrible experience with me sadly. I listened carefully and tried my best to make her happy. “You can always cheer people up,” she said thankfully to me. At that moment, I realized that I was good at
comforting and encouraging people.
Everyone has shining points as long as you take a close look at yourself. You can take part in some activities that can help you find out what you are good at. Besides, try your best to help others and you may find your shining points.。