公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
公司理财罗斯第九版课后习题答案
罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11，13，18，19，20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16，24，27，42，58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3，18，21，22，31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present Value Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is: Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t 2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA 3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4，18，20，22，24 4. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The priceof a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P 0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be: 6 / 17 P 3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3，4，6，9，15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback= 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
【公司理财】罗斯,中文第六版课后习题详细解答05
第三部分未来现金流量估价第5章估价导论：货币的时间价值财务管理中最重要的问题之一是：未来将收到的现金流量，它在今天的价值是多少？答案取决于货币的时间价值，这也是该章的主题。
第6章贴现现金流量估价本章拓展第5章的基本结论，讨论多期现金流量的估价。
我们考虑了许多相关的问题，包括贷款估价、贷款偿付额的计算以及报酬率的决定。
第7章利率债券是一种非常重要的金融工具。
该章示范如何利用第6章的估价技术来决定债券的价格，我们讲述债券的基本特点，以及财经报章如何报道债券的价格。
我们还将考察利率对债券价格的影响。
第8章股票估价第三部分的最后一章考察股票价格的确定，讨论普通股和优先股的重要特点，例如股东的权利，该章还考察了股票价格的报价。
第5 章估价导论：货币的时间价值◆本章复习与自测题5.1 计算终值假定今天你在一个利率为6%的账户存了10 000美元。
5年后，你将有多少钱？5.2 计算现值假定你刚庆祝完19岁生日。
你富有的叔叔为你设立了一项基金，将在你30岁时付给你150 000美元。
如果贴现率是9%，那么今天这个基金的价值是多少？5.3 计算报酬率某项投资可以使你的钱在10年后翻一番。
这项投资的报酬率是多少？利用72法则来检验你的答案是否正确。
5.4 计算期数某项投资将每年付给你9%的报酬。
如果你现在投资15 000美元，多长时间以后你就会有30 000美元？多长时间以后你就会有45 000美元？◆本章复习与自测题解答5.1 我们需要计算在6%的利率下，10 000美元在5年后的终值。
终值系数为：1.065= 1.3382终值为：10 000美元×1.3382 = 13 382.26美元。
5.2 我们要算出在9%的利率下，11年后支付的150 000美元的现值。
贴现系数为：1/(1.09)11= 1/2.5804 = 0.3875这样，现值大约是58 130美元。
5.3 假定你现在投资1 000美元，10年后，你将拥有2 000美元。
罗斯公司理财第八章课后习题答案
1. 当到期收益率（YTM ）等于如下值时，到期日将支付1000美元的10年期零息债券的价格是多少？a ）5%b ）10%c ）15%这里有两个需要注意的点：1）零息债券——不支付任何利息的债券，它只在债券到期日支付本经所以的这种债券的重要特征是其售价远低于其票面价值；2）债券的复习周期的问题一般的美国债券都是每半年计息一次这一点可能书上会写也可能不会写，没有写的时候就当成默认属性，具体计算如下：这里再啰嗦依据关于APR 名义年利率与实际年利率的关系：由APR->每个计息周期的实际利率->由实际周期利率在复利的条件下又可以推出实际年利率，在本章中由于不存在复利的条件，那么APR=实际年利率，但是每个周期的利率=APR/周期数，而且折现利率的就是按照每个周期的利率来进行计算，这里的现金流发生的不是在年末，故折现率不能简单的采用的年折现率，应该将其除以22. Microhard 发行了一份具有如下特征的债券：面值：1000；期限（到期日）：25；利息率（息票利率）：7%；支付周期：半年到期收益率（yield to maturity ）a ）7%b ）9%c ）5%3.Watters雨伞集团公司2年前发型了12年期的债券，票面利率为7.8%，该债券每半年支付一次利息。
如果债券当前售价面值为105%，那么到期收益收益率（YTM）会是多少？答：这道题就没有什么好说的了就是考察一个逼近法和一个2年前，因为售价是面值的105%所以他的期望收益率会低于票面利率，剩下的就只能通过试错来确定了（但也可以千万要注意一般会先算出来3.45%这个数但是这个是一个计息周期的折现率，要将他转换成一年的折现率，由于这里不会存在复利的情况故这里的年折现率只需将半年计的折现率乘以2即可4.公司发行在外的债券期限为13.5年，到期收益率为7.6%，当前价格为1175美元，该债券每半年支付一次利息问该债券的当前价格是多少？这道题漏了一个条件那就是该债券的票面价值是1000，需要记住的是债券的票面值一般5.公司发行了一份面值为1000欧元的债券，期限为15年，票面利率为8.4%，每年支付一6.真实利率=（1+名义利率）/（1+通货膨胀率）-18.根据公式：名义利率=（1+实际利率）*（1+通货膨胀率）-1故本题的答案=7.32%9.略：同样是根据真实利率=（1+名义利率）/（1+通货膨胀率）-1来做10.略11.这个要求了解国债报价表的组成其实就是考英语单词coupon：利息bid：购入价格asked：卖出价格chg:卖出价的变动情况asded yield：到期收益率购买价格是面值的1000（119+19/32）%其一天的卖出价格是面值的1000（120+6/32）%，美国债券市场上的债券面值一般为100012.这道题出现了一个新名词叫做当前收益率，对它的解释是：利息/卖出价格，注意不要和息票利率混淆了，默认面值=100013.这道题需要的注意的是在一道题中使用的折现率与折现周期要统一，不能前半部分是按照年14.这道题有一个隐含条件：在题目中没有明确指出债券价格的时候就将它默认为是1000美元，这里只给出敏感性分析的计算结果：由图可知期限较长的债券对利率风险较为敏感，原因是期限较长的债券的面值的现值较低，相较于期限较短的债券的它的利息年金的现值在价格所占的比重增加说实话从这幅图还真的不好判别到底谁的更加敏感，从斜率来看甚至我觉得高票面利率的债券甚至反应要稍微强一点，到底是不是这样呢？我们来看一下变化的百分比（当到期收益率改变时的价格变化/没有变化前的百分比较少，它的价格中的一大部分的比重来自与面值的现值，如果到期收益率变换那么对它将造成比较大的影响16.说实话这道题让我有点迷糊了，这里的到期收益率YTM和当前收益率都出现过了，但是这里居然冒出来一个实际收益率EAR也就是计算复利复息的那种，债券真的还会支付利息的利息吗？？这点我有很大的疑问，不过答案是这么写的，知道的同学可以的话发个17.这道题参考了英文原版答案，发现题中漏了一个条件那就是票面利率=10%，这道题没有什么特点就是考察当以面值出售时，票面利率=期望收益率所以读者自作吧，只是简单的计算题18.这道题也是，首先发票价上的1090包含了四个月的利息，所以半年利息的2/3即可，具体计算留作读者自作19.同18题20.结果如下图所示21.这道题值得注意的是它的最新报价应为871.55美元，还有就是再一次提醒所有的率都是22.根据题目创建了excel电子表格模型，发现当到期收益率=票面利率时，无论期限为多少债券价格都等于票面价值，这可以单过一个定理来进行记忆，也可以通过公示推导得到，具体数学公式推导，读者自作23.本题有一个公式需要了解：资本利得=卖出价格-买入价格，不要考虑折现问题英文原版答案：24.题目比较简单，就是注意一下它的哪一个持有期收益率就是在你持有过程之中所实际得25.这道题比较简单，就是计算量大，注意求完终值再来求现值即可26.这是一道比较好的题，它让我们分清以前的实际年利率和实际利率的差别，虽然只是差了一个字，但是在这道题中却很明显的体现了出来，显示名义年利率（与计息周期有关）->名义利率（与通货膨胀率有关）->除去通货膨胀的名义年利率->周利率，在来使用年金现值计算公式，这里体现了一个重要的思想那就是以年金发生时间间隔来算年金现值27.这是一道非常好的题，具体的思路与26题相似，都是通过实际年利率->出去通货膨胀的实际年利率->除去通货膨胀的名义年利率->除去通货膨胀的名义月利率这里为什么要求出除去通货膨胀的月利率，因为现金流量的发生时间不是在年末，而是在每个月，而这一题的最后一问确是一道更好的题，它求最后一年的名义现金流量，也就是考虑通货膨胀的情况，但我们从一开始计算这道题时就去除了通货膨胀，所以通货膨胀年应该是30+25年，而且因为只是求一个时间点的现金流量，而且不存在求和的情况，故用年度通货膨胀率。
公司理财罗斯第八版答案
公司理财罗斯第⼋版答案习题答案：第1、2、3、4、5、6、7、8、9、10、14、15、16、17、18、26、27、28章案例答案：第2、3、4、5、15、18章第1章1、在所有权形式的公司中，股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求⾃⾝或别⼈的利益最⼤化，⽽不是股东的利益最⼤化。
在这种环境下，他们可能因为⽬标不⼀致⽽存在代理问题。
2、⾮营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种⽬标。
⾮营利公司财务管理的⽬标是获取并有效使⽤资⾦以最⼤限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3、这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的⽬标就是最⼤化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现⾦流量。
4、有两种结论。
⼀种极端，在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有⽬标都有⼀个最优⽔平，包括避免不道德或⾮法的⾏为，股票价值最⼤化。
另⼀种极端，我们可以认为这是⾮经济现象,最好的处理⽅式是通过政治⼿段。
⼀个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案：公司估计提⾼某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然⽽,该公司认为提⾼产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5、财务管理的⽬标都是相同的，但实现⽬标的最好⽅式可能是不同的，因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6、管理层的⽬标是最⼤化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提⾼公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的⽃争。
如果管理层认为该投标⼈或其它未知的投标⼈将⽀付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开⽃争。
然⽽,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值并且没有其他更⾼的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最⼤化权益⾏事。
现在的管理层经常在公司⾯临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失⾃⼰的⽅向。
7、其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私⼈投资者占⽐重较⼩。
罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版
罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版(总95页)本页仅作为文档封面，使用时可以删除This document is for reference only-rar21year.March申明：转载自第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
公司理财罗斯课后习题答案修订稿
公司理财罗斯课后习题答案集团文件发布号：（9816-UATWW-MWUB-WUNN-INNUL-DQQTY-第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版
申明：转载自第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
罗斯《公司理财》笔记和课后习题详解(公司理财导论)【圣才出品】
第1章公司理财导论1.1 复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。
公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。
从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。
公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。
1．资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。
资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。
2．资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。
广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。
狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。
通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本中的构成（D/A）。
准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。
资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。
筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。
资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。
企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。
资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。
3．财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。
罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题答案中文版
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案-CAL-FENGHAI-(2020YEAR-YICAI)_JINGBIAN第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版
第五章：净现值和投资评价的其他方法1.如果项目会带来常规的现金流，回收期短于项目的生命周期意味着，在折现率为0 的情况下，NPV 为正值。
折现率大于0 时，回收期依旧会短于项目的生命周期，但根据折现率小于、等于、大于IRR 的情况，NPV 可能为正、为零、为负。
折现回收期包含了相关折现率的影响。
如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期，NPV 一定为正值。
2.如果某项目有常规的现金流，而且NPV 为正，该项目回收期一定短于其生命周期。
因为折现回收期是用与NPV 相同的折现值计算出来的，如果NPV为正，折现回收期也会短于该项目的生命周期。
NPV 为正表明未来流入现金流大于初始投资成本，盈利指数必然大于1。
如果NPV 以特定的折现率R 计算出来为正值时，必然存在一个大于R 的折现率R’使得NPV 为0，因此，IRR 必定大于必要报酬率。
3.（1）回收期法就是简单地计算出一系列现金流的盈亏平衡点。
其缺陷是忽略了货币的时间价值，另外，也忽略了回收期以后的现金流量。
当某项目的回收期小于该项目的生命周期，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
回收期法决策作出的选择比较武断。
（2）平均会计收益率为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。
其最大的缺陷在于没有使用正确的原始材料，其次也没有考虑到时间序列这个因素。
一般某项目的平均会计收益率大于公司的目标会计收益率，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（3）内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0 的贴现率。
其缺陷在于没有办法对某些项目进行判断，例如有多重内部收益率的项目，而且对于融资型的项目以及投资型的项目判断标准截然相反。
对于投资型项目，若IRR 大于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
对于融资型项目，若IRR 小于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（4）盈利指数是初始以后所有预期未来现金流量的现值和初始投资的比值。
必须注意的是，倘若初始投资期之后，在资金使用上还有限制，那盈利指数就会失效。
公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案.pdf
案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是 30 美元万。然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全
性只会节省 20 美元万。请问公司应该怎么做呢?”
5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不
同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前
的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。因此所有目标都有一个最优
水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。另一种极端,我们可以认为这是
股东的最大化权益行事。现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己
的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。较少的私
人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论
决策风险项目。此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理
明公司财务有什么异样,但两种方法都没有说明差异是好的还是坏的。例如,假设公司的
流动比率增大，这可能意味着公司改善了过去流动性存在的问题,也可能意味着公司对资
产的管理效率下降。同类公司分析也可能出现问题。公司的流动比率低于同类公司可能
表明其资产管理更有效率,也可能公司面对流动性问题。两种分析方法都没有说明比率的
8.例如,如果一个公司的库存管理变得更有效率,一定数量的存货需要将会下降。如果该公司
可以提高应收帐款回收率，同样可以降低存货需求。一般来说,任何导致期末的 NWC 相
罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案
CH5 11，13，18，19，2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. Fro m now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16，24，27，42，5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3，18，21，22，313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4，18，20，22，24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3，4，6，9，153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48%9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9，13，14，17，18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1，4，12，14，171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checksreceived per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minusthe transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.。
罗斯公司理财第九版课后习题第四章答案
1.当你增加时间的长度时，终值会发生什么变化，现值会发生什么变化？答：当增加时间长度时根据公司PV=C/(1+r)^t得到现值会减少（dwindle，diminish），而终值FV=C*(1+r)^t会增加。
2.如果利率增加，年金的终值会有什么变化？现值会有什么变化？答：当利率增加时，终值增大，现值FV=C(1/r-1/(r*(1+r)^t))得现值会减小分析这两道题都考察了对终值和现值的概念的理解:终值：一笔资金经过一个时期或者多个时期的以后的价值，如果考察终值就是在现在或将来我得到一笔资金C那么这笔资金在更远的未来将会价值多少，如果考察现值则是将来我得到一笔钱那么它现在的价值是多少（在某个固定的折现率下）3.假设有两名运动员签署了一份10年8000万的合同，一份是每年支付800万，一份是8000万分十次，支付金额每年递增5%，哪种情况最好答：计算过程如下图：u由上图的应该选第一种4.贷款法是否应该要求贷款者报告实际利率而不是名义利率？为什么？答：他们应该报告实际利率，名义利率的优势只是在于它们方便计算，可是在计算机技术发达的今天，计算已经不再是一个问题5.有津贴的斯坦福联邦贷款是为大学生提供帮助的一种普遍来源，直到偿还贷款才开始付息。
谁将收到更多的津贴，新生还是高年级的学生？请解释答：新生将获得跟多的津贴，因为新生使用无息贷款的时间比高年级学生长。
详细数据如下：由此可见新生的津贴=22235-20000=2235；而高年级的学生为1089根据下面的信息回答接下去的5个题：6.由计算得到如果500美金若在30年后要变成10000则实际年利率是10.5%,我想应该是GMAC的决策者认为公司的投资收益率大于10.5%7.如果公司可以在30年内的任意时间内以10000元的价格购买该债券的话，将会使得该债券更具有吸引力8.1）这500元不能影响我后面30年的正常生活，也就是我说我是否有500元的多余资金；2）该公司是否能够保证在30年后我能收到10000元3）当前我认为的投资收益率是否高于10.5%，若高于10.5%则不应该考虑投资该债券我的回答是：是取决的承诺偿还的人9.财政部的发行该种债券的价格较高因为财政部在所有的债券发行者中信用最好10.价格会超过之前的500美元，因为如果随着时间的推移，该债券的价值就越接近10000美元，如果在2010年的看价格有可能会更高，但不能确定，因为GMAC有财务恶化的可能或者资本市场上的投资收益率提高。
罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版
第五章：净现值和投资评价的其他方法1.如果项目会带来常规的现金流，回收期短于项目的生命周期意味着，在折现率为0 的情况下，NPV 为正值。
折现率大于0 时，回收期依旧会短于项目的生命周期，但根据折现率小于、等于、大于IRR 的情况，NPV 可能为正、为零、为负。
折现回收期包含了相关折现率的影响。
如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期，NPV 一定为正值。
2.如果某项目有常规的现金流，而且NPV 为正，该项目回收期一定短于其生命周期。
因为折现回收期是用与NPV 相同的折现值计算出来的，如果NPV为正，折现回收期也会短于该项目的生命周期。
NPV 为正表明未来流入现金流大于初始投资成本，盈利指数必然大于1。
如果NPV 以特定的折现率R 计算出来为正值时，必然存在一个大于R 的折现率R’使得NPV 为0，因此，IRR 必定大于必要报酬率。
3.（1）回收期法就是简单地计算出一系列现金流的盈亏平衡点。
其缺陷是忽略了货币的时间价值，另外，也忽略了回收期以后的现金流量。
当某项目的回收期小于该项目的生命周期，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
回收期法决策作出的选择比较武断。
（2）平均会计收益率为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。
其最大的缺陷在于没有使用正确的原始材料，其次也没有考虑到时间序列这个因素。
一般某项目的平均会计收益率大于公司的目标会计收益率，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（3）内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0 的贴现率。
其缺陷在于没有办法对某些项目进行判断，例如有多重内部收益率的项目，而且对于融资型的项目以及投资型的项目判断标准截然相反。
对于投资型项目，若IRR 大于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
对于融资型项目，若IRR 小于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（4）盈利指数是初始以后所有预期未来现金流量的现值和初始投资的比值。
必须注意的是，倘若初始投资期之后，在资金使用上还有限制，那盈利指数就会失效。