(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
【公司理财】罗斯,中文第六版课后习题详细解答05
第三部分未来现金流量估价第5章估价导论：货币的时间价值财务管理中最重要的问题之一是：未来将收到的现金流量，它在今天的价值是多少？答案取决于货币的时间价值，这也是该章的主题。
第6章贴现现金流量估价本章拓展第5章的基本结论，讨论多期现金流量的估价。
我们考虑了许多相关的问题，包括贷款估价、贷款偿付额的计算以及报酬率的决定。
第7章利率债券是一种非常重要的金融工具。
该章示范如何利用第6章的估价技术来决定债券的价格，我们讲述债券的基本特点，以及财经报章如何报道债券的价格。
我们还将考察利率对债券价格的影响。
第8章股票估价第三部分的最后一章考察股票价格的确定，讨论普通股和优先股的重要特点，例如股东的权利，该章还考察了股票价格的报价。
第5 章估价导论：货币的时间价值◆本章复习与自测题5.1 计算终值假定今天你在一个利率为6%的账户存了10 000美元。
5年后，你将有多少钱？5.2 计算现值假定你刚庆祝完19岁生日。
你富有的叔叔为你设立了一项基金，将在你30岁时付给你150 000美元。
如果贴现率是9%，那么今天这个基金的价值是多少？5.3 计算报酬率某项投资可以使你的钱在10年后翻一番。
这项投资的报酬率是多少？利用72法则来检验你的答案是否正确。
5.4 计算期数某项投资将每年付给你9%的报酬。
如果你现在投资15 000美元，多长时间以后你就会有30 000美元？多长时间以后你就会有45 000美元？◆本章复习与自测题解答5.1 我们需要计算在6%的利率下，10 000美元在5年后的终值。
终值系数为：1.065= 1.3382终值为：10 000美元×1.3382 = 13 382.26美元。
5.2 我们要算出在9%的利率下，11年后支付的150 000美元的现值。
贴现系数为：1/(1.09)11= 1/2.5804 = 0.3875这样，现值大约是58 130美元。
5.3 假定你现在投资1 000美元，10年后，你将拥有2 000美元。
罗斯公司理财第八章课后习题答案
1. 当到期收益率（YTM ）等于如下值时，到期日将支付1000美元的10年期零息债券的价格是多少？a ）5%b ）10%c ）15%这里有两个需要注意的点：1）零息债券——不支付任何利息的债券，它只在债券到期日支付本经所以的这种债券的重要特征是其售价远低于其票面价值；2）债券的复习周期的问题一般的美国债券都是每半年计息一次这一点可能书上会写也可能不会写，没有写的时候就当成默认属性，具体计算如下：这里再啰嗦依据关于APR 名义年利率与实际年利率的关系：由APR->每个计息周期的实际利率->由实际周期利率在复利的条件下又可以推出实际年利率，在本章中由于不存在复利的条件，那么APR=实际年利率，但是每个周期的利率=APR/周期数，而且折现利率的就是按照每个周期的利率来进行计算，这里的现金流发生的不是在年末，故折现率不能简单的采用的年折现率，应该将其除以22. Microhard 发行了一份具有如下特征的债券：面值：1000；期限（到期日）：25；利息率（息票利率）：7%；支付周期：半年到期收益率（yield to maturity ）a ）7%b ）9%c ）5%3.Watters雨伞集团公司2年前发型了12年期的债券，票面利率为7.8%，该债券每半年支付一次利息。
如果债券当前售价面值为105%，那么到期收益收益率（YTM）会是多少？答：这道题就没有什么好说的了就是考察一个逼近法和一个2年前，因为售价是面值的105%所以他的期望收益率会低于票面利率，剩下的就只能通过试错来确定了（但也可以千万要注意一般会先算出来3.45%这个数但是这个是一个计息周期的折现率，要将他转换成一年的折现率，由于这里不会存在复利的情况故这里的年折现率只需将半年计的折现率乘以2即可4.公司发行在外的债券期限为13.5年，到期收益率为7.6%，当前价格为1175美元，该债券每半年支付一次利息问该债券的当前价格是多少？这道题漏了一个条件那就是该债券的票面价值是1000，需要记住的是债券的票面值一般5.公司发行了一份面值为1000欧元的债券，期限为15年，票面利率为8.4%，每年支付一6.真实利率=（1+名义利率）/（1+通货膨胀率）-18.根据公式：名义利率=（1+实际利率）*（1+通货膨胀率）-1故本题的答案=7.32%9.略：同样是根据真实利率=（1+名义利率）/（1+通货膨胀率）-1来做10.略11.这个要求了解国债报价表的组成其实就是考英语单词coupon：利息bid：购入价格asked：卖出价格chg:卖出价的变动情况asded yield：到期收益率购买价格是面值的1000（119+19/32）%其一天的卖出价格是面值的1000（120+6/32）%，美国债券市场上的债券面值一般为100012.这道题出现了一个新名词叫做当前收益率，对它的解释是：利息/卖出价格，注意不要和息票利率混淆了，默认面值=100013.这道题需要的注意的是在一道题中使用的折现率与折现周期要统一，不能前半部分是按照年14.这道题有一个隐含条件：在题目中没有明确指出债券价格的时候就将它默认为是1000美元，这里只给出敏感性分析的计算结果：由图可知期限较长的债券对利率风险较为敏感，原因是期限较长的债券的面值的现值较低，相较于期限较短的债券的它的利息年金的现值在价格所占的比重增加说实话从这幅图还真的不好判别到底谁的更加敏感，从斜率来看甚至我觉得高票面利率的债券甚至反应要稍微强一点，到底是不是这样呢？我们来看一下变化的百分比（当到期收益率改变时的价格变化/没有变化前的百分比较少，它的价格中的一大部分的比重来自与面值的现值，如果到期收益率变换那么对它将造成比较大的影响16.说实话这道题让我有点迷糊了，这里的到期收益率YTM和当前收益率都出现过了，但是这里居然冒出来一个实际收益率EAR也就是计算复利复息的那种，债券真的还会支付利息的利息吗？？这点我有很大的疑问，不过答案是这么写的，知道的同学可以的话发个17.这道题参考了英文原版答案，发现题中漏了一个条件那就是票面利率=10%，这道题没有什么特点就是考察当以面值出售时，票面利率=期望收益率所以读者自作吧，只是简单的计算题18.这道题也是，首先发票价上的1090包含了四个月的利息，所以半年利息的2/3即可，具体计算留作读者自作19.同18题20.结果如下图所示21.这道题值得注意的是它的最新报价应为871.55美元，还有就是再一次提醒所有的率都是22.根据题目创建了excel电子表格模型，发现当到期收益率=票面利率时，无论期限为多少债券价格都等于票面价值，这可以单过一个定理来进行记忆，也可以通过公示推导得到，具体数学公式推导，读者自作23.本题有一个公式需要了解：资本利得=卖出价格-买入价格，不要考虑折现问题英文原版答案：24.题目比较简单，就是注意一下它的哪一个持有期收益率就是在你持有过程之中所实际得25.这道题比较简单，就是计算量大，注意求完终值再来求现值即可26.这是一道比较好的题，它让我们分清以前的实际年利率和实际利率的差别，虽然只是差了一个字，但是在这道题中却很明显的体现了出来，显示名义年利率（与计息周期有关）->名义利率（与通货膨胀率有关）->除去通货膨胀的名义年利率->周利率，在来使用年金现值计算公式，这里体现了一个重要的思想那就是以年金发生时间间隔来算年金现值27.这是一道非常好的题，具体的思路与26题相似，都是通过实际年利率->出去通货膨胀的实际年利率->除去通货膨胀的名义年利率->除去通货膨胀的名义月利率这里为什么要求出除去通货膨胀的月利率，因为现金流量的发生时间不是在年末，而是在每个月，而这一题的最后一问确是一道更好的题，它求最后一年的名义现金流量，也就是考虑通货膨胀的情况，但我们从一开始计算这道题时就去除了通货膨胀，所以通货膨胀年应该是30+25年，而且因为只是求一个时间点的现金流量，而且不存在求和的情况，故用年度通货膨胀率。
罗斯《公司理财》(第9版)课后习题(第1~3章)【圣才出品】
罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）课后习题第1章公司理财导论一、概念题1．资本预算（capital budgeting）答：资本预算是指综合反映投资资金来源与运用的预算，是为了获得未来产生现金流量的长期资产而现在投资支出的预算。
资本预算决策也称为长期投资决策，它是公司创造价值的主要方法。
资本预算决策一般指固定资产投资决策，耗资大，周期长，长期影响公司的产销能力和财务状况，决策正确与否影响公司的生存与发展。
完整的资本预算过程包括：寻找增长机会，制定长期投资战略，预测投资项目的现金流，分析评估投资项目，控制投资项目的执行情况。
资本预算可通过不同的资本预算方法来解决，如回收期法、净现值法和内部收益率法等。
2．货币市场（money markets）答：货币市场指期限不超过一年的资金借贷和短期有价证券交易的金融市场，亦称“短期金融市场”或“短期资金市场”，包括同业拆借市场、银行短期存贷市场、票据市场、短期证券市场、大额可转让存单市场、回购协议市场等。
其参加者为各种政府机构、各种银行和非银行金融机构及公司等。
货币市场具有四个基本特征：①融资期限短，一般在一年以内，最短的只有半天，主要用于满足短期资金周转的需要；②流动性强，金融工具可以在市场上随时兑现，交易对象主要是期限短、流动性强、风险小的信用工具，如票据、存单等，这些工具变现能力强，近似于货币，可称为“准货币”，故称货币市场；③安全性高，由于货币市场上的交易大多采用即期交易，即成交后马上结清，通常不存在因成交与结算日之间时间相对过长而引起价格巨大波动的现象，对投资者来说，收益具有较大保障；④政策性明显，货币市场由货币当局直接参加，是中央银行同商业银行及其他金融机构的资金连接的主渠道，是国家利用货币政策工具调节全国金融活动的杠杆支点。
货币市场的交易主体是短期资金的供需者。
需求者是为了获得现实的支付手段，调节资金的流动性并保持必要的支付能力，供应者提供的资金也大多是短期临时闲置性的资金。
罗斯《公司理财》笔记和课后习题详解(杠杆企业的估价与资本预算)【圣才出品】
第18章杠杆企业的估价与资本预算18.1 复习笔记本章主要讨论企业运用杠杆时，对一个项目或整个企业价值的评估。
杠杆企业的估价主要有三种方法：调整净现值法、权益现金流量法和加权平均资本成本法。
这三种方法存在相当的差异，但会得出相同的价值评估结果。
在实际中三种方法往往难以同时运用。
1．调整净现值法（1）基本原理调整净现值是指一个项目为杠杆企业创造的价值（APV）等于一个无杠杆企业的项目净现值（NPV）加上筹资方式连带效应的净现值。
调整净现值法是净现值法的拓展和补充。
（2）计算方法①调整净现值法的公式。
调整净现值（APV）法可用以下公式描述：APV＝NPV＋NPVF②计算步骤。
采用调整净现值法计算企业的价值可以按以下步骤进行：a．计算无杠杆企业的价值。
无杠杆企业的价值可用企业未来经营产生的净现金流量除以无杠杆企业的资本成本得到。
b．计算筹资方式连带效应的净现值。
②筹资方式连带效应的影响a．债务的节税效应。
一笔无限期债务的节税额是T C B。
其中，T C是公司所得税税率，B是负债的价值。
b．新债券的发行成本。
企业公开发行公司债券，要有投资银行的参与，对于投资银行所付出的时间和努力，企业要给予补偿，这就是发行成本，它降低了项目的价值。
c．财务困境成本。
随着债务融资的增加，企业陷入财务困境甚至陷入破产的可能性也增加，因此，财务困境增加企业成本，从而降低其价值。
d．债务融资的利息补贴。
由于政府发行的债券的利息是免税的，免税债券的利率大大低于应税债券的利率。
市政当局可以按较低的免税利率筹得资金，因此企业从市政当局借得的款项通常利率也较低，这种借款利率上的优惠会使项目或企业的价值增加。
（3）主要特点①调整净现值法按不同类别的现金流量分别采用不同的贴现率进行贴现，而不是对所有的现金流量按统一贴现率进行折现。
②投资项目的经济效益可分段测算，如果在前段的测算中已表现出经济上可行，则后段追加的有利部分可不必进行测算。
③总体上具有较大的可容性与可塑性，能更好地适应国际投资项目经济评价的需要。
公司理财罗斯课后习题答案修订稿
公司理财罗斯课后习题答案集团文件发布号：（9816-UATWW-MWUB-WUNN-INNUL-DQQTY-第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
罗斯《公司理财》第9版英文原书课后部分章节答案
罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11，13，18，19，20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16，24，27，42，58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FV A. The equation to find the FV A is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PV A = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3，18，21，22，31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is thesemiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4，18，20，22，244. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Y ear 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 –.28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Y ear 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Y ear 3 will be the dividend in Y ear 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Y ear 3 will be: 6 / 17 P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Y ear 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3，4，6，9，15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Y ear 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: V alue today of Y ear 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 V alue today of Y ear 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 V alue today of Y ear 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Y ear 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To findthe discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 –4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Y ear 1 and Y ear 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Y ear 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: A verage net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: A verage book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = A verage net income / A verage book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。
罗斯《公司理财》笔记和课后习题详解(公司理财导论)【圣才出品】
第1章公司理财导论1.1 复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。
公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。
从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。
公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。
1．资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。
资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。
2．资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。
广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。
狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。
通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本中的构成（D/A）。
准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。
资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。
筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。
资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。
企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。
资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。
3．财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap014
公司理财习题答案第十四章Chapter 14: Long-Term Financing: An Introduction14.1 a. C om m on Stock A ccountPar V alue$135,430$267,715 shares ==b. Net capital from the sale of shares = Common Stock + Capital SurplusNet capital = $135,430 + $203,145 = $338,575Therefore, the average price is $338,575 / 67,715 = $5 per shareAlternate solution:Average price = Par value + Average capital surplus= $2 + $203,145 / 67,715= $5 per sharec. Book value = Assets - Liabilities = Equity= Common stock + Capital surplus + Retained earnings= $2,708,600Therefore, book value per share is $2,708,600 / 67,715= $40.14.2 a. Common stock = (Shares outstanding ) x (Par value)= 500 x $1= $500Total = $150,500b.Common stock (1500 shares outstanding, $1 par) $1,500Capital surplus* 79,000Retained earnings 100,000Total $180,500* Capital Surplus = Old surplus + Surplus on sale= $50,000 + ($30 - $1) x 1,000=$79,00014.3 a. Shareholders’ equityCommon stock ($5 par value; authorized 500,000shares; issued and outstanding 325,000 shares)$1,625,000 Capital in excess of par* 195,000Retained earnings** 3,794,600Total $5,614,600*Capital surplus = 12% of Common Stock= (0.12) ($1,625,000)= $195,000**Retained earnings = Old retained earnings + Net income - Dividends= $3,545,000 + $260,000 - ($260,000)(0.04)= 3,794,600b. Shareholders’ equity$1,750,000Common stock ($5 par value; authorized 500,000shares; issued and outstanding 350,000 shares)Capital in excess of par* 170,000Retained earnings 3,794,600Total $5,714,600*Capital surplus is reduced by the below par sale, i.e. $195,000 - ($1)(25,000) =$170,00014.4 a. Under straight voting, one share equals one vote. Thus, to ensure the election of onedirector you must hold a majority of the shares. Since two million shares areoutstanding, you must hold more than 1,000,000 shares to have a majority of votes.b. Cumulative voting is often more easily understood through a story. Remember thatyour goal is to elect one board member of the seven who will be chosen today.Suppose the firm has 28 shares outstanding. You own 4 of the shares and one otherperson owns the remaining 24 shares. Under cumulative voting, the total number ofvotes equals the number of shares times the number of directors being elected,(28)(7) = 196. Therefore, you have 28 votes and the other stockholder has 168 votes.Also, suppose the other shareholder does not wish to have your favorite candidateon the board. If that is true, the best you can do to try to ensure electing onemember is to place all of your votes on your favorite candidate. To keep yourcandidate off the board, the other shareholder must have enough votes to elect allseven members who will be chosen. If the other shareholder splits her votes evenlyacross her seven favorite candidates, then eight people, your one favorite and herseven favorites, will all have the same number of votes. There will be a tie! If shedoes not split her votes evenly (for example 29 28 28 28 28 28 27) then yourcandidate will win a seat. To avoid a tie and assure your candidate of victory, youmust have 29 votes which means you must own more than 4 shares.Notice what happened. If seven board members will be elected and you want to becertain that one of your favorite candidates will win, you must have more than one-eighth of the shares. That is, the percentage of the shares you must have to win ismore than1.(The num ber of m em bers being elected The num ber you w ant to select)Also notice that the number of shares you need does not change if more than oneperson owns the remaining shares. If several people owned the remaining 168shares they could form a coalition and vote together.Thus, in the Unicorn election, you will need more than 1/(7+1) = 12.5% of theshares to elect one board member. You will need more than (2,000,000) (0.125) =250,000 shares.Cumulative voting can be viewed more rigorously. Use the facts from the Unicornelection. Under cumulative voting, the total number of votes equals the number of公司理财习题答案第十四章shares times the number of directors being elected, 2,000,000 x 7 = 14,000,000. Let x be the number of shares you need. The number of shares necessary is7x14,000,0007x7x250,000.>-==>> You will need more than 250,000 shares.14.5 She can be certain to have one of her candidate friends be elected under the cumulativevoting rule. The lowest percentage of shares she needs to own to elect at least one out of 6candidates is higher than 1/7 = 14.3%. Her current ownership of 17.3% is more thanenough to ensure one seat. If the voting rule is staggered as described in the question, shewould need to own more than 1/4=25% of the shares to elect one out of the three candidatesfor certain. In this case, she will not have enough shares.14.6 a. You currently own 120 shares or 28.57% of the outstanding shares. You need to control 1/3 of the votes, which requires 140 shares. You need just over 20 additionalshares to elect yourself to the board.b. You need just over 25% of the shares, which is 250,000 shares. At $5 a share it willcost you $2,500,000 to guarantee yourself a seat on the board.14.7 The differences between preferred stock and debt are:a. The dividends of preferred stock cannot be deducted as interest expenses whendetermining taxable corporate income. From the individual investor’s point of view,preferred dividends are ordinary income for tax purposes. From corporate investors,80% of the amount they receive as dividends from preferred stock are exempt fromincome taxes.b. In liquidation, the seniority of preferred stock follows that of the debt and leads thatof the common stock.c. There is no legal obligation for firms to pay out preferred dividends as opposed tothe obligated payment of interest on bonds. Therefore, firms cannot be forced intodefault if a preferred stock dividend is not paid in a given year. Preferred dividendscan be cumulative or non-cumulative, and they can also be deferred indefinitely.14.8 Some firms can benefit from issuing preferred stock. The reasons can be:a. Public utilities can pass the tax disadvantage of issuing preferred stock on to theircustomers, so there is substantial amount of straight preferred stock issued byutilities.b. Firms reporting losses to the IRS already don’t have positive income for taxdeduction, so they are not affected by the tax disadvantage of dividend vs. interestpayment. They may be willing to issue preferred stock.c. Firms that issue preferred stock can avoid the threat of bankruptcy that exists withdebt financing because preferred dividends are not legal obligation as interestpayment on corporate debt.14.9 a. The return on non-convertible preferred stock is lower than the return on corporatebond for two reasons:i. Corporate investors receive 80% tax deductibility on dividends if they hold thestock. Therefore, they are willing to pay more for the stock; that lowers its return.ii. Issuing corporations are willing and able to offer higher returns on debt since theinterest on the debt reduces their tax liabilities. Preferred dividends are paid outof net income, hence they provide no tax shield.b. Corporate investors are the primary holders of preferred stock since, unlikeindividual investors, they can deduct 80% of the dividend when computing their taxliability. Therefore, they are willing to accept the lower return which the stockgenerates.14.10 The following table summarizes the main difference between debt and equity.Debt EquityRepayment is an obligation of the firm Yes NoGrants ownership of the firm No YesProvides a tax shield Yes NoLiquidation will result if not paid Yes NoCompanies often issue hybrid securities because of the potential tax shield and thebankruptcy advantage. If the IRS accepts the security as debt, the firm can use it as a tax shield. If the security maintains the bankruptcy and ownership advantages of equity, the firm has the best of both worlds.14.11 The trends in long-term financing in the United States were presented in the text. If CableCompany follows the trends, it will probably use 80% internal financing, net income of the project plus depreciation less dividends, and 20% external financing, long term debt and equity.。
罗斯《公司理财》笔记和课后习题详解(折现现金流量估价)【圣才出品】
第4章 折现现金流量估价4.1 复习笔记当前的1美元与未来的1美元的价值是不同的，因为当前1美元用于投资，在未来可以得到更多，而且未来的1美元具有不确定性。
这种区别正是“货币的时间价值”。
货币的时间价值概念是金融投资和融资的基石之一，资本预算、项目决策、融资管理和兼并等领域均有涉及。
因此有必要理解和掌握相关的现值、终值、年金和永续年金的概念和计算公式。
1．现值与净现值（1）现值现值是未来资金在当前的价值，是把未来的现金流按照一定的贴现率贴现到当前的价值。
以单期为例，一期后的现金流的现值：11C PV r =+其中，C 1是一期后的现金流，r 是适当贴现率。
在多期的情况下，求解PV 的公式可写为：(1r)T TC PV =+其中，C T 是在T 期的现金流，r 是适当贴现率。
（2）净现值 净现值的计算公式为：NPV ＝－成本＋PV 。
也就是说，净现值NPV 是投资未来现金流的现值减去成本的现值所得的结果。
一种定量的财务决策方法是净现值分析法。
产生N 期现金流的投资项目的净现值为：120021(1)(1)(1)(1)T i T T i i C C C C NPV C C r r r r ==-+++⋅⋅⋅+=-+++++∑其中，－C 0是初始现金流，由于它代表了一笔投资，即现金流出，因而是负值。
2．终值一笔投资在多期以后终值的一般计算公式可以写为：FV ＝C 0×（1＋r ）T ，其中，C 0是期初投资的金额，r 是利息率，T 是资金投资持续的期数。
一项投资每年按复利计息m 次的年末终值为：0(1)m r C m +其中，C 0是投资者的初始投资；r 是名义年利率。
一项投资在T 年后的终值为：0(1)mT r FV C m =+当m 趋近于无限大时，则是连续复利计息，这时T 年后的终值可以表示为：C 0×e rT 。
【例4.1】如果将1000元存入银行，利率为8%，计算这1000元五年后的价值应该用（ ）。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap012
公司理财习题答案第十二章Chapter 12: Risk, Return, and Capital Budgeting12.1 Cost of equity R S = 5 + 0.95 (9) = 13.55% NPV of the project= -$1.2 million + $340,.0001135515tt =∑= -$20,016.52Do not undertake the project. 12.2 a. R D= (-0.05 + 0.05 + 0.08 + 0.15 + 0.10) / 5 = 0.066 R M = (-0.12 + 0.01 + 0.06 + 0.10 + 0.05) / 5 = 0.02b.DR- D R M R -R M(M R -M R )2 (D R -R D )(M R -R M )-0.116 -0.14 0.0196 0.01624 -0.016 -0.01 0.0001 0.00016 0.014 0.04 0.0016 0.00056 0.084 0.08 0.0064 0.00672 0.034 0.03 0.0009 0.001020.02860.02470Beta of Douglas = 0.02470 / 0.0286 = 0.86412.3 R S = 6% + 1.15 ⨯ 10% = 17.5% R B = 6% + 0.3 ⨯ 10% = 9% a. Cost of equity = R S = 17.5% b. B / S = 0.25 B / (B + S) = 0.2 S / (B + S) = 0.8WACC = 0.8 ⨯ 17.5% + 0.2 ⨯ 9% (1 - 0.35)= 15.17%12.4 C σ = ()2104225.0 = 0.065M σ = ()2101467.0 = 0.0383Beta of ceramics craftsman = CM ρC σ M σ / M σ2 = CM ρC σ/ M σ = (0.675) (0.065) / 0.0383 = 1.146 12.5a. To compute the beta of Mercantile Manufacturing’s stock, you need the product of the deviations of Mercantile’s returns from their mean and the deviations of the market’s returns from their mean. You also need the squares of the deviations ofthe market’s returns from their mean.The mechanics of computing the means and the deviations were presented in an earlier chapter.R T = 0.196 / 12 = 0.016333 R M = 0.236 / 12 = 0.019667 E(T R -R T ) (M R -R M ) = 0.038711 E(M R -R M )2 = 0.038588 β = 0.038711 / 0.038588= 1.0032b.The beta of the average stock is 1. Mercantile’s beta is close to 1, indicating that its stock has average risk.12.6 a.R M can have three values, 0.16, 0.18 or 0.20. The probability that M R takes one of these values is the sum of the joint probabilities of the return pair that include theparticular value of M R . For example, if M R is 0.16, R J will be 0.16, 0.18 or 0.22. The probability that M R is 0.16 and R J is 0.16 is 0.10. The probability that R M is 0.16 and R J is 0.18 is 0.06. The probability that M R is 0.16 and R J is 0.22 is 0.04. The probability that M R is 0.16 is, therefore, 0.10 + 0.06 + 0.04 = 0.20. The same procedure is used to calculate the probability that M R is 0.18 and the probability that M R is 0.20. Remember, the sum of the probability must be one.M RProbability 0.16 0.20 0.18 0.60 0.20 0.20 b. i.RM= 0.16 (0.20) + 0.18 (0.60) + 0.20 (0.20) = 0.18ii. 2M σ = (0.16 - 0.18) 2 (0.20) + (0.18 - 0.18) 2 (0.60) + (0.20 - 0.18) 2 (0.20)= 0.00016iii. M σ = ()2100016.0 = 0.01265c. R J Probability .18 .20 .20 .40 .22 .20 .24.10d. i. E j = .16 (.10) + .18 (.20) + .20 (.40) + .22 (.20) + .24(.10) = .20 ii. σj 2 = (.16 - .20)2 (.10) + (.18 - .20)2 (.20) + (.20 - .20)2 (.40)+ (.22 - .20)2 (.20) + (.24 - .20)2 (.10) = .00048公司理财习题答案第十二章iii. σj = ()21.0 = .0219100048e. Cov mj= (.16 - .18) (.16 - .20) (.10) + (.16 - .18) (.18 - .20) (.06)+ (.16 - .18) (.22 - .20) (.04) + (.20 - .18) (.18 - .20) (.02)+ (.20 - .18) (.22 - .20) (.04) + (.20 - .18) (.24 - .20) (.10)= .000176Corr mj = (0.000176) / (0.01265) (0.02191) = 0.635f. βj = (.635) (.02191) / (.01265) = 1.1012.7 i. The risk of the new project is the same as the risk of the firm without the project.ii. The firm is financed entirely with equity.12.8 a. Pacific Cosmetics should use its stock beta in the evaluation of the project only ifthe risk of the perfume project is the same as the risk of Pacific Cosmetics.b. If the risk of the project is the same as the risk of the firm, use the firm’s stock beta.If the risk differs, then use the beta of an all-equity firm with similar risk as theperfume project. A good way to estimate the beta of the project would be toaverage the betas of many perfume producing firms.12.9 E(R S) = 0.1 ⨯ 3 + 0.3 ⨯ 8 + 0.4 ⨯ 20 + 0.2 ⨯ 15 = 13.7%E(R B) = 0.1 ⨯ 8 + 0.3 ⨯ 8 + 0.4 ⨯ 10 + 0.2 ⨯ 10 = 9.2%E(R M) = 0.1 ⨯ 5 + 0.3 ⨯ 10 + 0.4 ⨯ 15 + 0.2 ⨯ 20 = 13.5%State {R S - E(R S)}{R M - E(R M)}Pr {R B - E(R B)}{R M - E(R M)}Pr1 (0.03-0.137)(0.05-0.135)⨯0.1 (0.08-0.092)(0.05-0.135)⨯0.12 (0.08-0.137)(0.10-0.135)⨯0.3 (0.08-0.092)(0.10-0.135)⨯0.33 (0.20-0.137)(0.15-0.135)⨯0.4 (0.10-0.092)(0.15-0.135)⨯0.44 (0.15-0.137)(0.20-0.135)⨯0.2 (0.10-0.092)(0.20-0.135)⨯0.2Sum 0.002056 0.00038= Cov(R S, R M) = Cov(R B, R M)σM 2= 0.1 (0.05 - 0.135)2 + 0.3 (0.10-0.135)2+ 0.4 (0.15-0.135)2 + 0.2 (0.20-0.135)2= 0.002025a. Beta of debt = Cov(R B, R M) / σM2 = 0.00038 / 0.002025= 0.188b. Beta of stock = Cov(R S, R M) / σM2 = 0.002055 / 0.002025= 1.015c. B / S = 0.5Thus, B / (S + B) = 1 / 3 = 0.3333S / (S + B) = 2 / 3 = 0.6667Beta of asset = 0.188 ⨯ 0.3333 + 1.015 ⨯ 0.6667= 0.73912.10 The discount rate for the project should be lower than the rate implied by the use ofthe Security Market Line. The appropriate discount rate for such projects is theweighted average of the interest rate on debt and the cost of equity. Since theinterest rate on the debt of a given firm is generally less than the firm’s cost ofequity, using only the stock’s beta yields a discount rate that is too high. Theconcept and practical uses of a weighted average discount rate will be in a laterchapter.12.11i. RevenuesThe gross income of the firm is an important factor in determining beta. Firmswhose revenues are cyclical (fluctuate with the business cycle) generally have highbetas. Firms whose revenues are not cyclical tend to have lower betas.ii. Operating leverageOperating leverage is the percentage change in earnings before interest and taxes(EBIT) for a percentage change in sales, [(Change in EBIT / EBIT) (Sales / Changein sales)]. Operating leverage indicates the ability of the firm to service its debt andpay stockholders.iii. Financial leverageFinancial leverage arises from the use of debt. Financial leverage indicates theability of the firm to pay stockholders. Since debt holders must be paid beforestockholders, the higher the financial leverage of the firm, the riskier its stock.The beta of common stock is a function of all three of these factors. Ultimately, theriskiness of the stock, of which beta captures a portion, is determined by thefluctuations in the income available to the stockholders. (As was discussed in thechapter, whether income is paid to the stockholders in the form of dividends or it isretained to finance projects are irrelevant as long as the projects are of similar riskas the firm.) The income available to common stock, the net income of the firm,depends initially on the revenues or sales of the firm. The operating leverageindicates how much of each dollar of revenue will become EBIT. Financialleverage indicates how much of each dollar of EBIT will become net income.12.12 a. Cost of equity for National Napkin= 7 + 1.29 (13 - 7)= 14.74%b. B / (S + B) = S / (S + B) = 0.5WACC = 0.5 ⨯ 7 ⨯ 0.65 + 0.5 ⨯ 14.74= 9.645%12.13 B = $60 million ⨯ 1.2 = $72 millionS = $20 ⨯ 5 million = $100 millionB / (S + B) = 72 / 172 = 0.4186S / (S + B) = 100 / 172 = 0.5814WACC = 0.4186 ⨯ 12% ⨯ 0.75 + 0.5814 ⨯ 18%= 14.23%12.14 S = $25 ⨯ 20 million = $500 millionB = 0.95 ⨯ $180 million = $171 million公司理财习题答案第十二章B / (S + B) = 0.2548 S / (S + B) = 0.7452 WACC = 0.7452 ⨯ 20% + 0.2548 ⨯ 10%⨯ 0.60 = 16.43%12.15 B / S = 0.75 B / (S + B) = 3 / 7 S / (S + B) = 4 / 7 WACC = (4 / 7) ⨯ 15% + (3 / 7) ⨯ 9%⨯ (1 - 0.35) = 11.08%NPV = -$25 million + $7(.)m illion tt 10110815+=∑= $819,299.04 Undertake the project.12.16 WACC = (0.5) x 28% + (0.5) x 10% x (1 - 0.35)= 17.25%NPV = - $1,000,000 + (1 - 0.35) $600,000 51725.0A = $240,608.50Mini Case: Allied ProductsAssumptionsPP&E Investment 42,000,000 Useful life of PP&E Investment (years) 7NEW GPWS price/unit (Year 1) 70,000 NEW GPWS variable cost/unit (Year 1) 50,000 UPGRADE GPWS price/unit (Year 1) 35,000 UPGRADE GPWS variable cost/unit (Year 1) 22,000Year 1 marketing and admin costs 3,000,000 Annual inflation rate 3.00% Corporate Tax rate 40.00%Beta (9/27 Valueline) 1.20 Rf (30 year U.S. Treasury Bond) 6.20%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Strong Growth) 15.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Moderate Growth) 10.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Mild Recession) 6.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Severe Recession state of economy) 3.00%Total Annual Market for UPGRADE GPWS (units) 2,500Allied Signal Market Share in each market 45.00%公司理财习题答案第十二章Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 SalesNEWUnits 97 107 118 130 144 Price 70,000 72,100 74,263 76,491 78,786 Total NEW 6,772,500 7,688,654 8,736,317 9,935,345 11,308,721 UPGRADEUnits 1,125 1,125 1,125 1,125 1,125 Price 35,000 36,050 37,132 38,245 39,393 Total UPGRADE 39,375,000 40,556,250 41,772,938 43,026,126 44,316,909 Total Sales 46,147,500 48,244,904 50,509,254 52,961,470 55,625,630 Variable CostsNEW 4,837,500 5,491,896 6,240,226 7,096,675 8,077,658 UPGRADE 24,750,000 25,492,500 26,257,275 27,044,993 27,856,343 Total Variable Costs 29,587,500 30,984,396 32,497,501 34,141,668 35,934,001SG&A 3,000,000 3,090,000 3,182,700 3,278,181 3,376,526 Depreciation 6,001,800 10,285,800 7,345,800 5,245,800 3,750,600EBIT 7,558,200 3,884,708 7,483,253 10,295,821 12,564,503 Interest 0 0 0 0 0 Tax 3,023,280 1,553,883 2,993,301 4,118,329 5,025,801 Net Income 4,534,920 2,330,825 4,489,952 6,177,493 7,538,702EBIT + Dep - Taxes 10,536,720 12,616,625 11,835,752 11,423,293 11,289,302 Less: Change in NWC 2,000,000 307,375 104,870 113,218 122,611 (2,648,074) Less: Captial Spending 42,000,000 (10,948,080) CF from Assets: (44,000,000) 10,229,345 12,511,755 11,722,534 11,300,682 24,885,455 Discounted CF from Assets 9,304,480 10,351,583 8,821,741 7,735,381 15,494,120Total Discounted CF from Assets 51,707,305Results。
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案-CAL-FENGHAI-(2020YEAR-YICAI)_JINGBIAN第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版
第五章：净现值和投资评价的其他方法1.如果项目会带来常规的现金流，回收期短于项目的生命周期意味着，在折现率为0 的情况下，NPV 为正值。
折现率大于0 时，回收期依旧会短于项目的生命周期，但根据折现率小于、等于、大于IRR 的情况，NPV 可能为正、为零、为负。
折现回收期包含了相关折现率的影响。
如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期，NPV 一定为正值。
2.如果某项目有常规的现金流，而且NPV 为正，该项目回收期一定短于其生命周期。
因为折现回收期是用与NPV 相同的折现值计算出来的，如果NPV为正，折现回收期也会短于该项目的生命周期。
NPV 为正表明未来流入现金流大于初始投资成本，盈利指数必然大于1。
如果NPV 以特定的折现率R 计算出来为正值时，必然存在一个大于R 的折现率R’使得NPV 为0，因此，IRR 必定大于必要报酬率。
3.（1）回收期法就是简单地计算出一系列现金流的盈亏平衡点。
其缺陷是忽略了货币的时间价值，另外，也忽略了回收期以后的现金流量。
当某项目的回收期小于该项目的生命周期，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
回收期法决策作出的选择比较武断。
（2）平均会计收益率为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。
其最大的缺陷在于没有使用正确的原始材料，其次也没有考虑到时间序列这个因素。
一般某项目的平均会计收益率大于公司的目标会计收益率，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（3）内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0 的贴现率。
其缺陷在于没有办法对某些项目进行判断，例如有多重内部收益率的项目，而且对于融资型的项目以及投资型的项目判断标准截然相反。
对于投资型项目，若IRR 大于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
对于融资型项目，若IRR 小于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（4）盈利指数是初始以后所有预期未来现金流量的现值和初始投资的比值。
必须注意的是，倘若初始投资期之后，在资金使用上还有限制，那盈利指数就会失效。
罗斯《公司理财》笔记和课后习题详解(会计报表与现金流量)【圣才出品】
第2章会计报表与现金流量2.1 复习笔记会计报表与现金流量分析是公司理财决策的重要内容和基本依据。
会计报表主要包括资产负债表、损益表和现金流量表。
1．资产负债表资产负债表指反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表。
它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常会计核算工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。
资产负债表编制的基础和描述的内容在会计上的准确表述是：资产≡负债＋所有者权益其中，所有者权益被定义为企业资产与负债之差。
原则上，所有者权益是指股东在企业清偿债务以后所拥有的剩余权益。
资产部分取决于企业的行业性质和管理行为，负债部分反应资金的来源类型和比例，取决于管理当局对资本结构的选择。
分析资产负债表时，财务管理人员应注意三个问题：流动性、债务与权益、价值与成本。
（1）流动性流动性指资产变现的方便与快捷程度。
流动性最强的是流动资产，包括现金以及自资产负债表编制之日起一年内能够变现的其他资产，如应收账款和存货。
固定资产是流动性不高的一类资产，包括有形固定资产和无形固定资产。
资产的流动性大意味着对短期债务的偿还能力比较强，但流动资产的收益率通常低于固定资产的收益率。
（2）负债与权益负债是企业所承担的在规定的期限内偿付有关债务的责任，所有者权益是对企业剩余资产的索取权。
如果企业将部分利润留存，所有者权益的会计价值会提高。
（3）价值与成本企业的会计价值是指置存价值或账面价值，它是基于成本的。
市场价值是指有意愿的买者与卖者在资产交易中所达成的价格。
股票价值是指股票的市场价值，权益的账面价值可以为负值，但市场价值不能为负值。
【例2.1】企业应持有尽量多的现金来保持流动性。
（）[对外经贸大学2016金融硕士]【答案】×【解析】公司应该合理分配现金，既考虑流动性，也考虑盈利性。
持有现金太多会影响投资收益，所以不需要持有过多的现金，只需保持恰当的流动性即可。
罗斯《公司理财》笔记和课后习题详解(股利政策和其他支付政策)【圣才出品】
第19章股利政策和其他支付政策19.1 复习笔记股利是公司分配给股东的盈余，股份公司可以从年度的净利中派发股利，也可以从留存收益中提取金额发放。
股利政策就是有关是否发放股利、如何发放股利、股利的类型、何时发放、发放多少等的决策。
股利政策决定了流向投资者和留存在公司用来再投资的资金数量，能够向股东传递关于公司经营业绩和投资机会的信息。
1．股利政策（1）股利政策是企业投融资决策不可分割的一部分，是对企业利润在支付股利和增加留存收益之间的分配比例的规划与决定。
它主要是权衡公司与投资者之间、股东财富最大化与提供足够资金以保证企业扩大再生产之间、企业股票在市场上的吸引力与企业财务负担之间的各种利弊，然后寻求股利与留存利润之间的最佳比例关系。
企业通过股利政策的制定与实施，追求以下目的：保障股东权益；促进公司长期发展；稳定股票价格。
（2）企业利润在支付股利和增加留存收益之间的分配比例的安排，体现为股利支付率。
股利支付率＝年现金股利÷年盈余＝每股股利÷每股盈余【例19.1】P公司2015年的资本预算为500万元，该公司目标资本结构包括60%负债和40%的股权。
公司预测2015年将有300万元的净利润。
如果该公司遵循剩余红利分配政策，则其目标股利支付率为（）。
[中央财经大学2015金融硕士]A．25%B．33%C．38%D．42%【答案】B【解析】剩余股利政策就是以首先满足公司资金需求为出发点的股利政策。
2015年股权资本的需要量为500×40%＝200（万元），所以股利支付率为（300－200）/300＝33%。
2．股利理论（1）股利的涵义及特点①基本涵义。
股利是股息与红利的总称，指公司依据法定条件及程序，根据股东的持股份额从其可供分配利润中向股东支付的一种财产利益，是股份有限公司发放给股东的投资报酬。
②股利的特点a．股利的来源只能是公司的税后盈余；b．股利的支付必须遵守法定的程序；c．股利的支付可以有多种形式。
公司理财罗斯第九版课后习题答案
罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11，13，18，19，20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16，24，27，42，58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3，18，21，22，31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present Value Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is: Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t 2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA 3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4，18，20，22，24 4. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The priceof a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P 0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be: 6 / 17 P 3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3，4，6，9，15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback= 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。
公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案.pdf
案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是 30 美元万。然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全
性只会节省 20 美元万。请问公司应该怎么做呢?”
5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不
同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前
的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。因此所有目标都有一个最优
水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。另一种极端,我们可以认为这是
股东的最大化权益行事。现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己
的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。较少的私
人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论
决策风险项目。此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理
明公司财务有什么异样,但两种方法都没有说明差异是好的还是坏的。例如,假设公司的
流动比率增大，这可能意味着公司改善了过去流动性存在的问题,也可能意味着公司对资
产的管理效率下降。同类公司分析也可能出现问题。公司的流动比率低于同类公司可能
表明其资产管理更有效率,也可能公司面对流动性问题。两种分析方法都没有说明比率的
8.例如,如果一个公司的库存管理变得更有效率,一定数量的存货需要将会下降。如果该公司
可以提高应收帐款回收率，同样可以降低存货需求。一般来说,任何导致期末的 NWC 相
罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版
第五章：净现值和投资评价的其他方法1.如果项目会带来常规的现金流，回收期短于项目的生命周期意味着，在折现率为0 的情况下，NPV 为正值。
折现率大于0 时，回收期依旧会短于项目的生命周期，但根据折现率小于、等于、大于IRR 的情况，NPV 可能为正、为零、为负。
折现回收期包含了相关折现率的影响。
如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期，NPV 一定为正值。
2.如果某项目有常规的现金流，而且NPV 为正，该项目回收期一定短于其生命周期。
因为折现回收期是用与NPV 相同的折现值计算出来的，如果NPV为正，折现回收期也会短于该项目的生命周期。
NPV 为正表明未来流入现金流大于初始投资成本，盈利指数必然大于1。
如果NPV 以特定的折现率R 计算出来为正值时，必然存在一个大于R 的折现率R’使得NPV 为0，因此，IRR 必定大于必要报酬率。
3.（1）回收期法就是简单地计算出一系列现金流的盈亏平衡点。
其缺陷是忽略了货币的时间价值，另外，也忽略了回收期以后的现金流量。
当某项目的回收期小于该项目的生命周期，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
回收期法决策作出的选择比较武断。
（2）平均会计收益率为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。
其最大的缺陷在于没有使用正确的原始材料，其次也没有考虑到时间序列这个因素。
一般某项目的平均会计收益率大于公司的目标会计收益率，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（3）内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0 的贴现率。
其缺陷在于没有办法对某些项目进行判断，例如有多重内部收益率的项目，而且对于融资型的项目以及投资型的项目判断标准截然相反。
对于投资型项目，若IRR 大于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
对于融资型项目，若IRR 小于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（4）盈利指数是初始以后所有预期未来现金流量的现值和初始投资的比值。
必须注意的是，倘若初始投资期之后，在资金使用上还有限制，那盈利指数就会失效。
罗斯《公司理财》笔记和课后习题详解(风险、资本成本和估值)【圣才出品】
第13章 风险、资本成本和估值13.1 复习笔记1．权益资本成本及其估计（1）权益资本成本只有当项目的期望收益率大于风险水平相当的金融资产的期望收益率时，项目才可行。
因此项目的折现率应该等于同样风险水平的金融资产的期望收益率。
从企业的角度来看，权益资本成本就是其期望收益率，若用CAPM 模型，股票的期望收益率为：()F M F R R R R β=+⨯-其中，R F 是无风险利率，R ＿M －R F 是市场组合的期望收益率与无风险利率之差，也称为期望超额市场收益率或市场风险溢价。
股利和资本利得都代表了公司的成本。
公司的股票价值的增长实际上是公司所有股东共同享有的。
如果资本利得中的一部分流向新股东，只有剩下的部分才能被原股东获得。
要估计企业权益资本成本，需要知道以下三个变量：①无风险利率；②市场风险溢价；③公司的贝塔系数。
根据权益资本成本计算企业项目的贴现率需要有两个重要假设：①新项目的贝塔风险与企业风险相同；②企业无债务融资。
（2）无风险利率R F 的估计①计算期限溢价R T ，即用t 年期债券平均收益率减去1年期国债平均收益率；②选择最近t 年期的国债平均收益率R t ′，则R F ＝R t ′－R T 。
（3）对市场风险溢价的估计方法1：运用历史数据进行估计（基于过去）；方法2：运用股利折现模型DDM 进行估计（基于未来）。
在DDM 模型中，一只股票的收益率就是其下一年的股利收益率与股利的年增长率之和。
这可以用于估计一只股票的收益率，也可以用来估计市场整体的收益率。
方法1运用的是历史数据，较为客观，几乎无个人主观操作空间；而方法2则因对未来股利增长的估计而具有很大的主观性。
因此，学者们运用DDM 方法时往往会采用一个低于历史风险溢价水平的数值。
（4）贝塔的估计估算公司贝塔值的基本方法是利用T 个观测值按照如下公式估计：(,)(1,2,,)()it m m Cov R R t T Var R β== 估算贝塔值可能存在以下问题：①贝塔可能随时间的推移而发生变化；②样本容量可能太小；③贝塔受财务杠杆和经营风险变化的影响。
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第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
8.大型金融机构成为股票的主要持有者可能减少美国公司的代理问题，形成更有效率的公司控制权市场。
但也不一定能。
如果共同基金或者退休基金的管理层并不关心的投资者的利益，代理问题可能仍然存在,甚至有可能增加基金和投资者之间的代理问题。
（3）就像市场需求其他劳动力一样，市场也需求首席执行官，首席执行官的薪酬是由市场决定的。
这同样适用于运动员和演员。
首席执行官薪酬大幅度增长的一个主要原因是现在越来越多的公司实行股票报酬，这样的改革是为了更好的协调股东和管理者的利益。
这些报酬有时被认为仅仅对股票价格上涨的回报,而不是对管理能力的奖励。
或许在将来,高管薪酬仅用来奖励特别的能力,即,股票价格的上涨增加了超过一般的市场。
10.最大化现在公司股票的价格和最大化未来股票价格是一样的。
股票的价值取决于公司未来所有的现金流量。
从另一方面来看,支付大量的现金股利给股东,股票的预期价格将会上升。
第二章1.正确。
所有的资产都可以以某种价格转换为现金。
但是提及流动资产,假定该资产转换为现金时可达到或接近其市场价值是很重要的。
2.按公认会计原则中配比准则的要求，收入应与费用相配比，这样，在收入发生或应计的时候，即使没有现金流量，也要在利润表上报告。
注意,这种方式是不正确的;但是会计必须这么做。
3.现金流量表最后一栏数字表明了现金流量的变化。
这个数字对于分析一家公司并没有太大的作用。
4.两种现金流量主要的区别在于利息费用的处理。
会计现金流量将利息作为营运现金流量,而财务现金流量将利息作为财务现金流量。
会计现金流量的逻辑是，利息在利润表的营运阶段出现，因此利息是营运现金流量。
事实上,利息是财务费用,这是公司对负债和权益的选择的结果。
比较这两种现金流量，财务现金流量更适合衡量公司业绩。
5.市场价值不可能为负。
想象某种股票价格为- 20美元。
这就意味着如果你订购100股的股票,你会损失两万美元的支票。
你会想要买多少这种股票?根据企业和个人破产法,个人或公司的净值不能为负,这意味着负债不能超过资产的市场价值。
6.比如，作为一家成功并且飞速发展的公司，资本支出是巨大的,可能导致负的资产现金流量。
一般来说,最重要的问题是资本使用是否恰当,而不是资产的现金流量是正还是负。
7.对于已建立的公司出现负的经营性现金流量可能不是好的表象,但对于刚起步的公司这种现象是很正常的。
8.例如,如果一个公司的库存管理变得更有效率,一定数量的存货需要将会下降。
如果该公司可以提高应收帐款回收率，同样可以降低存货需求。
一般来说,任何导致期末的NWC相对与期初下降的事情都会有这样的作用。
负净资本性支出意味着资产的使用寿命比购买时长。
9.如果公司在某一特定时期销售股票比分配股利的数额多,公司对股东的现金流量是负的。
如果公司借债超过它支付的利息和本金，对债权人的现金流量就是负的。
10.那些核销仅仅是会计上的调整。
11.Ragsdale公司的利润表如下净利润=股利+留存收益留存收益=净利润-股利=126100-48000=78100美元12.净资本性支出=期末固定资产净额-期初固定资产净额+折旧=4700000-4200000+925000=1425000美元13.对债权人的现金流量=340000-(3100000-2800000)=40000美元对股东的现金流量=600000-(855000-820000)-(7600000-6800000)=-235000美元企业流向投资者的现金流量=40000+(-235000)=-195000美元经营性现金流量=(-195000)+760000-165000=205000美元14.a.OCF=息前税前利润+折旧-所得税=47100+7000-12840=41260b.CFC=利息+赎回债务=15000+6500=21500c.CFS=股利-新发行股票=8700-6450=2250d.CFA=CFC+CFS=21500+2250=23750CFA=OFC-净资本性支出-净营运资本增加额净资本性支出=固定资产增加净额+折旧=5000+7000=12000净营运资本增加额=OFC-CFA-净资本性支出=41260-23750-12000=5510如果该公司当年固定资产净额增加5000美元，净营运资本增加额为5510美元。
15.a.成长公司应纳税额=0.15×50000+0.25×25000+0.34×10000=17150盈利公司应纳税额=0.15×50000+0.25×25000+0.34×25000+0.39×235000+0.34×8165000=2890000b.每个公司都要额外支付3400美元的税金，因为两个公司应纳税额增加10000的边际税率都为34%。
案例题1.（1）财务现金流量表Warf计算机公司财务现金流量2007（单位：千美元）（2）会计现金流量表Warf计算机公司总现金流量表2007（单位：千美元）2.财务现金流量表能够更准确的反映公司的现金流量。
3.该公司发展状况良好，可以进行扩张计划，寻求新的股权投资和银行贷款等外部融资。
第三章1.时间趋势分析描述公司的财务状况的变化。
通过时间趋势分析，财务经理可以衡量公司某些方面的运作、财务、投资活动是否改变。
同类公司分析指跟同行业相类似的公司比较财务比率和经营业绩。
进行同类公司分析,财务经理可以评价公司的运作、财务、或投资活动等方面是否符合标准,引导财务经理对相关比率进行适当的调整。
两种方法都能查明公司财务有什么异样,但两种方法都没有说明差异是好的还是坏的。
例如,假设公司的流动比率增大，这可能意味着公司改善了过去流动性存在的问题,也可能意味着公司对资产的管理效率下降。
同类公司分析也可能出现问题。
公司的流动比率低于同类公司可能表明其资产管理更有效率,也可能公司面对流动性问题。
两种分析方法都没有说明比率的好坏，只是分析了差异。
2.如果公司由于新店带来的增长假定总销售额的增长，将两个不同时间点的销售额进行比较就会出现错误的结论。
同店销售将同样的店铺的销售额进行比较，就可以避免出现这些问题。
3.原因在于销售额是商业发展的原动力。
公司的资产,雇员,事实上,几乎每个方面的运转、财务都直接或间接地支持销售。
公司未来的需要,如资产、雇员、存货、融资都取决于未来的销售水平。
4.可持续发展公式的两个假设条件是公司都不想卖股权,财务政策是固定的。
如果公司新增外部股权,或者增加负债权益比,就能以高于可持续增长率的速度增长。
如果公司改变股利政策增加留存比率,或者提高总资产周转率，公司就能以高于边际利润增长率的速度增长。
5.可持续增长率大于20%,因为在20%的增长速度负的EFN为了表明多余的资金仍然有效。
如果公司是百分之百的股权资金,可持续增长率对于内部增长率并且内部的增长率超过20%。
然而,当公司拥有债务时,内部增长率低于可持续增长率,内部增长率大于或小于20%是无法判断的。
如果留存收益增加,公司将有更多的内部资金来源,它将不得不增加更多的债务以保持负债权益比不变,EFN将会下降。
反之,如果留存收益下降,EFN将上涨。
如果留存收益为零,内部收益率和可持续增长率为零,EFN等于总资产的变化。
6.共同比利润表为财务经理提供公司的比率分析。
例如，共同比利润表可以显示,产品销售成本对销售额增加的弹性。
共同比资产负债表能展现出公司依靠债券的融资增加。
没有共同比现金流量表的理由:不可能有分母。
7.它会降低对外部资金的需求。
如果公司没有满负荷运转,不用增加固定资产就可以提高销售额。
8.ROE 是对公司的业绩最好的衡量方法。
ROE 表示股权投资者的回报率。
由于公司的财务管理目标是最大的股东财富,比率显示了公司的绩效是否达成目标。
9.EBITD /资产比显示了该公司的经营业绩（利息、税收、折旧前）。
该比例显示公司的成本控制。
虽然税金是成本,折旧和摊销费用也被认为是成本,但这些不易控制。
相反的,折旧和待摊费用会因为会计方法的选择而改变。
该比例只用于跟经营活动相关的成本,比ROA 更好的度量管理绩效。
10.公司投资者的投资形式有长期负债和股本,或者贷款或所有权。
投资收益率是用来衡量投资者的回报率。
投资收益率高于流动负债的资产收益率。
由于总资产等于总负债加总权益,总负债和总权益等于流动负债加上长期负债以及股权。
因此投资收益率等于净收益除以总资产减去流动负债。
11.大概不会,但是假如该产品不热销,销售不好也会面临一样的问题。
12.客户直到发货才付款，应收账款增加。
公司的NWC,不是现金,增加了。
同时,成本上升的速度比收入上升的速度快,所以营运现金流量下降。