罗斯公司理财第八章课后习题答案
罗斯公司理财第八九版中文课后习题答案
罗斯公司理财第八九版中文课后习题答案第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
【公司理财】罗斯,中文第六版课后习题详细解答05
第三部分未来现金流量估价第5章估价导论：货币的时间价值财务管理中最重要的问题之一是：未来将收到的现金流量，它在今天的价值是多少？答案取决于货币的时间价值，这也是该章的主题。
第6章贴现现金流量估价本章拓展第5章的基本结论，讨论多期现金流量的估价。
我们考虑了许多相关的问题，包括贷款估价、贷款偿付额的计算以及报酬率的决定。
第7章利率债券是一种非常重要的金融工具。
该章示范如何利用第6章的估价技术来决定债券的价格，我们讲述债券的基本特点，以及财经报章如何报道债券的价格。
我们还将考察利率对债券价格的影响。
第8章股票估价第三部分的最后一章考察股票价格的确定，讨论普通股和优先股的重要特点，例如股东的权利，该章还考察了股票价格的报价。
第5 章估价导论：货币的时间价值◆本章复习与自测题5.1 计算终值假定今天你在一个利率为6%的账户存了10 000美元。
5年后，你将有多少钱？5.2 计算现值假定你刚庆祝完19岁生日。
你富有的叔叔为你设立了一项基金，将在你30岁时付给你150 000美元。
如果贴现率是9%，那么今天这个基金的价值是多少？5.3 计算报酬率某项投资可以使你的钱在10年后翻一番。
这项投资的报酬率是多少？利用72法则来检验你的答案是否正确。
5.4 计算期数某项投资将每年付给你9%的报酬。
如果你现在投资15 000美元，多长时间以后你就会有30 000美元？多长时间以后你就会有45 000美元？◆本章复习与自测题解答5.1 我们需要计算在6%的利率下，10 000美元在5年后的终值。
终值系数为：1.065= 1.3382终值为：10 000美元×1.3382 = 13 382.26美元。
5.2 我们要算出在9%的利率下，11年后支付的150 000美元的现值。
贴现系数为：1/(1.09)11= 1/2.5804 = 0.3875这样，现值大约是58 130美元。
5.3 假定你现在投资1 000美元，10年后，你将拥有2 000美元。
罗斯公司理财第八章课后习题答案
1. 当到期收益率（YTM ）等于如下值时，到期日将支付1000美元的10年期零息债券的价格是多少？a ）5%b ）10%c ）15%这里有两个需要注意的点：1）零息债券——不支付任何利息的债券，它只在债券到期日支付本经所以的这种债券的重要特征是其售价远低于其票面价值；2）债券的复习周期的问题一般的美国债券都是每半年计息一次这一点可能书上会写也可能不会写，没有写的时候就当成默认属性，具体计算如下：这里再啰嗦依据关于APR 名义年利率与实际年利率的关系：由APR->每个计息周期的实际利率->由实际周期利率在复利的条件下又可以推出实际年利率，在本章中由于不存在复利的条件，那么APR=实际年利率，但是每个周期的利率=APR/周期数，而且折现利率的就是按照每个周期的利率来进行计算，这里的现金流发生的不是在年末，故折现率不能简单的采用的年折现率，应该将其除以22. Microhard 发行了一份具有如下特征的债券：面值：1000；期限（到期日）：25；利息率（息票利率）：7%；支付周期：半年到期收益率（yield to maturity ）a ）7%b ）9%c ）5%3.Watters雨伞集团公司2年前发型了12年期的债券，票面利率为7.8%，该债券每半年支付一次利息。
如果债券当前售价面值为105%，那么到期收益收益率（YTM）会是多少？答：这道题就没有什么好说的了就是考察一个逼近法和一个2年前，因为售价是面值的105%所以他的期望收益率会低于票面利率，剩下的就只能通过试错来确定了（但也可以千万要注意一般会先算出来3.45%这个数但是这个是一个计息周期的折现率，要将他转换成一年的折现率，由于这里不会存在复利的情况故这里的年折现率只需将半年计的折现率乘以2即可4.公司发行在外的债券期限为13.5年，到期收益率为7.6%，当前价格为1175美元，该债券每半年支付一次利息问该债券的当前价格是多少？这道题漏了一个条件那就是该债券的票面价值是1000，需要记住的是债券的票面值一般5.公司发行了一份面值为1000欧元的债券，期限为15年，票面利率为8.4%，每年支付一6.真实利率=（1+名义利率）/（1+通货膨胀率）-18.根据公式：名义利率=（1+实际利率）*（1+通货膨胀率）-1故本题的答案=7.32%9.略：同样是根据真实利率=（1+名义利率）/（1+通货膨胀率）-1来做10.略11.这个要求了解国债报价表的组成其实就是考英语单词coupon：利息bid：购入价格asked：卖出价格chg:卖出价的变动情况asded yield：到期收益率购买价格是面值的1000（119+19/32）%其一天的卖出价格是面值的1000（120+6/32）%，美国债券市场上的债券面值一般为100012.这道题出现了一个新名词叫做当前收益率，对它的解释是：利息/卖出价格，注意不要和息票利率混淆了，默认面值=100013.这道题需要的注意的是在一道题中使用的折现率与折现周期要统一，不能前半部分是按照年14.这道题有一个隐含条件：在题目中没有明确指出债券价格的时候就将它默认为是1000美元，这里只给出敏感性分析的计算结果：由图可知期限较长的债券对利率风险较为敏感，原因是期限较长的债券的面值的现值较低，相较于期限较短的债券的它的利息年金的现值在价格所占的比重增加说实话从这幅图还真的不好判别到底谁的更加敏感，从斜率来看甚至我觉得高票面利率的债券甚至反应要稍微强一点，到底是不是这样呢？我们来看一下变化的百分比（当到期收益率改变时的价格变化/没有变化前的百分比较少，它的价格中的一大部分的比重来自与面值的现值，如果到期收益率变换那么对它将造成比较大的影响16.说实话这道题让我有点迷糊了，这里的到期收益率YTM和当前收益率都出现过了，但是这里居然冒出来一个实际收益率EAR也就是计算复利复息的那种，债券真的还会支付利息的利息吗？？这点我有很大的疑问，不过答案是这么写的，知道的同学可以的话发个17.这道题参考了英文原版答案，发现题中漏了一个条件那就是票面利率=10%，这道题没有什么特点就是考察当以面值出售时，票面利率=期望收益率所以读者自作吧，只是简单的计算题18.这道题也是，首先发票价上的1090包含了四个月的利息，所以半年利息的2/3即可，具体计算留作读者自作19.同18题20.结果如下图所示21.这道题值得注意的是它的最新报价应为871.55美元，还有就是再一次提醒所有的率都是22.根据题目创建了excel电子表格模型，发现当到期收益率=票面利率时，无论期限为多少债券价格都等于票面价值，这可以单过一个定理来进行记忆，也可以通过公示推导得到，具体数学公式推导，读者自作23.本题有一个公式需要了解：资本利得=卖出价格-买入价格，不要考虑折现问题英文原版答案：24.题目比较简单，就是注意一下它的哪一个持有期收益率就是在你持有过程之中所实际得25.这道题比较简单，就是计算量大，注意求完终值再来求现值即可26.这是一道比较好的题，它让我们分清以前的实际年利率和实际利率的差别，虽然只是差了一个字，但是在这道题中却很明显的体现了出来，显示名义年利率（与计息周期有关）->名义利率（与通货膨胀率有关）->除去通货膨胀的名义年利率->周利率，在来使用年金现值计算公式，这里体现了一个重要的思想那就是以年金发生时间间隔来算年金现值27.这是一道非常好的题，具体的思路与26题相似，都是通过实际年利率->出去通货膨胀的实际年利率->除去通货膨胀的名义年利率->除去通货膨胀的名义月利率这里为什么要求出除去通货膨胀的月利率，因为现金流量的发生时间不是在年末，而是在每个月，而这一题的最后一问确是一道更好的题，它求最后一年的名义现金流量，也就是考虑通货膨胀的情况，但我们从一开始计算这道题时就去除了通货膨胀，所以通货膨胀年应该是30+25年，而且因为只是求一个时间点的现金流量，而且不存在求和的情况，故用年度通货膨胀率。
罗斯《公司理财》第八版 第八章
Annual inflation rate: 5% Working Capital: initial $10,000 changes with
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
Chapter Outline
8.1 Incremental Cash Flows 8.2 The Baldwin Company: An Example 8.3 Inflation and Capital Budgeting 8.4 Alternative Definitions of Cash Flow 8.5 Investments of Unequal Lives: The
Interest Expense
Later chapters will deal with the impact that the amount of debt that a firm has in its capital structure has on firm value.
For now, it’s enough to assume that the firm’s level of debt (and, hence, interest expense) is independent of the project at hand.
sales
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解-第8篇理财专题【圣才出品】
罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解-第8篇理财专题【圣才出品】第8篇理财专题第29章收购、兼并与剥离29.1 复习笔记企业间的并购是一项充满不确定性的投资活动。
在并购决策中必须运用的基本法则是：当一家企业能够为并购企业的股东带来正的净现值时才会被并购。
因此确定目标企业的净现值显得尤为重要。
并购具有以下几个特点：并购活动产生的收益被称作协同效应；并购活动涉及复杂的会计、税收和法律因素；并购是股东可行使的一种重要控制机制；并购分析通常以计算并购双方的总价值为中心；并购有时涉及非善意交易。
1．收购的基本形式收购是指一个公司（收购方）用现金、债券或股票购买另一家公司的部分或全部资产或股权，从而获得对该公司的控制权的经济活动。
收购的对象一般有两种：股权和资产。
企业可以运用以下三种基本法律程序进行收购，即：①吸收合并或新设合并；②收购股票；③收购资产。
吸收合并是指一家企业被另一家企业吸收，兼并企业保持其名称和身份，并且收购被兼并企业的全部资产和负债的收购形式。
吸收合并的目标企业不再作为一个独立经营实体而存在。
新设合并是指兼并企业和被兼并企业终止各自的法人形式，共同组成一家新的企业。
收购股票是指用现金、股票或其他证券购买目标企业具有表决权的股票。
2．并购的分类兼并通常是指一个公司以现金、证券或其他形式购买取得其他公司的产权，使其他公司丧失法人资格或改变法人实体，并取得对这些企业决策控制权的经济行为。
兼并和收购虽然有很多不同，但也存在不少相似之处：①兼并与收购的基本动因相似。
要么为扩大企业的市场占有率；要么为扩大企业生产规模，实现规模经营；要么为拓宽企业经营范围，实现分散经营或综合化经营。
总之，企业兼并或收购都是增强企业实力的外部扩张策略或途径。
②企业兼并与收购都以企业产权交易为对象，都是企业资本营运的基本方式。
正是由于两者有很多相似之处，现实中，两者通常统称为“并购”。
按照并购双方的业务性质可以分为：（1）横向并购。
罗斯公司理财第九版第八章课后答案对应版(英汉)金融专硕复习
第八章：利率和债券估值1. a. P = $1,000/(1 + .05/2)⌒20 = $610.27b. P = $1,000/(1 + .10/2)⌒20 = $376.89c. P = $1,000/(1 + .15/2)⌒20 = $235.412.a. P = $35({1 – [1/(1 + .035)]⌒50 } / .035) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .035)⌒50]= $1,000.00When the YTM and the coupon rate are equal, the bond will sell at par.b. P = $35({1 – [1/(1 + .045)]⌒50 } / .045) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .045)⌒50]= $802.38When the YTM is greater than the coupon rate, the bond will sell at a discount.c. P = $35({1 – [1/(1 + .025)]⌒50 } / .025) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .025)⌒50]= $1,283.62When the YTM is less than the coupon rate, the bond will sell at a premium.3. P = $1,050 = $39(PVIFAR%,20) + $1,000(PVIFR%,20) R = 3.547%YTM = 2 *3.547% = 7.09%4. P = $1,175 = C(PVIFA3.8%,27) + $1,000(PVIF3.8%,27) C = $48.48年收益：2 × $48.48 = $96.96则票面利率：Coupon rate = $96.96 / $1,000 = .09696 or 9.70%5. P = €84({1 – [1/(1 + .076)]⌒15 } / .076) + €1,000[1 / (1 + .076)⌒15] = €1,070.186. P = ¥87,000 = ¥5,400(PVIFAR%,21) + ¥100,000(PVIFR%,21) R = 6.56%7. 近似利率为：R = r + h= .05 –.039 =.011 or 1.10%根据公式(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→(1 + .05) = (1 + r)(1 + .039)实际利率= [(1 + .05) / (1 + .039)] – 1 = .0106 or 1.06%8. (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→R = (1 + .025)(1 + .047) – 1 = .0732 or 7.32%9. (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→h = [(1 + .17) / (1 + .11)] – 1 = .0541 or 5.41%10. (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→r = [(1 + .141) / (1.068)] – 1 = .0684 or 6.84%11. The coupon rate is 6.125%. The bid price is:买入价= 119:19 = 119 19/32 = 119.59375%⨯ $1,000 = $1,195.9375The previous day‘s ask price is found by:pr evious day‘s ask price = Today‘s asked price – Change = 119 21/32 – (–17/32) = 120 6/32 前一天的卖出价= 120.1875% ⨯ $1,000 = $1,201.87512.premium bond当前收益率= Annual coupon payment / Asked price = $75/$1,347.1875 = .0557 or 5.57% The YTM is located under the ―Asked yield‖column, so the YTM is 4.4817%.Bid-Ask spread = 134:23 – 134:22 = 1/3213.P = C(PVIFAR%,t) + $1,000(PVIFR%,t)票面利率为9%：P0 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,26) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,26) = $1,168.90P1 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,24) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,24) = $1,160.58P3 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,20) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,20) = $1,142.12P8 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,10) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,10) = $1,083.17P12 = $45(PVIFA3.5%,2) + $1,000(PVIF3.5%,2) = $1,019.00P13 = $1,000票面利率为7%：P0 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,26) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,26) = $848.53P1 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,24) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,24) = $855.05P3 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,20) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,20) = $869.92P8 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,10) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,10) = $920.87P12 = $35(PVIFA4.5%,2) + $1,000(PVIF4.5%,2) = $981.27P13 = $1,00014.PLaurel = $40(PVIFA5%,4) + $1,000(PVIF5%,4) = $964.54PHardy = $40(PVIFA5%,30) + $1,000(PVIF5%,30) = $846.28Percentage change in price = (New price -Original price) / Original price△PLaurel% = ($964.54 -1,000) / $1,000 = -0.0355 or -3.55%△PHardy% = ($846.28 -1,000) / $1,000 = -0.1537 or -15.37%If the YTM suddenly falls to 6 percentPLaurel = $40(PVIFA3%,4) + $1,000(PVIF3%,4) = $1,037.17PHardy = $40(PVIFA3%,30) + $1,000(PVIF3%,30) = $1,196.00△PLaurel% = ($1,037.17 -1,000) / $1,000 = +0.0372 or 3.72%△PHardy% = ($1,196.002 -1,000) / $1,000 = +0.1960 or 19.60%15. Initially, at a YTM of 10 percent, the prices of the two bonds are:P Faulk = $30(PVIFA5%,16) + $1,000(PVIF5%,16) = $783.24P Gonas = $70(PVIFA5%,16) + $1,000(PVIF5%,16) = $1,216.76If the YTM rises from 10 percent to 12 percent:P Faulk = $30(PVIFA6%,16) + $1,000(PVIF6%,16) = $696.82P Gonas = $70(PVIFA6%,16) + $1,000(PVIF6%,16) = $1,101.06Percentage change in price = (New price – Original price) / Original price△PFaulk% = ($696.82 -783.24) / $783.24 = -0.1103 or -11.03%△PGonas% = ($1,101.06 -1,216.76) / $1,216.76 = -0.0951 or -9.51%If the YTM declines from 10 percent to 8 percent:PFaulk = $30(PVIFA4%,16) + $1,000(PVIF4%,16) = $883.48PGonas = $70(PVIFA4%,16) + $1,000(PVIF4%,16) = $1,349.57△PFaulk% = ($883.48 -783.24) / $783.24 = +0.1280 or 12.80%△PGonas% = ($1,349.57 -1,216.76) / $1,216.76 = +0.1092 or 10.92%16.P0 = $960 = $37(PVIFAR%,18) + $1,000(PVIFR%,18) R = 4.016% YTM = 2 *4.016% = 8.03%Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $74 / $960 = .0771 or 7.71% Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.04016)⌒2 – 1 = .0819 or 8.19%17.P = $1,063 = $50(PVIFA R%,40) + $1,000(PVIF R%,40) R = 4.650% YTM = 2 *4.650% = 9.30%18.Accrued interest = $84/2 × 4/6 = $28Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $1,090 – 28 = $1,06219.Accrued interest = $72/2 × 2/6 = $12.00Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $904 + 12 = $916.0020.Current yield = .0842 = $90/P0→P0 = $90/.0842 = $1,068.88P = $1,068.88 = $90{[(1 – (1/1.0781)⌒t ] / .0781} + $1,000/1.0781⌒t $1,068.88 (1.0781)⌒t = $1,152.37 (1.0781)⌒t – 1,152.37 + 1,000t = log 1.8251 / log 1.0781 = 8.0004 ≈8 years21.P = $871.55 = $41.25(PVIFA R%,20) + $1,000(PVIF R%,20) R = 5.171% YTM = 2 *5.171% = 10.34%Current yield = $82.50 / $871.55 = .0947 or 9.47%22.略23.P: P0 = $90(PVIFA7%,5) + $1,000(PVIF7%,5) = $1,082.00P1 = $90(PVIFA7%,4) + $1,000(PVIF7%,4) = $1,067.74Current yield = $90 / $1,082.00 = .0832 or 8.32%Capital gains yield = (New price – Original price) / Original priceCapital gains yield = ($1,067.74 – 1,082.00) / $1,082.00 = –0.0132 or –1.32%D: P0 = $50(PVIFA7%,5) + $1,000(PVIF7%,5) = $918.00P1 = $50(PVIFA7%,4) + $1,000(PVIF7%,4) = $932.26Current yield = $50 / $918.00 = 0.0545 or 5.45%Capital gains yield = ($932.26 – 918.00) / $918.00 = 0.0155 or 1.55%24. a.P0 = $1,140 = $90(PVIFA R%,10) + $1,000(PVIF R%,10) R = YTM = 7.01%b.P2 = $90(PVIFA6.01%,8) + $1,000(PVIF6.01%,8) = $1,185.87P0 = $1,140 = $90(PVIFA R%,2) + $1,185.87(PVIF R%,2)R = HPY = 9.81%The realized HPY is greater than the expected YTM when the bond was bought because interest rates dropped by 1 percent; bond prices rise when yields fall.25.PM = $800(PVIFA4%,16)(PVIF4%,12)+$1,000(PVIFA4%,12)(PVIF4%,28)+ $20,000(PVIF4%,40) PM = $13,117.88Notice that for the coupon payments of $800, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to todayBond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value; therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:PN = $20,000(PVIF4%,40) = $4,165.7826.(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)1 + .107 = (1 + r)(1 + .035)→r = .0696 or 6.96%EAR = {[1 + (APR / m)]⌒m }– 1APR = m[(1 + EAR)⌒1/m – 1] = 52[(1 + .0696)⌒1/52 – 1] = .0673 or 6.73%Weekly rate = APR / 52= .0673 / 52= .0013 or 0.13%PVA = C({1 – [1/(1 + r)]⌒t } / r)= $8({1 – [1/(1 + .0013)]30(52)} / .0013)= $5,359.6427.Stock account:(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h) →1 + .12 = (1 + r)(1 + .04) →r = .0769 or 7.69%APR = m[(1 + EAR)1/⌒1/m– 1]= 12[(1 + .0769)⌒1/12– 1]= .0743 or 7.43%Monthly rate = APR / 12= .0743 / 12= .0062 or 0.62%Bond account:(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→1 + .07 = (1 + r)(1 + .04)→r = .0288 or 2.88%APR = m[(1 + EAR)⌒1/m– 1]= 12[(1 + .0288)⌒1/12– 1]= .0285 or 2.85%Monthly rate = APR / 12= .0285 / 12= .0024 or 0.24%Stock account:FVA = C {(1 + r )⌒t– 1] / r}= $800{[(1 + .0062)360 – 1] / .0062]}= $1,063,761.75Bond account:FVA = C {(1 + r )⌒t– 1] / r}= $400{[(1 + .0024)360 – 1] / .0024]}= $227,089.04Account value = $1,063,761.75 + 227,089.04= $1,290,850.79(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)→1 + .08 = (1 + r)(1 + .04) →r = .0385 or 3.85%APR = m[(1 + EAR)1/m– 1]= 12[(1 + .0385)1/12– 1]= .0378 or 3.78%Monthly rate = APR / 12= .0378 / 12= .0031 or 0.31%PVA = C({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )$1,290,850.79 = C({1 – [1/(1 + .0031)]⌒300 } / .0031)C = $6,657.74FV = PV(1 + r)⌒t= $6,657.74(1 + .04)(30 + 25)= $57,565.30。
罗斯公司金融课后答案
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案-CAL-FENGHAI-(2020YEAR-YICAI)_JINGBIAN第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
公司理财(罗斯)第八版课后习题答案 新增第九版
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
罗斯《公司理财》第八版 第八章
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
Incremental Cash Flows
Sunk costs are not relevant
Just because “we have come this far” does not mean that we should continue to throw good money after bad.
Equivalent Annual Cost Method
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
8.1 Incremental Cash Flows
Cash flows matter—not accounting earnings. Sunk costs don’t matter. Incremental cash flows matter. Opportunity costs matter. Side effects like cannibalism and erosion matter. Taxes matter: we want incremental after-tax
cash flows. Inflation matters.
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
Cash Flows—Not Accounting
罗斯公司理财第八九版中文课后习题答案
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C h a p008(总45页)-本页仅作为预览文档封面，使用时请删除本页-CHAPTER 8MAKING CAPITAL INVESTMENT DECISIONSAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.In this context, an opportunity cost refers to the value of an asset or other input that will be used ina project. The relevant cost is what the asset or input is actually worth today, not, for example,what it cost to acquire.2. a.Yes, the reduction in the sales of the company’s other products, referred to as erosion, andshould be treated as an incremental cash flow. These lost sales are included because they area cost (a revenue reduction) that the firm must bear if it chooses to produce the new product.b. Yes, expenditures on plant and equipment should be treated as incremental cash flows. Theseare costs of the new product line. However, if these expenditures have already occurred, they are sunk costs and are not included as incremental cash flows.c. No, the research and development costs should not be treated as incremental cash flows. Thecosts of research and development undertaken on the product during the past 3 years are sunk costs and should not be included in the evaluation of the project. Decisions made and costs incurred in the past cannot be changed. They should not affect the decision to accept or reject the project.d. Yes, the annual depreciation expense should be treated as an incremental cash flow.Depreciation expense must be taken into account when calculating the cash flows related to a given project. While depreciation is not a cash expense that directly affects cash flow, it decreases a firm’s net income and hence, lowers its tax bill for the year. Because of this depreciation tax shield, the firm has more cash on hand at the end of the year than it would have had without expensing depreciation.e.No, dividend payments should not be treated as incremental cash flows. A firm’s decision topay or not pay dividends is independent of the decision to accept or reject any given investment project. For this reason, it is not an incremental cash flow to a given project.Dividend policy is discussed in more detail in later chapters.f.Yes, the resale value of plant and equipment at the end of a project’s life should be treated asan incremental cash flow. The price at which the firm sells the equipment is a cash inflow, andany difference between the book value of the equipment and its sale price will create gains orlosses that result in either a tax credit or liability.g.Yes, salary and medical costs for production employees hired for a project should be treatedas incremental cash flows. The salaries of all personnel connected to the project must be included as costs of that project.3.Item I is a relevant cost because the opportunity to sell the land is lost if the new golf club isproduced. Item II is also relevant because the firm must take into account the erosion of sales of existing products when a new product is introduced. If the firm produces the new club, the earnings from the existing clubs will decrease, effectively creating a cost that must be included in the decision. Item III is not relevant because the costs of Research and Development are sunk costs.Decisions made in the past cannot be changed. They are not relevant to the production of the new clubs.4.For tax purposes, a firm would choose MACRS because it provides for larger depreciationdeductions earlier. These larger deductions reduce taxes, but have no other cash consequences.Notice that the choice between MACRS and straight-line is purely a time value issue; the total depreciation is the same; only the timing differs.5.It’s probably only a mild over-simplification. Current liabilities will all be paid, presumably. The cashportion of current assets will be retrieved. Some receivables won’t be col lected, and some inventory will not be sold, of course. Counterbalancing these losses is the fact that inventory sold above cost (and not replaced at the end of the project’s life) acts to increase working capital. These effects tend to offset one another.6.Management’s discretion to set the firm’s capital structure is applicable at the firm level. Since anyone particular project could be financed entirely with equity, another project could be financed with debt, and the firm’s overall capital structure remains unchanged, financing costs are not relevant in the analysis of a project’s incremental cash flows according to the stand-alone principle.7.The EAC approach is appropriate when comparing mutually exclusive projects with different livesthat will be replaced when they wear out. This type of analysis is necessary so that the projects have a common life span over which they can be compared; in effect, each project is assumed to exist over an infinite horizon of N-year repeating projects. Assuming that this type of analysis is valid implies that the project cash flows remain the same forever, thus ignoring the possible effects of, among other things: (1) inflation, (2) changing economic conditions, (3) the increasing unreliability of cash flow estimates that occur far into the future, and (4) the possible effects of future technology improvement that could alter the project cash flows.8.Depreciation is a non-cash expense, but it is tax-deductible on the income statement. Thusdepreciation causes taxes paid, an actual cash outflow, to be reduced by an amount equal to the depreciation tax shield, t c D. A reduction in taxes that would otherwise be paid is the same thing asa cash inflow, so the effects of the depreciation tax shield must be added in to get the totalincremental aftertax cash flows.9.There are two particularly important considerations. The first is erosion. Will the “essentialized”book simply displace copies of the existing book that would have otherwise been sold This is of special concern given the lower price. The second consideration is competition. Will other publishers step in and produce such a product If so, then any erosion is much less relevant. A particular concern to book publishers (and producers of a variety of other product types) is that the publisher only makes money from the sale of new books. Thus, it is important to examine whether the new book would displace sales of used books (good from the publisher’s perspective) or new books (not good). The concern arises any time there is an active market for used product.10.Definitely. The damage to Porsche’s reputation is definitely a factor the company needed toconsider. If the reputation was damaged, the company would have lost sales of its existing car lines.11.One company may be able to produce at lower incremental cost or market better. Also, of course,one of the two may have made a mistake!12.Porsche would recognize that the outsized profits would dwindle as more products come to marketand competition becomes more intense.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = [($5 × 2,000 – ($2 × 2,000)](1 – + ($10,000/5)OCF = $4,600So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –$10,000 + $4,600(PVIFA17%,5)NPV = $4,7172.We will use the bottom-up approach to calculate the operating cash flow for each year. We alsomust be sure to include the net working capital cash flows each year. So, the total cash flow each year will be:Year 1Year 2Year 3Year 4 Sales,000,000,000,000Costs2,0002,0002,0002,000Depreciation 2,500 2,500 2,500 2,500EBT,500,500,500,500Tax 850 850 850 850Net income,650,650,650,650OCF0,150,150,150,150Capital spending–,0000000NWC–200–250–300–200 950Incremental cashflow–,200,900,850,950,100The NPV for the project is:NPV = –,200 + ,900 / + ,850 / + ,950 / + ,100 /NPV = ,3. Using the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = (R2,400,000 – 960,000)(1 – + (R2,700,000/3)OCF = R1,278,000So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R2,700,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,3)NPV = R217,4.The cash outflow at the beginning of the project will increase because of the spending on NWC. Atthe end of the project, the company will recover the NWC, so it will be a cash inflow. The sale of the equipment will result in a cash inflow, but we also must account for the taxes which will be paid on this sale. So, the cash flows for each year of the project will be:Year Cash Flow0– R3,000,000 = –– 300K11,278,00021,278,00031,725,000 = R1,278,000 + 300,000 + 210,000 + (0 – 210,000)(.30) And the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R3,000,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,2) + (R1,725,000 /NPV = R211,5. First we will calculate the annual depreciation for the equipment necessary for the project. Thedepreciation amount each year will be:Year 1 depreciation = = R899,100Year 2 depreciation = = R1,198,800Year 3 depreciation = = R399,600So, the book value of the equipment at the end of three years, which will be the initial investment minus the accumulated depreciation, is:Book value in 3 years = – (R899,100 + 1,198,800 + 399,600)Book value in 3 years = R202,500The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = R202,500 + (R202,500 – 210,000)Aftertax salvage value = R207,750To calculate the OCF, we will use the tax shield approach, so the cash flow each year is:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationYear Cash Flow0– R3,000,000 = –– 300K11,277, = (R1,440,000)(.70) + (R899,100)21,367, = (R1,440,000)(.70) + (R1,198,800)31,635, = (R1,440,000)(.70) + (R399,600) + R207,750 + 300,000 Remember to include the NWC cost in Year 0, and the recovery of the NWC at the end of the project. The NPV of the project with these assumptions is:NPV = – + (R1,277,730/ + (R1,367,640/ + (R1,635,630/NPV = R220,6. First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = €925,000/5Annual depreciation charge = €185,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = €90,000(1 –Aftertax salvage value = €58,500Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = €360,000(1 – + (€185,000)OCF = €298,750Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project. Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –€925,000 + 125,000 + €298,750(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [(€58,500 – 125,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = %7.First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = £390,000/5Annual depreciation = £78,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often, the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero. So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = £60,000(1 –Aftertax salvage value = £39,600Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = £120,000(1 – + (£78,000)OCF = £105,720Now we can find the project NPV. Notice that we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –£390,000 – 28,000 + £105,720(PVIFA10%,5) + [(£39,600 + 28,000) / ]NPV = £24,8.To find the BV at the end of four years, we need to find the accumulated depreciation for the firstfour years. We could calculate a table with the depreciation each year, but an easier way is to add the MACRS depreciation amounts for each of the first four years and multiply this percentage times the cost of the asset. We can then subtract this from the asset cost. Doing so, we get:BV4 = $9,300,000 – 9,300,000 + + +BV4 = $1,608,900The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = $2,100,000 + ($1,608,900 – 2,100,000)(.40)Aftertax salvage value = $1,903,5609. We will begin by calculating the initial cash outlay, that is, the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake theproject, we will have to purchase the equipment and increase net working capital. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment–€2,000,000NWC–100,000Total–€2,100,000Using the bottom-up approach to calculating the operating cash flow, we find the operating cash flow each year will be:Sales€1,200,000Costs300,000Depreciation 500,000EBT€400,000Tax 140,000Net income€260,000The operating cash flow is:OCF = Net income + DepreciationOCF = €260,000 + 500,000OCF = €760,000To find the NPV of the project, we add the present value of the project cash flows. We must be sure to add back the net working capital at the end of the project life, since we are assuming the net working capital will be recovered. So, the project NPV is:NPV = –€2,100,000 + €760,000(PVIFA14%,4) + €100,000 /NPV = €173,10.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $20,000(1 – = $13,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = – $34,000(1 – + ($210,000/3) = $2,400NPV = –$210,000 + $2,400(PVIFA14%,3) + ($13,000/ = –$195,EAC = –$195, / (PVIFA14%,3) = –$84,And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = – $23,000(1 – + ($320,000/5) = $7,450NPV = –$320,000 + $7,450(PVIFA14%,5) + ($13,000/ = –$287,EAC = –$287, / (PVIFA14%,5) = –$83,The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.Intermediate11.First, we will calculate the depreciation each year, which will be:D1 = ¥480,000 = ¥96,000D2 = ¥480,000 = ¥153,600D3 = ¥480,000 = ¥92,160D4 = ¥480,000 = ¥55,200The book value of the equipment at the end of the project is:BV4 = ¥480,000 – (¥96,000 + 153,600 + 92,160 + 55,200) = ¥83,040The asset is sold at a loss to book value, so this creates a tax refund.After-tax salvage value = ¥70,000 + (¥83,040 – 70,000) = ¥74,So, the OCF for each year will be:OCF1 = ¥160,000(1 – + (¥96,000) = ¥137,OCF2 = ¥160,000(1 – + (¥153,600) = ¥157,OCF3 = ¥160,000(1 – + (¥92,160) = ¥136,OCF4 = ¥160,000(1 – + (¥55,200) = ¥123,Now we have all the necessary information to calculate the project NPV. We need to be careful with the NWC in this project. Notice the project requires ¥20,000 of NWC at the beginning, and ¥3,000 more in NWC each successive year. We will subtract the ¥20,000 from the initial cash flow, and subtract ¥3,000 each year from the OCF to account for this spending. In Year 4, we will add back the total spent on NWC, which is ¥29,000. The ¥3,000 spent on NWC capital during Year 4 is irrelevant. Why Well, during this year the project required an additional ¥3,000, but we would get the money back immediately. So, the net cash flow for additional NWC would be zero. With all this, the equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = – ¥480,000 – 20,000 + (¥137,600 – 3,000)/ + (¥157,760 – 3,000)/+ (¥136,256 – 3,000)/ + (¥123,320 + 29,000 + 74,564)/NPV = –¥38,12.If we are trying to decide between two projects that will not be replaced when they wear out, theproper capital budgeting method to use is NPV. Both projects only have costs associated with them, not sales, so we will use these to calculate the NPV of each project. Using the tax shield approach to calculate the OCF, the NPV of System A is:OCF A = –元120,000(1 – + (元430,000/4)OCF A = –元42,650NPV A = –元430,000 –元42,650(PVIFA20%,4)NPV A = –元540,And the NPV of System B is:OCF B = –元80,000(1 – + (元540,000/6)OCF B = –元22,200NPV B = –元540,000 –元22,200(PVIFA20%,6)NPV B = –元613,If the system will not be replaced when it wears out, then System A should be chosen, because it has the more positive NPV.13.If the equipment will be replaced at the end of its useful life, the correct capital budgetingtechnique is EAC. Using the NPVs we calculated in the previous problem, the EAC for each system is: EAC A = –元540, / (PVIFA20%,4)EAC A = –元208,EAC B = –元613, / (PVIFA20%,6)EAC B = –元184,If the conveyor belt system will be continually replaced, we should choose System B since it has the more positive NPV.14.Since we need to calculate the EAC for each machine, sales are irrelevant. EAC only uses the costsof operating the equipment, not the sales. Using the bottom up approach, or net income plus depreciation, method to calculate OCF, we get:Machine A Machine BVariable costs–₪3,150,000–₪2,700,000Fixed costs–150,000–100,000Depreciation–350,000–500,000EBT–₪3,650,000–₪3,300,000Tax 1,277,500 1,155,000Net income–₪2,372,500–₪2,145,000+ Depreciation 350,000 500,000OCF–₪2,022,500–₪1,645,000The NPV and EAC for Machine A is:NPV A = –₪2,100,000 –₪2,022,500(PVIFA10%,6)NPV A = –₪10,908,EAC A = –₪10,908, / (PVIFA10%,6)EAC A = –₪2,504,And the NPV and EAC for Machine B is:NPV B = –₪4,500,000 – 1,645,000(PVIFA10%,9)NPV B = –₪13,973,EAC B = –₪13,973, / (PVIFA10%,9)EAC B = –₪2,426,You should choose Machine B since it has a more positive EAC.15.When we are dealing with nominal cash flows, we must be careful to discount cash flows at thenominal interest rate, and we must discount real cash flows using the real interest rate. Project A’s cash flows are in real terms, so we need to find the real interest rate. Using the Fisher equation, the real interest rate is:1 + R = (1 + r)(1 + h)= (1 + r)(1 + .04)r = .1058 or %So, the NPV of Project A’s real cash flows, discounting at the real interest rate, is:NPV = –฿40,000 + ฿20,000 / + ฿15,000 / + ฿15,000 /NPV = ฿1,Project B’s cash flow are in nominal terms, so the NPV discount at the nominal interest rate is:NPV = –฿50,000 + ฿10,000 / + ฿20,000 / + ฿40,000 /NPV = ฿We should accept Project A if the projects are mutually exclusive since it has the highest NPV.16.To determine the value of a firm, we can simply find the present value of the firm’s future cashflows. No depreciation is given, so we can assume depreciation is zero. Using the tax shield approach, we can find the present value of the aftertax revenues, and the present value of the aftertax costs. The required return, growth rates, price, and costs are all given in real terms.Subtracting the costs from the revenues will give us the value of the firm’s cash flows. We must calculate the present value of each separately since each is growing at a different rate. First, we will find the present value of the revenues. The revenues in year 1 will be the number of bottles sold, times the price per bottle, or:Aftertax revenue in year 1 in real terms = (2,000,000 × $(1 –Aftertax revenue in year 1 in real terms = $1,650,000Revenues will grow at six percent per year in real terms forever. Apply the growing perpetuity formula, we find the present value of the revenues is:PV of revenues = C1 / (R–g)PV of revenues = $1,650,000 / –PV of revenues = $41,250,000The real aftertax costs in year 1 will be:Aftertax costs in year 1 in real terms = (2,000,000 × $(1 –Aftertax costs in year 1 in real terms = $858,000Costs will grow at five percent per year in real terms forever. Applying the growing perpetuity formula, we find the present value of the costs is:PV of costs = C1 / (R–g)PV of costs = $858,000 / –PV of costs = $17,160,000Now we can find the value of the firm, which is:Value of the firm = PV of revenues – PV of costsValue of the firm = $41,250,000 – 17,160,000Value of the firm = $24,090,00017. To calculate the nominal cash flows, we simple increase each item in the income statement by theinflation rate, except for depreciation. Depreciation is a nominal cash flow, so it does not need to be adjusted for inflation in nominal cash flow analysis. Since the resale value is given in nominal terms as of the end of year 5, it does not need to be adjusted for inflation. Also, no inflation adjustment is needed for either the depreciation charge or the recovery of net working capital since these items are already expressed in nominal terms. Note that an increase in required net working capital is a negative cash flow whereas a decrease in required net working capital is a positive cash flow. The nominal aftertax salvage value is:Market price$30,000Tax on sale–10,200Aftertax salvage value$19,800Remember, to calculate the taxes paid (or tax credit) on the salvage value, we take the book value minus the market value, times the tax rate, which, in this case, would be:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = ($0 – 30,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –$10,200Now we can find the nominal cash flows each year using the income statement. Doing so, we find:Year 0Year 1Year 2Year 3Year 4Year 5 Sales$200,000$206,000$212,180$218,545$225,102 Expenses50,00051,50053,04554,63656,275 Depreciation 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000 EBT$100,000$104,500$109,135$113,909$118,826 Tax 34,000 35,530 37,106 38,729 40,401 Net income$66,000$68,970$72,029$75,180$78,425 OCF$116,000$118,970$122,029$125,180$128,425Capital spending–$250,000$19,800NWC–10,000 10,000Total cash flow–$260,000$116,000$118,970$122,029$125,180$158,22518.The present value of the company is the present value of the future cash flows generated by thecompany. Here we have real cash flows, a real interest rate, and a real growth rate. The cash flows are a growing perpetuity, with a negative growth rate. Using the growing perpetuity equation, the present value of the cash flows are:PV = C1 / (R–g)PV = $120,000 / [.11 – (–.07)]PV = $666,19.To find the EAC, we first need to calculate the NPV of the incremental cash flows. We will beginwith the aftertax salvage value, which is:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = (€0 – 10,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –€3,400Market price€10,000Tax on sale–3,400Aftertax salvage value€6,600Now we can find the operating cash flows. Using the tax shield approach, the operating cash flow each year will be:OCF = –€5,000(1 – + (€45,000/3)OCF = €1,800So, the NPV of the cost of the decision to buy is:NPV = –€45,000 + €1,800(PVIFA12%,3) + (€6,600/NPV = –€35,In order to calculate the equivalent annual cost, set the NPV of the equipment equal to an annuity with the same economic life. Since the project has an economic life of three years and is discounted at 12 percent, set the NPV equal to a three-year annuity, discounted at 12 percent.EAC = –€35, / (PVIFA12%,3)EAC = –€14,20.We will find the EAC of the EVF first. There are no taxes since the university is tax-exempt, so themaintenance costs are the operating cash flows. The NPV of the decision to buy one EVF is:NPV = –₩8,000 –₩2,000(PVIFA14%,4)NPV = –₩13,In order to calculate the equivalent annual cost, set the NPV of the equipment equal to an annuity with the same economic life. Since the project has an economic life of four years and is discounted at 14 percent, set the NPV equal to a three-year annuity, discounted at 14 percent. So, the EAC per unit is:EAC = –₩13, / (PVIFA14%,4)EAC = –₩4,Since the university must buy 10 of the word processors, the total EAC of the decision to buy the EVF word processor is:Total EAC = 10(–₩4,Total EAC = –₩47,Note, we could have found the total EAC for this decision by multiplying the initial cost by the number of word processors needed, and multiplying the annual maintenance cost of each by the same number. We would have arrived at the same EAC.We can find the EAC of the AEH word processors using the same method, but we need to include the salvage value as well. There are no taxes on the salvage value since the university is tax-exempt, so the NPV of buying one AEH will be:NPV = –₩5,000 –₩2,500(PVIFA14%,3) + (₩500/NPV = –₩10,So, the EAC per machine is:EAC = –₩10, / (PVIFA14%,3)EAC = –₩4,Since the university must buy 11 of the word processors, the total EAC of the decision to buy the AEH word processor is:Total EAC = 11(–₩4,Total EAC = –₩49,The university should buy the EVF word processors since the EAC is lower. Notice that the EAC of the AEH is lower on a per machine basis, but because the university needs more of these word processors, the total EAC is higher.21.We will calculate the aftertax salvage value first. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment willbe:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = (₫0 – 100,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –₫34,000Market price₫100,000Tax on sale–34,000Aftertax salvage value₫66,000Next, we will calculate the initial cash outlay, that is, the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake the project, we will have to purchase the equipment. The new project will decrease the net working capital, so this is a cash inflow at the beginning of the project. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment–₫500,000NWC 100,000Total–₫400,000Now we can calculate the operating cash flow each year for the project. Using the bottom up approach, the operating cash flow will be:Saved salaries₫120,000Depreciation 100,000EBT₫20,000Taxes 6,800Net income₫13,200And the OCF will be:OCF = ₫13,200 + 100,000OCF = ₫113,200Now we can find the NPV of the project, which is:NPV = –₫500,000 + ₫113,200(PVIFA12%,5) + ₫66,000 /NPV = –₫11,22.Replacement decision analysis is the same as the analysis of two competing projects, in this case,keep the current equipment, or purchase the new equipment. We will consider the purchase of the new machine first.Purchase new machine:The initial cash outlay for the new machine is the cost of the new machine, plus the increased net working capital. So, the initial cash outlay will be:Purchase new machine–$32,000,000Net working capital–500,000Total–$32,500,000Next, we can calculate the operating cash flow created if the company purchases the new machine.The saved operating expense is an incremental cash flow, so using the pro forma income statement, and adding depreciation to net income, the operating cash flow created by purchasing the new machine each year will be:Operating expense$5,000,000Depreciation8,000,000EBT$13,000,000Taxes5,070,000Net income$7,930,000OCF$15,930,000So, the NPV of purchasing the new machine, including the recovery of the net working capital, is: NPV = –$32,500,000 + $15,930,000(PVIFA10%,4) + $500,000 /NPV = $18,337,And the IRR is:0 = –$32,500,000 + $15,930,000(PVIFA IRR,4) + $500,000 / (1 + IRR)4Using a spreadsheet or financial calculator, we find the IRR is:IRR = %Now we can calculate the decision to keep the old machine:。
罗斯《公司理财》第八版 第八章
tax cash flows.
Cash Flows—Not Accounting
Consider depreciation expense.
You never write a check made out to “depreciation.”
The Baldwin Company
Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5
Investments:
(1)
Bowling ball machine –100.00
21.76*
(2)
Accumulated
94.24 depreciation
20.00 52.00 71.20 82.72
80.00 48.00 28.80 17.28
5.76
machine after
depreciation (end of year)
(4)Opportunity cost 150.00 (warehouse)
–150.00
(5)Net working capital 10.00
10.00
16.32 24.97 21.22
罗斯《公司理财》第八 版 第八章
2021年7月20日星期二
Key Concepts and Skills
Understand how to determine the relevant cash flows for various types of capital investments
Be able to compute depreciation expense for tax purposes
罗斯《公司理财》第八版 第八章
Estimating Cash Flows
Cash Flow from Operations
Recall that: OCF = EBIT – Taxes + Depreciation
Equivalent Annual Cost Method
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
8.1 Incremental Cash Flows
Cash flows matter—not accounting earnings. Sunk costs don’t matter. Incremental cash flows matter. Opportunity costs matter. Side effects like cannibalism and erosion matter. Taxes matter: we want incremental after-tax
cash flows. Inflation matters.
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
Cash Flows—Not Accounting
Consider depreciation expense.
Incorporate inflation into capital budgeting Understand the various methods for computing
operating cash flow Apply the Equivalent Annual Cost approach
罗斯《公司理财》第八版 第八章_810
Recall that when the project winds down, we enjoy a return of net working capital.
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
Incremental Cash Flows
Sunk costs are not relevant
Just because “we have come this far” does not mean that we should continue to throw good money after bad.
Side effects matter.
Erosion and cannibalism are both bad things. If our new product causes existing customers to demand less of current products, we need to recognize that.
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copyright © 2007 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.
8.1 Incremental Cash Flows
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap008
公司理财习题答案第八章Chapter 8: Strategy and Analysis in Using Net Present Value8.1 Go directly:NPV = 0.5 ⨯ $20 million + 0.5 ⨯ $5 million= $12.5 millionTest marketing:NPV = -$2 million + (0.75 ⨯ $20 million + 0.25 ⨯ $5 million) / 1.15= $12.13 millionGo directly to the market.8.2 Focus group: -$120,000 + 0.70 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $720,000Consulting firm: -$400,000 + 0.90 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $680,000Direct marketing: 0.50 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $600,000The manager should conduct a focus group.8.3 Price more aggressively:-$1,300,000 + (0.55 ⨯ 0) + 0.45 ⨯ (-$550,000)= -$1,547,500Hire lobbyist:-$800,000 + (0.75 ⨯ 0) + 0.25 ⨯ (-$2,000,000)= -$1,300,000Tandem should hire the lobbyist.8.4 Let sales price be x.Depreciation = $600,000 / 5 = $120,000BEP: ($900,000 + $120,000) / (x - $15) = 20,000x = $668.5 The accounting break-even= (120,000 + 20,000) / (1,500 - 1,100)= 350 units8.6 a. The accounting break-even= 340,000 / (2.00 - 0.72)= 265,625 abalonesb. [($2.00 ⨯ 300,000) - (340,000 + 0.72 ⨯ 300,000)] (0.65)= $28,600This is the after tax profit.8.7 EAC = $140,000 / 7A = $33,650.015Depreciation = $140,000 / 7 = $20,000BEP = {$33,650 + $340,000 ⨯ 0.65 - $20,000 ⨯ 0.35} / {($2 - $0.72) ⨯ 0.65} = 297,656.25≈ 297,657 units8.8 Depreciation = $200,000 / 5 = $40,000 EAC = $200,000 / 512.0A = $200,000 / 3.60478 = $55,482BEP = {$55,482 + $350,000 ⨯ 0.75 - $40,000 ⨯ 0.25} / {($25 - $5) ⨯ 0.75} = 20,532.13 ≈ 20533 units 8.9 Let I be the break-even purchase price. Incremental C 0$20,000 Tax effect 3,400 Total $23,400 Depreciation per period = $45,000 / 15 = $3,000Book value of the machine = $45,000 - 5 ⨯ $3,000 = $30,000Loss on sale of machine = $30,000 - $20,000 = $10,000 Tax credit due to loss = $10,000 ⨯ 0.34 = $3,400Incremental cost savings: $10,000 (1 - 0.34) = $6,600 Incremental depreciation tax shield: [I / 10 - $3,000] (0.34)The break-even purchase price is the Investment (I), which makes the NPV be zero. NPV = 0 = -I + $23,400 + $6,600 1015.0A + [I / 10 - $3,000] (0.34) 1015.0A = -I + $23,400 + $6,600 (5.0188) + I (0.034) (5.0188) - $3,000 (0.34) (5.0188) I = $61,981 8.10 Pessimistic:NPV= -$420,000 + (){}23,000$38$21$320,0000.65$60,0000.351.13t t 17--⨯+⨯=∑= -$123,021.71 Expected: NPV = -$420,000 + (){}25,000$40$20$300,0000.65$60,0000.351.13t7--⨯+⨯=∑t 1= $247,814.17公司理财习题答案第八章Optimistic:NPV= -$420,000 +(){}27,000$42$19$280,0000.65$60,0000.351.13tt 17--⨯+⨯=∑= $653,146.42Even though the NPV of pessimistic case is negative, if we change one input while allothers are assumed to meet their expectation, we have all positive NPVs like the one before. Thus, this project is quite profitable.PessimisticNPVUnit sales 23,000 $132,826.30 Price$38 $104,079.33 Variable costs $21 $175,946.75 Fixed costs$320,000$190,320.248.11 Pessimistic: NPV = -$1,500,000 +(){}1100000220000600000401131,.$850,.$300,..⨯--⨯+⨯=∑$115$725tt= -$675,701.68 Expected: NPV = -$1,500,000+(){}1200000250000600000401131,.$800,.$300,..⨯--⨯+⨯=∑$120$705tt= $399,304.88Optimistic: NPV = -$1,500,000+(){}130,0000.27$125$68$750,0000.60$300,0000.401.13tt 15⨯--⨯+⨯=∑= $1,561,468.43The expected present value of the new tennis racket is $428,357.21. (Assuming there are equal chances of the 3 scenarios occurring.)8.12 NPV = (){}-+⨯--⨯+⨯=∑1,500,000130,0000.22$120$70$800,0000.60$300,0000.401.13tt 15= $251,581.17The 3% drop in market share hurt significantly more than the 10,000 increase in market size helped. However, if the drop were only 2%, the effects would be about even. Market size is going up by over 8%, thus it seems market share is more important than market size.8.13 a. NPV = -$10,000,000 + ( $750, 000 ⨯10A) = -$5,391,574.6710.b.Revised NPV = -$10,000,000 + $750,000 / 1.10 + [(.5 ⨯ $1,500,000 ⨯9A).10+ (.5 ⨯ $200,000 )] / 1.10= -$5,300,665.58Option value of abandonment = -$5,300,665.58 – ( -$5,391,574.67 )= $90,909.098.14 a. NPV = -$100M + ( $100 ⨯ 2M ⨯10A) = $738.49Million.20b.$50M = C9A20.C = $12.40 Million (or 1.24 Million units )。
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1. 当到期收益率（YTM ）等于如下值时，到期日将支付1000美元的10年期零息债券的价
格是多少？
a ）5%
b ）10%
c ）15%
这里有两个需要注意的点：1）零息债券——不支付任何利息的债券，它只在债券到期日支付本经所以的这种债券的重要特征是其售价远低于其票面价值；2）债券的复习周期的问题一般的美国债券都是每半年计息一次这一点可能书上会写也可能不会写，没有写的时候就当成默认属性，具体计算如下：
这里再啰嗦依据关于
APR 名义年利率与实际年利率的关系：由APR->每个计息周期的实际利率->由实际周期利率在复利的条件下又可以推出实际年利率，在本章中由于不存在复利的条件，那么APR=实际年利率，但是每个周期的利率=APR/周期数，而且折现利率的就是按照每个周期的利率来进行计算，这里的现金流发生的不是在年末，故折现率不能简单的采用的年折现率，应该将其除以2
2. Microhard 发行了一份具有如下特征的债券：
面值：1000；期限（到期日）：25；利息率（息票利率）：7%；支付周期：半年
到期收益率（yield to maturity ）
a ）7%
b ）9%
c ）5%
3.Watters雨伞集团公司2年前发型了12年期的债券，票面利率为7.8%，该债券每半年支
付一次利息。
如果债券当前售价面值为105%，那么到期收益收益率（YTM）会是多少？
答：这道题就没有什么好说的了就是考察一个逼近法和一个2年前，因为售价是面值的105%所以他的期望收益率会低于票面利率，剩下的就只能通过试错来确定了（但也可以
千万要注意一般会先算出来3.45%这个数但是这个是一个计息周期的折现率，要将他转换成一年的折现率，由于这里不会存在复利的情况故这里的年折现率只需将半年计的折现率乘以2即可
4.公司发行在外的债券期限为13.5年，到期收益率为7.6%，当前价格为1175美元，该债
券每半年支付一次利息问该债券的当前价格是多少？
这道题漏了一个条件那就是该债券的票面价值是1000，需要记住的是债券的票面值一般
5.公司发行了一份面值为1000欧元的债券，期限为15年，票面利率为8.4%，每年支付一
6.
真实利率=（1+名义利率）/（1+通货膨胀率）-1
8.根据公式：名义利率=（1+实际利率）*（1+通货膨胀率）-1
故本题的答案=7.32%
9.略：同样是根据真实利率=（1+名义利率）/（1+通货膨胀率）-1来做
10.略
11.这个要求了解国债报价表的组成其实就是考英语单词
coupon：利息
bid：购入价格
asked：卖出价格
chg:卖出价的变动情况
asded yield：到期收益率
购买价格是面值的1000（119+19/32）%
其一天的卖出价格是面值的1000（120+6/32）%，美国债券市场上的债券面值一般为1000
12.这道题出现了一个新名词叫做当前收益率，对它的解释是：利息/卖出价格，注意不要
和息票利率混淆了，默认面值=1000
13.
这道题需要的注意的是在一道题中使用的折现率与折现周期要统一，不能前半部分是按照年
14.这道题有一个隐含条件：在题目中没有明确指出债券价格的时候就将它默认为是1000
美元，这里只给出敏感性分析的计算结果：
由图可知期限较长的债券对利率风险较为敏感，原因是期限较长的债券的面值的现值较低，相较于期限较短的债券的它的利息年金的现值在价格所占的比重增加
说实话从这幅图还真的不好判别到底谁的更加敏感，从斜率来看甚至我觉得高票面利率的债券甚至反应要稍微强一点，到底是不是这样呢？我们来看一下变化的百分比（当到期收益率改变时的价格变化/没有变化前的百分比
较少，它的价格中的一大部分的比重来自与面值的现值，如果到期收益率变换那么对它将造成比较大的影响
16.说实话这道题让我有点迷糊了，这里的到期收益率YTM和当前收益率都出现过了，但是
这里居然冒出来一个实际收益率EAR也就是计算复利复息的那种，债券真的还会支付利息的利息吗？？这点我有很大的疑问，不过答案是这么写的，知道的同学可以的话发个
17.这道题参考了英文原版答案，发现题中漏了一个条件那就是票面利率=10%，这道题没有
什么特点就是考察当以面值出售时，票面利率=期望收益率所以读者自作吧，只是简单的计算题
18.这道题也是，首先发票价上的1090包含了四个月的利息，所以半年利息的2/3即可，
具体计算留作读者自作
19.同18题
20.结果如下图所示
21.这道题值得注意的是它的最新报价应为871.55美元，还有就是再一次提醒所有的率都是
22.根据题目创建了excel电子表格模型，发现当到期收益率=票面利率时，无论期限为多少
债券价格都等于票面价值，这可以单过一个定理来进行记忆，也可以通过公示推导得到，具体数学公式推导，读者自作
23.本题有一个公式需要了解：资本利得=卖出价格-买入价格，不要考虑折现问题
英文原版答案：
24.题目比较简单，就是注意一下它的哪一个持有期收益率就是在你持有过程之中所实际得
25.这道题比较简单，就是计算量大，注意求完终值再来求现值即可
26.这是一道比较好的题，它让我们分清以前的实际年利率和实际利率的差别，虽然只是差
了一个字，但是在这道题中却很明显的体现了出来，显示名义年利率（与计息周期有关）->名义利率（与通货膨胀率有关）->除去通货膨胀的名义年利率->周利率，在来使用年金现值计算公式，这里体现了一个重要的思想那就是以年金发生时间间隔来算年金现值
27.这是一道非常好的题，具体的思路与26题相似，都是通过实际年利率->出去通货膨胀的
实际年利率->除去通货膨胀的名义年利率->除去通货膨胀的名义月利率这里为什么要求出除去通货膨胀的月利率，因为现金流量的发生时间不是在年末，而是在每个月，而这一题的最后一问确是一道更好的题，它求最后一年的名义现金流量，也就是考虑通货膨胀的情况，但我们从一开始计算这道题时就去除了通货膨胀，所以通货膨胀年应该是30+25年，而且因为只是求一个时间点的现金流量，而且不存在求和的情况，故用年度通货膨胀率。