公司理财学原理第12章习题答案学习资料
公司理财教材习题答案
公司理财教材习题答案目录第一章现代公司制度 (1)第二章财务报表分析 (3)第三章价值衡量 (4)第四章风险衡量 (8)第五章公司资本成本 (12)第六章净现值法 (15)第七章资本预算法则 (16)第八章企业的长期融资渠道 (18)第九章资本市场有效性理论及其实证分析 (20)第十章资本结构 (22)第十一章决定债务水平的因素 (25)第十二章股利的基本知识 (27)第十三章决定股利政策的因素 (28)第十四章长期财务计划 (30)第十五章短期财务计划 (31)第十六章兼并收购的理论 (32)第十七章兼并收购的实践 (34)第一章现代公司制度【思考与练习】一、名词解释合伙制企业：合伙企业是依法设立，由各合伙人订立合伙协议，共同出资，合伙经营，共享收益，共担风险，并对合伙企业债务承担无限连带责任的营利组织。
公司制企业：公司是依据一国公司法组建的、具有法人地位的、以盈利为目的的企业组织形式。
股份有限公司：股份有限公司是依法设立，其全部股本分为等额股份，股东以其所持股份为限对公司承担责任，公司以其全部资产对公司的债务承担责任的企业法人。
委托—代理理论：代理理论主要涉及企业资源的提供者与资源的使用者之间的契约关系。
公司治理：是指所有者，主要是股东对经营者的一种监督与制衡机制。
即通过一种制度安排，来合理地配置所有者与经营者之间的权利与责任关系。
二、问答题1.从法律角度，公司分为哪几类？各有什么特征？(一)个人所有制企业这种企业即指一个人拥有并独立经营的企业，是最早、最简单的企业形式。
其优点是成本很低、一般只需交纳个人所得税。
但其缺点也很突出，如规模较小、难以进行大规模的投资活动，企业主对企业债务负有无限责任，在企业破产时，业主要用个人资产偿还债务等。
(二)合伙制企业是由两个以上出资和联合经营的企业。
合伙人按出资额共享利益，共担风险。
优点：创建容易，成本较低。
缺点：与个体企业类似，筹资难，无限债务，有限寿命，难转移所有权。
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter01_TB
Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance1) Which one of the following functions should be the responsibility of the controller rather than the treasurer?A) Depositing cash receiptsB) Processing cost reportsC) Analyzing equipment purchasesD) Approving credit for a customerE) Paying a vendor2) The treasurer of a corporation generally reports directly to the:A) board of directors.B) chairman of the board.C) chief executive officer.D) president.E) vice president of finance.3) Which one of the following correctly defines the upward chain of command in a typical corporate organizational structure?A) The vice president of finance reports to the chairman of the board.B) The chief executive officer reports to the president.C) The controller reports to the chief financial officer.D) The treasurer reports to the president.E) The chief operations officer reports to the vice president of production.4) An example of a capital budgeting decision is deciding:A) how many shares of stock to issue.B) whether or not to purchase a new machine for the production line.C) how to refinance a debt issue that is maturing.D) how much inventory to keep on hand.E) how much money should be kept in the checking account.5) When evaluating the timing of a project's projected cash flows, a financial manager is analyzing:A) the amount of each expected cash flow.B) only the start-up costs that are expected to require cash resources.C) only the date of the final cash flow related to the project.D) the amount by which cash receipts are expected to exceed cash outflows.E) when each cash flow is expected to occur.6) Capital structure decisions include determining:A) which one of two projects to accept.B) how to allocate investment funds to multiple projects.C) the amount of funds needed to finance customer purchases of a new product.D) how much debt should be assumed to fund a project.E) how much inventory will be needed to support a project.7) The decision to issue additional shares of stock is an example of:A) working capital management.B) a net working capital decision.C) capital budgeting.D) a controller's duties.E) a capital structure decision.8) Which one of the following questions is a working capital management decision?A) Should the company issue new shares of stock or borrow money?B) Should the company update or replace its older equipment?C) How much inventory should be on hand for immediate sale?D) Should the company close one of its current stores?E) How much should the company borrow to buy a new building?9) Which one of the following is a working capital management decision?A) What type(s) of equipment is (are) needed to complete a current project?B) Should the firm pay cash for a purchase or use the credit offered by the supplier?C) What amount of long-term debt is required to complete a project?D) How many shares of stock should the firm issue to fund an acquisition?E) Should a project should be accepted?10) Working capital management decisions include determining:A) the minimum level of cash to be kept in a checking account.B) the best method of producing a product.C) the number of employees needed to work during a particular shift.D) when to replace obsolete equipment.E) if a competitor should be acquired.11) Which one of the following terms is defined as the management of a firm's long-term investments?A) Working capital managementB) Financial allocationC) Agency cost analysisD) Capital budgetingE) Capital structure12) Which one of the following terms is defined as the mixture of a firm's debt and equity financing?A) Working capital managementB) Cash managementC) Cost analysisD) Capital budgetingE) Capital structure13) A firm's short-term assets and its short-term liabilities are referred to as the firm's:A) working capital.B) debt.C) investment capital.D) net capital.E) capital structure.14) Which one of the following questions is least likely to be addressed by financial managers?A) How should a product be marketed?B) Should customers be given 30 or 45 days to pay for their credit purchases?C) Should the firm borrow more money?D) Should the firm acquire new equipment?E) How much cash should the firm keep on hand?15) A business owned by a solitary individual who has unlimited liability for the firm's debt is called a:A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) limited liability company.16) A business formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for all of the firm's business debts is called a:A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) limited liability company.17) A business partner whose potential financial loss in the partnership will not exceed his or her investment in that partnership is called a:A) general partner.B) sole proprietor.C) limited partner.D) corporate shareholder.E) zero partner.18) A business created as a distinct legal entity and treated as a legal "person" is called a(n):A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) unlimited liability company.19) Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A) A sole proprietorship is designed to protect the personal assets of the owner.B) The profits of a sole proprietorship are subject to double taxation.C) The owner of a sole proprietorship is personally responsible for all of the company's debts.D) There are very few sole proprietorships remaining in the U.S. today.E) A sole proprietorship is structured the same as a limited liability company.20) Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A) The life of a sole proprietorship is limited.B) A sole proprietor can generally raise large sums of capital quite easily.C) Transferring ownership of a sole proprietorship is easier than transferring ownership of a corporation.D) A sole proprietorship is taxed the same as a C corporation.E) A sole proprietorship is the most regulated form of organization.21) Which of the following individuals have unlimited liability for a firm's debts based on their ownership interest?A) Only general partnersB) Only sole proprietorsC) All stockholdersD) Both limited and general partnersE) Both general partners and sole proprietors22) The primary advantage of being a limited partner is:A) the receipt of tax-free income.B) the partner's active participation in the firm's activities.C) the lack of any potential financial loss.D) the daily control over the business affairs of the partnership.E) the partner's maximum loss is limited to their capital investment.23) A general partner:A) is personally responsible for all partnership debts.B) has no say over a firm's daily operations.C) faces double taxation whereas a limited partner does not.D) has a maximum loss equal to his or her equity investment.E) receives a salary in lieu of a portion of the profits.24) A limited partnership:A) has an unlimited life.B) can opt to be taxed as a corporation.C) terminates at the death of any one limited partner.D) has at least one partner who has unlimited liability for all of the partnership's debts.E) consists solely of limited partners.25) A partnership with four general partners:A) distributes profits based on percentage of ownership.B) has an unlimited partnership life.C) limits the active involvement in the firm to a single partner.D) limits each partner's personal liability to 25 percent of the partnership's total debt.E) must distribute 25 percent of the profits to each partner.26) One disadvantage of the corporate form of business ownership is the:A) limited liability of its shareholders for the firm's debts.B) double taxation of distributed profits.C) firm's greater ability to raise capital than other forms of ownership.D) firm's potential for an unlimited life.E) firm's ability to issue additional shares of stock.27) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) The majority of firms in the U.S. are structured as corporations.B) Corporate profits are taxable income to the shareholders when earned.C) Corporations can have an unlimited life.D) Shareholders are protected from all potential losses.E) Shareholders directly elect the corporate president.28) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) A general partnership is legally the same as a corporation.B) Income from both sole proprietorships and partnerships that is taxable is treated as individual income.C) Partnerships are the most complicated type of business to form.D) All business organizations have bylaws.E) Only firms organized as sole proprietorships have limited lives.29) The articles of incorporation:A) describe the purpose of the firm and set forth the number of shares of stock that can be issued.B) are amended periodically especially prior to corporate elections.C) explain how corporate directors are to be elected and the length of their terms.D) sets forth the procedures by which a firm regulates itself.E) include only the corporation's name and intended life.30) Corporate bylaws:A) must be amended should a firm decide to increase the number of shares authorized.B) cannot be amended once adopted.C) define the name by which the firm will operate.D) describe the intended life and purpose of the organization.E) determine how a corporation regulates itself.31) A limited liability company:A) can only have a single owner.B) is comprised of limited partners only.C) is taxed similar to a partnership.D) is taxed similar to a C corporation.E) generates totally tax-free income.32) Which business form is best suited to raising large amounts of capital?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Limited liability companyC) CorporationD) General partnershipE) Limited partnership33) A ________ has all the respective rights and privileges of a legal person.A) sole proprietorshipB) general partnershipC) limited partnershipD) corporationE) limited liability company34) Sam, Alfredo, and Juan want to start a small U.S. business. Juan will fund the venture but wants to limit his liability to his initial investment and has no interest in the daily operations. Sam will contribute his full efforts on a daily basis but has limited funds to invest in the business. Alfredo will be involved as an active consultant and manager and will also contribute funds. Sam and Alfredo are willing to accept liability for the firm's debts as they feel they have nothing to lose by doing so. All three individuals will share in the firm's profits and wish to keep the initial organizational costs of the business to a minimum. Which form of business entity should these individuals adopt?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Joint stock companyC) Limited partnershipD) General partnershipE) Corporation35) Sally and Alicia are equal general partners in a business. They are content with their current management and tax situation but are uncomfortable with their unlimited liability. Which form of business entity should they consider as a replacement to their current arrangement assuming they wish to remain the only two owners of the business?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Joint stock companyC) Limited partnershipD) Limited liability companyE) Corporation36) The growth of both sole proprietorships and partnerships is frequently limited by the firm's:A) double taxation.B) bylaws.C) inability to raise cash.D) limited liability.E) agency problems.37) Corporate dividends are:A) tax-free because the income is taxed at the personal level when earned by the firm.B) tax-free because they are distributions of aftertax income.C) tax-free since the corporation pays tax on that income when it is earned.D) taxed at both the corporate and the personal level when the dividends are paid to shareholders.E) taxable income of the recipient even though that income was previously taxed.38) Financial managers should primarily focus on the interests of:A) stakeholders.B) the vice president of finance.C) their immediate supervisor.D) shareholders.E) the board of directors.39) Which one of the following best states the primary goal of financial management?A) Maximize current dividends per shareB) Maximize the current value per shareC) Increase cash flow and avoid financial distressD) Minimize operational costs while maximizing firm efficiencyE) Maintain steady growth while increasing current profits40) Which one of the following best illustrates that the management of a firm is adhering to the goal of financial management?A) An increase in the amount of the quarterly dividendB) A decrease in the per unit production costsC) An increase in the number of shares outstandingD) A decrease in the net working capitalE) An increase in the market value per share41) Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existingstock to:A) guarantee the company will grow in size at the maximum possible rate.B) increase employee salaries.C) best represent the interests of the current shareholders.D) increase the current dividends per share.E) provide managers with shares of stock as part of their compensation.42) Decisions made by financial managers should primarily focus on increasing the:A) size of the firm.B) growth rate of the firm.C) gross profit per unit produced.D) market value per share of outstanding stock.E) total sales.43) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is a governmental response to:A) decreasing corporate profits.B) the terrorist attacks on 9/11/2001.C) a weakening economy.D) deregulation of the stock exchanges.E) management greed and abuses.44) Which one of the following is an unintended result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?A) More detailed and accurate financial reportingB) Increased management awareness of internal controlsC) Corporations delisting from major exchangesD) Increased responsibility for corporate officersE) Identification of internal control weaknesses45) A firm which opts to "go dark" in response to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act:A) must continue to provide audited financial statements to the public.B) must continue to provide a detailed list of internal control deficiencies on an annual basis.C) can provide less information to its shareholders than it did prior to "going dark".D) can continue publicly trading its stock but only on the exchange on which it was previously listed.E) ceases to exist.46) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 holds a public company's ________ responsible for the accuracy of the company's financial statements.A) managersB) internal auditorsC) external legal counselD) internal legal counselE) Securities and Exchange Commission agent47) Which one of the following actions by a financial manager is most apt to create an agency problem?A) Refusing to borrow money when doing so will create losses for the firmB) Refusing to lower selling prices if doing so will reduce the net profitsC) Refusing to expand the company if doing so will lower the value of the equityD) Agreeing to pay bonuses based on the market value of the company's stock rather than on its level of salesE) Increasing current profits when doing so lowers the value of the company's equity48) Which one of the following is least apt to help convince managers to work in the best interest of the stockholders? Assume there are no golden parachutes.A) Compensation based on the value of the stockB) Stock option plansC) Threat of a company takeoverD) Threat of a proxy fightE) Increasing managers' base salaries49) Agency problems are most associated with:A) sole proprietorships.B) general partnerships.C) limited partnerships.D) corporations.E) limited liability companies.50) Which one of the following is an agency cost?A) Accepting an investment opportunity that will add value to the firmB) Increasing the quarterly dividendC) Investing in a new project that creates firm valueD) Hiring outside accountants to audit the company's financial statementsE) Closing a division of the firm that is operating at a loss51) Which one of the following is a means by which shareholders can replace company management?A) Stock optionsB) PromotionC) Sarbanes-Oxley ActD) Agency playE) Proxy fight52) Which one of the following grants an individual the right to vote on behalf of a shareholder?A) ProxyB) By-lawsC) Indenture agreementD) Stock optionE) Stock audit53) Which one of the following parties has ultimate control of a corporation?A) Chairman of the boardB) Board of directorsC) Chief executive officerD) Chief operating officerE) Shareholders54) Which of the following parties are considered stakeholders of a firm?A) Employees and the governmentB) Long-term creditorsC) Government and common stockholdersD) Common stockholdersE) Long-term creditors and common stockholders55) Which one of the following represents a cash outflow from a corporation?A) Issuance of new securitiesB) Payment of dividendsC) New loan proceedsD) Receipt of tax refundE) Initial sale of common stock56) Which one of the following is a cash flow from a corporation into the financial markets?A) Borrowing of long-term debtB) Payment of government taxesC) Payment of loan interestD) Issuance of corporate debtE) Sale of common stock57) Which one of the following is a primary market transaction?A) Sale of currently outstanding stock by a dealer to an individual investorB) Sale of a new share of stock to an individual investorC) Stock ownership transfer from one shareholder to another shareholderD) Gift of stock from one shareholder to another shareholderE) Gift of stock by a shareholder to a family member58) Shareholder A sold 500 shares of ABC stock on the New York Stock Exchange. This transaction:A) took place in the primary market.B) occurred in a dealer market.C) was facilitated in the secondary market.D) involved a proxy.E) was a private placement.59) Public offerings of debt and equity must be registered with the:A) New York Board of Governors.B) Federal Reserve.C) NYSE Registration Office.D) Securities and Exchange Commission.E) Market Dealers Exchange.60) Which one of the following statements is generally correct?A) Private placements must be registered with the SEC.B) All secondary markets are auction markets.C) Dealer markets have a physical trading floor.D) Auction markets match buy and sell orders.E) Dealers arrange trades but never own the securities traded.61) Which one of the following statements concerning stock exchanges is correct?A) NASDAQ is a broker market.B) The NYSE is a dealer market.C) The exchange with the strictest listing requirements is NASDAQ.D) Some large companies are listed on NASDAQ.E) Most debt securities are traded on the NYSE.62) Shareholder A sold shares of Maplewood Cabinets stock to Shareholder B. The stock is listed on the NYSE. This trade occurred in which one of the following?A) Primary, dealer marketB) Secondary, dealer marketC) Primary, auction marketD) Secondary, auction marketE) Secondary, OTC market63) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the NYSE?A) The publicly traded shares of a NYSE-listed firm must be worth at least $250 million.B) The NYSE is the largest dealer market for listed securities in the United States.C) The listing requirements for the NYSE are more stringent than those of NASDAQ.D) Any corporation desiring to be listed on the NYSE can do so for a fee.E) The NYSE is an OTC market functioning as both a primary and a secondary market.11。
罗斯《公司理财》(第11版)章节题库(第12章 看待风险与收益的另一种观点：套利定价理论)【圣才出品
第12章看待风险与收益的另一种观点：套利定价理论一、选择题下列哪个不是CAPM 的假设？（）A．投资者风险厌恶，且其投资行为是使其终期财富的期望效用最大B．投资者是价格承受者，即投资者的投资行为不会影响市场上资产的价格运动C．资产收益率满足多因子模型D．资本市场上存在无风险资产，且投资者可以无风险利率无限借贷【答案】C【解析】套利定价理论（APT）假设资产收益率满足多因子模型。
套利定价模型的优点之一是它能够处理多个因素，而资本资产定价模型就忽略了这一点。
根据套利定价的多因素模型，收益与风险的关系可以表示为：()()()()123123K F F F F F KR R R R βR R βR R βR R β=+-+-+-++- 式中，β1代表关于第一个因素的贝塔系数，β2代表关于第二个因素的贝塔系数，依此类推。
二、简答题1．请解释什么是证券组合的系统性风险和非系统性风险，并图示证券组合包含证券的数量与证券组合系统性风险和非系统性风险间的关系。
答：（1）系统风险亦称“不可分散风险”或“市场风险”，与非系统风险相对，指由于某些因素给市场上所有的证券都带来经济损失的可能性，如经济衰退、通货膨胀和需求变化给投资带来的风险。
这种风险影响到所有证券，不可能通过证券组合分散掉。
即使投资者持有的是收益水平及变动情况相当分散的证券组合，也将遭受这种风险。
对于投资者来说，这种风险是无法消除的。
系统风险的大小取决于两个方面，一是每一资产的总风险的大小，二是这一资产的收益变化与资产组合中其他资产收益变化的相关关系（由相关系数描述）。
在总风险一定的前提下，一项资产与市场资产组合收益变化的相关关系越强，系统风险越大，相关关系越弱，系统风险越小。
非系统风险，亦称“可分散风险”或“特别风险”，是指那些通过资产组合就可以消除掉的风险，是公司特有风险，例如某些因素对个别证券造成经济损失的可能性。
这种风险可通过证券持有的多样化来抵消，因此，非系统风险是通过多样化投资可被分散的风险。
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter03_TB
Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 3 Working with Financial Statements1) Which one of the following is a source of cash for a tax-exempt firm?A) Increase in accounts receivableB) Increase in depreciationC) Decrease in accounts payableD) Increase in common stockE) Increase in inventory2) Which one of the following is a use of cash?A) Decrease in fixed assetsB) Decrease in inventoryC) Increase in long-term debtD) Decrease in accounts receivablesE) Decrease in accounts payable3) Which one of the following is a source of cash?A) Repurchase of common stockB) Acquisition of debtC) Purchase of inventoryD) Payment to a supplierE) Granting credit to a customer4) Which one of the following is a source of cash?A) Increase in accounts receivableB) Decrease in common stockC) Increase in fixed assetsD) Decrease in accounts payableE) Decrease in inventory5) On the statement of cash flows, which one of the following is considered a financing activity?A) Increase in inventoryB) Decrease in accounts payableC) Increase in net working capitalD) Dividends paidE) Decrease in fixed assets6) On the statement of cash flows, which one of the following is considered an operating activity?A) Increase in net fixed assetsB) Decrease in accounts payableC) Purchase of equipmentD) Dividends paidE) Repayment of long-term debt7) According to the statement of cash flows, an increase in inventory will ________ the cash flow from ________ activities.A) increase; operatingB) decrease; financingC) decrease; operatingD) increase; financingE) increase; investment8) According to the statement of cash flows, an increase in interest expense will ________ the cash flow from ________ activities.A) decrease; operatingB) decrease; financingC) increase; operatingD) increase; financingE) Increase; investment9) Activities of a firm that require the spending of cash are known as:A) sources of cash.B) uses of cash.C) cash collections.D) cash receipts.E) cash on hand.10) The sources and uses of cash over a stated period of time are reflected on the:A) income statement.B) balance sheet.C) tax reconciliation statement.D) statement of cash flows.E) statement of operating position.11) A common-size income statement is an accounting statement that expresses all of a firm's expenses as a percentage of:A) total assets.B) total equity.C) net income.D) taxable income.E) sales.12) Which one of the following standardizes items on the income statement and balance sheet relative to their values as of a chosen point in time?A) Statement of standardizationB) Statement of cash flowsC) Common-base year statementD) Common-size statementE) Base reconciliation statement13) On a common-size balance sheet all accounts for the current year are expressed as a percentage of:A) sales for the period.B) the base year sales.C) total equity for the base year.D) total assets for the current year.E) total assets for the base year.14) On a common-base year financial statement, accounts receivables for the current year will be expressed relative to which one of the following?A) Current year salesB) Current year total assetsC) Base-year salesD) Base-year total assetsE) Base-year accounts receivables15) Which one of the following ratios is a measure of a firm's liquidity?A) Cash coverage ratioB) Profit marginC) Debt-equity ratioD) Quick ratioE) NWC turnover16) An increase in current liabilities will have which one of the following effects, all else held constant? Assume all ratios have positive values.A) Increase in the cash ratioB) Increase in the net working capital to total assets ratioC) Decrease in the quick ratioD) Decrease in the cash coverage ratioE) Increase in the current ratio17) An increase in which one of the following will increase a firm's quick ratio without affecting its cash ratio?A) Accounts payableB) CashC) InventoryD) Accounts receivableE) Fixed assets18) A supplier, who requires payment within 10 days, should be most concerned with which one of the following ratios when granting credit?A) CurrentB) CashC) Debt-equityD) QuickE) Total debt19) A firm has an interval measure of 48. This means that the firm has sufficient liquid assets to do which one of the following?A) Pay all of its debts that are due within the next 48 hoursB) Pay all of its debts that are due within the next 48 daysC) Cover its operating costs for the next 48 hoursD) Cover its operating costs for the next 48 daysE) Meet the demands of its customers for the next 48 hours20) Ratios that measure a firm's liquidity are known as ________ ratios.A) asset managementB) long-term solvencyC) short-term solvencyD) profitabilityE) book value21) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) If the total debt ratio is greater than .50, then the debt-equity ratio must be less than 1.0.B) Long-term creditors would prefer the times interest earned ratio be 1.4 rather than 1.5.C) The debt-equity ratio can be computed as 1 plus the equity multiplier.D) An equity multiplier of 1.2 means a firm has $1.20 in sales for every $1 in equity.E) An increase in the depreciation expense will not affect the cash coverage ratio.22) If a firm has a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, then its total debt ratio must be which one of the following?A) 0B) .5C) 1.0D) 1.5E) 2.023) The cash coverage ratio directly measures the ability of a company to meet its obligation to pay:A) an invoice to a supplier.B) wages to an employee.C) interest to a lender.D) principal to a lender.E) a dividend to a shareholder.24) All-State Moving had sales of $899,000 in 2017 and $967,000 in 2018. The firm's current accounts remained constant. Given this information, which one of the following statements must be true?A) The total asset turnover rate increased.B) The days' sales in receivables increased.C) The net working capital turnover rate increased.D) The fixed asset turnover decreased.E) The receivables turnover rate decreased.25) The Corner Hardware has succeeded in increasing the amount of goods it sells while holding the amount of inventory on hand at a constant level. Assume that both the cost per unit and the selling price per unit also remained constant. This accomplishment will be reflected in the firm's financial ratios in which one of the following ways?A) Decrease in the inventory turnover rateB) Decrease in the net working capital turnover rateC) Increase in the fixed asset turnover rateD) Decrease in the day's sales in inventoryE) Decrease in the total asset turnover rate26) RJ's has a fixed asset turnover rate of 1.26 and a total asset turnover rate of .97. Sam's has a fixed asset turnover rate of 1.31 and a total asset turnover rate of .94. Both companies have similar operations. Based on this information, RJ's must be doing which one of the following?A) Utilizing its fixed assets more efficiently than Sam'sB) Utilizing its total assets more efficiently than Sam'sC) Generating $1 in sales for every $1.26 in net fixed assetsD) Generating $1.26 in net income for every $1 in net fixed assetsE) Maintaining the same level of current assets as Sam's27) Ratios that measure how efficiently a firm manages its assets and operations to generate net income are referred to as ________ ratios.A) asset managementB) long-term solvencyC) short-term solvencyD) profitabilityE) turnover28) If a company produces a return on assets of 14 percent and also a return on equity of 14 percent, then the firm:A) may have short-term, but not long-term debt.B) is using its assets as efficiently as possible.C) has no net working capital.D) has a debt-equity ratio of 1.0.E) has an equity multiplier of 1.0.29) Which one of the following will decrease if a firm can decrease its operating costs, all else constant?A) Return on equityB) Return on assetsC) Profit marginD) Total asset turnoverE) Price-earnings ratio30) Al's has a price-earnings ratio of 18.5. Ben's also has a price-earnings ratio of 18.5. Which one of the following statements must be true if Al's has a higher PEG ratio than Ben's?A) Al's has more net income than Ben's.B) Ben's is increasing its earnings at a faster rate than Al's.C) Al's has a higher market value per share than does Ben's.D) Ben's has a lower market-to-book ratio than Al's.E) Al's has a higher earnings growth rate than Ben's.31) Tobin's Q relates the market value of a firm's assets to which one of the following?A) Initial cost of creating the firmB) Current book value of the firmC) Average asset value of similar firmsD) Average market value of similar firmsE) Today's cost to duplicate those assets32) The price-sales ratio is especially useful when analyzing firms that have:A) volatile market prices.B) negative earnings.C) positive PEG ratios.D) a high Tobin's Q.E) increasing sales.33) Mortgage lenders probably have the most interest in the ________ ratios.A) return on assets and profit marginB) long-term debt and times interest earnedC) price-earnings and debt-equityD) market-to-book and times interest earnedE) return on equity and price-earnings34) Relationships determined from a company's financial information and used for comparison purposes are known as:A) financial ratios.B) identities.C) dimensional analysis.D) scenario analysis.E) solvency analysis.35) DL Farms currently has $600 in debt for every $1,000 in equity. Assume the company uses some of its cash to decrease its debt while maintaining its current equity and net income. Which one of the following will decrease as a result of this action?A) Equity multiplierB) Total asset turnoverC) Profit marginD) Return on assetsE) Return on equity36) Which one of these identifies the relationship between the return on assets and the return on equity?A) Profit marginB) Profitability determinantC) Balance sheet multiplierD) DuPont identityE) Debt-equity ratio37) Which one of the following accurately describes the three parts of the DuPont identity?A) Equity multiplier, profit margin, and total asset turnoverB) Debt-equity ratio, capital intensity ratio, and profit marginC) Operating efficiency, equity multiplier, and profitability ratioD) Return on assets, profit margin, and equity multiplierE) Financial leverage, operating efficiency, and profitability ratio38) An increase in which of the following must increase the return on equity, all else constant?A) Total assets and salesB) Net income and total equityC) Total asset turnover and debt-equity ratioD) Equity multiplier and total equityE) Debt-equity ratio and total debt39) Which one of the following is a correct formula for computing the return on equity?A) Profit margin × ROAB) ROA × Equity multiplierC) Profit margin × Total asset turnover × Debt-equity ratioD) Net income/Total assetsE) Debt-equity ratio × ROA40) The DuPont identity can be used to help managers answer which of the following questions related to a company's operations?I. How many sales dollars are being generated per each dollar of assets?II. How many dollars of assets have been acquired per each dollar in shareholders' equity? III. How much net profit is being generating per dollar of sales?IV. Does the company have the ability to meet its debt obligations in a timely manner?A) I and III onlyB) II and IV onlyC) I, II, and III onlyD) II, III and IV onlyE) I, II, III, and IV41) The U.S. government coding system that classifies a company by the nature of its business operations is known as the:A) Centralized Business Index.B) Peer Grouping codes.C) Standard Industrial Classification codes.D) Governmental ID codes.E) Government Engineered Coding System.42) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) Book values should always be given precedence over market values.B) Financial statements are rarely used as the basis for performance evaluations.C) Historical information is useful when projecting a company's future performance.D) Potential lenders place little value on financial statement information.E) Reviewing financial information over time has very limited value.43) The most acceptable method of evaluating the financial statements is to compare the company's current financial:A) ratios to the company's historical ratios.B) statements to the financial statements of similar companies operating in other countries.C) ratios to the average ratios of all companies located within the same geographic area.D) statements to those of larger companies in unrelated industries.E) statements to the projections that were created based on Tobin's Q.44) All of the following issues represent problems encountered when comparing the financial statements of two separate entities except the issue of the companies:A) being conglomerates with unrelated lines of business.B) having geographically varying operations.C) using differing accounting methods.D) differing seasonal peaks.E) having the same fiscal year.45) Which one of these is the least important factor to consider when comparing the financial situations of utility companies that generate electric power and have the same SIC code?A) Type of ownershipB) Government regulations affecting the firmC) Fiscal year endD) Methods of power generationE) Number of part-time employees46) At the beginning of the year, Brick Makers had cash of $183, accounts receivable of $392, accounts payable of $463, and inventory of $714. At year end, cash was $167, accounts payables was $447, inventory was $682, and accounts receivable was $409. What is the amount of the net source or use of cash by working capital accounts for the year?A) Net use of $16 cashB) Net use of $17 cashC) Net source of $17 cashD) Net source of $15 cashE) Net use of $15 cash47) During the year, Al's Tools decreased its accounts receivable by $160, increased its inventory by $115, and decreased its accounts payable by $70. How did these three accounts affect the sources of uses of cash by the firm?A) Net source of cash of $120B) Net source of cash of $205C) Net source of cash of $45D) Net use of cash of $115E) Net use of cash of $2548) Lani's generated net income of $911, depreciation expense was $47, and dividends paid were $25. Accounts payables increased by $15, accounts receivables increased by $28, inventory decreased by $14, and net fixed assets decreased by $8. There was no interest expense. What was the net cash flow from operating activity?A) $776B) $865C) $959D) $922E) $98549) For the past year, Jenn's Floral Arrangements had taxable income of $198,600, beginning common stock of $68,000, beginning retained earnings of $318,750, ending common stock of $71,500, ending retained earnings of $316,940, interest expense of $11,300, and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the amount of dividends paid during the year?A) $157,280B) $159,935C) $163,200D) $153,555E) $158,70450) The Floor Store had interest expense of $38,400, depreciation of $28,100, and taxes of $19,600 for the year. At the start of the year, the firm had total assets of $879,400 and current assets of $289,600. By year's end total assets had increased to $911,900 while current assets decreased to $279,300. What is the amount of the cash flow from investment activity for the year?A) −$51,150B) $21,850C) $29,300D) −$70,900E) −$89,40051) Williamsburg Market is an all-equity firm that has net income of $96,200, depreciation expense of $6,300, and an increase in net working capital of $2,800. What is the amount of the net cash from operating activity?A) $91,300B) $99,700C) $93,400D) $105,300E) $113,70052) The accounts payable of a company changed from $136,100 to $104,300 over the course of a year. This change represents a:A) use of $31,800 of cash as investment activity.B) source of $31,800 of cash as an operating activity.C) source of $31,800 of cash as a financing activity.D) source of $31,800 of cash as an investment activity.E) use of $31,800 of cash as an operating activity.53) Oil Creek Auto has sales of $3,340, net income of $274, net fixed assets of $2,600, and current assets of $920. The firm has $430 in inventory. What is the common-size statement value of inventory?A) 12.22 percentB) 44.16 percentC) 16.54 percentD) 13.36 percentE) 46.74 percent54) Pittsburgh Motors has sales of $4,300, net income of $320, total assets of $4,800, and total equity of $2,950. Interest expense is $65. What is the common-size statement value of the interest expense?A) .89 percentB) 1.51 percentC) 1.69 percentD) 2.03 percentE) 1.35 percent55) Last year, which is used as the base year, a firm had cash of $52, accounts receivable of $223, inventory of $509, and net fixed assets of $1,107. This year, the firm has cash of $61,accounts receivable of $204, inventory of $527, and net fixed assets of $1,216. What is this year's common-base-year value of inventory?A) .67B) .91C) .88D) 1.04E) 1.1856) Duke's Garage has cash of $68, accounts receivable of $142, accounts payable of $235, and inventory of $318. What is the value of the quick ratio?A) 2.25B) .53C) .71D) .89E) 1.3557) Uptown Men's Wear has accounts payable of $2,214, inventory of $7,950, cash of $1,263, fixed assets of $8,400, accounts receivable of $3,907, and long-term debt of $4,200. What is the value of the net working capital to total assets ratio?A) .31B) .42C) .47D) .51E) .5658) DJ's has total assets of $310,100 and net fixed assets of $168,500. The average daily operating costs are $2,980. What is the value of the interval measure?A) 31.47 daysB) 47.52 daysC) 56.22 daysD) 68.05 daysE) 104.62 days59) Corner Books has a debt-equity ratio of .57. What is the total debt ratio?A) .36B) .30C) .44D) 2.27E) 2.7560) SS Stores has total debt of $4,910 and a debt-equity ratio of 0.52. What is the value of the total assets?A) $16,128.05B) $7,253.40C) $9,571.95D) $11,034.00E) $14,352.3161) JK Motors has sales of $96,400, costs of $53,800, interest paid of $2,800, and depreciation of $7,100. The tax rate is 21 percent. What is the value of the cash coverage ratio?A) 15.21B) 12.14C) 17.27D) 23.41E) 12.6862) Terry's Pets paid $2,380 in interest and $2,200 in dividends last year. The times interest earned ratio is 2.6 and the depreciation expense is $680. What is the value of the cash coverage ratio?A) 1.42B) 2.72C) 2.94D) 2.89E) 2.4663) The Up-Towner has sales of $913,400, costs of goods sold of $579,300, inventory of $123,900, and accounts receivable of $78,900. How many days, on average, does it take the firm to sell its inventory assuming that all sales are on credit?A) 74.19 daysB) 84.69 daysC) 78.07 daysD) 96.46 daysE) 71.01 days64) Flo's Flowers has accounts receivable of $4,511, inventory of $1,810, sales of $138,609, and cost of goods sold of $64,003. How many days does it take the firm to sell its inventory and collect the payment on the sale assuming that all sales are on credit?A) 11.88 daysB) 22.20 daysC) 16.23 daysD) 14.50 daysE) 18.67 days65) The Harrisburg Store has net working capital of $2,715, net fixed assets of $22,407, sales of $31,350, and current liabilities of $3,908. How many dollars' worth of sales are generated from every $1 in total assets?A) $1.08B) $1.14C) $1.19D) $84E) $9366) TJ's has annual sales of $813,200, total debt of $171,000, total equity of $396,000, and a profit margin of 5.78 percent. What is the return on assets?A) 8.29 percentB) 6.48 percentC) 9.94 percentD) 7.78 percentE) 8.02 percent67) Frank's Used Cars has sales of $807,200, total assets of $768,100, and a profit margin of 6.68 percent. The firm has a total debt ratio of 54 percent. What is the return on equity?A) 13.09 percentB) 12.04 percentC) 11.03 percentD) 8.56 percentE) 15.26 percent68) Bernice's has $823,000 in sales. The profit margin is 4.2 percent and the firm has 7,500 shares of stock outstanding. The market price per share is $16.50. What is the price-earnings ratio?A) 3.58B) 3.98C) 4.32D) 3.51E) 4.2769) Hungry Lunch has net income of $73,402, a price-earnings ratio of 13.7, and earnings per share of $.43. How many shares of stock are outstanding?A) 13,520B) 12,460C) 165,745D) 171,308E) 170,70270) A firm has 160,000 shares of stock outstanding, sales of $1.94 million, net income of $126,400, a price-earnings ratio of 21.3, and a book value per share of $7.92. What is the market-to-book ratio?A) 2.12B) 1.84C) 1.39D) 2.45E) 2.6971) Taylor's Men's Wear has a debt-equity ratio of 48 percent, sales of $829,000, net income of $47,300, and total debt of $206,300. What is the return on equity?A) 19.29 percentB) 11.01 percentC) 15.74 percentD) 18.57 percentE) 14.16 percent72) Nielsen's has inventory of $29,406, accounts receivable of $46,215, net working capital of $4,507, and accounts payable of $48,919. What is the quick ratio?A) 1.55B) .49C) 1.32D) .94E) .9273) The Strong Box has sales of $859,700, cost of goods sold of $648,200, net income of $93,100, and accounts receivable of $102,300. How many days of sales are in receivables?A) 57.60 daysB) 40.32 daysC) 54.53 daysD) 29.41 daysE) 43.43 days74) Corner Books has sales of $687,400, cost of goods sold of $454,200, and a profit margin of 5.5 percent. The balance sheet shows common stock of $324,000 with a par value of $5 a share, and retained earnings of $689,500. What is the price-sales ratio if the market price is $43.20 per share?A) 4.28B) 12.74C) 6.12D) 4.07E) 14.5175) Gem Jewelers has current assets of $687,600, total assets of $1,711,000, net working capital of $223,700, and long-term debt of $450,000. What is the debt-equity ratio?A) .87B) .94C) 1.21D) 1.15E) 1.0676) Russell's has annual sales of $649,200, cost of goods sold of $389,400, interest of $23,650, depreciation of $121,000, and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the cash coverage ratio for the year?A) 8.43B) 10.99C) 11.64D) 5.87E) 18.2277) Lawn Care, Inc., has sales of $367,400, costs of $183,600, depreciation of $48,600, interest of $39,200, and a tax rate of 25 percent. The firm has total assets of $422,100, long-term debt of $102,000, net fixed assets of $264,500, and net working capital of $22,300. What is the return on equity?A) 24.26 percentB) 15.38 percentC) 38.96 percentD) 29.96 percentE) 17.06 percent78) Frank's Welding has net fixed assets of $36,200, total assets of $51,300, long-term debt of $22,000, and total debt of $29,700. What is the net working capital to total assets ratio?A) 12.18 percentB) 16.82 percentC) 14.42 percentD) 17.79 percentE) 9.90 percent79) The Green Fiddle has current liabilities of $28,000, sales of $156,900, and cost of goods sold of $62,400. The current ratio is 1.22 and the quick ratio is .71. How many days on average does it take to sell the inventory?A) 128.13 daysB) 74.42 daysC) 199.81 daysD) 147.46 daysE) 83.53 days80) Green Yard Care has net income of $62,300, a tax rate of 21 percent, and a profit margin of 6.7 percent. Total assets are $1,100,500 and current assets are $328,200. How many dollars of sales are being generated from every dollar of net fixed assets?A) $2.83B) $1.37C) $.84D) $1.20E) $1.2381) Jensen's Shipping has total assets of $694,800 at year's end. The beginning owners' equity was $362,400. During the year, the company had sales of $711,000, a profit margin of 5.2 percent, a tax rate of 21 percent, and paid $12,500 in dividends. What is the equity multiplier at year-end?A) 1.67B) 1.72C) 1.93D) 1.80E) 1.8682) Western Gear has net income of $12,400, a tax rate of 21 percent, and interest expense of $1,600. What is the times interest earned ratio for the year?A) 9.63B) 7.75C) 10.81D) 14.97E) 10.9783) Big Tree Lumber has earnings per share of $1.36. The firm's earnings have been increasing at an average rate of 2.9 percent annually and are expected to continue doing so. The firm has 21,500 shares of stock outstanding at a price per share of $23.40. What is the firm's PEG ratio?A) 2.27B) 11.21C) 4.85D) 3.94E) 5.9384) Townsend Enterprises has a PEG ratio of 5.3, net income of $49,200, a price-earnings ratio of 17.6, and a profit margin of 7.1 percent. What is the earnings growth rate?A) 2.48 percentB) 1.06 percentC) 3.32 percentD) 5.20 percentE) 10.60 percent85) A firm has total assets with a current book value of $71,600, a current market value of $82,300, and a current replacement cost of $90,400. What is the value of Tobin's Q?A) .85B) .87C) .90D) .94E) .9186) Dixie Supply has total assets with a current book value of $368,900 and a current replacement cost of $486,200. The market value of these assets is $464,800. What is the value of Tobin's Q?A) .79B) .76C) .96D) 1.26E) 1.0587) Dandelion Fields has a Tobin's Q of .96. The replacement cost of the firm's assets is $225,000 and the market value of the firm's debt is $101,000. The firm has 20,000 shares of stock outstanding and a book value per share of $2.09. What is the market-to-book ratio?A) 2.75 timesB) 3.18 timesC) 3.54 timesD) 4.01 timesE) 4.20 times88) The Tech Store has annual sales of $416,000, a price-earnings ratio of 18, and a profit margin of 3.7 percent. There are 12,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the price-sales ratio?A) .97B) .67C) 1.08D) 1.15E) .8689) Lassiter Industries has annual sales of $328,000 with 8,000 shares of stock outstanding. The firm has a profit margin of 4.5 percent and a price-sales ratio of 1.20. What is the firm's price-earnings ratio?A) 21.9B) 17.4C) 18.6D) 26.7E) 24.390) Drive-Up has sales of $31.4 million, total assets of $27.6 million, and total debt of $14.9 million. The profit margin is 3.7 percent. What is the return on equity?A) 6.85 percentB) 9.15 percentC) 11.08 percentD) 13.31 percentE) 14.21 percent91) Corner Supply has a current accounts receivable balance of $246,000. Credit sales for the year just ended were $2,430,000. How many days on average did it take for credit customers to pay off their accounts during this past year?A) 44.29 daysB) 55.01 daysC) 55.50 daysD) 36.95 daysE) 41.00 days92) BL Industries has ending inventory of $302,800, annual sales of $2.33 million, and annual cost of goods sold of $1.41 million. On average, how long did a unit of inventory sit on the shelf before it was sold?A) 47.43 daysB) 22.18 daysC) 78.38 daysD) 61.78 daysE) 83.13 days93) Billings Inc. has net income of $161,000, a profit margin of 7.6 percent, and an accounts receivable balance of $127,100. Assume that 66 percent of sales are on credit. What is the days' sales in receivables?A) 21.90 daysB) 27.56 daysC) 33.18 daysD) 35.04 daysE) 36.19 days94) Stone Walls has a long-term debt ratio of .6 and a current ratio of 1.2. Current liabilities are $800, sales are $7,800, the profit margin is 6.5 percent, and return on equity is 15.5 percent. What is the amount of the firm's net fixed assets?A) $8,880.15B) $8,017.43C) $7,666.67D) $5,848.15E) $8,977.43。
公司理财学原理第12章习题答案
公司理财学原理第十二章习题答案二、单选题1、关于预算的编制方法下列各项中正确的是（ C ）。
A、零基预算编制方法适用于非盈利组织编制预算时采用B、固定预算编制方法适用于产出较难辨认的服务性部门费用预算的编制C、固定预算编制方法适用于业务量水平较为稳定的企业预算的编制D、零基预算编制方法适用于业务量水平较为稳定的企业预算的编制2、（ B ）是只使用实物量计量单位的预算。
A、产品成本预算B、生产预算C、管理费用预算D、直接材料预算3、某企业编制“直接材料预算”，预计第四季度期初存量600千克，该季度生产需用量2400千克，预计期末存量为400千克，材料单价为11.7元，若材料采购货款有60%在本季度内付清，另外40%在下季度付清，不考虑税收，则该企业预计资产负债表年末“应付账款”项目为（ C ）元。
A、8800B、10269C、10296D、130004、某企业编制“销售预算”，已知上上期的含税销售收入为600万元, 上期的含税销售收入为800万元,预计预算期销售收入为1000万元，销售收入的20%于当期收现，60%于下期收现，20%于下下期收现，假设不考虑其他因素，则本期期末应收账款的余额为（ D ）万元。
A、760B、860C、660D、9605、直接材料预算包括直接材料数量和直接材料金额两个方面的内容所组成。
其数量预算的编制基础是（ D ）A、销售预算B、投资决策预算C、销售费用预算D、生产预算6、编制全面财务预算的起点是（ A ）A、销售预算B、投资决策预算C、销售费用预算D、生产预算7、根据预算内正常的、可实现的某一业务量水平编制的预算是（ B ）A、弹性预算B、固定预算C、滚动预算D、概率预算8、现金预算中不能反映（ C ）A、资本性支出B、资金的筹措C、损益情况D、现金余缺9、企业编制“销售预算”，上期销售收入为300万元，预计预算期销售收入为500万元，销售收入的60%会在本期收到，40%将在下期收到，则预算期的经营现金收入为（ A ）万元。
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter22_TB
Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 22 Behavioral Finance: Implications for Financial Management1) Nadine made a business decision that turned out badly. In reflecting upon her decision, she decided it was a reasoning error that led to the faulty decision. Which one of the following areas of study best applies to this situation?A) Corporate ethicsB) Financial statement analysisC) Managerial financeD) Debt managementE) Behavioral finance2) Peter has successfully managed the finances of A.D. Leadbetter in a manner that has yielded abnormally high returns. Due to this success, Peter has decided to publish a newsletter for financial executives so that he can share his superior financial wisdom with others. There is a very real probability that Peter has which one of the following characteristics?A) Gambler's fallacyB) Frame dependenceC) OverconfidenceD) Representativeness heuristicE) Sentiment-based risk attitudes3) Jeremy believes he excels at picking stock winners and thus trades frequently. Which characteristic does he most likely represent?A) Confirmation biasB) Frame dependenceC) OverconfidenceD) Representativeness heuristicE) Break-even effect4) Anytime Ted analyzes a proposed project, he always assigns a much higher probability of success to the project than is warranted by the information he has gathered. Ted suffers from which one of the following?A) Frame dependenceB) Mental accountingC) Endowment effectD) Confirmation biasE) Overoptimism5) The tendency for a decision maker to search for reassurance that a recent decision he or she made was a good decision represents which one of the following characteristics?A) OverconfidenceB) OveroptimismC) Affect heuristicD) Confirmation biasE) Representativeness heuristic6) Which one of the following best illustrates an error which you, as a project manager, might make due to confirmation bias?A) Overestimating the best outcome expected from a project while underestimating the possibility of a less favorable outcomeB) Assuming that a new project will be profitable since similar projects in the past were successfulC) Assuming that your expectations of the future outcome from a project are more accurate than the expectations of others within your organizationD) Listening to the advice of subordinates with whom you agree while ignoring the advice of subordinates with whom you tend to disagreeE) Downplaying the cost of future failure of an existing project since the project has already paid for itself7) Assume you are an overconfident manager. You are most apt to do which one of the following more so than you would if you were not overconfident?A) Research a project more thoroughly before committing funds to commence itB) Accept risky projects that turn out to be less profitable than you expectedC) Wait until new technology proves its worth before incorporating it into your firm's operationsD) Avoid mergers and acquisitionsE) Invest excess company cash more conservatively than your peers at other firms8) Marzella Corp. is analyzing a project that involves expanding the firm into a new product line. The project's financial projections will tend to have which one of the following characteristics if the person compiling those projections suffers from overoptimism?A) Overestimated construction costsB) Overestimated expensesC) Overestimated net present valuesD) Underestimated profitsE) Underestimated sales estimates9) Alice believes she can accurately forecast the future and makes business decisions based on this belief. Which characteristics does this belief represent?A) OverconfidenceB) OveroptimismC) Affect heuristicD) Confirmation biasE) Representativeness heuristic10) Kate tends to hold onto assets that have lost value in the hope that their values will increase in the future. Kate illustrates which one of the following?A) Frame dependenceB) Self-attribution biasC) Gambler's fallacyD) Break-even effectE) Regret aversion11) Which one of the following refers to the fact that an individual may reply differently if a question is asked in an equivalent but different manner?A) Loss aversionB) Gambler's fallacyC) Frame dependenceD) OverconfidenceE) Format reference12) Aivree wants to accumulate great wealth but she invests all of her funds in U.S. Treasury bills because she wants to avoid the potential losses she knows can occur in the stock markets. Aivree best illustrates which one of these characteristics?A) Loss aversionB) Gambler's fallacyC) Disposition effectD) Law of small numbersE) Mental accounting13) Consumer Marketing just conducted a two-phase survey. In the first phase, the survey questions were worded such that the answers tended to sound positive. In the second phase, the survey questions were reworded so the answers tended to convey a negative feeling. Both sets of survey questions should have resulted in similar results as the information solicited was essentially identical. However, the survey results varied significantly. This survey best illustrates which one of the following?A) Mental accountingB) OverconfidenceC) Self-attribution biasD) Confirmation biasE) Frame dependence14) Recently, a neighbor you have known for years won a lottery and received a $250,000 prize. This neighbor decided to invest all of his winnings in a new business venture that he knew only had a 5 percent chance of success. Previous to this, the neighbor had always been ultra conservative with his money and had refused to invest in this business venture as recently as last week. Which one of the following behaviors most applies to your neighbor's decision to invest in this business venture now?A) Disposition effectB) Affect heuristicC) Gambler's fallacyD) House moneyE) Get-evenitis15) The tendency to sell winners and hold losers is known as the:A) representativeness heuristic.B) disposition effect.C) house money effect.D) self-attribution bias.E) affect heuristic.16) Steve purchased a stock last year for $34 a share. The stock increased in value to $36 a share before declining to its current value of $30. Steve has decided to sell the stock, but only if he can receive $34 a share or better. Steve is primarily suffering from which one of the following behavioral conditions?A) Representativeness heuristicB) House moneyC) Loss aversionD) RandomnessE) Myopic loss aversion17) Over the past six months, you have watched as your parent's retirement savings have declined in value by 25 percent due to a severe financial market downturn. As a result, you have decided that you will never invest in stocks for your own retirement but will instead keep all of your money in an insured bank account. Which behavioral characteristic have you acquired as a result of the market downturn?A) Myopic loss aversionB) Get-evenitisC) Self-attribution biasD) Mental accountingE) Regret aversion18) Ramon opened a combination laundry and dry cleaning establishment three years ago that is quite successful. He has considered expanding this business by opening another location but keeps putting off that decision for fear that the second location will not be a success. Ramon is currently displaying which one of the following behavioral characteristics?A) Self-attribution biasB) OverconfidenceC) Regret aversionD) House money effectE) Frame dependence19) Phyllis is planning for her retirement in 15 years. She currently lives comfortably on $38,000a year given that she is debt-free. Based on her family history she only expects to live ten years after she retires. Thus, she computes her retirement need as $38,000 a year for ten years. Which one of the following behaviors applies to Phyllis?A) Regret aversionB) Money illusionC) Self-attribution biasD) Endowment effectE) Myopic loss aversion20) Kate is attempting to sell her house for $260,000. Fred lives across the street in an identical house. Fred recently stated to his wife that Kate's house is probably worth only $250,000 but that once she sells her house, he would like to put their house on the market at $285,000 and then move into a condominium. Which one of the following behaviors applies to Fred?A) Myopic loss aversionB) House money effectC) Money illusionD) Self-attribution biasE) Endowment effect21) You have a tendency to take credit for the decisions you make that have good outcomes even when those outcomes are out of your control. On the other hand, you blame bad luck for your decisions that turn out badly. Which of these terms applies to you?A) Myopic loss aversionB) House money effectC) Money illusionD) Self-attribution biasE) Endowment effect22) A tendency to be overly conservative when faced with new information is referred to as:A) anchoring and adjustment.B) heuristics.C) self-attribution.D) loss aversion.E) regret aversion.23) Bill feels that he possesses a good dose of "street smarts." Thus, he makes his business decisions based on how a project feels to him rather than taking the time to financially analyze a project. This type of behavior is referred to as:A) overconfidence.B) endowment effect.C) money illusion.D) affect heuristic.E) sentiment-based risk.24) Which term refers to the tendency to shy away from the unknown?A) Aversion to ambiguityB) Clustering illusionC) Anchoring and adjustmentD) Recency biasE) Availability bias25) You recently overheard your boss telling someone that if he'd actually crunched some numbers and done some analysis instead of just going with his instincts, he never would have opened the new store in Centre City. Which one of the following caused your boss to make a bad decision?A) Regret aversionB) Endowment effectC) Money illusionD) Affect heuristicE) Representativeness heuristic26) Roger's Meat Market is a chain of retail stores that limits its sales to fresh-cut meats. The stores have been very profitable in northern cities. However, when two stores were opened in the south, both lost money and had to be closed. Roger, the owner, has now concluded that no southern-based store should be opened as it would not be profitable. Which one of the following applies to Roger?A) Confirmation biasB) Endowment effectC) Money illusionD) Affect heuristicE) Representativeness heuristic27) Up until three years ago, A.C. Dime opened an average of ten new retail stores a year. One of every ten new stores had to be closed within two years due to poor sales. This 90 percent success ratio was fairly steady for over 30 years. Starting three years ago, the firm has opened 40 new stores and every one had significant profits within six months. Management believes their recent success is not just a random event and that all future stores will be profitable. Thus, the managers have decided to open a minimum of 15 new stores each year. The managers are suffering from:A) arbitrage limitations.B) anchoring and adjustment.C) aversion to ambiguity.D) the clustering illusion.E) myopic aversion.28) You are employed as a commission-based sales clerk for a cosmetics retail store. You know that, on average, exactly 50 percent of the customers that enter your store will make at least one purchase. Thus far this morning, you have waited on eight customers without making a single sale. You are convinced that the next customer you wait on will buy something. This belief is known as:A) aversion to ambiguity.B) the law of small numbers.C) anchoring and adjusting.D) gambler's fallacy.E) false consensus.29) The last six times you purchased a stock you earned high returns within one year. Thus, you believe you will have the same result with your next stock purchase. This is an example of which one of the following?A) Recency biasB) Anchoring and adjustmentC) Frame dependenceD) Aversion to ambiguityE) Clustering illusion30) You started an online business two weeks ago. Thus far, you have averaged ten sales a day, which is one sale for every five hits. You are now considering giving up your day job and becoming a full-time online retailer. You have calculated the amount of income you can earn based on ten sales a day and know that level of income would support you in a comfortable fashion. The belief that you will have ten sales per day if this becomes your full-time occupation is based on which one of the following?A) Mental accountingB) Anchoring and adjustmentC) Law of small numbersD) Bubble and crash theoryE) Confirmation bias31) You are a hard-charging manager who doesn't really like to sit at a desk for too long. You prefer to gather information quickly, make a decision, and move on to the next item on your agenda. Which one of the following applies to you?A) Availability biasB) Arbitrage limitsC) Law of small numbersD) Representativeness heuristicE) Regret aversion32) Your friends are all investing in a start-up company. You, on the other hand, refuse to invest in the company because you don't know the odds of it becoming successful. Which behavioral characteristic are you displaying?A) Aversion to ambiguityB) Recency biasC) Sentiment-based risk aversionD) Clustering illusionE) Money illusion33) You are the manager of a retail store. You believe the economy is in a recession and that sales for the month will be unusually slow. Since you have complete discretion over the pricing at your location, you decide to have a storewide sale and offer ten percent off all merchandise for a three-day period. You don't expect your superiors to criticize this decision as you believe they, along with the majority of the other store managers, feel the same way about the economy as you do. Which one of the following applies to you?A) Recency biasB) Law of small numbersC) Gambler's fallacyD) False consensusE) Money illusion34) The last two promotions within a firm involved individuals who completed the same advanced managerial program. As a result, the company president has stipulated that all future management hires must be graduates of that program. This behavior is typical of someone who has which one of the following characteristics?A) Endowment effectB) Framing effectC) Representativeness heuristicD) Narrow framingE) Affect heuristic35) Which term refers to the reliance on stereotypes or limited samples to form opinions about an entire class?A) Clustering illusionB) Law of small numbersC) Representativeness heuristicD) False consensusE) Recency bias36) It is believed by some individuals that, in an efficient market, the actions of traders who constantly buy and sell on any perceived market mispricing will in effect cause market prices to correctly reflect asset values. A person who believes that the actions of these traders will not result in correctly valued prices are most apt to believe in which one of the following?A) Gambler's fallacyB) Limits to arbitrageC) Availability biasD) False consensusE) Clustering illusion37) Which one of the following is an investment risk that investors face in addition to firm-based risk and market-based risk?A) Management-related riskB) Inflation riskC) Supply chain riskD) Interest rate riskE) Sentiment-based risk38) Which word best describes the stock market during the month of October 1987?A) CrashB) CircleC) BubbleD) LimitE) Flat39) All of the following create limits to arbitrage except:A) firm-specific risk.B) noise traders.C) thinly traded securities.D) rational traders.E) implementation costs.40) AB Industries is an all-equity firm that has $10 per share in cash and a book value per share of $12. At which one of the following market prices would you know with absolute certainty that the stock was mispriced?A) $9B) $10C) $11D) $12E) $1341) Approximately what percent of its total value did the stock market lose on "Black Monday"?A) 19B) 10C) 23D) 30E) 3842) Which one of the following statements related to market crashes is correct?A) Financial market crashes are unique to the United States.B) A market crash tends to occur within a week but have effects that last many years.C) Once the market finally crashed in 1929, stock prices began a long period of steady increases.D) The market crash of 1987 occurred on a day when trading volume was light indicating there were a limited number of irrational investors involved.E) Actions in Washington, D.C., may have helped contribute to the market crash in 1929 but not to the 1987 crash.43) Which one of the following statements is true?A) Market crashes tend to be accompanied by low market volume.B) The Asian market crash was followed by a quick recovery.C) The market crashes of 1929 and 1987 are very similar in both the percentage decline in market value and in the ensuing market recovery.D) Market crashes tend to follow market bubbles.E) Market bubbles and crashes prove that financial markets are inefficient.44) Following the Crash of 1929, the stock market:A) began to slowly, but steadily, increase in value.B) was flat for about three years and then began a slow, steady rise to pre-crash values.C) continued to decline slightly before increasing over a 3-year period to its pre-crash values.D) temporarily increased in value and then began a 3-year decline to ten percent of its pre-crash value.E) recouped its 90 percent loss within the following three years.45) Which one of these statements related to the Crash of 1987 is false?A) Program trading is at least partially to blame for the market meltdown.B) Between August and October 1987 the market declined over 40 percent.C) In some cases, it became impossible to contact a market maker.D) Trading volume exceeded the market's capacity to handle the order flows.E) Following the Crash of 1987, the market continued to slowly decline over the following year.46) Which one of the following is given as a key reason why many of the dot-com companies failed following their IPO's?A) Lack of a solid business modelB) Lack of internet accessC) Market crash in AsiaD) Change in government regulationsE) Program trading47) Historical returns support which one of the following statements?A) Financial markets are highly inefficient as suggested by behavioral finance.B) Professional money managers tend to outperform the Vanguard 500 index fund about 60 percent of the time on average.C) The longer the time span, the more likely a professional money manager will outperform an index fund, such as the S&P 500.D) Historical data supports the statement that arbitrage results in a 100 percent totally efficient market.E) The financial markets appear to be highly efficient because, on average, they outperform professional money managers.48) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) In a totally efficient market every investment has a zero net present value.B) Portfolio managers with tenures greater than 10 years, consistently outperform the market.C) The performance of professional money managers improves the longer the investment period.D) Mutual funds that are actively managed outperform index funds over the long term.E) The number of mutual funds outperforming the Vanguard 500 Index Fund over a 10-year period is steadily rising.。
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter01_TB
Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 1 Introduction to Corporate Finance1) Which one of the following functions should be the responsibility of the controller rather than the treasurer?A) Depositing cash receiptsB) Processing cost reportsC) Analyzing equipment purchasesD) Approving credit for a customerE) Paying a vendor2) The treasurer of a corporation generally reports directly to the:A) board of directors.B) chairman of the board.C) chief executive officer.D) president.E) vice president of finance.3) Which one of the following correctly defines the upward chain of command in a typical corporate organizational structure?A) The vice president of finance reports to the chairman of the board.B) The chief executive officer reports to the president.C) The controller reports to the chief financial officer.D) The treasurer reports to the president.E) The chief operations officer reports to the vice president of production.4) An example of a capital budgeting decision is deciding:A) how many shares of stock to issue.B) whether or not to purchase a new machine for the production line.C) how to refinance a debt issue that is maturing.D) how much inventory to keep on hand.E) how much money should be kept in the checking account.5) When evaluating the timing of a project's projected cash flows, a financial manager is analyzing:A) the amount of each expected cash flow.B) only the start-up costs that are expected to require cash resources.C) only the date of the final cash flow related to the project.D) the amount by which cash receipts are expected to exceed cash outflows.E) when each cash flow is expected to occur.6) Capital structure decisions include determining:A) which one of two projects to accept.B) how to allocate investment funds to multiple projects.C) the amount of funds needed to finance customer purchases of a new product.D) how much debt should be assumed to fund a project.E) how much inventory will be needed to support a project.7) The decision to issue additional shares of stock is an example of:A) working capital management.B) a net working capital decision.C) capital budgeting.D) a controller's duties.E) a capital structure decision.8) Which one of the following questions is a working capital management decision?A) Should the company issue new shares of stock or borrow money?B) Should the company update or replace its older equipment?C) How much inventory should be on hand for immediate sale?D) Should the company close one of its current stores?E) How much should the company borrow to buy a new building?9) Which one of the following is a working capital management decision?A) What type(s) of equipment is (are) needed to complete a current project?B) Should the firm pay cash for a purchase or use the credit offered by the supplier?C) What amount of long-term debt is required to complete a project?D) How many shares of stock should the firm issue to fund an acquisition?E) Should a project should be accepted?10) Working capital management decisions include determining:A) the minimum level of cash to be kept in a checking account.B) the best method of producing a product.C) the number of employees needed to work during a particular shift.D) when to replace obsolete equipment.E) if a competitor should be acquired.11) Which one of the following terms is defined as the management of a firm's long-term investments?A) Working capital managementB) Financial allocationC) Agency cost analysisD) Capital budgetingE) Capital structure12) Which one of the following terms is defined as the mixture of a firm's debt and equity financing?A) Working capital managementB) Cash managementC) Cost analysisD) Capital budgetingE) Capital structure13) A firm's short-term assets and its short-term liabilities are referred to as the firm's:A) working capital.B) debt.C) investment capital.D) net capital.E) capital structure.14) Which one of the following questions is least likely to be addressed by financial managers?A) How should a product be marketed?B) Should customers be given 30 or 45 days to pay for their credit purchases?C) Should the firm borrow more money?D) Should the firm acquire new equipment?E) How much cash should the firm keep on hand?15) A business owned by a solitary individual who has unlimited liability for the firm's debt is called a:A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) limited liability company.16) A business formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for all of the firm's business debts is called a:A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) limited liability company.17) A business partner whose potential financial loss in the partnership will not exceed his or her investment in that partnership is called a:A) general partner.B) sole proprietor.C) limited partner.D) corporate shareholder.E) zero partner.18) A business created as a distinct legal entity and treated as a legal "person" is called a(n):A) corporation.B) sole proprietorship.C) general partnership.D) limited partnership.E) unlimited liability company.19) Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A) A sole proprietorship is designed to protect the personal assets of the owner.B) The profits of a sole proprietorship are subject to double taxation.C) The owner of a sole proprietorship is personally responsible for all of the company's debts.D) There are very few sole proprietorships remaining in the U.S. today.E) A sole proprietorship is structured the same as a limited liability company.20) Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A) The life of a sole proprietorship is limited.B) A sole proprietor can generally raise large sums of capital quite easily.C) Transferring ownership of a sole proprietorship is easier than transferring ownership of a corporation.D) A sole proprietorship is taxed the same as a C corporation.E) A sole proprietorship is the most regulated form of organization.21) Which of the following individuals have unlimited liability for a firm's debts based on their ownership interest?A) Only general partnersB) Only sole proprietorsC) All stockholdersD) Both limited and general partnersE) Both general partners and sole proprietors22) The primary advantage of being a limited partner is:A) the receipt of tax-free income.B) the partner's active participation in the firm's activities.C) the lack of any potential financial loss.D) the daily control over the business affairs of the partnership.E) the partner's maximum loss is limited to their capital investment.23) A general partner:A) is personally responsible for all partnership debts.B) has no say over a firm's daily operations.C) faces double taxation whereas a limited partner does not.D) has a maximum loss equal to his or her equity investment.E) receives a salary in lieu of a portion of the profits.24) A limited partnership:A) has an unlimited life.B) can opt to be taxed as a corporation.C) terminates at the death of any one limited partner.D) has at least one partner who has unlimited liability for all of the partnership's debts.E) consists solely of limited partners.25) A partnership with four general partners:A) distributes profits based on percentage of ownership.B) has an unlimited partnership life.C) limits the active involvement in the firm to a single partner.D) limits each partner's personal liability to 25 percent of the partnership's total debt.E) must distribute 25 percent of the profits to each partner.26) One disadvantage of the corporate form of business ownership is the:A) limited liability of its shareholders for the firm's debts.B) double taxation of distributed profits.C) firm's greater ability to raise capital than other forms of ownership.D) firm's potential for an unlimited life.E) firm's ability to issue additional shares of stock.27) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) The majority of firms in the U.S. are structured as corporations.B) Corporate profits are taxable income to the shareholders when earned.C) Corporations can have an unlimited life.D) Shareholders are protected from all potential losses.E) Shareholders directly elect the corporate president.28) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) A general partnership is legally the same as a corporation.B) Income from both sole proprietorships and partnerships that is taxable is treated as individual income.C) Partnerships are the most complicated type of business to form.D) All business organizations have bylaws.E) Only firms organized as sole proprietorships have limited lives.29) The articles of incorporation:A) describe the purpose of the firm and set forth the number of shares of stock that can be issued.B) are amended periodically especially prior to corporate elections.C) explain how corporate directors are to be elected and the length of their terms.D) sets forth the procedures by which a firm regulates itself.E) include only the corporation's name and intended life.30) Corporate bylaws:A) must be amended should a firm decide to increase the number of shares authorized.B) cannot be amended once adopted.C) define the name by which the firm will operate.D) describe the intended life and purpose of the organization.E) determine how a corporation regulates itself.31) A limited liability company:A) can only have a single owner.B) is comprised of limited partners only.C) is taxed similar to a partnership.D) is taxed similar to a C corporation.E) generates totally tax-free income.32) Which business form is best suited to raising large amounts of capital?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Limited liability companyC) CorporationD) General partnershipE) Limited partnership33) A ________ has all the respective rights and privileges of a legal person.A) sole proprietorshipB) general partnershipC) limited partnershipD) corporationE) limited liability company34) Sam, Alfredo, and Juan want to start a small U.S. business. Juan will fund the venture but wants to limit his liability to his initial investment and has no interest in the daily operations. Sam will contribute his full efforts on a daily basis but has limited funds to invest in the business. Alfredo will be involved as an active consultant and manager and will also contribute funds. Sam and Alfredo are willing to accept liability for the firm's debts as they feel they have nothing to lose by doing so. All three individuals will share in the firm's profits and wish to keep the initial organizational costs of the business to a minimum. Which form of business entity should these individuals adopt?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Joint stock companyC) Limited partnershipD) General partnershipE) Corporation35) Sally and Alicia are equal general partners in a business. They are content with their current management and tax situation but are uncomfortable with their unlimited liability. Which form of business entity should they consider as a replacement to their current arrangement assuming they wish to remain the only two owners of the business?A) Sole proprietorshipB) Joint stock companyC) Limited partnershipD) Limited liability companyE) Corporation36) The growth of both sole proprietorships and partnerships is frequently limited by the firm's:A) double taxation.B) bylaws.C) inability to raise cash.D) limited liability.E) agency problems.37) Corporate dividends are:A) tax-free because the income is taxed at the personal level when earned by the firm.B) tax-free because they are distributions of aftertax income.C) tax-free since the corporation pays tax on that income when it is earned.D) taxed at both the corporate and the personal level when the dividends are paid to shareholders.E) taxable income of the recipient even though that income was previously taxed.38) Financial managers should primarily focus on the interests of:A) stakeholders.B) the vice president of finance.C) their immediate supervisor.D) shareholders.E) the board of directors.39) Which one of the following best states the primary goal of financial management?A) Maximize current dividends per shareB) Maximize the current value per shareC) Increase cash flow and avoid financial distressD) Minimize operational costs while maximizing firm efficiencyE) Maintain steady growth while increasing current profits40) Which one of the following best illustrates that the management of a firm is adhering to the goal of financial management?A) An increase in the amount of the quarterly dividendB) A decrease in the per unit production costsC) An increase in the number of shares outstandingD) A decrease in the net working capitalE) An increase in the market value per share41) Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existingstock to:A) guarantee the company will grow in size at the maximum possible rate.B) increase employee salaries.C) best represent the interests of the current shareholders.D) increase the current dividends per share.E) provide managers with shares of stock as part of their compensation.42) Decisions made by financial managers should primarily focus on increasing the:A) size of the firm.B) growth rate of the firm.C) gross profit per unit produced.D) market value per share of outstanding stock.E) total sales.43) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is a governmental response to:A) decreasing corporate profits.B) the terrorist attacks on 9/11/2001.C) a weakening economy.D) deregulation of the stock exchanges.E) management greed and abuses.44) Which one of the following is an unintended result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?A) More detailed and accurate financial reportingB) Increased management awareness of internal controlsC) Corporations delisting from major exchangesD) Increased responsibility for corporate officersE) Identification of internal control weaknesses45) A firm which opts to "go dark" in response to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act:A) must continue to provide audited financial statements to the public.B) must continue to provide a detailed list of internal control deficiencies on an annual basis.C) can provide less information to its shareholders than it did prior to "going dark".D) can continue publicly trading its stock but only on the exchange on which it was previously listed.E) ceases to exist.46) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 holds a public company's ________ responsible for the accuracy of the company's financial statements.A) managersB) internal auditorsC) external legal counselD) internal legal counselE) Securities and Exchange Commission agent47) Which one of the following actions by a financial manager is most apt to create an agency problem?A) Refusing to borrow money when doing so will create losses for the firmB) Refusing to lower selling prices if doing so will reduce the net profitsC) Refusing to expand the company if doing so will lower the value of the equityD) Agreeing to pay bonuses based on the market value of the company's stock rather than on its level of salesE) Increasing current profits when doing so lowers the value of the company's equity48) Which one of the following is least apt to help convince managers to work in the best interest of the stockholders? Assume there are no golden parachutes.A) Compensation based on the value of the stockB) Stock option plansC) Threat of a company takeoverD) Threat of a proxy fightE) Increasing managers' base salaries49) Agency problems are most associated with:A) sole proprietorships.B) general partnerships.C) limited partnerships.D) corporations.E) limited liability companies.50) Which one of the following is an agency cost?A) Accepting an investment opportunity that will add value to the firmB) Increasing the quarterly dividendC) Investing in a new project that creates firm valueD) Hiring outside accountants to audit the company's financial statementsE) Closing a division of the firm that is operating at a loss51) Which one of the following is a means by which shareholders can replace company management?A) Stock optionsB) PromotionC) Sarbanes-Oxley ActD) Agency playE) Proxy fight52) Which one of the following grants an individual the right to vote on behalf of a shareholder?A) ProxyB) By-lawsC) Indenture agreementD) Stock optionE) Stock audit53) Which one of the following parties has ultimate control of a corporation?A) Chairman of the boardB) Board of directorsC) Chief executive officerD) Chief operating officerE) Shareholders54) Which of the following parties are considered stakeholders of a firm?A) Employees and the governmentB) Long-term creditorsC) Government and common stockholdersD) Common stockholdersE) Long-term creditors and common stockholders55) Which one of the following represents a cash outflow from a corporation?A) Issuance of new securitiesB) Payment of dividendsC) New loan proceedsD) Receipt of tax refundE) Initial sale of common stock56) Which one of the following is a cash flow from a corporation into the financial markets?A) Borrowing of long-term debtB) Payment of government taxesC) Payment of loan interestD) Issuance of corporate debtE) Sale of common stock57) Which one of the following is a primary market transaction?A) Sale of currently outstanding stock by a dealer to an individual investorB) Sale of a new share of stock to an individual investorC) Stock ownership transfer from one shareholder to another shareholderD) Gift of stock from one shareholder to another shareholderE) Gift of stock by a shareholder to a family member58) Shareholder A sold 500 shares of ABC stock on the New York Stock Exchange. This transaction:A) took place in the primary market.B) occurred in a dealer market.C) was facilitated in the secondary market.D) involved a proxy.E) was a private placement.59) Public offerings of debt and equity must be registered with the:A) New York Board of Governors.B) Federal Reserve.C) NYSE Registration Office.D) Securities and Exchange Commission.E) Market Dealers Exchange.60) Which one of the following statements is generally correct?A) Private placements must be registered with the SEC.B) All secondary markets are auction markets.C) Dealer markets have a physical trading floor.D) Auction markets match buy and sell orders.E) Dealers arrange trades but never own the securities traded.61) Which one of the following statements concerning stock exchanges is correct?A) NASDAQ is a broker market.B) The NYSE is a dealer market.C) The exchange with the strictest listing requirements is NASDAQ.D) Some large companies are listed on NASDAQ.E) Most debt securities are traded on the NYSE.62) Shareholder A sold shares of Maplewood Cabinets stock to Shareholder B. The stock is listed on the NYSE. This trade occurred in which one of the following?A) Primary, dealer marketB) Secondary, dealer marketC) Primary, auction marketD) Secondary, auction marketE) Secondary, OTC market63) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the NYSE?A) The publicly traded shares of a NYSE-listed firm must be worth at least $250 million.B) The NYSE is the largest dealer market for listed securities in the United States.C) The listing requirements for the NYSE are more stringent than those of NASDAQ.D) Any corporation desiring to be listed on the NYSE can do so for a fee.E) The NYSE is an OTC market functioning as both a primary and a secondary market.11。
《公司理财》课后习题与答案
《公司理财》考试范围：第3~7章，第13章，第16~19章，其中第16章和18章为较重点章节。
书上例题比较重要，大家记得多多动手练练。
PS：书中课后例题不出，大家可以当习题练练~考试题型：1.单选题10分 2.判断题10分 3.证明题10分 4.计算分析题60分 5.论述题10分注：第13章没有答案第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
公司理财》习题参考答案
《公司理财》习题参考答案第1章公司理财导论★案例分析1．股东之间的利益（1）作为内部股东，其利益与外部股东未必一致。
（2）内部股东拥有信息优势。
他们可能运用这种信息优势做出有利于自己但伤害外部股东利益的行为，例如延期发布预亏信息。
2．企业组织的经营目标（1）相同点：公司理财学教授与市场营销学教授从各自的职业特征出发，表述了企业的经营目标。
不同点：公司理财学教授表达的是企业经营的最终目标，市场营销学教授表达的是实现企业经营最终目标的手段。
手段与目标本身并不一致。
也就是说，顾客满意了，企业价值未必最大化。
（2）如果公司理财学教授与市场营销学教授分别代表企业的财务部门与营销部门，可以通过“顾客给企业带来利润率”这个指标来协调其认识差异。
企业为什么要最大限度地满足顾客要求呢？其目的在于，通过最大限度地满足顾客要求来实现企业价值最大化。
然而，并不是所有满意的顾客都能够为企业创造价值。
对于这种顾客，企业为什么要最大限度地满足其要求呢？通过“顾客给企业带来利润率”这个指标来协调企业的财务部门与营销部门的认识差异的实践意义在于，它能够使企业财务部门与营销部门“讲同一种语言”。
财务部门具有营销理念，营销部门具有财务理念，从而构建“和谐企业”，引导企业走上“创造价值”的轨道上来。
3．会计学观念与公司理财观念（1）Toms公司不能得到价值补偿。
（2）会计学与公司理财学的差异在于会计学关注利润，而公司理财学关注现金流量。
4．整合四流，创造一流（1）企业组织应该设置预算管理委员会来沟通、协调及有效整合企业组织的物流、资金流、信息流和人力资源。
（2）某些企业组织的财务总监或会计人员委派制只解决了会计的监督职能，没有解决会计的辅助管理决策乃至战略制定职能。
（3）企业组织的财务经理人（包括会计经理人）主要体现企业组织的经营权范畴。
第2章公司理财环境★案例分析1．利率市场化（1）如果利率市场化，那么，资金的供求关系会影响利率，从而影响金融市场。
《公司理财》_练习题与答案(12)
罗斯公司理财练习与答案财务管理课程组编二○○九年七月第一部分练习题第1章公司理财导论在市场洞悉(Market lnsight)主页，点击“行业”链接。
从下拉菜单，你可以选择各种行业信息。
回答这些行业的下列问题：航空与防卫，应用软件，各种资本市场，房产，个人用品，餐饮，贵重金属和矿产。
a.各行业有多少公司?b.各行业的总销售额是多少?c.总销售额最大的行业有最多数量的竞争者吗?这能告诉你各行业竞争的什么情况?强化练习1．公司理财的三个基本问题是什么?2．简述“资本结构”。
3．财务经理如何创造价值?4．为什么价值创造有困难?指出其三个基本原因。
5．简述权益资本和债务资本的或有索取权。
6．描述“个体业主制”、“合伙制”和“公司制”的定义。
7．公司制这种企业组织形式的优点和缺陷是什么?8.简述两种类型的代理成本。
9．股东如何制约管理者。
10．简述管理者的目标。
11．简述货币市场和资本市场之间的区别。
12．筒述公司在纽约证券交易所上市挂牌交易的条件。
13．一级市场和二级市场有何区别?第2章会计报表与现金流量练习题1．利用下列数据编制某年度12月31日的资产负债表：（单位：美元）2、下表列示Information Control 公司上年的长期负债和所有者权益。
在过去的一年里，该公司发行新股1,000万美元，取得净利润500万美元，发放股利300万美元。
请编制该公司本年的资产负债表。
34、飞狮公司有其他营利性的子公司。
下面是其公司一家子公司损益表的有关数据（单位：美元）a．编制各年的损益表。
b.计算各年的经营性观念流量。
5.会计利润与现金流量的区别是什么?6．1998年，森贝特折扣轮胎公司获得了1，000，000美元的销售收入。
公司的销售成本和费用分别为300，000美元和200，000美元。
这些数据不包括折旧。
森贝特公司还有利率为10％的应付票据1，000，000美元。
折旧为100，000美元。
森贝特公司1998年的所得税税率a.森贝特公司的销售净收入是多少？b.该公司税前利润是多少？c.森贝特公司的净利润是多少？d.森贝特公司的经营性现金流量是多少？7. 斯坦西尔公司的有关信息如下：8. 里特公司20×2年年末的财务报表如下：a. 解释20×2现金的变动情况。
《公司理财》课后习题答案
《公司理财》考试范围：第3~7章，第13章，第16~19章，其中第16章和18章为较重点章节。
书上例题比较重要，大家记得多多动手练练。
PS：书中课后例题不出，大家可以当习题练练~考试题型：1.单选题10分 2.判断题10分 3.证明题10分 4.计算分析题60分 5.论述题10分注：第13章没有答案第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
罗斯《公司理财》(第9版)配套题库【章节题库-套利定价理论】
第12章套利定价理论一、单选题下列哪个不是CAPM的假设？（）（中央财大2011金融硕士）A．投资者风险厌恶，且其投资行为是使其终期财富的期望效用最大B．投资者是价格承受者，即投资者的投资行为不会影响市场上资产的价格运动C．资产收益率满足多因子模型D．资本市场上存在无风险资产，且投资者可以无风险利率无限借贷【答案】C【解析】套利定价理论（APT）假设资产收益率满足多因子模型。
套利定价模型的优点之一是它能够处理多个因素，而资本资产定价模型就忽略了这一点。
根据套利定价的多因素模型，收益与风险的关系可以表示为：式中，β1代表关于第一个因素的贝塔系数，β2代表关于第二个因素的贝塔系数，依此类推。
二、简答题1．请解释什么是证券组合的系统性风险和非系统性风险，并图示证券组合包含证券的数量与证券组合系统性风险和非系统性风险间的关系。
（对外经贸大学2004研）答：（1）系统风险亦称“不可分散风险”或“市场风险”，与非系统风险相对，指由于某些因素给市场上所有的证券都带来经济损失的可能性，如经济衰退、通货膨胀和需求变化给投资带来的风险。
这种风险影响到所有证券，不可能通过证券组合分散掉。
即使投资者持有的是收益水平及变动情况相当分散的证券组合，也将遭受这种风险。
对于投资者来说，这种风险是无法消除的。
系统风险的大小取决于两个方面，一是每一资产的总风险的大小，二是这一资产的收益变化与资产组合中其他资产收益变化的相关关系（由相关关系描述）。
在总风险一定的前提下，一项资产与市场资产组合收益变化的相关关系越强，系统风险越大，相关关系越弱，系统风险越小。
非系统风险，亦称“可分散风险”或“特别风险”，是指那些通过资产组合就可以消除掉的风险，是公司特有风险，例如某些因素对个别证券造成经济损失的可能性。
这种风险可通过证券持有的多样化来抵消，因此，非系统风险是通过多样化投资可被分散的风险。
多样化投资之所以可以分散风险，是因为在市场经济条件下，投资的收益现值是随着收益风险和收益折现率的变化而变化的。
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter20_TB
Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 20 Credit and Inventory Management1) Brown's Hardware offers a discount of two percent on their commercial accounts if payment is received within ten days. Otherwise, payment is due within 30 days. This credit offering is referred to as the:A) terms of sale.B) credit analysis.C) collection policy.D) payables policy.E) collection float.2) Jillian was recently hired to determine the probability that individual customers of a major retailer will fail to pay for their charge sales. Jillian's job best relates to which one of the following?A) Terms of saleB) Credit analysisC) Collection policyD) Payables policyE) Customer service3) Town Hardware sells goods on credit with payment due 30 days after purchase. If payment is not received by the 30th day, the store mails a friendly reminder to the customer. If payment is not received by the 45th day, the store calls the customer and requests payment and also stops offering credit to that customer. These procedures are referred to as the store's:A) customer service policy.B) credit policy.C) collection policy.D) payables policy.E) disbursements policy.4) The terms of sale generally include all of the following except the:A) credit period.B) cash discount.C) type of credit instrument.D) discount period.E) customer's credit capacity.5) The primary purpose of credit analysis is to:A) determine the optimal credit period.B) analyze the effects of granting a cash discount.C) determine the optimal discount period, if any.D) summarize the frequency and amount of sales by customer.E) evaluate whether or not a customer will pay.6) The period of time that extends from the day a credit sale is made until the day the bank credits the seller's account with the payment for that sale is known as the ________ period.A) floatB) cash collectionC) salesD) accounts receivableE) discount7) Which one of the following will increase a firm's investment in accounts receivables?A) An increase in the number of days for which credit is grantedB) A decrease in credit salesC) An increase in cash salesD) A decrease in the average collection periodE) A decrease in average daily credit sales8) A firm's total investment in accounts receivables depends primarily on the firm's:A) total sales and cash discount period.B) cash to credit sales ratio.C) bad debt ratio.D) average collection period and amount of credit sales.E) amount of credit sales and cash discount percentage.9) Which one of the following statements is correct if you purchase an item with credit termsof 3/15, net 45?A) If you pay within 3 days, you will receive a discount of 15 percent.B) If you pay within 15 days, you will receive a discount of 3 percent.C) If you do not pay within 15 days, you will be charged interest at a rate of 3 percent per month.D) If you pay 3 percent of your purchases within 15 days, you will have 45 days to pay for the remainder.E) One-third of your purchase is due in 15 days and the rest is due in 45 days.10) Assume you put your purchases on your credit card and then take advantage of any cash discounts offered. Which one of these credit terms do you prefer?A) 1/10, net 20B) 2/5, net 30C) 2/10, net 30D) 1/15, net 45E) 2/15, net 3011) You need to charge your purchases and know that you will not be able to pay within the discount period. Which one of these credit terms is best-suited to you?A) 1/5, net 15B) 2/5, net 30C) 2/5, net 20D) 1/10, net 45E) 2/10, net 3012) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) The credit period begins when the discount period ends.B) The discount period is the length of time granted to a customer to pay for a purchase.C) The credit period begins on the invoice date.D) With terms of 2/10, net 30, the net credit period is 20 days.E) With EOM dating, all sales are assumed to have occurred on the 15th of each month.13) Which one of these is frequently cited as an appropriate upper limit to the credit period offered by a seller?A) The buyer's inventory periodB) The seller's inventory periodC) The seller's operating cycleD) The buyer's operating cycleE) The buyer's receivables period14) Phil's Print Shop grants its customers the right to pay for their print jobs within 30 days of the ROG. Thus, the customers' credit period begins when they:A) review and approve the print order.B) renew their contract on a revolving print order.C) reorder a previously approved print job.D) receive their print jobs.E) request a new job be printed.15) Scott purchased a shovel, a rake, and a wheelbarrow from The Local Hardware Store yesterday. Today, the store issued a bill for these items and mailed it to Scott. What is the name given to this bill?A) Ledger statementB) WarrantyC) IndentureD) ReceiptE) Invoice16) Geoff Industries offers its credit customers a two percent discount if they pay within ten days. This discount is referred to as a ________ discount.A) cashB) purchaseC) collectionD) marketE) receivables17) Any written proof that a customer owes you money for goods or services provided is referred to as a(n):A) account document.B) sales draft.C) credit instrument.D) commercial paper.E) letter of debt.18) Which one of the following factors most supports a longer credit period being offered to customers?A) Higher consumer demandB) Lower priced merchandiseC) Increased credit riskD) More perishable merchandiseE) Increased competition19) Which one of the following statements related to credit periods is correct?A) Longer credit periods are granted for sales of perishable items.B) Inexpensive goods tend to have longer credit periods.C) Smaller accounts tend to have longer credit periods.D) Sellers may offer different credit periods to different customers.E) Newer products tend to have shorter credit periods.20) A trade discount of 2/5th, EOM terms:A) grants customers five days to pay after month end.B) offers no credit to customers.C) means the full amount is due by the 5th of the month following the month of sale.D) means the invoice is overdue only after month-end.E) means the full amount is due the last day of the month following the month of sale.21) Under credit terms of 1/5, net 15, customers should:A) Always pay on the 15th day.B) take the discount and pay immediately.C) take the discount and pay on the day following the day of sale.D) either take the discount or pay on the 15th day.E) both take the discount and pay on the 15th day.22) A 2/10, net 30 credit policy:A) is an expensive form of short-term credit if a buyer forgoes the discount.B) provides cheap financing to the buyer for 30 days.C) is an inexpensive means of reducing the seller's collection period if every customer takes the discount.D) tends to have little effect on the seller's collection period.E) tends to increase the seller's investment in receivables as compared to a straight net 30 policy.23) The Painted House offers credit terms of 2/10th, EOM. Assume you purchase an item on credit from this store on Monday, November 3. When is payment due for this purchase if you do not take the discount?A) November 3B) November 13C) November 30D) December 31E) December 1024) Which one of the following credit instruments is commonly used in international commerce?A) Open accountB) Sight draftC) Time draftD) Banker's acceptanceE) Promissory note25) A conditional sales contract:A) passes title to the goods sold to the buyer at the time the contract is signed.B) normally calls for one lump sum payment on the contract payment date.C) allows the seller to retain ownership of the goods sold until the customer has fully paid for the purchase.D) is payable immediately upon receipt.E) is a formal bid for a project.26) Which one of these statements is correct?A) A firm's cash cycle generally decreases when it switches from a cash to a credit policy, all else equal.B) Most customers will forgo the discount and pay at the end of the credit period.C) Total revenues generally decrease if both the quantity sold and the price per unit increase when credit is granted.D) Only the cost of default should be considered before granting credit.E) A firm may have to increase its long-term borrowing if it decides to grant credit to its customers.27) When considering a switch from an all-cash credit policy to a net 30 credit policy all of the following should be considered except the:A) revenue effects.B) effects on the variable costs.C) cost of the discount.D) probability of default.E) change in the fixed costs.28) The optimal amount of credit equates the incremental costs of carrying the increase in accounts receivable to the incremental:A) decrease in the cash cycle.B) benefit from decreasing the inventory level.C) cash flows from increased sales.D) increase in bad debts.E) gain in net profits.29) Assume you are viewing a graph that compares costs with the amount of credit extended. Both the carrying costs and the opportunity costs of credit are depicted. What is the function called that represents the summation of these carrying and opportunity costs?A) Opportunity cost curveB) Credit extension curveC) Credit cost curveD) Terms of sale graphE) Optimal sales graph30) Assume that RSF is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Rolled Steel Company. RSF provides credit financing solely for large ticket items purchased from the Rolled Steel Company. Which one of the following terms describes RSF?A) Credit departmentB) Parent companyC) Captive finance companyD) Credit unionE) Service unit31) When credit policy is at the optimal point, the:A) total costs of granting credit will be maximized.B) carrying costs of credit will be equal to zero.C) opportunity cost of credit will be equal to zero.D) carrying costs will equal the opportunity costs.E) total costs will equal the opportunity costs.32) Which of the following characteristics are most associated with a firm that adopts a liberal credit policy?A) Mostly one-time customers and excess capacityB) Low carrying costs and full productionC) Low carrying costs and high variable costsD) Low variable costs and predominately repeat customersE) Excess capacity and high variable costs33) If you extend credit for a one-time sale to a new customer, you risk an amount equal to the:A) sales price of the item sold.B) variable cost of the item sold.C) fixed cost of the item sold.D) profit margin on the item sold.E) fixed and variable costs of the item sold.34) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) If the majority of a firm's new customers become repeat customers, then there is a strong argument against extending credit even if the default rate is low.B) A customer's past payment history reveals little information in relation to his or her future tendency to pay.C) A suggested policy for offering credit to new customers is to limit the amount of their initial credit purchase.D) The risk of issuing credit is the same for a new customer as it is for an existing customer.E) The recommended policy for new customers is to extend an offer of a high credit limit as an enticement to get their business.35) When evaluating the creditworthiness of a customer, the term capital refers to the:A) type of goods the customer wishes to obtain.B) customer's financial reserves.C) types of assets the customer wants to pledge as collateral.D) customer's willingness to pay bills in a timely fashion.E) nature of the customer's line of work.36) Which one of the five Cs of credit refers to a customer's willingness to pay its bills?A) CharacterB) CapacityC) CollateralD) ConditionsE) Capital37) Which one of the five Cs of credit refers to the general economic situation in the customer's line of business?A) CapacityB) CharacterC) ConditionsD) CapitalE) Collateral38) The basic factors to be evaluated in the credit evaluation process, the five Cs of credit, are:A) conditions, control, cessation, capital, and capacity.B) conditions, character, capital, control, and capacity.C) capital, collateral, control, character, and capacity.D) character, capacity, control, cessation, and collateral.E) capacity, character, collateral, capital, and conditions.39) Roger's Home Appliances offers credit to customers it deems qualified based on a numerical value that estimates the probability that the customer will default if credit is granted to them. Theprocess of computing this numerical value is referred to as:A) credit scoring.B) Credit capacity.C) receipts assessment.D) conditions for credit.E) consumer analysis.40) You are an accounting intern and today you are compiling a spreadsheet with column headings of: Invoice number; Customer number; < 30 days; 31-60 days; 61-90 days; > 90 days. You will list every unpaid invoice with the amount owed entered into the appropriate column based on the number of days between the sale date and today. Once you have completed that, you will sort the report by customer number and total the amounts listed in each column. What is this report called?A) Credit reportB) Aging scheduleC) Risk assessment reportD) Turnover delineationE) Receivables consolidation report41) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) Firms may opt to refuse additional credit to a delinquent customer.B) Seasonal sales have little, if any, impact on aging schedule percentages.C) Normally, firms call their delinquent customers prior to sending them a past due letter.D) If a firm wishes to sell a delinquent receivable, it must do so prior to the customer filing for bankruptcy.E) Expected decreases in the average collection period are a cause of concern.42) Which one of the following inventory items is probably the least liquid?A) Plywood held in inventory by a home builderB) A wheel barrow held in inventory by a garden centerC) A partially assembled interior for a new vehicleD) A set of tires owned by an automobile manufacturerE) A toy owned by a retail toy store43) Which one of the following inventory items is probably the most liquid?A) A custom made set of kitchen cabinetsB) Metal cabinets for dishwashersC) Wheat stored in a grain siloD) A customized drill pressE) A partially built modular home44) Which one of the following inventory-related costs is considered a shortage cost?A) Storage costsB) Insurance costC) Loss of customer goodwillD) Theft costE) Opportunity cost of capital used for inventory purchases45) The ABC approach to inventory management is based on the concept that:A) inventory should arrive at the time it is needed in the manufacturing process.B) the inventory period should be constant for all inventory items.C) basic inventory items that are essential to production and also inexpensive should be ordered in small quantities only.D) a small percentage of inventory items represents a large percentage of inventory cost.E) one-third of a year's inventory needs should be on hand, another third should be on order, and the last third should be unordered.46) The EOQ model is designed to determine how much:A) total inventory a firm needs during any one year.B) total inventory costs will be for any one given year.C) inventory should be purchased at one time.D) inventory will be sold per day.E) a firm loses in sales per day when an inventory item is depleted.47) A particular inventory manager orders items only in quantities that minimize inventory costs. What is this restocking quantity called?A) Short order quantityB) Refill unit quantityC) Economic order quantityD) Minimum stock levelE) Re-order limit48) Allison has developed a set of procedures for determining the amount of each raw material she needs to have in inventory if she is to keep the assembly lines operating efficiently. These procedures are commonly referred to by which one of the following terms?A) First-in, first-out methodB) The Baumol modelC) Net working capital planningD) Economic order proceduresE) Materials requirements planning49) Which one of the following is a characteristic of a just-in-time inventory system?A) High level of dependence on supplier performanceB) Low inventory turnover ratesC) Long inventory periodsD) Unusually high inventory levelsE) Large, infrequent re-orders of raw materials50) At the optimal order quantity size, the:A) total cost of holding inventory is fully offset by the restocking costs.B) carrying costs are equal to zero.C) restocking costs are equal to zero.D) total costs equal the carrying costs.E) carrying costs equal the restocking costs.51) The EOQ model is designed to minimize:A) production costs.B) inventory obsolescence.C) the carrying costs of inventory.D) the costs of replenishing inventory.E) the total costs of holding inventory.52) Which one of the following items is most likely a derived-demand inventory item?A) Wrenches held in inventory by a hardware storeB) Tires held in inventory by a tractor manufacturerC) Shoes on display in a retail storeD) Toys just received by a toy storeE) Wheat harvested by a farmer53) Inventory needs under a derived-demand inventory system are:A) primarily dependent upon the competitive demands placed on a firm's suppliers.B) based on the anticipated demand for the finished product.C) based on minimizing the cost of restocking inventory.D) held constant over time.E) determined by a Kanban system.54) A just-in-time inventory system:A) eliminates all inventory costs.B) reduces the inventory turnover rate.C) averages long-term inventory needs.D) focuses on immediate production needs.E) maximizes inventory costs.55) The incremental investment in receivables under the accounts receivable approach is equal to:A) P −νQ'.B) PQ'.C) PQ + ν(Q'− Q).D) P(Q'− Q).E) PQ(Q'− Q).56) The accounts receivable approach to credit policy supports the theory that:A) a firm's risk of offering credit to a new customer is limited to the cost of the items sold.B) the best credit policy is an all-cash policy.C) the cost of offering credit to a new customer is the same as the cost of offering credit to an existing customer.D) increasing receivables guarantees increasing profits.E) the default risk of a credit policy is the same as the default risk under an all cash-policy if your customers remain the same.57) Which two of the following are the key elements in determining the break-even default rate on a credit policy?A) Credit price and cash price assuming a zero default rateB) Required rate of return and percentage discount for cash customersC) Variable cost per unit and required rate of returnD) Sales price and variable cost per unit for credit customersE) Credit price and discount rate for cash customers58) On average, CT Motors has daily credit sales of $42,390, an inventory period of 53 days, anda collection period of 26 days. What is the average accounts receivable balance?A) $757,900B) $968,810C) $1,102,140D) $1,015,500E) $896,30059) Music City has an average collection period of 34.6 days and an average daily investment in receivables of $71,407. What are the annual credit sales given a 365-day year?A) $668,407B) $577,109C) $753,282D) $625,893E) $767,12360) Turner's offers credit terms of net 30 with payments received an average of 2.8 days past their due date. Annual credit sales are $2.38 million. What is the average book value of accounts receivable? Assume a 365-day year.A) $213,874B) $223,333C) $211,667D) $215,407E) $223,59361) Winters' just purchased $42,911 of goods from its supplier with credit terms of 1/5, net 25. What is the discounted price?A) $40,765B) $41,209C) $42,482D) $42,911E) $43,30062) Today, October 12, Nadine's Fashions purchased merchandise from a supplier. The credit terms are 2/10, net 30. By what day does Nadine's have to make the payment to receive the discount? Assume a 30-day month.A) October 12B) October 14C) October 22D) October 27E) November 1263) The Green Hornet offers credit terms of 2/5, net 20. Based on experience, 93 percent of all customers will take the discount. The firm sells 487 units each month at a price of $649 each. What is the average book value of accounts receivable? Assume a 365-day year.A) $60,274B) $68,272C) $62,866D) $67,012E) $65,38764) A firm offers credit terms of 2/15, net 45. What effective annual interest rate does the firm earn when a customer forgoes the discount?A) 18.67 percentB) 20.45 percentC) 23.37 percentD) 25.34 percentE) 27.86 percent65) A supplier grants credit terms of 1/5, net 30. What is the effective annual rate of the discount on a purchase of $5,000?A) 17.24 percentB) 15.80 percentC) 18.80 percentD) 19.03 percentE) 12.27 percent66) Cape May Products currently sells 487 units a month at a price of $79 a unit. The firm believes it can increase its sales by an additional 42 units if it switches to a net 30 credit policy. The monthly interest rate is .25 percent and the variable cost per unit is $31.50. What is the incremental cash inflow from the proposed credit policy switch?A) $1,774B) $1,995C) $2,746D) $3,318E) $3,37567) Home Accents currently sells 219 units a month at a price of $46 a unit. If it switches to a net 30 credit policy, monthly sales are expected to increase by 28 units. The monthly interest rateis .57 percent and the variable cost per unit is $21. What is the net present value of the proposed credit policy switch?A) $112,145B) $108,895C) $106,507D) $586,799E) $621,13568) Currently, Glasgow Importers sells 855 units a month at a price of $39 a unit. By switching to a net 30 credit policy, sales should increase to 950 units while the price remains constant. The monthly interest rate is .61 percent and the variable cost per unit is $8. What is the net present value of the proposed credit policy switch?A) $513,360B) $516,892C) $490,200D) $537,520E) $448,68269) Currently, Tanner's sells 69 units a month at an average price of $499 a unit. The company thinks it can increase sales by an additional 32 units a month if it switches to a net 30 credit policy. The monthly interest rate is .48 percent and the variable cost per unit is $216. What is the incremental cash inflow of the proposed credit policy switch?A) $10,120B) $9,056C) $12,760D) $17,810E) $15,96870) New Products currently sells a product with a variable cost per unit of $23 and a unit selling price of $49. At the present time, the firm only sells on a cash basis with monthly sales of 733 units. The monthly interest rate is .48 percent. What is the value of Q' at the switch break-even point if the firm adopted a net 30 credit policy? Assume the selling price per unit and the variable costs per unit remain constant.A) 739.66 unitsB) 736.34 unitsC) 728.47 unitsD) 740.29 unitsE) 743.18 units71) Quest is considering a change in its cash-only sales policy. The new terms of sale would be net one month. The required return is .98 percent per month. Currently, the firm sells 420 units per month at $736 per unit. Under the new policy, the firm expects sales of 475 units also at $736 per unit. The variable cost per unit is $426. What is the NPV of switching?A) $1,228,750B) $1,407,246C) $1,335,021D) $1,238,250E) $1,056,78472) Saucier Co. currently sells 1,208 units a month for total monthly sales of $209,600. The firm is considering replacing its current cash only credit policy with a net 30 policy. The variable cost per unit is $106 and the monthly interest rate is .71 percent. What is the new sales quantity at the switch break-even level of sales? Assume the selling price per unit and the variable costs per unit remain constant.A) 1,143 unitsB) 1,267 unitsC) 1,230 unitsD) 1,306 unitsE) 1,148 units73) The Cellar Door currently sells 1,849 units a month for total monthly sales of $627,800. The company is considering replacing its current cash only credit policy with a net 30 policy. The variable cost per unit is $214 and the monthly interest rate is .87 percent. What is the new sales quantity at the switch break-even level of sales?A) 1,711 unitsB) 1,779 unitsC) 1,814 unitsD) 1,957 unitsE) 1,893 units74) The Dilana Corporation is considering a change in its cash-only policy. The new terms would be net one period. The required return is 1.5 percent per period. The firm has current sales of 3,500 units per month at a price of $71 per unit. The new policy is expected to increase sales to 3,550 units at a price of $71 per unit. The cost per unit is constant at $38. What is the incremental cash inflow of the new policy?A) $1,880B) $1,420C) $1,500D) $1,995E) $1,65075) A new customer has placed an order for a turbine engine that has a variable cost of $1.12 million per unit and a credit sales price of $1.64 million. Credit is extended for one period. Based on historical experience, payment for about 1 out of every 178 such orders is never collected. The required return is 2.1 percent per period. What is the NPV per unit if this is a one-time order?A) $516,407B) $421,819C) $477,244D) $534,290E) $351,05676) You can make a one-time sale if you will grant a new customer 30 days to pay. This customer wants to purchase an item with a sales price of $499 and a variable cost of $287. You estimate the probability of default at 33 percent. The monthly interest rate is .98 percent. Should you grant credit to this customer? Why or why not?A) Yes; because the NPV of the potential sale is $33.05B) Yes; because the NPV of the potential sale is $44.09C) Yes; because the NPV of the potential sale is $13.02D) No; because the NPV of the potential sale is −$13.05E) No; because the NPV of the potential sale is −$2.6577) The Cycle Shoppe has decided to offer credit to its customers during the spring selling season. Sales are expected to be 64 bikes with an average cost of $329 each. Four percent of customers are expected to default. To help identify those individuals, the shop is considering subscribing to a credit agency. The initial charge for their services is $250 with an additional charge of $7.50 per individual report. What is the amount of the net savings from subscribing to the credit agency?A) $108B) $92C) $84D) $112E) $10378) Assume all sales are one-time credit sales with a probability of collection of 96 percent. The variable cost per unit is $1.67, the sales price per unit is $4.99, and the monthly interest rate is1.35 percent. What is the NPV of a credit sale of one item?A) $3.18B) $2.87C) $3.38D) $2.92E) $3.0679) Assume a sales price of $119 per unit, a $76 per unit variable cost, an average default rate of 3 percent, and a monthly interest rate of 1.25 percent. What is the net present value of a new repeat customer who never defaults on his or her payment?A) $5,733B) $3,364C) $2,617D) $8,817E) $9,52080) Assume an average selling price of $547 per unit, a variable cost per unit of $339, a monthly interest rate of 1.1 percent, and a default rate of 3.1 percent. What is the NPV of extending credit for 30 days to all who are expected to become repeat customers?A) $17,984B) $19,787C) $12,304D) $18,662E) $13,60981) Lakeside Market sells 848 units of an item priced at $49 each year. The carrying cost per unit is $2.26 and the fixed costs per order are $46. What is the economic order quantity?A) 192 unitsB) 221 unitsC) 197 unitsD) 186 unitsE) 163 units82) High Mountain consistently sells 2,400 pairs of $189 skates annually. The fixed order costs is $56 and the carrying costs are $3.85 a pair. What is the economic order quantity?A) 246 pairsB) 215 pairsC) 229 pairsD) 264 pairsE) 248 pairs。
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter02_TB
Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 2 Financial Statements, Taxes, and Cash Flow1) Which one of the following is classified as a tangible fixed asset?A) Accounts receivableB) Production equipmentC) CashD) PatentE) Inventory2) Which one of the following is a current asset?A) Accounts payableB) TrademarkC) Accounts receivableD) Notes payableE) Equipment3) Which one of the following is included in a firm's market value but yet is excluded from the firm's accounting value?A) Real estate investmentB) Good reputation of the companyC) Equipment owned by the firmD) Money due from a customerE) An item held by the firm for future sale4) Which one of the following is a current liability?A) Note payable to a supplier in 13 monthsB) Amount due from a customer in two weeksC) Account payable to a supplier that is due next weekD) Loan payable to the bank in 18 monthsE) Amount due from a customer that is past due5) Which one of the following will decrease the value of a firm's net working capital?A) Using cash to pay a supplierB) Depreciating an assetC) Collecting an accounts receivableD) Purchasing inventory on creditE) Selling inventory at a loss6) Which one of the following statements concerning net working capital is correct?A) Net working capital increases when inventory is purchased with cash.B) Net working capital excludes inventory.C) Total assets must increase if net working capital increases.D) Net working capital may be a negative value.E) Net working capital is the amount of cash a firm currently has available for spending.7) Which one of the following statements concerning net working capital is correct?A) A firm's ability to meet its current obligations increases as the firm's net working capital decreases.B) An increase in net working capital must also increase current assets.C) Net working capital increases when inventory is sold for cash at a profit.D) Firms with equal amounts of net working capital are also equally liquid.E) Net working capital is a part of the operating cash flow.8) Which one of the following accounts is the most liquid?A) InventoryB) BuildingC) Accounts ReceivableD) EquipmentE) Land9) Which one of the following represents the most liquid asset?A) $100 account receivable that is discounted and collected for $96 todayB) $100 of inventory that is sold today on credit for $103C) $100 of inventory that is discounted and sold for $97 cash todayD) $100 of inventory that is sold today for $100 cashE) $100 of accounts receivable that will be collected in full next week10) Which one of the following statements related to liquidity is correct?A) Liquid assets tend to earn a high rate of return.B) Liquid assets are valuable to a firm.C) Liquid assets are defined as assets that can be sold quickly regardless of the price obtained.D) Inventory is more liquid than accounts receivable because inventory is tangible.E) Any asset that can be sold is considered liquid.11) Shareholders' equity:A) is referred to as a firm's financial leverage.B) is equal to total assets plus total liabilities.C) decreases whenever new shares of stock are issued.D) includes patents, preferred stock, and common stock.E) represents the residual value of a firm.12) As the degree of financial leverage increases, the:A) probability a firm will encounter financial distress increases.B) amount of a firm's total debt decreases.C) less debt a firm has per dollar of total assets.D) number of outstanding shares of stock increases.E) accounts payable balance decreases.13) The book value of a firm is:A) equivalent to the firm's market value provided that the firm has some fixed assets.B) based on historical cost.C) generally greater than the market value when fixed assets are included.D) more of a financial than an accounting valuation.E) adjusted to the market value whenever the market value exceeds the stated book value.14) The value of which one of the following is included in the market value of a firm but is excluded from the firm's book value?A) Office equipmentB) CopyrightC) Distribution warehouseD) Employee's experienceE) Land acquired over 25 years ago15) You recently purchased a grocery store. At the time of the purchase, the store's market value and its book value were equal. The purchase included the building, fixtures, and inventory. Which one of the following is most apt to cause the market value of this store to be less than its book value?A) A sudden and unexpected increase in inflationB) The replacement of old inventory items with more desirable productsC) Improvements to the surrounding area by other store ownersD) Construction of a new restricted access highway located between the store and the surrounding residential areasE) Addition of a stop light at the main entrance to the store's parking lot16) Which one of the following is the financial statement that shows the accounting value of a firm's equity as of a particular date?A) Income statementB) Creditor's statementC) Balance sheetD) Statement of cash flowsE) Dividend statement17) Net working capital is defined as:A) total liabilities minus shareholders' equity.B) current liabilities minus shareholders' equity.C) fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.D) total assets minus total liabilities.E) current assets minus current liabilities.18) Which one of these sets forth the common set of standards and procedures by which audited financial statements are prepared?A) Matching principleB) Cash flow identityC) Generally Accepted Accounting PrinciplesD) Financial Accounting Reporting PrinciplesE) Standard Accounting Value Guidelines19) Which one of the following is the financial statement that summarizes a firm's revenue and expenses over a period of time?A) Income statementB) Balance sheetC) Statement of cash flowsD) Tax reconciliation statementE) Market value report20) Noncash items refer to:A) fixed expenses.B) inventory items purchased using credit.C) the ownership of intangible assets such as patents.D) expenses that do not directly affect cash flows.E) sales that are made using store credit.21) Which one of the following is true according to generally accepted accounting principles?A) Depreciation is recorded based on the market value principle.B) Income is recorded based on the realization principle.C) Costs are recorded based on the realization principle.D) Depreciation is recorded based on the recognition principle.E) Costs of goods sold are recorded based on the recognition principle.22) Which one of these is most apt to be a fixed cost?A) Raw materialsB) Manufacturing wagesC) Management bonusesD) Office salariesE) Shipping and freight23) Which one of the following statements is correct assuming accrual accounting is used?A) The addition to retained earnings is equal to net income plus dividends paid.B) Credit sales are recorded on the income statement when the cash from the sale is collected.C) The labor costs for producing a product are expensed when the product is sold.D) Interest is a non-cash expense.E) Depreciation increases the marginal tax rate.24) The percentage of the next dollar you earn that must be paid in taxes is referred to as the________ tax rate.A) meanB) residualC) totalD) averageE) marginal25) The ________ tax rate is equal to total taxes divided by total taxable income.A) deductibleB) residualC) totalD) averageE) marginal26) Which one of the following statements related to corporate taxes is correct?A) A company's marginal tax rate must be equal to or lower than its average tax rate.B) The tax for a company is computed by multiplying the marginal tax rate times the taxable income.C) Additional income is taxed at a firm's average tax rate.D) The marginal tax rate will always exceed a company's average tax rate.E) The marginal tax rate for a company can be either higher than or equal to the average tax rate.27) Which one of the following statements concerning corporate income taxes is correct for 2018?A) All corporations are exempt from federal taxation.B) Corporations pay no tax on their first $50,000 of income.C) The federal income tax on corporations is a flat-rate tax with the same rate applying to all levels of taxable income.D) The marginal tax rate will always be lower than the average tax rate.E) The first 25 percent of corporate income is exempt from taxation.28) The cash flow that is available for distribution to a corporation's creditors and stockholders is called the:A) operating cash flow.B) net capital spending.C) net working capital.D) cash flow from assets.E) cash flow to stockholders.29) Which term relates to the cash flow that results from a company's ongoing, normal business activities?A) Operating cash flowB) Capital spendingC) Net working capitalD) Cash flow from assetsE) Cash flow to creditors30) Cash flow from assets is also known as the firm's:A) capital structure.B) equity structure.C) hidden cash flow.D) free cash flow.E) historical cash flow.31) The cash flow related to interest payments less any net new borrowing is called the:A) operating cash flow.B) capital spending cash flow.C) net working capital.D) cash flow from assets.E) cash flow to creditors.32) Cash flow to stockholders is defined as:A) the total amount of interest and dividends paid during the past year.B) the change in total equity over the past year.C) cash flow from assets plus the cash flow to creditors.D) operating cash flow minus the cash flow to creditors.E) dividend payments less net new equity raised.33) Which one of the following is an expense for accounting purposes but is not an operating cash flow for financial purposes?A) Interest expenseB) TaxesC) Cost of goods soldD) Labor costsE) Administrative expenses34) Depreciation for a tax-paying firm:A) increases expenses and lowers taxes.B) increases the net fixed assets as shown on the balance sheet.C) reduces both the net fixed assets and the costs of a firm.D) is a noncash expense that increases the net income.E) decreases net fixed assets, net income, and operating cash flows.35) Which one of the following statements related to an income statement is correct?A) Interest expense increases the amount of tax due.B) Depreciation does not affect taxes since it is a non-cash expense.C) Net income is distributed to dividends and paid-in surplus.D) Taxes reduce both net income and operating cash flow.E) Interest expense is included in operating cash flow.36) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning a corporation with taxable income of $125,000?A) Taxable income minus dividends paid will equal the ending retained earnings for the year.B) An increase in depreciation will increase the operating cash flow.C) Net income divided by the number of shares outstanding will equal the dividends per share.D) Interest paid will be included in both net income and operating cash flow.E) An increase in the tax rate will increase both net income and operating cash flow.37) Which one of the following will increase the cash flow from assets, all else equal?A) Decrease in cash flow to stockholdersB) Decrease in operating cash flowC) Decrease in the change in net working capitalD) Decrease in cash flow to creditorsE) Increase in net capital spending38) For a tax-paying firm, an increase in ________ will cause the cash flow from assets to increase.A) depreciationB) net capital spendingC) the change in net working capitalD) taxesE) production costs39) Which one of the following must be true if a firm had a negative cash flow from assets?A) The firm borrowed money.B) The firm acquired new fixed assets.C) The firm had a net loss for the period.D) The firm utilized outside funding.E) Newly issued shares of stock were sold.40) An increase in the interest expense for a firm with a taxable income of $123,000 will:A) increase net income.B) increase gross income.C) increase the cash flow from assets.D) decrease the cash flow from equity.E) decrease the operating cash flow.41) Which one of the following is excluded from the cash flow from assets?A) Accounts payableB) InventoryC) SalesD) Interest expenseE) Cost of goods sold42) Net capital spending:A) is equal to ending net fixed assets minus beginning net fixed assets.B) is equal to zero if the decrease in the net fixed assets is equal to the depreciation expense.C) reflects the net changes in total assets over a stated period of time.D) is equivalent to the cash flow from assets minus the operating cash flow minus the change in net working capital.E) is equal to the net change in the current accounts.43) Which one of the following statements related to the cash flow to creditors must be correct?A) If the cash flow to creditors is positive, then the firm must have borrowed more money than it repaid.B) If the cash flow to creditors is negative, then the firm must have a negative cash flow from assets.C) A positive cash flow to creditors represents a net cash outflow from the firm.D) A positive cash flow to creditors means that a firm has increased its long-term debt.E) If the cash flow to creditors is zero, then a firm has no long-term debt.44) A positive cash flow to stockholders indicates which one of the following with certainty?A) The dividends paid exceeded the net new equity raised.B) The amount of the sale of common stock exceeded the amount of dividends paid.C) No dividends were distributed, but new shares of stock were sold.D) Both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors must be negative.E) Both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors must be positive.45) A firm has $680 in inventory, $2,140 in fixed assets, $210 in accounts receivables, $250 in accounts payable, and $80 in cash. What is the amount of the net working capital?A) $970B) $720C) $640D) $3,110E) $2,86046) A firm has net working capital of $560. Long-term debt is $3,970, total assets are $7,390, and fixed assets are $3,910. What is the amount of the total liabilities?A) $2,050B) $2,920C) $4,130D) $7,950E) $6,89047) A firm has common stock of $6,200, paid-in surplus of $9,100, total liabilities of $8,400,current assets of $5,900, and fixed assets of $21,200. What is the amount of the shareholders' equity?A) $6,900B) $15,300C) $18,700D) $23,700E) $35,50048) Your firm has total assets of $4,900, fixed assets of $3,200, long-term debt of $2,900, and short-term debt of $1,400. What is the amount of net working capital?A) −$100B) $300C) $600D) $1,700E) $1,80049) Bonner Automotive has shareholders' equity of $218,700. The firm owes a total of $141,000 of which 40 percent is payable within the next year. The firm has net fixed assets of $209,800. What is the amount of the net working capital?A) $149,900B) $93,500C) $125,600D) −$47,500E) $56,50050) Four years ago, Ship Express purchased a mailing machine at a cost of $218,000. This equipment is currently valued at $97,400 on today's balance sheet but could actually be sold for $92,900. This is the only fixed asset the firm owns. Net working capital is $41,300 and long-term debt is $102,800. What is the book value of shareholders' equity?A) $31,400B) $47,700C) $35,900D) $249,400E) $253,90051) The What-Not Shop owns the building in which it is located. This building initially cost $647,000 and is currently appraised at $819,000. The fixtures originally cost $148,000 and are currently valued at $65,000. The inventory has a book value of $319,000 and a market value equal to 1.1 times the book value. The shop expects to collect 96 percent of the $21,700 in accounts receivable. The shop has $26,800 in cash and total debt of $414,700. What is the market value of the shop's equity?A) $867,832B) $900,166C) $695,832D) $775,632E) $1,190,33252) The Widget Co. purchased all of its fixed assets three years ago for $4 million. These assets can be sold today for $2 million. The current balance sheet shows net fixed assets of $2,500,000, current liabilities of $1,375,000, and net working capital of $725,000. If all the current assets were liquidated today, the company would receive $1.9 million in cash. The book value of the total assets today is ________ and the market value of those assets is ________.A) $4,600,000; $3,900,000B) $4,600,000; $3,125,000C) $5,000,000; $3,125,000D) $5,000,000; $3,900,000E) $6,500,000; $3,900,00053) JJ Enterprises has inventory of $11,600, fixed assets of $22,400, total liabilities of $12,900, cash of $1,900, accounts receivable of $8,700, and long-term debt of $6,500. What is the net working capital?A) $44,600B) $15,700C) $12,600D) $15,800E) $9,30054) The River Side Stop has a current market value of $26,400 and owes its creditors $31,300. What is the market value of the shareholders' equity?A) −$4,900B) −$5,200C) $0D) $4,900E) $5,20055) Jensen Enterprises paid $700 in dividends and $320 in interest this past year. Common stock remained constant at $6,800 and retained earnings decreased by $180. What is the net income for the year?A) $180B) $520C) $1,020D) $880E) $1,20056) Andre's Bakery has sales of $487,000 with costs of $263,000. Interest expense is $26,000 and depreciation is $42,000. The tax rate is 21 percent. What is the net income?A) $142,750B) $123,240C) $109,000D) $128,700E) $134,55057) Hayes Bakery has sales of $30,600, costs of $15,350, an addition to retained earnings of $4,221, dividends paid of $469, interest expense of $1,300, and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the amount of the depreciation expense?A) $4,820.13B) $5,500.89C) $8,013.29D) $8,180.01E) $9,500.0058) Last year, Kaylor Equipment had $15,900 of sales, $500 of net new equity, dividend payments of $75, an addition to retained earnings of $418, depreciation of $680, and $511 of interest expense. What are the earnings before interest and taxes at a tax rate of 21 percent?A) $589.46B) $1,135.05C) $1,331.54D) $1,560.85E) $949.4659) Galaxy Interiors income statement shows depreciation of $1,611, sales of $21,415, interest paid of $1,282, net income of $1,374, and costs of goods sold of $16,408. What is the amount of the noncash expenses?A) $2,893B) $1,282C) $740D) $1,611E) $2,35160) Beach Front Industries has sales of $546,000, costs of $295,000, depreciation expense of $37,000, interest expense of $15,000, and a tax rate of 21 percent. The firm paid $59,000 in cash dividends. What is the addition to retained earnings?A) $98,210B) $81,700C) $95,200D) $103,460E) $121,68061) Keisler's has cost of goods sold of $11,518, interest expense of $315, dividends of $420, depreciation of $811, and a change in retained earnings of $296. What is the taxable income given a tax rate of 21 percent?A) $955.38B) $967.78C) $906.33D) $776.41E) $646.1562) What is the average tax rate for a firm with taxable income of $118,740 in 2017?Taxable Income Tax Rate$ 0 - 50,000 15 %50,001 - 75,000 2575,001 - 100,000 34100,001 - 335,000 39A) 26.68 percentB) 34.87 percentC) 24.89 percentD) 36.67 percentE) 39.00 percent63) For 2017, Nevada Mining had projected taxable income of $94,800. Its actual taxable income exceeded this projection by $21,000. How much additional tax did the firm owe due to the $21,000 increase in taxable income?Taxable Income Tax Rate$ 0 - 50,000 15 %50,001 - 75,000 2575,001 - 100,000 34100,001 - 335,000 39A) $7,930B) $8,036C) $8,150D) $7,682E) $8,19764) In 2017, Boyer Enterprises had $76,700 in taxable income. What was the firm's average tax rate for the year?Taxable Income Tax Rate$ 0 - 50,000 15 %50,001 - 75,000 2575,001 - 100,000 34100,001 - 335,000 39A) 28.25 percentB) 18.68 percentC) 26.48 percentD) 20.14 percentE) 29.03 percent65) Winston Industries had sales of $843,800 and costs of $609,900. The company paid $38,200 in interest and $35,000 in dividends. The depreciation was $76,400. The firm has a combined tax rate of 24 percent. What was the addition to retained earnings for the year?A) $55,668B) $57,240C) $61,060D) $56,200E) $68,40066) RTF Oil has total sales of $911,400 and costs of $787,300. Depreciation is $52,600 and the tax rate is 21 percent. The firm is all-equity financed. What is the operating cash flow?A) $108,410B) $108,320C) $109,924D) $106,417E) $109,08567) Nielsen Auto Parts had beginning net fixed assets of $218,470 and ending net fixed assets of $209,411. During the year, assets with a book value of $6,943 were sold. Depreciation for the year was $42,822. What is the amount of net capital spending?A) $33,763B) $40,706C) $58,218D) $65,161E) $67,40868) At the beginning of the year, a firm had current assets of $121,306 and current liabilities of $124,509. At the end of the year, the current assets were $122,418 and the current liabilities were $103,718. What is the change in net working capital?A) −$19,679B) −$11,503C) $19,387D) $15,497E) $21,90369) At the beginning of the year, the long-term debt of a firm was $72,918 and total debt was $138,407. At the end of the year, long-term debt was $68,219 and total debt was $145,838. The interest paid was $6,430. What is the amount of the cash flow to creditors?A) $1,731B) −$1,001C) $11,129D) $13,861E) $19,17270) Ernie's Home Repair had beginning long-term debt of $51,207 and ending long-term debt of $36,714. The beginning and ending total debt balances were $59,513 and $42,612, respectively. The interest paid was $2,808. What is the amount of the cash flow to creditors?A) −$11,685B) −$11,272C) $17,301D) $17,418E) $11,17471) The Daily News has projected annual net income of $272,600, of which 28 percent will be distributed as dividends. Assume the company will have net sales of $75,000 worth of common stock. What will be the cash flow to stockholders if the tax rate is 21 percent?A) −$75,000B) $1,328C) $24,623.52D) $76,328E) $151,32872) The Lakeside Inn had operating cash flow of $48,450. Depreciation was $6,700 and interest paid was $2,480. A net total of $2,620 was paid on long-term debt. The firm spent $24,000 on fixed assets and decreased net working capital by $1,330. What was the amount of the cash flow to stockholders?A) $5,100B) $7,830C) $18,020D) $19,998E) $20,68073) For the past year, Galaxy Interiors had depreciation of $2,419, beginning total assets of $23,616, and ending total assets of $21,878. Current assets decreased by $1,356. What was the amount of net capital spending for the year?A) −$382B) $2,037C) $2,801D) $1,993E) $1,17274) Carlisle Express paid $1,282 in interest and $975 in dividends last year. Current assets increased by $2,700, current liabilities decreased by $420, and long-term debt increased by $2,200. What was the cash flow to creditors?A) −$530B) −$918C) $1,839D) 2,132E) $3,09475) CBC Industries has sales of $21,415, interest paid of $1,282, costs of $9,740, and depreciation of $1,480. What is the operating cash flow if the tax rate is 22 percent?A) $10,114.14B) $9,900.86C) $8,985.86D) $8,536.67E) $9,714.1476) Williamsburg Markets has an operating cash flow of $4,267 and depreciation of $1,611. Current assets decreased by $1,356 while current liabilities decreased by $2,662, and net fixed assets decreased by $382 during the year. What is free cash flow for the year?A) $1,732B) $2,247C) $2,961D) $3,915E) $4,26777) Up Towne Cleaners has taxable income of $48,900 and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the change in retained earnings if the firm pays $20,200 in dividends for the year?A) $18,942B) $19,948C) $19,374D) $18,431E) $18,57478) For the year, B&K United increased current liabilities by $1,400, decreased cash by $1,200, increased net fixed assets by $340, increased accounts receivable by $200, and decreased inventory by $150. What is the annual change in net working capital?A) −$2,550B) −$70C) $590D) $550E) −$2,21079) TJH, Inc. purchased $145,000 in new equipment and sold equipment with a net book value of $68,400 during the year. What is the amount of net capital spending if the depreciation was $38,600?A) $115,200B) $76,600C) $94,200D) $38,000E) −$38,00080) Nu Furniture has sales of $241,000, depreciation of $32,200, interest expense of $35,700, costs of $103,400, and taxes of $14,637. What is the operating cash flow for the year?A) $108,229B) $121,367C) $122,963D) $117,766E) $128,03781) HiWay Furniture has sales of $316,000, depreciation of $47,200, interest expense of $41,400, costs of $148,200, and taxes of $16,632. The firm has net capital spending of $36,400 and a decrease in net working capital of $14,300. What is the cash flow from assets for the year?A) $145,985B) $129,068C) $119,655D) $120,810E) $134,58582) At the beginning of the year, Trees Galore had current liabilities of $15,932 and total debt of $68,847. By year end, current liabilities were $13,870 and total debt was $72,415. What is the amount of net new borrowing for the year?A) $5,630B) −$2,480C) $3,568D) $4,677E) −$2,06283) JJ Enterprises has current assets of $10,406, long-term debt of $4,780, and current liabilities of $9,822 at the beginning of the year. At year end, current assets are $11,318, long-term debt is $5,010, and current liabilities are $9,741. The firm paid $277 in interest and $320 in dividends during the year. What is the cash flow to creditors for the year?A) −$47B) −$507C) −$97D) $47E) $50784) BK Enterprises neither sold nor repurchased any shares of stock during the year. The firm had annual sales of $7,202, depreciation of $1,196, cost of goods sold of $4,509, interest expense of $318, taxes of $248, beginning-of-year shareholders' equity of $4,808, and end-of-year shareholders' equity of $4,922. What is the amount of dividends paid during the year?A) $817B) $1,009C) $864D) $709E) $51585) Carlisle Carpets has cost of goods sold of $92,511, interest expense of $4,608, dividends paid of $3,200, depreciation of $14,568, an increase in retained earnings of $11,920, and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the operating cash flow?A) $34,296.00B) $42,122.42C) $36,462.58D) $31,543.10E) $36,741.42。
《公司理财》第十二章考题
《公司理财》第十二章财务预测与价值评估考情提要逐题击破一、单选题1.某公司资产负债率为60%，并保持目前的资本结构不变，净投资和债务净増加存在固定比例关系。
预计净利润180万元，预计未来年度需要増加的经营营运资本为60万元，增加的资本支出为80万元，折旧70万元，如不考虑经营现金流量，则未来的股权自由现金流量为（）。
A.152万元B.100万元C.175万元D.125万元2.下列有关增长率的说法错误的是（）。
A.内含增长率是外部资金需要量为零时公司能够达到的最大销售增长率B.可持续増长率是在杠杆比率保持不变的条件下公司能够实现的最大销售增长率C.内含增长率和可持续增长率都与销售净利率正相关，与股利支付率负相关D.可持续增长率一般低于内含增长率3.A公司净利润和股利的增长率都是6%，β系数为0.90，股票市场的风险溢价为10%，无风险利率为4%，今年的每股收益为0.5元，分配股利0.2元；B公司是与A公司类似的公司，今年实际每股收益为3元，预计明年的每股收益为3.6元，则根据A公司的本期市盈率估计的B公司股票价值为（）。
A.18.18元B.24元C.25元D.16.17元4.A公司今年的每股收益是1元，分配股利0.3元/股，该公司利润和股利的增长率每年均为5%，β系数为1.1。
国债利率为3.5%，股票市场的风险溢价为5%，则该公司的市盈率是（）。
A.9.76B.7.88C.6.67D.8.465.采用销售百分比法预测资金需要量时，下列项目中被视为不随销售收入的变动而变动的是（）。
A.现金B.应付账款C.存货D.公司债券二、名词解释6.会计分析7.财务预测8.内含增长率9.可持续增长率三、简答题四、应用题五、论述题长期财务计划有哪些重要环节？其中最重要的环节有哪些？参考答案一、单选题1.答案:A解析:股权自由现金流量=180+（70-80）×（1-60%）-60×（1-60%）=152（万元）2.答案:D解析:可持续增长率是指在财务杠杆不变的条件下，运用内部资金和外部资金所能支持的销售最大增长率。
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter03_TB
Fundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 3 Working with Financial Statements1) Which one of the following is a source of cash for a tax-exempt firm?A) Increase in accounts receivableB) Increase in depreciationC) Decrease in accounts payableD) Increase in common stockE) Increase in inventory2) Which one of the following is a use of cash?A) Decrease in fixed assetsB) Decrease in inventoryC) Increase in long-term debtD) Decrease in accounts receivablesE) Decrease in accounts payable3) Which one of the following is a source of cash?A) Repurchase of common stockB) Acquisition of debtC) Purchase of inventoryD) Payment to a supplierE) Granting credit to a customer4) Which one of the following is a source of cash?A) Increase in accounts receivableB) Decrease in common stockC) Increase in fixed assetsD) Decrease in accounts payableE) Decrease in inventory5) On the statement of cash flows, which one of the following is considered a financing activity?A) Increase in inventoryB) Decrease in accounts payableC) Increase in net working capitalD) Dividends paidE) Decrease in fixed assets6) On the statement of cash flows, which one of the following is considered an operating activity?A) Increase in net fixed assetsB) Decrease in accounts payableC) Purchase of equipmentD) Dividends paidE) Repayment of long-term debt7) According to the statement of cash flows, an increase in inventory will ________ the cash flow from ________ activities.A) increase; operatingB) decrease; financingC) decrease; operatingD) increase; financingE) increase; investment8) According to the statement of cash flows, an increase in interest expense will ________ the cash flow from ________ activities.A) decrease; operatingB) decrease; financingC) increase; operatingD) increase; financingE) Increase; investment9) Activities of a firm that require the spending of cash are known as:A) sources of cash.B) uses of cash.C) cash collections.D) cash receipts.E) cash on hand.10) The sources and uses of cash over a stated period of time are reflected on the:A) income statement.B) balance sheet.C) tax reconciliation statement.D) statement of cash flows.E) statement of operating position.11) A common-size income statement is an accounting statement that expresses all of a firm's expenses as a percentage of:A) total assets.B) total equity.C) net income.D) taxable income.E) sales.12) Which one of the following standardizes items on the income statement and balance sheet relative to their values as of a chosen point in time?A) Statement of standardizationB) Statement of cash flowsC) Common-base year statementD) Common-size statementE) Base reconciliation statement13) On a common-size balance sheet all accounts for the current year are expressed as a percentage of:A) sales for the period.B) the base year sales.C) total equity for the base year.D) total assets for the current year.E) total assets for the base year.14) On a common-base year financial statement, accounts receivables for the current year will be expressed relative to which one of the following?A) Current year salesB) Current year total assetsC) Base-year salesD) Base-year total assetsE) Base-year accounts receivables15) Which one of the following ratios is a measure of a firm's liquidity?A) Cash coverage ratioB) Profit marginC) Debt-equity ratioD) Quick ratioE) NWC turnover16) An increase in current liabilities will have which one of the following effects, all else held constant? Assume all ratios have positive values.A) Increase in the cash ratioB) Increase in the net working capital to total assets ratioC) Decrease in the quick ratioD) Decrease in the cash coverage ratioE) Increase in the current ratio17) An increase in which one of the following will increase a firm's quick ratio without affecting its cash ratio?A) Accounts payableB) CashC) InventoryD) Accounts receivableE) Fixed assets18) A supplier, who requires payment within 10 days, should be most concerned with which one of the following ratios when granting credit?A) CurrentB) CashC) Debt-equityD) QuickE) Total debt19) A firm has an interval measure of 48. This means that the firm has sufficient liquid assets to do which one of the following?A) Pay all of its debts that are due within the next 48 hoursB) Pay all of its debts that are due within the next 48 daysC) Cover its operating costs for the next 48 hoursD) Cover its operating costs for the next 48 daysE) Meet the demands of its customers for the next 48 hours20) Ratios that measure a firm's liquidity are known as ________ ratios.A) asset managementB) long-term solvencyC) short-term solvencyD) profitabilityE) book value21) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) If the total debt ratio is greater than .50, then the debt-equity ratio must be less than 1.0.B) Long-term creditors would prefer the times interest earned ratio be 1.4 rather than 1.5.C) The debt-equity ratio can be computed as 1 plus the equity multiplier.D) An equity multiplier of 1.2 means a firm has $1.20 in sales for every $1 in equity.E) An increase in the depreciation expense will not affect the cash coverage ratio.22) If a firm has a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, then its total debt ratio must be which one of the following?A) 0B) .5C) 1.0D) 1.5E) 2.023) The cash coverage ratio directly measures the ability of a company to meet its obligation to pay:A) an invoice to a supplier.B) wages to an employee.C) interest to a lender.D) principal to a lender.E) a dividend to a shareholder.24) All-State Moving had sales of $899,000 in 2017 and $967,000 in 2018. The firm's current accounts remained constant. Given this information, which one of the following statements must be true?A) The total asset turnover rate increased.B) The days' sales in receivables increased.C) The net working capital turnover rate increased.D) The fixed asset turnover decreased.E) The receivables turnover rate decreased.25) The Corner Hardware has succeeded in increasing the amount of goods it sells while holding the amount of inventory on hand at a constant level. Assume that both the cost per unit and the selling price per unit also remained constant. This accomplishment will be reflected in the firm's financial ratios in which one of the following ways?A) Decrease in the inventory turnover rateB) Decrease in the net working capital turnover rateC) Increase in the fixed asset turnover rateD) Decrease in the day's sales in inventoryE) Decrease in the total asset turnover rate26) RJ's has a fixed asset turnover rate of 1.26 and a total asset turnover rate of .97. Sam's has a fixed asset turnover rate of 1.31 and a total asset turnover rate of .94. Both companies have similar operations. Based on this information, RJ's must be doing which one of the following?A) Utilizing its fixed assets more efficiently than Sam'sB) Utilizing its total assets more efficiently than Sam'sC) Generating $1 in sales for every $1.26 in net fixed assetsD) Generating $1.26 in net income for every $1 in net fixed assetsE) Maintaining the same level of current assets as Sam's27) Ratios that measure how efficiently a firm manages its assets and operations to generate net income are referred to as ________ ratios.A) asset managementB) long-term solvencyC) short-term solvencyD) profitabilityE) turnover28) If a company produces a return on assets of 14 percent and also a return on equity of 14 percent, then the firm:A) may have short-term, but not long-term debt.B) is using its assets as efficiently as possible.C) has no net working capital.D) has a debt-equity ratio of 1.0.E) has an equity multiplier of 1.0.29) Which one of the following will decrease if a firm can decrease its operating costs, all else constant?A) Return on equityB) Return on assetsC) Profit marginD) Total asset turnoverE) Price-earnings ratio30) Al's has a price-earnings ratio of 18.5. Ben's also has a price-earnings ratio of 18.5. Which one of the following statements must be true if Al's has a higher PEG ratio than Ben's?A) Al's has more net income than Ben's.B) Ben's is increasing its earnings at a faster rate than Al's.C) Al's has a higher market value per share than does Ben's.D) Ben's has a lower market-to-book ratio than Al's.E) Al's has a higher earnings growth rate than Ben's.31) Tobin's Q relates the market value of a firm's assets to which one of the following?A) Initial cost of creating the firmB) Current book value of the firmC) Average asset value of similar firmsD) Average market value of similar firmsE) Today's cost to duplicate those assets32) The price-sales ratio is especially useful when analyzing firms that have:A) volatile market prices.B) negative earnings.C) positive PEG ratios.D) a high Tobin's Q.E) increasing sales.33) Mortgage lenders probably have the most interest in the ________ ratios.A) return on assets and profit marginB) long-term debt and times interest earnedC) price-earnings and debt-equityD) market-to-book and times interest earnedE) return on equity and price-earnings34) Relationships determined from a company's financial information and used for comparison purposes are known as:A) financial ratios.B) identities.C) dimensional analysis.D) scenario analysis.E) solvency analysis.35) DL Farms currently has $600 in debt for every $1,000 in equity. Assume the company uses some of its cash to decrease its debt while maintaining its current equity and net income. Which one of the following will decrease as a result of this action?A) Equity multiplierB) Total asset turnoverC) Profit marginD) Return on assetsE) Return on equity36) Which one of these identifies the relationship between the return on assets and the return on equity?A) Profit marginB) Profitability determinantC) Balance sheet multiplierD) DuPont identityE) Debt-equity ratio37) Which one of the following accurately describes the three parts of the DuPont identity?A) Equity multiplier, profit margin, and total asset turnoverB) Debt-equity ratio, capital intensity ratio, and profit marginC) Operating efficiency, equity multiplier, and profitability ratioD) Return on assets, profit margin, and equity multiplierE) Financial leverage, operating efficiency, and profitability ratio38) An increase in which of the following must increase the return on equity, all else constant?A) Total assets and salesB) Net income and total equityC) Total asset turnover and debt-equity ratioD) Equity multiplier and total equityE) Debt-equity ratio and total debt39) Which one of the following is a correct formula for computing the return on equity?A) Profit margin × ROAB) ROA × Equity multiplierC) Profit margin × Total asset turnover × Debt-equity ratioD) Net income/Total assetsE) Debt-equity ratio × ROA40) The DuPont identity can be used to help managers answer which of the following questions related to a company's operations?I. How many sales dollars are being generated per each dollar of assets?II. How many dollars of assets have been acquired per each dollar in shareholders' equity? III. How much net profit is being generating per dollar of sales?IV. Does the company have the ability to meet its debt obligations in a timely manner?A) I and III onlyB) II and IV onlyC) I, II, and III onlyD) II, III and IV onlyE) I, II, III, and IV41) The U.S. government coding system that classifies a company by the nature of its business operations is known as the:A) Centralized Business Index.B) Peer Grouping codes.C) Standard Industrial Classification codes.D) Governmental ID codes.E) Government Engineered Coding System.42) Which one of the following statements is correct?A) Book values should always be given precedence over market values.B) Financial statements are rarely used as the basis for performance evaluations.C) Historical information is useful when projecting a company's future performance.D) Potential lenders place little value on financial statement information.E) Reviewing financial information over time has very limited value.43) The most acceptable method of evaluating the financial statements is to compare the company's current financial:A) ratios to the company's historical ratios.B) statements to the financial statements of similar companies operating in other countries.C) ratios to the average ratios of all companies located within the same geographic area.D) statements to those of larger companies in unrelated industries.E) statements to the projections that were created based on Tobin's Q.44) All of the following issues represent problems encountered when comparing the financial statements of two separate entities except the issue of the companies:A) being conglomerates with unrelated lines of business.B) having geographically varying operations.C) using differing accounting methods.D) differing seasonal peaks.E) having the same fiscal year.45) Which one of these is the least important factor to consider when comparing the financial situations of utility companies that generate electric power and have the same SIC code?A) Type of ownershipB) Government regulations affecting the firmC) Fiscal year endD) Methods of power generationE) Number of part-time employees46) At the beginning of the year, Brick Makers had cash of $183, accounts receivable of $392, accounts payable of $463, and inventory of $714. At year end, cash was $167, accounts payables was $447, inventory was $682, and accounts receivable was $409. What is the amount of the net source or use of cash by working capital accounts for the year?A) Net use of $16 cashB) Net use of $17 cashC) Net source of $17 cashD) Net source of $15 cashE) Net use of $15 cash47) During the year, Al's Tools decreased its accounts receivable by $160, increased its inventory by $115, and decreased its accounts payable by $70. How did these three accounts affect the sources of uses of cash by the firm?A) Net source of cash of $120B) Net source of cash of $205C) Net source of cash of $45D) Net use of cash of $115E) Net use of cash of $2548) Lani's generated net income of $911, depreciation expense was $47, and dividends paid were $25. Accounts payables increased by $15, accounts receivables increased by $28, inventory decreased by $14, and net fixed assets decreased by $8. There was no interest expense. What was the net cash flow from operating activity?A) $776B) $865C) $959D) $922E) $98549) For the past year, Jenn's Floral Arrangements had taxable income of $198,600, beginning common stock of $68,000, beginning retained earnings of $318,750, ending common stock of $71,500, ending retained earnings of $316,940, interest expense of $11,300, and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the amount of dividends paid during the year?A) $157,280B) $159,935C) $163,200D) $153,555E) $158,70450) The Floor Store had interest expense of $38,400, depreciation of $28,100, and taxes of $19,600 for the year. At the start of the year, the firm had total assets of $879,400 and current assets of $289,600. By year's end total assets had increased to $911,900 while current assets decreased to $279,300. What is the amount of the cash flow from investment activity for the year?A) −$51,150B) $21,850C) $29,300D) −$70,900E) −$89,40051) Williamsburg Market is an all-equity firm that has net income of $96,200, depreciation expense of $6,300, and an increase in net working capital of $2,800. What is the amount of the net cash from operating activity?A) $91,300B) $99,700C) $93,400D) $105,300E) $113,70052) The accounts payable of a company changed from $136,100 to $104,300 over the course of a year. This change represents a:A) use of $31,800 of cash as investment activity.B) source of $31,800 of cash as an operating activity.C) source of $31,800 of cash as a financing activity.D) source of $31,800 of cash as an investment activity.E) use of $31,800 of cash as an operating activity.53) Oil Creek Auto has sales of $3,340, net income of $274, net fixed assets of $2,600, and current assets of $920. The firm has $430 in inventory. What is the common-size statement value of inventory?A) 12.22 percentB) 44.16 percentC) 16.54 percentD) 13.36 percentE) 46.74 percent54) Pittsburgh Motors has sales of $4,300, net income of $320, total assets of $4,800, and total equity of $2,950. Interest expense is $65. What is the common-size statement value of the interest expense?A) .89 percentB) 1.51 percentC) 1.69 percentD) 2.03 percentE) 1.35 percent55) Last year, which is used as the base year, a firm had cash of $52, accounts receivable of $223, inventory of $509, and net fixed assets of $1,107. This year, the firm has cash of $61,accounts receivable of $204, inventory of $527, and net fixed assets of $1,216. What is this year's common-base-year value of inventory?A) .67B) .91C) .88D) 1.04E) 1.1856) Duke's Garage has cash of $68, accounts receivable of $142, accounts payable of $235, and inventory of $318. What is the value of the quick ratio?A) 2.25B) .53C) .71D) .89E) 1.3557) Uptown Men's Wear has accounts payable of $2,214, inventory of $7,950, cash of $1,263, fixed assets of $8,400, accounts receivable of $3,907, and long-term debt of $4,200. What is the value of the net working capital to total assets ratio?A) .31B) .42C) .47D) .51E) .5658) DJ's has total assets of $310,100 and net fixed assets of $168,500. The average daily operating costs are $2,980. What is the value of the interval measure?A) 31.47 daysB) 47.52 daysC) 56.22 daysD) 68.05 daysE) 104.62 days59) Corner Books has a debt-equity ratio of .57. What is the total debt ratio?A) .36B) .30C) .44D) 2.27E) 2.7560) SS Stores has total debt of $4,910 and a debt-equity ratio of 0.52. What is the value of the total assets?A) $16,128.05B) $7,253.40C) $9,571.95D) $11,034.00E) $14,352.3161) JK Motors has sales of $96,400, costs of $53,800, interest paid of $2,800, and depreciation of $7,100. The tax rate is 21 percent. What is the value of the cash coverage ratio?A) 15.21B) 12.14C) 17.27D) 23.41E) 12.6862) Terry's Pets paid $2,380 in interest and $2,200 in dividends last year. The times interest earned ratio is 2.6 and the depreciation expense is $680. What is the value of the cash coverage ratio?A) 1.42B) 2.72C) 2.94D) 2.89E) 2.4663) The Up-Towner has sales of $913,400, costs of goods sold of $579,300, inventory of $123,900, and accounts receivable of $78,900. How many days, on average, does it take the firm to sell its inventory assuming that all sales are on credit?A) 74.19 daysB) 84.69 daysC) 78.07 daysD) 96.46 daysE) 71.01 days64) Flo's Flowers has accounts receivable of $4,511, inventory of $1,810, sales of $138,609, and cost of goods sold of $64,003. How many days does it take the firm to sell its inventory and collect the payment on the sale assuming that all sales are on credit?A) 11.88 daysB) 22.20 daysC) 16.23 daysD) 14.50 daysE) 18.67 days65) The Harrisburg Store has net working capital of $2,715, net fixed assets of $22,407, sales of $31,350, and current liabilities of $3,908. How many dollars' worth of sales are generated from every $1 in total assets?A) $1.08B) $1.14C) $1.19D) $84E) $9366) TJ's has annual sales of $813,200, total debt of $171,000, total equity of $396,000, and a profit margin of 5.78 percent. What is the return on assets?A) 8.29 percentB) 6.48 percentC) 9.94 percentD) 7.78 percentE) 8.02 percent67) Frank's Used Cars has sales of $807,200, total assets of $768,100, and a profit margin of 6.68 percent. The firm has a total debt ratio of 54 percent. What is the return on equity?A) 13.09 percentB) 12.04 percentC) 11.03 percentD) 8.56 percentE) 15.26 percent68) Bernice's has $823,000 in sales. The profit margin is 4.2 percent and the firm has 7,500 shares of stock outstanding. The market price per share is $16.50. What is the price-earnings ratio?A) 3.58B) 3.98C) 4.32D) 3.51E) 4.2769) Hungry Lunch has net income of $73,402, a price-earnings ratio of 13.7, and earnings per share of $.43. How many shares of stock are outstanding?A) 13,520B) 12,460C) 165,745D) 171,308E) 170,70270) A firm has 160,000 shares of stock outstanding, sales of $1.94 million, net income of $126,400, a price-earnings ratio of 21.3, and a book value per share of $7.92. What is the market-to-book ratio?A) 2.12B) 1.84C) 1.39D) 2.45E) 2.6971) Taylor's Men's Wear has a debt-equity ratio of 48 percent, sales of $829,000, net income of $47,300, and total debt of $206,300. What is the return on equity?A) 19.29 percentB) 11.01 percentC) 15.74 percentD) 18.57 percentE) 14.16 percent72) Nielsen's has inventory of $29,406, accounts receivable of $46,215, net working capital of $4,507, and accounts payable of $48,919. What is the quick ratio?A) 1.55B) .49C) 1.32D) .94E) .9273) The Strong Box has sales of $859,700, cost of goods sold of $648,200, net income of $93,100, and accounts receivable of $102,300. How many days of sales are in receivables?A) 57.60 daysB) 40.32 daysC) 54.53 daysD) 29.41 daysE) 43.43 days74) Corner Books has sales of $687,400, cost of goods sold of $454,200, and a profit margin of 5.5 percent. The balance sheet shows common stock of $324,000 with a par value of $5 a share, and retained earnings of $689,500. What is the price-sales ratio if the market price is $43.20 per share?A) 4.28B) 12.74C) 6.12D) 4.07E) 14.5175) Gem Jewelers has current assets of $687,600, total assets of $1,711,000, net working capital of $223,700, and long-term debt of $450,000. What is the debt-equity ratio?A) .87B) .94C) 1.21D) 1.15E) 1.0676) Russell's has annual sales of $649,200, cost of goods sold of $389,400, interest of $23,650, depreciation of $121,000, and a tax rate of 21 percent. What is the cash coverage ratio for the year?A) 8.43B) 10.99C) 11.64D) 5.87E) 18.2277) Lawn Care, Inc., has sales of $367,400, costs of $183,600, depreciation of $48,600, interest of $39,200, and a tax rate of 25 percent. The firm has total assets of $422,100, long-term debt of $102,000, net fixed assets of $264,500, and net working capital of $22,300. What is the return on equity?A) 24.26 percentB) 15.38 percentC) 38.96 percentD) 29.96 percentE) 17.06 percent78) Frank's Welding has net fixed assets of $36,200, total assets of $51,300, long-term debt of $22,000, and total debt of $29,700. What is the net working capital to total assets ratio?A) 12.18 percentB) 16.82 percentC) 14.42 percentD) 17.79 percentE) 9.90 percent79) The Green Fiddle has current liabilities of $28,000, sales of $156,900, and cost of goods sold of $62,400. The current ratio is 1.22 and the quick ratio is .71. How many days on average does it take to sell the inventory?A) 128.13 daysB) 74.42 daysC) 199.81 daysD) 147.46 daysE) 83.53 days80) Green Yard Care has net income of $62,300, a tax rate of 21 percent, and a profit margin of 6.7 percent. Total assets are $1,100,500 and current assets are $328,200. How many dollars of sales are being generated from every dollar of net fixed assets?A) $2.83B) $1.37C) $.84D) $1.20E) $1.2381) Jensen's Shipping has total assets of $694,800 at year's end. The beginning owners' equity was $362,400. During the year, the company had sales of $711,000, a profit margin of 5.2 percent, a tax rate of 21 percent, and paid $12,500 in dividends. What is the equity multiplier at year-end?A) 1.67B) 1.72C) 1.93D) 1.80E) 1.8682) Western Gear has net income of $12,400, a tax rate of 21 percent, and interest expense of $1,600. What is the times interest earned ratio for the year?A) 9.63B) 7.75C) 10.81D) 14.97E) 10.9783) Big Tree Lumber has earnings per share of $1.36. The firm's earnings have been increasing at an average rate of 2.9 percent annually and are expected to continue doing so. The firm has 21,500 shares of stock outstanding at a price per share of $23.40. What is the firm's PEG ratio?A) 2.27B) 11.21C) 4.85D) 3.94E) 5.9384) Townsend Enterprises has a PEG ratio of 5.3, net income of $49,200, a price-earnings ratio of 17.6, and a profit margin of 7.1 percent. What is the earnings growth rate?A) 2.48 percentB) 1.06 percentC) 3.32 percentD) 5.20 percentE) 10.60 percent85) A firm has total assets with a current book value of $71,600, a current market value of $82,300, and a current replacement cost of $90,400. What is the value of Tobin's Q?A) .85B) .87C) .90D) .94E) .9186) Dixie Supply has total assets with a current book value of $368,900 and a current replacement cost of $486,200. The market value of these assets is $464,800. What is the value of Tobin's Q?A) .79B) .76C) .96D) 1.26E) 1.0587) Dandelion Fields has a Tobin's Q of .96. The replacement cost of the firm's assets is $225,000 and the market value of the firm's debt is $101,000. The firm has 20,000 shares of stock outstanding and a book value per share of $2.09. What is the market-to-book ratio?A) 2.75 timesB) 3.18 timesC) 3.54 timesD) 4.01 timesE) 4.20 times88) The Tech Store has annual sales of $416,000, a price-earnings ratio of 18, and a profit margin of 3.7 percent. There are 12,000 shares of stock outstanding. What is the price-sales ratio?A) .97B) .67C) 1.08D) 1.15E) .8689) Lassiter Industries has annual sales of $328,000 with 8,000 shares of stock outstanding. The firm has a profit margin of 4.5 percent and a price-sales ratio of 1.20. What is the firm's price-earnings ratio?A) 21.9B) 17.4C) 18.6D) 26.7E) 24.390) Drive-Up has sales of $31.4 million, total assets of $27.6 million, and total debt of $14.9 million. The profit margin is 3.7 percent. What is the return on equity?A) 6.85 percentB) 9.15 percentC) 11.08 percentD) 13.31 percentE) 14.21 percent91) Corner Supply has a current accounts receivable balance of $246,000. Credit sales for the year just ended were $2,430,000. How many days on average did it take for credit customers to pay off their accounts during this past year?A) 44.29 daysB) 55.01 daysC) 55.50 daysD) 36.95 daysE) 41.00 days92) BL Industries has ending inventory of $302,800, annual sales of $2.33 million, and annual cost of goods sold of $1.41 million. On average, how long did a unit of inventory sit on the shelf before it was sold?A) 47.43 daysB) 22.18 daysC) 78.38 daysD) 61.78 daysE) 83.13 days93) Billings Inc. has net income of $161,000, a profit margin of 7.6 percent, and an accounts receivable balance of $127,100. Assume that 66 percent of sales are on credit. What is the days' sales in receivables?A) 21.90 daysB) 27.56 daysC) 33.18 daysD) 35.04 daysE) 36.19 days94) Stone Walls has a long-term debt ratio of .6 and a current ratio of 1.2. Current liabilities are $800, sales are $7,800, the profit margin is 6.5 percent, and return on equity is 15.5 percent. What is the amount of the firm's net fixed assets?A) $8,880.15B) $8,017.43C) $7,666.67D) $5,848.15E) $8,977.43。
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter12_TB
公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter12_TBFundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 12 Some Lessons from Capital Market History1) Stacy purchased a stock last year and sold it today for $4 a share more than her purchase price. She received a total of $1.15 per share in dividends. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to this investment?A) The dividend yield is expressed as a percentage of the par value.B) The capital gain would have been less had Stacy not received the dividends.C) The total dollar return per share is $2.85.D) The capital gains yield is positive.E) The dividend yield is greater than the capital gains yield.2) Which one of the following correctly describes the dividend yield?A) Next year's annual dividend divided by today's stock priceB) This year's annual dividend divided by today's stock priceC) This year's annual dividend divided by next year's expected stock priceD) Next year's annual dividend divided by this year's annual dividendE) The increase in next year's dividend over this year's dividend divided by this year's dividend3) Bayside Marina just announced it is decreasing its annual dividend from $1.48 per share to $1.45 per share effective immediately. If the dividend yield remains at its pre-announcement level, then you know the stock price:A) was unaffected by the announcement.B) increased proportionately with the dividend decrease.C) decreased proportionately with the dividend decrease.D) decreased by $.03 per share.E) increased by $.03 per share.4) Which one of the following statements related to capital gains is correct?A) The capital gains yield includes only realized capital gains.B) An increase in an unrealized capital gain will increase the capital gains yield.C) The capital gains yield must be either positive or zero.D) The capital gains yield is expressed as a percentage of a security's total return.E) The capital gains yield represents the total return earned by an investor.5) Which of the following yields on a stock can be negative?A) Dividend yieldB) Capital gains yieldC) Capital gains yield and total returnD) Dividend yield, capital gains yield, and total returnE) Dividend yield and total return6) Small-company stocks, as the term is used in the textbook, are best defined as the:A) 500 newest corporations in the U.S.B) companies whose stock trades OTC.C) smallest 20 percent of the companies listed on the NYSE.D) smallest 25 percent of the companies listed on NASDAQ.E) companies whose stock is listed on NASDAQ.7) The historical record for the period 1926–2016 supports which one of the following statements?A) When large-company stocks have a negative return, they will have a negative return for at least two consecutive years.B) The return on U.S. Treasury bills exceeds the inflation rate by at least .5 percent each year.C) There was only one year during the period when double-digit inflation occurred.D) Small-company stocks have lost as much as 50 percent and gained as much as 100 percent in a single year.E) The inflation rate was positive each year throughout the period.8) Which one of the following time periods is associated with low rates of inflation?A) 1941–1942B) 1973–1974C) 2014–2015D) 1979–1980E) 1946–19479) For the period 1926–2016, U.S. Treasury bills always:A) provided an annual rate of return that exceeded the annual inflation rate.B) had an annual rate of return in excess of 1.2 percent.C) provided a positive annual rate of return.D) earned a higher annual rate of return than long-term government bonds.E) had a greater variation in returns year-over-year than did long-term government bonds.10) Which one of the following statements is a correct reflection of the U.S. financial markets for the period 1926–2016?A) U.S. Treasury bill returns never exceeded a return of 9 percent in any one year.B) U.S. Treasury bills had an annual return in excess of 10 percent in three or more years.C) Inflation equaled or exceeded the return on U.S. Treasury bills every year during the period.D) Long-term government bonds outperformed U.S. Treasury bills every year during the period.E) National deflation occurred in at least one year during every decade during the period.11) For the period 2009–2016, U.S. Treasury bills had an annual rate of return that was:A) between .5 and 1 percent.B) between 1 and 2 percent.C) negative in at least one year.D) negative for two or more years.E) between 0 and .25 percent.12) Which one of the following categories of securities had the highest average annual return for the period 1926–2016?A) U.S. Treasury billsB) Large-company stocksC) Small-company stocksD) Long-term corporate bondsE) Long-term government bonds13) Which one of the following categories of securities had the lowest average risk premium for the period 1926–2016?A) Long-term government bondsB) Small-company stocksC) Large-company stocksD) Long-term corporate bondsE) U.S. Treasury bills14) The rate of return on which type of security is normally used as the risk-free rate of return?A) Long-term Treasury bondsB) Long-term corporate bondsC) Treasury billsD) Intermediate-term Treasury bondsE) Intermediate-term corporate bonds15) For the period 1926–2016, the average risk premium on large-company stocks was about:A) 12.7 percent.B) 10.4 percent.C) 8.6 percent.D) 6.9 percent.E) 7.3 percent.16) Assume that last year T-bills returned 2.8 percent while your investment in large-company stocks earned an average of7.6 percent. Which one of the following terms refers to the difference between these two rates of return?A) Risk premiumB) Geometric average returnC) Arithmetic average returnD) Standard deviationE) Variance17) Which one of the following statements correctly applies to the period 1926–2016?A) Large-company stocks earned a higher average risk premium than did small-company stocks.B) The average inflation rate exceeded the average return on U.S. Treasury bills.C) Large-company stocks had an average annual return of 14.7 percent.D) Inflation averaged 2.6 percent for the period.E) Long-term corporate bonds outperformed long-term government bonds.18) The excess return is computed as the:A) return on a security minus the inflation rate.B) return on a risky security minus the risk-free rate.C) risk premium on a risky security minus the risk-free rate.D) risk-free rate plus the inflation rate.E) risk-free rate minus the inflation rate.19) Which one of the following earned the highest risk premium over the period 1926–2016?A) Long-term corporate bondsB) U.S. Treasury billsC) Small-company stocksD) Large-company stocksE) Long-term government bonds20) What was the average rate of inflation over the period of 1926–2016?A) Less than 2.0 percentB) Between 2.0 and 2.4 percentC) Between 2.4 and 2.8 percentD) Between 2.8 and 3.2 percentE) Greater than 3.2 percent21) Assume you invest in a portfolio of long-term corporate bonds. Based on the period 1926–2016, what average annual rate of return should you expect to earn?A) Less than 5 percentB) Between 5 and 6 percentC) Between 6 and 7 percentD) Between 7 and 8 percentE) More than 8 percent22) The average annual return on small-company stocks was about ________ percent greater than the average annual return on large-company stocks over the period 1926–2016.A) 3B) 5C) 7D) 9E) 1123) Based on the period 1926-2016, the actual real return on large-company stocks has been around:A) 9 percent.B) 10 percent.C) 6 percent.D) 7 percent.E) 8 percent.24) To convince investors to accept greater volatility, you must:A) decrease the risk premium.B) increase the risk premium.C) decrease the real return.D) decrease the risk-free rate.E) increase the risk-free rate.25) Which one of the following best defines the variance of an investment's annual returns over a number of years?A) The average squared difference between the arithmetic and the geometric average annual returnsB) The squared summation of the differences between the actual returns and the average geometric returnC) The average difference between the annual returns and the average return for the periodD) The difference between the arithmetic average and the geometric average return for the periodE) The average squared difference between the actual returns and the arithmetic average return26) Which one of the following categories of securities had the most volatile annual returns over the period 1926–2016?A) Long-term corporate bondsB) Large-company stocksC) Intermediate-term government bondsD) U.S. Treasury billsE) Small-company stocks27) If the variability of the returns on large-company stocks were to decrease over the long-term, you would expect which one of the following as related to large-company stocks to occur as a result?A) Increase in the risk premiumB) Increase in the average long-term rate of returnC) Decrease in the 68 percent probability range of returnsD) Increase in the standard deviationE) Increase in the geometric average rate of return28) Which one of the following statements is correct based on the historical record for the period 1926–2016?A) The standard deviation of returns for small-company stocks was double that of large-company stocks.B) U.S. Treasury bills had a zero standard deviation of returns because they are considered to be risk-free.C) Long-term government bonds had a lower return but a higher standard deviation on average than did long-term corporate bonds.D) Inflation was less volatile than the returns on U.S. Treasury bills.E) Long-term government bonds were less volatile than intermediate-term government bonds.29) What is the probability that small-company stocks will produce an annual return that is more than one standard deviation below the average?A) 1.0 percentB) 2.5 percentC) 5.0 percentD) 16 percentE) 32 percent30) Which one of the following is a correct ranking of securities based on the volatility of their annual returns over the period of 1926–2016? Rank from highest to lowest.A) Large-company stocks, U.S. Treasury bills, long-term government bondsB) Small-company stocks, long-term corporate bonds, large-company stocksC) Long-term government bonds, long-term corporate bonds, intermediate-term government bondsD) Large-company stocks, small-company stocks, long-term government bondsE) Intermediate-term government bonds, long-term corporate bonds, U.S. Treasury bills31) Which one of the following had the least volatile annual returns over the period of 1926–2016?A) Large-company stocksB) InflationC) Long-term corporate bondsD) U.S. Treasury billsE) Intermediate-term government bonds32) Which one of the following statements is correct based on the period 1926–2016?A) Long-term government bonds had more volatile annual returns than did the long-term corporate bonds.B) The standard deviation of the annual rate of inflation was less than 3 percent.C) U.S Treasury bills have a zero variance in returns because they are risk-free.D) The risk premium on small-company stocks was less than 10 percent.E) The risk premium on all U.S. government securities is 0 percent.33) Generally speaking, which of the following best correspond to a wide frequency distribution?A) High standard deviation, low rate of returnB) Low rate of return, large risk premiumC) Small risk premium, high rate of returnD) Small risk premium, low standard deviationE) High standard deviation, large risk premium34) Standard deviation is a measure of which one of the following?A) Average rate of returnB) VolatilityD) Risk premiumE) Real returns35) Which one of the following is defined by its mean and its standard deviation?A) Arithmetic nominal returnB) Geometric real returnC) Normal distributionD) VarianceE) Risk premium36) Which of the following statements are true based on the historical record for 1926–2016?A) Risk-free securities produce a positive real rate of return each year.B) Bonds are generally a safer, or less risky, investment than are stocks.C) Risk and potential reward are inversely related.D) The normal distribution curve for large-company stocks is narrower than the curve for small-company stocks.E) Returns are more predictable over the short term than they are over the long term.37) Estimates of the rate of return on a security based on the historical arithmetic average will probably tend to ________ the expected return for the long-term and estimates using the historical geometric average will probably tend to ________ the expected return for the short-term.A) overestimate; overestimateB) overestimate; underestimateC) underestimate; overestimateD) underestimate; underestimateE) accurately estimate; accurately estimate38) The primary purpose of Blume's formula is to:A) compute an accurate historical rate of return.B) determine a stock's true current value.C) consider compounding when estimating a rate of return.D) determine the actual real rate of return.E) project future rates of return.39) The average compound return earned per year over a multiyear period is called the ________ average return.A) arithmeticB) standardC) variantD) geometricE) real40) The return earned in an average year over a multiyear period is called the ________ average return.B) standardC) variantD) geometricE) real41) Assume all stock prices fairly reflect all of the available information on those stocks. Which one of the following terms best defines the stock market under these conditions?A) Riskless marketB) Evenly distributed marketC) Zero volatility marketD) Blume's marketE) Efficient capital market42) Which one of the following statements best defines the efficient market hypothesis?A) Efficient markets limit competition.B) Security prices in efficient markets remain steady as new information becomes available.C) Mispriced securities are common in efficient markets.D) All securities in an efficient market are zero net present value investments.E) All securities provide the same positive rate of return when the market is efficient.43) Which one of the following is the most likely reason why a stock price might not react at all on the day that new information related to the stock's issuer is released? Assume the market is semistrong form efficient.A) Company insiders were aware of the information prior to the announcement.B) Investors do not pay attention to daily news.C) Investors tend to overreact.D) The news was positive.E) The information was expected.44) Which one of the following is most indicative of a totally efficient stock market?A) Extraordinary returns earned on a routine basisB) Positive net present values on stock investments over the long-termC) Zero net present values for all stock investmentsD) Arbitrage opportunities which develop on a routine basisE) Realizing negative returns on a routine basis45) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning market efficiency?A) Real asset markets are more efficient than financial markets.B) If a market is efficient, arbitrage opportunities should be common.C) In an efficient market, some market participants will have an advantage over others.D) A firm will generally receive a fair price when it issues new shares of stock if the market is efficient.E) New information will gradually be reflected in a stock's price to avoid any sudden price changes in an efficient market.46) Efficient financial markets fluctuate continuously because:A) the markets are continually reacting to old information as that information is absorbed.B) the markets are continually reacting to new information.C) arbitrage trading is limited.D) current trading systems require human intervention.E) investments produce varying levels of net present values.47) Inside information has the least value when financial markets are:A) weak form efficient.B) semiweak form efficient.C) semistrong form efficient.D) strong form efficient.E) inefficient.48) Evidence seems to support the view that studying public information to identify mispriced stocks is:A) effective as long as the market is only semistrong form efficient.B) effective provided the market is only weak form efficient.C) ineffective.D) effective only in strong form efficient markets.E) ineffective only in strong form efficient markets.49) Which one of the following statements related to market efficiency tends to be supported by current evidence?A) It is easy for investors to earn abnormal returns.B) Short-run price movements are easy to predict.C) Markets are most likely only weak form efficient.D) Mispriced stocks are easy to identify.E) Markets tend to respond quickly to new information.50) Which form of market efficiency would most likely offer the greatest profit potential to an outstanding professional stock analyst?A) WeakB) SemiweakC) SemistrongD) StrongE) Perfect51) You are aware that your neighbor trades stocks based on confidential information he overhears at his workplace. This information is not available to the general public. This neighborcontinually brags to you about the profits he earns on these trades. Given this, you would tend to argue that the financial markets are at best ________ form efficient.A) weakB) semiweakC) semistrongD) strongE) perfect52) The U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission periodically charges individuals with insider trading and claims those individuals have made unfair profits. Given this, you would be most apt to argue that the markets are less than ________ form efficient.A) weakB) semiweakC) semistrongD) strongE) perfect53) Individual investors who continually monitor the financial markets seeking mispriced securities:A) earn excess profits on all of their investments.B) make the markets increasingly more efficient.C) are never able to find a security that is temporarily mispriced.D) are overwhelmingly successful in earning abnormal profits.E) are always quite successful using only historical price information as their basis of evaluation.54) One year ago, you purchased a stock at a price of $43.20 per share. The stock pays quarterly dividends of $.18 per share. Today, the stock is selling for $45.36 per share. What is your capital gain on this investment?A) $1.44B) $2.16C) $2.80D) $1.74E) $2.3455) Six months ago, you purchased 300 shares of stock in Global Trading at a price of $26.19 a share. The stock pays a quarterly dividend of $.12 a share. Today, you sold all of your shares for $27.11 per share. What is the total amount of your dividend income on this investment?A) $36B) $72C) $348D) $144E) $20456) One year ago, you purchased 200 shares of SL Industries stock at a price of $18.97 a share. The stock pays an annual dividend of $1.42 per share. Today, you sold all of your shares for $17.86 per share. What is your total dollar return on this investment?A) $50B) $91C) $58D) $62E) $8257) You own 850 shares of Western Feed Mills stock valued at $53.15 per share. What is the dividend yield if your total annual dividend income is $1,256?A) 2.67 percentB) 2.78 percentC) 1.83 percentD) 2.13 percentE) 2.54 percent58) West Wind Tours stock is currently selling for $52.30 a share. The stock has a dividend yield of 2.48 percent. How much dividend income will you receive per year if you purchase 600 shares of this stock?A) $824.96B) $836.20C) $724.80D) $762.00E) $778.2259) One year ago, you purchased a stock at a price of $38.22 a share. Today, you sold the stock and realized a total loss of11.09 percent on your investment. Your capital gain was –$4.68 a share. What was your dividend yield?A) 1.15 percentB) .88 percentC) 1.02 percentD) .67 percentE) .38 percent60) You just sold 427 shares of stock at a price of $19.07 a share. You purchased the stock for $18.83 a share and have received total dividends of $614. What is the total capital gain on this investment?A) $716.48B) $511.52C) $102.48D) $618.48E) $476.5261) Last year, you purchased 400 shares of Analog stock for $12.92 a share. You have received a total of $136 in dividends and $4,301 in proceeds from selling the shares. What is your capital gains yield on this stock?A) 9.09 percentB) 6.73 percentC) ?16.78 percentD) ?14.14 percentE) ?11.02 percent62) Today, you sold 540 shares of stock and realized a total return of 7.3 percent. You purchased the shares one year ago ata price of $24 a share and have received a total of $86 in dividends. What is your capital gains yield on this investment?A) 5.68 percentB) 6.64 percentC) 6.39 percentD) 7.26 percentE) 7.41 percent63) Four months ago, you purchased 900 shares of LBM stock for $7.68 a share. Last month, you received a dividend payment of $.12 a share. Today, you sold the shares for $9.13 a share. What is your total dollar return on this investment?A) $1,305B) $1,413C) $1,512D) $1,394E) $1,08064) One year ago, you purchased 100 shares of Best Wings stock at a price of $38.19 a share. The company pays an annual dividend of $.46 per share. Today, you sold for the shares for $37.92 a share. What is your total percentage return on this investment?A) 2.62 percentB) 1.93 percentC) 2.72 percentD) 1.08 percentE) .50 percent65) Suppose a stock had an initial price of $76 per share, paid a dividend of $1.42 per share during the year, and had an ending share price of $81. What was the capital gains yield?A) 6.17 percentB) 6.69 percentC) 7.05 percentD) 6.58 percentE) 5.44 percent66) Suppose you bought a $1,000 face value bond with a coupon rate of 5.6 percent one year ago. The purchase price was $987.50. You sold the bond today for $994.20. If the inflation rate last year was 2.6 percent, what was your exact real rate of return on this investment?A) 4.88 percentB) 5.32 percentC) 3.65 percentD) 3.78 percentE) 4.47 percent67) Leo purchased a stock for $63.80 a share, received a dividend of $2.68 a share and sold the shares for $59.74 each. During the time he owned the stock, inflation averaged 2.8 percent. What is his approximate real rate of return on this investment?A) ?.64 percentB) ?4.96 percentC) ?2.16 percentD) 2.16 percentE) 4.96 percent68) Christina purchased 500 shares of stock at a price of $62.30 a share and sold the shares for $64.25 each. She also received $738 in dividends. If the inflation rate was 3.9 percent, what was her exact real rate of return on this investment?A) 4.20 percentB) 1.54 percentC) 1.60 percentD) 3.95 percentE) 5.50 percent69) What is the amount of the risk premium on a U.S. Treasury bill if the risk-free rate is 3.1 percent, the inflation rate is 2.6 percent, and the market rate of return is 7.4 percent?A) 0 percentB) 2.8 percentC) .5 percentD) 1.7 percentE) 4.3 percent70) You've observed the following returns on Crash-n-Burn Computer's stock over the past five years: 7 percent, 13 percent, 19 percent, ?8 percent, and 15 percent. Suppose the average inflation rate over this time period was 2.6 percent and the average T-bill rate was 3.1 percent. Based on this information, what was the average nominal risk premium?A) 6.6 percentB) 6.1 percentC) 9.2 percentD) 1.2 percentE) 3.5 percent71) You bought one of Shark Repellant's 6 percent coupon bonds one year ago for $867. These bonds pay annual payments, have a face value of $1,000, and mature 12 years from now. Suppose you decide to sell your bonds today when the required return on the bonds is 7.4 percent. The inflation rate over the past year was 2.9 percent. What was your total real return on this investment?A) 6.48 percentB) 6.61 percentC) 8.18 percentD) 7.44 percentE) 9.70 percent72) You find a certain stock that had returns of 8 percent, ?3 percent, 12 percent, and 17 percent for four of the last five years. The average return of the stock for the past five-year period was 6 percent. What is the standard deviation of the stock's returns for the five-year period?A) 10.39 percentB) 4.98 percentC) 7.16 percentD) 9.25 percentE) 5.38 percent73) A stock had returns of 5 percent, 14 percent, 11 percent, ?8 percent, and 6 percent over the past five years. What is the standard deviation of these returns?A) 7.74 percentB) 8.21 percentC) 9.68 percentD) 8.44 percentE) 7.49 percent74) The common stock of Air Express had annual returns of 11.7 percent, 8.8 percent,16.7 percent, and ?7.9 percent over the last four years, respectively. What is thestandard deviation of these returns?A) 8.29 percentB) 9.14 percentC) 11.54 percentD) 7.78 percentE) 10.66 percent75) A stock had annual returns of 5.3 percent, ?2.7 percent, 16.2 percent, and 13.6 percentover the past four years. Which one of the following best describes the probability that this stock will produce a return of 20 percent or more in a single year?A) Less than 2.5 percent but more than .5 percentB) More than 16 percentC) Less than .5 percentD) Less than 1 percent but more than .5 percentE) Less than 16 percent but more than 2.5 percent76) A stock has an expected rate of return of 9.8 percent and a standard deviation of 15.4 percent. Which one of the following best describes the probability that this stock will lose at leasthalf of its value in any one given year?A) less than 16 percentB) less than .5 percentC) less than 1.0 percentD) less than 2.5 percentE) less than 5.0 percent77) A stock had annual returns of 11.3 percent, 9.8 percent, ?7.3 percent, and 14.6percent for the past four years. Based on this information, what is the 95 percentprobability range of returns for any one given year?A) ?2.4 to 17.5 percentB) ?2.60 to 11.80 percentC) ?12.5 to 26.7 percentD) ?10.4 to 12.3 percentE) ?10.9 to 25.1 percent78) Aimee is the owner of a stock with annual returns of 17.6 percent, ?11.7 percent, 5.6 percent, and 9.7 percent for the past four years. She thinks the stock may achieve a returnof 17 percent again this coming year. What is the probability that your friend is correct?A) Less than .5 percentB) Greater than .5 percent but less than 1 percentC) Greater than 1 percent but less than 2.5 percentD) Greater than 2.5 percent but less than 16 percentE) Greater than 16 percent79) A stock had returns of 3 percent, 12 percent, 26 percent, ?14 percent, and ?1 percent for the past five years. Based on these returns, what is the approximate probability that this stock will return at least 20 percent in any one given year?A) Approximately .1 percentB) Approximately 5 percentC) Approximately 2.5 percentD) Approximately .5 percentE) Approximately 16 percent80) A stock had returns of 14 percent, 13 percent, ?10 percent, and 7 percent for thepast four years. Which one of the following best describes the probability that this stockwill lose no more than 10 percent in any one year?A) Greater than .5 but less than 1.0 percentB) Greater than 1 percent but less than 2.5 percentC) Greater than 2.5 percent but less than 16 percentD) Greater than 84 percent but less than 97.5 percentE) Greater than 95 percent81) Over the past five years, a stock produced returns of 11 percent, 14 percent, 4percent, ?9 percent, and 5 percent. What is the probability that an investor in this stockwill not lose more than 10 percent in any one given year?。
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公司理财学原理第十二章习题答案
二、单选题
1、关于预算的编制方法下列各项中正确的是（ C）。
A、零基预算编制方法适用于非盈利组织编制预算时采用
B、固定预算编制方法适用于产出较难辨认的服务性部门费用预算的编制
C、固定预算编制方法适用于业务量水平较为稳定的企业预算的编制
D、零基预算编制方法适用于业务量水平较为稳定的企业预算的编制
2、（ B ）是只使用实物量计量单位的预算。
A、产品成本预算
B、生产预算
C、管理费用预算
D、直接材料预算
3、某企业编制“直接材料预算”，预计第四季度期初存量600千克，该季度生产需用量2400千克，预计期末存量为400千克，材料单价为11.7元，若材料采购货款有60%在本季度内付清，另外40%在下季度付清，不考虑税收，则该企业预计资产负债表年末“应付账款”项目为（C）元。
A、8800
B、10269
C、10296
D、13000
4、某企业编制“销售预算”，已知上上期的含税销售收入为600万元,上期的含税销售收入为800万元,预计预算期销售收入为1000万元，销售收入的20%于当期收现，60%于下期收现，20%于下下期收现，假设不考虑其他因素，则本期期末应收账款的余额为（ D）万元。
A、760
B、860
C、660
D、960
5、直接材料预算包括直接材料数量和直接材料金额两个方面的内容所组成。
其数量预算的编制基础是（ D ）
A、销售预算
B、投资决策预算
C、销售费用预算
D、生产预算
6、编制全面财务预算的起点是（ A ）
A、销售预算
B、投资决策预算
C、销售费用预算
D、生产预算
7、根据预算内正常的、可实现的某一业务量水平编制的预算是（ B ）
A、弹性预算
B、固定预算
C、滚动预算
D、概率预算
8、现金预算中不能反映（ C ）
A、资本性支出
B、资金的筹措
C、损益情况
D、现金余缺
9、企业编制“销售预算”，上期销售收入为300万元，预计预算期销售收入为500万元，销
售收入的60%会在本期收到，40%将在下期收到，则预算期的经营现金收入为（ A ）万元。
A、420
B、400
C、300
D、120
10、某企业编制“直接材料预算”，预计第四季度期初存量300吨，该季度生产需用量500吨，预计期末存量为400吨，材料单价为100元/吨，若材料采购货款有80%在本季度内付清，另外20%在下季度付清，假设不考虑其他因素，则该企业预计资产负债表年末“应付账款”项目为（ C ）元。
A、11000
B、14000
C、12000
D、13000
11、下列各项中，没有直接在现金预算中得到反映的是（ C ）。
A、期初期末现金余额
B、现金筹措及运用
C、预算期产量和销量
D、预算期现金余额
12、概率预算主要适用于（ D ）
A、不经常发生的或者预算编制基础变化较大的预算项目
B、季度预算
C、与公司业务量有关的成本（费用）、利润等预算项目
D、难以推测预测变动趋势的预算项目，如销售新产品、开拓新业务等
13、整个预算程序中最后完成预算的是（ A ）
A、预算资产负债表
B、预算利润表
C、预算现金流量表
D、以上都不是
14、（ B ）是以货币形式综合反映预算期内企业经营活动成果计划水平的一种财务预算。
A、预算资产负债表
B、预算利润表
C、预算现金流量表
D、以上都不是
三、多选题
1、下列（ ABC ）是在生产预算的基础上编制的。
A、直接材料预算
B、直接人工预算
C、产品成本预算
D、管理费用预算
2、（ ABC ）一起构成公司的全面预算。
A、财务预算
B、业务预算
C、专项预算
D、资本预算
3、在下列各项中，被纳入现金预算的有（ABCD ）
A、缴纳税金
B、经营性现金支出
C、资本性现金支出
D、股利与利息支出
4、编制生产预算中的“预计生产量”项目时，需要考虑的因素有（ABC ）。
A预计销售量 B 预计期初存货 C 预计期末存货 D 前期实际销量
5、专项投资预算包括（ABD）
A、固定资产投资预算
B、权益性资本投资预算
C、流动资产投资预算
D、债券投资预算
6、现金预算以（BCD ）为基础
A、弹性预算
B、业务预算
C、投资预算
D、筹资预算
7、现金预算一般由（ABCD ）构成
A、现金收入
B、现金支出
C、现金多余或不足
D、资金的筹集与运用
8、业务预算是反映预算期内公司可能形成现金收付的生产经营活动的预算，一般包括（ABCD ）等。
A、生产预算
B、销售预算
C、制造费用预算
D、采购预算
9、公司编制财务预算应当遵循的基本原则有（ACD ）
A、效益优先原则
B、成本优先原则
C、积极稳健原则
D、权责对等原则
四、判断题
1、公司在编制财务预算的时候既要积极，保证预算的先进性，又要稳健，确保预算的可行性。
另外，在预算编制时，还要充分考虑到对财务风险控制，力争做到以收定支。
（√）
2、预计生产量=预计销售量+预计期初产成品存货－预计期末产成品存货（X ）
3、直接材料预计采购量= 预计生产量×单位产品的材料需用量+预计期末存货－预计期初存货（√）
4、根据“以销定产”原则，某期的预计生产量应当等于该期预计销售量。
（ X ）
5、编制制造费用预算时，变动制造费用预算应该根据预计产生量的变动情况，按照弹性预算方法编制；固定费用预算则可以按照固定预算、零基预算等方法编制。
（√）
6、现金预算中的现金支出包括经营现金支出、分配股利的支出以及缴纳税金的支出，但是不包括资本性支出。
（X ）
7、销售预算是以销售预测为基础的，在编制销售预算之前，公司需要对外部环境和内部条件进行分析，重点是对市场的调查，预测未来期间公司产品的销售量和销售单价。
（√）8、变动性制造费用可在上年的基础上根据预期变动加以适当修正进行预计；固定性制造费用根据预计生产量乘以单位产品预定分配率进行预计。
（X ）
9、预计损益表，可以按照全部成本法和变动成本法两种方法进行编制。
按照全部成本法编制预计损益表，其优点是可以与会计原则保持一致，其不足之处是在内部管理使用中不太方便。
（√）
10、生产预算是规定预算期内有关产品生产数量、产值和品种结构的一种预算。
（X ）
五、预算编制题
1．用“第四节中天公司的资料”按照变动成本法重新编制中天公司的全面预算。
解：
（一）销售预算
表2 预计现金收入表
（二）生产预算
（三）直接材料预算
表4 A直接材料预算
16000=（1200×8＋1600×4）×100%
*：31200=（1200×4＋1600×10）×150%
18720=（1200×5＋1600×6）×120%
注释：预计期末直接材料存货金额计算过程如下：
358296=14760×5＋27150×8＋16824×4
375816=15000×5＋28890×8＋17424×4
394936=15560×5＋30510×8＋18264×4
404480=16000×5＋31200×8＋18720×4
表8 直接材料采购金额预算单位：元
（四）直接人工预算
表10 直接人工预算表单位：元
表11 制造费用预算表单位：元
假定公司的制造费用按照直接人工工时进行分摊。
根据前述资料，制造费用的分摊结果如下：
表12 变动制造费用分摊表
表13 制造费用实际现金支付表单位：元
（五）期末产成品存货和销售产品成本预算
年初产品成本按照变动成本计算，原产品成本与变动成本之差直接调整资产负债表中的留存收益项目。
表16 销售产品成本计算表单位：元
（七）销售及管理费用预算
表17 销售及管理费用预算单位：元
（八）现金预算
表19 现金收支预算表单位：元
（九）预计损益表
假定所得税仍旧按照全部成本计算法上缴，变动成本计算法只影响税前利润和税后利润，而不影响所得税。
（十）预计资产负债表
表21 预计资产负债表单位：元
土木工程材料习题集习题解答
目录
0 绪论 (2)
1土木工程材料的基本性质 (3)
2气硬性胶凝材料 (10)
3水泥…………………………………………………………………………
15
4混凝土 (23)
5建筑砂浆 (43)
6墙体材料 (46)
7天然石材 (50)
8金属材料 (52)
9合成高分子材料……………………………………………………………
10木材…………………………………………………………………………11沥青与防水材料……………………………………………………………
12绝热材料与吸声材料………………………………………………………
13建筑装饰材料………………………………………………………………。