Ross公司理财(第七版)答案 Ch024

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《专业型文档》公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案.doc

《专业型文档》公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案.doc

第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。

(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案

(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案

第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。

公司理财罗斯习题集

公司理财罗斯习题集
衡量企业股东权益的增长情况,计算公式为(本期股东权益-上期股东权益)除以上期股东权益。
财务综合分析
通过分析净资产收益率、总资产周转率和权益乘数等指标,评估企业的财务状况和经营绩效。
杜邦分析法
通过对流动比率、存货周转率、应收账款周转率等指标进行加权平均,评估企业的财务状况和经营绩效。
沃尔评分法
通过计算税后净营业利润减去资本成本后的剩余经济价值,评估企业的价值创造能力。
有效市场假说
有效市场假说认为市场是有效的,即市场价格反映了所有可获得的信息,因此无法通过分析信息获资金管理
现金管理
交易动机、预防动机、投机动机。 持有现金的动机 现金管理的目标 现金管理的方法 安全性、流动性、收益性。 建立最佳现金余额、加速收款、延迟付款。
财务趋势分析
衡量企业营业收入的增长情况,计算公式为(本期营业收入-上期营业收入)除以上期营业收入。
营业收入增长率
净利润增长率
总资产增长率
股东权益增长率
衡量企业净利润的增长情况,计算公式为(本期净利润-上期净利润)除以上期净利润。
衡量企业资产规模的增长情况,计算公式为(本期总资产-上期总资产)除以析
财务比率分析
流动比率 速动比率 资产负债率 利息保障倍数 衡量企业短期偿债能力,计算公式为流动资产除以流动负债。 衡量企业长期偿债能力,计算公式为负债总额除以资产总额。 衡量企业快速偿债能力,计算公式为(流动资产-存货)除以流动负债。 衡量企业支付利息的能力,计算公式为息税前利润除配与股利政策
利润分配的原则与程序
依法分配原则、弥补亏损原则、先提取法定公积金原则、提取任意公积金原则、股东平等原则。
利润分配原则
弥补亏损提取法定公积金、提取任意公积金、支付股利。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap004

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap004

公司理财习题答案第四章Chapter 4: Net Present Value4.1 a. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the I nterest already earned. Therefore, the interest earnedin part c, $1,653.30, is more than double the amount earned in part a, $628.89.4.2 a. $1,000 / 1.17 = $513.16b. $2,000 / 1.1 = $1,818.18c. $500 / 1.18 = $233.254.3 You can make your decision by computing either the present value of the $2,000 that youcan receive in ten years, or the future value of the $1,000 that you can receive now.Present value: $2,000 / 1.0810 = $926.39Future value: $1,000 ⨯ 1.0810 = $2,158.93Either calculation indicates you should take the $1,000 now.4.4 Since this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the presentvalue of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.304.5 PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.234.6 a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same.Remember, FV = PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV.Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. Youshould choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. Youknow that rate must fall between 10% and 20% because the option you wouldchoose differs at these rates. Let r be the discount rate that makes you indifferentbetween the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%4.7 PV of Joneses’ offer = $150,000 / (1.1)3 = $112,697.22Since the PV of Joneses’ offer is less than Smiths’ offer, $115,000, you should chooseSmiths’ offer.4.8 a. P0 = $1,000 / 1.0820 = $214.55b. P10 = P0 (1.08)10 = $463.20c. P15 = P0 (1.08)15 = $680.594.9 The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for sixyears. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earninterest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.614.10 PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.184.11 a. The cost of investment is $900,000.PV of cash inflows = $120,000 / 1.12 + $250,000 / 1.122 + $800,000 / 1.123= $875,865.52Since the PV of cash inflows is less than the cost of investment, you should notmake the investment.b. NPV = -$900,000 + $875,865.52= -$24,134.48c. NPV = -$900,000 + $120,000 / 1.11 + $250,000 / 1.112 + $800,000 / 1.113= $-4,033.18Since the NPV is still negative, you should not make the investment.4.12 NPV = -($340,000 + $10,000) + ($100,000 - $10,000) / 1.1+ $90,000 / 1.12 + $90,000 / 1.13 + $90,000 / 1.14 + $100,000 / 1.15= -$2,619.98Since the NPV is negative, you should not buy it.If the relevant cost of capital is 9 percent,NPV = -$350,000 + $90,000 / 1.09 + $90,000 / 1.092 + $90,000 / 1.093+ $90,000 / 1.094 + $100,000 / 1.095= $6,567.93Since the NPV is positive, you should buy it.4.13 a. Profit = PV of revenue - Cost = NPVNPV = $90,000 / 1.15 - $60,000 = -$4,117.08No, the firm will not make a profit.b. Find r that makes zero NPV.$90,000 / (1+r)5 - $60,000 = $0(1+r)5 = 1.5r = 0.08447 = 8.447%4.14 The future value of the decision to own your car for one year is the sum of the trade-invalue and the benefit from owning the car. Therefore, the PV of the decision to own thecar for one year is$3,000 / 1.12 + $1,000 / 1.12 = $3,571.43Since the PV of the roommate’s offer, $3,500, is lower than the aunt’s offer, you shouldaccept aunt’s offer.4.15 a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25公司理财习题答案第四章e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earninginterest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at theend of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earnsinterest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balancethat earns interest is rising faster.4.16 a. $1,000 e0.12 ⨯ 5 = $1,822.12b. $1,000 e0.1 ⨯ 3 = $1,349.86c. $1,000 e0.05 ⨯ 10 = $1,648.72d. $1,000 e0.07 ⨯ 8 = $1,750.674.17 PV = $5,000 / [1+ (0.1 / 4)]4 ⨯ 12 = $1,528.364.18 Effective annual interest rate of Bank America= [1 + (0.041 / 4)]4 - 1 = 0.0416 = 4.16%Effective annual interest rate of Bank USA= [1 + (0.0405 / 12)]12 - 1 = 0.0413 = 4.13%You should deposit your money in Bank America.4.19 The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply theperpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $8004.20 Quarterly interest rate = 12% / 4 = 3% = 0.03Therefore, the price of the security = $10 / 0.03 = $333.334.21 The price at the end of 19 quarters (or 4.75 years) from today = $1 / (0.15 ÷ 4) = $26.67The current price = $26.67 / [1+ (.15 / 4)]19 = $13.254.22 a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus,the value of the perpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream.Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.4.23 The value at t = 8 is $120 / 0.1 = $1,200.Thus, the value at t = 5 is $1,200 / 1.13 = $901.58.4.24 P = $3 (1.05) / (0.12 - 0.05) = $45.004.25 P = $1 / (0.1 - 0.04) = $16.674.26 The first cash flow will be generated 2 years from today.The value at the end of 1 year from today = $200,000 / (0.1 - 0.05) = $4,000,000.Thus, PV = $4,000,000 / 1.1 = $3,636,363.64.4.27 A zero NPV-$100,000 + $50,000 / r = 0-r = 0.54.28 Apply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present valueof an annuity factor.NPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 8A1.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.4.29 Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments.Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments. Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20A08.0= $2,000 (9.8181)= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.884.30 The value of annuity at the end of year five= $500 15A = $500 (5.84737) = $2,923.6915.0The present value = $2,923.69 / 1.125 = $1,658.984.31 The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must beequal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A t r. The annuity factors are in theappendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the rowlabeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.10% ⎤ 6.1446 ⎤a ⎡ r ⎥bc ⎡ 6.4 ⎪ d⎣ 9% ⎦⎣ 6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate.Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.公司理财习题答案第四章4.32 a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000which you need in five years. That amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075].Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.$17,824.65 = C 5A.007$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 fiveyears from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 /1.075 = $17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (seefootnote 14 of the text).4.33The amount of loan is $120,000 ⨯ 0.85 = $102,000.20C A= $102,000.010The amount of equal installments isC = $102,000 / 20A = $102,000 / 8.513564 = $11,980.8810.04.34 The present value of salary is $5,000 36A = $150,537.53.001The present value of bonus is $10,000 3A = $23,740.42 (EAR = 12.68% is used since.01268bonuses are paid annually.)The present value of the contract = $150,537.53 + $23,740.42 = $174,277.944.35 The amount of loan is $15,000 ⨯ 0.8 = $12,000.C 48A = $12,0000067.0The amount of monthly installments isC = $12,000 / 48A = $12,000 / 40.96191 = $292.960067.04.36 Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-taxamounts. The after-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of$115,200 to obtain the value of this option.Value = $115,200 + $115,200 30A10.0= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-taxpayment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].Value = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30A.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.4.37 The amount of loan is $9,000. The monthly payment C is given by solving the equation: C 60008.0A = $9,000 C = $9,000 / 47.5042 = $189.46In October 2000, Susan Chao has 35 (= 12 ⨯ 5 - 25) monthly payments left, including the one due in October 2000.Therefore, the balance of the loan on November 1, 2000 = $189.46 + $189.46 34008.0A = $189.46 + $189.46 (29.6651) = $5,809.81Thus, the total amount of payoff = 1.01 ($5,809.81) = $5,867.91 4.38 Let r be the rate of interest you must earn. $10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000 (1 + r)12 = 8 r = 0.18921 = 18.921%4.39 First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s education. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education is$21,000 415.0A= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955. This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these is PV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516 = $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44. Payment = $14,880.44 / 1515.0A = $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.804.40 The NPV of the policy isNPV = -$750 306.0A - $800306.0A / 1.063 + $250,000 / [(1.066) (1.0759)] = -$2,004.76 - $1,795.45 + $3,254.33= -$545.88 Therefore, you should not buy the policy.4.41 The NPV of the lease offer isNPV = $120,000 - $15,000 - $15,000 908.0A - $25,000 / 1.0810= $105,000 - $93,703.32 - $11,579.84 = -$283.16 Therefore, you should not accept the offer.4.42 This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is $50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60. PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28 This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is $21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46公司理财习题答案第四章4.43 Use the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV ofthe project. Notice that the four $1,000 cash flows form an annuity. You can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV 1 $700 0.9091 $636.37 2 900 0.8264 743.76 3 1,000 ⎤ 4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.80 5 1,000 ⎥ 6 1,000 ⎦ 7 1,250 0.5132 641.50 8 1,375 0.4665 641.44 Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87 = $282.87 Purchase the machine.4.44 Weekly inflation rate = 0.039 / 52 = 0.00075 Weekly interest rate = 0.104 / 52 = 0.002 PV = $5 [1 / (0.002 - 0.00075)] {1 – [(1 + 0.00075) / (1 + 0.002)]52 ⨯ 30} = $3,429.384.45 Engineer:NPV = -$12,000 405.0A + $20,000 / 1.055 + $25,000 / 1.056 - $15,000 / 1.057- $15,000 / 1.058 + $40,000 2505.0A / 1.058= $352,533.35 Accountant:NPV = -$13,000 405.0A + $31,000 3005.0A / 1.054= $345,958.81 Become an engineer.After your brother announces that the appropriate discount rate is 6%, you can recalculate the NPVs. Calculate them the same way as above except using the 6% discount rate. Engineer NPV = $292,419.47 Accountant NPV = $292,947.04Your brother made a poor decision. At a 6% rate, he should study accounting.4.46 Since Goose receives his first payment on July 1 and all payments in one year intervalsfrom July 1, the easiest approach to this problem is to discount the cash flows to July 1 then use the six month discount rate (0.044) to discount them the additional six months. PV = $875,000 / (1.044) + $650,000 / (1.044)(1.09) + $800,000 / (1.044)(1.092) + $1,000,000 / (1.044)(1.093) + $1,000,000/(1.044)(1.094) + $300,000 / (1.044)(1.095)+ $240,000 1709.0A / (1.044)(1.095) + $125,000 1009.0A / (1.044)(1.0922) = $5,051,150Remember that the use of annuity factors to discount the deferred payments yields the value of the annuity stream one period prior to the first payment. Thus, the annuity factor applied to the first set of deferred payments gives the value of those payments on July 1 of 1989. Discounting by 9% for five years brings the value to July 1, 1984. The use of the six month discount rate (4.4%) brings the value of the payments to January 1, 1984. Similarly, the annuity factor applied to the second set of deferred payments yields the value of those payments in 2006. Discounting for 22 years at 9% and for six months at 4.4% provides the value at January 1, 1984.The equivalent five-year, annual salary is the annuity that solves: $5,051,150 = C 509.0A C = $5,051,150/3.8897C = $1,298,596The student must be aware of possible rounding errors in this problem. The differencebetween 4.4% semiannual and 9.0% and for six months at 4.4% provides the value at January 1, 1984. 4.47 PV = $10,000 + ($35,000 + $3,500) [1 / (0.12 - 0.04)] [1 - (1.04 / 1.12) 25 ]= $415,783.604.48 NPV = -$40,000 + $10,000 [1 / (0.10 - 0.07)] [1 - (1.07 / 1.10)5 ] = $3,041.91 Revise the textbook.4.49The amount of the loan is $400,000 (0.8) = $320,000 The monthly payment is C = $320,000 / 3600067.0.0A = $ 2,348.10 Thirty years of payments $ 2,348.10 (360) = $ 845,316.00 Eight years of payments $2,348.10 (96) = $225,417.60 The difference is the balloon payment of $619,898.404.50 The lease payment is an annuity in advanceC + C 2301.0A = $4,000 C (1 + 20.4558) = $4,000 C = $186.424.51 The effective annual interest rate is[ 1 + (0.08 / 4) ] 4 – 1 = 0.0824The present value of the ten-year annuity is PV = 900 100824.0A = $5,974.24 Four remaining discount periodsPV = $5,974.24 / (1.0824) 4 = $4,352.43公司理财习题答案第四章4.52The present value of Ernie’s retirement incomePV = $300,000 20A / (1.07) 30 = $417,511.5407.0The present value of the cabinPV = $350,000 / (1.07) 10 = $177,922.25The present value of his savingsPV = $40,000 10A = $280,943.26.007In present value terms he must save an additional $313,490.53 In future value termsFV = $313,490.53 (1.07) 10 = $616,683.32He must saveC = $616.683.32 / 20A = $58,210.5407.0。

公司理财英文版练习题答案第七章 Pangaea Corpor

公司理财英文版练习题答案第七章 Pangaea Corpor

公司理财英文版练习题答案第七章Pangaea Corpor1、______ pocket money did you get when you were a child? ()[单选题] *A. WhatB. HowC. How manyD. How much(正确答案)2、Nuclear science should be developed to benefit the people_____harm them. [单选题] *A.more thanB.other thanC.rather than(正确答案)D.better than3、The huntsman caught only a()of the deer before it ran into the woods. [单选题] *A. gazeB. glareC. glimpse(正确答案)D. stare4、35.___________ good music the teacher is playing! [单选题] *A.What(正确答案)B.HowC.What aD.What the5、——Have you()your friend Bill recently? ———No, he doesnt often write to me. [单选题] *A. heard aboutB. heard ofC. heard from (正确答案)D. received from6、Just use this room for the time being ,and we’ll offer you a larger one _______it becomes available [单选题] *A. as soon as(正确答案)B unless .C as far asD until7、?I am good at schoolwork. I often help my classmates _______ English. [单选题] *B. toC. inD. with(正确答案)8、—What were you doing when the rainstorm came?—I ______ in the library with Jane. ()[单选题] *A. readB. am readingC. will readD. was reading(正确答案)9、I _______ Zhang Hua in the bookstore last Sunday. [单选题] *A. meetB. meetingC. meetedD. met(正确答案)10、I often _______ music from the Internet. [单选题] *A. download(正确答案)B. spendD. read11、I think ______ time with my friends is fun for me.()[单选题] *A. spendB. spendC. spending(正确答案)D. spent12、Ladies and gentlemen, please fasten your seat belts. The plane _______. [单选题] *A. takes offB. is taking off(正确答案)C. has taken offD. took off13、You wouldn' t have caught such ____ bad cold if you hadn' t been caught in ____?rain. [单选题] *A. a, /B. a, aC. a,the(正确答案)D. /, /14、We _______ swim every day in summer when we were young. [单选题] *A. use toB. are used toC. were used toD. used to(正确答案)15、This year our school is _____ than it was last year. [单选题] *A. much more beautiful(正确答案)B. much beautifulC. the most beautifulD. beautiful16、Sichuan used to have more people than ______ province in China. [单选题] *A. otherB. any other(正确答案)C. anotherD. any others17、32.There are about __________ women doctors in this hospital. [单选题] *A.two hundred ofB.two hundreds ofC.two hundredsD.two hundred (正确答案)18、Jim will _______ New York at 12 o’clock. [单选题] *A. get onB. get outC. get offD. get to(正确答案)19、Jeanne's necklace was _____ 500 francs at most. [单选题] *A. worthyB. costC. worth(正确答案)D. valuable20、It was _____ that the policy of reform and opening up came into being in China. [单选题] *A. in the 1970s(正确答案)B. in 1970sC. in the 1970s'D. in 1970's21、—______?—He can do kung fu.()[单选题] *A. What does Eric likeB. Can Eric do kung fuC. What can Eric do(正确答案)D. Does Eric like kung fu22、I passed the test, I _____ it without your help. [单选题] *A.would not passB. wouldn't have passed(正确答案)C. didn't passD.had not passed23、Having stayed in the United States for more than ten years, he got an American()[单选题] *A. speechB. accent(正确答案)C. voiceD. sound24、28.The question is very difficult. ______ can answer it. [单选题] * A.EveryoneB.No one(正确答案)C.SomeoneD.Anyone25、Is there ____ for one more in the car? [单选题] *A. seatB. situationC. positionD. room(正确答案)26、He does ______ in math.()[单选题] *A. goodB. betterC. well(正确答案)D. best27、The travelers arrived _______ Xi’an _______ a rainy day. [单选题] *A. at; inB. at; onC. in; inD. in; on(正确答案)28、Tom’s sister is a nurse. I met _______ in the street yesterday . [单选题] *A. sheB. hersC. himD. her(正确答案)29、17.—When ________ they leave here?—Tomorrow morning. [单选题] * A.doB.will(正确答案)C.doesD.are30、I saw the boy _______?the classroom. [单选题] *A. enter intoB. enter(正确答案)C. to enter intoD. to enter。

公司理财第七版Chap024

公司理财第七版Chap024
Fixed rate payment LIBOR obligation
Company
LIBOR payment
Swap Dealer
24-19
Interest Rate Swaps: Floating Rate to Synthetic Fixed Rate
In the previous example, the swapped rates cancel out any changes in LIBOR and the total payment from the company is fixed.
24-6
Reducing Risk With Options: Example
Abramovic, Inc. sells crude oil. Since its costs are relatively fixed, fluctuations in the sale price of crude oil can cause unexpected profits or losses. How might Abramovic, Inc. hedge this risk?
McGraw-Hill/Irwin
Copies, Inc. All rights reserved.
Risk Management
Political Risk Exchange Rate Risk
The Financial Manager Faces Multiple Sources of Risk Interest Rate Risk Industry Changes Environmental Risk
24-20
Currency Swaps
Currency swaps are a subset of interest rate swaps; the loans are priced in different currencies.

公司理财罗斯课后习题答案修订稿

公司理财罗斯课后习题答案修订稿

公司理财罗斯课后习题答案集团文件发布号:(9816-UATWW-MWUB-WUNN-INNUL-DQQTY-第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

罗斯《公司理财CorporateFinance》(第七版)英文课件Ch

罗斯《公司理财CorporateFinance》(第七版)英文课件Ch
5705% Equity
If how you slice the pie affects the size of the pie, then the capital struቤተ መጻሕፍቲ ባይዱture decision matters.
1-9
Hypothetical Organization Chart
Board of Directors Chairman of the Board and Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
Shareholders’ Equity
1-5
The Balance-Sheet Model
of the Firm
The Capital Budgeting Decision
Current
Current Assets
Liabilities
Long-Term Debt
Fixed Assets 1 Tangible 2 Intangible
Cost Accounting Data Processing
1-10
The Financial Manager
To create value, the financial manager should: 1. Try to make smart investment decisions. 2. Try to make smart financing decisions.
How much shortterm cash flow does a company need to pay its bills?
Shareholders’ Equity
1-8
Capital Structure
The value of the firm can be thought of as a pie.

公司理财第七版光盘资料答案

公司理财第七版光盘资料答案

附录B 各章习题及部分习题答案第第第17第3
e. 14 250美元 20.10 NPV = 790万美元,净节约 = 395 000美元 附录20A 20A.2 1 195.23美元 20A.4 a. 机会成本 = 9.00美元,交易成本 = 333.33美元
b. 1 825.74美元 20A.10 8.68% 第21章 21.2 8 547 945美元 21.6 销售收入 = 322 885美元,应收账款周转率 = 7.019次 21.10 NPV = 473 458.33美元 21.12 持有成本 = 4 590美元,订单成本 = 7 800美元,EOQ = 234.65,每年订单数 = 39.89 21.16 2 953.57 附录21A 21A.2 a. 2/10,净30
附录B 各章习题及部分习题答案第第第16第9
4.12 内部增长率 = 8.70% 4.16 销售收入最大增长率 = 17.65% 4.20 TAT = 1.47倍 4.22 可持续增长率 = 22.50%,新的借款 = 19 125美元,内部增长率 = 7.20% 4.28 最大的可持续增长率 = 14.33% 第5章 5.2 13 761美元,25 320美元,169 152美元,315 796美元 5.6 10.27% 5.10 130 258 959美元 5.14 0.10美元 5.18 145 781美元,56 205美元 第6章 6.2 在5%下:PVx = 28 431.29美元,PVy = 25 976.86美元; 在22%下:PVx = 15 145.14美元,PVy = 17 181.84美元 6.6 PV = 456 262.25美元 6.10 PV = 187 500美元 6.14 EAR(第一国民)= 12.91%,EAR(第一联邦)= 12.78% 6.18 12 405.67美元 6.22 APR = 1 733.33%,EAR = 313 916 515.69% 6.26 PV = 18 407.91美元 6.30 半年7.70%,季度3.78%,月份1.24% 6.38 G:11.20%,H:12.06% 6.42 气球式付款 = 356 387.10美元 6.46 利润 = 7 700.77美元,保本点 = 16.89% 6.50 PV = 29 700.29美元 6.54 1 361.82美元 6.58 租赁付款的PV = 14 361.31美元 购买的PV = 16 893.14美元 保本点转卖价格 = 26 216.03美元 6.60 EAR = 13.64% 6.64 可退费:APR = 7.58%,EAR = 7.85%;不可退费:APR = 7.50%,EAR = 7.76% 6.70 10.57% 6.74 C = 21 623.50美元 第7章 7.4 11.09% 7.8 9.16% 7.12 8.52% 7.26 a. 15 000;114 181

公司理财(第七版)习题答案

公司理财(第七版)习题答案

《公司理财(第七版)》练习题答案注:红字部分为修改内容,待教材再版时进行更正。

项目一认识公司理财一、单项选择题1.A 公司制企业的优点:容易转让所有权;有限债务责任;无限存续;更容易筹集资金。

公司制企业的缺点:组建公司的成本高;存在代理问题;双重课税。

2.B 购置机器设备等属于投资活动的固定资产投资。

3.A 应收账款资产的风险比现金资产风险大,认为两个企业收益水平相同则忽略了获得利润所承担的风险。

4.A 在上市公司,股东财富是由其所拥有的股票数量和股票市场价格两方面来决定的。

在股票数量一定时,股票价格达到最高,股东财富也就达到最大化。

5.C 相关者利益最大化才能体现合作共赢的价值理念。

股东财富最大化体现的是股东的利益。

6.B(将“企业收益最大化”改为“企业价值最大化”)企业价值最大化的缺点:(1)理财目标过于理论化,不易操作;(2)由于受评估标准和评估方式的影响,很难做到客观和准确。

7.A 相关者利益最大化目标强调风险与报酬的均衡,将风险控制在公司可以承受的范围内。

8.D 过分地强调社会责任而使公司价值减少,就可能导致整个社会资金运用的次优化,从而使社会经济发展步伐减缓。

9.D 公司的社会责任是指公司在谋求股东财富最大化之外所负有的维护和增进社会利益的义务,不包括对股东的责任。

10.下列属于通过采取激励方式协调股东与经营者利益冲突的方法是( A )。

A.股票期权 B.解聘 C.接收 D.限制性借款11.C 在公司内部,会计信息主要是提供给管理层决策使用,而在公司外部,会计信息则主要是为公司的投资者、债权人等提供服务。

12.B 经济繁荣期应增加劳动力。

13.D 市场经济条件下,经济发展与运行带有一定的波动性。

大体上经历复苏、繁荣、衰退和萧条几个阶段的循环,这种循环叫做经济周期。

14.D 大额定期存单市场不属于短期债券市场。

短期债券市场主要买卖1年以内的短期公司债券和政府债券,短期债券的转让可以通过贴现的方式进行。

罗斯公司理财原书第七版全套Teaching Notes (8)

罗斯公司理财原书第七版全套Teaching Notes (8)

Topic 7, Exercise 2Reputation and Stock ValuationIn January, 2000, a summary of research on performance of a firm’s stock relative to its reputation was published in the Federal Reserve Bank of New York’s Current Issues in Economics and Finance. The article, “Are High-Quality Firms Also High-Quality Investments?” analyzes performance of firms based on their reputation. The study differs from many other studies on high quality stocks in that reputation is measured by Fortune’s annual survey of “America’s Most Admired Companies.” After reading the article, answer the following questions:1. How did the authors define “high-quality firms” in their study? How does that differ from previous studies on so called “glamour stocks?”Firms were defined as high-quality based on the Fortune ranking of the most admired companies. The authors used the Fortune rankings to break the sample firms into deciles, with the highest ranking firms placed in the top deciles. Prior studies of “glamour stocks” have been bas ed on statistics—growth and profitability calculated from historical evidence, market valuation ratios, etc.—rather than on reputation.2. Did the authors find that purchasing the securities of the most admired firms resulted in superior or abnormal returns?As reported in Table 2 of the article, the authors found that the most admired firms provided consistently superior and abnormal returns. The study found that the most- admired firms averaged an unadjusted return of 18.3%, which was much higher than the average or the least-admired firms. The market adjusted returns were 3.7%, which were also much higher than the average or least-admired firms. They also controlled for size and book to market effects and still found that the most-admired firms outperformed.3. Did they find any differences in the opinions of executives versus analysts with regard to short-run and long-run stock performance?The authors considered the rankings by both analysts and executives in the particular industry. They constructed portfolios similar to the overall methodology. Firms that were ranked the highest by analysts and executives both outperformed averages and the least- admired firms. The results of return analysis yielded some mixed results. The analysts’ rankings showed slightly better one-year performance. The executives’ rankings were significantly better in terms of five-year performance. The executives were superior in predicting lower return firms by ranking them as least admired.。

罗期公司理财原书第七版GoodWeekTiresSolution

罗期公司理财原书第七版GoodWeekTiresSolution

Mini Case: Goodweek Tires, Inc.AssumptionsPP&E Investment 120,000,000 Useful life of PP&E Investment (years) 7 Salvage Value of PP&E Investment 51,428,571 Annual Depreciation Expense (7 year MACRS)Ending Book Year MACRS % Depreciation Value1 14.29% 17,148,000 102,852,0002 24.49% 29,388,000 73,464,0003 17.49% 20,988,000 52,476,000 Last year of project 412.49% 14,988,000 37,488,0005 8.93% 10,716,000 26,772,0006 8.93% 10,716,000 16,056,0007 8.93% 10,716,000 5,340,0008 4.45% 5,340,000 0 SuperTread price/unit in OEM market (year 1) 36.00 SuperTread price/unit in Replacement market (year 1) 59.00 SuperTread cost/unit (year 1) 18.00Year 1 marketing and admin costs 25,000,000 Annual inflation rate 3.25% Corporate Tax rate 40.00% Beta (1/24/97 Valueline) 1.30 Rf (30 year U.S. Treasury Bond) 5.50% Rm (S&P 500 30 year average) 13.50% Re (from CAPM) R e= R f+ e[ R M - R f ] = 0.055 + 1.3[ 0.135 - 0.055 ] = 15.90% 15.90% Year 1 OEM Market for SuperTread (2 million new cars x 4 tires/car) 8,000,000 OEM Market growth 2.50% SuperTread share of OEM market 11.00%Year 1 Replacement Market for SuperTread 14,000,000 Replacement Market growth 2.00% SuperTread share of Replacement market 8.00%Year 0 1 2 3 4SalesOEM MarketUnits 880,000 902,000 924,550 947,664 Price 36.00 37.53 39.13 40.79 Total OEM Market 31,680,000 33,852,060 36,173,042 38,653,156Replacement MarketUnits 1,120,000 1,142,400 1,165,248 1,188,553 Price 59.00 61.51 64.12 66.85 Total Replacement Market 66,080,000 70,266,168 74,717,530 79,450,885Total Sales 97,760,000 104,118,228 110,890,572 118,104,041Variable Costs2,000,000 2,044,400 2,089,798 2,136,217 Units (OEM +Replacement)Cost 18.00 18.77 19.56 20.39 Total Variable Costs 36,000,000 38,363,166 40,881,699 43,565,831 SG&A 25,000,000 25,812,500 26,651,406 27,517,577 Depreciation 17,148,000 29,388,000 20,988,000 14,988,000 EBIT 19,612,000 10,554,562 22,369,466 32,032,633 Interest 0 0 0 0 Tax (40%) 7,844,800 4,221,825 8,947,786 12,813,053 Net Income 11,767,200 6,332,737 13,421,680 19,219,580EBIT + Dep - Taxes 28,915,200 35,720,737 34,409,680 34,207,580 Less: Change in NWC 11,000,000 3,664,000 953,734 1,015,852 (16,633,586) Less: Capital Spending 120,000,000(45,852,342.60) CF from Assets: (131,000,000) 25,251,200 34,767,003 33,393,828 96,693,508.60 Discounted CF from21,787,058 25,882,152 21,449,437 53,587,509.73 AssetsTotal Discounted CF from Assets122,706,156.20Less: Investment (131,000,000)Net Present Value )$(8,293,843.83)[Note:The time 4 entry for capital spending comes from:Salvage value-Tax on excess depreciation=$51,428,571-($51,428,571 – 37,488,000)(0.4)Results[Notes:1. After three years, we need $37,587,99 to reach payback; we get $96,693,508.60=> extra fraction of year is 0.3882. AAR = Average income/Average investment= $12,685,299.25/$16,753,532.50= 0.10873. PI = PV/Initial investment= $122,706,146.20/$131,000,000= 0.937。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap

30.1 The new corporation issues $300,000 in new debt. The merger creates $100,000 ofgoodwill because the merger is a purchase.Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 580 Equity 700Goodwill 100Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.2 If the balance sheet for Philadelphia Pretzel shows assets at book value instead of marketvalue, the goodwill will be only $60,000 (=$300,000 - $240,000). Thus, the net fixed assetsare $620,000 (=$1,300,000 - $480,000 - $140,000 - $60,000).Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 620 Equity 700Goodwill 60Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.3Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $280Other assets 140 Long-term debt 100Net fixed assets 580 Equity 820Total assets $1,200 Total liabilities $1,200 30.4 a. False. Although the reasoning seems correct, the Stillman-Eckbo data do not supportthe monopoly power theory.b. True. When managers act in their own interest, acquisitions are an important controldevice for shareholders. It appears that some acquisitions and takeovers are theconsequence of underlying conflicts between managers and shareholders.c. False. Even if markets are efficient, the presence of synergy will make the value ofthe combined firm different from the sum of the values of the separate firms.Incremental cash flows provide the positive NPV of the transaction.d. False. In an efficient market, traders will value takeovers based on “Fundamentalfactors” regardless of the time horizon. Recall that the evidence as a whole suggestsefficiency in the markets. Mergers should be no different.e. False. The tax effect of an acquisition depends on whether the merger is taxable ornon-taxable. In a taxable merger, there are two opposing factors to consider, thecapital gains effect and the write-up effect. The net effect is the sum of these twoeffects.f. True. Because of the coinsurance effect, wealth might be transferred from thestockholders to the bondholders. Acquisition analysis usually disregards this effectand considers only the total value.30.530.6 a. The weather conditions are independent. Thus, the joint probabilities are theproducts of the individual probabilities.Possible states Joint probabilityRain Rain 0.1 x 0.1=0.01Rain Warm 0.1 x 0.4=0.04Rain Hot 0.1 x 0.5=0.05Warm Rain 0.4 x 0.1=0.04Warm Warm 0.4 x 0.4=0.16Warm Hot 0.4 x 0.5=0.20Hot Rain 0.5 x 0.1=0.05Hot Warm 0.5 x 0.4=0.20Hot Hot 0.5 x 0.5=0.25Since the state Rain Warm has the same outcome (revenue) as Warm Rain, theirprobabilities can be added. The same is true of Rain Hot, Hot Rain and Warm Hot,Hot Warm. Thus the joint probabilities arePossibleJoint probabilitystatesRain Rain 0.01Rain Warm 0.08Rain Hot 0.10Warm Warm 0.16Warm Hot 0.40Hot Hot 0.25The joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particularstate.Possible states Joint valueRain Rain $200,000Rain Warm 300,000Warm Warm 400,000Rain Hot 500,000Warm Hot 600,000Hot Hot 800,000b. Recall, if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of the assets.Thus, the value of the debt is the value of the company if the face value of the debt isgreater than the value of the company. If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value. Here the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt.Joint Prob. Joint Value Debt Value Stock Value0.01 $200,000 $200,000 $00.08 300,000 300,000 00.16 400,000 400,000 00.10 500,000 400,000 100,0000.40 600,000 400,000 200,0000.25 800,000 400,000 400,000c. To show that the value of the combined firm is the sum of the individual values, youmust show that the expected joint value is equal to the sum of the separate expected values.Expected joint value= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($500,000) +0.40($600,000) + 0.25($800,000)= $580,000Since the firms are identical, the sum of the expected values is twice the expectedvalue of either.Expected individual value = 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($400,000) = $290,000 Expected combined value = 2($290,000) = $580,000d. The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater thanthe value of the debt before the merger.Value of the debt before the merger:The value of debt for either company= 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($200,000) = $190,000Total value of debt before the merger = 2($190,000) = $380,000Value of debt after the merger= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($400,000) +0.40($400,000) +0.25($400,000)= $390,000The bondholders are $10,000 better off after the merger.30.7 The decision hinges upon the risk of surviving. The final decision should hinge on thewealth transfer from bondholders to stockholders when risky projects are undertaken.High-risk projects will reduce the expected value of the bondholders’ claims on the firm.The telecommunications business is riskier than the utilities business. If the total value of the firm does not change, the increase in risk should favor the stockholder. Hence,management should approve this transaction. Note, if the total value of the firm dropsbecause of the transaction and the wealth effect is lower than the reduction in total value, management should reject the project.30.8 If the market is “smart,” the P/E ratio will not be constant.a. Value = $2,500 + $1,000 = $3,500b. EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=($100 + $100)/200 =$1c. Price per share = Value/Total number of shares=$3,500/200 =$17.50d. If the market is “fooled,” the P/E ratio will be constant at $25.Value = P/E * Total number of shares= 25 * 200 = $5,000EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=$5,000/200 = $25.0030.9 a. After the merger, Arcadia Financial will have 130,000 [=10,000 + (50,000)(6/10)]shares outstanding. The earnings of the combined firm will be $325,000. The earningsper share of the combined firm will be $2.50 (=$325,000/130,000). The acquisition will increase the EPS for the stockholders from $2.25 to $2.50.b. There will be no effect on the original Arcadia stockholders. No synergies exist in thismerger since Arcadia is buying Coldran at its market price. Examining the relativevalues of the two firms sees the latter point.Share price of Arcadia = (16 * $225,000) / 100,000=$36Share price of Coldran = (10.8 * $100,000) / 50,000=$21.60The relative value of these prices is $21.6/$36 = 0.6. Since Coldran’s shareholdersreceive 0.6 shares of Arcadia for every share of Coldran, no synergies exist.30.10 a. The synergy will be the discounted incremental cash flows. Since the cash flows areperpetual, this amount isb. The value of Flash-in-the-Pan to Fly-by-Night is the synergy plus the current marketvalue of Flash-in-the-Pan.V = $7,500,000 + $20,000,000= $27,500,000c. Cash alternative = $15,000,000Stock alternative = 0.25($27,500,000 + $35,000,000)= $15,625,000d. NPV of cash alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,000,000=$12,500,000NPV of stock alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,625,000=$11,875,000e. Use the cash alternative, its NPV is greater.30.11 a. The value of Portland Industries before the merger is $9,000,000 (=750,000x12). Thisvalue is also the discounted value of the expected future dividends.$9,000,000 =r = 0.1025 = 10.25%r is the risk-adjusted discount rate for Portland’s expected future dividends.the value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.b. NPV = Gain - Cost= $14,815,385 - ($40x250, 000)= $4,815,385c. If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but thecost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $14,815,385= $29,815,385Cost = 0.375x$29,815,385= $11,180,769NPV= $14,815,385 - $11,180,769=$3,634,616d. The acquisition should be attempted with a cash offer since it provides a higher NPV.e. The value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.NPV = Gain-Cost=$11,223,529 - ($40x250,000)=$1,223,529If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but the cost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $11,223,529= $26,223,529Cost = 0.375 * $26,223,529=$9,833,823NPV = $11,223,529 - $9,833,823=$1,389,706The acquisition should be attempted with a stock offer since it provides a higher NPV.30.12 a. Number of shares after acquisition=30 + 15 = 45 milStock price of Harrods after acquisition = 1,000/45=22.22 poundsb. Value of Selfridge stockholders after merger:α * 1,000 = 300α = 30%New shares issued = 12.86 mil12.86:20 = 0.643:1The proper exchange ratio should be 0.643 to make the stock offer’s value to Selfridgeequivalent to the cash offer.30.13 To evaluate this proposal, look at the present value of the incremental cash flows.Cash Flows to Company A(in $ million)Year 0 1 2 3 4 5Acquisition of B -550Dividends from B 150 32 5 20 30 45Tax-loss carryforwards 25 25Terminal value 600Total -400 32 30 45 30 645 The additional cash flows from the tax-loss carry forwards and the proposed level of debt should be discounted at the cost of debt because they are determined with very littleuncertainty.The after-tax cash flows are subject to normal business risk and must be discounted at anormal rate.Beta coefficient for the bond = 0.25 = [(8%-6%)/8%].Beta coefficient for the company = 1 = [(0.25)2 + (1.25)(0.75)]Discount rate for normal operations:r = 6% + 8% (1) = 14%Discount rate for dividends:The new beta coefficient for the company, 1, must be the weighted average of the debtbeta and the stock beta.1 = 0.5(0.25) + 0.5(βs)βs = 1.75r = 6% + 8%(1.75) = 20%Because the NPV of the acquisition is negative, Company A should not acquireCompany B.30.14 The commonly used defensive tactics by target-firm managers include:i. corporate charter amendments like super-majority amendment or staggering theelection of board members.ii. repurchase standstill agreements.iii. exclusionary self-tenders.iv. going private and leveraged buyouts.v. other devices like golden parachutes, scorched earth strategy, poison pill, ..., etc.Mini Case: U.S.Steel’s case.You have 3 choices: tender, or do not tender or sell in the market. If you do sell your shares in the market, at some point, somebody else would need to make a decision in “tender” or “not tender” as well.It is important to recognize that the firm has about 60 million shares outstanding (since 30 million shares will give US Steel 50.1% of Marathon shares). Let’s consider the possible sellingthe market price.If you choose not to tender, and 30 million shares were tendered US Steel succeeds to gain50.1% control, you will only receive $85 a share. If you do tender, the price you will receive will be no worse than $85 a share and can be as high as $125 a share. Depending on the number of shares tendered, you will receive one of the following prices.If only 50.1% tendered, you will get $125 per share.If the shares tendered exceed 50.1% but less than 100%, you will get more than $105 ashare.If all 60 million shares were tendered, you will get $105 per share. (which is )It is clear that, in the above 3 cases, when you are not sure about whether US Steel will succeed or not, you will be better off to tender your shares than not tender. This is because at best, you will only receive $85 per share if you choose not to tender.版权申明本文部分内容,包括文字、图片、以及设计等在网上搜集整理。

《公司理财》习题及答案.doc

《公司理财》习题及答案.doc

《公司理财》习题答案第一章公司理财概论案例:华旗股份公司基本财务状况华旗股份有限公司,其前身是华旗饮料厂,创办于20世纪80年代,当时是当地最大的饮料企业,生产的“华旗汽水”是当地的名牌产品,市场占有率较高。

2003年改组为华旗股份有限公司,总股本2 500万股。

公司章程中规定,公司净利润按以下顺序分配:(1)弥补上一年度亏损;(2) 提取10%的法定公积金;(3)提取15%任意公积金;(4)支付股东股利。

公司实行同股同权的分配政策。

公司董事会在每年会计年度结束后提出分配预案,报股东大会批准实施。

除股东大会另有决议外,股利每年派发一次,在每个会计年度结束后六个月内,按股东持股比例进行分配。

当董事会认为必要时,在提请股东大会讨论通过后,可増派年度屮期股利。

随着市场经济的不断深化,我国饮品市场发展越来越迅猛,全球市场--体化趋势在饮品市场尤为突出,一些国内外知名饮品,如可口可乐、百事可乐、汇源等,不断涌入木地市场,饮品行业竞争日益激烈。

华旗公司的市场占有率不断降低,经营业绩也随之不断下降,公司管理层对此忧心忡忡,认为应该对华旗公司各个方面进行重新定位,其中包括股利政策。

华旗公司于2015年1月15 FI召开董事会会议,要求公司的总会计师对公司目前财务状况做出分析,同时提出新的财务政策方案,以供董事会讨论。

总会计师为此召集有关人员进行了深入细致的调查,获得了以下有关资料:(-)我国饮品行业状况近几年我国饮品行业发展迅速,在国民经济各行业中走在了前列,冃前市场竞争非常激烈,但市场并没有饱和。

从资料看,欧洲每年人均各类饮品消费量为200公斤,我国每年人均消费各种饮料还不到10公斤。

可见,我国饮品仍有着巨大的市场潜力。

果味饮料、碳酸饮料市场日趋畏缩,绿色无污染保健饮品、纯果汁饮品、植物蛋白饮品,以及茶饮品,正在成为饮品家族的新牛力量,在市场上崭露头角,市场潜力巨大。

(-)华旗公司目前经营状况公司目前的主要能力主要用于三大类产品,其中40%的生产能力用于生产传统产品——碳酸饮料和果味饮料;50%的生产能力用于生产第二大类产品——矿泉水和瓶装纯净水,是公司目前利润的主要来源。

公司理财罗斯课后习题答案

公司理财罗斯课后习题答案

第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。

此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。

Corporate Finance 第7版 答案Ch004

Corporate Finance 第7版 答案Ch004

Chapter 4: Net Present Value4.1 a. Future Value = C0 (1+r)T= $1,000 (1.05)10 = $1,628.89b. Future Value = $1,000 (1.07)10 = $1,967.15c. Future Value = $1,000 (1.05)20 = $2,653.30d.Because interest compounds on interest already earned, the interest earned in part (c),$1,653.30 (=$2,653.30 - $1,000) is more than double the amount earned in part (a),$628.89 (=$1,628.89).4.2 The present value, PV, of each cash flow is simply the amount of that cash flow discounted backfrom the date of payment to the present. For example in part (a), discount the cash flow in year 7 by seven periods, (1.10)7.a. PV(C7) = C7 / (1+r)7= $1,000 / (1.10)7= $513.16b. PV(C1) = $2,000 / 1.10 = $1,818.18c. PV(C8) = $500 / (1.10)8= $233.254.3The decision involves comparing the present value, PV, of each option. Choose the option withthe highest PV. Since the first cash flow occurs 0 years in the future, or today, it does not need to be adjusted.PV(C0) = $1,000Since the second cash flow occurs 10 years in the future, it must be discounted back 10 years ateight percent.PV(C10) = C10 / (1+r)10= $2,000 / (1.08)10= $926.39Since the present value of the cash flow occurring today is higher than the present value of the cash flow occurring in year 10, you should take the $1,000 now.4.4Since the bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the present value ofthe $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note that the price of a bond is the present value of its cash flows.P0= PV(C25)= C25 / (1+r)25= $1,000 / (1.10)25= $92.30The price of the bond is $92.30.4.5The future value, FV, of the firm’s investment must equal the $1.5 million pension liability.FV = C0 (1+r)27To solve for the initial investment, C0, discount the future pension liability ($1,500,000) back 27years at eight percent, (1.08)27.$1,500,000 / (1.08)27= C0= $187,780.23The firm must invest $187,708.23 today to be able to make the $1.5 million payment.4.6The decision involves comparing the present value, PV, of each option. Choose the option withthe highest PV.a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value of a cash flow are alwaysthe same. There is no need to discount the two choices to calculate the PV.PV(Alternative 1) = $10,000,000PV(Alternative 2) = $20,000,000Choose Alternative 2 since its PV, $20,000,000, is greater than that of Alternative 1,$10,000,000.b.Discount the cash flows at 10 percent. Discount Alternative 1 back one year andAlternative 2, five years.PV(Alternative 1) = C / (1+r)= $10,000,000 / (1.10)1= $9,090,909.10PV(Alternative 2) = $20,000,000 / (1.10)5= $12,418,426.46Choose Alternative 2 since its PV, $12,418,426.46, is greater than that of Alternative1, $9,090,909.10.c.Discount the cash flows at 20 percent. Discount Alternative 1 back one year andAlternative 2, five years.PV(Alternative 1) = C / (1+r)= $10,000,000 / (1.20)1= $8,333,333.33PV(Alternative 2) = $20,000,000 / (1.20)5= $8,037,551.44Choose Alternative 1 since its PV, $8,333,333.33, is greater than that of Alternative 2,$8,037,551.44.d.You are indifferent when the PVs of the two alternatives are equal.Alternative 1, discounted at r= Alternative 2, discounted at r$10,000,000 / (1+r)1= $20,000,000 / (1+r)5Solve for the discount rate, r, at which the two alternatives are equally attractive.[1 / (1+r)1] (1+r)5= $20,000,000 / $10,000,000(1+r)4= 21+r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%The two alternatives are equally attractive when discounted at 18.921 percent. 4.7The decision involves comparing the present value, PV, of each offer. Choose the offer with thehighest PV.Since the Smiths’ payment occurs immediatel y, its present value does not need to be adjusted.PV(Smith) = $115,000The Joneses’ offer occurs three years from today. Therefore, the payment must be discountedback three periods at 10 percent.PV(Jones) = C3 / (1+r)3= $150,000 / (1.10)3= $112,697.22Since the PV of the Joneses’ offer, $112,697.22, is less than the Smiths’ offer, $115,000, you should choose the Smiths’ offer.4.8 a. Since the bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the presentvalue of the $1,000 that will be received in 20 years. Note that the price of the bond isthis present value.P0= PV(C20)= C20 / (1+r)20= $1,000 / (1.08)20= $214.55The current price of the bond is $214.55.b.To find the bond’s price 10 years from today, find t he future value of the current price.P10 = FV10= C0 (1+r)10= $214.55 (1.08)10= $463.20The bond’s price 10 years from today will be $463.20.c.To find the bond’s price 15 years from today, find the future value of the current price.P15= FV15= C0 (1+r)15= $214.55 (1.08)15= $680.59The bond’s price 15 years from today will be $680.59.4.9Ann Woodhouse would be willing to pay the present value of its resale value.PV = $5,000,000 / (1.12)10= $1,609,866.18The most she would be willing to pay for the property is $1,609,866.18.4.10 a. Compare the cost of the investment to the present value of the cash inflows. You shouldmake the investment only if the present value of the cash inflows is greater than the costof the investment. Since the investment occurs today (year 0), it does not need to bediscounted.PV(Investment) = $900,000PV(Cash Inflows) = $120,000 / (1.12) + $250,000 / (1.12)2 + $800,000 / (1.12)3= $875,865.52Since the PV of the cash inflows, $875,865.52, is less than the cost of the investment,$900,000, you should not make the investment.b.The net present value, NPV, is the present value of the cash inflows minus the cost of theinvestment.NPV = PV(Cash Inflows) – Cost of Investment= $875,865.52 – $900,000= -$24,134.48The NPV is -$24,134.48.c.Calculate the PV of the cash inflows, discounted at 11 percent, minus the cost of theinvestment. If the NPV is positive, you should invest. If the NPV is negative, youshould not invest.NPV = PV(Cash Inflows) – Cost of Investment= $120,000 / (1.11) + $250,000 / (1.11)2 + $800,000 / (1.11)3 – $900,000= -$4,033.18Since the NPV is still negative, -$4,033.18, you should not make the investment. 4.11Calculate the NPV of the machine. Purchase the machine if it has a positive NPV. Do notpurchase the machine if it has a negative NPV.Since the initial investment occurs today (year 0), it does not need to be discounted.PV(Investment) = -$340,000Discount the annual revenues at 10 percent.PV(Revenues) = $100,000 / (1.10) + $100,000 / (1.10)2 + $100,000 / (1.10)3 +$100,000 / (1.10)4 + $100,000 / (1.10)5= $379,078.68Since the maintenance costs occur at the beginning of each year, the first payment is notdiscounted. Each year thereafter, the maintenance cost is discounted at an annual rate of 10percent.PV(Maintenance) = -$10,000 - $10,000 / (1.10) - $10,000 / (1.10)2 - $10,000 / (1.10)3–$10,000 / (1.10)4= -$41,698.65NPV = PV(Investment) + PV(Cash Flows) + PV(Maintenance)= -$340,000 + $379,078.68 - $41,698.65= -$2,619.97Since the NPV is negative, -$2,619.97, you should not buy the machine.To find the NPV of the machine when the relevant discount rate is nine percent, repeat the above calculations, with a discount rate of nine percent.PV(Investment) = -$340,000Discount the annual revenues at nine percent.PV(Revenues) = $100,000 / (1.09) + $100,000 / (1.09)2 + $100,000 / (1.09)3 +$100,000 / (1.09)4 + $100,000 / (1.09)5= $388,965.13Since the maintenance costs occur at the beginning of each year, the first payment is notdiscounted. Each year thereafter, the maintenance cost is discounted at an annual rate of ninepercent.PV(Maintenance) = -$10,000 - $10,000 / (1.09) - $10,000 / (1.09)2 - $10,000 / (1.09)3–$10,000 / (1.09)4= -$42,397.20NPV = PV(Investment) + PV(Cash Flows) + PV(Maintenance)= -$340,000 + $388,965.13 - $42,397.20= $6,567.93Since the NPV is positive, $6,567.93, you should buy the machine.4.12 a. The NPV of the contract is the PV of the item’s revenue minus its cost.PV(Revenue) = C5 / (1+r)5= $90,000 / (1.10)5= $55,882.92NPV = PV(Revenue) – Cost= $55,882.92 - $60,000= -$4,117.08The NPV of the item is -$4,117.08.b.The firm will break even when the item’s NPV is equal to zero.NPV = PV(Revenues) – Cost= C5 / (1+r)5– Cost$0 = $90,000 / (1+r)5 - $60,000r = 0.08447 = 8.447%The firm will break even on the item with an 8.447 percent discount rate.4.13Compare the PV of your aunt’s offer with your roommate’s offer. Choose the offer with thehighest PV. The PV of your aunt’s offer is the sum of her payment to you and the benefit fromowning the car an additional year.PV(Aunt) = PV(Trade-In) + PV(Benefit of Ownership)= $3,000 / (1.12) + $1,000 / (1.12)= $3,571.43Since your roommate’s offer occurs today (year 0), it does not need to be discounted.PV(Roommate) = $3,500Since the PV of your aunt’s offer, $3,571.43, is higher than your roommate’s offer, $3,500,you sh ould accept your aunt’s offer.4.14The cost of the car 12 years from today will be $80,000. To find the rate of interest such that your$10,000 investment will pay for the car, set the FV of your investment equal to $80,000.FV = C0 (1+r)12$80,000 = $10,000 (1+r)12Solve for the interest rate, r.8 = (1+r)120.18921 = rThe interest rate required is 18.921%.4.15The deposit at the end of the first year will earn interest for six years, from the end of year 1 to theend of year 7.FV = $1,000 (1.12)6= $1,973.82The deposit at the end of the second year will earn interest for five years.FV = $1,000 (1.12)5= $1,762.34The deposit at the end of the third year will earn interest for four years.FV = $1,000 (1.12)4= $1,573.52The deposit at the end of the fourth year will earn interest for three years.FV = $1,000 (1.12)3= $1,404.93Combine the values found above to calculate the total value of the account at the end of theseventh year:FV = $1,973.82 + $1,762.34 + $1,573.52 + $1,404.93= $6,714.61The value of the account at the end of seven years will be $6,714.61.4.16To find the future value of the investment, convert the stated annual interest rate of eight percentto the effective annual yield, EAY. The EAY is the appropriate discount rate because it captures the effect of compounding periods.a.With annual compounding, the EAY is equal to the stated annual interest rate.FV = C0 (1+ EAY)T= $1,000 (1.08)3= $1,259.71The future value is $1,259.71.b.Calculate the effective annual yield (EAY), where m denotes the number of compoundingperiods per year.EAY = [1 + (r/m)]m– 1= [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2– 1= 0.0816Apply the future value formula, using the EAY for the interest rate.FV = C0 [1+EAY] 3= $1,000 (1 + 0.0816)3= $1,265.32The future value is $1,265.32.c.Calculate the effective annual yield (EAY), where m denotes the number of compoundingperiods per year.EAY = [1 + (r/m)]m– 1= [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12– 1= 0.083Apply the future value formula, using the EAY for the interest rate.FV = C0 (1+ EAY)3= $1,000 (1 + 0.083)3= $1,270.24The future value is $1,270.24.d.Continuous compounding is the limiting case of compounding. The EAY is calculated asa function of the constant, e, which is approximately equal to 2.718.FV = C0⨯ e rT= $1,000 ⨯ e0.08⨯3= $1,271.25The future value is $1,271.25.e. The future value of an investment increases as the compounding period shortens becauseinterest is earned on previously accrued interest payments. The shorter the compoundingperiod, the more frequently interest is paid, resulting in a larger future value.4.17Continuous compounding is the limiting case of compounding. The future value is a function ofthe constant, e, which is approximately equal to 2.718.a. FV = C0⨯ e rT= $1,000 ⨯ e0.12⨯5= $1,822.12The future value is $1,822.12.b. FV = $1,000 ⨯ e0.10⨯3= $1,349.86The future value is $1,349.86.c. FV = $1,000 ⨯ e0.05⨯10= $1,648.72The future value is $1,648.72.d. FV = $1,000 ⨯ e0.07⨯8= $1,750.67The future value is $1,750.67.4.18Convert the stated annual interest rate to the effective annual yield, EAY. The EAY is theappropriate discount rate because it captures the effect of compounding periods. Next, discountthe cash flow at the EAY.EAY = [1+(r / m)]m– 1= [1+(0.10 / 4)]4– 1= 0.10381Discount the cash flow back 12 periods.PV(C12) = C12 / (1+EAY)12= $5,000 / (1.10381)12= $1,528.36The problem could also have been solved in a single calculation:PV(C12) = C T / [1+(r / m)]mT= $5,000 / [1+(0.10 / 4)]4 12= $1,528.36The PV of the cash flow is $1,528.36.4.19Deposit your money in the bank that offers the highest effective annual yield, EAY. The EAY isthe rate of return you will receive after taking into account compounding. Convert each bank’sstated annual interest rate into an EAY.EAY(Bank America) = [1+(r / m)]m– 1= [1+(0.041 / 4)]4– 1= 0.0416 = 4.16%EAY(Bank USA) = [1+(r / m)]m– 1= [1+(0.0405 / 12)]12– 1= 0.0413 = 4.13%You should deposit your money in Bank America since it offers a higher EAY (4.16%) than Bank USA offers (4.13%).4.20The price of any bond is the present value of its coupon payments. Since a consol pays the samecoupon every year in perpetuity, apply the perpetuity formula to find the present value.PV = C1 / r= $120 / 0.15= $800The price of the consol is $800.4.21 a. Apply the perpetuity formula, discounted at 10 percent.PV = C1 / r= $1,000 / 0.1= $10,000The PV is $10,000.b.Remember that the perpetuity formula yields the present value of a stream of cash flowsone period before the initial payment. Therefore, applying the perpetuity formula to astream of cash flows that begins two years from today will generate the present value ofthat perpetuity as of the end of year 1. Next, discount the PV as of the end of 1 year backone year, yielding the value today, year 0.PV = [C2 / r] / (1+r)= [$500 / 0.1] / (1.1)= $4,545.45The PV is $4,545.45.c.Applying the perpetuity formula to a stream of cash flows that begins three years fromtoday will generate the present value of that perpetuity as of the end of year 2. Thus, usethe perpetuity formula to find the PV as of the end of year 2. Next, discount that valueback two years to find the value today, year 0.PV = [C3 / r] / (1+r)2= [$2,420 / 0.1] / (1.1)2= $20,000The PV is $20,000.4.22Applying the perpetuity formula to a stream of cash flows that starts at the end of year 9 willgenerate the present value of that perpetuity as of the end of year 8.PV8= [C9 / r]= [$120 / 0.1]= $1,200To find the PV of the cash flows as of the end of year 5, discount the PV of the perpetuity as of the end of year 8 back three years.PV5= PV8 / (1+r)3= $1,200 / (1.1)3= $901.58The PV as of the end of year 5 is $901.58.4.23Use the growing perpetuity formula. Since Harris Inc.’s last dividend was $3, the next dividend(occurring one year from today) will be $3.15 (= $3 1.05). Do not take into account thedividend paid yesterday.PV = C1 / (r – g)= $3.15 / (0.12 – 0.05)= $45The price of the stock is $45.4.24Use the growing perpetuity formula to find the PV of the dividends. The PV is the maximum youshould be willing to pay for the stock.PV = C1 / (r – g)= $1 / (0.1 – 0.04)= $16.67The maximum you should pay for the stock is $16.67.4.25The perpetuity formula yields the present value of a stream of cash flows one period before theinitial payment. Apply the growing perpetuity formula to the stream of cash flows beginning two years from today to calculate the PV as of the end of year 1. To find the PV as of today, year 0,discount the PV of the perpetuity as of the end of year 1 back one year.PV = [C2 / (r – g)] / (1+r)= [$200,000 / (0.1 – 0.05)] / (1.1)= $3,636,363.64The PV of the technology is $3,636,363.64.4.26Barrett would be indifferent when the NPV of the project is equal to zero. Therefore, set the netpresent val ue of the project’s cash flows equal to zero. Solve for the discount rate, r.NPV = Initial Investment + Cash Flows0 = -$100,000 + $50,000 / r0.5= rThe discount rate at which Barrett is indifferent to the project is 50%.4.27Because the cash flows occur quarterly, they must be discounted at the rate applicable for a quarterof a year. Since the stated annual interest rate is given in terms of quarterly periods, and thepayments are given in terms of quarterly periods, simply divide the stated annual interest rate byfour to calculate the quarterly interest rate.Quarterly Interest Rate = Stated Annual Interest Rate / Number of Periods= 0.12 / 4= 0.03 = 3%Use the perpetuity formula to find the PV of the security’s cash flows.PV = C1 / r= $10 / 0.03= $333.33The price of the security is $333.33.4.28The two steps involved in this problem are a) calculating the appropriate discount rate and b)calculating the PV of the perpetuity.Since the payments occur quarterly, the cash flows must be discounted at the interest rate applicable for a quarter of a year.Quarterly Interest Rate = Stated Annual Interest Rate / Number of Periods= 0.15 / 4= 0.0375 = 3.75%Remember that the perpetuity formula provides the present value of a stream of cash flows oneperiod before the initial payment. Therefore, applying the perpetuity formula to a stream of cashflows that begins 20 periods from today will generate the present value of that perpetuity as of the end of period 19. Next, discount that value back 19 periods, yielding the price today, year 0.PV= [C20 / r] / (1+r)19= [$1 / 0.0375] / (1.0375)19= $13.25The price of the stock is $13.25.4.29Calculate the NPV of the asset. Since the cash inflows form an annuity, you can use the presentvalue of an annuity factor. The annuity factor is referred to as A T r, where T is the number ofpayments and r is the interest rate.PV(Investment) = -$6,200PV(Cash Inflows) = C A T r= $1,200 A80.1= $6,401.91The NPV of the asset is the sum of the initial investment (-$6,200) and the PV of the cash inflows ($6,401.91).NPV = -Initial Investment + Cash Flows= -$6,200 + $6,401.91= $201.91Since the asset has a positive NPV, $201.91, you should buy it.4.30There are 20 payments for an annuity beginning in year 3 and ending in year 22. Apply theannuity formula to this stream of 20 annual payments.PV(End of Year 2) = C A T r= $2,000 A200.08= $19,636.29Since the first cash flow is received at the end of year 3, applying the annuity formula to the cash flows will yield the PV as of the end of year 2. To find the PV as of today, year 0, discount thatamount back two years.PV(Year 0) = PV(End of Year 2) / (1+r)T= $19,636.29 / (1.08)2= $16,834.95The PV of the cash flows is $16,834.95.4.31There are 15 payments for an annuity beginning in year 6 and ending in year 20. Apply theannuity formula to this stream of 15 annual payments.PV(End of Year 5) = C A T r= $500 A150.15= $2,923.69Since the first cash flow is received at the end of year 6, applying the annuity formula to the cash flows will yield the PV as of the end of year 5. To find the PV as of today, year 0, discount thatamount back five years at 12 percent.PV(Year 0) = PV(End of Year 5)/ (1.12)5= $2,923.69 / (1.12)5= $1,658.98The PV of the annuity is $1,658.98.4.32Set the price of the note equal to the present value of the annuity of $2,000 per year.P = C A T r$12,800 = $2,000 A10rThe problem can be solved by using a calculator to find the appropriate discount rate.6.4= A10r0.090626= rThe problem can also be solved by using table A.2 in the back of the textbook. In table A.2, scanacross the row for 10-year annuity factors until one approximates 6.4. 6.4177, corresponding to arate of 9%, is close to the above factor, 6.4. Thus, the rate received is slightly more than 9%.The rate received is 9.0626%.4.33 a. To calculate the necessary annual payments, first find the PV of the $25,000 which youwill need in five years.PV = C5 / (1+r)5= $25,000 / (1.07)5= $17,824.65Next, compute the annuity that will yield the same PV as calculated above. Solve for thedeposit you will make each year.PV = C A T r$17,824.65= C A50.07$17,824.65 / A50.07= $4,347.27Depositing $4,347.27 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 five yearsfrom today.b.The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000 you will need five yearsfrom today.PV = C5 / (1+r)5= $25,000 / (1.07)5= $17,824.65You must deposit $17,824.65 as a lump sum to have $25,000 in the account at theend of five years.4.34First, determine the balance of the loan Nancy must pay.Balance = $120,000 (0.85)= $102,000Apply the annuity formula since Nancy will pay the balance of the loan in 20 equal, end-of-year,payments. Set the present value of the annuity equal to the balance of the loan. Solve for theannual payment, C.Balance = C A T r$102,000 = C A200.1$102,000 / A200.1= C$11,980.88= CThe equal installments are $11,980.88.4.35 a. The cash flows form a 31-year annuity where the first payment is received today.Remember to use the after-tax cash flows. The first payment of a standard annuity isreceived one year from today. Therefore, value all after-tax cash flows except thefirst after-tax payment using the standard annuity formula. Then add back the firstafter-tax payment to obtain the value of the option. Since the first payment is treatedseparately from the other payments, the annuity has 30 periods instead of 31 periods.PV = (1 – T c) C1 A T r + (1 – T c) C0= (1 – 0.28) $160,000 A300.1 + (1 – 0.28) $160,000= $1,201,180.55b.This option pays $446,000, after-tax, immediately. The remaining money is received as a30-year annuity that pays $101,055, annually before tax. Find the PV of the annuity,discounted at 10 percent. Remember to apply taxes to the annuity.PV = (1 – T c) C1 A T r + C0= (1 – 0.28) $101,055 A300.1 + $446,000= $1,131,898.53Choose the first option with a PV of $1,201,180.55 since it has a higher PV than the secondoption, $1,131.898.53.4.36First, use the standard annuity formula to compute the present value of all the payments you mustmake for each of your children’s educations.PV(Each Child’s Education) = C A T r= $21,000 A40.15= $59,954.55The annuity formula values any annuity as of one year before the first cash flow. Since the firstpayment for each child is made when the child enters college, the above value represents the cost of the older child’s education 14 years from now and of the younger child’s education 16 yearsfrom now. To find the PV of the children’s education at year 0, discount the above PV back 14years and 16 years for both the older and younger child, respectively.PV(Older Child) = PV(Education) / (1+r)14= $59,954.55 / (1.15)14= $8,473.30PV(Younger Child) = $59,954.55 / (1.15)16= $6,407.03PV(Total Cost) = PV(Older Child)+ PV(Younger Child)= $8,473.30 + $6,407.03= $14,880.32You will make 15 payments, since your first payment is made one year from today and the lastpayment is made when your first child enters college, 15 years from now. To find the amount ofeach payment, set the total PV of the childre n’s education costs equal to a 15-year annuity,discounted at 15 percent. Solve for the annual payment, C.PV(Total Cost) = C A T r$14,880.32 = C A150.15$14,880.32 / A150.15= C$2,544.79 = CThe annual payment that will allow you to pay for the total cost of your children’s collegeeducations in 15 years is $2,544.79.4.37To determine whether or not the policy is worth buying, calculate the NPV of the policy. Theparent’s six payments are cash outflows and the insurance company’s payment is a cash inflow.The PV of the parent’s payments can be calculated by applying the annuity formula, discounted at six percent, to both the first three payments (each $750) and the last three payments (each $800).PV(First 3 Payments) = C1 A T r= -$750 A30.06= -$2,004.76The annuity formula calculates the PV as of one period prior to the first cash flow. Since the first$800 payment occurs four years from today, the PV of the annuity of the last three payments mustbe discounted back three years.PV(Last 3 Payments) = [C4 A T r] / (1+r)3= [-$800 A30.06] / (1.06)3= -$1,795.45Discount the insurance company’s payment back 65 years. Take note that the discount rate is sixpercent for years 1 through 6 and seven percent for years 7 through 65.PV(Insurance Payment) = C65 / [(1+r)Year 1 - 6 (1+r)Year 7 – 65]= $250,000 / [(1.06)6 (1.07)59]= $3,254.33NPV = PV(First3 Payments) + PV(Last 3 Payments) + PV(Insurance Payment)= -$2,004.76 + -$1,795.45 + $3,254.33= -$545.88Since the NPV of the policy is negative, -$545.88, it is not worth buying.4.38Calculate the present value of the lease offer. An annuity in advance is a stream of cash flowsbeginning today. Since the annual lease payments form an annuity in advance, value all payments except the one made today using the standard annuity formula. Add back the payment made today.The immediate payment is not discounted because it occurs today, year 0. Because the firstpayment is treated separately, the annuity has nine periods instead of 10 periods.PV(Payments) = C0 + C1 A T r= -$15,000 + -$15,000 A90.08= -$108,703.32PV(Purchase Option) = C T / (1+r)T= -$25,000 / (1.08)10= -$11,579.84PV(Lease) = PV(Payments) + PV(Purchase Option)= -$108,703.32 - $11,579.84= -$120,283.16Since the PV of the lease offer is greater than $120,000, the cost of the machine, you shouldnot accept the offer.4.39Remember that your salary grows by four percent each year, and you just received a $50,000salary payment. Thus, your salary next year will be $52,000 (=$50,000 1.04). Two percent ofnext year’s salary will be deposited into the account.C = (Last Year’s Salary) (1+g) (Percent Deposited)= ($50,000) (1.04) (0.02)= $1,040.00Since your salary will continue to grow at four percent annually, your deposits will also grow at this rate. Apply the growing annuity formula, discounted at eight percent, to calculate the PV of your retirement account. PV = C GA T r,g * = $1,040.00 GA 400.08, 0.04 = $20,254.12To determine how much will be in the account at your retirement in 40 years, calculate the future value.FV = PV (1+r)T= $20,254.12 (1.08)40 = $440,011.02At the time of your retirement, the account will have $440,011.02.The notation GA T r, g represents a growing annuity consisting of T payments growing at a rate of g per payment, discounted at r .4.40Discount the individual cash flows to compute the NPV of the project. The cash flow, C 0, is the initial investment.PV(C 0) = -$5,000PV(C 1) = $700 / (1.1) = $636.36PV(C 2) = $900 / (1.1)2 = $743.80PV(C 3) = $1,000 / (1.1)3 = $751.32PV(C 4) = $1,000 / (1.1)4 = $683.01PV(C 5) = $1,000 / (1.1)5 = $620.92PV(C 6) = $1,000 / (1.1)6 = $564.47PV(C 7) = $1,250 / (1.1)7 = $641.45PV(C 8) = $1,375 / (1.1)8 = $641.45NPV = -$5,000 + $636.36 + $743.80 + $751.32 + $683.01 + $620.92 + $564.47 +$641.45 + $641.45= $282.78Purchase the machine since it has a positive NPV.4.41 a. Engineer:Apply the annuity formula, discounted at five percent, to calculate the PV of his undergraduate education.PV(Undergraduate) = C A T r= -$12,000 A 40.05 = -$42,551.41To find the PV of his practical experience in years 5 and 6, discount the two cash flows by five years and six years, respectively.PV(Experience) = $20,000 / (1.05)5 + $25,000 / (1.05)6= $34,325.90 Discount the corresponding two cash flows for the master’s degree by seven years andeight years.。

罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版

罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版

第五章:净现值和投资评价的其他方法1.如果项目会带来常规的现金流,回收期短于项目的生命周期意味着,在折现率为0 的情况下,NPV 为正值。

折现率大于0 时,回收期依旧会短于项目的生命周期,但根据折现率小于、等于、大于IRR 的情况,NPV 可能为正、为零、为负。

折现回收期包含了相关折现率的影响。

如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期,NPV 一定为正值。

2.如果某项目有常规的现金流,而且NPV 为正,该项目回收期一定短于其生命周期。

因为折现回收期是用与NPV 相同的折现值计算出来的,如果NPV为正,折现回收期也会短于该项目的生命周期。

NPV 为正表明未来流入现金流大于初始投资成本,盈利指数必然大于1。

如果NPV 以特定的折现率R 计算出来为正值时,必然存在一个大于R 的折现率R’使得NPV 为0,因此,IRR 必定大于必要报酬率。

3.(1)回收期法就是简单地计算出一系列现金流的盈亏平衡点。

其缺陷是忽略了货币的时间价值,另外,也忽略了回收期以后的现金流量。

当某项目的回收期小于该项目的生命周期,则可以接受;反之,则拒绝。

回收期法决策作出的选择比较武断。

(2)平均会计收益率为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。

其最大的缺陷在于没有使用正确的原始材料,其次也没有考虑到时间序列这个因素。

一般某项目的平均会计收益率大于公司的目标会计收益率,则可以接受;反之,则拒绝。

(3)内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0 的贴现率。

其缺陷在于没有办法对某些项目进行判断,例如有多重内部收益率的项目,而且对于融资型的项目以及投资型的项目判断标准截然相反。

对于投资型项目,若IRR 大于贴现率,项目可以接受;反之,则拒绝。

对于融资型项目,若IRR 小于贴现率,项目可以接受;反之,则拒绝。

(4)盈利指数是初始以后所有预期未来现金流量的现值和初始投资的比值。

必须注意的是,倘若初始投资期之后,在资金使用上还有限制,那盈利指数就会失效。

公司理财第七版Cha

公司理财第七版Cha

投资回报
合理配置资金,实现最大化的投资回报。
公司理财的基本原则
1 资金透明
清晰记录资金流动,避免财务混乱。
2 风险管理
分散投资风险,避免资金集中在一种投资方式上。
3 短期规划
4 长期视野
定期进行财务规划,及时调整公司资金使用计划。
注重企业的长期发展,不仅考虑眼前利益。
公司理财的策略
1
预算管理
制定有效预算,控制公司的支出和收入。
公司理财的工具
财务报表
通过财务报表分析企业财务状况及 收益情况。
投资组合
根据公司特点和目标制定多元化的 投资组合。
风险管理
采取风险管理策略,减少不确定因 素对企业的影响。
公司理财的案例分析
Case Study 1
如何应对金融危机时期的市场不确定性。
Case Study 2
如何优化现金流管理以应对行业竞争。
公司理财第七版Cha
公司理财是保证企业可持续经营的重要一环。本次演示将介绍公司理财的基 本原则、策略、案例分析等内容,帮助您更好地管理企业财务。
公司理财的重要性
稳定利润
优化资金流动,确保企业持续盈利。
风险管理
提前做好财务规划,避免企业面临不可预见的风险。
业务扩展
有针对性地进行理财,为企业的业务发展提供资金 保障。
2
现金流优化
专注管理现金流,减少资金占用和流动性风险。
3
投资增值
通过合理的投资策略增加企业价值和回报。
公司理财的挑战
1 市场波动
2 资金调配
市场变化可能导致企业收入和支出的不确定性。
如何合理调配资金以满足不同需求的挑战。
3 税务合规
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Chapter 24: Warrants and Convertibles24.1 a. A warrant is a security that gives its holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy shares of commonstock directly from a company at a fixed price for a given period of time. Each warrant specifies thenumber of shares of stock that the holder can buy, the exercise price, and the expiration date.b. A convertible bond is a bond that may be converted into another form of security, typically commonstock, at the option of the holder at a specified price for a specified period of time.24.2 a. If the stock price is less than the exercise price of the warrant at expiration, the warrant is worthless.Prior to expiration, however, the warrant will have value as long as there is some probability that thestock price will rise above the exercise price in the time remaining until expiration. Therefore, if thestock price is below the exercise price of the warrant, the lower bound on the price of the warrant iszero.b.If the stock price is above the exercise price of the warrant, the warrant must be worth at least thedifference between these two prices. If warrants were selling for less than the difference between thecurrent stock price and the exercise price, an investor could earn an arbitrage profit (i.e. an immediatecash inflow) by purchasing warrants, exercising them immediately, and selling the stock.c.If the warrant is selling for more than the stock, it would be cheaper to purchase the stock than topurchase the warrant, which gives its owner the right to buy the stock. Therefore, an upper bound onthe price of any warrant is the firm’s current stock price.24.3 a. The primary difference between warrants and call options is that, when warrants are exercised, the firmissues new shares. Both the purchase price and the exercise price of a warrant are received by the firmand increase the value of its assets. Unless a firm is selling calls on its own shares, this does not holdtrue for options.b.When call options are exercised, the number of shares the firm has outstanding remains unchanged.Shares of the company’s stock are simply transferred from one individual to another. When warrantsare exercised, however, the number of shares outstanding increases. This results in the value of thefirm being spread out over a larger number of shares, often leading to a decrease in value of eachindividual share. The decrease in the per-share price of a company’s stock due to a greater number ofshares outstanding is known as dilution.24.4 a. Before the warra nt was issued, Survivor’s assets were worth $3,500 (= 7 oz of platinum * $500 peroz). Since there are only two shares of common stock outstanding, each share is worth $1,750 (=$3,500 / 2 shares).b.When the warrant was issued, the firm received $500 fr om Tina, increasing the total value of the firm’sassets to $4,000 (= $3,500 + $500). If the two shares of common stock were the only outstandingclaims on the firm’s assets, each share would be worth $2,000 (= $4,000 / 2 shares). However, sincethe warr ant gives Tina a claim on the firm’s assets worth $500, the value of the firm’s assets availableto stockholders is only $3,500 (= $4,000 - $500). Since there are two shares outstanding, Survivor’svalue per share remains at $1,750 (= $3,500 / 2 shares) after the warrant issue. Note that the firm usesTina’s $500 to purchase one more ounce of platinum.c.If the price of platinum is $520 per ounce, the total value of the firm’s assets is $4,160 (= 8 oz ofplatinum * $520 per oz). If Tina does not exercise h er warrant, the value of the firm’s assets wouldremain at $4,160 and there would be two shares of common stock outstanding. If Tina exercises herwarrant, the firm would receive the warrant’s $1,800 striking price and issue Tina one share. The totalval ue of the firm’s assets would increase to $5,960 (= $4,160 + $1,800). Since there would now be 3shares outstanding and no warrants, Survivor’s price per share would be $1,986.67 (= $5,960 / 3shares). Since the $1,986.67 value of the share that she will receive is greater than the $1,800 exerciseprice of the warrant, investors will expect Tina to exercise. The firm’s stock price will reflect thisinformation and rise to $1,986.67per share on the warrant’s expiration date.24.5 a. Since the stock price is currently below the exercise price of the warrant, the lower bound on the priceof the warrant is zero. If there is only a small probability that the firm’s stock price will rise above theexercise price of the warrant, the warrant has little value. An upper bound on the price of the warrantis $8, the current price of General Modem’s common stock. One would never pay more than $8 toreceive the right to purchase a share of the company’s stock if the firm’s stock were only worth $8.b.If General Mod em’s stock is trading for $12 per share, the lower bound on the price of the warrant is$2, the difference between the current stock price and the warrant’s exercise price. If warrants wereselling for less than this amount, an investor could earn an arbitrage profit by purchasing warrants,exercising them immediately, and selling the stock. As always, the upper bound on the price of awarrant is the current stock price. In this case, one would never pay more than $12 for the right to buya single share of General Modem’s stock when he could purchase a share outright for $12.24.6 Ricketti currently has 10 million shares of common stock outstanding that sell for $17 per share and 1million warrants outstanding worth $3 each. Therefore, the value of the f irm’s assets before the warrantsare exercised is $173 million [= (10 million shares * $17 per share) + (1 million warrants * $3 per warrant)].Once the warrants are exercised, the total value of the firm’s assets increases by $15 million (= 1 millionwarrants * $15 per warrant). Since each warrant gives its owner the right to receive one share, the number of shares of common stock outstanding increases by 1,000,000.Therefore, once the warrants have been exercised, the value of Ricketti’s assets is $188 m illion (= $173million + $15 million) and there are 11 million (= 10 million + 1 million) shares of common stockoutstanding.The price per share of Ricketti’s common stock after the warrants have been exercised is $17.09 (=$188 million / 11 million shares).Note that since the warrants were exercised when the price per warrant ($3) was above the exercise valueof each warrant ($2 = $17 - $15), the stockholders gain and the warrant holders lose.24.7 No, the market price of the warrant will not equal zero. Since there is a chance that the market price of thestock will rise above the $21 per share exercise price before expiration, the warrant still has some value. Its market price will be greater than zero. (As a practical matter, warrants that are way out-of-the-money may sell at 0, due to transaction costs.)24.8 Since Warrant X gives its owner the right to purchase 3 shares for $20 each, the total exercise price of eachwarrant is $60 (= 3 * $20). Each share of Firm Y is currently selling for $25 per share. The value of three shares of the firm is $75 (= 3 * $25). Therefore, Warrant X effectively gives its owner the right to buy $90 worth of stock for $75. It follows that the minimum value of Warrant X is $15 (= $90 - $75), the difference between the exercise price of the warrant and the value of the stock received from the warrant exercise. IfWarrant X were selling for less than $15, an investor could earn an arbitrage profit by purchasing thewarrant, exercising it immediately, and selling the stock. Here, the warrant holder pays less than $15 while receiving the $15 difference between the price of 3 shares and the exercise price.24.9 The value of a single warrant (W) equals:W = [# / (# + #W)] * Call{S = (V/ #), K = K W}where # = the number of shares of common stock outstanding#W= the number of warrants outstandingCall{S, K} = a call option on an underlying asset worth S with a strike price KV = the firm’s value net of debtK W = the strike price of each warrantIn this problem:# = 4,000,000#W= 500,000V = $88,000,000K W= $20Therefore, the value of a single warrant (W) equals:W = [# / (# + #W)] * Call{S = (V/ #), K = K W}= [4,000,000 / (4,000,000 + 500,000) * Call{S = ($88,000,000 / 4,000,000), K = $20}= (8/9)*Call(S = $22, K = $20)In order to value the call option, use the Black-Scholes formula.The inputs to the Black-Scholes formula are: S= $22 σ2 = 0.04K =$20 r = 0.07t = 1After identifying the inputs, solve for d1 and d2:d1= [ln(S/K) + (r + ½σ2)(t) ] / (σ2t)1/2= [ln(22/20) + {0.07 + ½(0.04)}(1) ] / (0.04*1)1/2= 0.9266d2= d1 - (σ2t)1/2= 0.9266 - (0.04*1)1/2= 0.7266Find N(d1) and N(d2), the area under the normal curve from negative infinity to d1 and negative infinityto d2, respectively.N(d1) = N(0.9266) = 0.8229N(d2) = N(0.7266) = 0.7663According to the Black-Scholes formula, the price of a European call option (C) on a non-dividendpaying common stock is:C = SN(d1) – Ke-rt N(d2)= (22)(0.8229) – (20)e-(0.07)(1) (0.7663)= $3.81The Black-Scholes Price of the call option is $3.81.Therefore, the price of a single warrant (W) equals:W = (8/9)*Call(S = $22, K = $20)= (8/9)($3.81)= $3.39Therefore, the value of each of Superior Clamp’s warrants is $3.39.24.10 To calculate the number of warrants that Omega should issue in order to pay off $10 million in six months,use the Black-Scholes model to find the price of a single warrant, then divide this amount into the present value of $10 million to find the number of warrants to be issued.Since Omega owes $10 million in 6 months and the current yield on Treasury bills that mature in sixmonths is 10% per annum (continuously-compounded), Omega must raise $9,512,294 [= $10,000,000 /(e(0.10*0.5))] from the warrant issue today in order to meet its debt obligation of $10 million in six months.Since the val ue of Omega’s assets is $150 million after the announcement, the value of the firm’s assets will rise to $159.5 million (= $150 million + $9.5 million in proceeds) after the warrants are issued. Since the cash inflow from the warrants offsets the firm’s $9.5 million in debt, the value of the warrants will be exactly the same as if the cash from the warrants were used to immediately pay off the debt. In this case, the value of the firm’s assets after the warrant issue would be $150 million (= $159.5 millio n - $9.5 million cash to pay off debt). Use $150 million as the firm’s value net of debt (V) in the Black-Scholes formula. The firm has 1.5 million shares of common stock outstanding and wishes to issue warrants with a strike price of $95.The value of a single warrant (W) equals:W = [# / (# + #W)] * Call{S = (V/ #), K = K W}where # = the number of shares of common stock outstanding#W= the number of warrants outstandingCall{S, K} = a call option on an underlying asset worth S with a strike price KV = the firm’s value net of debtK W = the strike price of each warrantIn this problem:# = 1,500,000V = $150,000,000K W= $95Therefore, the value of a single warrant (W) equals:W = [# / (# + #W)] * Call{S = (V/ #), K = K W}= [1,500,000 / (1,500,000 +#W)] * Call{S = ($150,000,000/ 1,500,000), K = $95}= [1,500,000 / (1,500,000 +#W)] * Call(S = $100, K = $95)Since the firm must raise $9,512,294 as a result of the warrant issue, we know #W * W must equal$9,512,294.Therefore, it can be stated that:$9,512,294 = (#W)(W)$9,512,294 = (#W)([1,500,000 / (1,500,000 +#W)] * Call(S = $100, K = $95)In order to value the call option, use the Black-Scholes formula.The inputs to the Black-Scholes formula are: S= $100 σ2 = 0.5625K =$95 r = 0.10t = 0.5After identifying the inputs, solve for d1 and d2:d1= [ln(S/K) + (r + ½σ2)(t) ] / (σ2t)1/2= [ln(100/95) + {0.10 + ½(0.5625)}(0.50) ] / (0.5625*0.50)1/2= 0.4562d2= d1 - ( 2t)1/2= 0.4562 - (0.5625*0.50)1/2= -0.0742Find N(d1) and N(d2), the area under the normal curve from negative infinity to d1 and negative infinity to d2, respectively.N(d1) = N(0.4562) = 0.6759N(d2) = N(-0.0742) = 0.4704According to the Black-Scholes formula, the price of a European call option (C) on a non-dividend paying common stock is:C = SN(d1) – Ke-rt N(d2)= (100)(0.6759) – (95)e-(0.10)(0.50) (0.4704)= $25.08The Black-Scholes price of the call option is $25.08.Inserting this value into the equation above:$9,512,294 = (#W) [1,500,000 / (1,500,000 +#W)] *Call(S = $100, K = $95)$9,512,294 = (#W) [1,500,000 / (1,500,000 +#W)]*($25.08)#W = 507,634Therefore, in order to pay off $10 million worth of debt in 6 months, Omega should issue 507,634warrants today.24.11Since a convertible bond gives its holder the right to a fixed payment plus the right to convert, itmust be worth at least as much as its straight value. Therefore, if the market value of a convertible bond is less than its straight value, there is an opportunity to make an arbitrage profit by purchasing the bond and holding it until expiration.In Scenario A, the market value of the convertible bond is $1,000. Since this amount is greater than theconvertible’s straight value ($900), Scenario A is feasible.In Scenario B, the market value of the convertible bond is $900. Since this amount is less than theconvertible’s straight value ($950), Scenario B is not feasible.Scenario A is more likely.24.12 a. The conversion price indicates that for each $25 of face value of the bond, the convertible bondholdercan receive 1 share. Since the $25 conversion price divides into the $1,000 face value of the bond 40times (= $1,000 / $25), each convertible bond can be exchanged for 40 shares of Sportime’s stock.Since each share is currently trading for $24, the value of immediate conversion of a single convertiblebond is $960 (= $24 per share * 40 shares).Therefore, the minimum value that each convertible bond should sell for is $960.b. A convertible bond gives its owner the right to convert his bond into a fixed number of shares. Themarket price of a convertible bond includes a premium over the value of immediate conversion thataccounts for the possibility of increases in the price of the firm’s stock before the maturity of the bond.If the stock price rises, a convertible bondholder will convert and receive valuable shares of equity. Ifthe stock price decreases, the convertible bondholder holds the bond and retains his right to a fixedinterest and principal payments.24.13 a. Rob Stevens currently owns 500,000 of Isner’s 4,000,000 shares. Therefore, he owns 12.5%(= 500,000 / 4,000,000) of the firm’s common stock.b.The conversion price indicates that for every $20 of face value of convertible bonds outstanding, Isnerwill be obligated to issue a new share upon conversion. Since there is currently $20 million worth ofconvertible bonds (face value) outstanding, Isner will issue 1,000,000 (= $20,000,000 / $20) newshares when it calls the convertible bonds and forces conversion. This increases the number of Isner’soutstanding shares to 5,000,000 (= 4,000,000 + 1,000,000). After conversion, Rob Stevens will onlyown 10% (= 500,000 / 5,000,000) of the firm’s common stock.24.14 a. The conversion ratio is defined as the number of shares that will be issued upon conversion. Sinceeach bond is convertible into 28 shares of Hannon’s common stock, the conversion ratio of th econvertible bonds is 28.b.The conversion price is defined as the face amount of a convertible bond that the holder must surrenderin order to receive a single share. Since the conversion ratio indicates that each bond is convertible into28 shares and each convertible bond has a face value of $1,000, one must surrender $35.71 (= $1,000face value per bond / 28 shares per bond) in order to receive one share of Hannon’s common stock.c.The conversion premium is defined as the percentage difference between the conversion price of theconvertible bonds and the current stock price. Since Hannon’s common stock is trading for $31.25 pershare and the conversion price of each of its convertible bonds is $35.71, the conversion premium is14.27% [= ($35.71 / $31.25) – 1].d.The conversion value is defined as the amount that each convertible bond would be worth if it wereimmediately converted into common stock. Since each convertible bond gives its owner the right to 28shares of Hannon’s common stock, currently wor th $31.25 per share, the conversion value of the eachbond is $875 (= 28 shares * $31.25 per share).e.If Hannon’s common stock price increases by $2, the new conversion value of the bonds will be $931(= 28 shares * 33.25 per share).24.15 a. The straigh t value of a convertible bond is the bond’s value if it were not convertible into commonstock. Since the bond will pay $1,000 in 10 years and the appropriate discount rate is 10%, the presentvalue of $1,000, discounted at 10% per annum, equals the straight value of this convertible bond.Straight Value = $1,000 / (1.10)10= $385.54Therefore, the straight value of the convertible bond is $385.54.b. The conversion value is defined as the amount that the convertible bond would be worth if it wereimmediately converted into common stock. Since the convertible bond gives its owner the right to 25shares of MGH’s common stock, currently worth $12 per share, the conversion value of the bond is$300 (= 25 shares * $12 per share).Therefore, the conversion value of the convertible bond is $300.c.The option value of a convertible bond is defined as the difference between the market value of thebond and the maximum of its straight value and conversion value. In this problem, the bond’s marketvalue is $400, its straight value is $385.54, and its conversion value is $300.Option Value = Market Value - max[Straight Value, Conversion Value]= $400 – max[$385.54, $300 ]= $400 - $385.54= $14.46Therefore, the option value of the convertible bond is $14.46.24.16 The conversion price is defined as the face amount of a convertible bond that the holder must surrenderin order to receive a single share of stock. In this problem, the conversion price is $180. Since the bond hasa face value of $1,000, it is convertible into 5.56 (= $1,000 / $180) shares.The conversion value is defined as the amount that the convertible bond would be worth if it wereimmediately converted into common stock. Since the convertible bond gives its owner the right to 5.56shares of common stock, currently worth $60 per share, the conversion value of the bond is $333.33 (= 5.56 shares * $60 per share).Therefore, the conversion value of this convertible bond is $333.33.24.17 a. The straight value of a con vertible bond is the bond’s value if it were not convertible into commonstock. The bond makes annual coupon payments of $60 (= 0.06 * $1,000) at the end of each year for30 years. In addition, the owner will receive the bond’s face value of $1,000 w hen the bond matures in30 years. The straight value of the bond equals the present value of its cash flows.Since the bond makes annual coupon payments of $60 (= 0.06 * $1,000) for 30 years, the present valueof the coupon payments can be found by calculating the present value of an annuity that makespayments of $60 for 30 years, discounted at 12%.PV(Coupon Payments) = $60A300.12 = $483.31Since the repayment of principal occurs in 30 years, the present value of the principal payment can befound by discounting the $1,000 face value of the bond by 12% for 30 years.PV(Principal Payment) = $1,000 / (1.12)30 = $33.38Straight Value = PV(Coupon Payments) + PV(Principal Payment)= $483.31 + $33.38= $516.69Therefore, the straight value of the convertible bond is $516.69.b. The conversion price is defined as the face amount of a convertible bond that the holder must surrenderin order to receive a single share. In this problem, the conversion price is $125. Since the bond has aface value of $1,000, it is convertible into 8 (= $1,000 / $125) shares.The conversion value is defined as the amount that the convertible bond would be worth if it wereimmediately converted into common stock. Since the convertible bond gives its owner the right to 8shares of common stock, currently worth $35 per share, the conversion value of the bond is $280(= 8 shares * $35 per share).Therefore, the conversion value of this convertible bond is $280.c. If Firm A’s stock price were g rowing by 15% per year forever, each share of its stock would be worthapproximately $35(1.15)t after t years. Since each bond is convertible into 8 shares, the conversion value of the bond equals ($35*8)(1.15)t after t years. In order to calculate the number of years that it will take for the conversion value to equal $1,100, set up the following equation:($35*8)(1.15)t = $1,100t = 9.79Therefore, it will take 9.79 years for the conversion value of the convertible bond to exceed $1,100.。

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