财务管理课后习题答案第8章
财务管理学课后习题答案第8章
思考题1．答题要点：在进行投资项目现金流量的估计时，需要考虑的因素很多，并且可能需要企业多个部门的参与。
例如需要市场部门负责预测市场需求量以及售价；需要研发部门估计投资的研发成本、设备购置、厂房建筑等；需要生产部门负责估计工艺设计、生产成本等；需要财务人员协调各参与部门的人员，为销售和生产等部门建立共同的基本假设条件，估计资金成本以及可供资源的限制条件等。
为了正确计算投资方案的现金流量，需要正确判断哪些支出会引起企业总现金流量的变动，哪些支出只是引起某个部门的现金流量的变动。
在进行这种判断时，要注意以下几个问题：（1) 区分相关成本和非相关成本相关成本是指与特定决策有关的、在分析评价时必须加以考虑的成本。
与此相反，与特定决策无关的、在分析评价时不必加以考虑的成本是非相关成本，例如沉没成本等。
（2) 机会成本在投资决策中，我们不能忽视机会成本。
在计算营业现金流量的时候，需要将其视作现金流出。
因此机会成本不是我们通常意义上的支出，而是一种潜在的收益。
机会成本总是针对具体方案的，离开被放弃的方案就无从计量。
（3) 部门间的影响当我们选择一个新的投资项目后，该项目可能会对公司的其他部门造成有利的或不利的影响，决策者在进行投资分析时仍需将其考虑在内。
2．答题要点：根据我国的税法，在固定资产投资过程中，公司通常会面临两种税负：流转税和所得税。
流转税包括两类，分别是营业税和增值税，其中由于固定资产的变价收入由于需要缴纳营业税，所以营业税与固定资产投资决策有关，而投产的产品所取得的销售收入所交纳的增值税由于是价外税，通常就不需要额外地加以考虑了。
所得税是指项目投产后，获取营业利润以及处置固定资产的净收益（指变价收入扣除了固定资产的折余价值及相应的清理费用后的净收益）所应交纳的所得税，由于所得税会对项目的未来现金流量产生影响，在固定资产投资决策时应该加以考虑。
涉及固定资产变价收入所要上缴的流转税和所得税只发生在取得变价收入的当期，是一次性的。
物流企业财务管理课后练习题及部分答案
物流企业财务管理练习题第一章一、单项选择题1、企业的财务活动是指( A、货币资金收支活动) B、分配活动C、资金运动) D、资本金投入和收益活动物流企业财务管理总论2、企业同其投资者之间的财务关系反映的是( A、经营权和所有权关系C、投资与受资关系B、债权与债务关系D、债务与债权关系)3、企业同其债权人之间的财务关系反映的是( A、经营权和所有权关系C、投资与受资关系B、债权与债务关系D、债务与债权关系)4、企业同其被投资者之间的财务关系反映的是( A、经营权和所有权关系C、投资与受资关系B、债权与债务关系D、债务与债权关系)5、企业同其债权人之间的财务关系反映的是( A、经营权和所有权关系C、投资与受资关系6、现代财务管理的最优目标是( A、利润最大化B、每股利润最大化)B、债权与债务关系D、债务与债权关系C、企业价值最大化D、风险最小化)的具体应用7、财务管理实践中，对现金留有一定的保险储备，是( A、资金优化配置原则C、弹性原则B、货币时间价值原则D、收支平衡原则)8、在财务管理的法律环境中，≤公司法≥属于( A、财务法律法规B、合同法律法规C、税务法律法规D、企业组织的法律法规二、多项选择题1、物流企业的财务关系包括( A、企业同其所有者之间的财务关系B、企业同被投资者之间的财务关系C、企业同债权人之间的财务关系D、企业同债务人之间的财务关系E、企业同职工之间的财务关系)2、财务管理环境涉及的范围很广，其中最主要的是( A、金融市场环境B、经济环境C、法律环境) D、自然环境) E、国际环境3、广义的金融市场是批一切资本流动的场所，其交易包括( A、有价证券的买卖D、黄金和外汇的买卖B、票据承兑和贴现E、货币借贷) C、生产资料的产权交换4、金融市场对企业理财的作用表现为( A、金融市是企业筹资和投资的场所B、企业通过金融市场可以根据自身运营的需要进行长短期资金的相互转化C、金融市场为企业的财务管理活动提供各种金融服务，降低了企业理财的成本D、为企业相应空间内自主经营提供了法律上的保护E、金融市场可以为企业理财提供相关的信息5、与企业财务管理有关的经济方面的法律法规包括( A、企业组织的法律法规D、财务法律法规B、合同法律法规) C、税务法律法规E、全国统一的≤企业会计制度≥ ) D、企业内部整改E、汇率变化6、影响企业财务管理的宏观经济因素有( A、经济周期B、通货膨胀C、政府的经济政策)B、弹性原则E、收支平衡原则7、财务管理的原则一般包括( A、资金优化配置原则D、货币时间价值原则C、收益与风险均衡原则三、填空题1、企业的财务活动包括、、四个方面2、财务管理是指根据财经法规制度、运用特定的量化分析方法，组织企业的处理的一项经济管理工作、市场、、和市场和。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 8
CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END—OF—CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1。
How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure? Answer：Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates。
Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term。
2。
Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs。
money market instruments。
When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result？Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward。
On the other hand，money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding， the two hedging methods are equivalent。
财务管理学_立信出版社_第二版_课后习题答案解析精讲
财务管理习题答案第一章总论（一）判断题：1.×2.√3.×4.×5.×6.√7.×8. √9.× 10.√（二）单项选择题：1.D2.B3.C4.D5.D6.D7.A8.C9.D 10.C（三）多项选择题：1.A B D2. A B C3. A B C D4. A B C D5. A B C6.B C7. A B D 8. A C D 9. B C D 10. A B C D四、案例分析（1）股东利益最大化，是公司治理规则的胜利。
（2）股东利益最大化，贝恩资本等其它股东也不愿自己的控股权被摊薄同时也避免进一步激怒大股东，给公司带来更大的震荡。
（3）股东利益最大化，考虑大股东利益维持公司稳定（4）国美控制权之争，这场为国人持续瞩目的黄陈大战，时战时和，过程跌宕起伏，结局似已清晰而实则依旧扑朔迷离，如同一出围绕中国企业公司治理结构的庭辩大戏，集合了道德的判断、司法的约束、双方当事人的反思和嬗变等一系列精彩细节，而境外资本的介入又为充斥其间的口水战增加了无穷变数。
国美控制权之争在我们这个急剧转型的社会中持续发酵，对于大到市场经济、法治社会、契约精神，小到资本市场、公司治理、股东权益、职业经理人委托责任、品牌建设等等，都具有难以估量的启蒙价值。
因为相关的各利益主体都在规则允许的范围内行事，政府监管部门也牢牢地守住了自己作为一个中立的裁判员的边界。
因而，“国美之争”理应成为中国现代商业社会的一个经典案例，它对于正处于社会转型期的中国资本市场和公司治理具有不可比拟的非凡意义。
或许输的只是一家上市公司，赢的却是现代商业文明。
第二章财务管理基础知识1．FA=A×(F/A，5%，10) =10×12.578 =125.78PA=A×(P/A，5%，10) =10×7.7217 =77.217F=P×(F/P，5%，10) =100×1.6289 =126.89不应投资该项目.2. 100=A×(P/A，8 %，10)A=100/6.7101=14.90100=A×(P/A，2%，40)A=100/27.3555=3.663. FA=20×(F/A，5%，5) =20×5.5256 =110.512PA=20×(P/A，5%，8)- 20×(P/A，5%，3) =20×(6.4632-2.7232) =74.84.(1) F=1000×[ (F/A，5%，4)-1 ] =1000×(4.3101-1) =3310.1P=3310.1×(P/F，5%，3) =3310.1×0.8638 =2859.26(2) 3310.1=A×(P/A，5%，5)A=3310.1/4.3295=764.55(3) P=1000×(P/A，5%，3)+ 1200×(P/F，5%，4) + 1300×(P/F，5%，4)=1000×2.7232+1200×0.8227+1300×0.7835=4728.99（4）1000×(P/A，5%，3)=2723.2<3310.11000×(P/A，5%，3)+ 1200×(P/F，5%，4) =3710.44>3310.1 所以需4年5．(1) EA=100×0.3+50×0.4+30×0.3=59EB=110×0.3+60×0.4+20×0.3=63Ec=90×0.3+50×0.4+30×0.3=56σA = (100-59)2×0.3+(50-59)2×0.4+(30-59)2×0.3=28.09σB = (110-63)2×0.3+(60-63)2×0.4+(20-63)2×0.3=34.94σC = (90-56)2×0.3+(50-56)2×0.4+(30-56)2×0.3=23.7528.09qA= ×100% = 47.61%5934.94qB= ×100% = 55.46%6323.75qc= ×100% = 42.41%56（2）A=8%*47.61%=3.81%B=9%*55.46%=4.99%C=10%*42.41%=4.24%从风险来看，A最低，C其次，B最高；从风险收益率来看，A最低，C其次，B最高。
财务管理第六版课后习题答案复习资料解析
财务管理第六版课后习题答案复习资料解析山东科技大学【第二章】1(某公司需用一台设备，买价为9000元，可用8年。
如果租用，则每年年初需付租金1500元。
假设利率为8%。
要求:试决定企业应租用还是购买该设备。
解: 用先付年金现值计算公式计算8年租金的现值得:V0 = A×PVIFAi，n×(1 + i)= 1500×PVIFA8%，8×(1 + 8%)= 1500×5.747×(1 + 8%) = 9310.14(元)因为设备租金的现值大于设备的买价，所以企业应该购买该设备2(某企业全部用银行贷款投资兴建一个工程项目，总投资额为5000万元，假设银行借款利率为16%。
该工程当年建成投产。
要求:(1)该工程建成投产后，分8年等额归还银行借款，每年年末应还多少,(2)若该工程建成投产后，每年可获净利1500万元，全部用来归还借款的本息，需多少年才能还清, 1. 解:(1)查PVIFA表得:PVIFA16%，8 = 4.344。
由PVAn = A?PVIFAi，n得:A = PVAn,PVIFAi，n= 1151.01(万元)所以，每年应该还1151.01万元。
(2)由PVAn = A?PVIFAi，n得:PVIFAi，n =PVAn,A则PVIFA16%，n = 3.333查PVIFA表得:PVIFA16%，5 = 3.274，PVIFA16%，6 = 3.685，利用插值法: 年数年金现值系数5 3.274n 3.3336 3.685由以上计算，解得:n = 5.14(年)所以，需要5.14年才能还清贷款。
3.银风汽车销售公司针对售价为25万元的A款汽车提供两种促销方案。
a方案为延期付款业务，消费者付现款10万元，余款两年后付清。
b方案为商业折扣，银风汽车销售公司为全款付现的客户提供3%的商业折扣。
假设利率为10%，消费者选择哪种方案购买更为合算,方案a的现值P=10+15*(p/f,10%,2)=10+15/((10+10%) )=22.40万元方案b的现值=25*(1-3%)=24.25万元因为方案a现值<方案b现值，所以，选择a方案更合算4.李东今年20岁，距离退休还有30年。
财务管理学课后题(填入答案)
5．产权比率侧重于揭示财务结构的稳健程度以及自有资金对偿债风险的承受能力。(√)
6．或有负债可能增强企业的偿债能力。(×)
7．在进行已获利息倍数对指标的同行业比较分析时，从稳健的角度出发，应以本企业该指标最高的年度数据作为分析依据。(×)
第二章
一、单项选择题
1．下列各项中，可能不会影响流动比率的业务是(A)。
A．用现金购买短期债券B．用现金购买固定资产
C．用存货进行对外长期投资D．从银行取得长期借款
2．某企业期初存货为52万元，期末流动比率为2，速动比率为1.2，期末流动负债为60万元，本期主营业务收入为600万元，销售毛利为500万元，则本期存货周转率为（C）。
全部资产周转率总变动＝2.8－2.4＝0.4(次)
流动资产周转率变动的影响＝(5.99－6.3)×38％＝－0.12(次)
资产结构变动的影响＝5.99×(46.7％－38％)＝0.52(次)
流动资产周转率变动与资产结构变动的共同影响＝－0.12＋0.52＝0.4(次)
3．辽远公司2003年末资产负债表的有关资料如下：
8．影响总资产净利率的因素有(AC)。
A．资产平均总额B．利息支出C．净利润D．权益乘数
9．若公司流动比率过高，可能由()ABCD情况所导致。
A．产品滞销B．应收账款增多
C．待摊费用增加D．待处理财产损失增加
l0．沃尔评分法的缺点有(AD)。
A．选定的指标缺乏证明力
B．不能对企业的信用水平做出评价
C．不能确定总体指标的累计分数
资产金额负债及所有者权益金额
货币资金2500应付账款6700
财务管理课后习题答案(完美版)
财务管理课后习题答案第一章 答案一、单项选择题1.C2.A3.D4.A5.B 二、多项选择题1.ABC2.BC3.ABCD4.AC5. AC 三、判断题1. ×2. ×3. ×4. √5. ×第二章 答案一、单项选择题1.A2.C3.A4.D5.B6.B7.A8.C9.C 10.B 二、多项选择题1.AC2.ABD3.ACD4.ABCD5.ABD6.ABC7.BCD8.AC9.BD 10.ABCD 三、判断题1. √2. ×3. ×4. √5. × 四、计算题1．PV=8000×（P/A,8%12,240）=953,594（元）银行贷款的年利率为8%时，分期付款方式好，低于一次性付款。
PV=8000×（P/A,6%12,240）=1,116,646（元）银行贷款的年利率为6%时，一次性付款方式好，低于分期付款的现值。
2．（1）由100=10×（F/P,10%,n ）得：（F/P,10%,n ）=10 查复利终值系数表，i=10%，（F/P,10%,n ）=10，n 在24~25年之间； （2）由100=20×（F/P,5%,n ）得：（F/P,5%,n ）=5 查复利终值系数表，i=5%，（F/P,5%,n ）=5，n 在30~35年之间；（3）由100=10×（F/A,10%,n ）得：（F/A,10%,n ）=50 查年金终值系数表，i=10%，（F/A,10%,n ）=50，n 在18~19年之间； 因此，第三种方式能使你最快成为百万富翁。
3.（1）2010年1月1日存入金额1000元为现值，2013年1月1日账户余额为3年后终值： F ＝P ×（F/P ，12%，3）＝1000×1.405＝1405（元）（2）F ＝1000×（1＋12%/4）3×4 ＝1000×1.426 ＝1426（元）（3）2013年1月1日余额是计算到期日的本利和，所以是普通年金终值：F ＝250×（F/A ，12%，4）＝250×4.779 ＝1194.75（元） （4）F ＝1405，i ＝12%，n ＝4 则：F ＝A ×（F/A ，i ，n ） 即1405＝A ×（F/A,12%，4）＝A ×4.779 ,A ＝1405÷4.779=293.99（元） 4. 10=2×（P/A ，i ，8） （P/A ，i ，8）=5查年金现值系数表， i =8，（P/A, i.8）=5， i 在11~12年之间178.0146.0146.5%1%%11⎪⎪⎫⎪⎫⎪⎪⎫⎪⎫x2021 得,借款利率为11.82%5.递延年金现值P ＝300×（P/A ，10%，5）×（P/F ，10%，2）＝300×3.791×0.826＝939.4098（万元）。
财务管理第三版课后习题答案
财务管理第三版课后习题答案【篇一：财务管理_第三版(陆正飞)课后练习参考答案】第三版（陆正飞主编）练习题、自测题参考答案第1章导论【练习题】1.1独资企业、合作企业、公司制企业1.2公司、有利于企业融资1.3业绩股、递延奖金1.4预算约束、人员控制、审计监督1.5 a c1.6 b c1.7 a b c d1.8 a b c d1.9 b1.10 d1.11 a b c d1.12 ~1.16 错错错错对【自测题】参见教材相关内容。
第2章【练习题】2.2 动态平衡原则用公式表示即是：期初现金余额+预算期预期现金流入-预算期预期现金流出=期末预期现金余额。
动态平衡原则的含义是保持现金流入与流出在时间和数量上的协调平衡。
遵循动态平衡原则的原因主要有二：一是为保证企业的正常运转，必须避免出现现金短缺的情况；二是财务预算只能是大致估算，必须保持一定弹性或余地。
第3章3.1 参见教材“经济环境”相关内容。
3.3 参见教材有关产业及行业特征的内容。
第4章4.1 参见教材相关内容。
4.2 名义利率=实际无风险利率（纯利率）+通货膨胀补偿+风险报酬。
如果投资政府债券，投资者将较可靠地收回本金，并能根据资金的供求状况获取资金报酬，但还需因通货膨胀得到补偿，以弥补其货币购买力损失，通货膨胀补偿一般以一定时期内的平均通货膨胀率来衡量。
如果投资其他风险较大的债券，投资者除按资金供求状况获取报酬并得到通货膨胀补偿外，还将因承担了风险而得到补偿，即风险报酬，这些风险包括违约风险、流动性风险和期限风险。
第5章5.1 公司权益增加300万元。
5.2 来自经营活动的净现金流量=-50（万元）来自投资活动的净现金流量=-50（万元）来自筹资活动的净现金流量=300（万元）年末现金余额=200+300-50-50=400（万元）第7章货币时间价值【练习题】7.1无风险、无通货膨胀7.2在一段时间内，每隔相同时间等额7.3 ？7.4 b7.5 a7.6 a b c7.7 a b d7.8错7.9对【自测题】7.1各年的现金流量净额分别为：ncf0=-160000；ncf1-8=40000npv=13743.64所以，该设备值得购买。
工程财务管理-张学英-课后习题答案
或者你才在上一个洞吞了柏忌，下一个洞你就为抓了老鹰而兴奋不已。
《工程财务管理》思考与习题答案第1章工程财务管理导论1．思考题略2．单项选择题（1）A（2）A（3）A（4）B（5）D（6）C（7）C（8）A （9）D（10）C3．多项选择题（1）AB （2）ABC （3）ABCD （4）ACD （5）ABCD4．判断题（1）×（2）√（3）√（4）√（5）×第2章工程财务管理的基本理论1．思考题略2．单项选择题（1）B（2）D（3）B（4）C（5）C（6）B（7）A（8）C3．多项选择题（1）ABCD （2）ABCD（3）BC （4）AB （5）BD（6）ABC （7）ABD（8）ABC （9）AB4．判断题（1）×（2）×（3）√（4）×（5）√（6）×第3章工程财务报表分析1．思考题略2．填空题（1）财务报表及其有关财务资料（2）盈利能力（3）2 （4）弱（5）净利润（6）净资产报酬率3．单项选择题（1）C（2）C （3）C （4）D （5）B （6）A （7）A （8）B（9）B4．多项选择题（1）ABCD （2）ABCD （3）BCD （4）ABCD （5）BD （6）CD （7）BC（8）CD （9）AB （10）AB只有凭借毅力，坚持到底，才有可能成为最后的赢家。
这些磨练与考验使成长中的青少年受益匪浅。
在种种历练之后，他们可以学会如何独立处理问题；如何调节情绪与心境，直面挫折，抵御压力；如何保持积极进取的心态去应对每一次挑战。
往往有着超越年龄的成熟与自或者你才在上一个洞吞了柏忌，下一个洞你就为抓了老鹰而兴奋不已。
5．判断题（1）√（2）√（3）×（4）×（5）×（6）×（7）×（8）×（9）×（10）√6．计算分析题（1）根据2001年销售额62500万元可知：2000年销售额=62500/（1+0.28）=48828.13万元从下图可知，新科技公司由于2000年资产负债率、总资产周转率低于同行业，企业总资产盈利能力差，而且，企业经营风险更多的集中在企业净资产上，直接影响净资产收益率。
《财务管理》书课后习题答案
第一章：一．单项选择1.C2.A3.D4.D5.B6.D7.B8.C9.C 10.B二．多项选择1.ABD2.BC3.BCE4.AB5.ABD6.ABC三．判断1. 2.√ 3.√ 4.× 5.× 6.×7.×8.×9.×10.√第二章:一．单项选择1.A2.C3.B4.B5.C6.A7.B8.B9.B 10.CD二．多项选择1.ABCD2.BD3.ABCD4.ABCD5.CD6.CD7.ABCD8.BCD9.BC三．判断1.√2.√3.√4. ×5. ×6. ×7. ×8.√9.√10.√四．计算题1.现值P=5000（P/A，10%，10）*（P/F，10%，10）=11843.722.（P/A，5%，20）=12.4622 （F/A，5%，20）=33.0663.预付年金终值系数=34.7193 预付年金现值系数=13.08534.P=10（P/A，10%，10）*（P/F，10%，3）=46.1644万元5.永续年金现值P=10/6%=166.67元五．案例分析（一）、（1）根据资料(1)计算系列租金的现值和终值?终值是（F/A，5%，6）A=38090.64；现值是（P/A，5%，6）A=28423.92如果年租金改按每年年初支付一次，再计算系列租金的现值和终值?终值是（F/A，5%，7）A-A=39995.2；现值是（P/A，5%，5）A+A=29845.2 （2）每年年金A=10000+5000*2+3000*3+1000*4=33000元利民公司应存入：P=A/i=33000÷4%=825000元（3）借入本金P=A(P/A,6%,8)-A(P/,6%,3)=70736元偿还本息F=A（F/A，6%，5）=20000*5.637=30043.36元（二）（1）太平洋保险股份期望报酬率-E=20%×0.2+30%×0.6+40%×0.2=30%高新实业股份期望报酬率-E =0%×0.2+30%×0.6+60%×0.2=30% σ太平洋=2.0%)30%40(6.0%)30%30(2.0%)30%20(222⨯-+⨯-+⨯-=0.063σ高新实业=2.0%)30%60(6.0%)30%30(2.0%)30%0(222⨯-+⨯-+⨯-=0.190 V 太平洋 =%30063.0=E -σ=0.21 V 高新实业= %30190.0=E -σ=0.63所以，太平洋保险股份风险小。
财务管理学课后习题答案2-人大版
财务管理学课后习题答案2-人大版《财务管理学》课后习题——人大教材第六章 资本结构决策1、三通公司拟发行5年期、利率6%、面额1000元债券一批；预计发行总价格为550元，发行费用率2%；公司所得税率33%。
要求：试测算三通公司该债券的资本成本率。
参考答案：可按下列公式测算： )1()1(b b bF B T I K --= =1000*6%*（1-33%）/550*（1-2%）=7.46%2、四方公司拟发行优先股50万股，发行总价150万元，预计年股利率8%，发行费用6万元。
要求：试测算四方公司该优先股的资本成本率。
参考答案：可按下列公式测算：pp P D Kp =其中：p D =8%*150/50=0.24p P =（150-6）/50=2.88pp P D Kp ==0.24/2.88=8.33%3、五虎公司普通股现行市价为每股20元，现准备增发8万份新股，预计发行费用率为5%，第一年每股股利1元，以后每年股利增长率为5%。
要求：试测算五虎公司本次增发普通股的资本成本率。
参考答案：可按下列公式测算：G P D Kc c+==1/19+5%=10.26%4、六郎公司年度销售净额为28000万元，息税前利润为8000万元，固定成本为3200万元，变动成本为60%；资本总额为20000万元，其中债务资本比例占40%，平均年利率8%。
要求：试分别计算该公司的营业杠杆系数、财务杠杆系数和联合杠杆系数。
参考答案：可按下列公式测算：DOL=1+F/EBIT=1+3200/8000=1.4 DFL=8000/（8000-20000*40%*8%）=1.09 DCL=1.4*1.09=1.535、七奇公司在初创时准备筹集长期资本5000万元，现有甲、乙两个备选筹资方案，有关资料如下表： 筹资方式 筹资方案甲筹资方案乙筹资额（万元）个别资本成本率（%）筹资额（万元）个别资本成本率（%）长期借款公司债券普通股800120030007.08.514.0110040035007.58.014.0合计5000 —5000 —要求：试分别测算该公司甲、乙两个筹资方案的综合资本成本率，并据以比较选择筹资方案。
财务管理·基础班·课后练习题·第八章
第八章财务分析与评价一、单项选择题1.下列指标中，属于效率比率的是（）。
A.速动比率B.资本金利润率C.资产负债率D.流动负债占全部负债的比重2.某企业2007年和2008年的营业净利率分别为7%和8%，资产周转率分别为2和1.5，两年的资产负债率相同，与2007年相比，2008年的净资产收益率变动趋势为（）。
A.上升B.下降C.不变D.无法确定3.在下列财务绩效评价指标中，属于企业盈利能力基本指标的是（）。
A.营业利润增长率B.总资产报酬率C.总资产周转率D.资本保值增值率4.某企业2009年营业收入净额为36000万元，流动资产平均余额为4000万元，固定资产平均余额为8000万元。
假定没有其他资产，则该企业2009年的总资产周转率为（）次。
A.3.0B.3.4C.2.9D.3.25.在销售额既定的条件下，形成流动资产相对节约的充分必要条件是（）。
A.分析期流动资产周转次数小于基期B.分析期流动资产周转次数大于基期C.分析期流动资产周转次数等于基期D.分析期流动资产周转次数不大于基期6.在年报中，管理层讨论与分析信息披露在（）中。
A.会计报表附注B.董事会报告C.审计报告D.管理层讨论与分析7.财务绩效定量评价指标中，属于债务风险基本评价指标的是（）。
A.或有负债比率B.已获利息倍数C.流动比率D.产权比率8.（）是以某一时期的数额为固定的基期数额而计算出来的动态比率。
A.构成比率B.效率比率C.定基动态比率D.环比动态比率9.（）是指净利润与总资产平均数的比率，反映平均每1元总资产为投资者所创造的利润。
A.净资产收益率B.总资产收益率C.总资产报酬率D.流动比率10.某上市公司2009年度归属于普通股股东的净利润为25000万元。
2008年末的股本为8000万股，2009年2月8日，经公司2008年度股东大会决议，以截止2008年末公司总股本为基础，向全体股东每10股送红股10股，工商注册登记变更完成后公司总股本变为16000万股。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 8
CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide ahedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate i s $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forwa rd rate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:$ Co st Options hedge Forward hedge $3,453.75 $3,150 0 0.579 0.64 (strike $/SF $253.75F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dolla rs using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client?(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124) = $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 p er U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides tohedge using a forward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbusneed to take? What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the ‘expected’euro proceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between theoption and money market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). Th is is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging: €28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchangerate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$ Sp otPutPayoff“Put”ProfitsCallPayoff“Call”ProfitsNetProfit1. 60(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 61(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 62(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 63(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 64(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541. 65(1,742,846)60,606,0611,742,846060,606,0611. 66(1,742,846)60,240,9641,742,846060,240,9641. 67(1,742,846)59,880,2401,742,846059,880,2401. 68(1,742,846)59,523,8101,742,846059,523,8101. 69(1,742,846)59,171,5981,742,846059,171,5981. 70(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291.(1,742,858,8231,742,8058,823,7146),529465291. 72(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 73(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 74(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 75(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 76(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 77(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 78(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 79(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 80(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 81(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 82(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 83(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 84(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291. 85(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercisedIf spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrike PricePutPayoff“Put”PrincipalCallPayoff“Call”PrincipalNetProfit0. 60(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 61(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 62(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 63(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 64(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 65(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 66(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 67(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 68(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 69(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 70(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 71(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 72(75,332)72,000,00075,573072,000,2410. 73(75,332)73,000,00075,573073,000,2410. 74(75,332)74,000,00075,573074,000,2410. 75(75,332)75,000,00075,573075,000,2410. 76(75,332)76,000,00075,573076,000,2410. 77(75,332)77,000,00075,573077,000,2410. 78(75,332)78,000,00075,573078,000,2410. 79(75,332)79,000,00075,573079,000,2410. 80(75,332)80,000,00075,573080,000,2410. 81(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2410. 82(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2410. 83(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2410. 84(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2410. 85(75,332)075,57380,250,00080,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size 9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following tablesummarizes the payoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.。
财务管理课后习题参考答案
第二部分复习思考参考答案第一章总论1.名词解释（1）财务管理财务管理是以企业特定的财务管理目标为导向，组织财务活动、处理财务关系的价值管理活动，是企业管理的重要组成部分。
基本内容包括：筹集管理、投资管理、营运管理、分配管理。
（2）财务关系企业财务关系是指企业在组织财务活动过程中与有关各方面发生的经济利益关系。
（3）财务目标财务目标是指企业在特定的理财环境中，组织财务活动、处理财务关系所要达到的根本目的。
它是评价企业财务管理活动是否合理的标准。
（4）财务环境财务环境是企业从事财务管理活动过程中所处的特定时间和空间。
财务环境既包括企业理财所面临的政治、经济、法律和社会文化等宏观环境，以及企业自身管理体制、经营组织形式、生产经营规模、内部管理水平等微观环境。
2.单项选择题（1）A （2）B （3）C （4）D （5）B （6）D3.多项选择题（1）ABCD （2）ACD （3）ABC （4）ABCD （5）ABC （6）CD4.判断题（1）√（2）×（3）√（4）×（5）×（6）×5.填空题（1）价值管理、信息反馈、控制与调节（2）法律环境、金融环境和经济环境（3）利润最大化、股东财富最大化、企业价值最大化（4）供应、需求6．简答题（1）企业财务活动的主要内容是什么?财务活动是指资金的筹集、投放、使用、收回及分配等一系列行为。
从整体上讲，财务活动包括筹资活动、投资活动、营运活动、分配活动。
企业的财务活动贯穿于企业生产经营活动过程的始终，具体来说包括以下内容：①资金筹集活动。
是指企业为了满足投资和用资的需要，筹措和集中所需资金的行为。
筹集资金是资金运动的起点。
②投资活动。
企业取得资金后，就要将资金投入使用，以获取最大的经济效益，否则，筹资就失去了目的和效用。
③资金营运活动。
在使用资金过程中，应加速资金周转，提高资金利用效果。
④资金收入与分配活动。
企业通过对内投资和对外投资必然会取得收入。
(完整word版)国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案8
CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreignexchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission that buyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ.When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$ is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three days’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the chan ges in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 •Borrow $100 million at •Pay interest for first three •Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) •Roll loan over at•September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓•••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ↓↓↓↓↓•••••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used tohedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between the futures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:•has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,•accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,•pays interest quarterly,•has a one-year term to maturity, and•calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50= 1.1056 and d = 1/u= .9045. At the exercise price of E= 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0= Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。
财务管理课后习题答案
财务管理第一章财务管理概述1.试述财务管理的目标。
答：一、财务管理的整体目标：1.利润最大化。
2.每股盈余最大化。
3.股东财富最大化。
二、财务管理的分部目标：1.成果目标。
2.效率目标。
3.安全目标。
2.财务管理的经济环境包括哪些？答：1.经济发展状况。
2.通货膨胀。
3.利息率波动。
4.政府的经济政策。
5.竞争。
3.财务管理与会计的区别是什么？答：会计是对经济业务进行计量和报告，财务管理是在会计的基础上，强调对资金在经营活动、筹资活动、投资活动、分配活动中的运用。
一个看过去，一个看未来，一个重记录，一个重分析。
第二章货币的时间价值原理1.什么是货币的时间价值？答：货币的时间价值是指货币经历一定时间的投资和再投资所增加的价值，也称资金的时间价值。
2.计算利息有哪两种办法？分别是怎样计算的？答：1.单利的计算。
单利利息的计算公式为：利息额=本金×利息率×时间。
单利终值的计算公式为：终值=本金×（1+利息率×时间）单利现值的计算公式为：本金=终值×（1—利息率×时间）2.复利的计算。
复利终值的计算公式为：终值=本金×（1+利息率）复利现值的计算公式为：终值=本金×（1+利息率）的n次方3.什么是年金，简述各种年金及其计算方法。
答：年金是指等额、定期的系列收支。
（一）普通年金1.普通年金的终值计算：F=A*(F/A，i，n)=A*（1＋i）n－1／i，其中（F/A，i，n)称作“年金终值系数”，2.普通年金的现值计算P=A*(P/A，i，n)=A*[1-（1＋i）－n]/i，其中(P/A，i，n)称作“年金现值系数”，注：公式中n在上标。
（二）预付年金1.预付年金终值公式：Vn=A(1+i) 1 + A(1+i)2+ A(1+i)3+····+ A(1+i)nVn=A·FVIFAi.n·(1+i)或Vn=A·(FVIFAi,n+1-1)注：由于它和普通年金系数期数加1，而系数减1，可记作[FVIFAi,n+1-1] 可利用“普通年金终值系数表”查得(n+1)期的值，减去1后得出1元预付年金终值系数。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 8Word版
CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, y ou don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forward rate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$ Cost Options hedge Forward hedge $3,453.75 $3,150 0 0.579 0.64 (strike price) $/SF$253.75$20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i$)/(1+i F). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client?(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of€0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in theU.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides tohedge using a forward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action doesAirbus need to take? What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the‘expected’ euro proceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent betweenthe option and money market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T(30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibilityregarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”ProfitsCallPayoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541.61(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,454 1.62(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541.63(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,4541.64(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,4560,716,45441.65(1,742,846)60,606,061,742,846060,606,06111.66(1,742,846)60,240,961,742,846060,240,96441,742,846059,880,240 1.67(1,742,846)59,880,241.68(1,742,846)59,523,811,742,846059,523,8101,742,846059,171,598 1.69(1,742,846)59,171,5981.70(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991,742,846058,823,529 1.71(1,742,846)58,823,5291.72(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991,742,846058,823,529 1.73(1,742,846)58,823,5291.74(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991,742,846058,823,529 1.75(1,742,846)58,823,5291.76(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991.77(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991.78(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991.79(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991,742,846058,823,5291.80(1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,5291.81(1,742,846)58,823,5291.82(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991,742,846058,823,5291.83(1,742,846)58,823,5291.84(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,52991,742,846058,823,5291.85(1,742,846)58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 – 0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoffAustralian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”PrincipalCallPayoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.61(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.62(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.63(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.64(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.65(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.66(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.67(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.68(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.69(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.70(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.71(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.72(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,2410.73(75,332)73,000,0075,573073,000,2410.74(75,332)74,000,0075,573074,000,2410.75(75,332)75,000,0075,573075,000,2410.76(75,332)76,000,0075,573076,000,24175,573077,000,2410.77(75,332)77,000,000.78(75,332)78,000,0075,573078,000,24175,573079,000,2410.79(75,332)79,000,000.80(75,332)80,000,0075,573080,000,24180,250,2410.81(75,332)075,57380,250,000.82(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,24180,250,2410.83(75,332)075,57380,250,000.84(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,24180,250,2410.85(75,332)075,57380,250,004. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. Fora premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility oftheir bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have a ssumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following tablesummarizes the payoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit 120(1,524,990)100,000,00098,475,010 121(1,524,990)99,173,66497,648,564 122(1,524,990)98,360,65696,835,666 123(1,524,990)97,560,97686,035,986 124(1,524,990)96,774,19495,249,204 125(1,524,990)96,000,00094,475,010 126(1,524,990)95,238,09593,713,105 127(847,829)94,488,18993,640,360 128(109,640)93,750,00093,640,360 129617,10493,023,25693,640,360 1301,332,66892,307,69293,640,360 1312,037,30791,603,05393,640,360 1322,731,26990,909,09193,640,360 1333,414,79690,225,66493,640,360 1344,088,12289,552,23993,640,360 1354,751,43188,888,88993,640,360 1365,405,06688,235,29493,640,360 1376,049,11887,591,24193,640,360 1386,683,83986,966,52293,640,360 1397,308,42586,330,93693,640,360 1407,926,07585,714,28693,640,360 1418,533,97785,106,38393,640,360 1429,133,31884,507,04293,640,360 1439,724,27683,916,08493,640,360 14410,307,02783,333,33393,640,360 14510,881,74082,758,62193,640,360 14611,448,57982,191,78193,640,360。
财务管理基础课后作业答案
财务管理基础课后作业答案第一章财务治理概述一、单项选择题1-5：A D D C D 6-10：DC二、多项选择题1、BCD 2．ABCD 3. ACD 4、 ABCD 5、ACD三、判定题1-5：×××××第二章财务治理环境一、单项选择题：1-5：CADCB二、多项选择题：1、AD2、AC3、BDE4、BCD5、BCD6、ABC7、BD8、BCD三、判定题：1-6：××√√√√第三章财务估价一：单项选择题：1-5：BACDA 6-10：AABDD11-15：BBDCB 16-20：ADDB二、多项选择题1、ABD2、BCD3、AC4、ACD5、ACD6、AB三、判定题1-5：√×√√√ 6—10：××√×× 11-12：√√四、运算分析题1、解答：预付年金现值系数与一般年金现值系数关系：期数－1，系数＋1有：P＝500×{（P/A,10%,10-1)+1}＝500×（5.7590＋1）＝3379.53379.5<3600，故租赁该设备2、解答:（1）P=120×（P/A，5%，8）=120×6.4632=775.584（万元）(不能够还清贷款) （2）A=800/(P/A,5%,8)=1 000/6.4632=123.7777（万元）3.解答：(1)运算两个项目净现值的期望值A项目：200×0.2+100×0.6十50×0.2=110 (万元)B项目：300×0.2+100×0.6+(-50) ×0.2=110(万元)(2)运算两个项目期望值的标准离差σA= [(200-110)2× 0.2+(100-110)2× 0.6+(50-110)2×0.2]1/2 =48.99σB= [(300-110)2× 0.2+(100-110)2×0.6+(-50-110)2×0.2]1/2 =111.36(3)判定A 、B 两个投资项目的优劣由于A 、B 两个项目投资额相同，期望收益亦相同，而A 项目风险相对较小(其标准离差小于B 项目)，故A 项目优于B 项目。
财务管理课后习题解答
财务分析1.某公司年底有关余额如下:资产总计700万元，负债总计100万元；所有者权益600万元，其中：普通股（200万股）200万元；资本公积150万元，保留盈余250元。
该公司为扩大经营需要增加600万元，正考虑以下两种方案：甲方案：以每股5元的价格发行120万股普通股乙方案：发行10年期、利率为7%的债券600万元。
该公司最近几年财务状况一直很稳定，资产和负债均没有太大变化，每年税后利润约为所有者权益的10%。
公司扩大经营后税前净利润增长数为新增投资额的10%。
公司所得税税率为30%。
试计算两个方案增资后第一年每股股利。
解：增资前税后利润：600*10%=60增资后的：甲方案：增加的税后利润=600*10%*（1—30%）=42增资后第一年每股股利=（60+42）/（120+200）=0.319元/股乙方案：增加的税后利润=（600*10%—600*7%）*（1—30%）=12.6增加后第一年每股股利=（60+12.6）/200=0.363元/股2.某公司2006年财务报表主要资料如下:资产负债表利润表2006年度单位:千元要求：（1）计算该公司有关的财务比率（按表中列出指标计算）（2）与行业平均水平比较，说明该公司可能存在的问题。
解：流动比率=流动资产/流动负债=（310+1344+966）/（516+336+468）=2620/1320=1.985速动比率=（流动资产—存货）/流动资产=1654/1320=1.253资产负债率=负债/资产=2346/3790*100%=61.9%存货周转率=销售成本/平均存货=6570*2/（700+966）=7.887应收账款周转率=收入/应收账款平均余额=8430*2/(1156+1344)=6.744销售净利率=229.2/8430*100%=2.7%权益净利率=229.2/1444*100%=15.87%已获利息倍数=息税前利润/利息费用=(382+498)/498=1.78(2) 流动比率和平均水平相等,而速动比率大于行业平均水平,说明该公司的短期偿债能力比较好，但是我们也看到其应收账款巨大，说明其资产质量可能不高。
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思考题1．答题要点：在进行投资项目现金流量的估计时，需要考虑的因素很多，并且可能需要企业多个部门的参与。
例如需要市场部门负责预测市场需求量以及售价；需要研发部门估计投资的研发成本、设备购置、厂房建筑等；需要生产部门负责估计工艺设计、生产成本等；需要财务人员协调各参与部门的人员，为销售和生产等部门建立共同的基本假设条件，估计资金成本以及可供资源的限制条件等。
为了正确计算投资方案的现金流量，需要正确判断哪些支出会引起企业总现金流量的变动，哪些支出只是引起某个部门的现金流量的变动。
在进行这种判断时，要注意以下几个问题：（1) 区分相关成本和非相关成本相关成本是指与特定决策有关的、在分析评价时必须加以考虑的成本。
与此相反，与特定决策无关的、在分析评价时不必加以考虑的成本是非相关成本，例如沉没成本等。
（2) 机会成本在投资决策中，我们不能忽视机会成本。
在计算营业现金流量的时候，需要将其视作现金流出。
因此机会成本不是我们通常意义上的支出，而是一种潜在的收益。
机会成本总是针对具体方案的，离开被放弃的方案就无从计量。
（3) 部门间的影响当我们选择一个新的投资项目后，该项目可能会对公司的其他部门造成有利的或不利的影响，决策者在进行投资分析时仍需将其考虑在内。
2．答题要点：根据我国的税法，在固定资产投资过程中，公司通常会面临两种税负：流转税和所得税。
流转税包括两类，分别是营业税和增值税，其中由于固定资产的变价收入由于需要缴纳营业税，所以营业税与固定资产投资决策有关，而投产的产品所取得的销售收入所交纳的增值税由于是价外税，通常就不需要额外地加以考虑了。
所得税是指项目投产后，获取营业利润以及处置固定资产的净收益（指变价收入扣除了固定资产的折余价值及相应的清理费用后的净收益）所应交纳的所得税，由于所得税会对项目的未来现金流量产生影响，在固定资产投资决策时应该加以考虑。
涉及固定资产变价收入所要上缴的流转税和所得税只发生在取得变价收入的当期，是一次性的。
项目经营期内营业利润所得所要上缴的所得税则在整个项目的使用期间都会涉及。
经营期内所得税的大小取决于利润大小和税率的高低，而利润大小受折旧方法的影响，因此，讨论所得税问题必然会涉及折旧问题。
反过来，我们也可以说折旧对投资决策的影响，实际上是由所得税引起的，因此，我们可以把这两个问题放在一起讨论。
（1）税后成本与税后收入。
凡是可以税前扣除的项目，都可以起到减免所得税的作用，因而其实际支付金额并不是真实的成本，而应将因此而减少的所得税考虑进去。
税后成本的计算公式为：(1⨯-税后成本=实际支付税率)。
与税后成本相对应的概念是税后收入。
同样，由于所得税的作用，公司实际得到的现金流入是税后收入：(1⨯-税后收入=应税收入税率)。
在投资决策中，应纳所得税收入不包括项目结束时收回的垫支的流动资金等现金流入。
投资过程中取得的营业收入及固定资产变价收入都需要交纳流转税，而取得的营业利润还需要交纳所得税。
（2）折旧的抵税作用。
，折旧是在所得税前扣除的一项费用，因此可以起到抵减所得税的作用，这种作用称之为“折旧抵税”或“税收档板”。
折旧对税负的影响可按下式计算：⨯税负减少=折旧税率。
（3）税后现金流量。
从前面所讲的税后收入、税后成本和折旧的抵税来考虑，则营业现金净流量可以表示为：(1(1⨯-⨯-⨯每年营业现金净流量=税后收入-税后成本+税负减少=营业收入税率)-付现成本税率)+折旧税率3．答题要点：固定资产更新是对技术上或经济上不宜继续使用的旧资产，用新的资产更换，或用先进的技术对原有设备进行局部改造。
由于原来的固定资产的存在，固定资产更新决策与新建固定资产的决策相比增加了机会成本。
这使得固定资产更新决策和新建固定资产的决策在净现金流分布，决策期限上有所不同，进而在投资决策的分析分析方法上也有所不同。
固定资产更新决策的分析方法有：（1） 新旧设备使用寿命相同的情况。
在新旧设备尚可使用年限相同的情况下，我们可以采用差量分析法来计算一个方案。
（2） 多数情况下，新设备的使用年限要长于旧设备，此时的固定资产更新问题就演变成两个或两个以上寿命不同的投资项目的选择问题。
对于寿命不同的项目，不能对他们的净现值、内含报酬率及获利指数进行直接比较。
为了使投资项目的各项指标具有可比性，要设法使其在相同的寿命期内进行比较。
此时可以采用的方法有最小公倍寿命法和年均净现值法。
4．答题要点：进行风险性投资分析有两类基本方法，第一类方法称为风险调整法，即对项目的风险因素进行调整，主要包括调整未来现金流量和调整贴现率两方面内容。
第二类方法是对项目的基础状态的不确定性进行分析，主要包括敏感性分析、决策树分析、盈亏平衡分析等，这类方法研究投资基础状态变动对投资分析结果的影响力，来测试该投资分析的适用性，进而做出最终决策。
这些分析方法都是建立在对未来基础状态下的成本和收入的可靠估计基础上的。
其有效性在于：对那些与投资决策分析至关重要的变量的预测与估计都是基于当前可获得的信息和已有的知识和经验所作出的最佳估计，是当前情况下理性分析。
其局限性在于，由于未来的不确定性，认识和经验的局限性以及信息的不对称性，这些估计大多数带有很大的主观性，这些估计值与未来的实现值可能不一致，在某种情况下甚至存在较大的差距。
具体来说：（1）按风险调整贴现率法。
其有效性在于它将与特定投资项目有关的风险报酬，加入到资金成本或公司要求达到的报酬率中，构成按风险调整的贴现率，并据以进行投资决策分析。
其局限性表现在如果按照资本资产定价模型来调整贴现率，无风险贴现率R、F 用来表示项目j的不可分散风险的β系数、所有项目平均的贴现率或必要报酬率R的选m 择具有很大的主观性。
如果按照风险等级来调整贴现率，风险因素、风险等级、贴现率的确定都由企业的管理人员根据以往的经验来设定，也带有一定的主观性。
（2）按风险调整现金流量法。
其有效性在于按风险情况对各年的现金流量进行调整，然后进行长期投资决策的评价。
其局限性在于如果运用确定当量法，每年的约当系数的确定具有很大的主观性。
如果运用概率法，未来现金流量的概率分布的确定也会带有很大的主观性。
（3）决策树法。
决策树法也是对不确定性投资项目进行分析的一种方法。
前面提到的概率法只适于分析各期现金流量相互独立的投资项目，而决策树法则可用于分析各期现金流量彼此相关的投资项目。
决策树直观地表示了一个多阶段项目决策中每一个阶段的投资决策和可能发生的结果及其发生的概率,所以决策树法可用于识别净现值分析中的系列决策过程。
决策树分析为项目决策者提供了很多有用信息，但是进行决策树分析也需要大量的信息。
决策树要求被分析的项目可以被区分为几个明确的阶段，要求每一阶段的结果必须是相互离散的，而且结果发生的概率及其对现金流量的影响可以被事先预测，这些要求减少了可被分析项目的数量，从而使得决策树法的使用受到限制。
（4）敏感性分析。
敏感性分析（Sensitivity Analysis)是衡量不确定性因素的变化对项目评价指标（如NPV 、IRR 等）的影响程度的一种分析方法。
它回答“如果……，那么会怎样”的问题。
如果某因素在较小范围内发生变动，项目评价指标却发生了较大的变动，则表明项目评价指标对该因素的敏感性强。
反之，如果某因素发生较大的变动才会影响原有的评价结果，则表明项目评价指标对该因素的敏感性弱。
敏感性分析能够在一定程度上就多种不确定性因素的变化对项目评价指标的影响进行定量分析，它有助于决策者了解项目决策需要重点分析与控制的因素。
但敏感性分析方法也存在一些不足，如没有考虑各种不确定性因素在未来发生变动的概率分布情况，从而影响风险分析的准确性。
另外，敏感性分析孤立地处理每一个影响因素的变化，有时也会与事实不符，实际上，许多影响因素都是相互关联的。
练习题答案1．解：（1）4054040%16==⨯=（250-50）每年折旧额=（万元）每年税收收益（万元）（2）510%,516 3.79160.656PVA A PVIFA =⋅=⨯=（万元）2. 解：NPV A =-+80000×16%,3PVIFA =-+80000×2.246=19680（元）NPV B =-+64000×16%,6PVIFA =-+64000×3.685=25840（元）由于项目A 、B 的使用寿命不同，需要采用最小公倍数法。
6年内项目A 的净现值 NPV A =19680+19680×16%,3PVIF =19680+19680×0.641=32294.9（元）NPV B =25840（元）NPV A >NPV B ,所以应该选择项目A.3. 解： 表8-11 未来5年的现金流量 单位:元因为净现值大于零,所以应该进行固定资产更新 。
4．解：NPV=-20000×1.0+6000×0.95×10%,1PVIF +7000×0.9×10%,2PVIF +8000×0.8×10%,3PVIF +9000×0.8×10%,4PVIF =109.1（千元）>0该项目可行。
解：（1）项目A 的期望年现金流量=310×0.5+290×0.5=300（万元）项目B 的期望年现金流量=800×0.5+（-200）×0.5=300（万元） （2）项目A 的现金流量方差=22(310300)0.5(290300)0.5100-⨯+-⨯= 项目B 的现金流量方差=22(800300)0.5(200300)0.5250000-⨯+--⨯=项目B 的总风险较大，因为项目B 的现金流量方差更大。
（3）状况好时 NPV A =-1500+310×15%,10PVIFA =55.89（万元） NPV B =-1500+800×15%,10PVIFA =2515.2（万元）状况差时NPV A =-1500+290×15%,10PVIFA =-44.5（万元）NPV B =-1500+（-200）×15%,10PVIFA =-2503.8（万元）（4）如果我是公司股东，将选择项目B 。
因为如案例所述，时代公司已经濒临倒闭。
即使项目B 失败，股东也不会有更多的损失。
但是一旦项目成功，与选择项目A 相比能为公司带来更多的现金流量，从而使时代公司起死回生。
（5）如果使公司债权人，将希望经理选择项目A 。
因为项目A 的风险较小，可以保证债权人的资金安全。
（6）本例实际上是股东和债权人之间的代理问题。
为了解决这种代理问题，债权人可以采取多种措施，比如再贷款合同中限定公司的用途，只允许用于项目A 。