lsat真题答案
LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION2
LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION2LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION2LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION2section iitime 35 minutes25 questionsdirections: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions. more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions. you should not make assumptions that are by blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. when politicians resort to personal atacks many editortalists criticize thest attacks but most voters pay them scant attention. eeveryone knows such attacks will end after election day, and politicians can be excused for mudslinging. political commentators, however, cannot be. political commentators should be engaged in sustained and senousdebate about ideas and policies. in such a context personal attacks on opponents serve not to beat those opponents but to cut off the debate.which of the following most accurately states the main point of the argument?(a) dersonal attacks on opponets serve a usuful purpose for politicians.(b) political commentators should not resort to personal attacks on their opponents.(c) editonalists are right to criticize politicians who resort to personal attacks on their opponents.(d) the purpose of serious debate about ideas and policies is to counteract the effect of personal attacks by politicians.(e) voters should be concerned about the personal attacks politicians make on each other.2. throughout the popoya islands community pressure is exerted on people who win the national lottery to share their good fortune with their neighbors. when people living in rural areas win the lottery they invariably throw elaborateneighborhood feasts, often wiping, out all of their lottery winmmings. however, in the cities, lottery winners frequently use their winnings for their own personal investment rather than sharing their good fortune with their neighbors.which one of the following true, contributes most to an explanation of the difference between the behavior of lottery winners in rural areas and those in cities?(a) twice as many popoyans live in rural areas as live in the city.(b) popoyan city dwellers tend to buy several lottery tickets at a time, but they buy tickets less frequently than do rural dwellers.(c) lottery winners in rural areas are notified of winning by public posting of lists of winners, but notification in the city is by private mail.(d) families in rural areas in the popoyas may contain twelve or foruteen people, but city families average six or seven.(e) twice as many lottery tickets are sold in rural areas as are sold in the city.3. a new medication for migraine seems effective, but there is concern that the medication might exacerbate heart disease. if patiens with heart disease take the medication under careful medical supervision. however, harmful side effects can definitely be averted. the concern about those side effects is thus unfounded.the argument depends on which one of the following assumptions?(a) the new medication actually is effective when taken by patients with heart disease.(b) no migraine sufferers with heart disease will take the new medication except under careful medical supervision.(c) most migraine sufferers who have taken the new medication in trials also had heart disease(d) the new medication has various other side effects, but none as serious as that of exacerbating heart disease.(e) the new medication will displace all migrame medicztions currently being used.4. the highest-ranking detectives in the city s police department are also the most adept at solving crimes. yet in each of the past ten years. the average success rate for the city s highest-ranking detectives in solving crimnal cases has been no higher than the average success rate for its lowest-ranking detectives.which one of the follwing, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox?(a) the detectives who have the highest success rate in solving criminal cases are those who have worked as detectives the longest.(b) it generally takes at least ten years for a detective to rise from the lowest to the highest ranks of the city s detective force.(c) those detectives in the police department who are the most adept at solving criminal cases are also those most likely to remain in the police department.(d) the police department generally gives the criminal cases that it expects to be the easiest to solve to its lowest-ranking detectives.(e) none of the lowest-ranking detectivesin the police department had experiecne in solving critninal cases prior to joining the police deparment.5. imgation runoff from neighboring farms may well have increased the concentration of phosphorus in the local swamp above previous levels, but the claim that the increase in phosphorus is harming the swamp s native aquatie wildlife is false: the phospborus concentration in the swamp is actually less than that found in certain kinds of bottled water that some people drink every day.the argument is vulnerable to criticism on the ground that it(a) makes exaggerations in formulating the claim against which it argues(b) bases its conclusion on two contradictiry claims(c) relies on evidence the relevance of which has not been established(d) concedes the very point that it argues against(e) makes a generalization that is unwarranted becausethe sources of the data on which it is based have not been specified.6. copyright laws protect the rights of writers to profits earned from their writings. whereas patent laws protec: inventors rights to profits earned from their inventions in jawade, when computer-software writers demanded that their rights to profit be protected, the courts determined that information written for a machine does not fit into either the copyright or the patent category. clearly, therefore, the profit rights of computer-software writers remain unprotected in jawade.which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?(a) computer-software writers are not an influential enough group in jawade for the government to consider modifying existing copyright laws in order to protect this group s profit rights.(b) no laws exist, other than copyright laws and patent laws, that would protect the profit rights of computer-software writers in jawade.(c) most of the computer software used in jawade is imported from other countries.(d) computer software is more similar to writings covered by copyright laws than it is to inventions covered by patent laws.(e) copyright laws and patent laws in jawade have not been modified since their original adoption.7. brownlea s post office must be replaced with a larger one. the present one cannot be expanded. land near the present location in the center of town is more expensive than land on the outskirts of town. since the cost of acquiring a site is a significant part of the total construction cost, the post office clearly could be built more cheaply on the outskirts of town.which one of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the argument s stated conclusion?(a) the new post office will have to be built in accordance with a demanding new citywide building code.(b) if the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, it will require a parking lot, but if sited near the present post office it will not.(c) if the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, current city bus routes will have to be expanded to provide access.(d) if the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, residents will make decreased use of post office boxes, with the result that mail carriers will have to deliver more mail to homes.(e) if the new post office is built near the center of town, disruptions to city traffic would have to be minimized by taking such steps as doing some construction work in stages at night and on weekends.8. in the past, the railroads in ostronia were run as regional monopelies and opeerated with little regard for what customers wanted. in recent years, with improvements to the ostronian national highway network the railroad companies have faced heavy competition from longdistance trucking companies. but because of government subsidies that have permitted ostronian railroad companies to operate even whileincuring substantial losses, the companies continie to disregard customers needs and desires.if the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?(a) if the government of ostronia ceases to subsidize railroad companies. few of those companies will continue to operate.(b) few companies in ostronia that have received subsidies from the government have taken the needs and desires of their customers into account.(c) without government subsidies, railroad companies in ostronia would have to increase the prices they charge their customers.(d) the transportation system in ostronia is no more efficient today than it was in the past.(e) in recent years, some companies in ostronia that have had little regard for the desires of their customers have nonetheless survived.9. although damon had ample time carlier in the month tocomplete the paper he is scheduled to present at a professional conference tomorrow morning he repeatedly put off doing it. damon could still get the paper ready in time, but only if he works on it all evening without interruption. however, his seven-year-old daughter s tap-dance recital takes place this evening and damon had promised both to attend and to take his daughter and her friends out for ice cream afterward. thus, because of his procrastination. damon will be forced to choose between his professional and his farmily responsibilities.the argument proceeds by(a) providing evidence that one event will occur in order to establish that an altemative event cannot occur(b) showing that two situations are similar in order to justify the claim that someone with certain responsibilities in the first situation has similar responsibilities in the second situation(c) invoking sympathy for someone who finds himself in a dilemma in order to excuse that person s failure to meet all of his responsibilities(d) making clear the extent to which someone s actions resulted in harm to others in order to support the claim that those actions were irresponsible(e) demonstrating that two situations cannot both occur by showing that something necessary for one of those situations is incompatible with something necessary for the other situation10. the increase in the price of jet fuel is due to a sharp decrease over the past year in the supply of jet fuel available relative to demand. nonetheless, the amount of jet fuel available for sale is larger today than it was last year.if the statements above are true, which one of the following conclusions can be properly drawn on the basis of them?(a) the demand for jet fuel has increased over the past year.(b) the fuel efficiency of jet engines has increased over the past year.(c) the number of jet airline flights has decreased over thepast year.(d) the cost of refining petroleum for jet fuel has increased over the past year.(e) the supply of petroleum available for jet fuel ha decreased over the past year.questions 11-12nan government subsidies have been proposed in cariana to encourage farmers in rochelle, the country s principal agricultural region, to implement certain new farming techniques unless these techniques are implemented erosion of productive topsoil cannot be controlled unfortunately farmers cannot afford to shoulder the entire cost of the new techniques, which are more expensive than those currently used therefore, without subsidies agricultural output in rochelle will inevitably declinebetty but erosion in rochelle is caused by recurring floods, which will end next year once cariana completes the hydroelectric dam it is building across the region s major river therefore, rochelle s total agricultural output will stabilize at its present level even without subsidres.11. which one of the following is an assumption on which betty s argument depends?(a) building a dam across rochelle s major river will not reduce any recurrent flooding that occurs in regions of cariana other than rochelle.(b) the new farming techniques that must be implemented to control soil erosion in rochelle are not well suited to other regions of cariana(c) the current yearly output, if any from rochelle s land that will be permanently under water once the dam is completed will at least be matched by additional yearly output from rochelle s remaining land(d) the cost to the government of cariana to operate the hydroelectric dam will not be greater than the projected cost of subsidizing the farmers of rochelle in the implementation of the new farming techniques(e) the government of cariana has sufficient financial resources both to subsidize its farmers implementation of new farming techniques and to operate a hydroelectric dam.12. betty uses which one of the following argumentative techniques in countering alan s argument?(a) showing that one premise in alan s argument is inconsistent with another premise in his argument(b) making additional claims that, if correct undermine a premise in alan s argument(c) demonstrating that alan s conclusion is true but not for the reasons alan gives to support it(d) presenting evidence indicating that the policy alan argues in favor of would have damaging consequences that outweigh its positive consequences.(e) pointing out that alan s argument mistakenly identifies something as the cause of a trend when it is really an effect of that trend13. astronomers have long thought that the irregularity in the orbit of the planet neptune was adequately explained by the gravitational pull exerted on neptune by the planet pluto the most recent observations of pluto, however indicate that this planet is much too small to exert the amount of gravitational pull on neptune that astronomers once thoughtit didif the statements above are true, they provide the most support for which one of the following?(a) neptune is somewhat larger than scientists once believed it to be(b) the orbit of neptune is considerably more irregular than scientists once thought it was(c) there exists another as yet undiscovered planet with an orbit beyond that of pluto(d) the gravitational pull of pluto is not the sole cause of neptune s irregular orbit(e) further observations of pluto will eventually show it to be even smaller than it is now thought to bequestions 14-15in most corporations the salaries of executives are set by a group from the corporation s board of directors. since the board s primary mission is to safeguard the economic health of the corporation rather than to make its executives rich, this way of setting executives salaries is expected to preventexcessively large salaries but , clearly this expectation is based on poor reasoning after all, most members of a corporation s board are themselves executives of some corporation and can expect to benefit from setting generous benchmarks for executives salaries.14. the point made by the author is that the most common way of setting executives salaries might not keep those salaries in bounds because(a) most corporals exectives, thanks to their generous salaries, are not financially dependent on money earned as board members(b) most corporals executives might be less generous in setting their own salaries than the board members actually setting them are(c) many board members might let their self-interest as executives interfere with properly discharging their role as board members in setting executives salaries(d) many board members who set executives salaries unreasonably high do so because they happen to be on the board of a corporation of which they expect later to becomeexecutives(e) many board members are remunerated generously and wish to protect this source of income by pleasing the executives to whom they owe their appointments on the board15. which one of the following practices is vulnerable to a line of criticism most parallel to that used in the argument in the passage?(a) in medical malpractice suits giving physicrans not directly involved in a suit a major role in determining the damages due to successful plaintiffs(b) in a legislature, allowing the legislators to increase their own salaries only if at least two-thirds of them vote in favor of an increase(c) to work both fast an accurately by paying them by the piece but counting only pieces of acceptable quality(d) in a sports competition decided by judges scores selecting the judges from among people retured from that sport after successful careers(e) in a business organization distributing a group bonusamong the members of a task force on the basis of a confidential evaluation by each member of the contribution made by each of the others.16. consumer advocate one advertisement that is deceptive, and thus morally wrong, states that gram for gram, the refined sugar used in out chocolate pies is no more fattening than the sugars found in fruits and vegetables" this is like trying to persuade someone that chocolate pies are not fattening by saying that, calorie for calorie they are no more fattening than celery true but it would take a whole shopping cart full of celery to equal a chocolate pie s worth of caloriesa dvertiser this advertisement cannot be called deceptive. it is, after all truewhich one of the following principles, if established would do most to support the consumer advocate s position against the advertiser s response?(a) it is morally wrong to seek to persuade by use of deceptive statements(b) a true statement should be regarded as deceptive only if the person making the statement believes it to be false, and thus intends the people reading or hearing it to acquire a false belief.(c) to make statements that impart only a small proportion of the information in one s possession should not necessarily be regarded as deceptive(d) it is morally wrong to make a true statement in a manner that will deceive hearers or readers of the statement into believing that it is false(e) a true statement should be regarded as deceptive if it is made with the expectation that people hearing or reading the statement will draw a false conclusion from it.17. members of the amazonian akabe people commonly take an early-morning drink of a tea made from the leaves of a forest plant. although they greatly enjoy this drink, at dawn they drink it only in small amounts. anthropologists hypothesize that since this tea is extraordinarily high in caffeine, the explanation for the akabe s not drinking more of it at dawn is that high caffeine intake would destroy the surefootedness that their daily tasks require.which one of the following, if true, most seriously calls the anthropologists explanation into question?(a) the drink is full of nutrients otherwise absent from the akabe diet(b) the akabe also drink the tea in the evening, after their day s work is done.(c) the leaves used for the tea contain a soluble narcotic.(d) akabe children are introduced to the tea in only a very weak form.(e) when celebrating, the akabe drink the tea in large quantities.18. all of the cargo ships of the blue star liner are over 100 meters long, and all of its passenger ships are under 100 meters long. most of the ships of the blue star line were built before 1980. all of the passenger and cargo ships of the gold star line were built after 1980, and all are under 100 meters long. the dockside facilities of port tropica, which is open only to ships of these two lines, can accommodate only those ships that are less than 100 meters long. the s.s. coral is a cargo shipthat is currently docked at port tropicaif the statements above are true, which one of the following must be true on the basis of them?(a) the s.s.coral was built after 1980.(b) the s.s.coral belongs to the blue star line.(c) port tropica is served only by cargo ships.(d) port tropica is not served by ships of the blue start line.(e) all of the ships of the blue star line are older than any of the ships of the gold star line.19. spectroscopic analysis has revealed the existence of frozen nitrogen, methane, and carbon monoxide on the surface of pluto. such ices have a tendency to vaporize, producing an atmosphere. since the proportion of any gas in such an atmosphere depends directly on how readily the corresponding ice vaporizes, astronomers have concluded that the components of pluto s atmosphere are nitrogen, carbon monoxide, and methane, in order of decreasing abundance.the astronomers argumetn relies on which one of thefollowing assumptions?(a) there is no more frozen nitrogen on the surface of pluto than there is either frozen carbon monoxide or methane.(b) until space probes reach pluto, direct analysis of the atmosphere is impossible.(c) there is no frozen substance on the surface of pluto that vaporizes more readily than methane but less readily than carbon monoxide.(d) nitrogen is found in the atmosphere of a planet only if nitrogen ice is found on the surface of that planet.(e) a mixture of nitrogen, carbon monoxide, and methane is characteristic of the substances from which the solar system formed.20. ann will either take a leave of absence from technocomp and return in a year or else she will quit her job there; but she would not do either one unless she were offerend a one-year teaching fellowship at a prestigious university. technocomp will allow her to take a leave of absence if it does not find out that she has been offered the fellowship, but not otherwise, therefore, ann will quit her jobat tedhnocomp only if technocomp finds out she has been oftered the fellowship.which one of the following, if assumed, allows the conclusion above to be properly drawn?(a) technocomp will find out about ann being offered the fellowship only if someone informs on her.(b) the reason ann wants the fellowship is so she can quit her job at technocomp.(c) technocomp does not allow any of its employees to take a leave of absence in order to work for one of its competitors.(d) ann will take a leave of absence if technocomp allows her to take a leave of absence.(e) ann would be offered the fellowship only if she quit her job at technocomp.21. if a mechanical aerator is installed in a fish pool, the water in the pool can be properly aerated. so, since john s fish pool does not have a mechanical aerator, it must be that his pool is not properly aerated. without properly aerated water,fish cannot thrive. therefore, any fish in john s fish pool will not thrive.which one of the following arguments contains an error of reasoning that is also contained in the argument above?(a) if alum is added to pickle brine, brine can replace the water in the pickles. therefore, since paula does not add alum to her pickle brine, the water in the pickles cannot be replaced by brine. unless their water is replaced with brine, pickles will not stay crisp. thus, paula s pickles will not stay crisp.(b) if pectin is added to jam, the jam will gel. without a setting agent such as pectin, jam will not ge. so in order to make his jam gel. harry should add a setting agent such as pectin to the jam.(c) if stored potatoes are not exposed to ethylene the potatoes will not sprout. beets do not release ethylene. therefore, if sara stores her potatoes together with beets, the potatoes will not sprout.(d) if a carrot patch is covered with mulch in the fall. the carrots can be left in the ground until spring without a mulch cover, carrots stored in the ground can suffer frost damage.thus, since kevin covers his carrot patch with mulch in the fall, the carrots can safely be left in the ground.(e) if tomatoes are not stored in a dark place, their seeds sometimes sprout. sprouted seeds can make tomatoes inedible. therefore, since maria does not store her tomatoes in a dark place some of maria s tomatoes could be inedible.questions 22-23antinuclear activist: the closing of the nuclear power plant is a victory for the antinuclear cause. it also represents a belated acknowledgment by the power industry that they cannot operate such plants safely.nuclear power plant manager : it represents no such thing. the availability of cheap power from nonnuclear sources. together with the cost of mandated safety inspections and safety repairs, made continued operation uneconomic. thus it was not safety considerations but economic considerations taht dictated the plant s closing.22. the reasoning in the manager s argument is flawed because the argument(a) fails to acknowledge that the power industry might now believe nuclear power plants to be unsafe even though this plant was not closed for safety reasons(b) overlooks the possibility that the soruces from which cheap power is available might themselves be subject to safety concerns(c) mistakes the issue of what the closure of the plant represents to the publie for the issue of what the managers reason for the closure were(d) takes as one of its premises a view about the power industry s attitude toward nuclear safety that contradicts the activist s view(e) counts as purely economic considerations some expenses that arise as a result of the need to take safety precautions23. which one of the following if true, most strongly supports the activist s claim of victory?(a) the plant had reached the age at which its operating license expired.(b) the mandate for inspections and repairs mentioned by the manager was recently enacted as a result of pressure from antinuclear groups.(c) the plant would not have closed if cheap power from nonnuclear sources had not been available.(d) per unit of electricity produced the plant had the highest operating costs of any nuclear power plant.(e) the plant that closed had been able to provide backup power to an electrical network when parts of the network became overloaded.questions 24-25statistician changes in the sun s luminosity correlate exceedingly well with average land temperatures on earth. clerly and contrary to accepted opinion among meteorologists the sun s lumionsity essentially controls land temperatures on earth.meteorologist: i disagree any professional meteorologist will tell you that in a system as complicated as that giving rise to the climate, no significant aspect can be controlled by asingle variable24. the rejection by the meteorologist of the statistician s conclusion employs which one of the following techniques of argumentation?(a) supporting a conclusion about a specific case by invoking a relevant generalization(b) producint a single counterexample that establishes that a generalization is false as state(c) reanalyzing a correlation as reflecting the multiple effects of a single cause(d) rejecting a conclusion because it is a proposition that cannot be experimentally tested(e) pointing out that potentially unfavorable evident has been systematically neglected25. the reasoning in the meteorologist s counterargument questionable because that argument(a) rejects a partial explanation, not because it is incorrect but only because it is not complete(b) fails to distinguish phenomena that exist independently of a particular system from phenomena that exist only as part of the system.(c) calls into question the existence of a correlation when the only real issue is that of how to interpret the correlation(d) dismisses a hypothesis on the grounds that is fail to deal with anymatters of scientific significant(e) appeals to the authoritativeness of an opinion without evaluating the merit of a putative counterexampleLSAT考试全真试题三SECTION2 相关内容:。
LSAT分析推理篇
LSAT分析推理篇分析推理部分一般分四组，共有24个问题。
每组里面的每一个问题都基于一系列的条件，这些条件共同描述一种情况。
例如，把人分成几组，把物品按顺序排列等等。
这部分试题主要测试考生理解有关关系结构并推出结论的能力，于GRE考试逻辑部分极为相象。
【题型概况】1.有关分布的题型Six campers:Alice,Betty,Carmen,Dora,Gina,and Harriet are arranging a dishwashing schedule for the six days of their camping trip so that each of them will wash dishes on only one day.Betty washes either on day 2 or day 6.If Alice washes on day I,Carmen washes on day 4;Carmen does not wash on day 4 unless Alice washes on day I.If Alice washes on day I, Harriet washes on day 5; Harriet does not wash on day 5 unless Alice washes on day 1.If Gina does not wash on day 3, Alice washes on day 3.If Alice washes on day 4, Dora washes on day 5.If Betty washes on day 2, Gina washes on day 5.If Harriet washes on day 6, Dora washes on day 4.Question:*Which one of the following is an acceptable order in which the campers can wash dishes from the first to the last day?(A) Dora, Betty, Alice, Gina, Carmen, Harriet(B) Betty, Alice, Harriet, Carmen, Gina, Dora(C) Harriet, Gina, Betty, Carmen, Dora, Alice(D) Carmen, Betty, Alice, Dora, Gina, Harriet(E) Alice, Betty, Dora, Carmen, Gina, Harriet*If Dora washes on day 6, on which day does Carmen wash?(A) I (B) 2 (C)3 (D) 4 (E) 52.有关排列次序的问题Each of seven travelers—Norris,Oribe,Paulsen,Rosen,Semonelli, Tan, and Underwood—will be assigned to exactly one of nine airplane seats. The seats are numbered from 1 through 9 and arranged in rows as follows:Front row: 1 2 3Middle row: 4 5 6Last row: 7 8 9Only seats in the same row as each other are immediately beside each other. Seat assignments must meet the following conditions: Oribe’s seat is in the last row.Paulsen’s seat is immediately beside Rosen’s seat and also immediately beside an unassigned seat.Rosen’s seat is in the row immediately behind the row in which Norris’seat is located.Neither Semonelli nor Underwood is seated immediately beside Norris.Question:*Which one of the following is a pair of travelers who could be assigned to seats 2 and 8, respectively?(A) Norris, Semonelli(B) Oribe, Underwood(C) Paulsen, Oribe(D) Rosen, Semonelli(E) Underwood, Tan*If Semonelli and Underwood are not assigned to seats in the same row as each other, which one of the following must be false?(A) Norris is assigned to seat 2.(B) Paulsen is assigned to seat 5.(C) Rosen is assigned to seat 4.(D) Tan is assigned to seat 2.(E) Underwood is assigned to seat 1.3.有关编组的问题A jeweler makes a single strand of beads by threading onto a string in a single direction from a clasp a series of solid-colored beads. Each bead is either green, orange, purple, red, or yellow. The resulting strand satisfies the following specifications: If a purple bead is adjacent to a yellow bead, any bead that immediately follows and any bead that immediately precedes that pair must be red.Any pair of beads adjacent to each other that are the same color as each other must be green.No orange bead can be adjacent to any red bead.Any portion of the strand containing eight consecutive beads must include at least one bead of each color.Question:*If the strand has exactly eight beads, which one of the following is an acceptable order,starting from the clasp,for the eight beads?(A) green, red, purple, yellow, red, orange, green,purple(B) orange, yellow, red, red, yellow, purple, red,green(C) purple, yellow, red, green, green, orange,yellow, orange(D) red, orange, red, yellow, purple, green, yellow,green(E) red, yellow, purple, red, green, red, green, green*If an orange bead is the fourth bead from the clasp, which one of the following is a pair that could be the second and third beads, respectively?(A) green, orange(B) green, red(C) purple, purple(D) yellow, green(E) yellow, purple4.有关空间分布的问题At an evening concert, a total of six songs—O, P,T, X, Y, and Z—will be performed by three vocalists—George, Helen, and Leslie. The songs will be sung consecutively as solos, and each will be performed exactly once.The following constraints govern the composition of the concert program:Y must be performed earlier than T and earlier than O.P must be performed earlier than Z and later than O.George can perform only X, Y, and Z.Helen can perform only T, P, and X.Leslie can perform only O, P, and X.The vocalist who performs first must be different from the vocalist who performs last.Question:*Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for the performance of the songs,in order from the first to last song performed?(A) X, T, Y, O, P, Z(B) X, Z, Y, T, O, P(C) Y, O, P, X, T, Z(D) Y, P, O, Z, T, X(E) Y, X, O, P, Z, T*Which one of the following must be true about the program?(A) George performs X.(B) Helen performs O.(C) Helen performs T.(D) Leslie performs P.(E) Leslie performs X.【解题技巧】1.在解答每一组问题时，将其作为一个单元。
LSAT全真模拟试题及答案(1)
time-35 minutes23 questionsdirections：each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions．in answering some of the questions，it may be useful to draw a rough diagram．choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet．questoins 1-6a man buys three outfits-x，y，and z-each of which consists of two articles of clothing．each of the articles of clothing is either brown gray or navy．at least one of the outfits is made up of two articles different in color from one another．no more than two of the outfits contain the same combination of colors．outfit x contains at least one navy article of clothing．outfit x contains at least one brown article of clothing and does not contain a gray article．1．which one of the following can be the colors of the man's outfits?(a) x：gray and navy；y：brown and gray；z：gray and gray(b) x：brown and gray；y：brown and navy；z：gray and gray(c) x：navy and navy；y：brown and brown；z：brown and navy(d) x：brown and navy；y：brown and navy；z：brown and navy(e) x：navy and navy；y：brown and brown；z：navy and navy2．if outfits x and y each consist of one brown article and one navy article of clothing，what combinations for outfit z?(a) 2(b) 3(c) 4(d) 5(e) 63．if outfit z does not contain two brown items of clothing，what is the maximum number of items of clothing in the three outfits that can be navy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(e) 54．if outfit y consists of two brown articles of clothing and outfit z consists of two navy items，what is the total number of possible color combinations for outfit x?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(e) 55．which one of the following color combinations for outfit z would be acceptable under any of the acceptable color combinations for outfits x and y?(a) gray and gray(b) brown and gray(c) brown and brown(d) brown and navy(e) navy and navy6．if no two outfits contain the same color combination but each contains at least one navy item，which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the possible combinations for outfit x(a) gray and navy(b) brown and navy(c) navy and navy(d) gray and navy；brown and navy(e) gray and navy；navy and navyquestion 7-11five seats on a train are arranged in two rows that face each other．the seats in row 1 are seat 1 and seat 2．the seats in row 2 are seat 3，seat 4，and seat 5 in that order．seat 1 is directly across from seat 3．seat 2 is directly across from seat 4．seat 5 is not directly across from any other seat．three women-，betty，and carol-and two men-david edmund-each must be seated in one of me five seats，one person to a seat．betty sits in seat 4．carol sits next to neither betty nor david．alice does not sit directly across from carol．7．if edmund sits directly across from betty，which one of the following must be true?(a) alice does not sit directly across from anyone．(b) alice sits directly across from david．(c) alice sits next to edmund．(d) david sits next to alice．(e) david sits next to edmund．8．if edmund does not sit directly across from anyone，which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of those (other than edmund) who cannot sit in seat 1?(a) betty(b) carol(c) david(d) betty and carol(e) betty and david9．if none of the five passengers sits directly across from a passenger of the same sex，how many seating arrangements of the five passengers are possible?(a) exactly 0(b) exactly 1(c) exactly 2(d) exactly 3(e) exactly 410．how many of the seats could be the one alice selects as her seat?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) 3 only(d) 4 only(e) 5 only11．how many different seating arrangements of the passengers might there be for row 2?(a) 2(b) 3(c) 4(d) 5(e) 6question 12-17six people-julio，kevin，may，norma，olivia，and tamio-participate in a track meet．two of them enter the marathon，two enter the relay，and two enter the sprint．each participant enters only one event．if kevin enters the marathon，then both julio andmay enter the relay，and if both julio and may enter the relay，then kevin enters the marathon．if norma does not enter the sprint，then tamio enters the relay．if olivia enters the relay，then julio does not enter the relay．olivia and tamio do not both enter the relay．12．if kevin enters the marathon，then which one of the following cannot be true?(a) julio enters the relay and norma enters the sprint．(b) olivia enters the marathon and norma enters the sprint．(c) tamio enters the marathon and olivia enters the sprint．(d) tamio enters the relay and olivia enters the sprint．(e) tamio enters the marathon and may enters the sprint．13．if norma enters the marathon，then which one of the following cannot be true?(a) both kevin and olivia enter the sprint．(b) kevin enters the relay and olivia enters the sprint．(c) kevin enters the marathon and may enters the relay．(d) julio enters the marathon and may enters the relay．(e) julio enters the marathon and kevin enters the relay．14．if both kevin and olivia enter the relay，then which one of the following must be true?(a) julion and tamio enter the marathon．(b) may enters the marathon．(c) may enters the sprint．(d) tamio enters the sprint．(e) norma enters the sprint．15．if both julio and kevin enter the same event，then which of the following can be true?ⅰ．julio enters the relay．ⅱ．may enters the marathon．ⅲ．olivia enters the relay．(a) ⅰonly(b) ⅱonly(c) ⅲonly(d)ⅰand ⅱonly(e)ⅰ，ⅱ，and ⅲ16．if norma and olivia each enter different events，then which one of the following cannot be true?(a) kevin and olivia enter the marathon．(b) julio and norma enter the relay．(c) may and olivia enter the relay．(d) norma and tamio enter the relay．(e) olivia enters the sprint and tamio enters the relay．17．if both julio and kevin enter the relay，then which one of the following must be false?(a) may and norma enter the marathon．(b) may and olivia enter the marathon．(c) norma and tamio enter the sprint．(d) may and norma enter the sprint．(e) may enters the sprint and tamio enters marathon．questions 18-23seven lights-j，k，l，m，n，o，and p-have only two possible settings：on or off．they are arranged on a particular electric circuit as follows．if k is on，l is off；if k is off，l is on．j and n cannot both be on．if m is off，either j or n is on；if either j or n is on，m is off．if p is on，l is on．if o is off，n is off；if o is on，n is on．assume that the circuit is working as designed．18．any of the following can be true except:(a) j and o are both off．(b) k and n are both off．(c) k and p are both on．(d) l and m are both on．(e) n and o are both on．19．if l and o are on，which one of the following must be true?(a) j is and k is off．(b) j is off and n is on．(c) k is off and m is on．(d) k is off and p is on．(e) m is off and p is on．20．which one of the following can be true?(a) only j，k，and m are off．(b) only j，l，and m are off．(c) only k，m，and o are off．(d) only l，n，and o are off．(e) only m，n，and o are off．21．if p is on，what is the maximum number of lights that can be off?(a) 2(b) 3(c) 4(d) 5(e) 622．what is the minimum number of lights that must be on?(a) 0(b) 1(c) 2(d) 3(e) 423．if j is on，which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the remaining lights that are also on?(a) k，l，and m(b) l，n，and p(c) l，o，and p(d) m，n，and o(e) l and p答案：d e c e d d d d a e e e a d e c a b d b b d d。
LSAT考试预测模拟试题及答案
LSAT考试预测模拟试题及答案LSAT考试预测模拟试题及答案一文是本站特为考生朋友们搜集整理来的，希望这篇预测模拟试题及答案可以帮到大家~Taking the Sample Test Under Simulated LSAT ConditionsOne important way to prepare for the LSAT is to simulate the day of the test by taking a practice test under actual time constraints. Taking a practice test under timed conditions helps you to estimate the amount of time you can afford to spend on each question in a section and to determine the question types on which you may need additional practice. Since the LSAT is a timed test, it is important to use your allotted time wisely. During the test, you may work only on the section designated by the test supervisor. You cannot devote extra time to a difficult section and make up that time on a section you find easier. In pacing yourself, and checking your answers, you should think of each section of the test as a separate minitest.Be sure that you answer every question on the test. When you do not know the correct answer to a question, first eliminate the responses that you know are incorrect, then make your best guess among the remaining choices.Do not be afraid to guess as there is no penalty for incorrect answers.When you take the sample test that follows, abide by all the requirements specified in the directions and keep strictly within the specified time limits. Work without a rest period. When you take an actual test you will have only a short break—usually 10-15 minutes—after SECTION III. When taken under conditions as much like actual testing conditions as possible, the sample test provides very useful preparation for taking the LSAT.Official directions for the four multiple-choice sections and the writing sample are included in this sample test so that you can approximate actual testing conditions as you practice. To take the test:Set a timer for 35 minutes. Answer all the questions in SECTION I. Stop working on that section when the 35 minutes have elapsed.Repeat, allowing yourself 35 minutes each for sections II, III, and IV.Set the timer again for 35 minutes, then prepare your response to the writing sample at the end of this test.Refer to “Computing Your Score” on page 120 in this book for instruction on evaluating your performance. An answer key is provided for this purpose.How This Sample Test Differs From an Actual LSATThis sample test is made up of the scored sections from the actual disclosed LSAT administered in October 1996 and the writing sample topic (with minor editorial revisions) administered in December 2002. However, the sample test does not contain the extra, variable section that is used to pretest new test items of one of the three multiple-choice question types. The three multiple-choice question types may be in a different order in an actual LSAT than in this sample test. This is because the order of these question types is intentionally varied for each administration of the test. The actual test contains section headers at the top of each page that are not included in this sample test.The Writing SampleThe writing sample is not scored but is used by law school admission personnel to assess writing skill. Your writing sample is copied and sent to law schools to which you direct your LSAT score. Some writing sample prompts, or variations of them, may be given at more than one LSAT administration.Beginning with the June 2005 LSAT, the time allotted for the writing sample is 35 minutes, with two pages of writing space.Scratch paper is provided for use during the writing sample portion of the test only. Scratch paper cannot be used in other sections of the LSAT.SECTION ITime—35 minutes25 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. French divers recently found a large cave along the coast of the Mediterranean Sea. The cave is accessible only through an underwater tunnel. The interior of the cave is completely filled with seawater and contains numerous large stalagmites, which are stony pillars that form when drops of water fall repeatedly on a single spot on a cave floor, leaving behind mineral deposits that accumulate over time.The information above most strongly supports which one of the following?(A) The Mediterranean Sea was at a higher level in the past than it is now.(B) The water level within the cave is higher now than it once was.(C) The French divers were the first people who knew that the tunnel leading to the cave existed.(D) There was once an entrance to the cave besides the underwater tunnel.(E) Seawater in the Mediterranean has a lower mineral content now than it had when the stalagmites were being formed.2. Adirector of the Rexx Pharmaceutical Company argued that the development costs for new vaccines that the health department has requested should be subsidized by the government, since the marketing of vaccines promised to be less profitable than the marketing of any other pharmaceutical product. In support of this claim the director argued that sales of vaccines are likely to be lower since each vaccine is administered to a patient only once, whereas medicines that combat diseases and chronic illnesses are administered many times to each patient.Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the support offered by the company director for the claim concerning the marketing of vaccines?(A) Vaccines are administered to many more people than are most other pharmaceutical products.(B) Many of the diseases that vaccines are designed to prevent can be successfully treated by medicines.(C) Pharmaceutical companies occasionally market products that are neither medicines nor vaccines.(D) Pharmaceutical companies other than the Rexx Pharmaceutical Company produce vaccines.(E) The cost of administering a vaccine is rarely borne by the pharmaceutical company that manufactures that vaccine.3. Manager: Our new computer network, the purpose of which is to increase productivity, can be installed during the day, which would disrupt our employees’ work, or else at night, which would entail much higher installation charges. Since saving money is important, we should have the network installed during the day.The manager’s argument assumes which on e of the following?(A) The monetary value of the network equipment would not exceed the cost of having the equipment installed at night.(B) The monetary value of any productivity lost during a daytime installation would be less than the difference between daytime and nighttime installation costs.(C) A daytime installation would be completed by no larger a crew and would take the crew no more time than would a nighttime installation.(D) Once the network has been installed, most of the company’s employees will be able to use it immediately to increase their productivity.(E) Most of the company’s employees would be able to work productively while a daytime installation is in progress.4. An ingredient in marijuana known as THC has been found to inactivate herpesviruses in experiments. In previous experiments researchers found that inactivated herpesviruses can convert healthy cells into cancer cells. It can be concluded that the use of marijuana can cause cancer.Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?(A) Several teams of scientists performed the various experiments and all of the teams had similar results.(B) The carcinogenic effect of THC could be neutralized by the other ingredients found in marijuana.(C) When THC kill s herpesviruses it weakens the immune system, and it might thus diminish the body’s ability to fight other viruses, including viruses linked to cancers.(D) If chemists modify the structure of THC, THC can be safely incorporated into medications to prevent herpes.(E) To lessen the undesirable side effects of chemotherapy, the use of marijuana has been recommended for cancer patients who are free of the herpesvirus.5. Archaeologist: Alarge corporation has recently offered to provide funding to restore an archaeological site and to construct facilities to make the site readily accessible to the general public. The restoration will conform to the best current theories about how the site appeared at the height of the ancient civilization that occupied it. This offer should be rejected, however, because many parts of the site contain unexamined evidence.Which one of the following principles, if valid, justifies the archaeologist’s argument?(A) The ownership of archaeological sites should not be under the control of business interests.(B) Any restoration of an archaeological site should represent only the most ancient period of that site’s history.(C) No one should make judgments about what constitutes the height of another civilization.(D) Only those with a true concern for an archaeological site’s history should be involved in the restoration of that site.(E) The risk of losing evidence relevant to possible future theories should outweigh any advantages of displaying the results of theories already developed.6. Besides laying eggs in her own nest, any female wood duck will lay an egg in the nest of another female wood duck if she sees the other duck leaving her nest. Under natural nesting conditions, this parasitic behavior is relatively rare because the du cks’ nests are well hidden. However, when people put up nesting boxes to help the ducks breed, they actually undercut the ducks’ reproductive efforts. These nesting boxes become so crowded with extra eggs that few, if any, of the eggs in those boxes hatch.The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following?(A) Female wood ducks will establish nests in nest boxes only when natural nesting sites are not available.(B) Nesting female wood ducks who often see other female wood ducks are the most successful in their breeding efforts.(C) The nesting boxes for wood ducks have less space for eggs than do natural nesting sites.(D) The nesting boxes would be more effective in helping wood ducks breed if they were less visible to other wood ducks than they currently are.(E) Nesting boxes are needed to supplement the natural nesting sites of wood ducks because of the destruction of much of the ducks’ habitat.7. The crux of creativity resides in the ability to manufacture variations on a theme. If we look at the history of science, for instance, we see that every idea is built upon a thousand related ideas. Careful analysis leads us to understand that what we choose to call a new theme or a new discovery is itself always and without exception some sort of variation, on a deep level, of previous themes.If all of the statements in the passage are true, each of the following must also be true EXCEPT:(A) A lack of ability to manufacture a variation on a previous theme connotes a lack of creativity.(B) No scientific idea is entirely independent of all other ideas.(C) Careful analysis of a specific variation can reveal previous themes of which it is a variation.(D) All great scientific discoverers have been able to manufacture a variation on a theme.(E) Some new scientific discoveries do not represent, on a deep level, a variation on previous themes.[page]8. Millions of female bats rear their pups in Bracken Cave. Although the mothers all leave the cave nightly, on their return each mother is almost always swiftly reunited with her own pup. Sincethe bats’ calls are their only means of finding one another, and a bat pup cannot distinguish the call of its mother from that of any other adult bat, it is clear that each mother bat can recognize the call of her pup.The argument seeks to do which one of the following?(A) derive a general conclusion about all members of a group from facts known about representative members of that group(B) establish the validity of one explanation for a phenomenon by excluding alternative explanations(C) support, by describing a suitable mechanism, the hypothesis that a certain phenomenon can occur(D) conclude that members of two groups are likely to share a certain ability because of other characteristics they share(E) demonstrate that a general rule applies in a particular case9. Someone who gets sick from eating a meal will often develop a strong distaste for the one food in the meal that had the most distinctive flavor, whether or not that food caused the sickness. This phenomenon explains why children are especially likely to develop strong aversions to some foods.Which one of the following, if true, provides the strongest support for the explanation?(A) Children are more likely than adults to be given meals composed of foods lacking especially distinctive flavors.(B) Children are less likely than adults to see a connection between their health and the foods they eat.(C) Children tend to have more acute taste and to become sick more often than adults do.(D) Children typically recover more slowly than adults do from sickness caused by food.(E) Children are more likely than are adults to refuse to eat unfamiliar foods.10. Premiums for automobile accident insurance are often higher for red cars than for cars of other colors. To justify these higher charges, insurance companies claim that, overall, a greater percentage of red cars are involved in accidents than are cars of any other color. If this claim is true, then lives could undoubtedly be saved by banning red cars from the roads altogether.The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument(A) accepts without question that insurance companies have the right to charge higher premiums for higher-risk clients(B) fails to consider whether red cars cost the same to repair as cars of other colors(C) ignores the possibility that drivers who drive recklessly have a preference for red cars(D) does not specify precisely what percentage of red cars are involved in accidents(E) makes an unsupported assumption that every automobile accident results in some loss of life11. A certain credit-card company awards its customers bonus points for using its credit card. Customers can use accumulated points in the purchase of brand name merchandise by mail at prices lower than the manufacturers’ suggested retail prices. At any given time, therefore, customers who purchase merchandise using the bonus points spend less than they would spend if they purchased the same merchandise in retail stores. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?(A) The merchandise that can be ordered by mail using the bonus points is not offered at lower prices by other credit-card companies that award bonus points.(B) The bonus points cannot be used by the creditcard customers in the purchase of brand name merchandise that is not available for purchase in retail stores.(C) The credit-card company does not require its customers to accumulate a large number of bonus points before becoming eligible to order m erchandise at prices lower than the manufacturers’ suggested retail price.(D) The amount credit-card customers pay for shipping the merchandise ordered by mail does not increase the amount customers spend to an amount greater than they would spend if they purchased the same merchandise in retail stores.(E) The merchandise available to the company’s credit-card customers using the bonus points is frequently sold in retail stores at prices that are higher than the manufacturers’ suggested retail prices.12. It is probably not true that colic in infants is caused by the inability of those infants to tolerate certain antibodies found in cow’s milk, since it is often the case that symptoms of colic are shown by infants that are fed breast milk exclusively.Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?(A) A study involving 500 sets of twins has found that if one infant has colic, its twin will probably also have colic.(B) Symptoms of colic generally disappear as infants grow older, whether the infants have been fed breast milk exclusively or have been fed infant formula containing cow’s milk.(C) In a study of 5,000 infants who were fed only infant formula containing cow’s milk, over 4,000 of the infants never displayed any symptoms of colic.(D) When mothers of infants that are fed only breast milk eliminate cow’s milk and all products made from cow’s milk from their own diets, any colic symptoms that their infants have manifested quickly disappear.(E) Infants that are fed breast milk develop mature digestive systems at an earlier age than do those that are fed infant formulas, and infants with mature digestive systems are better able to tolerate certain proteins and antibodies found in cow’s milk.Questions 13–14Yolanda: Gaining access to computers without authorization and manipulating the data and programs they contain is comparable to joyriding in stolen cars; both involve breaking into private property and treating it recklessly. Joyriding, however, is the more dangerous crime because it physically endangers people, whereas only intellectual property is harmed in the case of computer crimes.Arjun: I disagree! For example, unauthorized use of medical records systems in hospitals could damage data systems on which human lives depend, and therefore computer crimes also cause physical harm to people.13. An issue in dispute between Yolanda and Arjun is(A) whether joyriding physically endangers human lives(B) whether the unauthorized manipulation of computer data involves damage to private property(C) whether damage to physical property is more criminal than damage to intellectual property(D) whether the unauthorized use of computers is as dangerous to people as is joyriding(E) whether treating private property recklessly is ever a dangerous crime14. The reasoning in Arjun’s response is flawed because he(A) fails to maintain a distinction made in Yolanda’s argument(B) denies Yolanda’s conclusion without providing evidence against it(C) relies on the actuality of a phenomenon that he has only shown to be possible(D) mistakes something that leads to his conclusion for something that is necessary for his conclusion(E) uses as evidence a phenomenon that is inconsistent with his own conclusion15. Areport of a government survey concluded that Center City was among the ten cities in the nation with the highest dropout rate from its schools. The survey data were obtained by asking all city residents over the age of 19 whether they were high school graduates and computing the proportion who were not. Acity school official objected that the result did not seem accurate according to the schools’ figures.The school official can most properly criticize the reasoning by which the survey report reached its result for failure to do which one of the following?(A) take into account instances of respondents’ dropping out that occurred before the respondents reached high school(B) ask residents whether they had completed their high school work in fewer than the usual number of years(C) distingui sh between residents who had attended the city’s schools and those who had received their schooling elsewhere(D) predict the effect of the information contained in the report on future high school dropout rates for the city(E) consider whether a diploma from the city’s high schools signaled the same level of achievement over time16. Brown dwarfs—dim red stars that are too cool to burn hydrogen—are very similar in appearance to red dwarf stars, which are just hot enough to burn hydrogen. Stars, when first formed, contain substantial amounts of the element lithium. All stars but the coolest of the brown dwarfs are hot enough to destroy lithium completely by converting it to helium. Accordingly, any star found that contains no lithium is not one of these coolest brown dwarfs.The argument depends on assuming which one of the following?(A) None of the coolest brown dwarfs has ever been hot enough to destroy lithium.(B) Most stars that are too cool to burn hydrogen are too cool to destroy lithium completely.(C) Brown dwarfs that are not hot enough to destroy lithium are hot enough to destroy helium.(D) Most stars, when first formed, contain roughly the same percentage of lithium.(E) No stars are more similar in appearance to red dwarfs than are brown dwarfs.17. Whenever a company loses a major product-liability lawsuit, the value of the company’s stocks falls significantly within hours after the announcement. Cotoy has long been involved in a majorproduct-liability lawsuit, and its stocks fell significantly in value today. Therefore, we can be sure that an unfavorable judgment against Cotoy in that lawsuit was announced earlier today.Which one of the following contains flawed reasoning that most closely parallels that in the argument above?(A) Whenever a business treats its customers discourteously, its customers begin to shop elsewhere. Shopwell wants to keep all of its customers; therefore, its employees will never treat customers discourteously.(B) Whenever the large airlines decrease fares, the financial stability of smaller competing airlines is adversely affected. Therefore, the smaller competing airlines’ financial stability must be seriously threatened when the large airlines announce a large price decrease.(C) Whenever a country shows a lack of l eadership on international issues, respect for the country’s policies begins to decline. Therefore, to gain respect for its policies, a country should show leadership on international issues.(D) Whenever an entering student at Cashman College wins the Performance Fellowship, he or she receives $10,000. Therefore, Eula, a student who has enrolled at Cashman, must have won the Performance Fellowship, because she just received $10,000 from the college.(E) Whenever a company advertises its products effectivel y, the company’s sales increase. Oroco’s sales have not increased; therefore, it is likely that the company did not advertise its products effectively.18. In recent years the climate has been generally cool in northern Asia. But during periods when the average daily temperature and humidity in northern Asia were slightly higher than their normal levels the yields of most crops grown there increased significantly. In the next century, the increased average daily temperature and humidity attained during those periods are expected to become the norm. Yet scientists predict that the yearly yields of most of the region’s crops will decrease during the next century.Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox in the information above?(A) Crop yields in southern Asia are expected to remain constant even after the average daily temperature and humidity there increase from recent levels.(B) Any increases in temperature and humidity would be accompanied by higher levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide, which is vital to plant respiration.(C) The climate in northern Asia has generally been too cool and dry in recent years for populations of many crop insect pests to become established.(D) In many parts of Asia, the increased annual precipitation that would result from warmer and wetter climates would cause most edible plant species to flourish.(E) The recent climate of northern Asia prevents many crops from being farmed there during the winter.[page]19. No one in the French department to which Professor Alban belongs is allowed to teach more than one introductory level class in any one term. Moreover, the only language classes being taught next term are advanced ones. So it is untrue that both of the French classes Professor Alban will be teaching next term will be introductory level classes.The pattern of reasoning displayed in the argument above is most closely paralleled by that in which one of the following arguments?(A) The Morrison Building will be fully occupied by May and since if a building is occupied by May the new tax rates apply to it, the Morrison Building will be taxed according to the new rates.(B) The revised tax code does not apply at all to buildings built before 1900, and only the first section of the revised code applies to buildings built between 1900 and 1920, so the revised code does not apply to the Norton Building, since it was built in 1873.(C) All property on Overton Road will be reassessed for tax purposes by the end of the year and the Elnor Company he adquarters is on Overton Road, so Elnor’s property taxes will be higher next year.(D) New buildings that include public space are exempt from city taxes for two years and all new buildings in the city’s Alton district are exempt for five years, so the bui lding with the large public space that was recently completed in Alton will not be subject to city taxes next year.(E) Since according to recent statute, a building that is exempt from property taxes is charged for city water at a special rate, and hospit als are exempt from property taxes, Founder’s Hospital will be charged for city water at the special rate.Questions 20–21Some people have been promoting a new herbal mixture as a remedy for the common cold. The mixture contains, among other things, extracts of the plants purple coneflower and goldenseal. A cold sufferer, skeptical of the claim that the mixture is an effective cold remedy, argued, “Suppose that the mixture were an effective cold remedy. Since most people with colds wish to recover quickly, it follows that almost everybody with a cold would be using it. Therefore, since there are many people who have colds but do not use the mixture, it is obviously not effective.” 20. Each of the following is an assumption required by the skeptical cold suf ferer’s argument EXCEPT:(A) Enough of the mixture is produced to provide the required doses to almost everybody with a cold.(B) The mixture does not have side effects severe enough to make many people who have colds avoid using it.(C) The mixture is powerful enough to prevent almost everybody who uses it from contracting any further colds.(D) The mixture is widely enough known that almost everybody with a cold is aware of it.(E) There are no effective cold remedies available that many people who have colds prefer to the mixture.21. Which one of the following most accurately describes the method of reasoning the cold sufferer uses to reach the conclusion of the argument?(A) finding a claim to be false on the grounds that it would if true have consequences that are false(B) accepting a claim on the basis of public opinion of the claim(C) showing that conditions necessary to establish the truth of a claim are met(D) basing a generalization on a representative group of instances(E) showing that a measure claimed to be effective in achieving a certain effect would actually make achieving the effect more difficult22. To hold criminals responsible for their crimes involves a failure to recognize that criminal actions, like all actions, are ultimately prod ucts of the environment that forged the agent’s character. It is not criminals but people in the law-abiding majority who by their actions do most to create and maintain this environment. Therefore, it is law-abiding people whose actions, and nothing else, make them alone truly responsible for crime.The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that(A) it exploits an ambiguity in the term “environment” by treating two different meanings of the word as though they were equivalent(B) it fails to distinguish between actions that are socially acceptable and actions that are socially unacceptable(C) the way it distinguishes criminals from crimes implicitly denies that someone becomes a criminal solely in virtue of having committed a crime(D) its conclusion is a generalization of statistical evidence drawn from only a small minority of the population(E) its conclusion contradicts an implicit principle on which an earlier part of the argument is based23. Chronic back pain is usually caused by a herniated or degenerated spinal disk. In most cases the disk will have been damaged years before chronic pain develops, and in fact an estimated one in five。
最全LSAT考试详解（2）
最全LSAT考试详解（2）最全LSAT考试详解逻辑推理LSAT的逻辑推理试题共有两个部分，常被称为“辩论题”，考察应试人分析辩题的能力。
每部分有24-26道试题。
一般每道题都有一篇小的短文或对话，然后针对此短文或对话提出问题、选择针对辩论的另一种结论、发现辩题中的谬误、找到相同逻辑的另一种辩题、或找到一个可以强化/弱化辩题的证例。
绝大多数短文都有一道问题，有的则由两道。
短文或对话涉及的范围很广，包括哲学、文学、政治、科技、艺术、历史、体育等等。
逻辑推理试题主要测试考生的以下能力：1.确定中心思想2.找出推理中的假设3.从已知事实或前提得出合理结论4.确定推理的准则并将之应用于新的论证5.确定推理的方法或结构6.找出推理的错误及误解7.确定新的事实或论证对现有论证或结论的加强或削弱8.对论证进行分析分析推理目前的LSAT有一个分析推理部分，一般分四组，共有22–24个问题。
每组里面的每一个问题都基于一系列的条件，这些条件共同描述一种情况，例如，把人分成几组，把物品按顺序排列等等，类型包括分组、对比、顺序。
这部分试题主要测试考生理解有关关系结构并推出结论的能力。
考题以划定前提开始(“可能有5人出席下午的会议”)，然后建立彼此之间的关系(“如果Amy出席，那么Bob不出席;如果Cathy出席，那么Dan也出席...”)考生要求从中得到结论(“出席的最大人数是多少?”)。
挑战性在于规则不会只有“独一”的“正确”答案;相反，考生被要求从规则中找到一系列的可能性。
有时，一些问题可能会改变、增加规则，要求考生迅速整理已知信息。
不计分部分目前的考试包含一个实验部分，即法律服务所说的“可变部分”。
它为以后的考试测试新题型。
考生在这部分上的表现不会计入总成绩。
考生不会被告知哪部分是实验题，否则会影响数据收集。
在此之前，这部分考试总是列在前三部分之中，但是在2011年10月以来，LSAT 的实验部分可能会出现在前三部分之外。
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题9
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题9SECTION IITime 35 minutes 27 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.The extent of a nation’s power over its coastal ecosystems and the natural resources in its coastal waters has been defined by two international law doctrines: freedom of the seas and adjacent state sovereignty. Until the mid-twentieth century, most nations favored application of broad open-seas freedoms and limited sovereign rights over coastal waters. A nation had the right to include within its territorial dominion only a very narrow band of coastal waters (generally extending three miles from the shoreline), within which it had the authority but not the responsibility, to regulate all activities. But, because this area of territorial dominion was so limited, most nations did not establish rules for management or protection of their territorial waters.Regardless of whether or not nations enforced regulations in their territorial waters, large ocean areas remained free of controls or restrictions. The citizens of all nations had the right to use these unrestricted ocean areas for any innocent purpose, including navigation and fishing. Except for controls over its own citizens, no nation had the responsibility, let alone the unilateralauthority, to control such activities in international waters. And, since there were few standards of conduct that applied on the “open seas”, there were few jurisdictional conflicts between nations.The lack of standards is traceable to popular perceptions held before the middle of this century. By and large, marine pollution was not perceived as a significant problem, in part because the adverse effect of coastal activities on ocean ecosystems was not widely recognized, and pollution caused by human activities was generally believed to be limited to that caused by navigation.Moreover, the freedom to fish, or overfish, was an essential element of the traditional legal doctrine of freedom of the seas that no maritime country wished to see limited. And finally, the technology that later allowed exploitation of other ocean resources, such as oil, did not yet exist.To date, controlling pollution and regulating ocean resources have still not been comprehensively addressed by law, but international law—established through the customs and practices of nations—does not preclude such efforts.And two recent developments may actually lead to future international rules providing for ecosystem management. First, the establishment of extensive fishery zones extending territorial authority as far as 200 miles out from a country’s coast, has provided the opportunity for nations individually to manage larger ecosystems. This opportunity, combined with national self-interest in maintaining fish populations, could lead nations to reevaluate policies formanagement of their fisheries and to address the problem of pollution in territorial waters. Second, the internationalcommunity is beginning to understand the importance of preserving the resources and ecology of international waters and to show signs of accepting responsibility for doing so.As an international consensus regarding the need for comprehensive management of ocean resources develops, it will become more likely that international standards and policies for broader regulation of human activities that affect ocean ecosystems will be adopted and implemented.1. According to the passage, until the mid-twentieth century there were few jurisdictional disputes over international waters because.(A) the nearest coastal nation regulated activities(B) few controls or restrictions applied to ocean areas(C) the ocean areas were used for only innocent purposes(D) the freedom of the seas doctrine settled all claims concerning navigation and fishing(E) broad authority over international waters was shared equally among all nations2. According to the international law doctrines applicable before themid-twentieth century, if commercial activity within a particular nation’s territorial waters threatened all marine life in those waters, the nation would have been(A) formally censured by an international organization for not properly regulating marine activities(B) called upon by other nations to establish rules to protect its territorial waters(C) able but not required to place legal limits on such commercial activities(D) allowed to resolve the problem at it own discretionproviding it could contain the threat to its own territorial waters(E) permitted to hold the commercial offenders liable only if they were citizens of that particular nation3. The author suggests that, before the mid-twentieth cen tury, most nations’ actions with respect to territorial and international waters indicated that(A) managing ecosystems in either territorial or international waters was given low priority(B) unlimited resources in international waters resulted in little interest in territorial waters(C) nations considered it their responsibility to protect territorial but not international waters(D) a nation’s authority over its citizenry ended at territorial lines(E) although nations could extend their territorial dominion beyond three milesfrom their shoreline, most chose not to do so4. The author cites which one of the following as an effect of the extension of territorial waters beyond the three-mile limit?(A) increased political pressure on individual nations to establish comprehensive laws regulating ocean resources(B) a greater number of jurisdictional disputes among nations over the regulation of fishing on the open seas(C) the opportunity for some nations to manage large ocean ecosystems(D) a new awareness of the need to minimize pollution caused by navigation(E) a political incentive for smaller nations to solve the problems of pollution in their coastal waters5. According to the passage, before the middle of thetwentieth century, nations failed to establish rules protecting their territorial waters because(A) the waters appeared to be unpolluted and to contain unlimited resources(B) the fishing industry would be adversely affected by such rules(C) the size of the area that would be subject to such rules was insignificant(D) the technology needed for pollution control and resource management did not exist(E) there were few jurisdictional conflicts over nations’ territorial waters6. The passage as a whole can best be described as(A) a chronology of the events that have led up to present-day crisis(B) a legal inquiry into the abuse of existing laws and the likelihood of reform(C) a political analysis of the problems inherent in directing national attention to an international issue(D) a historical analysis of a problem that requires international attention(E) a proposal for adopting and implementing international standards to solve an ecological problem参考答案：1-6 BCACCDThe human species came into being at the time of the greatest biological diversity in the history of the Earth. Today, as human populations expand and alter the natural environment, they are reducing biological diversity to its lowest level since the end of the Mesozoic era, 65 million years ago. The ultimate consequences of this biological collision are beyond calculation,but they are certain to be harmful. That, in essence, is the biodiversity crisis.The history of global diversity can be summarized as follows: after the initial flowering of multicellular animals, there was a swift rise in the number of species in early Paleozoic times (between 600 and 430 million years ago), thenplateaulike stagnation for the remaining 200 million years of the Paleozoic era, and finally a slow but steady climb through the Mesozoic and Cenozoic era s to di versity’s all-time high. This history suggests that biological diversity was hard won and a long time in coming. Furthermore, this pattern of increase was set back by five massive extinction episodes. The most recent of these, during the Cretaceous period, is by far the most famous, because it ended the age of the dinosaurs, conferred hegemony on the mammals, and ultimately made possible the ascendancy of the human species. But the cretaceous crisis was minor compared with the Permian extinctions 240 million years ago, during which between 77 and 96 percent of marine animal species perished. It took 5 million years, well into Mesozoic times, for species diversity to begin a significant recovery.Within the past 10,000 years biological diversity has entered a wholly new era. Human activity has had a devastating effect on species diversity, and the rate of human-induced extinctions is accelerating. Half of the bird species of Polynesia have been eliminated through hunting and the destruction of native forests. Hundreds of fish species endemic to Lake Victoria are now threatened with extinction following the careless introduction of one species of fish, the Nile perch. The list of such biogeographic disasters is extensive.Because every species is unique and irreplaceable, the loss ofbiodiversity is the most profound process of environmental change. Its consequences are also the least predictable because the value of Earth’s biota (the fauna and flora collectively) remains largely unstudied and unappreciated; unlike material and cultural wealth, which we understand because they are the substance of our everyday lives, biological wealth is usually taken for granted. This is a serious strategic error, one that will be increasingly regretted as time passes. The biota is not only part of a country’s heritage, the product of millions of years of evolution centered on that place; it is also a potential source for immense untapped material wealth in the form of food, medicine, and other commercially important substance.7. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?(A) The reduction in biodiversity is an irreversible process that represents a setback both for science and for society as a whole.(B) The material and cultural wealth of a nation are insignificant when compared with the country’s biological wealth.(C) The enormous diversity of life on Earth could not have come about without periodic extinctions that have conferred preeminence on one species at the expense of another.(D) The human species is in the process of initiating a massive extinction episode that may make past episodes look minor by comparison.(E) The current decline in species diversity is human-induced tragedy of incalculable proportions that has potentially grave consequences for the humanspecies.8. Which one of the following situations is most analogous to the history of global diversity summarized in lines 10-18 of the passage?(A) The number of fish in a lake declines abruptly as a result of water pollution, then makes a slow comeback after cleanup efforts and the passage of ordinances against dumping.(B) The concentration of chlorine in the water supply of large city fluctuates widely before stabilizing at a constant and safe level.(C) An old-fashioned article of clothing goes in and out of style periodically as a result of features in fashion magazines and the popularity of certain period films.(D) After valuable mineral deposits are discovered, the population of a geographic region booms then levels off and begins to decrease at a slow and steady pace.(E) The variety of styles stocked by a shoe store increases rapidly after the store opens, holds constant for many months, and then gradually creeps upward.9. The author suggests which one of the following about the Cretaceous crisis?(A) It was the second most devastating extinction episode in history.(B) It was the most devastating extinction episode up until that time.(C) It was less devastating to species diversity than is the current biodiversity crisis.(D) The rate of extinction among marine animal species as a result of the crisis did not approach 77 percent.(E) The dinosaurs comprised the great majority of species that perished during the crisis.10. The author mentions the Nile perch in order to provide an example of(A) a species that has become extinct through human activity(B) the typical lack of foresight that has led to biogeographic disaster(C) a marine animal species that survived the Permian extinctions(D) a species that is a potential source of material wealth(E) the kind of action that is necessary to reverse the decline in species diversity11. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as contributing to the extinction of species EXCEPT(A) hunting(B) pollution(C) deforestation(D) the growth of human populations(E) human-engineered changes in the environment12. The passage suggests which one of the following about material and cultural wealth?(A) Because we can readily assess the value of material and cultural wealth, we tend not to take them for granted.(B) Just as the biota is a source of potential material wealth, it is an untapped source of cultural wealth as well.(C) Some degree of material and cultural wealth may have to be sacrificed if we are to protect our biological heritage.(D) Material and cultural wealth are of less value than biological wealth because they have evolved over a shorter period of time.(E) Material wealth and biological wealth are interdependent in a way that material wealth and cultural wealth are not.13. The author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the consequences of the biodiversity crisis?(A) The loss of species diversity will have as immediate an impact on the material of nations as on their biological wealth.(B) The crisis will likely end the hegemony of the human race and bring about the ascendancy of another species.(C) The effects of the loss of species diversity will be dire, but we cannot yet tell how dire.(D) It is more fruitful to discuss the consequences of the crisis in terms of the potential loss to humanity than in strictly biological loss to humanity than in strictly biological terms.(E) The consequences of the crisis can be minimized, but the pace of extinctions can not be reversed.参考答案：7-13 EEDBBACWomen’s participation in the revolutionary events in France between 1789 and 1795 has only recently been given nuanced treatment. Early twentieth century historians of the French Revolution are typified by Jaures, who, though sympathetic to the women’s movement of his own time, never even mentions its antecedents in revolutionary France. Even today most general histories treat only cursorily a few individual women, like Marie Antoinette. The recent studies by Landes, Badinter, Godineau, and Roudinesco, however, should signal a much-needed reassessment of women’s participation.Godineau and Roudinesco point to three significant phases in that participation. The first, up to mid-1792, involved those women who wrote political tracts. Typical of their orientation to theoretical issues—in Godineaus’s。
LSAT考试全真试题三 含答案(4部分)
LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION 1Time-35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to araw a rough diagram. Choose the resoonse that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Questions 1-6Seven students-fourth-year students Kim and Lee; third-year students Pat and Robin: and second-year students Sandy, Tety and Val-and only those seven, are being assigned a rooms of equal size in a dormitory. Each room assigned must have either one or two or three students assigned to it and will accordingly be called either a single or a double or a triple. The seven students are assigned to moms in accordence with the following conditions:Lio fourth-year student can be assigned to a triple.No second-year student can be assigned to a single.Lee and Pobin must not share the same roomKim and Pat must share the same room.1. Which one of the following is a combination of rooms to which the seven students could be assigned?(A) two triples and one single(B) one triple and four singles(C) three doubles and a stngle(D) two doubles and three singles(E) one double and five singles2. It the room assigned to Robin is a single, which one of the following could be true?(A) There is exactly one double that has a second-year student assigned to it.(B) Lee is assigned to a stngle.(C) Sandy Fat and one other student are zseigned to a triple together.(D) Lixactly three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles(E) Exactly two of the rooms assigned to the students are doubles.3. Which one of the following must be true?(A) Lee is assigned to a single(B) Pat sharts a double with another student(C) Robin shares a double with another student(D) Two of the second-year students share a double with each other(E) Neither of the third-year students is assigned to a single4. If Robin is assigred to a triple, which one of the following must be true?(A) Lee is assigned to a single(B) Two second-year students share a double with each other(C) None of the rooms assigned to the students is a single(D) Two of the rooms assigned to the students are singles.(E) Three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles5. If Terry and Val assigned to different doubles from each other, other, then it must be true of the students rooms that exactly(A) one is a single(B) two are singles(C) two are doubles(D) one is a triple(E) two are triples6. Which one of the following could be true?(A) The two fourth-year students are assigned to singles.(B) The two fourth-year students share a double with cach other.(C) Lee shares a room with a second-year student(D) Lee shares a room with a third-year student(E) Pat shares a triple with two other studentsQuestions 7-11A worker will insert colored light bulbs into a billboard equipped with exactly three light sockets, which are labled lights 1, 2, and 3. The worker has three green bulbs, three purple bulbs, and three yellow bulbs. Seiection of bulbs for the sockets is governed by the following conditions:Whenever light 1 is purple, light 2 must be yellow.Whenever light 2 is purple, light 1 must be green.Whenever light 3 is either purple or yellow, light 2 must be purple.7. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colors of light bulbs selected for lights 1, 2 and 3, respectively?(A) green, green, yellow(B) purple, green, green(C) purple, purple, green(D) yellow, purple, green(E) yellow, yellow, yellow8. If light 1 is yellow, then any of the following can be true, EXCEPT:(A) Light 2 is green.(B) Light 2 is purple(C) Light 3 is green(D) Light 3 is purple(E) Light 3 is yellow9. There is exactly one possible color sequence of the three lights if which one of the following is true?(A) Light 1 is purple.(B) Light 2 is purple.(C) Light 2 is yellow(D) Light 3 is purple.(E) Light 3 is yellow10. If no green bulbs are selected, there are exactly how many possible different color sequences of the three lights?(A) one(B) two(C) three(D) four(E) five11. If no two lights are assigned light bulbs that are the same color as each other, then which one of the following could be true?(A) Light I is green, and light 2 is purple.(B) Light I is green, and light 2 is yellow.(C) Light I is purple, and light 2 is yellow.(D) Light I is yellow, and light 2 is green.(E) Light I is yellow, and light 2 is purple.SECTION IITime—35 minutes25 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions. more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions. You should not make assumptions that are by blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. When politicians resort to personal atacks many editortalists criticize thest attacks but most voters pay them scant attention. Eeveryone knows such attacks will end after election day, and politicians can be excused for mudslinging. Political commentators, however, cannot be. Political commentators should be engaged in sustained and senous debate about ideas and policies. In such a context personal attacks on opponents serve not to beat those opponents but to cut off the debate.Which of the following most accurately states the main point of the argument?(A) Dersonal attacks on opponets serve a usuful purpose for politicians.(B) Political commentators should not resort to personal attacks on their opponents.(C) Editonalists are right to criticize politicians who resort to personal attacks on their opponents.(D) The purpose of serious debate about ideas and policies is to counteract the effect of personal attacks by politicians.(E) Voters should be concerned about the personal attacks politicians make on each other.2. Throughout the Popoya Islands community pressure is exerted on people who win the national lottery to share their good fortune with their neighbors. When people living in rural areas win the lottery they invariably throw elaborate neighborhood feasts, often wiping, out all of their lottery winmmings. However, in the cities, lottery winners frequently use their winnings for their own personal investment rather than sharing their good fortune with their neighbors.Which one of the following true, contributes most to an explanation of the difference between the behavior of lottery winners in rural areas and those in cities?(A) Twice as many Popoyans live in rural areas as live in the city.(B) Popoyan city dwellers tend to buy several lottery tickets at a time, but they buy tickets less frequently than do rural dwellers.(C) Lottery winners in rural areas are notified of winning by public posting of lists of winners, but notification in the city is by private mail.(D) Families in rural areas in the Popoyas may contain twelve or foruteen people, but city families average six or seven.(E) Twice as many lottery tickets are sold in rural areas as are sold in the city.3. A new medication for migraine seems effective, but there is concern that the medication might exacerbate heart disease. If patiens with heart disease take the medication under careful medical supervision. however, harmful side effects can definitely be averted. The concern about those side effects is thus unfounded.The argument depends on which one of the following assumptions?(A) The new medication actually is effective when taken by patients with heart disease.(B) No migraine sufferers with heart disease will take the new medication except under careful medical supervision.(C) Most migraine sufferers who have taken the new medication in trials also had heart disease(D) The new medication has various other side effects, but none as serious as that of exacerbating heart disease.(E) The new medication will displace all migrame medicztions currently being used.4. The highest-ranking detectives in the city s police department are also the most adept at solving crimes. Yet in each of the past ten years. the average success rate for the city s highest-ranking detectives in solving crimnal cases has been no higher than the average success rate for its lowest-ranking detectives.Which one of the follwing, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox?(A) The detectives who have the highest success rate in solving criminal cases are those who have worked as detectives the longest.(B) It generally takes at least ten years for a detective to rise from the lowest to the highest ranks of the city s detective force.(C) Those detectives in the police department who are the most adept at solving criminal cases are also those most likely to remain in the police department.(D) The police department generally gives the criminal cases that it expects to be the easiest to solve to its lowest-ranking detectives.(E) None of the lowest-ranking detectivesin the police department had experiecne in solving critninal cases prior to joining the police deparment.5. Imgation runoff from neighboring farms may well have increased the concentration of phosphorus in the local swamp above previous levels, but the claim that the increase in phosphorus is harming the swamp s native aquatie wildlife is false: the phospborus concentration in the swamp is actually less than that found in certain kinds of bottled water that some peopledrink every day.The argument is vulnerable to criticism on the ground that it(A) makes exaggerations in formulating the claim against which it argues(B) bases its conclusion on two contradictiry claims(C) relies on evidence the relevance of which has not been established(D) concedes the very point that it argues against(E) makes a generalization that is unwarranted because the sources of the data on which it is based have not been specified.6. Copyright laws protect the rights of writers to profits earned from their writings. whereas patent laws protec: inventors rights to profits earned from their inventions In jawade, when computer-software writers demanded that their rights to profit be protected, the courts determined that information written for a machine does not fit into either the copyright or the patent category. Clearly, therefore, the profit rights of computer-software writers remain unprotected in Jawade.Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?(A) Computer-software writers are not an influential enough group in Jawade for the government to consider modifying existing copyright laws in order to protect this group s profit rights.(B) No laws exist, other than copyright laws and patent laws, that would protect the profit rights of computer-software writers in Jawade.(C) Most of the computer software used in Jawade is imported from other countries.(D) Computer software is more similar to writings covered by copyright laws than it is to inventions covered by patent laws.(E) Copyright laws and patent laws in Jawade have not been modified since their original adoption.7. Brownlea s post office must be replaced with a larger one. The present one cannot be expanded. land near the present location in the center of town is more expensive than land on the outskirts of town. Since the cost of acquiring a site is a significant part of the total construction cost, the post office clearly could be built more cheaply on the outskirts of town.Which one of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the argument s stated conclusion?(A) The new post office will have to be built in accordance with a demanding new citywide building code.(B) If the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, it will require a parking lot, but if sited near the present post office it will not.(C) If the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, current city bus routes will have to be expanded to provide access.(D) If the new post office is built on the outskirts of town, residents will make decreased use of post office boxes, with the result that mail carriers will have to deliver more mail to homes.(E) If the new post office is built near the center of town, disruptions to city traffic would have to be minimized by taking such steps as doing some construction work in stages at night and on weekends.8. in the past, the railroads in Ostronia were run as regional monopelies and opeerated with little regard for what customers wanted. In recent years, with improvements to the Ostronian national highway network the railroad companies have faced heavy competition from longdistance trucking companies. But because of government subsidies that have permitted Ostronian railroad companies to operate even while incuring substantial losses, the companies continie to disregard customers needs and desires.If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?(A) If the government of Ostronia ceases to subsidize railroad companies. few of those companies will continue to operate.(B) Few companies in Ostronia that have received subsidies from the government have taken the needs and desires of their customers into account.(C) Without government subsidies, railroad companies in Ostronia would have to increase the prices they charge their customers.(D) The transportation system in Ostronia is no more efficient today than it was in the past.(E) In recent years, some companies in Ostronia that have had little regard for the desires of their customers have nonetheless survived.9. Although Damon had ample time carlier in the month to complete the paper he is scheduled to present at a professional conference tomorrow morning he repeatedly put off doing it. Damon could still get the paper ready in time, but only if he works on it all evening without interruption. However, his seven-year-old daughter s tap-dance recital takes place this evening and Damon had promised both to attend and to take his daughter and her friends out for ice cream afterward. Thus, because of his procrastination. Damon will be forced to choose between his professional and his farmily responsibilities.The argument proceeds by(A) providing evidence that one event will occur in order to establish that an altemative event cannot occur(B) showing that two situations are similar in order to justify the claim that someone with certain responsibilities in the first situation has similar responsibilities in the second situation(C) invoking sympathy for someone who finds himself in a dilemma in order to excuse that person s failure to meet all of his responsibilities(D) making clear the extent to which someone s actions resulted in harm to others in order to support the claim that those actions were irresponsible(E) demonstrating that two situations cannot both occur by showing that something necessary for one of those situations is incompatible with something necessary for the other situation10. The increase in the price of jet fuel is due to a sharp decrease over the past year in the supply of jet fuel available relative to demand. Nonetheless, the amount of jet fuel available for sale is larger today than it was last year.If the statements above are true, which one of the following conclusions can be properly drawn on the basis of them?(A) The demand for jet fuel has increased over the past year.(B) The fuel efficiency of jet engines has increased over the past year.(C) The number of jet airline flights has decreased over the past year.(D) The cost of refining petroleum for jet fuel has increased over the past year.(E) The supply of petroleum available for jet fuel ha decreased over the past year.SECTION IIITime—35 minutes25 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. Everyone sitting in the waiting room of the school s athletic office this morning at nine o clock had just registered for a beginners tennis clinic. John, Mary, and Teresa were all sitting in the waiting room this morning at nice o clock. No accomplished tennis player would register for a beginners tennis clinic.If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?(A) None of the people sitting in the school s athletic office this morning at nine o clock had ever played tennis.(B) Everyone sitting in the school s athletic office this morning at nine o clock registered only for a beginners tennis clinic.(C) John, Mary, and Teresa were the only people who registered for a beginners tennis clinic this morning.(D) John, Mary, and Teresa were the only people sitting in the waiting room of the school s athletic office this morning at nine o clock(E) Neither John nor Teresa is an accomplished tennis player.2. Most people who ride bicycles for pleasure do not ride until the warm weather of spring and summer arrives. Yet it is probably more effective to advertise bicycles earlier in the year. Most bicycles are purchased in the spring, but once shoppers are ready to shop for a bicycle, they usually have already decided which brand and model of bicycle they will purchase. By then it is generally too late to induce them to change their minds.The main point of the argument is that(A) bicycle advertisements are probably more effective if they appear before the arrival of warm spring weather(B) most bicycle purchasers decide on the brand and model of bicycle that they will buy before beginning to shop for a bicycle(C) more bicycles are purchassed in the spring than at any other time of year.(D) in general, once a bicycle purchaser has decided which bicycle he or she intends to purchase, it is difficult to bring about a change in that decision(E) spring and summer are the time of year in which bicycle riding as a leisure activity is most popular3. During 1991 the number of people in the town of Bayburg who received municipal food assistance doubled, even though the number of people in Bayburg whose incomes were low enough to qualify for such assistance remained unchanged.Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resove the apparent discrepancy in the information above?(A) In 1990 the Bayburg Town Council debated whether or not to alter the eligibility requirements for the food assistance program but ultimately decided not to change them.(B) In 1990 the Bayburg social service department estimated the number of people in Bayburg who might be eligible for the food assistance program and then informed the Bayburg Town Council of the total amount of assistance likely to be needed.(C) During 1991 many residents of a nearby city lost their jobs and moved to Bayburg in search of work.(D) During 1991 the number of applicants for food assistance in Bayburg who were rejected on the basis that their incomes were above the maximum allowable limit was approximately the same as it had been in 1990.(E) During 1991 Bayburg s program of rent assistance for low-income tenants advertised widely and then informed all applicants about other assistance programs for which they would be qualified.4. Campaigning for election to provincial or state office frequently requires that a candidate spend much time and energy catering to the interests of national party officials who can help the candidate to win office. The elected officials who campaign for reelection while they are in office thus often fail to serve the interests of their local constituencies.Which one of the following is an assumption made-by the argument?(A) Catering to the interests of national party officials sometimes conflicts with serving the interests of a provincial or state official s local constituencies.(B) Only by catering to the interests of national party officials can those who hold provincial or state office win reelection.(C) The interests of iocal constituencies are well served only by elected officials who do not cater to the interests of national party officials.(D) Officials elected to provincial or state office are obligated to serve only the interests of constituents who beling to the same party as do the officials.(E) All elected officials are likely to seek reelection to those offices that are not limited to one term.5. Since Professor Smythe has been head of the deparment the most distinguished member of the faculty has resigned, fewer new courses have been developed, student has dropped, and the reputation of the department has gone down. These facts provide conclusive evidence that Professor Smythe was appointed to undermine the department.The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argumetn(A) overlooks the fact that something can have the reputation for being of poor quality without being of poor quality(B) bases a general claim on a few exceptional instances(C) assumes that because an action was followed by a change, the action was undertaken to bring about that change.(D) fails to distinguish between a decline in quantity and a decline in quality(E) presupposes what it purports to establish6. Books about architectural works. unless they are not intended for a general audience, ought to include discussions of both the utility and the aesthetic appeal of each of the buildings they consider. If they do not, they are flawed. Morton s book on Italian Baroque palaces describes these palaces functional aspects, but fails to mention that the main hall of a palace he discusses at length has a ceiling that is one of the truly breathtaking masterpieces of Western art.If the statements above are true, it would be necessary to establish which one of the following in order to conclude that Morton s book is flawed?(A) Morton s deseription of the palaces utility is inaccurate(B) Morton s book does not discuss aspects of the palaces other than utility and aesthetic appeal(C) Morton s book is intended for a general audience.(D) The passage discussing the palace plays a very important role in helping to establish the overall argument of Morton s book.(E) The palace discussed at length is one of the most aesthetically important of those treated in Morton s book.7. Of all the photographs taken of him at his wedding there was one that John and his friends sharply disagreed about. His friends all said that this particular picture did not much resemble him, but John said that on the contrary it was the only photograph that did.Which one of the following, if true about the photograph most helps to explain John s disagreement with his friends?(A) It, unlike the other photographs of John, showed him in the style of dress he and his friends usually wear rather than the formal clothes he wore at the ceremony.(B) It was the only photograph taken of John at his wedding for which the photographer had used a flash.(C) It was a black-and-white photograph, whereas the other photographs that showed John were mostly color photographs.(D) It was unique in showing John s face reflected in a mirror, the photographer having taken the photograph over John s shoulder.(E) It was one of only a few taken at the wedding that showed no one but John.Questions 8-9Eva: A "smart highway" system should be installed, one that would monitor areawide traffic patterns and communicate with computers in vehicles or with programmable highway signs to give drivers information about traffic congestion and alternate routes. Such a system, we can infer, would result in improved traffic flow in and around cities that would do more than improve drivers tempers; it would decrease the considerable loss of money and productivity that now results from traffic congestion.Lines: There are already traffic reports on the radio. Why would a "smart highway" system be any better?8. Eva s argument depends on the assumption that(A) on "smart highways" there would not be the breakdowns of vehicles that currently cause traffic congestion(B) traffic lights, if coordinated by the system, would assure a free flow of traffic(C) traffic flow in and around cities is not now so congested that significant improvement is impossible(D) the type of equipment used in "smart highway" systems would vary from one city to another(E) older wehicles could not be fitted with equipment to receive signals sent by a "smart highway" system9. If Eva responded to Luis by saying that the current one-minute radio reports are too short to give a sufficient description of overall patterns of traffic congestion, which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen Luis s challenge?(A) Bad weather, which radio stations report, would cause traffic to slow down whether or not a "smart highway" system was in operation.(B) It would be less costly to have radio stations that give continual, lengthier traffic reports than to install a "smart highway" system.(C) Radio reports can take note of congestion once it occurs, but a "smart highway" system could anticipate and forestall it in many instances.(D) The proposed traffic monitoring would not reduce the privacy of drivers.(E) Toll collection booths, which constiture traffic bottlenecks, would largely be replaced in the "smart highway" system by electronic debiting of commuters accounts while traffic proceeded at full speed.10. The terms "sex" and "gender" are often used interchangeably. But "sex" more properly refers to biological differences of male and female, while "gender" refers to society s construction of a system that identifies what is masculine and feminine. Unlike the set of character isties defining biological sex, the set of traits that are associated with gender does not sort people into two nonoverlapping groups. The traits character ize people in a complex way, so that a person may have both "masculine" and "feminine" traits.Which one of the following statements best expresses a main point of the argument?(A) Distinctions based on gender are frequently arbitrary.(B) Gender traits are not determined at birth.(C) Masculine gender traits are highly correlated with maleness.(D) The terms "sex" and "gender" are not properly interchangeable.(E) Society rather than the individual decides what is considered proper behavior.11. Raising the tax rate on essential goods—a traditional means of increasing govemment revenues—invariably turns low-and middle-income taxpayers against the government. Hence government officials have proposed adding a new tax on pruchases of luxury items such as yachts, private planes, jewels, and furs. The officials in government revenues while affecting only the wealthy individuals and corporations who can afford to purchase such items.The answer to which one of the following questions would be most relevant in evaluating the accuracy of the government officials prediction?。
LSAT考试全真试题四 含答案(4部分)
LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION 1Time—35 minutes27 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated for implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question However you jare to choose the best answer. that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.To many developers of technologies that affect public health or the environment. "risk communication" means persuading the public that the potential risks of such technologies are small and(5) should be ignored. Those who communicate risks in this way seem to believe that lay people do not understand the actual nature of technological risk. and they can cite studies asserting that. although people apparently ignore mundane hazards that pose(10) significant danger, they get upset about exotic hazards that pose little chance of death or injury. Because some risk communicators take this persuasive stance, many lay people see "risk communication" as a euphemism for brainwashing done by experts(15)Since however the goal of risk communication should be to enable people to make informed decisions about technological risks, a clear understanding about how the public perceives risk is needed. Lay people s definitions of "risk" are more likely to reflect(20) subjective ethical concerns than are experts definitions Lay people for example tend to perceive a small risk to children as more significant than a large risk to consenting adults who benefit from the risk-creating technology. However, if asked to rank hazards(25) by the number of annual fatalities, without reference to ethical judgments, lay people provide quite reasonalbe estimates, demonstrating that they have substantial knowledge about many risks. Although some studies claim to demonstrate that lay people have inappropriate(30) concerns about exotic hazards. these studies often use questionable methods, such as asking lay people to rank risks that are hard to compare, In contrast, a recent study showed that when lay people were given the necessary facts and time they understood the specific(35) risks of electromagnetic fields produced by high-voltage power transmission well enough to make informed decisionsRisk communication should therefore be based on the principle that people process new information in(40) the context of their existing beliefs. If people know nothing about a topic they will find messages about that topic incomprehensible, If they have erroneous beliefs, they are likely to misconstrue the messages. Thus, communicators need to know the nature and(45) extent of recipients knowledge and beliefs in order to design messages that will not be dismissed or misinterpreted. This need was demonstrated in a research project concerning the public s level of knowledge about risks posed by the presence of radon(50) in the home. Researchers used open-ended interviews and questionnaires to determine what information should be included in their brochure on radon. Subjects who read the researchers brochure performed significantly better in understanding radon risks than significantly better in understanding radon risks than(55) did a control group who read a brochure that was written using a different approach by a government agency. Thus, careful preparation can help risk communicators to produce balanced material that tells people what they need to know to make decisions(60) about technological risks1. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?(A) Risk communicators are effectively addressing the proloferation of complex technologies that have increasing impact on public health and safety.(B) Risk communicators should assess lay people s understanding of technologies in order to be able to give them the information they need to make reasonable decisions.(C) Experts who want to communicate to the public about the possible risks of complex technologies must simplify their message to ensure that it is understandable(D) Risk communication can be perceived as the task of persuading lay people to accept the impact of a particular technology on their lives.(E) Lay people can be unduly influenced by subjective concerns when making decisions about technological risks.2. The authors of the passage would be most likely to agree that the primary purpose of risk communication should be to(A) explain rather than to persuade(B) promote rather than to justify(C) influence experts rather than to influence lay people(D) allay people s fears about mundane hazards rather than about exotic hazards.(E) foster public acceptance of new technologies rather than to acknowledge people s ethical concerns3. According to the passage,it is probable that which one of the following will occur when risk communicators attempt to communicate with lay people who have mistaken ideas about a particular technology?(A) The lay people perceiving that the risk communicators have provided more-reliable information, will discard their mistaken notion(B) The lay people will only partially revise their ideas on the basis of the new information(C) The lay people fitting the new information into their existing framework will interpret the communication differently that the risk communicators had intended(D) The lay people misunderstanding the new infromation will further distort the information when they communicate it to other lay people(E) The lay people will ignore any communication about a technology they consider potentially dangerous4. Which one of the following is most clearly an example of the kind of risk perception discussed in the "studies" mentioned in line 8?(A) A skydiver checks the lines on her parachute several times before a jump because tangled lines often keep the parachutes from opening properly(B) A person decides to quit smoking in order to lesson the probability of lung damage to himself and his family(C) A homeowner who decides to have her house tested for radon also decides not to allow anyone to smoke in her house(D) A person who often weaves in and out of traffic while driving his car at excessive speeds worries about meteorites hitting his house(E) A group of townspeople opposes the building of a nuclear waste dump outsider their town and proposes that the dump be placed in another town.5. It can be inferred that the authors of the passage would be more likely than would the risk communicators discussed in the first paragraph to emphasize which one of the following?(A) lay people s tendency to become alarmed about technologies that they find new or strange(B) lay people s tendency to compare risks that experts would not consider comparable(C) the need for lay people to adopt scientists advice about technological risk.(D) the inability of lay people to rank hazards by the number of fatalities caused annually(E) the impact of lay people s value systems on their perceptions of risk.6. According to the passage many lay people believe which one of the following about risk communication?(A) It focuses excessively on mundane hazards(B) It is a tool used to manipulate the publie(C) It is a major cause of inaccuracies in public knowledge about science(D) It most often funcitions to help people make informed decisions(E) Its level of effectiveness depends on the level of knowledge its audience already hasIn April 1990 representatives of the Pico Korea Union of electronics workers in Buchon city, south Korea, traveled to the United States in order to demand just settlement of their claims from the parent company(5) of their employers. who upon the formation of the union had shut down operations without paying the workers from the beginning the union cause was championed by an unprecedented coalition of Korean American groups and deeply affected the Korean American(10) community on several levels.First, it served as a rallying focus for a diverse community often divided by generation, class and political ideologies. Most notably, the Pico cause mobilized many young second-generation Korean(15) Americans, many of whom had never been part of a political campaign before, let alone one involving Korean issues. Members of this generation unlike first-generation Korean Americans, generally fall within the more privileged sectors of the Korean American(20) community and often feel alienated from their Korean roots In addition to raising the political consciousness of young Korean Americans, the Pico struggle sparked among them new interest in their cultural identity The Pieo workers also suggested new roles that can be(25) played by recent immigrants, particularly working-class immigrants These immigrants knowledge of working conditions overseas can help to globalize the perspective of their communities and can help to establish international ties on a more personal level, asSECTION IITime—35 minutes25 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should pot make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage After youhave chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on you answer sheet.1. Press release A comprehensive review evaluating the medical studies done up to the present time has found no reason to think that drinking coffee in normal amounts harms the coffee-drinker s heart So coffee drinkers can relax and enjoy their beverage—it is safe to drink coffeeWhich one of the following points to a weakness in the reasoning in the press release s argument?(A) The review was only an evaluation of studies and did not itself undertake to study patients.(B) The health of the heart is not identical with the general health of the body(C) Coffee drinkers might choose to eat along with their coffee foods contaming substances that harm the heart(D) Other beverages besides coffee might contain stimulants that have some effect on the heart(E) Drinking unusually large amounts of coffee could be caused by stress that itself directly harms the heart2. All people prefer colors that they can distinguish easily to colors that they have difficulty distinguishing. Infants can easily distinguish bright colors but, unlike adults, have difficulty distinguishing subtle shades. A brightly colored toy for infants sells better than the same toy in subtle shades at the same priceWhich one of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by the information in the passage?(A) Infants prefer bright primary colors to bright secondary colors(B) Color is the most important factor in determining which toys an infant will prefer to play with(C) Individual infants do now have strong preferences for one particular bright color over other bright colors(D) The sales of toys ofr infants reflect the preferences of infants in at least one respect(E) Toy makers study infants to determine what colors the infants can distinguish easily3. A group of unusual meteorites was found in Shergotty. India. Their structure indicates that they originated on one of the geologically active planets. Mercury, Venus, or Mars Because of Mercury s proximity to the Sun any material dislodged from that planet s surface would have been captured by the Sun, rather than falling to Earth as meteorites, Nor could Venus be the source of the meteorites, because its gravity would have prevented dislodged material from escaping into space The meteorites, therefore, probably fell to Earth after being dislodged from Mars, perhaps as the result of a collision with a large objectThe argument derives its conclusion by(A) offering a counterexample to a theory(B) eliminating competing alternative explanations(C) contrasting present circumstances with past circumstances(D) questioning an assumption(E) abstracting a general principle from specific data4. Because quitting smoking is very stressful and leads to weight gain, it is difficult to do. The key to quitting however, may be as simple as replacing an unhealthy activity with a healthy one In one study half of htose attempting to quit were assigned to a smoking-cessation program alone, and the other half were assigned to the same program plus fifteen weeks of aerobic exercise the one-month mark none in the first group had quit but 40 percent of those in the second group had not smokedEach of the following, if true, provides some support for the argument EXCEPT:(A) Regular exercise prevents weight gain(B) Each group in the study included four hundred randomly selected participants(C) Nonsmokers accustomed to regular exercise do not gain weight when they stop exercising(D) Aerobic exercise can stimulate the brain s production of endorphins. which reduce tension(E) Of those in the second group in the study 38 percent had not smoked at the one-year mark.5. Altogethe, the students in Ms. Tarnowski s Milton Elementary School class collected more aluminum cans than did the students in any of the school s other classes Therefore, the Milton student who collected the most aluminum cans was in Ms Tarnowski s classWhich one of the following arguments contains flawed reasoning that is most paralled to that in the argument above?(A) Altogether, more trees were planted by the students in Mr Kelly s class than were planted by those in Mr Liang s class and Mr Jackson s class combined Therefore. Mr Kelly s students planted more trees than Mr Jackson s students planted(B) More than half of Milton Elementary School s students play in the band and more than half of the school s students sing in the choir Therefore, every student at Milton Elementary School either plays in the band or sings in the choir(C) Mr Rowe s Milton Elementary School class raised more money by selling candy bars than Ms Hunt s class raised by holding a raffle. Therefore, the number of candy bars sold by Mr Rowe s class was greater than the number of raffle tickets sold by Ms. Hunt s class(D) The total number of tickets to the school fair sold by the students in Ms. Ramirez s Milton Elementary School class was greater than the number sold by Milton students fromany other class. Therefore, the Milton student who sold the most tickets to the school fair was a student in Ms Rairez s class(E) Ms. Ventura s Milton Elementary School class assembled more birdhouses than did any of the school s other classes. Since Ms Ventura s class had fewer students than any other Milton class, her students assembled more birdhouse on average than did the students in any other Milton class6. Several excellent candidates have been proposed for the presidency of United Wire and each candidate would bring to the job different and experience If the others are compared with Jones however it will be apparent that none of them has her unique set of qualifications Jones therefore is best qualified to be the new president of United WireThe argument is vulnerable to criticism on the ground that it(A) uses flattery to win over those who hold an opposing position(B) refutes a distorted version of an opposing position(C) seeks to distinguish one member of a group on the basis of something that applies to all(D) supports universal claim on the basis of a single example(E) describes an individual in terms that appropriately refer only to the group as a whole7. A neighborhood groupp plans to protest the closing of the neighborhood s only recreation center on the grounds that to do so would leave the neighborhood without local access to a recreation center "Our neighborhood already has the most residents per center of any neighborhood in the city" complained one resident, "and closing this center would make the situation unacceptable since access to recreational facilities is a necessity for this neighborhood"Each of the following if true weakens the resident s argument EXCEPT(A) A large number of the neighborhood s residents are unable to travel outside their locality to gain access to recreational facilities(B) Children, the main users of recreational facilities make up a disproportionately small segment of the neighborhood s population(C) Often the recreation center in the neighborhood is open but not being used.(D) Programs that are routinely filled at other recreation centers must be canceled at the ngighborhood s recreation center due to lack of interest(E) As people become more involved in computers and computer games recreation centers are becoming increasingly less important8. Sociologist: The claim that there is a large number of violent crimes in our society is false, for this claim is based upon the large number of stories in newspapers about violent crimes. But since violent crimes are very rare occurrences, newspapers are likely to print stories about them.The sociologist s argument is flawed because it(A) presupposes that most newspaper stories are about violent crime(B) presupposes the truth of the conclusion it is attempting to establish(C) assumes without warrant that the newspaper stories in question are not biased(D) mistakes property of each member of a group taken as an individual for a property of the group taken as a whole(E) uncritically draws an inference from what has been true in the past to what will be true in the future9. Historian Anyone who thinks that the terrors of the ancient rgeime of Q were exclusively the work of fanatics is overlooking a basic truth the regime was made up primarily of ordinary people enthusiasically seeking paradist. The regime executed many people in pursuit of its goal. but it later became clear that paradise as they defined it, is unrealizable So at least some of the ordinary people of Q were in fact murdreersWhich one of the following principles, if valid, provides the most support for the historian s argumentation?(A) The pursuit of paradise does not justify murder(B) The pursuit of paradise justifies fanaticism(C) Execution in pursuit of what is later found to be unattainable constitutes murder(D) Fanaticism in pursuit of paradise constitutes inhumanity(E) Enthusiasm in pursuit of what is eventually found to be unattainable constitutes fanaticismSECTION IIITime—35 minutes26 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question.However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible,superfluous, or incompatible with the passage After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. Francis: Pailure to become properly registered to vote prevents one-third of the voting-age citizens of Lagonia from voting. If local election boards made the excessively cumbersome registration process easier. more people would register and voteSharon: The high number of citizens not registered to vote has persisted despite many attempts to make registering easier. Surveys show that most of these citizens believe that their votes wouldnot make a difference. Until that belief is changed, simplifying the registration process will not increase the percentage of citizens registering to voteThe main issue in dispute between Francis and Sharon is(A) whether changing the voter registration process would be cumbersome(B) why so many citizens do not register to vote(C) what percentage of those registered to vote actually vote(D) whether local election boards have simplified the registration process(E) why the public lacks confidence in the effects of voting2. Advertisement Anyone who thinks moisturizers are not important for beautiful skin should consider what happens to the earth, the skin of the word, in times of drought. Without regular infusions of moisture the ground becomes lined and cracked and its lush loveliness fades away. Thus your skin, too, should be protected from the protection provided by regular infusions of Dewyfresh the drought-defying moisturizer.The Dewyfresh advertisement exhibits which one of the following errors of reasoning?(A) It treats something that is necessary for bringing about a state of affairs as something that is sufficient to bring about that state of affairs(B) It treats the fact that two things regularly occur together as proof that there is a single thing that is the cause of them both(C) It overlooks the fact that changing what people think is the case does not necessarily change what is the case.(D) It relies on the ambiguity of the term "infusion." which can designate either a process or the product of that process(E) It relies on an analogy between two things that are insufficiently alike in the respects in which they would have to be alike for the conclusion to be supported.Questions 3-4M: The Greek alphabet must have been invented by some individual who knew the Phoenician writing system and who wanted to have some way of recording Homeric epies and thereby preserving expressions of a highly developed traditin of oral poetry.P: Your hypothesis is laughable! What would have been the point of such a person s writing Homeric epices down? Surely a person who knew them well enough to write them down would not need to read them, and no one else could read them, according to your hypothesis.3. Which one of the following is an argumentative strategy that P uses in responding to M?(A) attacking M s understanding of the literary value of oral poetry(B) disagreeing with M s thesis without attempting to refute it(C) challenging M s knowledge of the Phoenician writing system(D) attempting to undermine M s hypothesis by making it appear absurd(E) providing an alternative interpretation of evidence put forward by M4. P s argument is vulnerable to which one of the following criticisms?(A) It fails to demonstrate that the Phoenician alphabet alone could have provided the basis for the Greek alphabet(B) It incorrectly assumes that the first text ever written in Greek was a Homeric poem(C) It confuses the requirements for a complex oral tradition with the requirements of a written language(D) It attempts to demonstrate the truth of a hypothesis merely by showing that it is possible.(E) It overlooks the possibility that person who invented the Greek alphabet did so with the intention of teaching it to others.5. Bacteria from food can survive for several days on the surface of plastic cutting boards, but bacteria can penetrate wooden cutting boards almost immediately, leaving the surface free of contamination. Therefore, wooden cutting boards, unlike plastic cutting boards, need not be washed in order to prevent their conta-minating food that is cut on them; wiping them off to remove food debris is sufficient.Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?(A) Washing plastic cutting boards does not remove all bacteria from the surface(B) Prevention of bacterial contamination is the only respect in which wooden cutting boards are superior to plastic cutting boards.(C) Food that is not already contaminated with bacteria can be contaminated only by being cut on contaminated cutting boards.(D) Bacteria that penetrate into wooden cutting boards do not reemerge on the surface after the cutting boards have been used(E) Washing wooden cutting boards kills bacteria below the surface of the cutting boards.6. Asthmagon was long considered the most effective of the drugs known as beta-2 agonists, designed to alleviate asthma attacks. However. studies conducted in Rhiago between 1981 and 1987 revealed that nearly one out of every five of the asthma patients under observation who took asthmagon suffered serious side effects after taking the drug. Citing this statistic. some docotors argue that asthmagon should be banned as an anti-asthma drug.Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the case for the proposed ban of asthmagon?(A) In Rhiago, where asthmagon had been the most widely prescribed of the beta-2 agonists, the number of asthma deaths increased between 1981 and 1987.(B) Many of the patients under observation to whom asthmagon was administered had not previously taken a beta-2 agonist(C) Despite the growing concern about the drug many physicians in Rhiago still prescribe asthmagon to asthma sufferers(D) Among the patients observed, only those who had very high cholesterol counts suffered side effects after taking asthmagon(E) Asthmagon increases the severity of asthma attacks in some people because the drug can cause damage to heart tissues7. In response to requests made by the dairy industry the government is considering whether to approve the synthetic hormone BST for use in dairy cows BST increases milk production but also leads to recurring udder inflammation decreased fertility,and symptoms of stress in cows who receive the hormone All of these problems can be kept under control with constant veterinary care but such levels of veterinary help would cost big farms far less per cow than they would small farmsIf the statements above are true which one of the following clams is most strongly supported by them?(A) The government is unlikely to approve the synthetic hormone BST for use in cows(B) The proportion of cows that suffer from udder infiammation, decreased fertility, and symptoms of stress is currently greater on big dairy farms than on small ones(C) At the present time milk from cows raised on small farms is safer to drink than milk from cows raised on big farms(D) The milk from cows who receive BST will not be safe for people to drink(E) Owners of big farms stand to gain more from government approval of BST than do owners of small farms8. Jones is selling a house to Smith The contract between the two specifies that for up to a year after ownership is transferred. Jones will be responsible for repairing any "major structural defects." defined as defects in the roof or roff-supporting components of the house that might be found Jones is not responsible for any other repairs The house has a truss roof which means that the only walls that support the roof are the exterior walls.It can be properly concluded from the information above that(A) Jones did not know of any defects in the roof or roof-supporting components of the house at the time the contract was written(B) although other components of the house may contain defects the roof and roof-supporting components of the house are currently free from such defects(C) the contract does not oblige Jones to repair any defects in the house s nonexterior walls after ownership of the house has been transferred(D) Smith will be obliged to repair all structural defects in the house within a year after ownership is transferred except those for which Jones is responsible(E) In the past Jones has had to make repairs to some of the house s exterior walls9. The play Mankind must have been written between 1431 and 1471. It cannot have been written before 1431 for in that year the rose noble, a coin mentioned in the play, was first circulated. The play cannot have been written after 1471 since in that year King Henry VI died, and he is mentioned as a living monarch in the play s dedicationThe argument would be most seriously weakened if which one of the following were discovered?(A) The Royal Theatre Company includes the play on a list of those performed in 1480(B) Another coin mentioned in the play was first minted in 1422(C) The rose noble was neither minted nor circulated after 1486(D) Although Henry VI was deposed in 1461, he was briefly restored to the throne in 1470(E) In a letter written in early 1428 a merchant told of having seen the design for a much-discussed new coin calle dthe "rose noble"SECTION IVTime—35 minutes23 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each questions and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Questions 1-5In certain recipe contest each contestant submits submits two recipes. one for an appetizer and one for a main dish Together the two recipes must include exactly seven flavorings—fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika, saffron, and turmeric—with no flavoring included in more than one of the two recipes. Each contestant s recipes must satisfy the following conditionsThe appetizer recipe includes at most three of the flavorings.Fenugreek is not included in the same recipe as nutmeg.Saffron is not included in the same recipe as turmericGinger is included in the same recipe as nutmeg。
LSAT考试全真试题二 含答案(4部分)
LSAT考试全真题二SECTION 1Time-35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions. If may be useful to draw a rough diagram Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheetQuestion 1-6Eight new students-R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z-are being divided among exactly three classes-class 1, class 2, and class3. Classes 1 and 2 will gain three new students each: class 3 will gain two new students. The following restrictions apply:R must be added to class 1.S must be added to class 3.Neither S nor W can be added to the same class as Y.V cannot be added to the same class as Z.If T is added to class 1, Z must also be added to class 1.1.Which one of the following is an acceptable assignment of students to the three classes?12 3(A) R, T, Y V, W, X S, Z(B) R, T, Z S, V, Y W, X(C) R, W, X V, Y, X S, T(D) R, X, Z T, V, Y S, W(E) R, X, Z V, W, Y S, T2.Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of classes any one of which could be the class to which V is added?(A) class 1(B) class 3(C) class 1, class 3(D) class 2, class 3(E) class 1, class 2, class 3.3.If X is added to class 1, which one of the following is a student who must be added to class 2?(A) T(B) V(C) W(D) Y(E) Z4.If X is added to class 3, each of the following is a pair of students who can be added to class 1 EXCEPT(A) Y and Z(B) W and Z(C) V and Y(D) V and W(E) T and z5.If T is added to class 3, which one of the following is a student who must be added to class 2?(A) V(B) W(C) X(D) Y(E) Z6.Which one of the following must be true?(A) If T and X are added to class 2. V is added to class 3.(B) If V and W are added to class 1. V is added to class 3.(C) If V and W are added to class 1. V is added to class 3.(D) If V and X are added to class 1. V is added to class 3.(E) If Y and Z are added to class 2. V is added to class 2.Question 7-12Four lions-F, G, H, J-and two tigers-K and M-will be assigned to exactly six stalls, one animal per stall. The stalls are arranged as follows:First Row: 1 2 3Second Row:45 6The only stalls that face each other are stalls 1 and 4, stalls 2 and 5, and stalls 3 and 6. The following conditions apply:The tigers' stalls cannot face each other.A lion must be assigned to stall 1H must be assigned to stall 6.J must be assigned to a stall numbered one higher than K's stall.K cannot be assigned to the stall that faces H's stall.7. Which one of the following must be true?(A) F is assigned to an even-numbered stall(B) F is assigned to stall 1(C) J is assigned to stall 2 or else stall 3(D) J is assigned to stall 3 or else stall 4(E) K is assigned to stall 2 or else stall 48. Which one of the following could be true?(A) F's stall is numbered one higher than J's stall(B) H's stall faces M's stall(C) J is assigned to stall 4(D) K's stall faces J'S stall(E) K's stall is in a different row than J's stall9. Which one of the following must be true?(A) A tiger is assigned to stall 2(B) A tiger is assigned to stall 5(C) K's stall is in a different row from M's stall(D) Each tiger is assigned to an even-numbered stall(E) Each lion is assigned to a stall that faces a tiger is stall10. If K's stall is in the same row as H's stall which one of the following must be true?(A) F's stall is in the same row as J's stall(B) F is assigned to a lower-numbered stall than G(C) G is assigned to a lower-numbered stall than M(D) G's stall faces H's stall(E) M's stall is in the same row as G's stall11. If J is assigned to stall 3, which one of the following could be true?(A) F is assigned to stall 2(B) F is assigned to stall 4(C) G is assigned to stall 1(D) G is assigned to stall 4(E) M is assigned to stall 512. Which one of the following must be true(A) A tiger is assigned to stall 2(B) A tiger is assigned to stall 4(C) A tiger is assigned to stall 5(D) A lion is assigned to stall 3(E) A lion is assigned to stall 4SECTION ⅡTime-35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages For some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are bycommonsense standards implausible superfluous or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best1.The city's center for disease control reports that the rabies eoidemic is more serious now than it was two years ago: two years ago less than 25 percent of the local raccoon population was infected, whereas today the infection has spread to more than 50 percent of the raccoon population. However, the newspaper reports that whereas two years ago 32 cases of rabid raccoons were confirmed during a 12-month period in the past 12 months only 18 cases of rabid raccoons were confirmed.Which one of the following if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy between the two reports?(A) The number of cases of rabies in wild animals other than raccoons has increased in the past12 months.(B) A significant proportion of the raccoon population succumbed to rabies in the year before last.(C) The symptoms of distemper another disease to which raccoons are susceptible are usually identical to those of rabies.(D) Since the outbreak of the epidemic, raccoons, which are mormally nocturnal have increasingly been seen during daylight hours(E) The number of confirmed cases of rabid raccoons in neighboring cities has also decreased over the past year2.Recently, reviewers of patent applications decided against granting a patent to a university for a genetically engineered mouse developed for laboratory use in studying cancer. The reviewers argued that the mouse was a new variety of animal and that rules governing the granting of patents specifically disallow patents for new animal varieties.Which one of the following if true most weakens the patent feviewers argument?(A) The restrictions the patent reviewers cited pertain only to domesticated farm animals.(B) The university's application for a patent for the genetically engineered mouse was the first such patent application made by the university(C) The patent reviewers had reached the same decision on all previous patent requess for new animal varieties.(D) The patent reviewers had in the past approved patents for genetically engineered plant varieties.(E) The patent reviewers had previously decided against granting patents for new animal varieties that were developed through conventional breeding programs rather than through genetic engineering.Questions 3-4Although water in deep aquifers does not contain disease-causing bacteria, when public water supplies are arawn from deep aquifers chlorine is often added to the water as a disinfectant because contamination can occur as a result of flaws in pipes or storage tanks. Of 50 municipalities that all pumped water from the same deep aquifer 30 chlorinated their water and 20 did not. The water in all of the municipalities met the regional government's standards for cleanliness yet the water supplied by the 20 municipalities that did not chlorinated had less bacterial contamination than the water supplied by the municipalities that added chlorine.3.Which one of the following can properly be concluded from the information given above?(A) A municipality's initial decision whether or not to use chlorine is based on the amount of bacterial contamination in the water source(B) Water in deep aquifers does not contain any bacteria of any kind(C) Where accessible deep aquifers are the best choice as a source for a municipal water supply(D) The regional government's standards allow some bacteria in municipal water supplies(E) Chlorine is the least effective disinfecting agent4.Which one of the following, if true, most helps explain the difference in bacterial contamination in the two groups of municipalities?(A) Chlorine is considered by some experts to be dangerous to human health, even in the small concentrations used in municipal water supplies.(B) When municipalities decide not to chlorinate their water supplies, it is usually because their citxens have voiced objections to the taste and smell of chlorine.(C) The municipalities that did not add chlorine to their water supplies also did not add any of the other available water disinfectants which are more expensive than chlorine.(D) Other agents commonly added to public water supplies such as fluoride and sodium hydroxide were not used by any of the 50 municipalities(E) Municipalities that do not chlorinate their water supplies are subject to stricter regulation by the regional government in regard to pipes and water tanks than are municipalities that use chlorine.5.The population of songbirds throughout England has decreased in recent years. Many people explain this decrease as the result of an increase during the same period in the population of magpies, which eat the eggs and chicks of songbirds.Which one of the following, if true, argues most strongly against the explanation reported in the passage?(A) Official records of the population of birds in England have been kept for only the past 30 years.(B) The number of eggs laid yearly by a female songbird varies widely according to the songbird's species.(C) Although the overall population of magpies has increased, in most areas of England in which the songbird population has decreased the number of magpies has remained stable. (D) The population of magpies has increased because farmers no longer shoot or trap magpies to any greal extent, though farmers.(E) Although magpies eat the eggs and chicks of songbirds, magpies diets consist of a wide variety of other foods as well.6.The introduction of symbols for numbers is an event lost in prehistory, but the earliest known number symbols, in the form of simple grooves and scratches on bones and stones date back 20,000 years or more. Nevertheless, since it was not until 5,500 years ago that systematic methods for writing numerais were invented, it was only then that any sort of computation became possible.Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?(A) Grooves and scratches found on bones and stones were all made by people, and none resulted from natural processes.(B) Some kinds of surfaces upon which numeric symbols could have been made in the period before 5,500 years ago were not used for that purpose.(C) Grooves and scratches inscribed on bones and stones do not date back to the time of the earliest people.(D) Computation of any sort required a systematic method for writing numerals.(E) Systematic methods for writing numerals were invented only because the need for computation arose.7.Politician: Now that we are finally cleaning up the industrial pollution in the bay, we must start making the bay more accessible to the public for recreational purposes.Reporter: But if we increase public access to the bay, it will soon become polluted again.Politician: Not true. The public did not have access to the bay, and it got polluted. Therefore, if and when the public is given access to the bay, it will not get polluted.Which one of the following most closely parallels the flawed pattern of reasoning in the politician's reply to the reporter?(A) If there had been a full moon last night, the tide would be higher than usual today. Since the tide is no higher than usual, there must not have been a full moon last night.(B) The detective said that whoever stole the money would be spending it conspicuously by now. Jones is spending money conspicuously, so he must be the thief.(C) When prisoners convicted of especially violent crimes were kept in solitary confinement, violence in the prisons increased. Therefore, violence in the prisons will not increase if such prisoners are allowed to mix with fellow prisoners.(D) To get a driver's license, one must pass a written test. Smith passed the written test, so she must have gotten a driver's license.(E) In order to like abstract art, you have to understand it . therefore, in order to understand abstract art, you have to like it.8.Because learned patterns of behavior, such as the association of a green light with "go" or the expectation that switches will flip up for "on" become deeply ingrained designers should make allowances for that fact in order not to produce machines that are inefficient or dangerous. In which one of the following situations is the principle expressed most clearly violated?(A) Manufacturers have refused to change the standard order of letters on the typewriter keyboard even though some people who have over learned to type find this arrangement of letters bewildering(B) Government regulations require that crucial instruments in airplane cockpits-be placed in exactly the same array in all commercial aircraft(C) Automobile manufacturers generally design for all of their automobiles a square or oblong lgnition key and a round or oval luggage compartment key.(D) The only traffic signs that are triangular in shape are "yield" signs.(E) On some tape recorders the "start" button is red and the "stop" button is yellow.9.From 1973 to 1989 total energy use in this country increased less than 10percent. However, the use of electrical energy in this country during this same period grew by more than 50 percent as did the gross national product-the total value of all goods and services produced in the nation.If the statements above are true, then which one of the following must also be true?(A) Most of the energy used in this country in 1989 was electrical energy.(B) From 1973 to 1989 there was a decline in the use of energy other than electrical energy in this country.(C) From 1973 to 1989 there was an increase in the proportion of energy use in this country that consisted of electrical energy use(D) In 1989 electrical energy constituted a larger proportion of the energy used to produce the gross national product than did any other form of energy.(E) In 1973 the electrical energy that was produced constituted a smaller proportion of the gross national product than did all other forms of energy combined.10. A fundamental illusion in robotics is the belief that improvements in robots will liberate humanity from "hazardous and demeaning work" Englineers are designing only those types of robots that can be properly maintained with the least expensive, least skilied human labor possible. Therefore, robots will not eliminate demeaning work-only substitute one type of demeaning work for another.The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it(A) ignores the consideration that in a competitive business environment some jobs might be eliminated if robots are not used in the manufacturing process(B) assumes what it sets out to prove, that robots create demeaning work.(C) Does not specify whether or not the engineers who design robots consider their work demeaning(D) Attempts to support its conclusion by an appeal to the emotion of fear, which is often experienced by people faced with the prospect of losing their jobs to robots(E) Fails to address the possibility that the amount of demeaning work eliminated by robots might be significantly greater than the amount they createSECTION ⅢTime-35 minutes26 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages For some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are answer blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet1.The painted spiders spins webs that are much stickier than the webs spun by the other species of spiders that share the same habitat. Stickler webs are more efficient at trapping insects that fly into them. Spiders prey on insects by trapping them in their webs therefore. If can be concluded that the painted spider is a more successful predator than its competitorsWhich one of the following if true most seriously weakens the argument?(A) Not all of the species of insects living in the painted spider's habitat are flying insects(B) Butterflies and moths which can shed scales are especially unlikely to be trapped by spider webs that are not very sticky(C) Although the painted spider's venom does not kill insects quickly. It paralyzes them almost instantaneously(D) Stickier webs reflect more light and so are more visible to insects than are less-sticky webs.(E) The webs spun by the painted spider are no larger than the webs spun by the other species of spiders in the same habitat2.Despite the best efforts of astronomers, no one has yet succeeded in exchanging messages with intelligent life on other planets or in other solar systems. In fact, no one has even managed to prove that any kind of extraterrestrial life exists. Thus, there is clearly no intelligent life anywhere but on Earth.The argument's reasoning is flawed because the argument(A) fails to consider that there might be extraterrestrial forms of intelligence that are not living beings(B) confuses an absence of evidence for a nypothesis with the existence of evidence against the hypothesis(C) interprets a disagreement over a scientitic theory as a disproof of that theory(D) makes an inference that relies on the vagueness of the term "life"(E) relies on a weak analogy rather than on evidence to draw a conclusionQuestions 3-4Bart: A mathematical problem that defied solution for hundreds of years has finally yielded to a supercomputer. The process by which the supercomputer derived the result is so complex. However, that no one can fully comprehend it. Consequently, the result is unacceptable.Anne: In scientific research if the results of a test can be replicated in other tests, the resultsare acceptable even though the way they were derived might not be fully understood. Therefore, if a mathematical result derived by a supercomputer can be reproduced by other supercomputers following the same procedure it is acceptable3. Bart's argument requires which one of the following assumptions?(A) The mathematical result in question is unacceptable because it was derived with the use of a supercomputer(B) For the mathematical result in question to be someone who can fully comprehend the process by which it was derived.(C) To be acceptable the mathematical result in question must be reproduced on another supercomputer.(D) Making the mathematical result in question less complex would guarantee its acceptablility.(E) The supercomputer cannot derive an acceptable solution to the mathematical problem in question.4.The exchange between Bart and Anne most strongly supports the view that they disagree as to(A) whether a scientific result that has not been replicated can properly be accepted(B) whether the result that a supercomputer derives for a mathematical problem must be replicated on another supercomputer before it can be accepted(C) the criterion to be used for accepting a mathematical result derived by a supercomputer(D) the level of complexity of the process to which Bart refers in his statements(E) the relative complexity of mathematical preblems as compared to scientific problems5.It is commonly held among marketing experts that in a nonexpanding market a company's best strategy is to go after a bigger share of the market and that the best way to do this is to run comparative advertisements that emphasize weaknesses in the products of rivals. In the stagnant market for food oil, soybean-oil and palm-oil producers did wage a two-year battle with comparative advertisements about the deleterious effect on health of each other's products. These campaigns, however had little effiect on respective market shares; rather they stopped many people from buying any edible oils at all.The statements above most strongly support the conclusion that comparative advertisements(A) increase a company's market share in all cases in which that company's products are clearly superior to the products of rivals(B) should not be used in a market that is expanding or likely to expand(C) should under no circumstances be used as a retaliatory measure(D) carry the risk of causing a contraction of the market at which they are aimed(E) yield no long-term gains unless consumers can easily verify the claims made6.Recent unexpectedly heavy rainfalls in the metropolitan area have filled the reservoirs andstreams; water rationing, therefore, will not be necessary this summer.Which one of the following, if true most undermines the author's prediction?(A) Water rationing was fmposed in the city in three of the last five years.(B) A small part of the city's water supply is obtained from deep underground water systems that are not reached by rainwater(C) The water company's capacity to pump water to customers has not kept up with the increased demand created by population growth in the metropolitan area.(D) The long-range weather forecast predicts lower-than-average temperatures for this summer.(E) In most years the city receives less total precipitation in the summer than if receives in any other season.7.John: In 80 percent of car accidents the driver at fault was within five miles of home, so people evidently drive less safely near home than they do on long trips.Judy: But people do 80 percent of their driving within five miles of home.How is Judy's response related to John's argument?(A) It shows that the evidence that John presents by itself is not enough to prove his claim.(B) It restates the evidence that John presents in different terms.(C) It gives additional evidence that is needed by John to support his conclusion.(D) It calls into question John's assumption that whenever people drive more than five miles from home they are going on a long trip.(E) It suggests that John's conclusion is merely a restatement of his argument's premise.8.Reasonable people adapt themselves to the world: unreasonable people persist in trying to adapt the world to themselves. Therefore, all progress depends on unreasonable people.If all of the statements in the passage above are true which one of the following statements must also be true?(A) Reasonable people and unreasonable people are incompatible.(B) If there are only reasonable people there cannot be progress.(C) If there are unreasonable people there will be progress.(D) Some unreasonable people are unable to bring about progress.(E) Unreasonable people are more persistent than reasonable people.9.Theater critic: The theater is in a dismal state.Audiences are and revenue is down. Without the audience and the revenue the talented and creative people who are the lifeblood of the theater are abandoning it. No wonder standards are deteriorating.Producer: It's not true that the theater is in decline.Don't you realize that your comments constitute a self-fulfilling prophecy? By publishing these opinions, you yourself are discouraging new audiences from emerging and new talent from joining the theater.Which one of the following is a questionable technique employed by the produce in responding to the critic?(A) focusing on the effects of the critie's evaluation rather than on its content(B) accusing the critic of relying solely on opinion unsupported by factual evidence(C) challenging the motives behind the critle's remarks rather than the remarks themselves(D) relying on emphasis rather than on argument(E) invoking authority in order to intimidate the critic10. Michelangelo's sixteenth-century Sistine Chapel paintings are currently being restored. A goal of the restorers is to uncover Michelangelo's original work, and so additions made to Michelangelo's paintings by later artists are being removed. However, the restorers have decided to make one exception: to leave intact additions that were painted by da Volterra.Which one of the following, if true, most helps to reconcile the restorers' decision with the goal stated in the passage?(A) The restorers believe that da Volterra stripped away all previous layers of paint before he painted his own additions to the Sistine Chapel.(B) Because da Volterra used a type of pigment that is especially sensitive to light, the additions to the Sistine Chapel that ad Volterra painted have relatively muted colors.(C) Da Volterra's additions were painted in a style that was similar to the style used by Michelangelo.(D) Michelangelo is famous primarily for his sculptures and only secondarily for his paintings, whereas da Volterra is known exclusively for his paintings.(E) Da Volterra's work is considered by certain art historians to be just as valuable as the work of additions to Michelangelo's work.SECTION IVTime-35 minutes27 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implies in the passage for some of the questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheetThree kinds of study have been performed on Byron. There is the biographical study-the very valuable examination of Byron's psychology and the events in his life. Escarpit's 1958 work is an example(5) of this kind of study and biographers to this day continue to speculate about Byron's life. Equally valuable is the study of Byron as a figure important in the history of ideas; Russell and Prza have written studies of this kind. Finally, there are(10)studies that primarily consider Byron's poetry. Such inerary studies are valuable however only when they avoid concentrating solely on analyzing the verbal shadings of Byron's poetry to the exclusion of any discussion of biographical considerations. A(15)study with such a concentration would be of questionable value because Byron's poetry, for the most part, is simply not a poetry of subtle verbal most part, is simply not a poetry of subtle verbal meanings. Rather, on the whole, Byron's poerns record the emotional pressure of certain moments(20)in his life. I believe we cannot often read a poem of Bvron's we often can one of Shakespeare's without wondering what events or circumstances in his life prompted him to write it.No doubt the fact that most of Byron's poems(25)cannot be convincingly read as subtle verbal creations indicates that Byron is not a "great" poet. It must be admitted too that Byron's literary craftsmanship is irregular and often his temperament disrupts even his lax literrary method(30)(although the result an absence of method has a significant purpose: it functions as a rebuke to a cosmos that Byron feels he cannot understand). If Byron is not a "great" poet his poetry is nonetheless of extrtaordinary interest to us because(35)of the pleasure it gives us: Our main pleasure in reading Byron's poetry is the contact with a singular personality. Reading his work gives us illumination-self-understanding-after we have seen our weaknesses and aspirations mirrored in(40)the personality we usually find in the poems. Anyone who thinks that this kind of illumination is not a genuine reason for reading a poet should think carefully about why we read Donne's sonnets.It is Byron and Byron's idea of himself that hold(45)his work together (and that enthralled early nineteenth-century Europe Different character s speak in his poems, but finally it is usually he himself who is speaking a far cry from the。
LSAT考试全真题四参考答案.doc
LSAT考试全真题四参考答案section 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edcsection 1:bacde bdcba cbcdb eaada cddec edsection2:bdbcd cabce ecdaa abeeb adaeasection 3:beded deced bdbce aaadb acbdd bsection 4:daabc abcea badbe adeee edc。
LSAT 逻辑游戏题
LSAT 逻辑游戏题On Wednesday, a legislator remembers that she must vote on seven bills-defense, environment, free trade, gun control, health care, immigration, and judicial activism-by the end of the week. Because the legislator wants to align herself with a major political party, she will vote on the seven bills in accordance with the following conditions:She votes for the gun control bill only if she votes against the environment bill.Unless she votes against the judicial activism bill, she will vote for the immigration bill.She will vote for either the environment bill, the judicial activism bill, or both.She votes for the gun control bill if she votes for both the health care bill and the defense bill.1. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the bills the legislator votes against?(A) free trade, gun control, immigration, judicial activism(B) defense, free trade, gun control, health care, immigration(C) free trade, health care, immigration, judicial activism(D) environment, gun control, health care, judicial activism(E) defense, environment, gun control, health care2. If the legislator votes against the judicial activism bill, then which one of the following CANNOT be true?(A) She votes against both the defense bill and the gun control bill.(B) She votes against both the gun control bill and the health care bill.(C) She votes for both the health care bill and the defense bill.(D) She votes for both the health care bill and the environment bill.(E) She votes for both the environment bill and the free trade bill.3. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?(A) The legislator votes for neither the gun control bill nor the immigration bill.(B) The legislator votes for neither the environment bill nor the immigration bill.(C) The legislator votes for neither the gun control bill nor the health care bill.(D) The legislator votes for neither the health care bill nor the free trade bill.(E) The legislator votes for neither the free trade bill nor the immigration bill.4. If the legislator votes against the immigration bill, then which one of the following is the minimum number of the seven bills she must also vote against?(A) one(B) two(C) three(D) four(E) five5. If the legislator votes for the gun control bill, then which one of the following must be true?(A) She votes for the health care bill or the defense bill.(B) She votes against the health care bill or the defense bill.(C) She votes against the judicial activism bill.(D) She votes for the immigration bill.(E) She votes against the immigration bill.6. If the legislator votes against the judicial activism bill, then each of the following could be true EXCEPT:(A) She votes against the health care bill and the defense bill.(B) She votes for the health care bill and the defense bill.(C) She votes against the health care bill and the gun control bill.(D) She votes against the free trade bill and the gun control bill.(E) She votes for the environment bill and the free trade bill.7. Suppose the condition is added that if the legislator votes for the free trade bill, then she will vote against the judicial activism bill. If allother conditions remain in effect, then each of the following must be true EXCEPT:(A) If she votes for the free trade bill, then she votes against the gun control bill.(B) If she votes against the environment bill, then she also votes against the free trade bill.(C) If she votes against the immigration bill, then she votes for the free trade bill.(D) If she votes against the judicial activism bill, then she also votes against the gun control bill.(E) If she votes against the immigration bill, then she also votes against at least three other bills.。
法学院入学考试(LSAT)阅读理解文章结构解析
法学院入学考试(LSAT)阅读理解文章结构解析1读文章就像拎衣服，要将衣领拎起来，要将主要观点拎出来，其他内容都为它服务，都围着它转。
读观点时，作者要批评某个观点，常将它放在AT BEST的位置，以便全面主要观点在末端，少数在倒数第二段末句：(为了得出主要观点作铺垫)1. 基于一个有不同看法的观点，包括作者的观点(作者观点在末段)2. 解释或回答某个问题或某种现象或PUZZLE(首段描述该问题，末段回答)3. 评价某人或某人的观点主要观点在首段，少数在二段首句(先明白要讲什麽)，有时观点具体内容在末端或倒数第二段末端1.作者详述某个观点(多数)2.解释或详述某人观点(作者没观点)3.描述新发现(新发现的过程)(作者没观点)A(FEBRUARY1996)(SuperPrep)第一篇：解释某个(历史学家)观点1. 历史学家对20世纪有关结婚的教会和法律意见赋予特殊意义。
法律方面2. 教会方面3. 某个历史学家对它赋予重要意义第二篇：解释(详述)某个观点(自己)(要结合以下内容)1.Nontraditional black women和filmmakers radical一样，与mainstream, realist cinematic 有problematic relation。
filmmakers radical方面2.Nontraditional black women方面3.举个例说明第三篇：描述某个理论(drifting continent)的发展(被接受的过程)1. 某人的drifting continent理论如果没有struggle，就不能成功2. 某人提出假设，J反对3. C提出支持4. 更有说服力的证据证明了该理论第四篇：评价某人观点1. 某人认为European Baroque反映了社会政治和文化的理念2. 3。
某人分析3. 某人的观点受其经验影响，高估了Baroque的作用。
法学院入学考试(LSAT)阅读理解文章结构解析2第一篇：详述自己某个观点1. 最近研究发现脊椎动物也像鱼一样会成群(schooling)(要结合以下内容)2. 如何成群3. 成群的PASSIVE ADVANTAGE4. 成群的ACTIVE ADVANTAGE5. 其他BENEFITS第二篇：解释某个疑问1. 觉得punishments公不公平的根源2. 有两种惩罚犯罪的原理：benefit to society和severity of the crime。
LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION1
LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION1LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION1LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION1section 1time-35 minutes24 questionsdirections: each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. in answering some of the questions, it may be useful to araw a rough diagram. choose the resoonse that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.questions 1-6seven students-fourth-year students kim and lee; third-year students pat and robin: and second-year students sandy, tety and val-and only those seven, are being assigned a rooms of equal size in a dormitory. each room assigned musthave either one or two or three students assigned to it and will accordingly be called either a single or a double or a triple. the seven students are assigned to moms in accordence with the following conditions:lio fourth-year student can be assigned to a triple.no second-year student can be assigned to a single.lee and pobin must not share the same roomkim and pat must share the same room.1. which one of the following is a combination of rooms to which the seven students could be assigned?(a) two triples and one single(b) one triple and four singles(c) three doubles and a stngle(d) two doubles and three singles(e) one double and five singles2. it the room assigned to robin is a single, which one of the following could be true?(a) there is exactly one double that has a second-year student assigned to it.(b) lee is assigned to a stngle.(c) sandy fat and one other student are zseigned to a triple together.(d) lixactly three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles(e) exactly two of the rooms assigned to the students are doubles.3. which one of the following must be true?(a) lee is assigned to a single(b) pat sharts a double with another student(c) robin shares a double with another student(d) two of the second-year students share a double with each other(e) neither of the third-year students is assigned to asingle4. if robin is assigred to a triple, which one of the following must be true?(a) lee is assigned to a single(b) two second-year students share a double with each other(c) none of the rooms assigned to the students is a single(d) two of the rooms assigned to the students are singles.(e) three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles5. if terry and val assigned to different doubles from each other, other, then it must be true of the students rooms that exactly(a) one is a single(b) two are singles(c) two are doubles(d) one is a triple(e) two are triples6. which one of the following could be true?(a) the two fourth-year students are assigned to singles.(b) the two fourth-year students share a double with cach other.(c) lee shares a room with a second-year student(d) lee shares a room with a third-year student(e) pat shares a triple with two other studentsquestions 7-11a worker will insert colored light bulbs into a billboard equipped with exactly three light sockets, which are labled lights 1, 2, and 3. the worker has three green bulbs, three purple bulbs, and three yellow bulbs. seiection of bulbs for the sockets is governed by the following conditions:whenever light 1 is purple, light 2 must be yellow.whenever light 2 is purple, light 1 must be green.whenever light 3 is either purple or yellow, light 2 mustbe purple.7. which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colors of light bulbs selected for lights 1, 2 and 3, respectively?(a) green, green, yellow(b) purple, green, green(c) purple, purple, green(d) yellow, purple, green(e) yellow, yellow, yellow8. if light 1 is yellow, then any of the following can be true, except:(a) light 2 is green.(b) light 2 is purple(c) light 3 is green(d) light 3 is purple(e) light 3 is yellow9. there is exactly one possible color sequence of the threelights if which one of the following is true?(a) light 1 is purple.(b) light 2 is purple.(c) light 2 is yellow(d) light 3 is purple.(e) light 3 is yellow10. if no green bulbs are selected, there are exactly how many possible different color sequences of the three lights?(a) one(b) two(c) three(d) four(e) five11. if no two lights are assigned light bulbs that are the same color as each other, then which one of the following could be true?(a) light i is green, and light 2 is purple.(b) light i is green, and light 2 is yellow.(c) light i is purple, and light 2 is yellow.(d) light i is yellow, and light 2 is green.(e) light i is yellow, and light 2 is purple.questions 12-17an attorney is scheduling interviews with witnesses for a given week. monday through saturday. two full consecutive days of the week must be reserved for interviewing hostile withesses. in addition, nonhostile witnesses q, r, u, x, y, and z will each be interviewed exactly once for a full morning or afternoon. the only witnesses who will be interviewed simultaneously with each other are q and r. the following conditions apply.x must be interviewed on thursday morningq must be interviewed at some time before x.u must be interviewed at some time before rz must be interviewed at some time after x and at some time after y.12. which one of the following is a sequence, from first to last, in which the nonhostile witnesses could be interviewed?(a) q with r, u, x, y, z(b) q, u, r, x, with y, z(c) u, x, q, with r, y, z(d) u, y, q, with r, x, z(e) x, q, with u, z, r, y13, which one of the following is acceptable as a complete schedule of witnesses for tuesday morning. tuesday afternoon, and wednesday morning,respectively?(a) q, r, none(b) r, none, y(c) u, y, none(d) u, y, none(e) y, z, none14.if y is interviewed at some time after x, which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses?(a) monday(b) tuesday(c) wednesday(d) friday(e) saturday15. if r is interviewed at some time after y which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses?(a) monday(b) tuesday(c) wednesday(d) thursday(e) friday16. if on wednesday afternoon and on monday the attomey conducts no interviews, which one of the followingbe true?(a) q is interviewed on the same day as u(b) r is interviewed on the same day as y(c) y is interviewed on the same day as u(d) y is interviewed on the same day as wednesday(e) z is interviewed on the same day as friday17. if z is interviewed on saturday morning which one of the following can be true?(a) wednesday is a day reserved for interiewing hostile witnesses.(b) friday is a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses.(c) r is interviewed on thursday(d) u is interviewed on tuesday(e) y is interviewed at some time before thursdayquestions 18-24during a four-week period, cach of seven previously unadvertised products-g, h, j, k, l, m, and o-will be advertised.a different pair of these products will be advertised each week. exactly one of the products will be a member of two of these four pairs. the following constraints must be observed:j is not advertised during a given week unless h is advertised during the immediately precceding week.the product that is advertised during two of the weeks is advertised during week 4 but is not advertised during week 3g is not advertised during a given week unless either j or else o is also advertised that week.k is advertised during one of the first two weekso is one of the products advertised during week 318. which one of the following could be the schedule of advertisernents?(a) week 1: g, j; week 2: k, l; week 3: o, m; week 4: h, l(b) week 1: h, k; week 2: j, g; week 3: o, l; week 4: m, k(c) week 1: h, k; week 2: j, m; week 3: o, l; week 4: g, m(d) week 1: h, l; week 2: j, m; week 3: o, g; week 4: k, l(e) week 1: k, m; week 2: h, j; week 3: o, g; week 4: l, m19. which one of the following is a pair of products that cannot be advertised during the same week as each other?(a) h and k(b) h and m(c) j and o(d) k and l(e) l and m20. which one of the following must be advertised during week 2?(a) g(b) j(c) k(d) l(e) m21. which one of the following cannot be the product that is advertised during two of the weeks?(a) g(b) h(c) k(d) l(e) m22. if l is the product that is advertised during two of the weeks, which one of the following is a product that must be advertised during one of the weeks in which l is advertised(a) g(b) h(c) j(d) k(e) m23. which one of the following is a product that could be advertised in any of the four weeks?(a) h(b) j(c) k(d) l(e) o24. which one of the following is a pair of products that could be advertised during the same week as each other(a) g and h(b) h and j(c) h and o(d) k and o(e) k and o(f) m and oLSAT考试全真试题三SECTION1 相关内容:。
lsat试题及答案
lsat试题及答案1. 阅读下列段落，并回答以下问题：在19世纪，蒸汽机的发明极大地推动了工业革命的发展。
然而，随着时间的推移，人们开始意识到蒸汽机的效率并不高。
20世纪初期，内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的变革。
尽管如此，内燃机的广泛应用也带来了环境污染问题。
问题：蒸汽机的发明对工业革命产生了什么影响？答案：蒸汽机的发明极大地推动了工业革命的发展。
2. 根据以下信息，判断以下陈述是否正确：A. 蒸汽机的效率很高。
B. 内燃机的发明没有带来环境污染问题。
C. 内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的变革。
陈述A：错误。
陈述B：错误。
陈述C：正确。
3. 阅读以下句子，并选择正确的答案：“在20世纪初期，内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的变革。
”A. 这句话是虚假的。
B. 这句话是真实的。
答案：B. 这句话是真实的。
4. 根据所给信息，完成填空题：在19世纪，蒸汽机的发明极大地推动了工业革命的发展。
然而，随着时间的推移，人们开始意识到蒸汽机的效率并不高。
20世纪初期，内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的变革。
尽管如此，内燃机的广泛应用也带来了环境污染问题。
填空：在20世纪初期，内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的（）。
答案：变革。
5. 阅读以下段落，并回答问题：“在19世纪，蒸汽机的发明极大地推动了工业革命的发展。
然而，随着时间的推移，人们开始意识到蒸汽机的效率并不高。
20世纪初期，内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的变革。
尽管如此，内燃机的广泛应用也带来了环境污染问题。
”问题：蒸汽机和内燃机的发明分别对工业革命产生了什么影响？答案：蒸汽机的发明极大地推动了工业革命的发展，而内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的变革。
6. 根据所给信息，选择正确的答案：A. 蒸汽机的效率很高。
B. 内燃机的发明没有带来环境污染问题。
C. 内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的变革。
正确答案：C. 内燃机的发明为工业生产带来了革命性的变革。
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题4
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题4【简介】：读真题1(含答案)Historiansgenerallyagreethat,ofthegreatmoderninnovations,therailroadhadthemostfar-r eachingimpactonmajoreventsintheUnitedStatesinthenineteenth精品源自教学论文读真题1(含答案)Historians generally agree that, of the great modern innovations, the railroad had the most far-reaching impact on major events in the United States in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, particularly on the Industrial Revolution. There is, however, considerable disagreement among cultural historians regarding public attitudes toward the railroad, both at its inception in the 1830s and during the half century between 1880 and 1930, when the national rail system was netpleted and reached the zenith of its popularity in the United States. In a recent book, John Stilgoe has addressed this issue by arguing that the “romantic-era distrust” of the railroad that he claims was present during the 1830s vanished in the decades after 1880. But the argument he provides in support of this position is unconvincing.What Stilgoe calls “romantic-era distrust” was in fact the reaction of a minority of writers, artistes, and intellectuals who distrusted the railroad not so much for what it was as for what it signified. Thoreau and Hawthorne appreciated, even admired, an improved means of moving things and people from one place to another. What these writers and others were concerned about was not the new machinery as such, but the new kind ofeconomy, social order, and culture that it prefigured. In addition, Stilgoe is wrong to imply that the critical attitude of these writers was typical of the period: their distrust was largely a reaction against the prevailing attitude in the 1830s that the railroad was an unqualified improvement.Stilgoe’s assertion that the ambivalence toward the railroad exhibited by writers like Hawthorne and Thoreau disappeared after the 1880s is also misleading. In support of this thesis, Stilgoe has unearthed an impressive volume of material, the work of hitherto unknown illustrators, journalists, and novelists, all devotees of the railroad; but it is not clear what this new material proves except perhaps that the works of popular culture greatly expanded at the time. The volume of the material proves nothing if Stilgoe’s point is that the earlier distrust of a minority of intellectuals did not endure beyond the 1880s, and, oddly, much of Stilgoe’s other evidence indicates that it did. When he glances at the treatment of railroads by writers like Henry James, Sinclair Lewis, or F. Scott Fitzgerald, what netes through in spite of Stilgoe’s analysis is remarkably like Thoreau’s feeling of contrariety and ambivalence. (Had he looked at the work of Frank Norris, Eugene O’Neill, or Henry Adams, Stilgoe’s case would have been much stronger.) The point is that the sharp contrast between the enthusiastic supporters of the railroad in the 1830s and the minority of intellectual dissenters during that period extended into the 1880s and beyond.7. The passage provides information to answer all of the following questions EXCEPT:(A) During what period did the railroad reach the zenith of its popularity in the UnitedStates?(B) How extensive was the impact of the railroad on the Industrial Revolution in the United States, relative to that of other modern innovations?(C) Who are some of the writers of the 1830s who expressed ambivalence toward the railroad?(D) In what way could Stilgoe have strengthened his argument regarding intellectuals’ attitudes toward the railroad in the years after the 1880s?(E) What arguments did the writers after the 1880s, as cited by Stilgoe, offer to justify their support for the railroad?8. According to the author of the passage, Stilgoe uses the phrase “romantic-era distrust” (line 13) to imply that the view he is referring to was(A) the attitude of a minority of intellectuals toward technological innovation that began after 1830(B) a netmonly held attitude toward the railroad during the 1830s(C) an ambivalent view of the railroad expressed by many poets and novelists between 1880 and 1930(D) a critique of social and economic developments during the 1830s by a minority of intellectuals(E) an attitude toward the railroad that was disseminated by works of popular culture after 18809. According to the author, the attitude toward the railroad that was reflected in writings of Henry James, Sinclair Lewis, and F. Scott Fitzgerald was(A) influenced by the writings of Frank Norris, Eugene O’Neill, and Henry Adams(B) similar to that of the minority of writers who had expressed ambivalence toward the railroad prior to the 1880s(C) consistent with the public attitudes toward the railroad that were reflected in works of popular culture after the 1880s(D) largely a reaction to the works of writers who had been severely critical of the railroad in the 1830s(E) consistent with the prevailing attitude toward the railroad during the 1830s10. It can be inferred from the passage that the author uses the phrase “works of popular culture” (line 41) primarily to refer to the(A) work of a large group of writers that was published between 1880 and 1930 and that in Stilgoe’s view was highly critical of the railroad(B) work of writers who were heavily influenced by Hawthorne and Thoreau(C) large volume of writing produced by Henry Adams, Sinclair Lewis, and Eugene O’Neill(D) work of journalists, novelists, and illustrators who were responsible for creating enthusiasm for the railroad during the 1830s(E) work of journalists, novelists, and illustrators that was published after 1880 and that has received little attention from scholars other than Stilgoe11. Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the work of Frank Norris, Eugene O’Neill, and Henry Adams?(A) Their work never achieved broad popular appeal.(B) Their ideas were disseminated to a large audience by the popular culture of the early 1800s.(C) Their work expressed a more positive attitude toward the railroad than did that of Henry James, Sinclair Lewis, and F. Scott Fitzgerald.(D) Although they were primarily novelists, some of their work could be classified as journalism.(E) Although they were influenced by Thoreau, their attitude toward the railroad was significantly different from his.12. It can be inferred from the passage that Stilgoe would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements regarding the study of cultural history?(A) It is impossible to know exactly what period historians are referring to when they use the term “romantic era.”(B) The writing of intellectuals often anticipates ideas and movements that are later embraced by popular culture.(C) Writers who were not popular in their own time tell us little about the age in which they lived.(D) The works of popular culture can serve as a reliable indicator of public attitudes toward modern innovations like the railroad.(E) The best source of information concerning the impact of an event as large as the Industrial Revolution is the private letters and journals of individuals.13. The primary purpose of the passage is to(A) evaluate one scholar’s view of public attitudes toward the railroad in the UnitedStates from the early nineteenth to the early twentieth century(B) review the treatment of the railroad in American literature of the nineteenth and twentieth centuries(C) survey the views of cultural historians regarding the railroad’s impact on major events in United States history(D) explore the origins of the public support for the railroad that existed after the netpletion of a national rail system in the United States(E) define what historians mean when they refer to the “romantic-era distrust” of the railroad参考答案：7-13 EBBECDA。
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题12（含答案）
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题12（含答案）美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题12（含答案）SECTION IIITime 35 minutes 28 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Until recently many astronomers believed that asteroids travel about the solar system unaccompanied by satellites. These astronomers assumed this because they considered asteroid-satellite systems inherently unstable. Theoreticians could have told them otherwise: even minuscule bodies in the solar system can theoretically have satellites, as long as everything is in proper scale. If a bowling ball were orbiting about the Sun in the asteroid belt, it could have a pebble orbiting it as far away as a few hundred radii (or about 50 meters) without losing the pebble to the Sun’s gravitational pull.Observations now suggest that asteroid satellites may exists not only in theory but also in reality. Several astronomers have noticed, while watching asteroids pass briefly in front of stars, that something besides the known asteroid sometimes blocks out the star as well. Is that something a satellite?The most convincing such report concerns the asteroid Herculina, which was due to pass in front of a star in 1978. Astronomers waiting for the predicted event found not just oneoccultation, or eclipse, of the star, but two distinct drops in brightness. One was the predicted occultation, exactly on time. The other, lasting about five seconds, preceded the predicted event by about two minutes. The presence of a secondary body near Herculina thus seemed strongly indicated. To cause the secondary occultation, an unseen satellite would have to be about 45 kilometers in diameter, a quarter of the size of Herculina, and at a distance of 990 kilometers from the asteroid at the time. These values are within theoretical bounds, and such an asteroid-satellite pair could be stable.With the Herculina event, apparent secondary occultations became “respectable”—and more commonly reported. In fact, so common did reports of secondary events become that they are now simply too numerous for all of them to be accurate. Even if every asteroid has as many satellites as can be fitted around it without an undue number of collisions, only one in every hundred primary occultations would be accompanied by a secondary event (one in every thousand if asteroid satellites system resembled those of the planets).Yet even astronomers who find the case for asteroid satellites unconvincing at present say they would change their minds if a photoelectric record were made of a well-behaved secondary event. By “well-behaved”they mean that during occultation the observed brightness must drop sharply as the star winks out and must rise sharply as it reappears from behind the obstructing object, but the brightness during the secondary occultation must drop to that of the asteroid, no higher and no lower. This would make it extremely unlikely that an airplane or a glitch in the instruments was masquerading as an occulting body.1. Which one of the following best expresses the main ideaof the passage?(A) The observation of Herculina represented the crucial event that astronomical observers and theoreticians had been waiting for to establish a convincing case for the stability of asteroid-satellite systems.(B) Although astronomers long believed that observation supports the existence of stable asteroid-satellite systems, numerous recent reports have increased skepticism on this issue in astronomy.(C) Theoreticians’views on the stability of asteroid-satellite systems may be revised in the light of reports like those about Herculina.(D) Astronomers continue to consider it respectable to doubt the stability of asteroid-satellite systems, but new theoretical developments may change their views.(E) The Herculina event suggests that theoreticians’views about asteroid-satellite systems may be correct, and astronomers agree about the kind of evidence needed to clearly resolve the issue.2. Which one of the following is mentioned in the passage as providing evidence that Herculina has a satellite?(A) the diameter of a body directly observed near Herculina(B) the distance between Herculina and planet nearest to it(C) the shortest possible time in which satellites of Herculina, if any, could complete a single orbit(D) the occultation that occurred shortly before the predicted occultation by Herculina(E) the precise extent to which observed brightness dropped during the occultation by Herculina3. According to the passage, the attitude of astronomerstoward asteroid satellites since the Herculina event can best described as(A) open-mindedness combined with a concern for rigorous standards of proof(B) contempt for and impatience with the position held by theoreticians(C) bemusement at a chaotic mix of theory, inadequate or spurious data, and calls for scientific rigor(D) hardheaded skepticism, implying rejection of all data not recorded automatically by state-of-the-art instruments(E) admiration for the methodical process by which science progresses from initial hypothesis to incontrovertible proof4. The author implies that which one of the following was true prior to reports of the Herculina event?(A) Since no good theoretical model existed, all claims that reports of secondary occultations were common were disputed.(B) Some of the reported observations of secondary occultations were actually observations of collisions of satellites with one another.(C) If there were observations of phenomena exactly like the phenomena now labeled secondary occultations, astronomers were less likely than to have reported such observations.(D) The prevailing standards concerning what to classify as a well-behaved secondary event were less stringent than they are now.(E) Astronomers were eager to publish their observations of occultations of stars by satellites of asteroids.5. The information presented in the passage implies which one of the following about the frequency of reports of secondary occultations after the Herculina event?(A) The percentage of reports of primary occultations that also included reports of secondary occultations increased tenfold compared to the time before the Herculina event.(B) Primary occultations by asteroids were reported to have been accompanied by secondary occultations in about one out of every thousand cases.(C) The absolute number of reports of secondary occultations increased tenfold compared to the time before the Herculina event.(D) Primary occultations by asteroids were reported to have been accompanied by secondary occultations in more than one out of every hundred cases.(E) In more than one out of every hundred cases, primary occultations were reported to have been accompanied by more than one secondary occultation.6. The primary purpose of the passage is to(A) cast doubts on existing reports of secondary occultations of stars(B) describe experimental efforts by astronomers to separate theoretically believable observations of satellites of asteroids from spurious ones(C) review the development of ideas among astronomers about whether or not satellites of asteroids exist(D) bring a theoretician’s perspective to bear on an incomplete discussion of satellites of asteroids(E) illustrate the limits of reasonable speculation concerning the occultation of stars7. The passage suggests that which one of the following would most help to resolve the question of whether asteroids have satellites?(A) a review of pre-1978 reports of secondary occultations(B) an improved theoretical model of stable satellite systems(C) a photoelectric record of a well-behaved secondary occultation(D) a more stringent definition of what constitutes a well-behaved secondary occultation(E) a powerful telescope that would permit a comparison of ground-based observation with those made from airplanes 参考答案：1-7 EDACDCCHistorians attempting to explain how scientific work was done in the laboratory of the seventeenth-century chemist and natural philosopher Robert Boyle must address a fundamental discrepancy between how such experimentation was actually performed and the seventeenth-century rhetoric describing it. Leaders of the new Royal Society of London in the 1660s insisted that authentic science depended upon actual experiments performed, observed, and recorded by the scientists themselves. Rejecting the traditional contempt for manual operations, these scientists, all members of the English upper class, were not to think themselves demeaned by the mucking about with chemicals, furnaces, and pumps; rather, the willingness of each of them to become, as Boyle himself said, a mere “drudge”and “under-builder”in the search for God’s truth in nature was taken as a sign of their nobility and Christian piety.This rhetoric has been so effective that one modern historian assures us that Boyle himself actually performed all of the thousand or more experiments he reported. In fact, due to poor eyesight, fragile health, and frequent absences from his laboratory, Boyle turned over much of the labor of obtaining and recording experimental results to paid technicians, althoughpublishedaccounts of the experiments rarely, if ever, acknowledged the technicians’contributions. Nor was Boyle unique in relying on technicians without publicly crediting their work.Why were the contributions of these technicians not recognized by their employers? One reason is the historical tendency, which has persisted into the twentieth century, to view scientific discovery as resulting from momentary flashes of individual insight rather than from extended periods of cooperative work by individuals with varying levels of knowledge and skill. Moreover, despite the clamor of seventeenth-century scientific rhetoric commending a hands-on approach, science was still overwhelmingly an activity of the English upper class, and the traditional contempt that genteel society maintained for manual labor was pervasive and deeply rooted. Finally, all of Boyle’s technicians were “servants,”which in s eventeenth-century usage meant anyone who worked for pay. To seventeenth-century sensibilities, the wage relationship was charged with political significance. Servants, meaning wage earners, were excluded from the franchise because they were perceived as ultimately dependent on their wages and thus controlled by the will of their employers. Technicians remained invisible in the political economy of science for the same reasons that underlay servants’general political exclusion. The technicians’contribution,their observations and judgment, if acknowledged, would not have been perceived in the larger scientific community as objective because the technicians were dependent on the wages paid to them by their employers. Servants might have made the apparatus work, but their contributions to the making of scientific knowledge werelargely—and conveniently—ignored by their employers.8. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?(A) Seventeenth-century scientific experimentation would have been impossible without the work of paid laboratory technicians.(B) Seventeenth-century social conventions prohibited upper-class laboratory workers from taking public credit for their work.(C) Seventeenth-century views of scientific discovery combined with social class distinctions to ensure that laboratory technicians’scientific work was never publicly acknowledged.(D) Seventeenth-century scientists were far more dependent on their laboratory technicians than are scientists today, yet far less wil ling to acknowledge technicians’scientific contributions.(E) Seventeenth-century scientists liberated themselves from the stigma attached to manual labor by relying heavily on the work of laboratory technicians.9. It can be inferred from the passage that the “seventeenth-century rhetoric”mentioned in line 6 would have more accurately described the experimentation performed in Boyle’s laboratory if which one of the following were true?(A) Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists, Boyle recognized that most scientific discoveries resulted from the cooperative efforts of many individuals.(B) Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists, Boyle maintained a deeply rooted and pervasive contempt for manual labor.(C) Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists, Boyle was a member of the Royal Society of London.(D) Boyle generously acknowledged the contribution of the technicians who worked in his laboratory.(E) Boyle himself performed the actual labor of obtaining and recording experimental results.10. According to the author, servants of seventeenth-century England were excluded fromthe franchised because of the belief that(A) their interests were adequately represented by their employers(B) their education was inadequate to make informed political decisions(C) the independence of their political judgment would be compromised by their economic dependence on their employers(D) their participation in the elections would be a polarizing influence on the political process(E) the manual labor that they performed did not constitute a contribution to the society that was sufficient to justify their participation in elections11. According to the author, the Royal Society of London insisted that scientists abandon the(A) belief that the primary purpose of scientific discovery was to reveal the divine truth that could be found in nature(B) view that scientific knowledge results largely from the insights of a few brilliant individuals rather than from the cooperative efforts of many workers(C) seventeenth-century belief that servants should be denied the right to vote because they were dependent on wages paid to them by their employers(D) traditional disdain for manual labor that was maintained by most members of the English upper class during theseventeenth-century(E) idea that the search for scientific truth was a sign of piety12. The author implies that which one of the following beliefs was held in both the seventeenth and the twentieth centuries?(A) Individual insights rather than cooperative endeavors produce most scientific discoveries.(B) How science is practiced is significantly influenced by the political beliefs and assumption of scientists.(C) Scientific research undertaken for pay cannot be considered objective.(D) Scientific discovery can reveal divine truth in nature.(E) Scientific discovery often relies on the unacknowledged contributions of laboratory technicians.13. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the last paragraph?(A) Several alternative answers are presented to a question posed in the previous paragraph, and the last is adopted as the most plausible.(B) A question regarding the cause of the phenomenon described in the previous paragraph is posed, two possible explanations are rejected, and evidence is provided in support of a third.(C) A question regarding the phenomenon described in the previous paragraph is posed, and several incompatible views are presented.(D) A question regarding the cause of the phenomenon described in the previous paragraph is posed, and several contributing factors are then discussed.(E) Several answers to a question are evaluated in light of recent discoveries cited earlier in the passage.14. The author’s discussion of the political significance of the “wage relationship”(line 48) serves to(A) place the failure of seventeenth-century scientists to acknowledge the contributions of their technicians in the large context of relations between workers and their employers in seventeenth-century England(B) provide evidence in s upport of the author’s more general thesis regarding the relationship of scientific discovery to the economic conditions of societies in which it takes place(C) provide evidence in support of the author’s explanation of why scientists in seventeenth-century England were reluctant to rely on their technicians for the performance of anything but the most menial tasks(D) illustrate political and economic changes in the society of seventeenth-century England that had a profound impact on how scientific research was conduced(E) undermine the view that scientific discovery results from individual enterprise rather than from the collective endeavor of many workers15. It can be inferred from the passage that “the clamor of seventeenth-century scientific rhetoric”(lines 39-40) refers to(A) the claim that scientific discovery results largely from the insights of brilliant individuals working alone(B) ridicule of scientists who were members of the English upper class and who were thought to demean themselves by engaging in the manual labor required by their experiments(C) criticism of scientists who publicly acknowledged the contributions of their technicians(D) assertions by members of the Royal Society of London that scientists themselves should be responsible for obtainingand recording experimental results(E) the claim by Boyle and his colleagues that the primary reason for scientific research is to discover evidence of divine truth in the natural world参考答案：8-15 CECDADADOne type of violation of the antitrust laws is the abuse of monopoly power. Monopoly power is the ability of a firm to raise its prices above the competitive level—that is, above the level that would exist naturally if several firms had to compete—without driving away so many customers as to make the price increase unprofitable. In order to show that a firm has abused monopoly power, and thereby violated the antitrust laws, two essential facts must be established. First, a firm must be shown to possess monopoly power, and second, that power must have been used to exclude competition in the monopolized market or related markets.The price a firm may charge for its product is constrained by the availability of close substitutes for the product. If a firm attempts to charge a higher price—a supracompetitive price —consumers will turn to other firms able to supply substitute products at competitive prices. If a firm provides a large percentage of the products actually or potentially available, however, customers may find it difficult to buy from alternative suppliers. Consequently, a firm with a large share of the relevant market of substitutable products may be able to raise its price without losing many customers. For this reason courts often use market share as a rough indicator of monopoly power.Supracompetitive prices are associated with a loss of consumers’welfare because such prices force some consumers to buy a less attractive mix of products than they would ordinarilybuy. Supracompetitive prices, however, do not themselves constitute an abuse of monopoly power. Antitrust laws do not attempt to counter the mere existence of monopoly power, or even the use of monopoly power to extract extraordinarily high profits. For example, a firm enjoying economies of scale—that is, low unit production costs due to high volume—does not violate the antitrust laws when it obtains a large market share by charging prices that are profitable but so low that its smaller rivals cannot survive. If the antitrust laws posed disincentives to the existenceand growth of such firms, the laws could impair consumers’welfare. Even if the firm, upon acquiring monopoly power, chose to raise prices in order to increase profits, it would not be in violation of the antitrust laws.The antitrust prohibitions focus instead on abuses of monopoly power that exclude competition in the monopolized market or involve leverage—the use of power in one market to reduce competition in another. One such forbidden practice is a tying arrangement, in which a monopolist conditions the sale of a product in one market on the buyer’s purchase of another product in a different market. For example, a firm enjoying a monopoly in the communications systems market might not sell its products to a consumer unless that customer also buys its computer systems, which are competing with other firms’computer systems.The focus on the abuse of monopoly power, rather than on monopoly itself, follows from the primary purpose of the antitrust laws: to promote consumers’welfare through assurance of the quality and quantity of products available to consumers.16. Which one of the following distinctions between monopoly power and the abuse of monopoly power would the author say underlies the antitrust laws discussed in the passage?(A) Monopoly power is assessed in term of market share, whereas abuse of monopoly power is assessed in term of market control.(B) Monopoly power is easy to demonstrate, whereas abuse of monopoly power is difficult to demonstrate.(C) Monopoly power involves only one market, whereas abuse of monopoly power involves at least two or more related markets.(D) Monopoly power is the ability to charge supracompetitive prices, whereas abuse of monopoly power is the use of that ability.(E) Monopoly power does not necessarily hurt consumer welfare, whereas abuse of monopoly power does.17. Would the use of leverage meet the criteria for abuse of monopoly power outlined in the first paragraph?(A) No, because leverage involves a nonmonopolized market.(B) No, unless the leverage involves a tying arrangement.(C) Yes, because leverage is a characteristic of monopoly power.(D) Yes, unless the firm using leverage is charging competitive prices.(E) Yes, because leverage is used to eliminate competition ina related market.18. What is the main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 28—47)?(A) to distinguish between supracompetitive prices and supracompetitive profits(B) to describe the positive use of monopoly power(C) to introduce the concept of economies of scale(D) to distinguish what is not covered by the antitrust law under discussion from what is covered(E) to remind the reader of the issue of consumers welfare19. Given only the information in the passage, with which one of the following statements about competition would those responsible for the antitrust laws most likely agree?(A) Competition is essential to consumers’welfare.(B) There are acceptable and unacceptable ways for firms to reduce their competition.(C) The preservation of competition is the principal aim of the antitrust laws.(D) Supracompetitive prices lead to reductions in competition.(E) Competition is necessary to ensure high-quality products at low prices.20. Which one of the following sentences would best complete the last paragraph of the passage?(A) By limiting consumers’choices, abuse of monopoly power reduces consumers’welfare, but monopoly alone can sometimes actually operate in the consumers’best interest.(B) What is needed now is a set of related laws to deal with the negative impacts that monopoly itself has on consumers’ability to purchase products at reasonable cost.(C) Over time, the antitrust laws have been very effective in ensuring competition and, consequently, consumers’welfare in the volatile communications and computer systems industries.(D) By controlling supracompetitive prices and corresponding supracompetitive profits, the antitrust laws have,indeed, gone a long way toward meeting that objective.(E) As noted above, the necessary restraints on monopoly itself have been left to the market, where competitive prices and economies of scale are rewarded through increased market share.参考答案：16-20 EEDBAAmsden has divided Navajo weaving into four distinct styles. He argues that three of them can be identified by the type of design used to form horizontal bands: colored strips, zigzags, or diamonds. The fourth, or bordered, style he identifies by a distinct border surrounding centrally placed, dominating figures.Amsden believes that the diamond style appeared after 1869 when, under Anglo influence and encouragement, the blanket became a rug with larger designs and bolder lines. The bordered style appeared about 1890, and, Amsden argues, it reflects the greatest number of Anglo influences on the newly emerging rug business. The Anglo desire that anything with a graphic designs have a top, bottom, and border is a cultural preference that the Navajo abhorred, as evidenced, he suggests, by the fact that in early bordered specimens strips of color unexpectedly break through the enclosing pattern.Amsden argues that the bordered rug represents a radical break with previous styles. He asserts that the border changed the artistic problem facing weavers: a blank area suggests the use of isolated figures, while traditional, banded Navajo designs were continuous and did not use isolated figures. The old patterns alternated horizontal decorative zones in a regular order.Amsden’s view raises several questions. First, what is involved in altering artistic styles? Some studies suggest that artisans’motor habits and th ought processes must be revised when a style changes precipitously. In the evolution of Navajoweaving, however, no radical revisions in the way articles are produced need be assumed. After all, all weaving subordinates design to the physical limitations created by the process of weaving, which includes creating an edge or border. The habits required to make decorative borders are, therefore, latent and easily brought to the surface.Second, is the relationship between the banded and bordered styles as simple as Amsden suggests? He assumes that a break in style is a break in psychology. But if style results from constant quests for invention, such stylistic breaks are inevitable. When a style has exhausted the possibilities inherent in its principles, artists cast about for new, but not necessarily alien, principles. Navajo weaving may have reached this turning point prior to 1890.Third, is there really a significant stylistic gap? Two other styles lie between the bandedstyles and the bordered styles. They suggest that disintegration of the bands may have altered visual and motor habits and prepared the way for a border filled with separate units. In the Chief White Antelope blanket, dated prior to 1865, ten years before the first Anglo trading post on the Navajo reservation, whole and partial diamonds interrupt the flowing design and become separate forms. Parts of diamonds arranged vertically at each side may be seen to anticipate the border.21. The author’s central thesis is that(A) the Navajo rejected the stylistic influences of Anglo culture(B) Navajo weaving cannot be classified by Amsden’s categories(C) the Navajo changed their style of weaving because theysought the challenge of new artistic problems(D) original motor habits and thought processes limit the extent to which a style can be revised(E) the casual factors leading to the emergence of the bordered style are not as clear-cut as Amsden suggests22. It can be inferred from the passage that Amsden views the use of “strips of color”(line18) in the early bordered style as(A) a sign of resistance to a change in style(B) an echo of the diamond style(C) a feature derived from Anglo culture(D) an attempt to disintegrate the rigid form of the banded style(E) a means of differentiating the top of the weaving from the bottom23. The author’s view of Navajo weaving suggests which one of the following?(A) The appearance of the first trading post on the Navajo reservation coincided with the appearance of the diamond style.(B) Traces of thought processes and motor habits of one culture can generally be found in the art of another culture occupying the same period and region.(C) The bordered style may have developed gradually from the banded style as a result of Navajo experiencing with design.(D) The influence of Anglo culture was not the only non-Native American influence on Navajo weaving.(E) Horizontal and vertical rows of diamond forms were transformed by the Navajos into solid lines to create the bordered style.24. According to the passage, Navajo weavings made prior。
LSAT考试全真试题五 含答案(4部分)
LSAT考试全真试题五SECTION 1Time—35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Questions 1-5On Wednesday a physician will have exactly one appointment with seven patients—P, Q, R, S, T, U, W—one patient per appointment. The schedule of appointments chronologically numbered 1 through 7, must meet the following conditions:Q s appointment is at some time before P s appointmentU s appointment is at some time before P s appointmentEither R or T has appointment 3S s appointment is either the appointment immediately before or the appointment immediately after R s appointment.1. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule of appointments in order from 1 to 7?(A) Q, S, R, P, W, U, T(B) Q, U, W, S, R, T, P(C) S, Q, R, T, W, U, P(D) T, U, R, S, W, P, Q(E) U, Q, T, P, R, S, W2. If W has appoinment 2 and P has appointment 5. then which one of the following must be true?(A) R has appointment 6(B) S has appointment 4(C) S has appointment 7(D) U has appointment 1(E) U has appointment 43. If U s appointment is immediately after T s appointment and immediately before R s appointment, then which one of the following must be true?(A) Q s appointment is at some time before P s appointment.(B) S s appointment is at some time before P s appointment.(C) S s appointment is immediately before Q s appointment(D) W s appointment is immediately before P s appointment(E) W s appointment is at some time before S s appointment4. If P s appointment is immediately before S s appointment, then each of the following could be true EXCEPT:(A) R s appointment is immediately before W s appointment(B) T s appointment is immediately before Q s appointment(C) U s appointment is immediately before P s appointment(D) U s appointment is immediately before Q s appointment(E) W s appointment is immediately before T s appointment5. If T s appoinemtne is immediately after P s appointment and immediately before W s appointment, then which one of the following must be true?(A) W s appointment is at some time before R s appointment.(B) U s appointment is at some time before R s appointment.(C) S s appointment is at some time before U s appointment.(D) R s appointment is at some time before P s appointment.(E) Q s appointment is at some time before S s appointment.Questions 6-12Exactly six employees—officers F, G, and H, and supervisors K, L, and M—must be assigned to exactly three committees—Policy, Quality, and Sales—with exactly three employees per committee Committee assignments must conform to the following conditions:Each committee must have at least one officer assigned to itEach employee must be assigned to at least one committeeAll three officers must be assigned to the Policy Committee.G cannot be assigned to the same committee as L.K must be assigned to the Sales Committee6. Which one of the following is a group of three employees who can be assigned together to the Sales Committee?(A) F, G, and M(B) F, G, and M(C) G, K, and L(D) H, K, and L(E) K, L, and M7. If H is assigned to exactly one committee, and if no committee has both F and M assigned to it, then it must be true that(A) G and M are both assigned to the Quality Committee(B) K and L are both assigned to the SalesCommittee(C) K is assigned to exactly two committees(D) L is assigned to exactly two committees(E) M is assigned to exactly two committees8. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?(A) F is assigned to exactly one committee(B) G is assigned to exactly three committee(C) H is assigned to exactly three committee(D) K is assigned to exactly one committee(E) L is assigned to exactly two committee9. If F is assigned to exactly three committees, and G is assigned to exactly two committees, then which one of the following must be true?(A) G is assigned to the Quality Committee.(B) G is assigned to the SalesCommittee.(C) K is assigned to the Quality Committee.(D) L is assigned to the Sales Committee.(E) M is assigned to the Quality Committee.10. Which one of the following is a group of three empoyees who can be assigned together to the Quality Committee?(A) F, G, and H(B) F, G, and K(C) G, H, and K(D) G, K and L(E) H, L, and M11. If L is assigned to exactly two committee. which one of the following must be true?(A) F is assigned to the Sales Committee.(B) G is assigned to the Sales Committee.(C) H is assigned to the Quality Committee.(D) K is assigned to the Quality Committee.(E) M is assigned to the Quality Committee.12. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?(A) F and G are each assigned to exactly one committee.(B) F and H are each assigned to exactly one committee.(C) G and H are each assigned to exactly one committee.(D) F and M are both assigned to the Sales Committee(E) G and K are both assigned to the Quality CommitteeSECTION IITime—35 minutes25 QuestionsQuestions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage, After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. The basic ingredients from which cement is made are both cheap and plentiful. Materials as common as limestone and clay will do. Nevertheless. The price of cement is influenced by the price of oil, because turning the basic ingredients into cement in high-temmerature kilns use large amounts of energy.Which one of the following can be logically inferred from the passage?(A) Oil is one of the basic ingredients that make up cement(B) Oil is a source of energy for some of the kilns used in the making of cement(C) The higher the price of cement rises, the higher the price of clay rises(D) Whenever oil prices rise cement prices drop(E) A given amount of cement costs no more than the total cost of its basic ingredients2. Many people do not understand themselves, nor do they try to gain self-understanding These people might try to understand others, but these attempts are sure to fail, because withoutself-understanding it is impossible to understand others. It is clear from this that anyone who lacks self-understanding will be incapable of understanding others.The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument(A) mistakes something that is necessary to bring about a situation for something that in itself is enough to bring about that situation(B) fails to take into account the possibility that not everyone wants to gain a thorough understanding of himself or herself(C) blames people for something for which they cannot legitimately be held responsible(D) makes use of the inherently vague term "self-understanding" without defining that term(E) draws a conclusion that simply restates a claim given in support of that conclusionQuestions 3-4Wife: The work of the artist who painted the portrait of my grandparents 50 years ago has become quite popular lately, so the portrait has recently become valuable. But since these sorts of artistic fads fade rapidly, the practical thing to do would be to sell the portrait while it is still worth something, and thereby enable our daughter to attend the college she has chosen.Husband: How could you make such a suggestion? That painting is the only thing you own that belonged to your grandparents. I don t think it s a very good painting, but it has great sentimental value. Besides, you owe it to our daughter to keep it in the family as a link to her family s past3. Which one of the following principles, if established, does most to justify the husband s reply?(A) Gifts offered as sentimental tokens of affection should not be accepted if the recipient intends to sell them later for profit(B) A beautiful work of art is more valuable than the money it could be sold for, whatever the amount(C) It is more important for parents to provide their children with tangible links to the family s past than it is to enable them to attend the college of their choice.(D) Children and grandchildren have a duty to preserve family heirlooms only if they have promised their parents or grandparents that they would do so.(E) Providing one s children with an education is more important than providing them with material goods, even if the goods have sentimental value.4. The husband uses which one of the following argumentative techniques in replying to the wife s suggestion?(A) taking issue with the practicality of her suggestion(B) questioning her aesthetie judgment(C) claiming that the reasons she gives are based on emotions rather than on rational considerations(D) asserting that the evidence she cites in support of her suggestion is false(E) invoking a competing obligation that he judges to override her practical considerations5. Questions have arisen regarding the accuracy of the reports the university s archaeological museum issues on its sales and acquisitions for the year. To forestall controversy, this year s report is being reviewed by three archaeologists from other universities. Since these archaeologists will be given full access to all documents on which the report is based, they will be able to determine whether it is indeed accurate.The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument(A) does not specify whether the reviewers will have access to data about objects that have been in the museum s collection for many years(B) provides no information regarding the size or quality of the archaeological museum s collection(C) omits any mention of whether the museum s collection is on display or is available only to researchers(D) omits any mention of whether the museum s collection is on display or is available only to researchers(E) does not describe what will occur if the reviewers discover discrepancies between the report and the documents on which it was based6. Engineer: Some people argue that the world s energy problems could be solved by mining the Moon for helium-3, which could be used for fuel in fusion reactors. But this is nonsense. Even if it were possible to mine the Moon for helium-3, the technology needed to build viable fusion reactors that could use such fuel is at least 50 years away. If the world s energy problems are not solved before then, it will be too late to solve those problems.The main point of the argument is that(A) mining the Moon for helium-3 is currently not feasible(B) fusion reactors that are now being planned are not designed to use hilium-3 as fuel(C) people who advocate mining the Moon for helium-3 do not realize that fusion reactors could be designed to use fuels other than helium-3(D) mining the Moon for helium-3 is not a possible solution to the world s energy problems(E) if the world s energy problems are not solved within the next 50 years, it will be too late to solve those problems.Questions 7-8The fishing industry cannot currently be relied upon to help the government count the seabirds killed by net fishing, since an accurate count might result in restriction of net fishing. The goveernment should therefore institute a program under which tissue samples from the dead birds are examined to determine the amount of toxins in the fish eaten by the birds. The industrywould then have a reason to turn in the bird carcasses, since the industry needs to know whether the fish it catches are contaminated with toxins.7. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?(A) The seabirds that are killed by net fishing do not eat all of the species of fish caught by the fishing industry(B) The government has not in the past sought to determine whether fish were contaminated with toxins by examining tissue samples of seabirds(C) The government cannot gain an accurate count of the number of seabirds killed by net fishing unless the fishing industry cooperates(D) If the government knew that fish caught by the fishing industry were contaminated by toxins, the government would restrict net fishing(E) If net fishing were restricted by the government, then the fishing industry would become more inclined to reveal the number of seabirds killed by net fishing.8. Which one of the following, if true, most strongly indicates that the government program would not by itself provide an accurate count of the seabirds killed by net fishing?(A) The seabirds killed by net fishing might be contaminated with several different toxins even if the birds eat only one kind of fish(B) The fishing industry could learn whether the fish it catches are contaminated with toxins if only a few of the seabirds killed by the nets were examined(C) The government could gain valuable information about the source of toxins by examining tissue samples of the seabirds caught in the nets.(D) The fish caught in a particular net might be contaminated with the same toxins as those in the seabirds caught in that net.(E) The government would be willing to certify that the fish caught by the industry are not contaminated with toxins if tests done on the seabirds showed no contamination9. Some people claim that elected officials must avoid even the appearance of impropriety in office. Yet since actions that give the appearance of impropriety are not necessarily improper, the only reason for an elected official to avoid the appearance of impropriety is to maintain publie approval and popularity. No one however, not even a publicc official, has an obligation to be popular or to maintain public approval.The argument is structured so as to lead to which one of the following conclusions?(A) No elected official has an obligation to avold the appearance of impropriety(B) All elected officials have a vested interest in mainatining a high public approval rating.(C) Elected official who have beeen scrupulous in satisfying the obligations of their office should ensure that the public is aware of this fact.(D) The public never approves of an elected official who appears to have behaved improperly in office(E) Elected officials who abuse the power of their office have an obligation at least to appear to be fulfilling the obligations of their office.10. Cafereria patron The apples sold in this cafeteria are greasy. The cashier told me that the apples are in that condition when they are delivered to the cafeteria and that the cafeteria does not wash the apples it sells. Most fruit is sprayed with dangerous pesticides before it is harvested, and is dangerous until it is washed. Clearly, the cafeteria is selling pesticide-covered fruit thereby endangering its patrons.Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?(A) The apples that the cafeteria sells are not thoroughly washed after harvest but before reaching the cafeteria(B) Most pesticides that are sprayed on fruit before harvest leave a greasy residue on the fruit(C) Many of the cafeteria s patrons are unaware that the cafeteria does not wash the apples it sells.(D) Only pesticides that leave a greasy residue on fruit can be washed off(E) Fruits other than apples also arrive at the cafeteria in a greasy condition11. P: Because an elected official needs the support of a political party to be effective, the independent candidate for the legislature cannot possibly be an effective legislator if she wins.Q: I disagree By your reasoning, our current legislator, who has the support of a political party, ought to have been effective, but he has hot been.Which one of the following is the best criticism of Q s statement?(A) It simply contradicts P s claim without offering evidence against it.(B) It does not consider the possibility that a political party might decide to support an elected legislator even though he or she ran as an independent.(C) It fails to provide a precise definition for a key term—the wore "effective".(D) It presupposes what is to be proved—that a legislator must have the support of a political party in order to be "effective"(E) It mistakenly interprets P to be claiming that a factor assures rather than is necessary for a legislator s effectivenessSECTION IIITime—35 minutes25 QuestionsDirections: The equestions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions more than one of the choices could conceivablyanswer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. If a country s manufacturing capacity is fully utilized, three can be no industrial growth without new capital investment. Any reduction in interest rates produces new capital investmentWhich one of the following can be properly concluded from the statements above?(A) Interest rates might in exceptional cases be reduced without there being any subsequent investment of new capital.(B) A reduction in interest rates might cause a precondition for industrial growth to be met.(C) If a country s manufacturing capacity is underutilized, interest rates should be held sonstant.(D) New capital investment that takes place while interest rates are rising cannot lead to industrial growth.(E) Manufacturing capacity newly created by capital investment needs to be fully utilized if it is to lead to industrial growth.2. A certain type of insect trap uses a scented lure to attract rose beetles into a plastic bag from which it is difficult for them to escape. If several of these traps are installed in a backyard garden, the number of rose beetles in the garden will be greatly reduced. If only one trap is installed, however, the number of rose beetles in the garden will actually increaseWhich one of the following, if true most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy?(A) The scent of a single trap s lure usually cannot be detected throughout a backyard garden by rose beetles(B) Several traps are better able to catch a large number of rose beetles than is one trap alone, since any rose beetles that evade one trap are likely to encounter another trap if there are several traps in the garden.(C) When there are several traps in a garden, they each capture fewer rose beetles than any single trap would if it were the only trap in the garden(D) The presence of any traps in a backyard garden will attract more rose beetles than one trap can catch, but several traps will not attract significantly more rose beetles to a garden than one trap will.(E) When there is only one trap in the garden, the plastic bag quickly becomes filled to capacity, allowing some rose beeties to escape3. The current move to patent computer programs is a move in the wrong direction and should be stopped. The patent system was originally designed solely to protect small-time inventors from exploitation. not to give large corporations control over a methodology. Any computer program is merely the implementation of a methodology.Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?(A) Computer programs should be developed not only be large corporations but by small-time inventors as well.(B) Implementing a methodology always requires less creative effort than does true invention(C) The issue of whether or not to patent computer programs presents the patent system with problems that have never before arisen(D) Large corporations should not hold patents for implementations of methodologies(E) Small-time inventors who support the move to patent computer programs act contrary to their own best interestsQuestions 4-5Walter: For the economically privileged in a society to tolerate an injustice perpetrated against one of society s disadvantaged is not just morally wrong but also shortsighted: a system that inflicts an injustice on a disadvantaged person today can equally well inflict that same injustice on a well-to-do person tomorrowLarissa: In our society the wealthy as well as the well-educated can protect themselves against all sorts of injustices suffered by the less well-off Allowing such injustices to persist is bad policy not because it places everyone at equal risk of injustice but because it is a potent source of social unrest.4. Larissa responds to Walter by doing which one of the following?(A) giving reason to doubt the truth of Walter s conclusion(B) drawing implausible consequences from Walter s assumptions(C) questioning Walter s authority to address matters of social policy(D) providing an alternative reason for accepting the truth of Walter s conclusion(E) charging Walter with stopping short of recognizing the full implications of his position5. Walter and Larissa are logically committed by what they say to disagreeing about which one of the following?(A) whether the poor and the rich are part of the same social fabric(B) whether the most successful members of a society are that society s least tolerant people(C) whether the disadvantaged members of society suffer from injustice(D) whether those who have the most advantages in a society are morally obligated to correct that society s injustices(E) whether the economically privileged members of a society are less exposed to certain sorts of injustices than are the economically disadvantaged6. Three major laundry detergent manufacturers have concentrated their powdered detergents by reducing the proportion of inactive ingredients in the detergent formulas. The concentrated detergents will be sold in smaller packages. In explaining the change, the manufacturers cited the desire to reduce cardboard packaging and other production costs. Market analysts predict that the decision of three manufacturers, who control 80 percent of the laundry detergent market will eventually bring about the virtual disappearance of old-style bulky detergentsWhich one of the following, if true, most strongly supports the prediction made by the market analysts?(A) Most smaller manufacturers of laundry detergents will consider it too expensive to retool factories for the production of the smaller detergent packages.(B) Many consumers will be skeptical initially that the recommended small amount of concentrated detergent will clean laundry as effectively as the larger amount of the old-style detergent did(C) Some analysts believe that consumers will have to pay a greater cost per load of laundry to use the new concentrated detergent than they did to use the old-style detergent(D) Major supermarkets have announced that they will not charge the detergent manufacturers less to display their detergents even though the detergents will take up less shelf space(E) Comsumers are increasingly being persuaded by environmental concerns to buy concentrated detergents when available in order to reduce cardboard wasteQuestions 7-8Political advocate: Campaigns for elective office should be subsidized with public funds. One reason is that this would allow politicians to devote less time to fund-raising thus giving campaigning incumbents more time to serve the public. Asecond reason is that such subsidies would make it possible to set caps on individual campaign contributions. thereby reducing the likelihood that elected officials will be working for the benefit not of the publie but of individual large contilbutorsGitle: This argument is problematie the more the caps constrain contributions the more time candidates have to spend finding more small contributors7. The critie objects that the advocate s argument is flawed because(A) any resourceful large contributor can circumvent caps on individual contributions by sending in smaller amounts under various names(B) one of the projected results cited in support of the proposal made is entailed by the other and therefore does not constitute mdependent support of the proposal(C) of the two projected results cited in support of the proposal made one works against the other(D) it overlooks the possibility that lareg contributors will stop contributing if they cannot contribute at will(E) it overlooks the possibility that incumbents with a few extremely generous contributors will be hit harder by caps than incumbents with many moderately genetous contributors.8. Which one of the following prickples if established provides a basis for the advocate s argument(A) If complete reliance on private funding of some activity keeps the public from enjoying a benefit that could be provided if public funds were used such public funds should be provided(B) If election campaigns are to be fended from public funds terms of office for elected officials should be lengthened.(C) If in an election campaign large contributions flow primarily to one candidate public funds should be used to support the campaigns of that candiate s rivals(D) If public funding of some activity produces a benefit to the public but also inevitably a special benefit for specific individuals, the activity should not be fully funded publicly but in part by the individuals deriving the special benefit.(E) If a person would not have run for office in the absence of public campaign subsidies this person should not be eligible for any such subsidies.9. Novice bird-watcher 1 don t know much about animal track s but I do know that birds typically have four toes and most birds have three toes pointing forward and one toe pointing backward Since this track was made by an animal with four toes of which three point forward and one points backward we can conclude it was made by some kind of birdThe argument is flawed because it(A) relies on the vagueness of the term "track"(B) does not define birds as animals with for toes(C) fails to identify what kind of bird might have made the track(D) does not establish that only a bird could have made the track(E) depends on evidence about an individual bird rather than about birds in general10. Psychologists have claimed that many people are more susceptible to psychological problems in the winter than in the summer, the psychologists call this condition seasonal affective disorder Their claim is based on the results of surveys in which people were asked to recall how they felt at various times in the past However, it is not clear that people are able to report accurately on their past psychological states Therefore these survey results do not justify the psychologists claim that there is any such condition as seasonal affective disorderThe author criticizes the psychologists claim by(A) offering an alternative explanation of the variation in the occurrence of psychological。
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题4(含答案)
美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题4（含答案）SECTION ITime 35 minutes 27 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Until the 1980s, most scientists believed that noncatastrophic geological processes caused the extinction of dinosaurs that occurred approximately 66 million years ago, at the end of the Cretaceous period. Geologists argued that a dramatic drop in sea level coincided with the extinction of the dinosaurs and could have caused the climatic changes that resulted in this extinction as well as the extinction of many ocean species.This view was seriously challenged in the 1980s by the discovery of large amounts of iridium in a layer of clay deposited at the end of the Cretaceous period. Because iridium is extremely rare in rocks on the Earth’s surface but common in meteorites, researchers theorized that it was the impact of a large meteorite that dramatically changed the earth’s climate and thus triggered the extinction of the dinosaurs.Currently available evidence, however, offers more support for a new theory, the volcanic-eruption theory. A vast eruption of lava in India coincided with the extinctions that occurred at the end of the Cretaceous period, and the release of carbon dioxide from this episode of volcanism could have caused the climatic change responsible for the demise of the dinosaurs. Such outpourings of lava are caused by instability in the lowest layer of the Earth’s mantle, located just above the Earth’s core. As the rock that constitutes this layer is heated by the Earth’s core, it becomes less dense and portions of it eventually escape upward as blobs or molten rock, called “diapirs,”that can, under certain circumstances, erupt violently through the Earth’s crust.Moreover, the volcanic-eruption theory, like the impact theory, accounts for the presence of iridium in sedimentary deposits; it also explains matters that the meteorite-impact theory does not. Although iridium is extremely rare on the Earth’s surface, the lower regions of the Earth’s mantle have roughly the same composition as meteorites and contain large amounts of iridium, which in the case of a diapir eruption would probably be emitted as iridium hexafluoride, a gas that would disperse more uniformly in the atmosphere than the iridium-containing matter thrown out from a meteorite impact. In addition, the volcanic-eruption theory may explain why the end of the Cretaceous period was marked by a gradual change in sea level. Fossil records indicate that for several hundred thousand years prior to the relatively sudden disappearance of the dinosaurs, the level of the sea gradually fell, causing many marine organisms to die out. This change in sea level might well have been the result of a distortion in the Earth’s surface that resulted from the movement of diapirs upward toward the Earth’s crust, and the more cataclysmic extinction of the dinosaurs could have resulted from the explosive volcanism that occurred as material from the diapirs erupted onto the Earth’s surface.1. The passage suggests that during the 1980s researchers found meteorite impact aconvincing explanation for the extinction of dinosaurs, in part because(A) earlier theories had failed to account for the gradual extinction of many ocean species at the end of the Cretaceous period(B) geologists had, up until that time, underestimated the amount of carbon dioxide that would be released during an episode of explosive volcanism(C) a meteorite could have served as a source of the iridium found in a layer of clay deposited at the end of the Cretaceous period(D) no theory relying on purely geological processes had, up until that time, explained the cause of the precipitous drop in sea level that occurred at the end of the Cretaceous period(E) the impact of a large meteorite could have resulted in the release of enough carbon dioxide to cause global climatic change2. According to the passage, the lower regions of the Earth’s mantle are characterized by(A) a composition similar to that of meteorites(B) the absence of elements found in rocks on the Earth’s crust(C) a greater stability than that of the upper regions(D) the presence of large amounts of carbon dioxide(E) a uniformly lower density than that of the upper regions3. It can be inferred from the passage that which one of the following was true of the lava that erupted in India at the end of the Cretaceous period?(A) It contained less carbon dioxide than did the meteorites that were striking the Earth’s surface during that period.(B) It was more dense than the molten rock, located just above the Earth’s core.(C) It released enough iridium hexafluoride into the atmosphere to change the Earth’s climate dramatically.(D) It was richer in iridium than rocks usually found on the Earth’s surface.(E) It was richer in iridium than were the meteorites that were striking the Earth’s surface during that period.4. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which one of the following?(A) describing three theories and explaining why the latest of these appears to be the best of the three(B) attacking the assumptions inherent in theories that until the 1980s had been largely accepted by geologists(C) outlining the inadequacies of three different explanations of the same phenomenon(D) providing concrete examples in support of the more general assertion that theories must often be revised in light of new evidence(E) citing evidence that appears to confirm the skepticism of geologists regarding a view held prior to the 1980s5. The author implies that if the theory described in the third paragraph is true, which one of the following would have been true of iridium in the atmosphere at the end of the Cretaceous period?(A) Its level of concentration in the Earth’s atmosphere would have been high due to a slow but steady increase in the atmospheric iridium that began in the early Cretaceous period.(B) Its concentration in the Earth’s atmosphere would have increased due to the dramatic decrease in sea level that occurred during the Cretaceous period.(C) It would have been directly responsible for the extinction of many ocean species.(D) It would have been more uniformly dispersed than iridium whose source had been the impact of a meteorite on the Earth’s surface.(E) It would have been more uniformly dispersed than indium released into the atmosphere as a result of normal geological processes that occur on Earth.6. The passage supports which one of the following claims about the volcanic-eruption theory?(A) It does not rely on assumptions concerning the temperature of molten rock at the lowest pan of the Earth’s mantle.(B) It may explain what caused the gradual fall in sea level that occurred for hundreds of thousands of years prior to the more sudden disappearance of the dinosaurs.(C) It bases its explanation on the occurrence of periods of increased volcanic activity similar to those shown to have caused earlier mass extinctions.(D) It may explain the relative scarcity of iridium in rocks on the Earth’s surface compared to its abundance in meteorites.(E) It accounts for the relatively uneven distribution of iridium in the layer of clay deposited at the end of the Cretaceous period.7. Which one of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the theory described in the last paragraph of the passage?(A) Fragments of meteorites that have struck the Earth are examined and found to have only minuscule amounts of iridium hexafluoride trapped inside of them.(B) Most diapir eruptions in the geological history of the Earth have been similar in size to the one that occurred in India at the end of the Cretaceous period and have not been succeeded by periods of climatic change.(C) There have been several periods in the geological history of the Earth, before and after the Cretaceous period, during which large numbers of marine species have perished.(D) The frequency with which meteorites struck the Earth was higher at the end of the Cretaceous period than at the beginning of the period.(E) Marine species tend to be much more vulnerable to extinction when exposed to a dramatic and relatively sudden change in sea level than when they are exposed to a gradual change in sea level similar to the one that preceded the extinction of the dinosaurs.参考答案：1-7 CADADBBIt has become something of a truism in folklore studies that until recently the lore was more often studied than the folk. That is, folklorists concentrated on the folklore—the songs, tales, and proverbs themselves—and ignored the people who transmitted that lore as part of their oral culture. However, since the early 1970s, folklore studies have begun to regard folk performers as people of creativity who are as worthy of attention as are artists who transmit their ideas in writing. This shift of emphasis has also encouraged a growing interest in women folk performers.Until recently, folklorists tended to collect folklore from women on only a few topics such as health and games. In other areas, as Weigle and Farrer have noted, if folklorists “had a choice between a story as told by a man or as told by a woman, the man’s version was chosen.”It is still too early to tell how profoundly this situation has changed, but one can point to several recent studies in which women performers play central roles. Perhaps more telling is the focus of the most recently published major folklore textbook, The Dynamics of Folklore. Whereas earliertextbooks gave little attention to women and their folklore, this book devotes many pages to women folk performers.Recognition of women as important bearers of folklore is not entirely a recent phenomenon. As early as 1903, a few outstanding women folk performers were the focus of scholarly attention. Bur the scholarship devoted to these women tended to focus primarily on presenting the performer’s repertoire. Recent works about women folk artists, however, have been more biographically oriented. Juha Pentikainen’s study of Marina Tokalo, a Finnish healer and narrator of folktales, is especially extensive and probing. Though interested in the problems of repertoire analysis, Pentikainen gives considerable attention to the details of Tokalo’s life and cultural background, so that a full picture of a woman and her folklore emerges. Another notable work is Roger Abraham’s book, which presents a very clear picture of the significance of traditional singing in the life of noted ballad singer Almeda Riddle. Unfortunately, unlike Pentikainen’s study, Abraham’s study contains little repertoire analysis.These recent books reflect the current interest of folklorists in viewing folklore in context and thus answering questions about what folklore means to the people who use it. One unexpected result of this line of study has been the discovery that women may use the same folklore that men use, but for very different purposes. This realization has potential importance for future folklore studies in calling greater attention to the type of study required if a folklorist wants truly to understand the role folklore plays in a particular culture.8. Which one of the following best describes the main point of the passage?(A) It is only since the early 1970s that folklore studies have begun to recognize women as important bearers of folklore.(B) A careful analysis of the repertoires of women folk performers has led to a new discovery with important implications for future folklore studies.(C) Recent studies of women folk performers have focused primarily on the problems of repertoire analysis to the exclusion of a discussion of the culture within which the folklore was developed.(D) The emphasis in folklore studies has shifted from a focus on the life and the cultural background of the folk performers themselves to a broader understanding of the role folklore plays in a culture.(E) A change in the focus of folklore studies has led to increased interest in women folk performers and to a new understanding of the importance of the context in which folklore is produced.9. The author of the passage refers to The Dynamics of Folklore primarily in order to(A) support the idea that it is too soon to tell whether or not folklorists are giving greater attention to women’s folklore(B) refute Weigle and Farrer’s contention that folklorists prefer to collect folklore from men rather than from women(C) support the assertion that scholarship devoted to women folk performers tends to focus primarily on repertoire(D) present an example of the new emphasis in folklore studies on the performer rather than on the folklore(E) suggest that there are some signs that women folk performers are gaining increased critical attention in the field of folklore10. The focus of which one of the following books would most clearly reflect the current interest of the folklorists mentioned in the last paragraph?(A) an anthology of tales and songs collected exclusively from women in different cultures(B) a compilation of tales and songs from both men and women covering a great variety of traditional and nontraditional topics(C) a study of the purpose and meaning of a tale or song for the men and women in a particular culture(D) an analysis of one particular tale or song that documents changes in the text of the folklore over a period of time(E) a comparison of the creative process of performers who transmit folklore with that of artists who transmit their ideas in writing11. According to the passage, which one of the following changes has occurred in the field of folklore since the early 1970s?(A) increased recognition of the similar ways in which men and women use folklore(B) increased recognition of folk performers as creative individuals(C) increased emphasis on the need for repertoire analysis(D) less emphasis on the relationship between cultural influences and folklore(E) less emphasis on the individual performers and more emphasis on the meaning of folklore to a culture12. It can be inferred from the passage that early folklorists assumed that which one of the following was true?(A) The people who transmitted the folklore did not play a creative role in the development of that folklore.(B) The people who transmitted the folklore were not consciously aware of the way in which they creatively shaped that folklore.(C) The text of a song or tale did not change as the folklore was transmitted from one generation to another.(D) Women were not involved in transmitting folklore except for songs or tales dealing with a few traditional topics.(E) The meaning of a piece of folklore could differ depending on whether the tale or song was transmitted by a man or by a woman.13. Based on the information in the passage, which one of the following is most closely analogous to the type of folklore studies produced before the early 1970s?(A) An anthropologist studies the implements currently used by an isolated culture, but does not investigate how the people of that culture designed and used those implements.(B) A manufacturer hires a consultant to determine how existing equipment in a plant might be modified to improve efficiency, but does not ask employees for their suggestions on how to improve efficiency.(C) A historian studies different types of documents dealing with a particular historical event, but decides not to review newspaper accounts written by journalists who lived through that event.(D) An archaeologist studies the artifacts of an ancient culture to reconstruct the life-style of that culture, but does not actually visit the site where those artifacts were unearthed.(E) An architect designs a private home for a client, but ignores many of the client’ssuggestions concerning minor details about the final design of the home.14. The author of the passage uses the term “context”(line 50) to refer to(A) a holistic assessment of a piece of folklore rather than a critical analysis of its parts(B) a study that examines a piece of folklore in light of earlier interpretations provided by other folklorists(C) the parts of a piece of folklore that can shed light on the meaning of the entire piece(D) the environment and circumstances in which a particular piece of folklore is used(E) the location in which the story line of a piece of folklore is set15. The author’s attitude toward Roger Abraham’s book can best be described as one of(A) wholehearted approval(B) qualified admiration(C) uneasy ambivalence(D) extreme skepticism(E) trenchant criticism参考答案：8-15 EECBAADBJ. G. A. Pocock’s numerous investigations have all revolved around the fruitful assumption that a work of political thought can only be understood in light of the linguistic constraints to which its author was subject, for these prescribed both the choice of subject matter and the author’s conceptualization of this subject matter. Only the occasional epic theorist, like Machiavelli or Hobbes, succeeded in breaking out of these bonds by redefining old terms and inventing new ones. The task of the modern commentator is to identify the “language”or “vocabulary”with and within which the author operated. While historians of literature have always been aware that writers work within particular traditions, the application of this notion to the history of political ideas forms a sharp contrast to the assumptions of the 1950s, when it was naively thought that the close reading of a text by an analytic philosopher was sufficient to establish its meaning, even if the philosopher had no knowledge of the period of the text’s composition.The language Pocock has most closely investigated is that of “civic humanism.”For much of his career he has argued that eighteenth-century English political thought should be interpreted as a conflict between rival versions of the “virtue”central to civic humanism. On the one hand, he argues, this virtue is described by representatives of the Tory opposition using a vocabulary of public spirit and self-sufficiency. For these writers the societal ideal is the small, independent landowner in the countryside. On the other hand, Whig writers describe such virtue using a vocabulary of commerce and economic progress; for them the ideal is the merchant.In making such linguistic discriminations Pocock has disassociated himself from historians like Namier, who deride all eighteenth-century English political language as “cant.”But while Pocock’s ideas have proved fertile when applied to England, they are more controversial when applied to the late-eighteenth-century United States. Pocock’s assertion that Jefferson’s attacks on the commercial policies of the Federalists simply echo the language of the Tory opposition in England is at odds with the fact that Jefferson rejected the elitist implications of that group’s notion of virtue and asserted the right of all to participate in commercial society. Indeed, after promptings by Quentin Skinner, Pocock has admitted that a counterlanguage—one of rights and liberties—was probably as important in the political discourse of the late-eighteenth-century United States as the language of civic humanism. Fortunately, it is not necessary to rank the relative importance of all the different vocabularies in which eighteenth-century politicalargument was conducted. It is sufficient to recognize that any interesting text is probably a mixture of several of these vocabularies, and to applaud the historian who, though guilty of some exaggeration, has done the most to make us aware of their importance.16. The main idea of the passage is that(A) civic humanism, in any of its manifestations, cannot entirely explain eighteenth-century political discourse(B) eighteenth-century political texts are less likely to reflect a single vocabulary than to combine several vocabularies(C) Pocock’s linguistic approach, though not applicable to all eighteenth-century political texts, provides a useful model for historians of political theory(D) Pocock has more successfully accounted for the nature of political thought in eighteenth-century England than in the eighteenth-century United States(E) Pocock’s notion of the importance of language in political texts is a logical extension of the insights of historians of literature17. According to the passage, Pocock most clearly associates the use of a vocabulary of economic progress with(A) Jefferson(B) Federalists(C) English Whigs(D) English Tories rural(E) English landowners18. The author’s attitude toward Pocock is best revealed by which of the following pairs of words?(A) “fruitful”(line 2) and “cant”(line 39)(B) “sharp”(line 16) and “elitist”(line 46)(C) “naively”(line 17) and “controversial”(line 41)(D) “fertile”(line 40) and “applaud”(line 60)(E) “simply”(line 44) and “importance”(line 55)19. The passage suggests that one of the “assumptions of the 1950s”(line 17) regarding the meaning of a political text was that this meaning(A) could be established using an approach similar to that used by literary historians(B) could be definitively established without reference to the text’s historical background(C) could be closely read in several different ways depending on one’s philosophic approach(D) was constrained by certain linguistic preconceptions held by the text’s author(E) could be expressed most clearly by an analytic philosopher who had studied its historical context20. The author of the passage would most likely agree that which one of the following is a weakness found in Pocock’s work?(A) the use of the term “language”to describe the expressive features of several diverse kinds of discourse(B) the overemphatic denigration of the role of the analytic philosopher in establishing the meaning of a political, or indeed any, text(C) the emphasis on the overriding importance of civic humanism in eighteenth-century English political thought(D) the insistence on a single linguistic dichotomy to account for political thought in eighteenth-century England and the United States(E) the assignment of certain vocabularies to particular parties in eighteenth-century England without taking note of how these vocabularies overlapped21. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?(A) A description of a thesis is offered, specific cases are considered, and an evaluation is given.(B) A thesis is brought forward, the thesis is qualified, and evidence that calls the qualification into question is stated.(C) A hypothesis is described, examples that suggest it is incorrect are summarized, and supporting examples are offered.(D) A series of evaluations are given, concrete reasons are put forward, and a future direction for research is suggested.(E) Comparisons and contrasts are made, some categories of evaluation are suggested, and a framework for applying these categories is implied.参考答案：16-21 CCDDBAIn 1964 the United States federal government began attempts to eliminate racial discrimination in employment and wages: the United States Congress enacted Title VII of the Civil Rights Act, prohibiting employers from making employment decisions on the basis of race. In 1965 President Johnson issued Executive Order 11,246, which prohibited discrimination by United States government contractors and emphasized direct monitoring of minority representation in contractors’work forces.Nonetheless, proponents of the “continuous change”hypothesis believe that United States federal law had a marginal impact on the economic progress made by black people in the United States between 1940 and 1975. Instead they emphasize slowly evolving historical forces, such as long-term trends in education that improved segregated schools for black students during the 1940s and were operative during and after the 1960s. They argue that as the quality of black schools improved relative to that of white schools, the earning potential of those attending black schools increased relative to the earning potential of those attending white schools.However, there is no direct evidence linking increased quality of underfunded segregated black schools to these improvements in earning potential. In fact, even the evidence on relative schooling quality is ambiguous. Although in the mid-1940s term length at black schools was approaching that in white schools, the rapid growth in another important measure of school quality, school expenditures, may be explained by increases in teachers’salaries, and historically, such increases have not necessarily increased school quality. Finally, black individuals in all age groups, even those who had been educated at segregated schools before the 1940s, experienced post-1960 increases in their earning potential. If improvements in the quality of schooling were an important determinant of increased returns, only those workers who could have benefited from enhanced school quality should have received higher returns. The relative improvement in the earning potential of educated black people of all age groups in the United States is more consistent with a decline in employment discrimination.An additional problem for continuity theorists is how to explain the rapid acceleration of black economic progress in the United States after 1964. Education alone cannot account for the rate of change. Rather, the coincidence of increased United States government antidiscriminationpressure in the mid-1960s with the acceleration in the rate of black economic progress beginning in 1965 argues against the continuity theorists’view. True, correlating federal intervention and the acceleration of black economic progress might be incorrect. One could argue that changing altitudes about employment discrimination sparked both the adoption of new federal policies and the rapid acceleration in black economic progress. Indeed, the shift in national attitude that made possible the enactment of Title VII was in part produced by the persistence of racial discrimination in the southern United States. However, the fact that the law had its greatest effect in the South, in spite of the vigorous resistance of many Southern leaders, suggests its importance for black economic progress.22. According to the passage, Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act differs from Executive Order 11. 246 in that Title VII(A) monitors employers to ensure minority representation(B) assesses the work forces of government contractors(C) eliminates discriminatory disparities in wages(D) focuses on determining minority representation in government(E) governs hiring practices in a wider variety of workplaces23. Which one of the following statements about schooling in the United States during the mid-1940s can be inferred from the passage?(A) School expenditures decreased for white schools.(B) The teachers in white schools had more time to cover material during a school year than did teachers in black schools.(C) The basic curriculum of white schools was similar to the curriculum at black schools.(D) White schools did not change substantially in quality.(E) Although the salaries of teachers in black schools increased, they did not keep pace with the salaries of teachers in white schools.24. The primary purpose of the passage is to(A) explain why an argument about black economic progress is incomplete(B) describe the impact of education on black economic progress(C) refute an argument about the factors influencing black economic progress(D) describe black economic progress before and after the 1960s(E) clarify the current view about the factors influencing black economic progress25. Which one of the following best states the position of proponents of the “continuous change”hypothesis regarding the relationship between law and racial discrimination?(A) Individuals cannot be forced by legal means to behave in nondiscriminatory ways.(B) Discriminatory practices in education have been effectively altered by legal means.(C) Legislation alone has had little effect on racially discriminatory behavior.(D) Legislation is necessary, but not sufficient, to achieve changes in racial altitudes.(E) Legislation can only exacerbate conflicts about racially discriminatory behavior.26. The author concedes that “correlating federal intervention and the acceleration of black economic progress might be incorrect”(lines 58-60) primarily in order to(A) strengthen the overall argument by anticipating an objection(B) introduce another factor that may have influenced black economic progress(C) concede a point to the continuity theorists(D) change the overall argument in light of the views of the continuity theorists。
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SET 1
SECTION1 DECED DDDAE EEADE CABDB BDDEB SECTION3 BDEAA CCABD BADDB BBEEA BDADE A SECTION4 EBDCE AADDC BABCA ACEDC BABDA D
SET 2
SECTION1 CBDBA DEBBE CDADD AABEC ABEBB CAD SECTION2 DEEDC BAEBC BACCB EBBDC DAEE SECTION4 CCEAB BDCDD BABEA CADDD EDCDA
SET 3
SECTION1 EAEDC EDDAE CEDCD ACDDB BBCE SECTION2 BCACC DEEDB BACDC BDAEB BCCAD DE SECTION4 BECAD ADBBD BCDEA CBBED EDBDE
SET 4
SECTION1 EABAB EABAC DDEAA BDBCB ECBCE SECTION3 CBEEB AECCA CCDBC BAAEB CEDBE SECTION4 ADDEE CDACC CBEBD BEECB ACEBE CC
SET 5
SECTION2 CEDBE CABDE DDABD CCCBC BACAE SECTION3 EDACD CCCEC DADAD EEDBA EACDD CBB SECTION4 DCCDC ABEAE EECDE ADEDC BBAE
SET 6
SECTION1 ECAEB DEDAA DDDAD BBDDC CACEE AE SECTION2 CADEB CEACE BEEDC EBEEC DDECC SECTION3 ABDBD EADAD ACEBB EAADC EADBEC
SET 7
SECTION1 CCEEB ECADB CACEA BBCCB BEDAD SECTION3 EDCBD AADAB CCEDB DCEAD CCDEB BD SECTION4 DEBEA CAECD AADDE EDABA ADCDE
SET 8
SECTION2 DCADD BBEEE BDCDA DCABA ABEA SECTION3 AEACB AACAC EBDAD BDECD BBEDC BBE SECTION4 BBECC DCCBA DCADA CADBA EEBDE
SET 9
SECTION1 DAACC CCBDB BEDBA BBEEB DAEBB SECTION3 DADAE BADBA BCCDE BDACB CDAEB DE SECTION4 CDDAC CECBC ADEAA CADDB ADECB
SET 10
SECTION1 BADEC ECAAC BABBD CADBB CDCCE CE SECTION2 ADBBD CDDAB EADCB ABEDA DDADA SECTION4 CECCE CDCBB DCAAD EBCAC EEEDD
SET 11
SECTION1 BEEDB CAEDE CBBEA EBEDD BCDEE SECTION3 ADBEC BEDBC BEACE EBADD DBDEB AE SECTION4 ABCDB DACDA ADBBB DEEAE EEDCC
SET 12
SECTION2 EDCBE EDBDD BEAED CEDAA BAAAE E SECTION3 DEBED CCAEB ABEDC CDAEE EBBEB DD SECTION4 DCEDC BCCED BDAAE ABAAD EBBA
Page 1/1 Edited by文谦
SET 13
SECTION1 DCEBD ABCEB DDDDB BCABD CCCAB E SECTION3 DEBCB EEECD EAACE EDACA DABAE CE SECTION4 DEEBA BDCDA AACDB ECEBA DCCA
SET 14
SECTION2 DCCAA EBADA DDADE CAACA CDDEA B SECTION3 ADBCD ACCEB ADDED EBCAD ADDCB AE SECTION4 ACDEE BEDCD CBBEB CDBDE DAEC
SET 15
SECTION2 CCBED DDBCB DABCE DCDEB ADEDE SECTION3 CEABD DAECB CBDCB CCADE ABCCA DD SECTION4 EDCCB ACEDA EECDC AEDAE BACCB
SET 16
SECTION1 CADAD BBEEC BAADB CCDBD AEBCC AD SECTION2 ADEDA BBAEC ECEBC EDBAA EEBA SECTION3 BECAB EBABB CEACB CAAAB DCECD E
SET 17
SECTION1 CEDDA EDBBE ABAAB CAEBD BEDCD EBC SECTION3 ABEDC AABAC BDCEB CDECE CECEA SECTION4 CACCB DDCEC BABEE ABEAD DBCE
SET 18
SECTION2 BECBB CABDD BDDBC EBDDE DECAE E SECTION3 AECEA BBCAD ACDBB EBDAD BEDBD A SECTION4 BBDAC AAAEC ADBBD AACBC ADBAA C
SET 19
SECTION2 BADEC DCECE DBDDE EBAAE AEDE SECTION3 DBBCD CABAA EABEC CADAD DBDBC A SECTION4 BDCCC EBAEA CBDEB CEAEE DCDCA AB
SET 20
SECTION2 BCBDC BBEEA CBDCA ECACD AEBAE SECTION3 EAEAC CDCBD CBADE CDDBD BCCEE SECTION4 BEDAB BEBAB BDEDC ADBAB CCBBA AB
SET 21
SECTION1 BACDE BDCBA CBCDB EAADA CDCEC ED SECTION2 BDBCD CABCE ECDAA ABEEB ADAEA SECTION3 BEDED DECED BDBCE AAADB ACBDD B
SET 22
SECTION2 BECED DCBAA ECACA BBDEB CDCAD SECTION3 BDDDE ECADD BDDEB ABEEA AECEE SECTION4 EBCEC BCBCC DDBBE BAABC EBBDA DE
SET23
SECTION2 ACDDD BBCBB BDACB CCEEB ADEA SECTION3 AEBEA DDCCE DBADC EAEDB BADCB AC SECTION4 DAEBA CEEBA BCEBC CBCCC CDDAB D
SET24
SECTION1 BABBE DEBCC DDDCC ADCDC AEEBD SECTION2 BEAED BCABC ABBCB ABAED BDEEB E SECTION4 DCBAD CEABC DBACB DEADE DADBD B
SET 25
SECTION1 CBABC ECDCA ADDBB AABBA CDABB A SECTION2 CBDDA EEACB EBCDD EDBAE DDECB SECTION4 ACCAC CCDAE CBDAC EDBBB DDBEA D
SET 26
SECTION2 CBEDC DADEC CBAAD CDBBB EDEDB D SECTION3 CCAAA CEBEB BBEDB CCCBE DEBDC
Page 2/2 Edited by文谦
SECTION4 DDEDA CEBCE DABDA ECDCE CDBCA B
SET 27
SECTION1 DBADB CDCBA CDACA AEECB CDAEB B SECTION2 ACAAB CCAEE DABAD EDEBD EACED SECTION4 ABEBA DAABB DDBDE DBDAC CCBDE E
SET28
SECTION2 BBACA DCABC ADADC CBCBC ECCEE SECTION3 BBDCC EEECD ADEAC DDADB CDBEB SECTION4 EAAEB EBBDD CAEDE AAEEC DCEBA CD
Page 3/3 Edited by文谦。