公司财务原理第十一版-英文-课后答案第一章
公司财务原理Principles of Corporate Finance(11th edition)_课后习题答案Chap005
CHAPTER 5Net Present Value and Other Investment CriteriaAnswers to Problem Sets1. a. A = 3 years, B = 2 years, C = 3 years.b. Bc. A, B, and Cd. B and C (NPV B = $3,378;NPV C = $2,405)e. True. The payback rule ignores all cash flows after the cutoff date,meaning that future years’ cash inflows are not considered. In addition, thepayback rule ignores the timing of cash inflows. For example, for apayback rule set at two years, a project with a payback period of one yearis given equal weight as a project with a payback period of two years.f. It will accept no negative-NPV projects, but will turn down some withpositive NPVs. A project can have positive NPV if all future cash flows areconsidered but still do not meet the stated cutoff period.Est. time: 6 – 102. Given the cash flows C0, C1, . . . , C T, IRR is defined by:It is calculated by trial and error, by financial calculators, or by spreadsheetprograms.Est. time: 1 – 53. a. $15,750; $4,250; $0b. 100%Est. time: 1 – 54. No (you are effectively “borrowing” at a rate of interest highe r than theopportunity cost of capital).Est. time: 1 – 55 a. Two. There are multiple internal rates of return for a project when thereare changes in the sign of the cash flows.b. −50% and +50%. The NPV for the project using both of these IRRs is 0.c. Yes, NPV = +14.6.Est. time: 1 – 56. The incremental flows from investing in Alpha rather than Beta are −200,000;+110,000; and 121,000. The IRR on the incremental cash flow is 10% (i.e., −200 + 110/1.10 + 121/1.102 = 0). The IRR on Beta exceeds the cost of capital and so does the IRR on the incremental investment in Alpha. Choose Alpha.Est. time: 1 – 57. 1, 2, 4, and 6The profitability index for each project is shown below:Start with the project with the highest profitability index and go from there. Project2 has the highest profitability index and has an initial investment of $5,000. Thenext highest profitability index is for Project 1, which has an initial investment of $10,000. The next highest is Project 4, which will cost $60,000 up front. So far we have spent $75,000. Projects 5 and 6 both have profitability indexes of .2, but we only have $15,000 left to spend, so we will add Project 6 to our list. This gives us Projects 1, 2, 4, and 6.Est. time: 1 – 58. a. $90.91.10)(1$10001000NPV A -=+-=$ $4,044.7310)(1.$1000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$4000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$10002000NPV 5432B +=+++++-=$ $39.4710)(1.$1000.10)(1$1000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$10003000NPV 542C +=++++-=$ Projects B and C have positive NPVs.b. Payback A = one yearPayback B = two yearsPayback C = four yearsc. A and Bd.$909.09.10)(1$1000PV 1A == The present value of the cash inflows for Project A never recovers the initialoutlay for the project, which is always the case for a negative NPV project.The present values of the cash inflows for Project B are shown in the thirdrow of the table below, and the cumulative net present values are shownin the fourth row:C 0C 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5 -2,000.00+1,000.00 +1,000.00 +4,000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.00 -2,000.00909.09 826.45 3,005.26 683.01 620.92 -1,090.91 -264.46 2,740.80 3,423.81 4,044.73Since the cumulative NPV turns positive between year 2 and year 3, the discounted payback period is:years 2.093,005.26264.462=+The present values of the cash inflows for Project C are shown in the third row of the table below, and the cumulative net present values are shown in the fourth row:C 0 C 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5-3,000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.00 -3,000.00 909.09 826.450.00 683.01 620.92 -2,090.91 -1,264.46 -1,264.46 -581.45 39.47Since the cumulative NPV turns positive between year 4 and year 5, thediscounted payback period is:years 4.94620.92581.454=+e. Using the discounted payback period rule with a cutoff of three years, thefirm would accept only Project B.Est. time: 11– 159. a. When using the IRR rule, the firm must still compare the IRR with theopportunity cost of capital. Thus, even with the IRR method, one mustspecify the appropriate discount rate.b. Risky cash flows should be discounted at a higher rate than the rate usedto discount less risky cash flows. Using the payback rule is equivalent tousing the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before thepayback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.Est. time: 1 – 510.The two IRRs for this project are (approximately): –17.44% and 45.27%. Between these two discount rates, the NPV is positive.Est. time: 06 - 1011. a.The figure on the next page was drawn from the following points:Discount Rate 0% 10% 20%NPV A +20.00 +4.13 -8.33NPV B +40.00 +5.18 -18.98b. From the graph, we can estimate the IRR of each project from the pointwhere its line crosses the horizontal axis:IRR A = 13.1% and IRR B = 11.9%This can be checked by calculating the NPV for each project at theirrespective IRRs, which give an approximate NPV of 0.c.The company should accept Project A if its NPV is positive and higherthan that of Project B; that is, the company should accept Project A if thediscount rate is greater than 10.7% (the intersection of NPV A and NPV B onthe graph below) and less than 13.1% (the internal rate of return).d. The cash flows for (B–A) are:C0 = $ 0C1 = –$60C2 = –$60C3 = +$140Therefore:Discount Rate0% 10% 20%NPV B−A+20.00 +1.05 -10.65IRR B − A = 10.7%The company should accept Project A if the discount rate is greater than10.7% and less than 13.1%. As shown in the graph, for these discountrates, the IRR for the incremental investment is less than the opportunitycost of capital.Est. time: 06 - 1012. a. Because Project A requires a larger capital outlay, it ispossible that Project A has both a lower IRR and a higher NPV thanProject B. (In fact, NPV A is greater than NPV B for all discount rates lessthan 10%.) Because the goal is to maximize shareholder wealth, NPV isthe correct criterion.b. To use the IRR criterion for mutually exclusive projects, calculate theIRR for the incremental cash flows:C 0 C 1 C 2 IRRA -B −200 +110 +121 10%Because the IRR for the incremental cash flows exceeds the cost ofcapital, the additional investment in A is worthwhile. c. 81.86$(1.09)3001.09250400NPV 2A =++-= $79.10(1.09)1791.09140200NPV 2B =++-= Est. time: 06 - 1013. Use incremental analysis:C 1 C 2 C 3Current Arrangement −250,000 −250,000 +650,000Extra Shift −550,000 +650,000 0Incremental Flows −300,000 +900,000 -650,000The IRRs for the incremental flows are (approximately): 21.13% and 78.87%If the cost of capital is between these rates, Titanic should work the extra shift.Est. time: 06 - 1014.a. First calculate the NPV for each project.The NPV for Project D is: $=-+=D 20,000NPV 10,0008,181.821.10The NPV for Project E is:=-+=E 35,000NPV 20,000$11,818.181.10Profitability index = NPV/initial investment.For Project D: Profitability index = 8,181.82/10,000 = .82.For Project E: Profitability index = 11,818.18/20,000 −.59.b. Each project has a profitability index greater than zero, and so both areacceptable projects. In order to choose between these projects, we must use incremental analysis. For the incremental cash flows:0.3610,0003,63610,000)( 1.1015,00010,000PI D E ==--+-=- The increment is thus an acceptable project, and so the larger project should be accepted, i.e., accept Project E. (Note that, in this case, the better project has the lower profitability index.)Est. time: 11 - 1515. Using the fact that profitability index = (net present value / investment), we find:ProjectProfitability Index 10.22 2−0.02 30.17 40.14 50.07 60.18 7 0.12 Thus, given the budget of $1 million, the best the company can do is to acceptProjects 1, 3, 4, and 6.If the company accepted all positive NPV projects, the market value (compared to the market value under the budget limitation) would increase by the NPV ofProject 5 plus the NPV of Project 7: $7,000 + $48,000 = $55,000.Thus, the budget limit costs the company $55,000 in terms of its market value.Est. time: 06 - 1016. The IRR is the discount rate wh ich, when applied to a project’s cash flows, yieldsNPV = 0. Thus, it does not represent an opportunity cost. However, if eachproject’s cash flows could be invested at that project’s IRR, then the NPV of each project would be zero because the IRR would then be the opportunity cost ofcapital for each project. The discount rate used in an NPV calculation is theopportunity cost of capital. Therefore, it is true that the NPV rule does assume that cash flows are reinvested at the opportunity cost of capital.Est. time: 06 - 1017.a.C 0 = –3,000 C 0 = –3,000C 1 = +3,500 C 1 = +3,500C 2 = +4,000 C 2 + PV(C 3) = +4,000 – 3,571.43 = 428.57C 3 = –4,000 MIRR = 27.84%b. 2321 1.12C 1.12xC xC -=+ (1.122)(xC 1) + (1.12)(xC 2) = –C 3(x)[(1.122)(C 1) + (1.12C 2)] = –C 3)()2123 1.12C )(C (1.12C -x += 0.4501.12)(4,00)(3,500(1.124,000x 2=+=)() 0IRR)(1x)C -(1IRR)(1x)C -(1C 2210=++++ 0IRR)(10)0.45)(4,00-(1IRR)(10)0.45)(3,50-(13,0002=++++- Now, find MIRR using either trial and error or the IRR function (on afinancial calculator or Excel). We find that MIRR = 23.53%.It is not clear that either of these modified IRRs is at all meaningful.Rather, these calculations seem to highlight the fact that MIRR really hasno economic meaning. Est. time: 11 - 15 18. Maximize:NPV = 6,700x W + 9,000x X + 0X Y – 1,500x Z subject to: 10,000x W + 0x X + 10,000x Y + 15,000x Z ≤ 20,00010,000x W + 20,000x X – 5,000x Y – 5,000x Z ≤ 20,0000x W - 5,000x X – 5,000x Y – 4,000x Z ≤ 20,0000 ≤ x W ≤ 10 ≤ x X ≤ 10 ≤ x Z ≤ 1Using Excel Spreadsheet Add-in Linear Programming Module:Optimized NPV = $13,450with x W = 1; x X = 0.75; x Y = 1 and x Z = 0If financing available at t = 0 is $21,000:Optimized NPV = $13,500with x W = 1; x X = (23/30); x Y = 1 and x Z = (2/30)Here, the shadow price for the constraint at t = 0 is $50, the increase in NPV for a $1,000 increase in financing available at t = 0.In this case, the program viewed x Z as a viable choice even though the NPV ofProject Z is negative. The reason for this result is that Project Z provides apositive cash flow in periods 1 and 2.If the financing available at t = 1 is $21,000:Optimized NPV = $13,900with x W = 1; x X = 0.8; x Y = 1 and x Z = 0Hence, the shadow price of an additional $1,000 in t =1 financing is $450.Est. time: 11 - 15。
罗斯《公司理财》(第11版)笔记和课后习题答案详解
精研学习>网>>>免费试用百分之20资料全国547所院校视频及题库全收集考研全套>视频资料>课后答案>历年真题>全收集本书是罗斯的《公司理财》(第11版)(机械工业出版社)的学习辅导书。
本书遵循该教材的章目编排,包括8篇,共分31章,每章由两部分组成:第一部分为复习笔记;第二部分为课(章)后习题详解。
本书具有以下几个方面的特点:(1)浓缩内容精华,整理名校笔记。
本书每章的复习笔记对本章的重难点进行了整理,并参考了国内名校名师讲授罗斯的《公司理财》的课堂笔记,因此,本书的内容几乎浓缩了经典教材的知识精华。
(2)精选考研真题,强化知识考点。
部分考研涉及到的重点章节,选择经典真题,并对相关重要知识点进行了延伸和归纳。
(3)解析课后习题,提供详尽答案。
国内外教材一般没有提供课(章)后习题答案或者答案很简单,本书参考国外教材的英文答案和相关资料对每章的习题进行了详细的分析。
(4)补充相关要点,强化专业知识。
一般来说,国外英文教材的中译本不太符合中国学生的思维习惯,有些语言的表述不清或条理性不强而给学习带来了不便,因此,对每章复习笔记的一些重要知识点和一些习题的解答,我们在不违背原书原意的基础上结合其他相关经典教材进行了必要的整理和分析。
本书提供电子书及打印版,方便对照复习。
第1篇概论第1章公司理财导论1.1复习笔记1.2课后习题详解第2章会计报表与现金流量2.1复习笔记2.2课后习题详解第3章财务报表分析与长期计划3.1复习笔记3.2课后习题详解第2篇估值与资本预算第4章折现现金流量估价4.1复习笔记4.2课后习题详解第5章净现值和投资评价的其他方法5.1复习笔记5.2课后习题详解第6章投资决策6.1复习笔记6.2课后习题详解第7章风险分析、实物期权和资本预算7.1复习笔记7.2课后习题详解第8章利率和债券估值8.1复习笔记8.2课后习题详解第9章股票估值9.1复习笔记9.2课后习题详解第3篇风险第10章收益和风险:从市场历史得到的经验10.1复习笔记10.2课后习题详解第11章收益和风险:资本资产定价模型11.1复习笔记11.2课后习题详解第12章看待风险与收益的另一种观点:套利定价理论12.1复习笔记12.2课后习题详解第13章风险、资本成本和估值13.1复习笔记13.2课后习题详解第4篇资本结构与股利政策第14章有效资本市场和行为挑战14.1复习笔记14.2课后习题详解第15章长期融资:简介15.1复习笔记15.2课后习题详解第16章资本结构:基本概念16.1复习笔记16.2课后习题详解第17章资本结构:债务运用的限制17.1复习笔记17.2课后习题详解第18章杠杆企业的估价与资本预算18.1复习笔记18.2课后习题详解第19章股利政策和其他支付政策19.1复习笔记19.2课后习题详解第5篇长期融资第20章资本筹集20.1复习笔记20.2课后习题详解第21章租赁21.1复习笔记21.2课后习题详解第6篇期权、期货与公司理财第22章期权与公司理财22.1复习笔记22.2课后习题详解第23章期权与公司理财:推广与应用23.1复习笔记23.2课后习题详解第24章认股权证和可转换债券24.1复习笔记24.2课后习题详解第25章衍生品和套期保值风险25.1复习笔记25.2课后习题详解第7篇短期财务第26章短期财务与计划26.1复习笔记26.2课后习题详解第27章现金管理27.1复习笔记27.2课后习题详解第28章信用和存货管理28.1复习笔记28.2课后习题详解第8篇理财专题第29章收购与兼并29.1复习笔记29.2课后习题详解第30章财务困境30.1复习笔记30.2课后习题详解第31章跨国公司财务31.1复习笔记31.2课后习题详解。
完整版公司理财部分课后答案
Goal OF FirmN0.2, 3, 4, 5, 10.2. Not-for-Profit Firm GoalsChapter 1Suppose you were the financial manager of a not-for-profit business (anot-for-profit hospital, perhaps). What kinds of goals do you think would be appropriate?答:所有者权益的市场价值的最大化。
3. Goal of the Firm Evaluate the following statement: Managers should not focus on the current stockvalue because doing so will lead to an overemphasis on short-term profits at the expense of long-termprofits.答:错误;因为现在的股票价值已经反应了短期和长期的的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4. Ethics and Firm Goals Can the goal of maximizing the value of the stock conflict with other goals, suchas avoiding unethical or illegal behavior? In particular, do you think subjects like customer and employeesafety, the environment, and the general good of society fit in this framework, or are they essentiallyignored? Think of some specific scenarios to illustrate your answer. 答:有两种极端。
公司财务原理Principles of Corporate Finance(11th edition)_课后习题答案Chap005
CHAPTER 5Net Present Value and Other Investment CriteriaAnswers to Problem Sets1. a. A = 3 years, B = 2 years, C = 3 years.b. Bc. A, B, and Cd. B and C (NPV B = $3,378;NPV C = $2,405)e. True. The payback rule ignores all cash flows after the cutoff date,meaning that future years’ cash inflows are not considered. In addition, thepayback rule ignores the timing of cash inflows. For example, for apayback rule set at two years, a project with a payback period of one yearis given equal weight as a project with a payback period of two years.f. It will accept no negative-NPV projects, but will turn down some withpositive NPVs. A project can have positive NPV if all future cash flows areconsidered but still do not meet the stated cutoff period.Est. time: 6 – 102. Given the cash flows C0, C1, . . . , C T, IRR is defined by:It is calculated by trial and error, by financial calculators, or by spreadsheetprograms.Est. time: 1 – 53. a. $15,750; $4,250; $0b. 100%Est. time: 1 – 54. No (you are effectively “borrowing” at a rate of interest highe r than theopportunity cost of capital).Est. time: 1 – 55 a. Two. There are multiple internal rates of return for a project when thereare changes in the sign of the cash flows.b. −50% and +50%. The NPV for the project using both of these IRRs is 0.c. Yes, NPV = +14.6.Est. time: 1 – 56. The incremental flows from investing in Alpha rather than Beta are −200,000;+110,000; and 121,000. The IRR on the incremental cash flow is 10% (i.e., −200 + 110/1.10 + 121/1.102 = 0). The IRR on Beta exceeds the cost of capital and so does the IRR on the incremental investment in Alpha. Choose Alpha.Est. time: 1 – 57. 1, 2, 4, and 6The profitability index for each project is shown below:Start with the project with the highest profitability index and go from there. Project2 has the highest profitability index and has an initial investment of $5,000. Thenext highest profitability index is for Project 1, which has an initial investment of $10,000. The next highest is Project 4, which will cost $60,000 up front. So far we have spent $75,000. Projects 5 and 6 both have profitability indexes of .2, but we only have $15,000 left to spend, so we will add Project 6 to our list. This gives us Projects 1, 2, 4, and 6.Est. time: 1 – 58. a. $90.91.10)(1$10001000NPV A -=+-=$ $4,044.7310)(1.$1000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$4000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$10002000NPV 5432B +=+++++-=$ $39.4710)(1.$1000.10)(1$1000(1.10)$1000(1.10)$10003000NPV 542C +=++++-=$ Projects B and C have positive NPVs.b. Payback A = one yearPayback B = two yearsPayback C = four yearsc. A and Bd.$909.09.10)(1$1000PV 1A == The present value of the cash inflows for Project A never recovers the initialoutlay for the project, which is always the case for a negative NPV project.The present values of the cash inflows for Project B are shown in the thirdrow of the table below, and the cumulative net present values are shownin the fourth row:C 0C 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5 -2,000.00+1,000.00 +1,000.00 +4,000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.00 -2,000.00909.09 826.45 3,005.26 683.01 620.92 -1,090.91 -264.46 2,740.80 3,423.81 4,044.73Since the cumulative NPV turns positive between year 2 and year 3, the discounted payback period is:years 2.093,005.26264.462=+The present values of the cash inflows for Project C are shown in the third row of the table below, and the cumulative net present values are shown in the fourth row:C 0 C 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5-3,000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.000.00 +1,000.00 +1,000.00 -3,000.00 909.09 826.450.00 683.01 620.92 -2,090.91 -1,264.46 -1,264.46 -581.45 39.47Since the cumulative NPV turns positive between year 4 and year 5, thediscounted payback period is:years 4.94620.92581.454=+e. Using the discounted payback period rule with a cutoff of three years, thefirm would accept only Project B.Est. time: 11– 159. a. When using the IRR rule, the firm must still compare the IRR with theopportunity cost of capital. Thus, even with the IRR method, one mustspecify the appropriate discount rate.b. Risky cash flows should be discounted at a higher rate than the rate usedto discount less risky cash flows. Using the payback rule is equivalent tousing the NPV rule with a zero discount rate for cash flows before thepayback period and an infinite discount rate for cash flows thereafter.Est. time: 1 – 510.The two IRRs for this project are (approximately): –17.44% and 45.27%. Between these two discount rates, the NPV is positive.Est. time: 06 - 1011. a.The figure on the next page was drawn from the following points:Discount Rate 0% 10% 20%NPV A +20.00 +4.13 -8.33NPV B +40.00 +5.18 -18.98b. From the graph, we can estimate the IRR of each project from the pointwhere its line crosses the horizontal axis:IRR A = 13.1% and IRR B = 11.9%This can be checked by calculating the NPV for each project at theirrespective IRRs, which give an approximate NPV of 0.c.The company should accept Project A if its NPV is positive and higherthan that of Project B; that is, the company should accept Project A if thediscount rate is greater than 10.7% (the intersection of NPV A and NPV B onthe graph below) and less than 13.1% (the internal rate of return).d. The cash flows for (B–A) are:C0 = $ 0C1 = –$60C2 = –$60C3 = +$140Therefore:Discount Rate0% 10% 20%NPV B−A+20.00 +1.05 -10.65IRR B − A = 10.7%The company should accept Project A if the discount rate is greater than10.7% and less than 13.1%. As shown in the graph, for these discountrates, the IRR for the incremental investment is less than the opportunitycost of capital.Est. time: 06 - 1012. a. Because Project A requires a larger capital outlay, it ispossible that Project A has both a lower IRR and a higher NPV thanProject B. (In fact, NPV A is greater than NPV B for all discount rates lessthan 10%.) Because the goal is to maximize shareholder wealth, NPV isthe correct criterion.b. To use the IRR criterion for mutually exclusive projects, calculate theIRR for the incremental cash flows:C 0 C 1 C 2 IRRA -B −200 +110 +121 10%Because the IRR for the incremental cash flows exceeds the cost ofcapital, the additional investment in A is worthwhile. c. 81.86$(1.09)3001.09250400NPV 2A =++-= $79.10(1.09)1791.09140200NPV 2B =++-= Est. time: 06 - 1013. Use incremental analysis:C 1 C 2 C 3Current Arrangement −250,000 −250,000 +650,000Extra Shift −550,000 +650,000 0Incremental Flows −300,000 +900,000 -650,000The IRRs for the incremental flows are (approximately): 21.13% and 78.87%If the cost of capital is between these rates, Titanic should work the extra shift.Est. time: 06 - 1014.a. First calculate the NPV for each project.The NPV for Project D is: $=-+=D 20,000NPV 10,0008,181.821.10The NPV for Project E is:=-+=E 35,000NPV 20,000$11,818.181.10Profitability index = NPV/initial investment.For Project D: Profitability index = 8,181.82/10,000 = .82.For Project E: Profitability index = 11,818.18/20,000 −.59.b. Each project has a profitability index greater than zero, and so both areacceptable projects. In order to choose between these projects, we must use incremental analysis. For the incremental cash flows:0.3610,0003,63610,000)( 1.1015,00010,000PI D E ==--+-=- The increment is thus an acceptable project, and so the larger project should be accepted, i.e., accept Project E. (Note that, in this case, the better project has the lower profitability index.)Est. time: 11 - 1515. Using the fact that profitability index = (net present value / investment), we find:ProjectProfitability Index 10.22 2−0.02 30.17 40.14 50.07 60.18 7 0.12 Thus, given the budget of $1 million, the best the company can do is to acceptProjects 1, 3, 4, and 6.If the company accepted all positive NPV projects, the market value (compared to the market value under the budget limitation) would increase by the NPV ofProject 5 plus the NPV of Project 7: $7,000 + $48,000 = $55,000.Thus, the budget limit costs the company $55,000 in terms of its market value.Est. time: 06 - 1016. The IRR is the discount rate wh ich, when applied to a project’s cash flows, yieldsNPV = 0. Thus, it does not represent an opportunity cost. However, if eachproject’s cash flows could be invested at that project’s IRR, then the NPV of each project would be zero because the IRR would then be the opportunity cost ofcapital for each project. The discount rate used in an NPV calculation is theopportunity cost of capital. Therefore, it is true that the NPV rule does assume that cash flows are reinvested at the opportunity cost of capital.Est. time: 06 - 1017.a.C 0 = –3,000 C 0 = –3,000C 1 = +3,500 C 1 = +3,500C 2 = +4,000 C 2 + PV(C 3) = +4,000 – 3,571.43 = 428.57C 3 = –4,000 MIRR = 27.84%b. 2321 1.12C 1.12xC xC -=+ (1.122)(xC 1) + (1.12)(xC 2) = –C 3(x)[(1.122)(C 1) + (1.12C 2)] = –C 3)()2123 1.12C )(C (1.12C -x += 0.4501.12)(4,00)(3,500(1.124,000x 2=+=)() 0IRR)(1x)C -(1IRR)(1x)C -(1C 2210=++++ 0IRR)(10)0.45)(4,00-(1IRR)(10)0.45)(3,50-(13,0002=++++- Now, find MIRR using either trial and error or the IRR function (on afinancial calculator or Excel). We find that MIRR = 23.53%.It is not clear that either of these modified IRRs is at all meaningful.Rather, these calculations seem to highlight the fact that MIRR really hasno economic meaning. Est. time: 11 - 15 18. Maximize:NPV = 6,700x W + 9,000x X + 0X Y – 1,500x Z subject to: 10,000x W + 0x X + 10,000x Y + 15,000x Z ≤ 20,00010,000x W + 20,000x X – 5,000x Y – 5,000x Z ≤ 20,0000x W - 5,000x X – 5,000x Y – 4,000x Z ≤ 20,0000 ≤ x W ≤ 10 ≤ x X ≤ 10 ≤ x Z ≤ 1Using Excel Spreadsheet Add-in Linear Programming Module:Optimized NPV = $13,450with x W = 1; x X = 0.75; x Y = 1 and x Z = 0If financing available at t = 0 is $21,000:Optimized NPV = $13,500with x W = 1; x X = (23/30); x Y = 1 and x Z = (2/30)Here, the shadow price for the constraint at t = 0 is $50, the increase in NPV for a $1,000 increase in financing available at t = 0.In this case, the program viewed x Z as a viable choice even though the NPV ofProject Z is negative. The reason for this result is that Project Z provides apositive cash flow in periods 1 and 2.If the financing available at t = 1 is $21,000:Optimized NPV = $13,900with x W = 1; x X = 0.8; x Y = 1 and x Z = 0Hence, the shadow price of an additional $1,000 in t =1 financing is $450.Est. time: 11 - 15。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap
30.1 The new corporation issues $300,000 in new debt. The merger creates $100,000 ofgoodwill because the merger is a purchase.Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 580 Equity 700Goodwill 100Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.2 If the balance sheet for Philadelphia Pretzel shows assets at book value instead of marketvalue, the goodwill will be only $60,000 (=$300,000 - $240,000). Thus, the net fixed assetsare $620,000 (=$1,300,000 - $480,000 - $140,000 - $60,000).Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 620 Equity 700Goodwill 60Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.3Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $280Other assets 140 Long-term debt 100Net fixed assets 580 Equity 820Total assets $1,200 Total liabilities $1,200 30.4 a. False. Although the reasoning seems correct, the Stillman-Eckbo data do not supportthe monopoly power theory.b. True. When managers act in their own interest, acquisitions are an important controldevice for shareholders. It appears that some acquisitions and takeovers are theconsequence of underlying conflicts between managers and shareholders.c. False. Even if markets are efficient, the presence of synergy will make the value ofthe combined firm different from the sum of the values of the separate firms.Incremental cash flows provide the positive NPV of the transaction.d. False. In an efficient market, traders will value takeovers based on “Fundamentalfactors” regardless of the time horizon. Recall that the evidence as a whole suggestsefficiency in the markets. Mergers should be no different.e. False. The tax effect of an acquisition depends on whether the merger is taxable ornon-taxable. In a taxable merger, there are two opposing factors to consider, thecapital gains effect and the write-up effect. The net effect is the sum of these twoeffects.f. True. Because of the coinsurance effect, wealth might be transferred from thestockholders to the bondholders. Acquisition analysis usually disregards this effectand considers only the total value.30.530.6 a. The weather conditions are independent. Thus, the joint probabilities are theproducts of the individual probabilities.Possible states Joint probabilityRain Rain 0.1 x 0.1=0.01Rain Warm 0.1 x 0.4=0.04Rain Hot 0.1 x 0.5=0.05Warm Rain 0.4 x 0.1=0.04Warm Warm 0.4 x 0.4=0.16Warm Hot 0.4 x 0.5=0.20Hot Rain 0.5 x 0.1=0.05Hot Warm 0.5 x 0.4=0.20Hot Hot 0.5 x 0.5=0.25Since the state Rain Warm has the same outcome (revenue) as Warm Rain, theirprobabilities can be added. The same is true of Rain Hot, Hot Rain and Warm Hot,Hot Warm. Thus the joint probabilities arePossibleJoint probabilitystatesRain Rain 0.01Rain Warm 0.08Rain Hot 0.10Warm Warm 0.16Warm Hot 0.40Hot Hot 0.25The joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particularstate.Possible states Joint valueRain Rain $200,000Rain Warm 300,000Warm Warm 400,000Rain Hot 500,000Warm Hot 600,000Hot Hot 800,000b. Recall, if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of the assets.Thus, the value of the debt is the value of the company if the face value of the debt isgreater than the value of the company. If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value. Here the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt.Joint Prob. Joint Value Debt Value Stock Value0.01 $200,000 $200,000 $00.08 300,000 300,000 00.16 400,000 400,000 00.10 500,000 400,000 100,0000.40 600,000 400,000 200,0000.25 800,000 400,000 400,000c. To show that the value of the combined firm is the sum of the individual values, youmust show that the expected joint value is equal to the sum of the separate expected values.Expected joint value= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($500,000) +0.40($600,000) + 0.25($800,000)= $580,000Since the firms are identical, the sum of the expected values is twice the expectedvalue of either.Expected individual value = 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($400,000) = $290,000 Expected combined value = 2($290,000) = $580,000d. The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater thanthe value of the debt before the merger.Value of the debt before the merger:The value of debt for either company= 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($200,000) = $190,000Total value of debt before the merger = 2($190,000) = $380,000Value of debt after the merger= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($400,000) +0.40($400,000) +0.25($400,000)= $390,000The bondholders are $10,000 better off after the merger.30.7 The decision hinges upon the risk of surviving. The final decision should hinge on thewealth transfer from bondholders to stockholders when risky projects are undertaken.High-risk projects will reduce the expected value of the bondholders’ claims on the firm.The telecommunications business is riskier than the utilities business. If the total value of the firm does not change, the increase in risk should favor the stockholder. Hence,management should approve this transaction. Note, if the total value of the firm dropsbecause of the transaction and the wealth effect is lower than the reduction in total value, management should reject the project.30.8 If the market is “smart,” the P/E ratio will not be constant.a. Value = $2,500 + $1,000 = $3,500b. EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=($100 + $100)/200 =$1c. Price per share = Value/Total number of shares=$3,500/200 =$17.50d. If the market is “fooled,” the P/E ratio will be constant at $25.Value = P/E * Total number of shares= 25 * 200 = $5,000EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=$5,000/200 = $25.0030.9 a. After the merger, Arcadia Financial will have 130,000 [=10,000 + (50,000)(6/10)]shares outstanding. The earnings of the combined firm will be $325,000. The earningsper share of the combined firm will be $2.50 (=$325,000/130,000). The acquisition will increase the EPS for the stockholders from $2.25 to $2.50.b. There will be no effect on the original Arcadia stockholders. No synergies exist in thismerger since Arcadia is buying Coldran at its market price. Examining the relativevalues of the two firms sees the latter point.Share price of Arcadia = (16 * $225,000) / 100,000=$36Share price of Coldran = (10.8 * $100,000) / 50,000=$21.60The relative value of these prices is $21.6/$36 = 0.6. Since Coldran’s shareholdersreceive 0.6 shares of Arcadia for every share of Coldran, no synergies exist.30.10 a. The synergy will be the discounted incremental cash flows. Since the cash flows areperpetual, this amount isb. The value of Flash-in-the-Pan to Fly-by-Night is the synergy plus the current marketvalue of Flash-in-the-Pan.V = $7,500,000 + $20,000,000= $27,500,000c. Cash alternative = $15,000,000Stock alternative = 0.25($27,500,000 + $35,000,000)= $15,625,000d. NPV of cash alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,000,000=$12,500,000NPV of stock alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,625,000=$11,875,000e. Use the cash alternative, its NPV is greater.30.11 a. The value of Portland Industries before the merger is $9,000,000 (=750,000x12). Thisvalue is also the discounted value of the expected future dividends.$9,000,000 =r = 0.1025 = 10.25%r is the risk-adjusted discount rate for Portland’s expected future dividends.the value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.b. NPV = Gain - Cost= $14,815,385 - ($40x250, 000)= $4,815,385c. If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but thecost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $14,815,385= $29,815,385Cost = 0.375x$29,815,385= $11,180,769NPV= $14,815,385 - $11,180,769=$3,634,616d. The acquisition should be attempted with a cash offer since it provides a higher NPV.e. The value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.NPV = Gain-Cost=$11,223,529 - ($40x250,000)=$1,223,529If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but the cost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $11,223,529= $26,223,529Cost = 0.375 * $26,223,529=$9,833,823NPV = $11,223,529 - $9,833,823=$1,389,706The acquisition should be attempted with a stock offer since it provides a higher NPV.30.12 a. Number of shares after acquisition=30 + 15 = 45 milStock price of Harrods after acquisition = 1,000/45=22.22 poundsb. Value of Selfridge stockholders after merger:α * 1,000 = 300α = 30%New shares issued = 12.86 mil12.86:20 = 0.643:1The proper exchange ratio should be 0.643 to make the stock offer’s value to Selfridgeequivalent to the cash offer.30.13 To evaluate this proposal, look at the present value of the incremental cash flows.Cash Flows to Company A(in $ million)Year 0 1 2 3 4 5Acquisition of B -550Dividends from B 150 32 5 20 30 45Tax-loss carryforwards 25 25Terminal value 600Total -400 32 30 45 30 645 The additional cash flows from the tax-loss carry forwards and the proposed level of debt should be discounted at the cost of debt because they are determined with very littleuncertainty.The after-tax cash flows are subject to normal business risk and must be discounted at anormal rate.Beta coefficient for the bond = 0.25 = [(8%-6%)/8%].Beta coefficient for the company = 1 = [(0.25)2 + (1.25)(0.75)]Discount rate for normal operations:r = 6% + 8% (1) = 14%Discount rate for dividends:The new beta coefficient for the company, 1, must be the weighted average of the debtbeta and the stock beta.1 = 0.5(0.25) + 0.5(βs)βs = 1.75r = 6% + 8%(1.75) = 20%Because the NPV of the acquisition is negative, Company A should not acquireCompany B.30.14 The commonly used defensive tactics by target-firm managers include:i. corporate charter amendments like super-majority amendment or staggering theelection of board members.ii. repurchase standstill agreements.iii. exclusionary self-tenders.iv. going private and leveraged buyouts.v. other devices like golden parachutes, scorched earth strategy, poison pill, ..., etc.Mini Case: U.S.Steel’s case.You have 3 choices: tender, or do not tender or sell in the market. If you do sell your shares in the market, at some point, somebody else would need to make a decision in “tender” or “not tender” as well.It is important to recognize that the firm has about 60 million shares outstanding (since 30 million shares will give US Steel 50.1% of Marathon shares). Let’s consider the possible sellingthe market price.If you choose not to tender, and 30 million shares were tendered US Steel succeeds to gain50.1% control, you will only receive $85 a share. If you do tender, the price you will receive will be no worse than $85 a share and can be as high as $125 a share. Depending on the number of shares tendered, you will receive one of the following prices.If only 50.1% tendered, you will get $125 per share.If the shares tendered exceed 50.1% but less than 100%, you will get more than $105 ashare.If all 60 million shares were tendered, you will get $105 per share. (which is )It is clear that, in the above 3 cases, when you are not sure about whether US Steel will succeed or not, you will be better off to tender your shares than not tender. This is because at best, you will only receive $85 per share if you choose not to tender.版权申明本文部分内容,包括文字、图片、以及设计等在网上搜集整理。
公司财务原理Principles of Corporate Finance(11th edition)_课后习题答案Chap002
CHAPTER 2How to Calculate Present ValuesAnswers to Problem Sets1. If the discount factor is .507, then .507 x 1.126 = $1.Est time: 01-052. DF x 139 = 125. Therefore, DF =125/139 = .899.Est time: 01-053. PV = 374/(1.09)9 = 172.20.Est time: 01-054. PV = 432/1.15 + 137/(1.152) + 797/(1.153) = 376 + 104 + 524 = $1,003.Est time: 01-055. FV = 100 x 1.158 = $305.90.Est time: 01-056. NPV = −1,548 + 138/.09 = −14.67 (cost today plus the present value of theperpetuity).Est time: 01-057. PV = 4/(.14 − .04) = $40.Est time: 01-058. a. PV = 1/.10 = $10.b. Since the perpetuity will be worth $10 in year 7, and since that is roughlydouble the present value, the approximate PV equals $5.You must take the present value of years 1–7 and subtract from the totalpresent value of the perpetuity:PV = (1/.10)/(1.10)7 = 10/2= $5 (approximately).c. A perpetuity paying $1 starting now would be worth $10, whereas aperpetuity starting in year 8 would be worth roughly $5. The differencebetween these cash flows is therefore approximately $5. PV = $10 – $5=$5 (approximately).d. PV = C/(r−g) = 10,000/(.10-.05) = $200,000.Est time: 06-109. a. PV = 10,000/(1.055) = $7,835.26 (assuming the cost of the car does notappreciate over those five years).b. The six-year annuity factor [(1/0.08) – 1/(0.08 x (1+.08)6)] = 4.623. Youneed to set aside (12,000 × six-year annuity factor) = 12,000 × 4.623 =$55,475.c. At the end of six years you would have 1.086 × (60,476 - 55,475) = $7,935. Est time: 06-1010. a. FV = 1,000e.12 x 5 = 1,000e.6 = $1,822.12.b. PV = 5e−.12 x 8 = 5e-.96 = $1.914 million.c. PV = C (1/r– 1/re rt) = 2,000(1/.12 – 1/.12e.12 x15) = $13,912.Est time: 01-0511.a. FV = 10,000,000 x (1.06)4 = 12,624,770.b. FV = 10,000,000 x (1 + .06/12)(4 x 12) = 12,704,892.c. FV = 10,000,000 x e(4 x .06) = 12,712,492.Est time: 01-0512.a. PV = $100/1.0110 = $90.53.b. PV = $100/1.1310 = $29.46.c. PV = $100/1.2515 = $3.52.d. PV = $100/1.12 + $100/1.122 + $100/1.123 = $240.18.Est time: 01-05 13. a.⇒=+=0.905r 11DF 11r 1 = 0.1050 = 10.50%.b. 0.819.(1.105)1)r (11DF 2222==+=c. AF 2 = DF 1 + DF 2 = 0.905 + 0.819 = 1.724.d.PV of an annuity = C ⨯ [annuity factor at r % for t years]. Here:$24.65 = $10 ⨯ [AF 3]AF 3 = 2.465e. AF 3 = DF 1 + DF 2 + DF 3 = AF 2 + DF 32.465 = 1.724 + DF 3DF 3 = 0.741Est time: 06-1014. The present value of the 10-year stream of cash inflows is:6$886,739.6(1.14)0.1410.141 $170,000PV 10=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= Thus:NPV = –$800,000 + $886,739.66 = +$86,739.66At the end of five years, the factory’s value will be the present value of the fiveremaining $170,000 cash flows:6$583,623.7(1.14)0.1410.141 $170,000PV 5=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= Est time: 01-0515.$23,696.151.12$50,0001.12$68,0001.12$80,0001.12$92,0001.12$92,000 1.12$85,0001.12$80,0001.12$75,0001.12$57,0001.12$50,000$380,000(1.12)C NPV 109876543210t t t =++++++++++-==∑=0Est time: 01-0516.a.Let S t = salary in year t.∑=-=301t t1t (1.08)(1.05)40,000PV 3$760,662.5(1.08).05)-(.08(1.05).05)-(.081 43030=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=000,0b.PV(salary) x 0.05 = $38,033.13Future value = $38,033.13 x (1.08)30 = $382,714.30c.$38,980.30 (1.08)0.0810.081$C (1.08)0.0810.081 C $r)(1r 1r 1 C PV 2020t =⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⨯-=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=382,714.30382,714.30Est time: 06-10 17.Period Present Value 0-400,000.001 +100,000/1.12 = +89,285.712 +200,000/1.122 = +159,438.783+300,000/1.123 = +213,534.07Total = NPV = $62,258.56Est time: 01-0518.We can break this down into several different cash flows, such that the sum ofthese separate cash flows is the total cash flow. Then, the sum of the present values of the separate cash flows is the present value of the entire project. (All dollar figures are in millions.) ▪ Cost of the ship is $8 million PV = -$8 million▪Revenue is $5 million per year, and operating expenses are $4 million. Thus, operating cash flow is $1 million per year for 15 years.million. million $$8.559(1.08)0.0810.081 115=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=PV ▪ Major refits cost $2 million each and will occur at times t = 5 and t = 10. PV = (-$2 million)/1.085 + (-$2 million)/1.0810 = -$2.288 million. ▪Sale for scrap brings in revenue of $1.5 million at t = 15. PV = $1.5 million/1.0815 = $0.473 million.Adding these present values gives the present value of the entire project:NPV = -$8 million + $8.559 million - $2.288 million + $0.473 million NPV = -$1.256 millionEst time: 06-1019. a. PV = $100,000.b. PV = $180,000/1.125 = $102,136.83.c. PV = $11,400/0.12 = $95,000.d. 4.$107,354.2(1.12)0.1210.121 $19,000PV 10=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=e. PV = $6,500/(0.12 - 0.05) = $92,857.14.Prize (d) is the most valuable because it has the highest present value.Est time: 01-0520.Mr. Basset is buying a security worth $20,000 now, which is its present value. The unknown is the annual payment. Using the present value of an annuity formula, we have:$2,653.90 (1.08)0.0810.081000,20$C (1.08)0.0810.081 C 000,20$r)(1r 1r 1 C PV 1212t =⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⨯-=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=Est time: 01-0521. Assume the Zhangs will put aside the same amount each year. One approach tosolving this problem is to find the present value of the cost of the boat and then equate that to the present value of the money saved. From this equation, we can solve for the amount to be put aside each year.PV(boat) = $20,000/(1.10)5 = $12,418PV(savings) = annual savings ⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯5(1.10)0.1010.101 Because PV(savings) must equal PV(boat):Annual savings 418,12$ =⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯5(1.10)0.1010.101 Annual savings $3,276(1.10)0.1010.101$12,4185=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-= Another approach is to use the future value of an annuity formula:$20,0005.10)(1 savings Annual =⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡-+⨯10.1 Annual savings = $ 3,276Est time: 06-1022.The fact that Kangaroo Autos is offe ring “free credit” tells us what the cash payments are; it does not change the fact that money has time value. A 10% annual rate of interest is equivalent to a monthly rate of 0.83%:r monthly = r annual /12 = 0.10/12 = 0.0083 = 0.83%The present value of the payments to Kangaroo Autos is:8$8,93(1.0083)0.008310.00831$300$1,00030=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯+ A car from Turtle Motors costs $9,000 cash. Therefore, Kangaroo Autosoffers the better deal, i.e., the lower present value of cost.Est time: 01-05 23.The NPVs are: at 5%$117,687(1.05)$870,0001.05$30,000$700,000NPV 2=+--=⇒ at 10% $46,281(1.10)870,0001.10$30,000$700,000NPV 2=+--=⇒at 15% $16,068(1.15)870,0001.15$30,000$700,000NPV 2-=+--=⇒ The figure below shows that the project has zero NPV at about 13.5%.As a check, NPV at 13.5% is:$1.78(1.135)870,0001.135$30,000$700,000NPV 2-=+--=Est time: 06-10 24.a.This is the usual perpetuity, and hence:$1,428.570.07$100r C PV ===b. This is worth the PV of stream (a) plus the immediate payment of $100:PV = $100 + $1,428.57 = $1,528.57c.The continuously compounded equivalent to a 7% annually compoundedrate is approximately 6.77%, because:Ln(1.07) = 0.0677 ore 0.0677 = 1.0700 Thus:$1,477.100.0677$100r C PV ===Note that the pattern of payments in part (b) is more valuable than the pattern of payments in part (c). It is preferable to receive cash flows at the start of every year than to spread the receipt of cash evenly over the year; with the former pattern of payment, you receive the cash more quickly.Est time: 06-1025. a. PV = $1 billion/0.08 = $12.5 billion.b. PV = $1 billion/(0.08 – 0.04) = $25.0 billion.c. billion. $9.818(1.08)0.0810.081billion $1PV 20=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= d.The continuously compounded equivalent to an 8% annually compounded rate is approximately 7.7%, because:Ln(1.08) = 0.0770 ore 0.0770 = 1.0800 Thus:billion $10.203e 0.07710.0771billion $1PV )(0.077)(20=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= This result is greater than the answer in Part (c) because the endowmentis now earning interest during the entire year.Est time: 06-1026. With annual compounding: FV = $100 ⨯ (1.15)20 = $1,636.65.With continuous compounding: FV = $100 ⨯ e (0.15×20) = $2,008.55.Est time: 01-0527. One way to approach this problem is to solve for the present value of:(1) $100 per year for 10 years, and(2) $100 per year in perpetuity, with the first cash flow at year 11.If this is a fair deal, these present values must be equal, and thus we can solve for the interest rate (r ).The present value of $100 per year for 10 years is:⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=10r)(1(r)1r 1$100PV The present value, as of year 10, of $100 per year forever, with the first paymentin year 11, is: PV 10 = $100/r . At t = 0, the present value of PV 10 is:⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+=r $100r)(11PV 10 Equating these two expressions for present value, we have:⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯r $100r)(11r)(1(r)1r 1$1001010 Using trial and error or algebraic solution, we find that r = 7.18%.Est time: 06-1028. Assume the amount invested is one dollar.Let A represent the investment at 12%, compounded annually.Let B represent the investment at 11.7%, compounded semiannually. Let C represent the investment at 11.5%, compounded continuously.After one year:FV A = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.12)1= $1.1200FV B = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.0585)2 = $1.1204 FV C = $1 ⨯ e (0.115 ⨯ 1)= $1.1219After five years:FV A = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.12)5= $1.7623FV B = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.0585)10 = $1.7657 FV C = $1 ⨯ e (0.115 ⨯ 5)= $1.7771 After twenty years:FV A = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.12)20= $9.6463FV B = $1 ⨯ (1 + 0.0585)40 = $9.7193 FV C = $1 ⨯ e (0.115 ⨯ 20)= $9.9742 The preferred investment is C.Est time: 06-1029.Because the cash flows occur every six months, we first need to calculate the equivalent semiannual rate. Thus, 1.08 = (1 + r /2)2 => r = 7.846 semiannually compounded APR. Therefore the rate for six months is 7.846/2, or 3.923%:147,846039231039230103923010001000001009$).(..,$,$PV =⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯+=Est time: 06-1030. a. Each installment is: $9,420,713/19 = $495,827.$4,761,724(1.08)0.0810.081$495,827PV 19=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=b.If ERC is willing to pay $4.2 million, then:⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=19r)(1r 1r 1$495,827$4,200,000 Using Excel or a financial calculator, we find that r = 9.81%.Est time: 06-10 31. a.3$402,264.7(1.08)0.0810.081$70,000PV 8=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=b.Year Beginning-of-Year Balance ($) Year-End Interest on Balance ($) Total Year-End Payment ($) Amortization of Loan ($) End-of-Year Balance ($) 1 402,264.73 32,181.18 70,000.00 37,818.82 364,445.91 2 364,445.91 29,155.67 70,000.00 40,844.33 323,601.58 3 323,601.58 25,888.13 70,000.00 44,111.87 279,489.71 4 279,489.71 22,359.18 70,000.00 47,640.82 231,848.88 5 231,848.88 18,547.91 70,000.00 51,452.09 180,396.79 6 180,396.79 14,431.74 70,000.00 55,568.26 124,828.54 7 124,828.54 9,986.28 70,000.00 60,013.72 64,814.82864,814.825,185.1970,000.0064,814.810.01Est time: 06-1032. This is an annuity problem with the present value of the annuity equal to$2 million (as of your retirement date), and the interest rate equal to 8%with 15 time periods. Thus, your annual level of expenditure (C) is determined as follows:$233,659 (1.08)0.0810.081$2,000,000C (1.08)0.0810.081 C $2,000,000r)(1r 1r 1 C PV 1515t =⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⨯-=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯=With an inflation rate of 4% per year, we will still accumulate $2 million as of ourretirement date. However, because we want to spend a constant amount per year in real terms (R, constant for all t ), the nominal amount (C t ) must increase each year. For each year t : R = C t /(1 + inflation rate)t Therefore:PV [all C t ] = PV [all R ⨯ (1 + inflation rate)t ] = $2,000,000$2,000,0000.08)(1.04)0(1....08)0(10.04)(10.08)(1.04)0(1R 15152211=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+++++++++⨯ R ⨯ [0.9630 + 0.9273 + . . . + 0.5677] = $2,000,000 R ⨯ 11.2390 = $2,000,000 R = $177,952Alternatively, consider that the real rate is.03846.1=-++0.04)(1.08)0(1 Then, redoingthe steps above using the real rate gives a real cash flow equal to:$177,952=⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⨯-= (1.03846)0.0384610.038461$2,000,000C 15Thus C 1 = ($177,952 ⨯ 1.04) = $185,070, C 2 = $192,473, etc.Est time: 11-15 33. a.9$430,925.8(1.055)0.05510.0551$50,000PV 12=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯=b.The annually compounded rate is 5.5%, so the semiannual rate is:(1.055)(1/2) – 1 = 0.0271 = 2.71%Since the payments now arrive six months earlier than previously:PV = $430,925.89 × 1.0271 = $442,603.98Est time: 06-1034. In three years, the balance in the mutual fund will be:FV = $1,000,000 × (1.035)3 = $1,108,718The monthly shortfall will be: $15,000 – ($7,500 + $1,500) = $6,000. Annual withdrawals from the mutual fund will be: $6,000 × 12 = $72,000. Assume the first annual withdrawal occurs three years from today, when the balance in the mutual fund will be $1,108,718. Treating the withdrawals as an annuity due, we solve for t as follows:r)(1r)(1r 1r 1C PV t +⨯⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡+⨯-⨯= 1.035(1.035)0.03510.0351$72,000$1,108,718t ⨯⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯= Using Excel or a financial calculator, we find that t = 21.38 years.Est time: 06-10 35. a. PV = 2/.12 = $16.667 million.b. PV = 939.14$=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯20(1.12)0.1210.121$2million.c. PV = 2/(.12-.03) = $22.222 milliond. PV = 061.18$=⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡⨯-⨯2020(1.12).03)-(0.12 1.03.03)-(0.121$2million.Est time: 06-1036. a. First we must determine the 20-year annuity factor at a 6% interest rate.20-year annuity factor = [1/.06 – 1/.06(1.06)20) = 11.4699.Once we have the annuity factor, we can determine the mortgagepayment.Mortgage payment = $200,000/11.4699 = $17,436.91.b.c. Nearly 69% of the initial loan payment goes toward interest($12,000/$17,436.79 = .6882). Of the last payment, only 6% goestoward interest (987.24/17,436.79 = .06).After 10 years, $71,661.21 has been paid off ($200,000 – remainingbalance of $128,338.79). This represents only 36% of the loan. Thereason that less than half of the loan has paid off during half of its lifeis due to compound interest.Est time: 11-1537. a. Using the Rule of 72, the time for money to double at 12% is 72/12,or six years. More precisely, if x is the number of years for money todouble, then:(1.12)x = 2Using logarithms, we find:x (ln 1.12) = ln 2 x = 6.12 yearsb.With continuous compounding for interest rate r and time period x :e rx = 2Taking the natural logarithm of each side:rx = ln(2) = 0.693Thus, if r is expressed as a percent, then x (the time for money to double) is: x = 69.3/(interest rate, in percent).Est time: 06-10 38.Spreadsheet exercise.Est time: 11-1539.. a. This calls for the growing perpetuity formula with a negative growth rate(g = –0.04):million $14.290.14million$20.04)(0.10million $2PV ==--=b.The pipeline’s value at year 20 (i.e., at t = 20), assuming its cash flows lastforever, is:gr g)(1C g r C PV 2012120-+=-= With C 1 = $2 million, g = –0.04, and r = 0.10:million $6.3140.14million$0.8840.140.04)(1million)($2PV 2020 ==-⨯=Next, we convert this amount to PV today, and subtract it from the answerto Part (a):million $13.35(1.10)million$6.314million $14.29PV 20=-=Est time: 06-10。
公司理财第十一版课后答案
公司理财第十一版课后答案第一章第1篇概论第]章公司理财导论1.1复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。
公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置,它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下,就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。
从决策角度来讲,公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策;从管理角度来讲,公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。
公司理财的基本内容包括:投资决策(资本预算)、融资决策(资本结构)、短期财务管理(营运资本)。
1.资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表,它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系,按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序,把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列,并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。
资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。
2.资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系,它有广义和狭义之分。
广义资本结构,亦称财务结构,指企业全部资本的构成,既包括长期资本,也包括短期资本(主要指短期债务资本)。
狭义资本结构,主要指企业长期资本的构成,而不包括短期资本。
通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系(D/E)或债务资本在总资本中的构成(D/A)。
准确地讲,企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。
资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。
筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。
资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。
企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素,运用适当方法优化资本结构,从而实现最佳资本结构。
资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本,获取财务杠杆利益。
3.财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员,其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。
公司理财罗斯课后习题答案
第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论决策风险项目。
此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理层实施有效的监督机制。
公司理财第十一版课后答案
公司理财第十一版课后答案第一部分复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。
公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置,它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下,就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。
从决策角度来讲,公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策;从管理角度来讲,公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。
公司理财的基本内容包括:投资决策(资本预算)、融资决策(资本结构)、短期财务管理(营运资本)。
1资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表,它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系,按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序,把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列,并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。
资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。
2资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系,它有广义和狭义之分。
广义资本结构,亦称财务结构,指企业全部资本的构成,既包括长期资本,也包括短期资本(主要指短期债务资本)。
狭义资本结构,主要指企业长期资本的构成,而不包括短期资本。
通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系(D/E)或债务资本在总资本中的构成(D/A)。
准确地讲,企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。
资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。
筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。
资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。
企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素,运用适当方法优化资本结构,从而实现最佳资本结构。
资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本,获取财务杠杆利益。
3财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员,其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。
刘力版公司财务课后习题答案
刘力版公司财务课后习题答案公司财务课后习题答案 第二章 第三章 第四章 第五章 /\ •厶、 、、> : 第六章 第七章 第九章 第十章 第十一章 第十二章 第十三章第十四章 第十五章 ,、 、、>: 第十六章第十七章资金的时间价值习题答案 ................ 债务及其估值 .......................... 股票估值习题答案 ......................资本投资与决策指标 ....................资本预算分析习题答案 .................. 风险与收益与证券市场理论 .............. 资本成本 .............................. 权益资本筹资习题答案 .................. 债务与租赁融资 ..................... 资本结构分析习题答案 ...............分配政策 ........................... 期权与公司财务习题答案 ............. 营运资金管理 ....................... 企业的筹资组合与财务计划习题答案 企业并购、分立与重组 .................... 8 10 13 15 18 19 20 23 26 29 30 32 34第二章资金的时间价值习题答案计算题:1 . 解答:FV = PVx(1 +r)nFV = 5,000x(1 +1O%)10=12,970(元)2.3.(2)(4)解答:(1)解答:(1)FVFVFV= 8,000x(1+8%)7= 775x(1 +12%)12=13,712(元)=3019.4(元)= 21,000x(1+5%)5 =26,796(元)FV = PVx(l +r)ln(1039. 5)FVPV=(1 +r)500ln( 1 +5%15年ln(53.87)35ln( 1 +9%ln(298.6) 100ln(ln(1 + 20%78.76)53ln( 1 +2%20年FV = PVx(1+r)nFVPV=(1 +r)nJ948V 500-1 12%422.1V 300-1In 1 +r)FVVPVV 200= 500x(FVIFA 5%,10)x(1 +5%)= 66035(元)方法二:FV =A(FVIFAr, n +1)-1】= 6603.5(兀)(2) FV = 100 M FVIFA 10%5)= 100X6.105=610.5(元)(3)方法一:FV 二 A(FVIFAr .n )(1 +r)=35 x(FVIFA 7%7) x(1 + 7%) = 324.1(元)方法一.FV -A^FVIFAr,n+1)-1]2J 280^ _ 仁9% 4.解答: PV =FV X 1(1+r)n(1) PV800 X (1 + 10%) y = 308.43 元)5.解答: (1) PVPVPV方法300 X 1(1十5%厂 235.04 元)1000 X(占=789.4丫 元)10心(^^= 2325元)FV = A(FVIFAr .n)(1 +r) 20%9.解答:= 324.1(元)方法一.FV =25x (FVIFA2%,3)x (1+2%)= 78.03(元)方法一.FV =A (FVIFAr, n +1)-1]= 78.03(元)=2,500 X PVIFA7%,10= 2,500x7.024 = 17,560(元)=70 天 PVIFA3%,3 = 198.03(元) =280X PVIFA7%,7 = 280咒 5.389 = 1508.92(元) =500 X PVIFA10%,10 = 3072 5(元)= 644.44(元)A = PV / PVIFAr , n = (500,000 -150,000)/ PVIFA8%,20=35,648. 45(元)7.解答: 年:15,000x (1 +20%) =18,000(册)第2年:15,000X (1+20%)2 =21,600(册)第3年:15,000X (1+20%)3 =25,920(册)8.解答:6.解答:(1)PV =A 、PVIFAr ,n PV =AX PVIFAr ,nPVPV=3,979.47 (元)=38,781.72 (元)(年底存入,而非年初存入,因此第一年并未计息2万元现金的终值300 = 100 X PVIFAr ,5P VIFAr ,5 = 3查表得:r=19.87%IRR=9.58%第三章 债务及其估值1. 2. 3.4.(1)市场利率为 12%时,三种债券的价格等于票面价值,=1000A 债券:B 债券:C 债券: (2)市场利率为20%时,同理:A 债券:B 债券:C 债券:10.解答:(1)11.解答:10年期零息债券:75. 当债券的票面利率和票面价值相同时,债券的到期期限越长,债券的久期越大,债券面临的利率风险 越大,因而债券的价格变动越大。
罗斯公司理财第11版笔记和课后习题详解
罗斯《公司理财》(第11版)笔记和课后习题详解,益星学习网提供全套资料第一部分复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。
公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置,它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下,就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。
从决策角度来讲,公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策;从管理角度来讲,公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。
公司理财的基本内容包括:投资决策(资本预算)、融资决策(资本结构)、短期财务管理(营运资本)。
1资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表,它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系,按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序,把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列,并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。
资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。
2资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系,它有广义和狭义之分。
广义资本结构,亦称财务结构,指企业全部资本的构成,既包括长期资本,也包括短期资本(主要指短期债务资本)。
狭义资本结构,主要指企业长期资本的构成,而不包括短期资本。
通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系(D/E)或债务资本在总资本中的构成(D/A)。
准确地讲,企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。
资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。
筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。
资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。
企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素,运用适当方法优化资本结构,从而实现最佳资本结构。
资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本,获取财务杠杆利益。
3财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员,其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。
罗斯《公司理财》(第11版)笔记和课后习题详解
罗斯《公司理财》(第11版)笔记和课后习题详解来源微♥公号精研学习网第1篇概论第1章公司理财导论1.1复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。
公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置,它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下,就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。
从决策角度来讲,公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策;从管理角度来讲,公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。
公司理财的基本内容包括:投资决策(资本预算)、融资决策(资本结构)、短期财务管理(营运资本)。
1资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表,它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系,按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序,把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列,并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。
资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。
2资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系,它有广义和狭义之分。
广义资本结构,亦称财务结构,指企业全部资本的构成,既包括长期资本,也包括短期资本(主要指短期债务资本)。
狭义资本结构,主要指企业长期资本的构成,而不包括短期资本。
通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系(D/E)或债务资本在总资本中的构成(D/A)。
准确地讲,企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。
资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。
筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。
资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。
企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素,运用适当方法优化资本结构,从而实现最佳资本结构。
资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本,获取财务杠杆利益。
3财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员,其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。
财务会计英语版课后答案
Chapter 1Page 81.Classify following items as either an expense (E),a revenue(R),an asset(A),or a liability( L);Cash, buildings, salaries of the sales force, $5 owed to a company for work performed, Mortgage to a bank, sales.Answer:Cash—A Buildings—A Salaries of the sales force—E$5 owed—L Mortgage to a bank—L Sales—R2. Classify each of the following as n operating (O), bank (I) , or financing (F) in a statement of cash flows; Wage paid to workers, Cash received form a bank in the form of a mortgage, cash dividends paid to a supplier of inventory, Cash paid to purchase a new machine.Answer:Wage paid—O Cash of mortgage-- F Cash dividends paid -- FCash paid to supplier of inventory—O Cash paid to purchase a machine—IPage111.List several economic decisions that rely on accounting information.Answer:·Whether to grant a loan·How much to pay for a share of common stock.·Whether to grant a rate increase to an electric utility·How much in damages the loser of a lawsuit must pay ·How much of a bonus to pay a plant manager·Whether to enter a new market2. Why do financial statements have footnotes, and what kinds of information might you find in them?Answer:Financial statements have footnotes because financial disclosure is a complex business. The notes tell us some of the specifics about the company environment , what accounting methods the company has used, what the accounting numbers might be if alternative methods had been used, and some of the major contingencies that are not formally included in the statement proper.Page 201.Describe the process of setting accounting standards. What are the roles of all the parties you mention?Answer:The FASB, a private, not-for-profit organization ,sets GAAP in the U.S. It publicly declares an agenda, promulgates "ExposureDrafts" of proposed standards, holds open meetings, and invites input from interested parties. The FASB has been delegated this authority by the SEC, a government agency with legal authority to determine GAAP.2.Think of an example, like the executive compensation example in the chapter, where incentives might exist to bias accounting numbers one way or another.Answer:There are other examples, but here is one that is different. A taxpayer has incentives to bias reported income downward in order to minimize income tax payments. However, it is important to understand that tax accounting rules are different from GAAP, and this book is about GAAP. Chapter 14 covers GAAP for taxes in more detail.Other examples include:·An entrepreneur seeking a loan from a bank or funding from a venture capitalist might have incentives to bias accounting numbers to look favorable.·A firm that is subject to scrutiny for earning excess profits(e.g.,an oil company)might have incentives to bias accounting numbers to look less favorable.·A utility subject to rate regulation might have an incentive tobias accounting numbers to look less favorable in order to gain more generous increases in its rates. (At this writing, there is a rather severe controversy about whether electric utilities in California are genuinely in financial difficulty and should be allowed to continue to impose large rate increase.)Chapter 2Page 381 Define assets, liabilities, and equities.Gave an example ofeach. How are assets valued? How are liabilities valued? Answer:An asset is a probable future economic benefit obtained or controlled by an entity as a result of a past transaction. Cash marketable securities, accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid expenses, patents, copyrights, trademarks, and property, plant and equipment are all examples of assets. A liability isa probable future sacrifice of economic benefits arisingfrom present obligations of an entity to transfer assets or provide services as a result of a past transaction or event.Accounts payable, accrued liabilities, unearned revenues, warranties, and bonds payable are all examples of liabilities.Accounting valuation of assets uses severaldifferent methods, including market value, expected realizable value, lower of cost or market, present value of future cash flows, and historical cost. Accounting valuation of liabilities is the expected amount that will be paid, perhaps adjusted for the time value of money.2. Explain what is meant by the entity concept. Answer:The entity is the person or organization about which accounting's financial history is being written.3 .A company signs a ten-year employee contract with a vicepresident. The salary is $ per year, guaranteed. Is this contract an asset? Would it appear on the balance sheet?Explain.Answer:The rights conveyed by the contrat may be an asset from an economic point of view, but they are not an asset under GAAP. The contract would not appear on the balance sheet as an asset, because GAAP does not record executory contracts, which are contracts that require future performance form both parties. That is ,GAAP views the contract as determining what services will be provided, no asset is recognized under GAAP.(Neither is a liability for payment recognized until services have beenperformed.)4 .A company purchased a parcel of land 10 years ago at a cost of $.The land has recently been appraised at $. At what value is the land carried in the balance sheet? How does the appraisal affect the carrying value in the balance sheet? Answer:The land is on the balance sheet at its historical cost of $.The carrying value of the land is unaffected by the appraisal. Page 421、Define debit and credit .What kind of balance ,debit or credit ,would you expect to find in the inventory T-account?In the Common Stock T-account?Answer:A debit is an entry on the left side of a T-account. A credit is an entry on the right side of a T-account. We would except to find a debit balance in Inventory, and credit balances in Bonds Payable and Common Stock. The reason is the convention that increases in assets are debits and increases in liabilities and equities are credits.2、If the trial balances, it means that you have analyzed all the effects of transactions correctly. True or false?Explain.Answer:False. A balanced means that the trial balance is consistent, not necessarily correct. For example. If an arbitrary entry is made that debits Cash and credits Common Stock for an equal amount, the trial balance will balance but it will be wrong. An accounting can receipt of cash and the issuance of common stock, but it alone can not make cash or additional common shares.3﹑Suppose Web sell leases a portion of its space to another company. Web sell’s accounts are debited and credited to record this transaction?Answer:Web sell would debit Cash and a liability, Rent Received in Advance, for the prepayment.Chapter 3Page 571. Define revenue and expense. How does one decide to list an item as revenue in an income statement? What is matching? Answer:Revenues are increases in net assets resulting from operations over a period of time .Expense are decreases in net assets resulting from operations over a period of time .Revenue isrecognized the earnings process is substantially complete , a transaction2. Give an example not found in the text , of an expense that is paid for in cash in a prior accounting period .In a subsequent accounting period.Answer:There are many allowable responses . An example is a patent that is purchased and paid for in one year and used in next .3. Give an example, not found in the text , of a revenue that is received in cash in a prior accounting period . In a subsequent accounting period .Answer:An example is a house painting contractor that receives payment for one-third of the contract price before beginning the painting .4. Explain why it is right to think of an asset as a cost and an expense as an expired cost .Answer:An asset is a future benefit . And there is an opportunity cost associated with not selling it for cash or exchanging it to settleChapter 6Page 120:1.The following table lists the adjustments and has an X in thecolumn indicating the approach:2. We first take adjustment for prepaid insurance and insurance expense. It would be easy to think of this adjustment as focusing on how much of the insurance coverage remained, as opposed to how much was used. In fact, the same type of logic could be used---computing a monthly rate for the coverage and applying that to the months reminding, instead of the months used.Now take adjustment for depreciation expense and accumulated depreciation. Estimating the value of the equipment at year end might be easy, for example, if there is a market for used equipment, or very difficult, for example, if the equipment was specially designed for Websell. Once a value estimate for the equipment at year end is obtained, depreciation expense would be the change in value over the year.Page 1231.$5000×(1+0.06)^10=$5000×1.79085=$8954.242.$5000×(1+0.06/2)^(10×2)=$5000×(1+0.03)^20=$5000×1.80611=$9030.563. $1000×(1.05)^3+$1000×(1.05)^2+$1000×(1.05)^1=$3310.134. ($1000×0.05/5)^13+$1000×(1+0.05/5)^10+$1000×(1+0.05/5)^5=($1000×(1.01)^15)+($1000×(1.01)^10)+($1000×(1.01)^5) =$1160.97+$1104.62+$1051.01=$3316.6Page 1241.x×.(1.07)^3=$3000 x=$3000/(1.07)^3=$2448.892. Calculate the present value at 10% of $1300 received two years from now. If that is greater than $1000, you are better offwith the $1300 to be received in two years. If its present value is less that $1000, you better off with $1000 now. $1300/(1.10)^2=$1074.38Therefore, you are better off receiving $1300 two years from now.Another way to do this problem is to take the future value at 10% of $1000. At the end of two years, the $1000 would compound up to:$1000×(1.10)^2=$1210,Which is less than you would have at that point if you took the $1300.3.The most I would be willing to pay is the present value at 8% of the stream of $1000 payment:$1000/(1.08)^1+$1000/(1,08)^2+$1000/(1,08)^3=$925.926+857.339+793.832=$ 2577.1(rounded)Chapter 8Page 1681.Aging takes the balance in accounts receivable at the end of the year, and sorts it by how long ago the transaction occurred that gave rise to that receivable. Experience has shown that “older” accounts have less likelihood of ever being collected.Percentages of likely uncollectibles for each category are applied to the totals in that category , and the results added to obtain an estimate of the allowance for uncollectibles required to value properly the estimated amount that will be collected from the accounts receivable. The bad debts expense then falls out as a “plug” in the allowance for uncollectibles.The percentage-of-sales method just estimates bad debt expense as a percent of sales, and plug the balance in the allowance account.2. Cash (118)Accounts receivable (118)12/31/2003(to recognize collection of cash from companies owing service co. from 2002 sales)Allow ance for doubtful accounts (7)Accounts receivable (7)12/31/2003(to write off accounts we know will not be collected) Ac counts receivable (125)Sales reven ue (125)12/31/2003(to recognize revenue and to anticipate collection of the receivable)If we focus on recording the bad debts expense that is associated with billings for 2003, we would record.06×$=$7500 in baddebts expense.B ad debts expense………………………………………7.5 Allowan ce for doubtful accounts…………………………7.5 12/31/2003(to record bad debt expense in anticipation of not collecting 100% of receivables)Method one: focus on the percentage of sales expected not to be collected.Allowance for doubtful accounts(10.5 is the “plug”,i.e., the number that drops out)Now we move to 2004, where events now proceed as expected . Collections are $117.5 thousand. Cash………………………………………………..117.5 Accounts receivable…………………………………117.512/31/2004(to recognize collection of cash form companies owing service co. from 2003 sales)Allowance for doubtful ac counts………………………7.5 Accounts receivable………………………………….7.512/31/2004(to write off accounts we know will not be collected)Accounts receivable (125)Sales revenue (125)12/31/2004(to recognize revenue and to anticipate collection of the receivable)If we focus on recording the bad debts expense that is associated with billings for 2004, we would record.06×$=$7500 in bad debts expense.Bad debts expense……………………………………7.5 Allowance for doubtful acco unts…………………………7.5 12/31/2003(to record bad debt expense in anticipation of not collecting 100% of receivables)The allowance for doubtful accounts using the peentage-of-sales method looks like this:Method one: focus on the percentage of sales expected not to be collected.Allowance for doubtful accountsOnly the entries recording bad debt expense are different using the aging method. Instead of the above entries recording bad debt expense, we would have the following analysis: Each year, we would adjust the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts so that the net receivable ends up at $. That is, we would solve $-X=$,and find that the ending balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts must be $7500.Analyzing the account, we would determine that at 12/31/2003 we must add $4500 to the allowance for doubtful accounts: Bad debts expense………………………………..4.5 Allowanc e for doubtful accounts…………………….4.512/31/2004(to record bad debt expense in anticipation of not collecting 100% of receivables)At 12/31/2004, we must add $7500 to the allowance for doubtful accounts:Bad debts expense………………………………..7.5 Allowan ce for doubtful accounts…………………….7.512/31/2004(to record bad debt expense in anticipation of not collecting 100% of receivables)Using aging, the allowance for doubtful accounts T-account looks like this:Method two: focus on the ending balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts.Allowance for doubtful accountsChapter 9Page 1831.LIFO is last-in first-out. It means that in computing ending inventoryand cost of goods sold, the cost of items sold is assigned in reverse chronological order of their purchase, beginning from the most regent items purchased in a period. FIFO is first-in, first-out .It means that in computing ending inventory and cost of goods sold, the cost of items sold is assigned in chronological order of their purchase, beginning from the goods on hand at the beginning of the period. Average cost means that in computing ending inventory and cost of goods sold, the average unit cost of the beginning inventory and items purchased in a period is used to determine the cost of goods sold and remaininginventory.2.Yes, it is still a positive net present value project. In fact, its netpresent value is higher than when the purchase was made at$1.05 per unit, since the cash outflow is reduced but the cash inflow remains the same. The cash outflow on 12/31/01 when purchases are at $0.95 per unit is $114.This means the net cash flow at 12/31/01 is ($4) instead of ($16),and the NPV for Widget Company is:NPV=-100-$4/1.1+$10/ (1.1^2) +$144/ (1.1^3) =$12.82First, we redo the case of FIFO. The inventory T-account is:Widget Co. Inventory Account under FIFO Flow AssumptionInventory (FIFO)Ending inventory values can be read from the above T-account. Net incomes are:Widget Incomes using FIFONow we redo the case of FIFO. First, the inventory T-account is: Widget Co. Inventory Account under FIFO Flow AssumptionInventory (FIFO)Ending inventory values can be read from the above T-account. Net incomes are:Page 186To calculate the market-to-book ratios and accounting returns on equity: Market-to-book Ratios under Average CostAccounting Rates of Return under Average CostCollecting the results for FIFO from the chapter and these results for average cost, we have:Market-to-book Ratios under Various Cost Flow AssumptionAccounting Rates of Return under Various Cost Flow AssumptionAs is apparent, the market-to-book ratios and accounting rates of return for average cost are between for LIFO and FIFO.2. Because it has more recent costs on the balance sheet in the inventory account, FIFO has market-to-book ratios closer to 1regardless of whether prices rise or fall.Chapter 10Page 1961. The total profit on the transaction is the sales price of $880.00 less the original cost of $734.03:Sales price of securities $880.00Less : original cost ($735.03)Profit on transaction $144.97The cash flows were: $735.03 out on January1, 2001, and $880.00 in on January 3, 2003.There were profit in 2001, 2002, and 2003.In 2001, therewas a profit of $81.17.In 2003,there was a profit of $5.00.2. The unadjusted book value of the security on December 31,2002 was $793.83.If the market value of the security on that date was $790.00,an adjustment reducing its carrying value by $3.83 is required to write it down to its market value: Unrealized loss on market value securities-trading ……3.83 Marketable securities –trading ………… 3.83 If the security were sold for $810.00 on January 3, 2003, the entry would be:Cash ………………………………810.00Marketable securities –trading ………………790.00Gain on marketable securities-trading …………20.001/03/2003(To record the sale of the Marketable securities—trading )Page 1981. When a securities is classified as trading security, profits or losses show up on the income statement in every period from when the security is purchased until when it is sold. when a security is classified as available-for-sale ,profits or losses only show up on the income statement in the period in which the security is sold.2. the unadjusted book value of the security on December31,2002 was $793.83.If the market value of the security on that date was $790.00,an adjustment reducing it’s carrying value by $3.83 is required to write it down to it’s market value. however unlike the trading security case ,the unrealized loss is an equity account ,not a temporary account:Unrealized loss on marketable securities-available-for-sale 3.38 Marketable securities –trading ………………3.83To record the sale of the security for $810.00 on January 3,2003: Cash ………810.00Unrealized gain on marketable securities-available-for-sale(58.80-3.83) ………54.97Marketable securities-trading …………790.00Realized gain on marketable securities-available-for-sale ……………74.9712/31/2002(To mark-to-market the Marketable securities—available-for-sale)Chapter 111.a. Under straight-line depreciation, the depreciation expense each year is$600-$100/5 years=$100 per year.b. Under double-declining balance depreciation, the depreciation expense each year is given in the following table:c. Under sum-of-year’-digits depreciation, the depreciation expense each year is given in the following table:Sum-of years’-digits depreciation2. Intangible assets are most often shown in one line that is cost net of amortization. Tangible assets are sometimes shown in three lines: cost , accumulated depreciation, and net .3. Economic depreciation is the change in the economic value of the asset. Economic depreciation can be appreciation when the asset increases in value. We seen this already with marketable debt securities, which sometimes increase in valuebecause of unpaid interest4.It is easy and fulfills the requirement of GAAP to provide depreciation using a systematic and rational method. No GAAP depreciation method likely correctly reflects economic depreciation anyway ,so a simple expedient may be good enough.1.Sraight-line depreciation is $100 per year ($300/3 years).Double-declining balance depreciation is given in the following table:2.For straight-line depreciation,the entry is the same each year:Depreciation expense (100)Accumulateddepreciation (100)For double-declining balance depreciation,the entries are: Year1Depr eciation expense (200)Accu mulated depreciation (200)Year2Depreciation expense………………………………66.67 Acc umulated depreciation………………………66.67 Year3.declining balance because depreciation expense under straight-line is only $100,while under double-declining balance depreciation expense is $200.4.If the company buys one asset every year and each asset lasts three years,then in year 4 it will have three assets.Under straight-line depreciation,each of those assets generates a depreciation expense of $100;therefore total depreciation expense would be 3*$100,or $300.Under double-declining balance depreciation,total depreciation expense depends on the age of each asset.The company would have one asset in its first year of life,one in its second year of life,and one in its third year.Therefore,totaldepreciation expense would be:$200+$66.67+$33.33=$300,the same as under straight-line.Both depreciation methods give the same total depreciation because:1.Both methods fully depreciate the assets over their lives.2.The cost of the assets has remained constant.3.The company is in a steady state in which the number ofnew assets purchased in a period equals the number ofold assets being retired in that period.。
罗斯《公司理财》(第11版)笔记和课后习题详解-第12~15章【圣才出品】
第12章看待风险与收益的另一种观点:套利定价理论12.1 复习笔记美国金融经济学家罗斯于1976年首先提出套利定价理论(Arbitrage Pricing Theory,APT),APT建立在比资本资产定价模型更少且更合理的假设之上,而其导出的均衡模型与资本资产定价模型有很多相似之处。
当市场上收益与风险不匹配,使投资者能构造一个产生安全利润的零投资证券组合时,套利机会就出现了。
套利是指利用一个或多个市场上存在的各种价格差异,在不冒任何风险或冒很小风险的情况下赚取大于零的收益的行为,套利行为需要同时进行等量证券的买卖,以便从其价格关系的差异中获取利润。
套利作为一种广泛使用的投资策略,最具有代表性的是以较高的价格出售证券同时以较低价格购入相同的证券。
1.系统性风险与贝塔系数单只股票的风险可以分为系统性风险和非系统性风险。
非系统性风险可以通过投资组合的多元化投资来消除,但系统性风险却难以消除。
因此只有单只证券的系统性风险才是值得关注的。
同时系统性风险的最优度量标准是贝塔系数。
CAPM公式表明单只证券的期望收益率与贝塔系数是线性相关关系。
贝塔系数可以用于衡量单只股票收益对某一系统性风险的反应程度,也可以度量市场组合的收益对某一特定风险的反应程度。
贝塔系数的大小描述了系统性风险对单只证券或证券组合收益的影响有多大。
股票收益的定义式是:=+=++R R U R mε其中,R是下个月的实际总收益;R_是实际总收益中期望收益部分;U表示实际总收益中的非期望收益部分;m 表示收益的系统性风险,有时又称作“市场风险”,在不同程度上m 影响着市场上所有资产的价格;ε表示收益的非系统性风险。
2.因素模型可以用一个或一些因素代表系统风险,应用β系数可以衡量股票收益对系统风险的反应程度。
因此可以推出另一种资产定价模型——因素模型。
该模型认为各种证券的收益率均受某个或某几个共同因素影响。
各种证券收益率之所以相关主要是因为它们都会对这些共同的因素起反应。
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CHAPTER 1Introduction to Corporate FinanceAnswers to Problem Sets1. a. realb. executive airplanesc. brand namesd. financiale. bonds*f. investment or capital budgeting*g. capital budgeting or investmenth. financing*Note that f and g are interchangeable in the question.Est time: 01-052. A trademark, a factory, undeveloped land, and your work force (c, d, e, and g) areall real assets. Real assets are identifiable items with intrinsic value. The others in the list are financial assets, that is, these assets derive value because of acontractual claim.Est time: 01-053. a. Financial assets, such as stocks or bank loans, are claims held byinvestors. Corporations sell financial assets to raise the cash to invest inreal assets such as plant and equipment. Some real assets are intangible.b. Capital budgeting means investment in real assets. Financing meansraising the cash for this investment.c. The shares of public corporations are traded on stock exchanges and canbe purchased by a wide range of investors. The shares of closely heldcorporations are not publicly traded and are held by a small group ofprivate investors.d. Unlimited liability: I nvestors are responsible for all the firm’s debts. A soleproprietor has unlimited liability. Investors in corporations have limitedliability. They can lose their investment, but no more.Est time: 01-054. Items c and d apply to corporations. Because corporations have perpetual life,ownership can be transferred without affecting operations, and managers can be fired with no effect on ownership. Other forms of business may have unlimitedliability and limited life.Est time: 01-055. Separation of ownership and management typically leads to agency problems,where managers prefer to consume private perks or make other decisions fortheir private benefit—rather than maximize shareholder wealth.Est time: 01-056. a. Assuming that the encabulator market is risky, an 8% expected return onthe F&H encabulator investments may be inferior to a 4% return on U.S.government securities.b. Unless their financial assets are as safe as U.S. government securities,their cost of capital would be higher. The CFO could consider what theexpected return is on assets with similar risk.Est time: 01-057. Shareholders will only vote for: (a) maximize shareholder wealth. Shareholderscan modify their pattern of consumption through borrowing and lending, matchrisk preferences, and hopefully balance their own checkbooks (or hire a qualified professional to help them with these tasks).Est time: 01-058. If the investment increases the firm’s wealth, it will increase the value of the firm’sshares. Ms. Indumati could then sell some or all of these more valuable shares in order to provide for her retirement income.Est time: 06-109. As the Goldman Sachs example illustrates, the firm’s value typically falls bysignificantly more than the amount of any fines and settlements. The firm’sreputation suffers in a financial scandal, and this can have a much larger effectthan the fines levied. Investors may also wonder whether all of the misdeedshave been contained.Est time: 01-0510. Managers would act in shareholders’ interests because they have a legal duty toact in their interests. Managers may also receive compensation, either bonusesor stock and option payouts whose value is tied (roughly) to firm performance.Managers may fear personal reputational damage that would result from notacting in shareholders’ interests. And m anagers can be fired by the board ofdirectors, which in turn is elected by shareholders. If managers still fail to act inshareholders’ interests, sharehold ers may sell their shares, lowering the stockprice and potentially creating the possibility of a takeover, which can again leadto changes in the board of directors and senior management.Est time: 01-0511. Managers that are insulated from takeovers may be more prone to agencyproblems and therefore more likely to act in their own interests rather than inshareholders’. If a firm instituted a new takeover defense, we might expect tosee the value of its shares decline as agency problems increase and lessshareholder value maximization occurs. The counterargument is that defensivemeasures allow managers to negotiate for a higher purchase price in the face ofa takeover bid—to the benefit of shareholder value.12. Answers will vary. The principles of good corporate governance discussed in thechapter should apply.Est time: 06-10Appendix Questions:1. Both would still invest in their friend’s business. A invests and receives `121,000for his investment at the end of the year—which is greater than the `120,000 itwould receive from lending at 20% (`100,000 x 1.20 = `120,000). G also invests, but borrows against the `121,000 payment, and thus receives `100,833(`121,000 / 1.20) today.Est time: 01-052. a. He could consume up to `200,000 now (forgoing all future consumption) or upto `216,000 next year (200,000 x 1.08, forgoing all consumption this year). Heshould invest all of his wealth to earn `216,000 next year. To choose the sameb. He should invest all of his wealth to earn `220,000 ($200,000 x 1.10) next year.If he consumes all this year, he can now have a total of `203,703.70(200,000 x1.10/1.08) this year or `220,000 next year. If he consumes C this year, theamount available for next year’s consumption is (203,703.7 – C) x 1.08. To getequal consumption in both years, set the amount consumed today equal to theamount next year:C = (203,703.70 – C) x 1.08C = `105,769.20Est time: 06-10。