英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案

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罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap028

公司理财习题答案第二十八章Chapter 28: Cash Management28.1 Firms need to hold cash to:a. Satisfy the transaction needs. For example, cash is collected from sales and newfinancing and disbursed as wages, salaries, trade debts, taxes and dividends.b. Maintain compensating balances. A minimum required compensating balance atbanks providing credit service to the firm may impose a lower limit on the level ofcash a firm holds.28.2 a. Decrease. Examine the Baumol model. As the interest rate (k) increases, the optimalcash balance must also rise.b. Increase. Examine the Baumol model. As brokerage costs (F, the per transactioncosts) rise, the optimal balance increases.c. Decrease. Clearly, if the bank lowers its compensating balance requirement, a firmwill not be required to hold as much of its assets as cash.d. Decrease. If the cost of borrowing falls, a firm need not hold as much of its assets ascash because the cost of running short, i.e. the cost to borrow to fill cash needs, islower.e. Increase. As a firm’s credit rating falls, its cost to borrow increases. Thus, the firmcannot as easily afford to run short of cash and its cash balance must be higher.f. Decrease. Introduction of direct banking fees would increase the fixed costsassociated with holding cash. As fixed costs rise, the optimal balance must also rise.28.3 The average weekly cash balance is $20,750 [ ($24,000 + $34,000 + $10,000 +$15,000)/ 4].With monthly compounding, the return that the firm can earn on its average balance is$20,750 [[( 1 + 0.12/12)12 - 1] = $2,631.62Your answer may differ if you made different assumptions about the interest payments.28.4 a. The total amount of cash that will be disbursed during the year is:$345,000 * 12 = $4,140,000 Using the optimal cash balance formula,193,243$07.0)000,140,4)(500($2K 2FT*C ===$243,193 should be kept as cash. The balance, $556,807 (=$800,000-$243,193),should be invested in marketable securities.b. The number of times marketable securities will be sold during the next twelvemonths is $4,140,000 / $243,193 = 17 times28.5C*2FT K T KC *2F 7.5%(20mil)25,0007.5%200.01$3,000(mil)Average w eekly disbursement 3,00052$57.69mil222===⨯⨯=⨯===28.6 Use the Miller-Orr formula. The target cash balance = Z*3F 4K L 23=+σ The upper limit = H*=3Z*-2LThe daily opportunity cost = K= 1.0836510.000211-=Z*3($600)($1,440,00)4(0.000211)3$20,000$34,536H *$63,608=+== The average cash balance:C *4Z *L34($34,536)$20,0003$39,381=-=-=28.7 a.Z g*Hg 2L g 3200,0002100,0003$133,333Z s *Hs 2L s 3300,0002150,0003$200,000=+=+⨯==+=+⨯=b. Gold Star:()()s Z *L 4K /3F 133,333100,00040.00026132,0006,444,251K 1.1010.000261g 2g g3g g 3g 365=-=-⨯⨯⨯≈=-=Silver Star:()()s Z *L 4K /3F 200,000150,00040.00023632,000K 1.0910.000236g 2g g3g g 3g 365=-=-⨯⨯⨯≈=-=15733333,,So, Silver Star Co. has a more volatile daily cash flow.28.8 Garden Groves float = 150 ($15,000) = $2,250,000Increase in collected cash balance if a 3 day lockbox is installed = 3($2,250,000)= $6,750,000Annual earnings from this amount = $6,750,000 x 0.075 = $506,250The system should be installed if its cost is below this amount.Variable cost $ 0.5 x 150 x 365 = $27,375 Fixed cost = 80,000Total cost =$107,375The lockbox system should be installed. The net earnings from the use of the system are $398,875 (= $506,250 - $107,375)公司理财习题答案第二十八章28.9 To make the system profitable, the net earnings of installing the lockbox system must benon-negative. The lower limit for acceptability is zero profits.Let N be the number of customers per day.Earnings = ($4,500) (N) (2) (0.06) = $540 x NCosts:Variable cost: N (365) ($0.25) = $91.25 x NFixed cost: $15,000Equate Earnings to total costs:N = 33.43Salisbury Stakes needs at least 34 customers per day for the lockbox system to beprofitable.28.10 Disbursement float = $12,000 x 5 = $60,000Collection float = -$15,000 x 3 = -$45,000Net float = $60,000 - $45,000 = $15,000If funds are collected in four days rather than three, disbursement float will not change.Collection float will change to -$60,000. This change makes the net float equal to zero.28.11 a. Reduction in outstanding cash balances = $100,000 x 3 days = $300,000b. Return on savings = $300,000 (0.12) = $360,000c. Maximum monthly charge = $36,000 / 12 = $3,000Note: The calculation in part b assumes annual compounding. The answer in part cdoes not account for the time value of money. With monthly compounding of theinterest earned, the return on savings at the end of the year is$300,000 [(1.01)12 - 1] = $38,047.51The present value of this amount is $38,047.51 / (1.01) 12 = $33,765.23Compute the monthly payment as an annuity with a discount rate of 1% per periodfor twelve periods. That annuity factor is 11.2551. Thus, the payment is$33,765.23 = (Payment) (11.2551)Payment = $3,000Notice, as long as the treatment of the cash flows is the same, the payment is thesame.28.12 The cash savings are the earnings from the interest bearing account. Assuming dailycompounding, the three-day return to the delayed payment is($200,000)[(1.0004)3-1] = $240.096The interest rate for two weeks is 0.5615% (=(1.0004)14-1).Therefore, the present value of this annuity is($240.096)11(1.005615)260.005615$5,793.12 -=⎡⎣⎢⎢⎢⎢⎤⎦⎥⎥⎥⎥The Walter Company will save $5,793.12 per year.28.13 If the Miller Company divides the eastern region, collections will be accelerated by oneday freeing up $4 million per day. Compensating balances will be increased by $100,000 [=2($300,000)-$500,000]. The net effect is to have $3,900,000 to invest. If T-bills pay 7%per year, the annual net savings from the division of the eastern region is $3,900,000 x 0.07 = $273,000.28.14 Lockbox: interest saved = 7,500 x 250 x 1.5 x0.0003 = $843.75Annual saving (Annual charge) = 843.75 x 365 - 30,000 - 0.3 x 250 x 365= $250,593.75Annual saving (Concentration Banking) = 7,500 x 250 x1 x 0.0003 x 365= 562.5 x 365 = $205,312.5So the lockbox system is recommended.28.15 The important characteristics of short-term marketable securities are:i. maturityii. default riskiii. marketabilityiv. taxability。

罗斯公司理财chap001全英文题库及答案

Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate FinanceChapter 01 Introduction to Corporate Finance Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. The person generally directly responsible for overseeing the tax management, cost accounting, financial accounting, and information system functions is the:A. treasurer.B. director.C. controller.D. chairman of the board.E. chief executive officer.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CONTROLLERType: DEFINITIONS2. The person generally directly responsible for overseeing the cash and credit functions,financial planning, and capital expenditures is the:A. treasurer.B. director.C. controller.D. chairman of the board.E. chief operations officer.1-1Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance3. The process of planning and managing a firm's long-term investments is called:A. working capital management.B. financial depreciation.C. agency cost analysis.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CAPITAL BUDGETINGType: DEFINITIONS4. The mixture of debt and equity used by a firm to finance its operations is called:A. working capital management.B. financial depreciation.C. cost analysis.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.5. The management of a firm's short-term assets and liabilities is called:A. working capital management.B. debt management.C. equity management.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.1-2Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance6. A business owned by a single individual is called a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. limited liability company.7. A business formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for businessdebts is called a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. limited liability company.8. The division of profits and losses among the members of a partnership is formalized in the:A. indemnity clause.B. indenture contract.C. statement of purpose.D. partnership agreement.E. group charter.9. A business created as a distinct legal entity composed of one or more individuals or entities iscalled a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. unlimited liability company.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: DEFINITIONS1-3Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance10. The corporate document that sets forth the business purpose of a firm is the:A. indenture contract.B. state tax agreement.C. corporate bylaws.D. debt charter.E. articles of incorporation.11. The rules by which corporations govern themselves are called:A. indenture provisions.B. indemnity provisions.C. charter agreements.D. bylaws.E. articles of incorporation.12. A business entity operated and taxed like a partnership, but with limited liability for theowners, is called a:A. limited liability company.B. general partnership.C. limited proprietorship.D. sole proprietorship.E. corporation.13. The primary goal of financial management is to:A. maximize current dividends per share of the existing stock.B. maximize the current value per share of the existing stock.C. avoid financial distress.D. minimize operational costs and maximize firm efficiency.E. maintain steady growth in both sales and net earnings.14. A conflict of interest between the stockholders and management of a firm is called:A. stockholders' liability.B. corporate breakdown.C. the agency problem.D. corporate activism.E. legal liability.1-4Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance15. Agency costs refer to:A. the total dividends paid to stockholders over the lifetime of a firm.B. the costs that result from default and bankruptcy of a firm.C. corporate income subject to double taxation.D. the costs of any conflicts of interest between stockholders and management.E. the total interest paid to creditors over the lifetime of the firm.16. A stakeholder is:A. any person or entity that owns shares of stock of a corporation.B. any person or entity that has voting rights based on stock ownership of a corporation.C. a person who initially started a firm and currently has management control over the cashflows of the firm due to his/her current ownership of company stock.D. a creditor to whom the firm currently owes money and who consequently has a claim on thecash flows of the firm.E. any person or entity other than a stockholder or creditor who potentially has a claim on thecash flows of the firm.17. The Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 is intended to:A. protect financial managers from investors.B. not have any effect on foreign companies.C. reduce corporate revenues.D. protect investors from corporate abuses.E. decrease audit costs for U.S. firms.18. The treasurer and the controller of a corporation generally report to the:A. board of directors.B. chairman of the board.C. chief executive officer.D. president.E. chief financial officer.19. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the organizational structure ofa corporation?A. The vice president of finance reports to the chairman of the board.B. The chief executive officer reports to the board of directors.C. The controller reports to the president.D. The treasurer reports to the chief executive officer.E. The chief operations officer reports to the vice president of production.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTUREType: CONCEPTS1-5Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance20. Which one of the following is a capital budgeting decision?A. determining how much debt should be borrowed from a particular lenderB. deciding whether or not to open a new storeC. deciding when to repay a long-term debtD. determining how much inventory to keep on handE. determining how much money should be kept in the checking account21. The Sarbanes Oxley Act was enacted in:A. 1952.B. 1967.C. 1998.D. 2002.E. 2006.22. Since the implementation of Sarbanes-Oxley, the cost of going public in the United Stateshas:A. increased.B. decreased.C. remained about the same.D. been erratic, but over time has decreased.E. It is impossible to tell since Sarbanes-Oxley compliance does not involve direct cost to thefirm.23. Working capital management includes decisions concerning which of the following?I. accounts payableII. long-term debtIII. accounts receivableIV. inventoryA. I and II onlyB. I and III onlyC. II and IV onlyD. I, II, and III onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS1-6Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance24. Working capital management:A. ensures that sufficient equipment is available to produce the amount of product desired on adaily basis.B. ensures that long-term debt is acquired at the lowest possible cost.C. ensures that dividends are paid to all stockholders on an annual basis.D. balances the amount of company debt to the amount of available equity.E. is concerned with the upper portion of the balance sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS25. Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A. A sole proprietorship is the least common form of business ownership.B. The profits of a sole proprietorship are taxed twice.C. The owners of a sole proprietorship share profits as established by the partnership agreement.D. The owner of a sole proprietorship may be forced to sell his/her personal assets to paycompany debts.E. A sole proprietorship is often structured as a limited liability company.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPType: CONCEPTS26. Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A. The life of the firm is limited to the life span of the owner.B. The owner can generally raise large sums of capital quite easily.C. The ownership of the firm is easy to transfer to another individual.D. The company must pay separate taxes from those paid by the owner.E. The legal costs to form a sole proprietorship are quite substantial.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-7Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance27. Which one of the following best describes the primary advantage of being a limited partnerrather than a general partner?A. entitlement to a larger portion of the partnership's incomeB. ability to manage the day-to-day affairs of the businessC. no potential financial lossD. greater management responsibilityE. liability for firm debts limited to the capital investedDifficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS28. A general partner:A. has less legal liability than a limited partner.B. has more management responsibility than a limited partner.C. faces double taxation whereas a limited partner does not.D. cannot lose more than the amount of his/her equity investment.E. is the term applied only to corporations which invest in partnerships.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS29. A partnership:A. is taxed the same as a corporation.B. agreement defines whether the business income will be taxed like a partnership or acorporation.C. terminates at the death of any general partner.D. has less of an ability to raise capital than a proprietorship.E. allows for easy transfer of interest from one general partner to another.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-8Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance30. Which of the following are disadvantages of a partnership?I. limited life of the firmII. personal liability for firm debtIII. greater ability to raise capital than a sole proprietorshipIV. lack of ability to transfer partnership interestA. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II, and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS31. Which of the following are advantages of the corporate form of business ownership?I. limited liability for firm debtII. double taxationIII. ability to raise capitalIV. unlimited firm lifeA. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. I, II, and III onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS32. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning corporations?A. The largest firms are usually corporations.B. The majority of firms are corporations.C. The stockholders are usually the managers of a corporation.D. The ability of a corporation to raise capital is quite limited.E. The income of a corporation is taxed as personal income of the stockholders.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS1-9Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance33. Which one of the following statements is correct?A. Both partnerships and corporations incur double taxation.B. Both sole proprietorships and partnerships are taxed in a similar fashion.C. Partnerships are the most complicated type of business to form.D. Both partnerships and corporations have limited liability for general partners and shareholders.E. All types of business formations have limited lives.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BUSINESS TYPESType: CONCEPTS34. The articles of incorporation:A. can be used to remove company management.B. are amended annually by the company stockholders.C. set forth the number of shares of stock that can be issued.D. set forth the rules by which the corporation regulates its existence.E. can set forth the conditions under which the firm can avoid double taxation.35. The bylaws:A. establish the name of the corporation.B. are rules which apply only to limited liability companies.C. set forth the purpose of the firm.D. mandate the procedure for electing corporate directors.E. set forth the procedure by which the stockholders elect the senior managers of the firm.36. The owners of a limited liability company prefer:A. being taxed like a corporation.B. having liability exposure similar to that of a sole proprietor.C. being taxed personally on all business income.D. having liability exposure similar to that of a general partner.E. being taxed like a corporation with liability like a partnership.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANYType: CONCEPTS1-10Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance37. Which one of the following business types is best suited to raising large amounts ofcapital?A. sole proprietorshipB. limited liability companyC. corporationD. general partnershipE. limited partnershipDifficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS38. Which type of business organization has all the respective rights and privileges ofa legalperson?A. sole proprietorshipB. general partnershipC. limited partnershipD. corporationE. limited liability companyDifficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS39. Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existingstock because:A. doing so guarantees the company will grow in size at the maximum possible rate.B. doing so increases the salaries of all the employees.C. the current stockholders are the owners of the corporation.D. doing so means the firm is growing in size faster than its competitors.E. the managers often receive shares of stock as part of their compensation.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: GOAL OF FINANC IAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS1-11Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance40. The decisions made by financial managers should all be ones which increase the:A. size of the firm.B. growth rate of the firm.C. marketability of the managers.D. market value of the existing owners' equity.E. financial distress of the firm.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: GOAL OF FINANCIAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS41. Which one of the following actions by a financial manager creates an agency problem?A. refusing to borrow money when doing so will create losses for the firmB. refusing to lower selling prices if doing so will reduce the net profitsC. agreeing to expand the company at the expense of stockholders' valueD. agreeing to pay bonuses based on the book value of the company stockE. increasing current costs in order to increase the market value of the stockholders' equity42. Which of the following help convince managers to work in the best interest of the stockholders?I. compensation based on the value of the stockII. stock option plansIII. threat of a proxy fightIV. threat of conversion to a partnershipA. I and II onlyB. II and III onlyC. I, II and III onlyD. I and III onlyE. I, II, III, and IVDifficulty level: MediumTopic: AGENCY PROBLEMType: CONCEPTS1-12Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance43. Which form of business structure faces the greatest agency problems?A. sole proprietorshipB. general partnershipC. limited partnershipD. corporationE. limited liability company44. A proxy fight occurs when:A. the board solicits renewal of current members.B. a group solicits proxies to replace the board of directors.C. a competitor offers to sell their ownership in the firm.D. the firm files for bankruptcy.E. the firm is declared insolvent.45. Which one of the following parties is considered a stakeholder of a firm?A. employeeB. short-term creditorC. long-term creditorD. preferred stockholderE. common stockholderDifficulty level: EasyTopic: STAKEHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS46. Which of the following are key requirements of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?I. Officers of the corporation must review and sign annual reports.II. Officers of the corporation must now own more than 5% of the firm's stock. III. Annual reports must list deficiencies in internal controlsIV. Annual reports must be filed with the SEC within 30 days of year end.A. I onlyB. II onlyC. I and III onlyD. II and III onlyE. II and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: SARBANES-OXLEYType: CONCEPTS1-13Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance47. Insider trading is:A. legal.B. illegal.C. impossible to have in our efficient market.D. discouraged, but legal.E. list only the securities of the largest firms.48. Sole proprietorships are predominantly started because:A. they are easily and cheaply setup.B. the proprietorship life is limited to the business owner's life.C. all business taxes are paid as individual tax.D. All of the above.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPSType: CONCEPTS49. Managers are encouraged to act in shareholders' interests by:A. shareholder election of a board of directors who select management.B. the threat of a takeover by another firm.C. compensation contracts that tie compensation to corporate success.D. Both A and B.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GOVERNANCEType: CONCEPTS50. The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 focuses on:A. all stock transactions.B. sales of existing securities.C. issuance of new securities.D. insider trading.E. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) insurance.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS1-14Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance51. The basic regulatory framework in the United States was provided by:A. the Securities Act of 1933.B. the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.C. the monetary system.D. A and B.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS52. The Securities Act of 1933 focuses on:A. all stock transactions.B. sales of existing securities.C. issuance of new securities.D. insider trading.E. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) insurance.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS53. In a limited partnership:A. each limited partner's liability is limited to his net worth.B. each limited partner's liability is limited to the amount he put into the partnership.C. each limited partner's liability is limited to his annual salary.D. there is no limitation on liability; only a limitation on what the partner can earn.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: LIMITED PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-15Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance54. Accounting profits and cash flows are:A. generally the same since they reflect current laws and accounting standards.B. generally the same since accounting profits reflect when the cash flows are received.C. generally not the same since GAAP allows for revenue recognition separate from the receiptof cash flows.D. generally not the same because cash inflows occur before revenue recognition.E. Both c and d.1-16。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap004

公司理财习题答案第四章Chapter 4: Net Present Value4.1 a. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the I nterest already earned. Therefore, the interest earnedin part c, $1,653.30, is more than double the amount earned in part a, $628.89.4.2 a. $1,000 / 1.17 = $513.16b. $2,000 / 1.1 = $1,818.18c. $500 / 1.18 = $233.254.3 You can make your decision by computing either the present value of the $2,000 that youcan receive in ten years, or the future value of the $1,000 that you can receive now.Present value: $2,000 / 1.0810 = $926.39Future value: $1,000 ⨯ 1.0810 = $2,158.93Either calculation indicates you should take the $1,000 now.4.4 Since this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the presentvalue of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.304.5 PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.234.6 a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same.Remember, FV = PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV.Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. Youshould choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. Youknow that rate must fall between 10% and 20% because the option you wouldchoose differs at these rates. Let r be the discount rate that makes you indifferentbetween the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%4.7 PV of Joneses’ offer = $150,000 / (1.1)3 = $112,697.22Since the PV of Joneses’ offer is less than Smiths’ offer, $115,000, you should chooseSmiths’ offer.4.8 a. P0 = $1,000 / 1.0820 = $214.55b. P10 = P0 (1.08)10 = $463.20c. P15 = P0 (1.08)15 = $680.594.9 The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for sixyears. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earninterest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.614.10 PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.184.11 a. The cost of investment is $900,000.PV of cash inflows = $120,000 / 1.12 + $250,000 / 1.122 + $800,000 / 1.123= $875,865.52Since the PV of cash inflows is less than the cost of investment, you should notmake the investment.b. NPV = -$900,000 + $875,865.52= -$24,134.48c. NPV = -$900,000 + $120,000 / 1.11 + $250,000 / 1.112 + $800,000 / 1.113= $-4,033.18Since the NPV is still negative, you should not make the investment.4.12 NPV = -($340,000 + $10,000) + ($100,000 - $10,000) / 1.1+ $90,000 / 1.12 + $90,000 / 1.13 + $90,000 / 1.14 + $100,000 / 1.15= -$2,619.98Since the NPV is negative, you should not buy it.If the relevant cost of capital is 9 percent,NPV = -$350,000 + $90,000 / 1.09 + $90,000 / 1.092 + $90,000 / 1.093+ $90,000 / 1.094 + $100,000 / 1.095= $6,567.93Since the NPV is positive, you should buy it.4.13 a. Profit = PV of revenue - Cost = NPVNPV = $90,000 / 1.15 - $60,000 = -$4,117.08No, the firm will not make a profit.b. Find r that makes zero NPV.$90,000 / (1+r)5 - $60,000 = $0(1+r)5 = 1.5r = 0.08447 = 8.447%4.14 The future value of the decision to own your car for one year is the sum of the trade-invalue and the benefit from owning the car. Therefore, the PV of the decision to own thecar for one year is$3,000 / 1.12 + $1,000 / 1.12 = $3,571.43Since the PV of the roommate’s offer, $3,500, is lower than the aunt’s offer, you shouldaccept aunt’s offer.4.15 a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25公司理财习题答案第四章e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earninginterest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at theend of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earnsinterest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balancethat earns interest is rising faster.4.16 a. $1,000 e0.12 ⨯ 5 = $1,822.12b. $1,000 e0.1 ⨯ 3 = $1,349.86c. $1,000 e0.05 ⨯ 10 = $1,648.72d. $1,000 e0.07 ⨯ 8 = $1,750.674.17 PV = $5,000 / [1+ (0.1 / 4)]4 ⨯ 12 = $1,528.364.18 Effective annual interest rate of Bank America= [1 + (0.041 / 4)]4 - 1 = 0.0416 = 4.16%Effective annual interest rate of Bank USA= [1 + (0.0405 / 12)]12 - 1 = 0.0413 = 4.13%You should deposit your money in Bank America.4.19 The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply theperpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $8004.20 Quarterly interest rate = 12% / 4 = 3% = 0.03Therefore, the price of the security = $10 / 0.03 = $333.334.21 The price at the end of 19 quarters (or 4.75 years) from today = $1 / (0.15 ÷ 4) = $26.67The current price = $26.67 / [1+ (.15 / 4)]19 = $13.254.22 a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus,the value of the perpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream.Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.4.23 The value at t = 8 is $120 / 0.1 = $1,200.Thus, the value at t = 5 is $1,200 / 1.13 = $901.58.4.24 P = $3 (1.05) / (0.12 - 0.05) = $45.004.25 P = $1 / (0.1 - 0.04) = $16.674.26 The first cash flow will be generated 2 years from today.The value at the end of 1 year from today = $200,000 / (0.1 - 0.05) = $4,000,000.Thus, PV = $4,000,000 / 1.1 = $3,636,363.64.4.27 A zero NPV-$100,000 + $50,000 / r = 0-r = 0.54.28 Apply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present valueof an annuity factor.NPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 8A1.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.4.29 Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments.Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments. Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20A08.0= $2,000 (9.8181)= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.884.30 The value of annuity at the end of year five= $500 15A = $500 (5.84737) = $2,923.6915.0The present value = $2,923.69 / 1.125 = $1,658.984.31 The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must beequal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A t r. The annuity factors are in theappendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the rowlabeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.10% ⎤ 6.1446 ⎤a ⎡ r ⎥bc ⎡ 6.4 ⎪ d⎣ 9% ⎦⎣ 6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate.Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.公司理财习题答案第四章4.32 a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000which you need in five years. That amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075].Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.$17,824.65 = C 5A.007$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 fiveyears from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 /1.075 = $17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (seefootnote 14 of the text).4.33The amount of loan is $120,000 ⨯ 0.85 = $102,000.20C A= $102,000.010The amount of equal installments isC = $102,000 / 20A = $102,000 / 8.513564 = $11,980.8810.04.34 The present value of salary is $5,000 36A = $150,537.53.001The present value of bonus is $10,000 3A = $23,740.42 (EAR = 12.68% is used since.01268bonuses are paid annually.)The present value of the contract = $150,537.53 + $23,740.42 = $174,277.944.35 The amount of loan is $15,000 ⨯ 0.8 = $12,000.C 48A = $12,0000067.0The amount of monthly installments isC = $12,000 / 48A = $12,000 / 40.96191 = $292.960067.04.36 Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-taxamounts. The after-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of$115,200 to obtain the value of this option.Value = $115,200 + $115,200 30A10.0= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-taxpayment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].Value = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30A.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.4.37 The amount of loan is $9,000. The monthly payment C is given by solving the equation: C 60008.0A = $9,000 C = $9,000 / 47.5042 = $189.46In October 2000, Susan Chao has 35 (= 12 ⨯ 5 - 25) monthly payments left, including the one due in October 2000.Therefore, the balance of the loan on November 1, 2000 = $189.46 + $189.46 34008.0A = $189.46 + $189.46 (29.6651) = $5,809.81Thus, the total amount of payoff = 1.01 ($5,809.81) = $5,867.91 4.38 Let r be the rate of interest you must earn. $10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000 (1 + r)12 = 8 r = 0.18921 = 18.921%4.39 First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s education. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education is$21,000 415.0A= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955. This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these is PV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516 = $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44. Payment = $14,880.44 / 1515.0A = $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.804.40 The NPV of the policy isNPV = -$750 306.0A - $800306.0A / 1.063 + $250,000 / [(1.066) (1.0759)] = -$2,004.76 - $1,795.45 + $3,254.33= -$545.88 Therefore, you should not buy the policy.4.41 The NPV of the lease offer isNPV = $120,000 - $15,000 - $15,000 908.0A - $25,000 / 1.0810= $105,000 - $93,703.32 - $11,579.84 = -$283.16 Therefore, you should not accept the offer.4.42 This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is $50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60. PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28 This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is $21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46公司理财习题答案第四章4.43 Use the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV ofthe project. Notice that the four $1,000 cash flows form an annuity. You can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV 1 $700 0.9091 $636.37 2 900 0.8264 743.76 3 1,000 ⎤ 4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.80 5 1,000 ⎥ 6 1,000 ⎦ 7 1,250 0.5132 641.50 8 1,375 0.4665 641.44 Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87 = $282.87 Purchase the machine.4.44 Weekly inflation rate = 0.039 / 52 = 0.00075 Weekly interest rate = 0.104 / 52 = 0.002 PV = $5 [1 / (0.002 - 0.00075)] {1 – [(1 + 0.00075) / (1 + 0.002)]52 ⨯ 30} = $3,429.384.45 Engineer:NPV = -$12,000 405.0A + $20,000 / 1.055 + $25,000 / 1.056 - $15,000 / 1.057- $15,000 / 1.058 + $40,000 2505.0A / 1.058= $352,533.35 Accountant:NPV = -$13,000 405.0A + $31,000 3005.0A / 1.054= $345,958.81 Become an engineer.After your brother announces that the appropriate discount rate is 6%, you can recalculate the NPVs. Calculate them the same way as above except using the 6% discount rate. Engineer NPV = $292,419.47 Accountant NPV = $292,947.04Your brother made a poor decision. At a 6% rate, he should study accounting.4.46 Since Goose receives his first payment on July 1 and all payments in one year intervalsfrom July 1, the easiest approach to this problem is to discount the cash flows to July 1 then use the six month discount rate (0.044) to discount them the additional six months. PV = $875,000 / (1.044) + $650,000 / (1.044)(1.09) + $800,000 / (1.044)(1.092) + $1,000,000 / (1.044)(1.093) + $1,000,000/(1.044)(1.094) + $300,000 / (1.044)(1.095)+ $240,000 1709.0A / (1.044)(1.095) + $125,000 1009.0A / (1.044)(1.0922) = $5,051,150Remember that the use of annuity factors to discount the deferred payments yields the value of the annuity stream one period prior to the first payment. Thus, the annuity factor applied to the first set of deferred payments gives the value of those payments on July 1 of 1989. Discounting by 9% for five years brings the value to July 1, 1984. The use of the six month discount rate (4.4%) brings the value of the payments to January 1, 1984. Similarly, the annuity factor applied to the second set of deferred payments yields the value of those payments in 2006. Discounting for 22 years at 9% and for six months at 4.4% provides the value at January 1, 1984.The equivalent five-year, annual salary is the annuity that solves: $5,051,150 = C 509.0A C = $5,051,150/3.8897C = $1,298,596The student must be aware of possible rounding errors in this problem. The differencebetween 4.4% semiannual and 9.0% and for six months at 4.4% provides the value at January 1, 1984. 4.47 PV = $10,000 + ($35,000 + $3,500) [1 / (0.12 - 0.04)] [1 - (1.04 / 1.12) 25 ]= $415,783.604.48 NPV = -$40,000 + $10,000 [1 / (0.10 - 0.07)] [1 - (1.07 / 1.10)5 ] = $3,041.91 Revise the textbook.4.49The amount of the loan is $400,000 (0.8) = $320,000 The monthly payment is C = $320,000 / 3600067.0.0A = $ 2,348.10 Thirty years of payments $ 2,348.10 (360) = $ 845,316.00 Eight years of payments $2,348.10 (96) = $225,417.60 The difference is the balloon payment of $619,898.404.50 The lease payment is an annuity in advanceC + C 2301.0A = $4,000 C (1 + 20.4558) = $4,000 C = $186.424.51 The effective annual interest rate is[ 1 + (0.08 / 4) ] 4 – 1 = 0.0824The present value of the ten-year annuity is PV = 900 100824.0A = $5,974.24 Four remaining discount periodsPV = $5,974.24 / (1.0824) 4 = $4,352.43公司理财习题答案第四章4.52The present value of Ernie’s retirement incomePV = $300,000 20A / (1.07) 30 = $417,511.5407.0The present value of the cabinPV = $350,000 / (1.07) 10 = $177,922.25The present value of his savingsPV = $40,000 10A = $280,943.26.007In present value terms he must save an additional $313,490.53 In future value termsFV = $313,490.53 (1.07) 10 = $616,683.32He must saveC = $616.683.32 / 20A = $58,210.5407.0。

(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C

CHAPTER 20INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. a.The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than inthe spot market (SFr 1.53 versus SFr 1.50).b.The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buyone dollar in the future than it does today.c.Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates.2.The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar. This isthe relative PPP relationship.3. a.The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take moreA$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today.b.The inflation rate in Australia is higher.c.Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are thesame.4. A Yankee bond is most accurately described by d.5. No. For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exportsbecome more expensive for others to buy (bad). The reverse is true for currency depreciation.6.Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving ontransportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk. Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations.7.One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency. Moregenerally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified.8. a.False. If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the sameamount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar.b.False. The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relativeto the dollar. Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines.c.True. The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time.9. a.American exporters: their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods fora fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars.American importers: their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars.b.American exporters: they would generally be better off if the British government’s intentionsresult in a strengthened pound.American importers: they would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens.c.American exporters: they would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscalexpansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in cruzeiros, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars.American importers: they would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars.10.IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit anyarbitrage opportunities. Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly.11.It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period andwhether the expectation is accurate. Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders do not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure.12.One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investmentprovides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own. Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country. Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment. Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk. If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk. As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment.13.Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment. If, after taking into consideration all risks, aproject in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it. Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task. But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic.14.If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S. parent will experience an exchange rate loss when theforeign cash flow is remitted to the U.S. This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts. Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located.15.False. If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rateand the U.S. rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation. Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial.16.The difference between a Eurobond and a foreign bond is that the foreign bond is denominated in thecurrency of the country of origin of the issuing company. Eurobonds are more popular than foreign bonds because of registration differences. Eurobonds are unregistered securities.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the quotes from the table, we get:a.$50(€0.7870/$1) = €39.35b.$1.2706c.€5M($1.2706/€) = $6,353,240d.New Zealand dollare.Mexican pesof.(P11.0023/$1)($1.2186/€1) = P13.9801/€This is a cross rate.g.The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar. The least valuable is the Indonesian rupiah.2. a.You would prefer £100, since:(£100)($.5359/£1) = $53.59b.You would still prefer £100. Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/£ exchange rate to find theamount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get:(£100)($1.8660/£1)(SF .8233) = SF 226.6489ing the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find:(SF 1.2146/$1)($0.5359/£1) = SF 2.2665/£1The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so:£1/SF .4412 = £0.4412/SF 13. a.F180= ¥104.93 (per $). The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in theforward market than in the spot market ($0.0093659 versus $0.009530).b.F90 = $1.8587/£. The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forwardmarket than in the spot market ($0.5380 versus $0.5359).c.The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen inthe future than it does today. The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take fewer dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today.4. a.The U.S. dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy:(Can$1)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $0.7937b.The cost in U.S. dollars is:(Can$2.19)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $1.74Among the reasons that absolute PPP doe sn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes.c.The U.S. dollar is selling at a discount, because it is less expensive in the forward market thanin the spot market (Can$1.22 versus Can$1.26).d.The Canadian dollar is expected to appreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takesfewer Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar in the future than it does today.e.Interest rates in the United States are probably higher than they are in Canada.5. a.The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is:(¥115/$1)($1.70/£1) = ¥195.5/£1b.The yen is quoted too low relative to the pound. Take out a loan for $1 and buy ¥115. Use the¥115 to purchase pounds at the cross-rate, which will give you:¥115(£1/¥185) = £0.6216Use the pounds to buy back dollars and repay the loan. The cost to repay the loan will be:£0.6216($1.70/£1) = $1.0568You arbitrage profit is $0.0568 per dollar used.6.We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question. The equation we will useis:R FC = (F T– S0)/S0 + R USUsing this relationship, we find:Great Britain: R FC = (£0.5394 – £0.5359)/£0.5359 + .038 = 4.45%Japan: R FC = (¥104.93 – ¥106.77)/¥106.77 + .038 = 2.08%Switzerland: R FC = (SFr 1.1980 – SFr 1.2146)/SFr 1.2146 + .038 = 2.43%7.If we invest in the U.S. for the next three months, we will have:$30M(1.0045)3 = $30,406,825.23If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months. After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be:($30M)(£0.56/$1)(1.0060)3/(£0.59/$1) = $28,990,200.05We should invest in U.S.ing the relative purchasing power parity equation:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]tWe find:Z3.92 = Z3.84[1 + (h FC– h US)]3h FC– h US = (Z3.92/Z3.84)1/3– 1h FC– h US = .0069Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S. by 0.69% over this period.9.The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production. Theproduction cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S. dollars. Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,295,250.18If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/1.1(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,572,954.71If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/0.9(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $955,833.53To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that make the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S. dollars, so:$145 = S$168.50/S TS T = S$1.1621/$1S T = –.2978 or –29.78% decline10. a.If IRP holds, then:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.5257Since given F180 is Kr6.56, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high.Borrow Kr1 today at 8% interest. Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 6.56. Convert the loan proceeds into dollars:Kr 1 ($1/Kr 6.43) = $0.15552Invest these dollars at 5%, ending up with $0.15931. Convert the dollars back into krone as$0.15931(Kr 6.56/$1) = Kr 1.04506Repay the Kr 1 loan, ending with a profit of:Kr1.04506 – Kr1.03868 = Kr 0.00638b.To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.525711.The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal. We canrearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question:R US– h US = R FC– h FCh FC = R FC + h US– R USa.h AUS = .05 + .035 – .039h AUS = .046 or 4.6%b.h CAN = .07 + .035 – .039h CAN = .066 or 6.6%c.h TAI = .10 + .035 – .039h TAI = .096 or 9.6%12. a.The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the futurethan it does today.b.h US– h JAP (¥129.76 – ¥131.30)/¥131.30h US– h JAP = – .0117 or –1.17%(1 – .0117)4– 1 = –.0461 or –4.61%The approximate inflation differential between the U.S. and Japan is – 4.61% annually.13. We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasingpower parity relationship:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]TUsing this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be:F1 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]1F1 = HUF 225.97The exchange rate in two years should be:F2 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]2F2 = HUF 237.49And the exchange rate in five years should be:F5 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]5F5 = HUF 275.71ing the interest-rate parity theorem:(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC) = F(0,1) / S0We can find the forward rate as:F(0,1) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)] S0F(0,1) = (1.13 / 1.08)$1.50/£F(0,1) = $1.57/£Intermediate15.First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years. From interest rate andpurchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is:E(S T) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)]T S0So:E(S1) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)1 $1.22/€ = $1.2282/€E(S2) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)2 $1.22/€ = $1.2365/€E(S3) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)3 $1.22/€ = $1.2448/€Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows. The dollar cash flow each year will be:Year 0 cash flow = –€$12,000,000($1.22/€) = –$14,640,000.00Year 1 cash flow = €$2,700,000($1.2282/€) = $3,316,149.86Year 2 cash flow = €$3,500,000($1.2365/€) = $4,327,618.63Year 3 cash flow = (€3,300,000 + 7,400,000)($1.2448/€) = $13,319,111.90And the NPV of the project will be:NPV = –$14,640,000 + $3,316,149.86/1.13 + $4,4327,618.63/1.132 + $13,319,111.90/1.133NPV = $914,618.7316. a.Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but theexchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate.b.We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time. Theequation is:E[S T] = (SFr 1.72)[1 + (.07 – .08)]TE[S T] = 1.72(.99)TSo, the cash flows each year in U.S. dollar terms will be:t SFr E[S T] US$0 –27.0M –$15,697,674.421 +7.5M 1.7028 $4,404,510.222 +7.5M 1.6858 $4,449,000.223 +7.5M 1.6689 $4,493,939.624 +7.5M 1.6522 $4,539,332.955 +7.5M 1.6357 $4,585,184.79And the NPV is:NPV = –$15,697,674.42 + $4,404,510.22/1.13 + $4,449,000.22/1.132 + $4,493,939.62/1.133 + $4,539,332.95/1.134 + $4,585,184.79/1.135NPV = $71,580.10c.Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swissfrancs, we get:R SFr = 1.13[1 + (.07 – .08)] – 1R SFr = 11.87%So, the NPV in Swiss francs is:NPV = –SFr 27.0M + SFr 7.5M(PVIFA11.87%,5)NPV = SFr 123,117.76Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S. dollars as:NPV = (SFr 123,117.76)($1/SFr 1.72)NPV = $71,580.10Challenge17. a.The domestic Fisher effect is:1 + R US = (1 + r US)(1 + h US)1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US)This relationship must hold for any country, that is:1 + r FC = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC)The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so:1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US) = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC) = 1 + r FCb.The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is:E[S t] = F t = S0 [(1 + R FC)/(1 + R US)]tc.The exact form for relative PPP is:E[S t] = S0 [(1 + h FC)/(1 + h US)]td.For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at time t as:E[S t] = (€0.5)[1.07/1.05]t= (€0.5)(1.019)tWe then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value. Doing so, we find:NPV = –[€2M/(€0.5)] + {€0.9M/[1.019(€0.5)]}/1.1 + {€0.9M/[1.0192(€0.5)]}/1.12 + {€0.9M/[1.0193(€0.5/$1)]}/1.13NPV = $316,230.72For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in the euros as:R FC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – 1 = 0.121Next, we find the NPV in euros as:NPV = –€2M + (€0.9M)/1.121 + (€0.9M)/1.1212+ (€0.9M)/1.1213= €158,115.36And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is:NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /(€0.5/$1) = $316,230.72。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版英文原书课后部分章节答案

罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11，13，18，19，20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16，24，27，42，58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FV A. The equation to find the FV A is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PV A = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3，18，21，22，31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is thesemiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4，18，20，22，244. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Y ear 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 –.28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Y ear 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Y ear 3 will be the dividend in Y ear 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Y ear 3 will be: 6 / 17 P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Y ear 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3，4，6，9，15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Y ear 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: V alue today of Y ear 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 V alue today of Y ear 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 V alue today of Y ear 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Y ear 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To findthe discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 –4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Y ear 1 and Y ear 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Y ear 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: A verage net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: A verage book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = A verage net income / A verage book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap009

公司理财习题答案第九章Chapter 9: Capital Market Theory: An Overview9.1 a. Capital gains = $38 - $37 = $1 per shareb. Total dollar returns = Dividends + Capital Gains = $1,000 + ($1*500) = $1,500On a per share basis, this calculation is $2 + $1 = $3 per share c. On a per share basis, $3/$37 = 0.0811 = 8.11%On a total dollar basis, $1,500/(500*$37) = 0.0811 = 8.11%d. No, you do not need to sell the shares to include the capital gains in the computation of the returns. The capital gain is included whether or not you realize the gain. Since you could realize the gain if you choose, you shouldinclude it.9.2 Purchase Price = $10,400/200 = $52.00 a. Total dollar return = $600 + 200($54.25 - $52) =$1,050 b. Capital gain = 200($54.25-52) = $450 c. Percentage Return = $1050/$10400 = 10.10% d. Dividend Yield = $600/(200*52) = 5.77%9.3 ()[]2.40$31$42/42$8.60/$420.204820.48%+-=-=-=-9.4 The expected holding period return is:()[]$5.50$54.75$52/$520.1586515.865%+-== 9.5 You can find the nominal returns, I, on each of the securities in the text. The inflationrate, π, for the period is also in the text. It is 3.2%. The real return, r, is (1+I)/(1+π)-1. An approximation for the real rate is r = i - π. Notice that the approximation is good when the nominal interest rate is close to the inflation rate.Nominal Real Approximationa. Common Stocks 12.2% 8.7% 9.2%b. L/T Corp. Bonds 5.7% 2.4% 2.5%c. L/T Govt. Bonds 5.2% 1.9% 2.0%d. U.S. T-Bills3.7%0.5%0.5%9.6 E(R) = T-Bill rate + Average Excess Return = 6.2% + (12.4% -3.9%) = 14.7% 9.7 Suppose the two companies’ stock price 2 years ago were P 02 years ago 1 year ago TodayKoke P 0 1.1P 0 1.1*0.9*P 0= 0.99P 0 Pepsee P 0 0.9P 0 0.9*1.1*P 0= 0.99 P 0Both stocks have the same prices, but their prices are lower than 2 years ago.9.8 Five-year Holding Period Return = (1-0.0491)⨯(1+0.2141)⨯(1+0.2251)⨯(1+0.0627)⨯(1+0.3216)-1 = 98.64% 9.9 Risk Premium = 6.1 - 3.8 = 2.3%Expected Return on the market long term corporate bonds = 4.36% + 2.3% = 6.96%9.10 159.07199.0301.0164.0047.0438.001.0026.0R .a =+++++--=b. R R R - ()R R -2-0.026 -0.1850.03423 -0.010 -0.169 0.02856 0.438 0.279 0.07784 0.047 -0.112 0.01254 0.164 0.005 0.00003 0.301 0.142 0.02016 0.199 0.0400.00160Total 0.17496 ()σσ2=-====0.17496/710.029160.029160.170817.08%Note, because the data are historical data, the appropriate denominator in the calculation of the variance is N-1. 9.11 a. Common Treasury Realized Stocks BillsRisk Premium-7 32.4% 11.2% 21.2% -6 -4.9 14.7 -19.6 -5 21.4 10.5 10.9 -4 22.5 8.8 13.7 -3 6.3 9.9 -3.6 -2 32.2 7.7 24.5Last18.56.212.3b.The average risk premium is 8.49%.49.873.125.246.37.139.106.192.21=++-++-c.Yes, it is possible for the observed risk premium to be negative. This can happen in any single year. The average risk premium over many years should bepositive.公司理财习题答案第九章9.12 a.b.Standard deviation = 03311.0001096.0= 9.13a.b.Standard deviation = 0000984.= 0.03137 = 3.137%9.14 a. R 0.120.230.400.180.250.150.150.090.080.030.153 =15.3%m =⨯+⨯+⨯+⨯+⨯=b.()R 0.120.120.400.090.250.050.150.010.080.020.0628 = 6.28%T =⨯+⨯+⨯+⨯+⨯-=9.15 a.()()R 0.040.060.090.04/40.0575R 0.050.070.100.14/40.09p Q =+++==+++=b.R R p p -()R R p p -2-0.0175 0.00031 -0.0025 0.00001 +0.0325 0.00106 -0.0175 0.000310.00169Variance of R p ==0001694000042./.Standard Deviation of 02049.000042.0R p==()R R R R Q QQ Q--2-0.04 0.0016 -0.02 0.0004 0.01 0.0001 0.05 0.0025 0.0046Variance of R Q ==000464000115./.Standard Deviation of R Q ==000115003391..9.16 S R = Average Return on the Small Company Stocks.mR= Average Return on the Market Index. 2S S = Variance in the Returns of the Small Company Stocks.S S = Standard Deviation in the Returns of the Small Company Stocks. 2m S = Variance in the Returns of the Market Index.m S = Standard Deviation in the Returns of the Market Index.a. S R = 1542.05005.0350.0339.0477.0=--+mR=1604.05004.0328.0580.0648.0402.0=++-+公司理财习题答案第九章b. Small Company StocksMarket IndexR R s s - ()R R s s -2R R m m - ()R R m m -20.3228 0.104199840.2416 0.058370560.1848 0.03415104 0.4876 0.23775376 -0.5042 0.25421764 -0.7404 0.54819216 0.1558 0.02427364 0.1676 0.02808976 -0.1592 0.02534464 -0.1564 0.02446096Total =0.896867200.473520.2242168m s 0.332490.1105467s s 0.2242168/40.896867202ms0.1105467/40.442186802ss========Note, because the data are historical returns, the appropriate denominator in the calculation of the variance is N-1.9.17Let R cs = The Returns on Common Stocks (in %) Let R ss = The Returns on Small Stocks (in %)Let R cb = The Returns on Long-term Corporate Bonds (in %) Let R gb = The Returns on Long- term Government Bonds (in %) Let R tb = The Returns on Treasury Bills (in %) Let – over a variable denote its average valueBecause these data are historical data, the proper divisor for computing the variance is N-1. Thus, the variance of the returns of each security is the sum of the squared deviations divided by six.Var ( Rcs ) = 0.018372 SD ( Rcs) = 0.1355Var ( Rss ) = 0.029734 SD ( Rss) = 0.1724Var ( Rcb ) = 0.029522 SD ( Rcb) = 0.1718Var ( Rgb ) = 0.02868 SD ( Rgb) = 0.16935Var ( Rtb ) = 0.00075 SD ( Rtb) = 0.027479.18 a. The average return on small company stocks isRs=(6.85-9.30+22.87+10.18-21.56+44.63)%/6 = 8.95% The average return on T-bills is:()R 6.16 5.47 6.358.377.81 5.60/6 6.63%T=+++++=公司理财习题答案第九章b.c. Returns on T-bills are lower than small stock returns but their variance is muchsmaller.9.19 The range with 95% probability is: []σσ,22-+M ean M ean⇒[ 17.5-2⨯ 8.5, 17.5+2⨯8.5]⇒[ 0.5%, 34.5%]9.20 a. Expected Return on the Market:= 0.25(-8.2%)+0.5(12.3%)+0.25(25.8%)= 10.55%Expected Return on T-Bills: = 3.5%b. Expected Premium = 0.25(-8.2-3.5)+0.5(12.3-3.5)+0.25(25.8-3.5) = 7.05%。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap014

公司理财习题答案第十四章Chapter 14: Long-Term Financing: An Introduction14.1 a. C om m on Stock A ccountPar V alue$135,430$267,715 shares ==b. Net capital from the sale of shares = Common Stock + Capital SurplusNet capital = $135,430 + $203,145 = $338,575Therefore, the average price is $338,575 / 67,715 = $5 per shareAlternate solution:Average price = Par value + Average capital surplus= $2 + $203,145 / 67,715= $5 per sharec. Book value = Assets - Liabilities = Equity= Common stock + Capital surplus + Retained earnings= $2,708,600Therefore, book value per share is $2,708,600 / 67,715= $40.14.2 a. Common stock = (Shares outstanding ) x (Par value)= 500 x $1= $500Total = $150,500b.Common stock (1500 shares outstanding, $1 par) $1,500Capital surplus* 79,000Retained earnings 100,000Total $180,500* Capital Surplus = Old surplus + Surplus on sale= $50,000 + ($30 - $1) x 1,000=$79,00014.3 a. Shareholders’ equityCommon stock ($5 par value; authorized 500,000shares; issued and outstanding 325,000 shares)$1,625,000 Capital in excess of par* 195,000Retained earnings** 3,794,600Total $5,614,600*Capital surplus = 12% of Common Stock= (0.12) ($1,625,000)= $195,000**Retained earnings = Old retained earnings + Net income - Dividends= $3,545,000 + $260,000 - ($260,000)(0.04)= 3,794,600b. Shareholders’ equity$1,750,000Common stock ($5 par value; authorized 500,000shares; issued and outstanding 350,000 shares)Capital in excess of par* 170,000Retained earnings 3,794,600Total $5,714,600*Capital surplus is reduced by the below par sale, i.e. $195,000 - ($1)(25,000) =$170,00014.4 a. Under straight voting, one share equals one vote. Thus, to ensure the election of onedirector you must hold a majority of the shares. Since two million shares areoutstanding, you must hold more than 1,000,000 shares to have a majority of votes.b. Cumulative voting is often more easily understood through a story. Remember thatyour goal is to elect one board member of the seven who will be chosen today.Suppose the firm has 28 shares outstanding. You own 4 of the shares and one otherperson owns the remaining 24 shares. Under cumulative voting, the total number ofvotes equals the number of shares times the number of directors being elected,(28)(7) = 196. Therefore, you have 28 votes and the other stockholder has 168 votes.Also, suppose the other shareholder does not wish to have your favorite candidateon the board. If that is true, the best you can do to try to ensure electing onemember is to place all of your votes on your favorite candidate. To keep yourcandidate off the board, the other shareholder must have enough votes to elect allseven members who will be chosen. If the other shareholder splits her votes evenlyacross her seven favorite candidates, then eight people, your one favorite and herseven favorites, will all have the same number of votes. There will be a tie! If shedoes not split her votes evenly (for example 29 28 28 28 28 28 27) then yourcandidate will win a seat. To avoid a tie and assure your candidate of victory, youmust have 29 votes which means you must own more than 4 shares.Notice what happened. If seven board members will be elected and you want to becertain that one of your favorite candidates will win, you must have more than one-eighth of the shares. That is, the percentage of the shares you must have to win ismore than1.(The num ber of m em bers being elected The num ber you w ant to select)Also notice that the number of shares you need does not change if more than oneperson owns the remaining shares. If several people owned the remaining 168shares they could form a coalition and vote together.Thus, in the Unicorn election, you will need more than 1/(7+1) = 12.5% of theshares to elect one board member. You will need more than (2,000,000) (0.125) =250,000 shares.Cumulative voting can be viewed more rigorously. Use the facts from the Unicornelection. Under cumulative voting, the total number of votes equals the number of公司理财习题答案第十四章shares times the number of directors being elected, 2,000,000 x 7 = 14,000,000. Let x be the number of shares you need. The number of shares necessary is7x14,000,0007x7x250,000.>-==>> You will need more than 250,000 shares.14.5 She can be certain to have one of her candidate friends be elected under the cumulativevoting rule. The lowest percentage of shares she needs to own to elect at least one out of 6candidates is higher than 1/7 = 14.3%. Her current ownership of 17.3% is more thanenough to ensure one seat. If the voting rule is staggered as described in the question, shewould need to own more than 1/4=25% of the shares to elect one out of the three candidatesfor certain. In this case, she will not have enough shares.14.6 a. You currently own 120 shares or 28.57% of the outstanding shares. You need to control 1/3 of the votes, which requires 140 shares. You need just over 20 additionalshares to elect yourself to the board.b. You need just over 25% of the shares, which is 250,000 shares. At $5 a share it willcost you $2,500,000 to guarantee yourself a seat on the board.14.7 The differences between preferred stock and debt are:a. The dividends of preferred stock cannot be deducted as interest expenses whendetermining taxable corporate income. From the individual investor’s point of view,preferred dividends are ordinary income for tax purposes. From corporate investors,80% of the amount they receive as dividends from preferred stock are exempt fromincome taxes.b. In liquidation, the seniority of preferred stock follows that of the debt and leads thatof the common stock.c. There is no legal obligation for firms to pay out preferred dividends as opposed tothe obligated payment of interest on bonds. Therefore, firms cannot be forced intodefault if a preferred stock dividend is not paid in a given year. Preferred dividendscan be cumulative or non-cumulative, and they can also be deferred indefinitely.14.8 Some firms can benefit from issuing preferred stock. The reasons can be:a. Public utilities can pass the tax disadvantage of issuing preferred stock on to theircustomers, so there is substantial amount of straight preferred stock issued byutilities.b. Firms reporting losses to the IRS already don’t have positive income for taxdeduction, so they are not affected by the tax disadvantage of dividend vs. interestpayment. They may be willing to issue preferred stock.c. Firms that issue preferred stock can avoid the threat of bankruptcy that exists withdebt financing because preferred dividends are not legal obligation as interestpayment on corporate debt.14.9 a. The return on non-convertible preferred stock is lower than the return on corporatebond for two reasons:i. Corporate investors receive 80% tax deductibility on dividends if they hold thestock. Therefore, they are willing to pay more for the stock; that lowers its return.ii. Issuing corporations are willing and able to offer higher returns on debt since theinterest on the debt reduces their tax liabilities. Preferred dividends are paid outof net income, hence they provide no tax shield.b. Corporate investors are the primary holders of preferred stock since, unlikeindividual investors, they can deduct 80% of the dividend when computing their taxliability. Therefore, they are willing to accept the lower return which the stockgenerates.14.10 The following table summarizes the main difference between debt and equity.Debt EquityRepayment is an obligation of the firm Yes NoGrants ownership of the firm No YesProvides a tax shield Yes NoLiquidation will result if not paid Yes NoCompanies often issue hybrid securities because of the potential tax shield and thebankruptcy advantage. If the IRS accepts the security as debt, the firm can use it as a tax shield. If the security maintains the bankruptcy and ownership advantages of equity, the firm has the best of both worlds.14.11 The trends in long-term financing in the United States were presented in the text. If CableCompany follows the trends, it will probably use 80% internal financing, net income of the project plus depreciation less dividends, and 20% external financing, long term debt and equity.。

罗斯公司理财Chap004全英文题库及答案

Chapter 04 Discounted Cash Flow Valuation Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. An annuity stream of cash flow payments is a set of:A.level cash flows occurring each time period for a fixed length of time.B.level cash flows occurring each time period forever.C.increasing cash flows occurring each time period for a fixed length of time.D.increasing cash flows occurring each time period forever.E.arbitrary cash flows occurring each time period for no more than 10 years.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ANNUITYType: DEFINITIONS2. Annuities where the payments occur at the end of each time period are called _____, whereas _____ refer to annuity streams with payments occurring at the beginning of each time period.A.ordinary annuities; early annuitieste annuities; straight annuitiesC.straight annuities; late annuitiesD.annuities due; ordinary annuitiesE.ordinary annuities; annuities dueDifficulty level: EasyTopic: ANNUITIES DUEType: DEFINITIONS3. An annuity stream where the payments occur forever is called a(n):A.annuity due.B.indemnity.C.perpetuity.D.amortized cash flow stream.E.amortization table.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PERPETUITYType: DEFINITIONS4. The interest rate expressed in terms of the interest payment made each period is called the _____ rate.A.stated annual interestpound annual interestC.effective annual interestD.periodic interestE.daily interestDifficulty level: EasyTopic: STATED INTEREST RATESType: DEFINITIONS5. The interest rate expressed as if it were compounded once per year is called the _____ rate.A.stated interestpound interestC.effective annualD.periodic interestE.daily interestDifficulty level: EasyTopic: EFFECTIVE ANNUAL RATEType: DEFINITIONS6. The interest rate charged per period multiplied by the number of periods per year is called the _____ rate.A.effective annualB.annual percentageC.periodic interestpound interestE.daily interestDifficulty level: EasyTopic: ANNUAL PERCENTAGE RATEType: DEFINITIONS7. Paying off long-term debt by making installment payments is called:A.foreclosing on the debt.B.amortizing the debt.C.funding the debt.D.calling the debt.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: AMORTIZATIONType: DEFINITIONS8. You are comparing two annuities which offer monthly payments for ten years. Both annuities are identical with the exception of the payment dates. Annuity A pays on the first of each month while annuity B pays on the last day of each month. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning these two annuitiesA.Both annuities are of equal value today.B.Annuity B is an annuity due.C.Annuity A has a higher future value than annuity B.D.Annuity B has a higher present value than annuity A.E.Both annuities have the same future value as of ten years from today.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY VERSUS ANNUITY DUEType: CONCEPTS9. You are comparing two investment options. The cost to invest in either option is the same today. Both options will provide you with $20,000 of income. Option A pays five annual payments starting with $8,000 the first year followed by four annual payments of $3,000 each. Option B pays five annual payments of $4,000 each. Which one of the following statements is correct given these two investment optionsA.Both options are of equal value given that they both provide $20,000 of income.B.Option A is the better choice of the two given any positive rate of return.C.Option B has a higher present value than option A given a positive rate of return.D.Option B has a lower future value at year 5 than option A given a zero rate of return.E.Option A is preferable because it is an annuity due.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: UNEVEN CASH FLOWS AND PRESENT VALUEType: CONCEPTS10. You are considering two projects with the following cash flows:Which of the following statements are true concerning these two projects？I. Both projects have the same future value at the end of year 4, given a positive rate of return.II. Both projects have the same future value given a zero rate of return.III. Both projects have the same future value at any point in time, given a positive rate of return.IV. Project A has a higher future value than project B, given a positive rate of return.A.II onlyB.IV onlyC.I and III onlyD.II and IV onlyE.I, II, and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: UNEVEN CASH FLOWS AND FUTURE VALUE Type: CONCEPTS11. A perpetuity differs from an annuity because:A.perpetuity payments vary with the rate of inflation.B.perpetuity payments vary with the market rate of interest.C.perpetuity payments are variable while annuity payments are constant.D.perpetuity payments never cease.E.annuity payments never cease.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PERPETUITY VERSUS ANNUITYType: CONCEPTS12. Which one of the following statements concerning the annual percentage rate is correctA.The annual percentage rate considers interest on interest.B.The rate of interest you actually pay on a loan is called the annual percentage rate.C.The effective annual rate is lower than the annual percentage rate when an interest rate is compounded quarterly.D.When firms advertise the annual percentage rate they are violating . truth-in-lending laws.E.The annual percentage rate equals the effective annual rate when the rate on an account is designated as simple interest.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ANNUAL PERCENTAGE RATEType: CONCEPTS13. Which one of the following statements concerning interest rates is correctA.The stated rate is the same as the effective annual rate.B.An effective annual rate is the rate that applies if interest were charged annually.C.The annual percentage rate increases as the number of compounding periods per year increases.D.Banks prefer more frequent compounding on their savings accounts.E.For any positive rate of interest, the effective annual rate will always exceed the annual percentage rate.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INTEREST RATESType: CONCEPTS14. Which of the following statements concerning the effective annual rate are correct？I. When making financial decisions, you should compare effective annual rates rather than annual percentage rates.II. The more frequently interest is compounded, the higher the effective annual rate.III. A quoted rate of 6% compounded continuously has a higher effective annual rate than if the rate were compounded daily.IV. When borrowing and choosing which loan to accept, you should select the offer with the highest effective annual rate.A.I and II onlyB.I and IV onlyC.I, II, and III onlyD.II, III, and IV onlyE.I, II, III, and IVDifficulty level: MediumTopic: EFFECTIVE ANNUAL RATEType: CONCEPTS15. The highest effective annual rate that can be derived from an annual percentage rate of 9% is computed as:A..09e - 1.B. q.C. e (1 + .09).D. - 1.E.(1 + .09)q.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CONTINUOUS COMPOUNDINGType: CONCEPTS16. The time value of money concept can be defined as:A.the relationship between the supply and demand of money.B.the relationship between money spent versus money received.C.the relationship between a dollar to be received in the future and a dollar today.D.the relationship between interest rate stated and amount paid.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: TIME VALUEType: CONCEPTS17. Discounting cash flows involves:A.discounting only those cash flows that occur at least 10 years in the future.B.estimating only the cash flows that occur in the first 4 years of a project.C.multiplying expected future cash flows by the cost of capital.D.discounting all expected future cash flows to reflect the time value of money.E.taking the cash discount offered on trade merchandise.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CASH FLOWSType: CONCEPTS18. Compound interest:A.allows for the reinvestment of interest payments.B.does not allow for the reinvestment of interest payments.C.is the same as simple interest.D.provides a value that is less than simple interest.E.Both A and D.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: INTERESTType: CONCEPTS19. An annuity:A.is a debt instrument that pays no interest.B.is a stream of payments that varies with current market interest rates.C.is a level stream of equal payments through time.D.has no value.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: Easy Topic: ANNUITYType: CONCEPTS20. The stated rate of interest is 10%. Which form of compounding will give the highest effective rate of interestA.annual compoundingB.monthly compoundingC.daily compoundingD.continuous compoundingE.It is impossible to tell without knowing the term of the loan.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: COMPOUNDINGType: CONCEPTS21. The present value of future cash flows minus initial cost is called:A.the future value of the project.B.the net present value of the project.C.the equivalent sum of the investment.D.the initial investment risk equivalent value.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PRESENT VALUEType: CONCEPTS22. Find the present value of $5,325 to be received in one period if the rate is %.A.$5,B.$5,C.$5,D.$5,E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PRESENT VALUE - SINGLE SUMType: PROBLEMS23. If you have a choice to earn simple interest on $10,000 for three years at 8% or annually compounded interest at % for three years which one will pay more and by how muchA.Simple interest by $pound interest by $pound interest by $pound interest by $E.None of the above.Simple Interest = $10,000 (.08)(3) = $2,400;Compound Interest = $10,000(3 - 1) = $2,;Difference = $2, - $2,400 = $Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SIMPLE & COMPOUND INTERESTType: PROBLEMS24. Bradley Snapp has deposited $7,000 in a guaranteed investment account witha promised rate of 6% compounded annually. He plans to leave it there for 4 full years when he will make a down payment on a car after graduation. How much of a down payment will he be able to makeA.$1,B.$2,C.$8,D.$8,E.$9,$7,000 4 = $8,Difficulty level: EasyTopic: FUTURE VALUE - SINGLE SUMType: PROBLEMS25. Your parents are giving you $100 a month for four years while you are in college. At a 6% discount rate, what are these payments worth to you when you first start collegeA.$3,B.$4,C.$4,D.$4,E.$4,Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS26. You just won the lottery! As your prize you will receive $1,200 a month for 100 months. If you can earn 8% on your money, what is this prize worth to you todayA.$87,B.$87,C.$87,D.$88,E.$90,Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS27. Todd is able to pay $160 a month for five years for a car. If the interest rate is %, how much can Todd afford to borrow to buy a carA.$6,B.$8,C.$8,D.$8,E.$9,Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS28. You are the beneficiary of a life insurance policy. The insurance company informs you that you have two options for receiving the insurance proceeds. You can receive a lump sum of $50,000 today or receive payments of $641 a month for ten years. You can earn % on your money. Which option should you take and whyA.You should accept the payments because they are worth $56, today.B.You should accept the payments because they are worth $56, today.C.You should accept the payments because they are worth $56, today.D.You should accept the $50,000 because the payments are only worth $47, today.E.You should accept the $50,000 because the payments are only worth $47, today.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS29. Your employer contributes $25 a week to your retirement plan. Assume that you work for your employer for another twenty years and that the applicable discount rate is 5%. Given these assumptions, what is this employee benefit worth to you todayA.$13,B.$15,C.$16,D.$16,E.$16,Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS30. You have a sub-contracting job with a local manufacturing firm. Your agreement calls for annual payments of $50,000 for the next five years. At a discount rate of 12%, what is this job worth to you todayA.$180,B.$201,C.$210,D.$223,E.$224,Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS31. The Ajax Co. just decided to save $1,500 a month for the next five years as a safety net for recessionary periods. The money will be set aside in a separate savings account which pays % interest compounded monthly. It deposits the first $1,500 today. If the company had wanted to deposit an equivalent lump sum today, how much would it have had to depositA.$82,B.$83,C.$83,D.$83,E.$84,Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ANNUITY DUE AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS32. You need some money today and the only friend you have that has any is your ‘miserly' friend. He agrees to loan you the money you need, if you make payments of $20 a month for the next six months. In keeping with his reputation, he requires that the first payment be paid today. He also charges you % interest per month. How much money are you borrowingA.$B.$C.$D.$E.$Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ANNUITY DUE AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS33. You buy an annuity which will pay you $12,000 a year for ten years. The payments are paid on the first day of each year. What is the value of this annuity today at a 7% discount rateA.$84,B.$87,C.$90,D.$96,E.$116,Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ANNUITY DUE AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS34. You are scheduled to receive annual payments of $10,000 for each of the next 25 years. Your discount rate is %. What is the difference in the present value if you receive these payments at the beginning of each year rather than at the end of each yearA.$8,699B.$9,217C.$9,706D.$10,000E.$10,850Difference = $111, - $102, = $8, = $8,699 (rounded) Note: The difference = .085 $102, = $8,Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY VERSUS ANNUITY DUEType: PROBLEMS35. You are comparing two annuities with equal present values. The applicable discount rate is %. One annuity pays $5,000 on the first day of each year for twenty years. How much does the second annuity pay each year for twenty years if it pays at the end of each yearA.$4,651B.$5,075C.$5,000D.$5,375E.$5,405Because each payment is received one year later, then the cash flow has to equal: $5,000 (1 + .075) = $5,375Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY VERSUS ANNUITY DUE Type: PROBLEMS36. Martha receives $100 on the first of each month. Stewart receives $100 on the last day of each month. Both Martha and Stewart will receive payments for five years. At an 8% discount rate, what is the difference in the present value of these two sets of paymentsA.$B.$C.$D.$E.$Difference = $4, - $4, = $Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY VERSUS ANNUITY DUE Type: PROBLEMS37. What is the future value of $1,000 a year for five years at a 6% rate of interestA.$4,B.$5,C.$5,D.$6,E.$6,Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND FUTURE VALUEType: PROBLEMS38. What is the future value of $2,400 a year for three years at an 8% rate of interestA.$6,B.$6,C.$7,D.$7,E.$8,Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND FUTURE VALUEType: PROBLEMS39. Janet plans on saving $3,000 a year and expects to earn %. How much will Janet have at the end of twenty-five years if she earns what she expectsA.$219,B.$230,C.$236,D.$244,E.$256,Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY AND FUTURE VALUEType: PROBLEMS40. Toni adds $3,000 to her savings on the first day of each year. Tim adds $3,000 to his savings on the last day of each year. They both earn a 9% rate of return. What is the difference in their savings account balances at the end of thirty yearsA.$35,B.$36,C.$38,D.$39,E.$40,Difference = $445, - $408, = $36,Note: Difference = $408, .09 = $36,Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ANNUITY DUE VERSUS ORDINARY ANNUITY Type: PROBLEMS41. You borrow $5,600 to buy a car. The terms of the loan call for monthly payments for four years at a % rate of interest. What is the amount of each paymentA.$B.$C.$D.$E.$Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY PAYMENTSType: PROBLEMS42. You borrow $149,000 to buy a house. The mortgage rate is % and the loan period is 30 years. Payments are made monthly. If you pay for the house according to the loan agreement, how much total interest will you payA.$138,086B.$218,161C.$226,059D.$287,086E.$375,059Total interest = ($1, 30 12) - $149,000 = $226, = $226,059 (rounded)Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY PAYMENTS AND COST OF INTERESTType: PROBLEMS43. The Great Giant Corp. has a management contract with its newly hired president. The contract requires a lump sum payment of $25 million be paid to the president upon the completion of her first ten years of service. The company wants to set aside an equal amount of funds each year to cover this anticipated cash outflow. The company can earn % on these funds. How much must the company set aside each year for this purposeA.$1,775,B.$1,798,C.$1,801,D.$1,852,E.$1,938,Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY PAYMENTS AND FUTURE VALUEType: PROBLEMS44. You retire at age 60 and expect to live another 27 years. On the day you retire, you have $464,900 in your retirement savings account. You are conservative and expect to earn % on your money during your retirement. How much can you withdraw from your retirement savings each month if you plan to die on the day you spend your last pennyA.$2,B.$2,C.$2,D.$2,E.$2,Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY PAYMENTS AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS45. The McDonald Group purchased a piece of property for $ million. It paida down payment of 20% in cash and financed the balance. The loan terms require monthly payments for 15 years at an annual percentage rate of % compounded monthly. What is the amount of each mortgage paymentA.$7,B.$8,C.$9,D.$9,E.$9,Amount financed = $1,200,000 (1 - .2) = $960,000Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORDINARY ANNUITY PAYMENTS AND PRESENT VALUEType: PROBLEMS。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap023

公司理财习题答案第二十三章Answers to End-of-Chapter Problems B-203Chapter 23: Options and Corporate Finance: Extensions and Applications23.1 d 1 = [(r + ½ σ2) t]/ t 2σ= [(0.06 + ½ (0.25)2 ) 4]/()()425.02= 0.73N(d 1) = 0.7673 d 2 = d 1 – t 2σ = 0.73 – ()()425.02 = 0.23N(0.23) = 0.5910C = 50(0.7673) – 50e -0.06⨯4 (0.5910) = $38.365 – $23.245 = $15.12Total Value:$15.12 ⨯50$1$m illion = $302,40023.2 Option A: use discount rate of 6%Total pay value = $1mil 406.0A + 1.2096 millionOption B:Total pay value = $1.25 mil 406.0AThe question is whether the incremental $1.25 mil straight pay value is greater or lower than the options value of $1.2096 mil. If we use the riskless rate of 6%, the cost ofadditional $0.25 mil is $0.8663 mil (As opposed to $1.2096 mil). Holding everything else constant, Mr. Hurt is right and the Board is wrong. It’s cheaper for the firm to pay Mr. Hurt a $1.25 mil straight pay without opitons. However, diversification may make the $1.25 mil straignt pay better off for Mr. Hurt. From the bounding effect, the firm will be better off to offer Mr. Hurt the options.23.3 Fixed plant: r = 12%NPV = -1million + ()()112.0120$000,150++ ()()()(){}()1912.012.0120$2/000,1505.020$000,1505.0+A + = -1million + $2,678,571.43 + $10,704,073.24= $12,382,644.67Flexible plant:NPV = -1.5million + ()()112.0110$000,150+ +()()()(){}()1912.0912.012.0115$000,1505.010$000,1505.0+A +A = -1.5million + $1,339,285.71 + $8,920,061.03= $8,759,346.74TGC should choose the fixed plant since it has a larger NPV.Answers to End-of-Chapter Problems B-204 23.4If rate = 11%; NPV = ⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛+-11.155$50$ = -$0.4505 million < 0If rate = 9%; NPV = ⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛+-09.155$50$= $0.4588 millionNPV = 0.5 (0) + 0.5 (0.4588 million) = $229,400 > $500 He should not take the offer to sell his option.23.5 a. NPV = -7 million + (10,000 ⨯ $200) 515.0A= -$295,689.80b. $100,000 = 415.0C AC = $35,026.54( level of sales) ⨯ ($200) = $35,026.54=175.13 units≈ 176 units23.6 NPV = -7 mil +(10,000⨯ $200 /1.15) +[(0.5⨯15,000⨯ $200 ⨯915.0A ) +(0.5 ⨯100,000)]/1.15= -7 mil + $1,739,130.43 + $6,267,283.37= $1,006,413.80。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap019

公司理财习题答案第十九章Chapter 19: Issuing Equity Securities to the Public19.1 a. A general cash offer is a public issue of a security that is sold to all interestedinvestors. A general cash offer is not restricted to current stockholders.b. A rights offer is an issuance that gives the current stockholders the opportunity tomaintain a proportionate ownership of the company. The shares are offered to thecurrent shareholders before they are offered to the general public.c. A registration statement is the filing with the SEC, which discloses all pertinentinformation concerning the corporation that wants to make a public offering.d. A prospectus is the legal document that must be given to every investor whocontemplates purchasing registered securities in a public offering. The prospectusdescribes the details of the company and the particular issue.e. An initial public offering (IPO) is the original sale of a company’s securities to thepublic. An IPO is also called an unseasoned issue.f. A seasoned new issue is a new issue of stock after the company’s securities havepreviously been publicly traded.g. Shelf registration is an SEC procedure, which allows a firm to file a masterregistration statement summarizing the planned financing for a two year period.The firm files short forms whenever it wishes to sell any of the approved masterregistration securities during the two year period.19.2 a. The Securities Exchange Act of 1933 regulates the trading of new, unseasonedsecurities.b. The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 regulates the trading of seasoned securities.This act regulates trading in what is called the secondary market.19.3 Competitive offer and negotiated offer are two methods to select investment bankers forunderwriting. Under the competitive offers, the issuing firm can award its securities to the underwriter with the highest bid, which in turn implies the lowest cost. On the other hand, in negotiated deals, underwriter gains much information about the issuing firm throughnegotiation, which helps increase the possibility of a successful offering.19.4 a. Firm commitment underwriting is an underwriting in which an investment bankingfirm commits to buy the entire issue. It will then sell the shares to the public. Theinvestment banking firm assumes all financial responsibility for any unsold shares.b. A syndicate is a group of investment banking companies that agree to cooperate in ajoint venture to underwrite an offering of securities.c. The spread is the difference between the underwriter’s buying price and the offeringprice. The spread is a fee for the services of the underwriting syndicate.d. Best efforts underwriting is an offering in which the underwriter agrees to distributeas much of the offering as possible. Any unsold portions of the offering are returnedto the issuing firm.19.5 a. The risk in a firm commitment underwriting is borne by the underwriter(s). Thesyndicate agrees to purchase all of an offering. Then they sell as much of it aspossible. Any unsold shares remain the responsibility of the underwriter(s). Therisk that the security’s price may become unfavorable also lies with theunderwriter(s).b. The issuing firm bears the risk in a best efforts underwriting. The underwriter(s)agrees to make its best effort to sell the securities for the firm. Any unsoldsecurities are the responsibility of the firm.19.6 In general, the new price per share after the offering is:P = (market value + proceeds from offering) / total number of sharesi. At $40 P = ($400,000 + ($40 x 5,000)) / 15,000 =$40ii. At $20 P = ($400,000 + ($20 x 5,000)) / 15,000 = $33.33iii. At $10 P = ($400,000 + ($10 x 5,000)) / 15,000 = $3019.7 The poor performance result should not surprise the professor. Since he subscribed to everyinitial public offering, he was bound to get fewer superior performers and more poorperformers. Financial analysts studied the companies and separated the bad prospects from the good ones. The analysts invested in only the good prospects. These issues becameoversubscribed. Since these good prospects were oversubscribed, the professor received a limited amount of stock from them. The poor prospects were probably under-subscribed, so he received as much of their stock as he desired. The result was that his performance was below average because the weight on the poor performers in his portfolio was greater than the weight on the superio r performers. This result is called the winner’s curse. The professor “won” the shares, but his bane was that the shares he “won” were poorperformers.19.8 There are two possible reasons for stock price drops on the announcement of a new equityissue:i. M anagement may attempt to issue new shares of stock when the stock is over-valued, that is, the intrinsic value is lower than the market price. The price drop isthe result of the downward adjustment of the overvaluation.ii. W ith the increase of financial distress possibility, the firm is more likely to raise capital through equity than debt. The market price drops because it interprets theequity issue announcement as bad news.19.9 The costs of new issues include underwriter’s spread, direct and indirect expenses, negativeabnormal returns associated with the equity offer announcement, under-pricing, and green-shoe option.19.10 a. $12,000,000/$15 = 800,000b. 2,400,000/800,000 = 3c. The shareholders must remit $15 and three rights for each share of new stock theywish to purchase.19.11 a. In general, the ex-rights price isP = (Market value + Proceeds from offering) / Total number of sharesP = ($25 x 100,000 + $20 x 10,000) / (100,000 + 10,000) = $24.55b. The value of a right is the difference between the rights-on price of the stock andthe ex-rights price of the stock. The value of a right is $0.45 (=$25 - $24.55).Alternative solution:The value of a right can also be computed as:(Ex-rights price - Subscription price) / Number of rights required to buy a share ofstockValue of a right = ($24.55 - $20) / 10 = $0.45c. The market value of the firm after the issue is the number of shares times the ex-rights price.Value = 110,000 x $24.55 $2,700,000 (Note that the exact ex-rights price is$24.5454.)公司理财习题答案第十九章d. The most important reason to offer rights is to reduce issuance costs. Also, rightsofferings do not dilute ownership and they provide shareholders with moreflexibility. Shareholders can either exercise or sell their rights.19.12 The value of a right = $50 - $45 = $5The number of new shares = $5,000,000 / $25 = 200,000The number of rights / share = ($45 - $25) / $5 = 4The number of old shares = 200,000 x 4 = 800,00019.13 a. Assume you hold three shares of the company’s stock. The value of your holdingsbefore you exercise your rights is 3 x $45 = $135. When you exercise, you mustremit the three rights you receive for owning three shares, and ten dollars. You haveincreased your equity investment by $10. The value of your holdings is $135 + $10= $145. After exercise, you own four shares of stock. Thus, the price per share ofyour stock is $145 / 4 = $36.25.b. The value of a right is the difference between the rights-on price of the stock andthe ex-rights price of the stock. The value of a right is $8.75 (=$45 - $36.25).c. The price drop will occur on the ex-rights date. Although the ex-rights date isneither the expiration date nor the date on which the rights are first exercisable, it isthe day that the price will drop. If you purchase the stock before the ex-rights date,you will receive the rights. If you purchase the stock on or after the ex-rights date,you will not receive the rights. Since rights have value, the stockholder receivingthe rights must pay for them. The stock price drop on the ex-rights day is similar tothe stock price drop on an ex-dividend day.19.14 a. Stock price (ex-right) = (13+2) / (1+0.5) = $10Subscription price = 2 / 0.5 = $4Right’s price = 13-10 = $3= (10-4) / 2 = $3b. Stock price (ex-right) = (13+2) / (1+0.25) = $12Subscription price = 2 / 0.25 = $8Right’s price = 13-12 = $1= (12-8) / 4 = $1c. The stockholders’ wealth is the same between the two arrangements.19.15 If the interest of management is to increase the wealth of the current shareholders, a rightsoffering may be preferable because issuing costs as a percentage of capital raised is lower for rights offerings. Management does not have to worry about underpricing becauseshareholders get the rights, which are worth something. Rights offerings also preventexisting shareholders from losing proportionate ownership control. Finally, whether the shareholders exercise or sell their rights, they are the only beneficiaries.19.16 Reasons for shelf registration include:i. Flexibility in raising money only when necessary without incurring additional issuancecosts.ii. As Bhagat, Marr and Thompson showed, shelf registration is less costly than conventional underwritten issues.iii. Issuance of securities is greatly simplified.19.17 Suppliers of venture capital can include:i. Wealthy families / individuals.ii. Investment funds provided by a number of private partnerships and corporations.iii. Venture capital subsidiaries established by large industrial or financial corporations.iv. “Angels” in an informal venture capital market.19.18 The proceeds from IPO are used to:i. exchange inside equity ownership for outside equity ownershipii. finance the present and future operations of the IPO firms.19.19 Basic empirical regularities in IPOs include:i. underpricing of the offer price,ii. best-efforts offerings are generally used for small IPOs and firm-commitment offerings are generally used for large IPOs,iii. the underwriter price stabilization of the after market and,iv. that issuing costs are higher in negotiated deals than in competitive ones.。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap012

公司理财习题答案第十二章Chapter 12: Risk, Return, and Capital Budgeting12.1 Cost of equity R S = 5 + 0.95 (9) = 13.55% NPV of the project= -$1.2 million + $340,.0001135515tt =∑= -$20,016.52Do not undertake the project. 12.2 a. R D= (-0.05 + 0.05 + 0.08 + 0.15 + 0.10) / 5 = 0.066 R M = (-0.12 + 0.01 + 0.06 + 0.10 + 0.05) / 5 = 0.02b.DR- D R M R -R M(M R -M R )2 (D R -R D )(M R -R M )-0.116 -0.14 0.0196 0.01624 -0.016 -0.01 0.0001 0.00016 0.014 0.04 0.0016 0.00056 0.084 0.08 0.0064 0.00672 0.034 0.03 0.0009 0.001020.02860.02470Beta of Douglas = 0.02470 / 0.0286 = 0.86412.3 R S = 6% + 1.15 ⨯ 10% = 17.5% R B = 6% + 0.3 ⨯ 10% = 9% a. Cost of equity = R S = 17.5% b. B / S = 0.25 B / (B + S) = 0.2 S / (B + S) = 0.8WACC = 0.8 ⨯ 17.5% + 0.2 ⨯ 9% (1 - 0.35)= 15.17%12.4 C σ = ()2104225.0 = 0.065M σ = ()2101467.0 = 0.0383Beta of ceramics craftsman = CM ρC σ M σ / M σ2 = CM ρC σ/ M σ = (0.675) (0.065) / 0.0383 = 1.146 12.5a. To compute the beta of Mercantile Manufacturing’s stock, you need the product of the deviations of Mercantile’s returns from their mean and the deviations of the market’s returns from their mean. You also need the squares of the deviations ofthe market’s returns from their mean.The mechanics of computing the means and the deviations were presented in an earlier chapter.R T = 0.196 / 12 = 0.016333 R M = 0.236 / 12 = 0.019667 E(T R -R T ) (M R -R M ) = 0.038711 E(M R -R M )2 = 0.038588 β = 0.038711 / 0.038588= 1.0032b.The beta of the average stock is 1. Mercantile’s beta is close to 1, indicating that its stock has average risk.12.6 a.R M can have three values, 0.16, 0.18 or 0.20. The probability that M R takes one of these values is the sum of the joint probabilities of the return pair that include theparticular value of M R . For example, if M R is 0.16, R J will be 0.16, 0.18 or 0.22. The probability that M R is 0.16 and R J is 0.16 is 0.10. The probability that R M is 0.16 and R J is 0.18 is 0.06. The probability that M R is 0.16 and R J is 0.22 is 0.04. The probability that M R is 0.16 is, therefore, 0.10 + 0.06 + 0.04 = 0.20. The same procedure is used to calculate the probability that M R is 0.18 and the probability that M R is 0.20. Remember, the sum of the probability must be one.M RProbability 0.16 0.20 0.18 0.60 0.20 0.20 b. i.RM= 0.16 (0.20) + 0.18 (0.60) + 0.20 (0.20) = 0.18ii. 2M σ = (0.16 - 0.18) 2 (0.20) + (0.18 - 0.18) 2 (0.60) + (0.20 - 0.18) 2 (0.20)= 0.00016iii. M σ = ()2100016.0 = 0.01265c. R J Probability .18 .20 .20 .40 .22 .20 .24.10d. i. E j = .16 (.10) + .18 (.20) + .20 (.40) + .22 (.20) + .24(.10) = .20 ii. σj 2 = (.16 - .20)2 (.10) + (.18 - .20)2 (.20) + (.20 - .20)2 (.40)+ (.22 - .20)2 (.20) + (.24 - .20)2 (.10) = .00048公司理财习题答案第十二章iii. σj = ()21.0 = .0219100048e. Cov mj= (.16 - .18) (.16 - .20) (.10) + (.16 - .18) (.18 - .20) (.06)+ (.16 - .18) (.22 - .20) (.04) + (.20 - .18) (.18 - .20) (.02)+ (.20 - .18) (.22 - .20) (.04) + (.20 - .18) (.24 - .20) (.10)= .000176Corr mj = (0.000176) / (0.01265) (0.02191) = 0.635f. βj = (.635) (.02191) / (.01265) = 1.1012.7 i. The risk of the new project is the same as the risk of the firm without the project.ii. The firm is financed entirely with equity.12.8 a. Pacific Cosmetics should use its stock beta in the evaluation of the project only ifthe risk of the perfume project is the same as the risk of Pacific Cosmetics.b. If the risk of the project is the same as the risk of the firm, use the firm’s stock beta.If the risk differs, then use the beta of an all-equity firm with similar risk as theperfume project. A good way to estimate the beta of the project would be toaverage the betas of many perfume producing firms.12.9 E(R S) = 0.1 ⨯ 3 + 0.3 ⨯ 8 + 0.4 ⨯ 20 + 0.2 ⨯ 15 = 13.7%E(R B) = 0.1 ⨯ 8 + 0.3 ⨯ 8 + 0.4 ⨯ 10 + 0.2 ⨯ 10 = 9.2%E(R M) = 0.1 ⨯ 5 + 0.3 ⨯ 10 + 0.4 ⨯ 15 + 0.2 ⨯ 20 = 13.5%State {R S - E(R S)}{R M - E(R M)}Pr {R B - E(R B)}{R M - E(R M)}Pr1 (0.03-0.137)(0.05-0.135)⨯0.1 (0.08-0.092)(0.05-0.135)⨯0.12 (0.08-0.137)(0.10-0.135)⨯0.3 (0.08-0.092)(0.10-0.135)⨯0.33 (0.20-0.137)(0.15-0.135)⨯0.4 (0.10-0.092)(0.15-0.135)⨯0.44 (0.15-0.137)(0.20-0.135)⨯0.2 (0.10-0.092)(0.20-0.135)⨯0.2Sum 0.002056 0.00038= Cov(R S, R M) = Cov(R B, R M)σM 2= 0.1 (0.05 - 0.135)2 + 0.3 (0.10-0.135)2+ 0.4 (0.15-0.135)2 + 0.2 (0.20-0.135)2= 0.002025a. Beta of debt = Cov(R B, R M) / σM2 = 0.00038 / 0.002025= 0.188b. Beta of stock = Cov(R S, R M) / σM2 = 0.002055 / 0.002025= 1.015c. B / S = 0.5Thus, B / (S + B) = 1 / 3 = 0.3333S / (S + B) = 2 / 3 = 0.6667Beta of asset = 0.188 ⨯ 0.3333 + 1.015 ⨯ 0.6667= 0.73912.10 The discount rate for the project should be lower than the rate implied by the use ofthe Security Market Line. The appropriate discount rate for such projects is theweighted average of the interest rate on debt and the cost of equity. Since theinterest rate on the debt of a given firm is generally less than the firm’s cost ofequity, using only the stock’s beta yields a discount rate that is too high. Theconcept and practical uses of a weighted average discount rate will be in a laterchapter.12.11i. RevenuesThe gross income of the firm is an important factor in determining beta. Firmswhose revenues are cyclical (fluctuate with the business cycle) generally have highbetas. Firms whose revenues are not cyclical tend to have lower betas.ii. Operating leverageOperating leverage is the percentage change in earnings before interest and taxes(EBIT) for a percentage change in sales, [(Change in EBIT / EBIT) (Sales / Changein sales)]. Operating leverage indicates the ability of the firm to service its debt andpay stockholders.iii. Financial leverageFinancial leverage arises from the use of debt. Financial leverage indicates theability of the firm to pay stockholders. Since debt holders must be paid beforestockholders, the higher the financial leverage of the firm, the riskier its stock.The beta of common stock is a function of all three of these factors. Ultimately, theriskiness of the stock, of which beta captures a portion, is determined by thefluctuations in the income available to the stockholders. (As was discussed in thechapter, whether income is paid to the stockholders in the form of dividends or it isretained to finance projects are irrelevant as long as the projects are of similar riskas the firm.) The income available to common stock, the net income of the firm,depends initially on the revenues or sales of the firm. The operating leverageindicates how much of each dollar of revenue will become EBIT. Financialleverage indicates how much of each dollar of EBIT will become net income.12.12 a. Cost of equity for National Napkin= 7 + 1.29 (13 - 7)= 14.74%b. B / (S + B) = S / (S + B) = 0.5WACC = 0.5 ⨯ 7 ⨯ 0.65 + 0.5 ⨯ 14.74= 9.645%12.13 B = $60 million ⨯ 1.2 = $72 millionS = $20 ⨯ 5 million = $100 millionB / (S + B) = 72 / 172 = 0.4186S / (S + B) = 100 / 172 = 0.5814WACC = 0.4186 ⨯ 12% ⨯ 0.75 + 0.5814 ⨯ 18%= 14.23%12.14 S = $25 ⨯ 20 million = $500 millionB = 0.95 ⨯ $180 million = $171 million公司理财习题答案第十二章B / (S + B) = 0.2548 S / (S + B) = 0.7452 WACC = 0.7452 ⨯ 20% + 0.2548 ⨯ 10%⨯ 0.60 = 16.43%12.15 B / S = 0.75 B / (S + B) = 3 / 7 S / (S + B) = 4 / 7 WACC = (4 / 7) ⨯ 15% + (3 / 7) ⨯ 9%⨯ (1 - 0.35) = 11.08%NPV = -$25 million + $7(.)m illion tt 10110815+=∑= $819,299.04 Undertake the project.12.16 WACC = (0.5) x 28% + (0.5) x 10% x (1 - 0.35)= 17.25%NPV = - $1,000,000 + (1 - 0.35) $600,000 51725.0A = $240,608.50Mini Case: Allied ProductsAssumptionsPP&E Investment 42,000,000 Useful life of PP&E Investment (years) 7NEW GPWS price/unit (Year 1) 70,000 NEW GPWS variable cost/unit (Year 1) 50,000 UPGRADE GPWS price/unit (Year 1) 35,000 UPGRADE GPWS variable cost/unit (Year 1) 22,000Year 1 marketing and admin costs 3,000,000 Annual inflation rate 3.00% Corporate Tax rate 40.00%Beta (9/27 Valueline) 1.20 Rf (30 year U.S. Treasury Bond) 6.20%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Strong Growth) 15.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Moderate Growth) 10.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Mild Recession) 6.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Severe Recession state of economy) 3.00%Total Annual Market for UPGRADE GPWS (units) 2,500Allied Signal Market Share in each market 45.00%公司理财习题答案第十二章Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 SalesNEWUnits 97 107 118 130 144 Price 70,000 72,100 74,263 76,491 78,786 Total NEW 6,772,500 7,688,654 8,736,317 9,935,345 11,308,721 UPGRADEUnits 1,125 1,125 1,125 1,125 1,125 Price 35,000 36,050 37,132 38,245 39,393 Total UPGRADE 39,375,000 40,556,250 41,772,938 43,026,126 44,316,909 Total Sales 46,147,500 48,244,904 50,509,254 52,961,470 55,625,630 Variable CostsNEW 4,837,500 5,491,896 6,240,226 7,096,675 8,077,658 UPGRADE 24,750,000 25,492,500 26,257,275 27,044,993 27,856,343 Total Variable Costs 29,587,500 30,984,396 32,497,501 34,141,668 35,934,001SG&A 3,000,000 3,090,000 3,182,700 3,278,181 3,376,526 Depreciation 6,001,800 10,285,800 7,345,800 5,245,800 3,750,600EBIT 7,558,200 3,884,708 7,483,253 10,295,821 12,564,503 Interest 0 0 0 0 0 Tax 3,023,280 1,553,883 2,993,301 4,118,329 5,025,801 Net Income 4,534,920 2,330,825 4,489,952 6,177,493 7,538,702EBIT + Dep - Taxes 10,536,720 12,616,625 11,835,752 11,423,293 11,289,302 Less: Change in NWC 2,000,000 307,375 104,870 113,218 122,611 (2,648,074) Less: Captial Spending 42,000,000 (10,948,080) CF from Assets: (44,000,000) 10,229,345 12,511,755 11,722,534 11,300,682 24,885,455 Discounted CF from Assets 9,304,480 10,351,583 8,821,741 7,735,381 15,494,120Total Discounted CF from Assets 51,707,305Results。

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案

CHAPTER 7NET PRESENT VALUE AND OTHER INVESTMENT CRITERIAAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. A payback period less than the project’s life means that the NPV is positive for a zero discount rate,but nothing more definitive can be said. For discount rates greater than zero, the payback period will still be less than the project’s life, but the NPV may be positive, zero, or negative, depending on whether the discount rate is less than, equal to, or greater than the IRR. The discounted payback includes the effect of the relevant discount rate. If a project’s discounted payback period is less than the project’s life, it must be the case that NPV is positive.2.If a project has a positive NPV for a certain discount rate, then it will also have a positive NPV for azero discount rate; thus, the payback period must be less than the project life. Since discounted payback is calculated at the same discount rate as is NPV, if NPV is positive, the discounted payback period must be less than the project’s life. If NPV is positive, then the present value of future cash inflows is greater than the initial investment cost; thus PI must be greater than 1. If NPV is positive for a certain discount rate R, then it will be zero for some larger discount rate R*; thus, the IRR must be greater than the required return.3. a.Payback period is simply the accounting break-even point of a series of cash flows. To actuallycompute the payback period, it is assumed that any cash flow occurring during a given period isrealized continuously throughout the period, and not at a single point in time. The payback isthen the point in time for the series of cash flows when the initial cash outlays are fullyrecovered. Given some predetermined cutoff for the payback period, the decision rule is toaccept projects that payback before this cutoff, and reject projects that take longer to payback.The worst problem associated with payback period is that it ignores the time value of money. Inaddition, the selection of a hurdle point for payback period is an arbitrary exercise that lacksany steadfast rule or method. The payback period is biased towards short-term projects; it fullyignores any cash flows that occur after the cutoff point.b.The average accounting return is interpreted as an average measure of the accountingperformance of a project over time, computed as some average profit measure attributable tothe project divided by some average balance sheet value for the project. This text computesAAR as average net income with respect to average (total) book value. Given somepredetermined cutoff for AAR, the decision rule is to accept projects with an AAR in excess ofthe target measure, and reject all other projects. AAR is not a measure of cash flows and marketvalue, but a measure of financial statement accounts that often bear little resemblance to therelevant value of a project. In addition, the selection of a cutoff is arbitrary, and the time valueof money is ignored. For a financial manager, both the reliance on accounting numbers ratherthan relevant market data and the exclusion of time value of money considerations are troubling.Despite these problems, AAR continues to be used in practice because (1) the accountinginformation is usually available, (2) analysts often use accounting ratios to analyze firmperformance, and (3) managerial compensation is often tied to the attainment of targetaccounting ratio goals.c.The IRR is the discount rate that causes the NPV of a series of cash flows to be identically zero.IRR can thus be interpreted as a financial break-even rate of return; at the IRR discount rate,the net value of the project is zero. The acceptance and rejection criteria are:If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, accept the project if the internal rate ofreturn is greater than or equal to the discount rate.If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, reject the project if the internal rate ofreturn is less than the discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, accept the project if the internal rate ofreturn is less than or equal to the discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, reject the project if the internal rate ofreturn is greater than the discount rate.IRR is the interest rate that causes NPV for a series of cash flows to be zero. NPV is preferred in all situations to IRR; IRR can lead to ambiguous results if there are non-conventional cash flows, and it also ambiguously ranks some mutually exclusive projects. However, for stand-alone projects with conventional cash flows, IRR and NPV are interchangeable techniques. The IRR decision rule for projectsd.The profitability index is the present value of cash inflows relative to the project cost. As such,it is a benefit/cost ratio, providing a measure of the relative profitability of a project. The profitability index decision rule is to accept projects with a PI greater than one, and to reject projects with a PI less than one. The profitability index can be expressed as: PI = (NPV + cost)/cost = 1 + (NPV/cost). If a firm has a basket of positive NPV projects and is subject to capital rationing, PI may provide a good ranking measure of the projects, indicating the “bang for the buck” of each particu lar project.e.NPV is simply the present value of a project’s cash flows. NPV specifically measures, afterconsidering the time value of money, the net increase or decrease in firm wealth due to the project. The decision rule is to accept projects that have a positive NPV, and reject projects with a negative NPV. NPV is superior to the other methods of analysis presented in the text because it has no serious flaws. The method unambiguously ranks mutually exclusive projects, and can differentiate between projects of different scale and time horizon. The only drawback to NPV is that it relies on cash flow and discount rate values that are often estimates and not certain, but this is a problem shared by the other performance criteria as well. A project with NPV = $2,500 implies that the total shareholder wealth of the firm will increase by $2,500 if the project is accepted.4.For a project with future cash flows that are an annuity:Payback = I / CAnd the IRR is:0 = – I + C / IRRSolving the IRR equation for IRR, we get:IRR = C / INotice this is just the reciprocal of the payback. So:IRR = 1 / PBFor long-lived projects with relatively constant cash flows, the sooner the project pays back, the greater is the IRR.5.There are a number of reasons. Two of the most important have to do with transportation costs andexchange rates. Manufacturing in the U.S. places the finished product much closer to the point of sale, resulting in significant savings in transportation costs. It also reduces inventories because goods spend less time in transit. Higher labor costs tend to offset these savings to some degree, at least compared to other possible manufacturing locations. Of great importance is the fact that manufacturing in the U.S. means that a much higher proportion of the costs are paid in dollars. Since sales are in dollars, the net effect is to immunize profits to a large extent against fluctuations in exchange rates. This issue is discussed in greater detail in the chapter on international finance.6.The single biggest difficulty, by far, is coming up with reliable cash flow estimates. Determining anappropriate discount rate is also not a simple task. These issues are discussed in greater depth in the next several chapters. The payback approach is probably the simplest, followed by the AAR, but even these require revenue and cost projections. The discounted cash flow measures (discounted payback, NPV, IRR, and profitability index) are really only slightly more difficult in practice.7.Yes, they are. Such entities generally need to allocate available capital efficiently, just as for-profitsdo. However, it is frequently the case that the “revenues” from not-for-profit ventures are not tangible. For example, charitable giving has real opportunity costs, but the benefits are generally hard to measure. To the extent that benefits are measurable, the question of an appropriate required return remains. Payback rules are commonly used in such cases. Finally, realistic cost/benefit analysis along the lines indicated should definitely be used by the U.S. government and would go a long way toward balancing the budget!8.The statement is false. If the cash flows of Project B occur early and the cash flows of Project Aoccur late, then for a low discount rate the NPV of A can exceed the NPV of B. Observe the following example.C0C1C2IRR NPV @ 0% Project A –$1,000,000 $0 $1,440,000 20% $440,000 Project B –$2,000,000 $2,400,000 $0 20% 400,000However, in one particular case, the statement is true for equally risky Projects. If the lives of the two Projects are equal and the cash flows of Project B are twice the cash flows of Project A in every time period, the NPV of Project B will be twice the NPV of Project A.9. Although the profitability index (PI) is higher for Project B than for Project A, Project A should bechosen because it has the greater NPV. Confusion arises because Project B requires a smaller investment than Project A requires. Since the denominator of the PI ratio is lower for Project B than for Project A, B can have a higher PI yet have a lower NPV. Only in the case of capital rationing could the company’s decision have been incorrect.10. a.Project A would have a higher IRR since initial investment for Project A is less than that ofProject B, if the cash flows for the two projects are identical.b.Yes, since both the cash flows as well as the initial investment are twice that of Project B.11.Project B would have a more sensitive NPV to changes in the discount rate. The reason is the timevalue of money. Cash flows that occur further out in the future are always more sensitive to changes in the interest rate. This is similar to the interest rate risk of a bond.12.The MIRR is calculated by finding the present value of all cash outflows, the future value of all cashinflows to the end of the project, and then calculating the IRR of the two cash flows. As a result, the cash flows have been discounted or compounded by one interest rate (the required return), and then the interest rate between the two remaining cash flows is calculated. As such, the MIRR is not a true interest rate. In contrast, consider the IRR. If you take the initial investment, and calculate the future value at the IRR, you can replicate the future cash flows of the project exactly.13.The criticism is incorrect. It is true that if you calculate the future value of all intermediate cashflows to the end of the project at the required return, then calculate the NPV of this future value and the initial investment, you will get the same NPV. However, NPV says nothing about reinvestment of intermediate cash flows. The NPV is the present value of the project cash flows. The fact that the reinvestment works is an artifact of the time value of money.14.The criticism is incorrect for several reasons. It is true that if you calculate the future value of allintermediate cash flows to the end of the project at the IRR, then calculate the IRR of this future value and the initial investment, you will get the same IRR. This only occurs if the intermediate cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. However, similar to the previous question, IRR deals with the present value of the cash flows, not the future value. There is also another important point. This criticism deals with the reinvestment of the intermediate cash flows. As we will see in the next chapter, any reinvestment assumption concerning the intermediate cash flows is incorrect. The reason is that when we are calculating the cash flows for a project, we are concerned with the incremental cash flows from the project, that is, the cash flows the project creates. Reinvestment violates this principal. Consider the following example:C0C1C2IRR Project A –$100 $10 $110 10% Suppose this is a deposit into a bank account. The IRR of the cash flows is 10 percent. Does it the IRR change if the Year 1 cash flow is reinvested in the account, or if it is withdrawn and spent on pizza? No. Finally, think back to the yield to maturity calculation on a bond. The YTM is the IRR of the bond investment, but no mention of a reinvestment assumption of the bond coupons is inferred.The reason is that the reinvestment assumption is irrelevant to calculating the YTM on a bond; in the same way, the reinvestment assumption is irrelevant in the IRR calculation.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1. a.The payback period is the time that it takes for the cumulative undiscounted cash inflows toequal the initial investment.Project A:Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = €4,000 = €4,000Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = €4,000 +3,500 = €7,500 Payback period = 2 yearsProject B:Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = €2,500 = €2,500Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = €2,500 + 1,200 = €3,700Cumulative cash flows Year 3 = €2,500 + 1,200 + 3,000 = €6,700 Companies can calculate a more precise value using fractional years. To calculate the fractionalpayba ck period, find the fraction of year 3’s cash flows that is needed for the company to have cumulative undiscounted cash flows of €5,000. Divide the difference between the initial investment and the cumulative undiscounted cash flows as of year 2 by the undiscounted cashflow of year 3.Payback period = 2 + (€5,000 –€3,700) / €3,000Payback period = 2.43Since project A has a shorter payback period than project B has, the company should chooseproject A.b.Discount each project’s cash flows at 15 percent. Choose the project with the highest NPV.Project A:NPV = –€7,500 + €4,000 / 1.15 + €3,500 / 1.152 + €1,500 / 1.153NPV = –€388.96Project B:NPV = –€5,000 + €2,500 / 1.15 + €1,200 / 1.152 + €3,000 / 1.153NPV = €53.83The firm should choose Project B since it has a higher NPV than Project A has.2.To calculate the payback period, we need to find the time that the project has recovered its initialinvestment. The cash flows in this problem are an annuity, so the calculation is simpler. If the initial cost is £3,000, the payback period is:Payback = 3 + (£300 / £900) = 3.33 yearsThere is a shortcut to calculate the payback period if the future cash flows are an annuity. Just divide the initial cost by the annual cash flow. For the £3,000 cost, the payback period is:Payback = £3,000 / £900 = 3.33 yearsFor an initial cost of £5,000, the payback period is:Payback = 5 + (£500 / £900) = 5.55 yearsThe payback period for an initial cost of £10,000 is a little trickier. Notice that the total cash inflows after nine years will be:Total cash inflows = 8(£900) = £7,200If the initial cost is £10,000, the project never pays back. Notice that if you use the shortcut forannuity cash flows, you get:Payback = £10,000 / £900 = 11.11 years.This answer does not make sense since the cash flows stop after nine years, so the payback period is never.3.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value todayof the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $7,000/1.14 = $6,140.35Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $7,500/1.142 = $5,771.01Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $8,000/1.143 = $5,399.77Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $8,500/1.144 = $5,032.68To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $6,140.35, so the discounted payback for an $8,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($8,000 – 6,140.35)/$5,771.01 = 1.32 yearsFor an initial cost of $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($13,000 – 6,140.35 – 5,771.01)/$5,399.77 = 2.20 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost.This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $18,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($18,000 – 6,140.35 – 5,771.01 – 5,399.77) / $5,032.68 = 3.14 years4.To calculate the discounted payback, discount all future cash flows back to the present, and use thesediscounted cash flows to calculate the payback period. Doing so, we find:R = 0%: 4 + (£1,100 / £2,100) = 4.52 yearsDiscounted payback = Regular payback = 4.52 yearsR = 5%: £2,100/1.05 + £2,100/1.052 + £2,100/1.053 + £2,100/1.054 + £2,100/1.055 = £9,091.90 £2,100/1.056 = £1,567.05Discounted payback = 5 + (£9,500 – 9,091.90) / £1,567.05 = 5.26 years R = 15%: £2,100/1.15 + £2,100/1.152 + £2,100/1.153 + £2,100/1.154 + £2,100/1.155 + £2,100/1.156 = £7,947.41; The project never pays back.5. a.The average accounting return is the average project earnings after taxes, divided by theaverage book value, or average net investment, of the machine during its life. The book value of the machine is the gross investment minus the accumulated depreciation.Average book value = (Book Value0 + Book Value1 + Book Value2 + Book Value3 +Book Value4 + Book Value5) / (Economic Life)Average book value = ($16,000 + 12,000 + 8,000 + 4,000 + 0) / (5 years)Average book value = $8,000Average Project Earnings = $4,500To find the average accounting return, we divide the average project earnings by the average book value of the machine to calculate the average accounting return. Doing so, we find:Average Accounting Return = Average Project Earnings / Average Book ValueAverage Accounting Return = $4,500 / $8,000Average Accounting Return = 0.5625 or 56.25%6.First, we need to determine the average book value of the project. The book value is the grossinvestment minus accumulated depreciation.Purchase Date Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Gross Investment €8,000 €8,000 €8,000 €8,000Less: Accumulated Depreciation 0 4,000 6,500 8,000Net Investment €8,000 €4,000 €1,500 €0 Now, we can calculate the average book value as:Average book value = (€8,000 + 4,000 + 1,500 + 0) / (4 years)Average book value = €3,375To calculate the average accounting return, we must remember to use the aftertax average netincome when calculating the average accounting return. So, the average aftertax net income is:Average aftertax net income = (1 – t c) Annual pretax net incomeAverage aftertax net income = (1 – 0.25) €2,000Average aftertax net income = €1,500The average accounting return is the average after-tax net income divided by the average book value, which is:Average accounting return = €1,500 / €3,375Average accounting return = 0.4444 or 44.44%7.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that definesthe IRR for this project is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –¥8,000,000 + ¥4,000,000/(1 + IRR) + ¥3,000,000/(1 + IRR)2 + ¥2,000,000/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 6.93%Since the IRR is less than the required return we would reject the project.8.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that definesthe IRR for this Project A is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = – £2,000 + £1,000/(1 + IRR) + £1,500/(1 + IRR)2 + £2,000/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 47.15%And the IRR for Project B is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = – £1,500 + £500/(1 + IRR) + £1,000/(1 + IRR)2 + £1,500/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 36.19%9.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The cash flows from this project are an annuity, so the equation for the profitability index is:PI = C(PVIFA R,t) / C0PI = €41,000(PVIFA15%,7) / €160,000PI = 1.066110. a.The profitability index is the present value of the future cash flows divided by the initial cost.So, for Project Alpha, the profitability index is:PI Alpha = [$300 / 1.10 + $700 / 1.102 + $600 / 1.103] / $500 = 2.604And for Project Beta the profitability index is:PI Beta = [$300 / 1.10 + $1,800 / 1.102 + $1,700 / 1.103] / $2,000 = 1.519b.According to the profitability index, you would accept Project Alpha. However, remember theprofitability index rule can lead to incorrect decision when ranking mutually exclusive projects.Intermediate11. a.To have a payback equal to the project’s life, given C is a constant cash flow for N years:C = I/Nb.To have a positive NPV, I < C (PVIFA R%, N). Thus, C > I / (PVIFA R%, N).c.Benefits = C (PVIFA R%, N) = 2 × costs = 2IC = 2I / (PVIFA R%, N)12. a.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equationthat defines the IRR for this project is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3 + C4 / (1 + IRR)40 = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / (1 + IRR) –₩2,000 / (1 + IRR)2–₩1,000 / (1 + IRR)3–₩1,000 / (1 +IRR)4Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 13.99%b.This problem differs from previous ones because the initial cash flow is positive and all futurecash flows are negative. In other words, this is a financing-type project, while previous projects were investing-type projects. For financing situations, accept the project when the IRR is less than the discount rate. Reject the project when the IRR is greater than the discount rate.IRR = 13.99%Discount Rate = 12%IRR > Discount RateReject the offer when the discount rate is less than the IRR.ing the same reason as part b., we would accept the project if the discount rate is 20 percent.IRR = 13.99%Discount Rate = 19%IRR < Discount RateAccept the offer when the discount rate is greater than the IRR.d.The NPV is the sum of the present value of all cash flows, so the NPV of the project if thediscount rate is 10 percent will be:NPV = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / 1.12 –₩2,000 / 1.122–₩1,000 / 1.123–₩1,000 / 1.124NPV = –₩173.83When the discount rate is 12 percent, the NPV of the offer is –₩359.95. Reject the offer.And the NPV of the project is the discount rate is 19 percent will be:NPV = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / 1.19 –₩2,000 / 1.192–₩1,000 / 1.193–₩1,000 / 1.194NPV = ₩394.75When the discount rate is 19 percent, the NPV of the offer is ₩466.82. Accept the offer.e.Yes, the decisions under the NPV rule are consistent with the choices made under the IRR rulesince the signs of the cash flows change only once.13. a.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the IRR foreach project is:Deepwater Fishing IRR:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$600,000 + $270,000 / (1 + IRR) + $350,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $300,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 24.30%Submarine Ride IRR:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / (1 + IRR) + $700,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $900,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 21.46%Based on the IRR rule, the deepwater fishing project should be chosen because it has the higher IRR.b.To calculate the incremental IRR, we s ubtract the smaller project’s cash flows from the largerproject’s cash flows. In this case, we subtract the deepwater fishing cash flows from the submarine ride cash flows. The incremental IRR is the IRR of these incremental cash flows. So, the incremental cash flows of the submarine ride are:Year 0Year 1Year 2 Year 3 Submarine Ride –$1,800,000 $1,000,000 $700,000 $900,000Deepwater Fishing –600,000 270,000 350,000 300,000Submarine – Fishing –$1,200,000 $730,000 $350,000 $600,000 Setting the present value of these incremental cash flows equal to zero, we find the incremental IRR is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$1,200,000 + $730,000 / (1 + IRR) + $350,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $600,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:Incremental IRR = 19.92%For investing-type projects, accept the larger project when the incremental IRR is greater than the discount rate. Since the incremental IRR, 19.92%, is greater than the required rate of return of 15 percent, choose the submarine ride project. Note that this is the choice when evaluating only the IRR of each project. The IRR decision rule is flawed because there is a scale problem.That is, the submarine ride has a greater initial investment than does the deepwater fishing project. This problem is corrected by calculating the IRR of the incremental cash flows, or by evaluating the NPV of each project.c.The NPV is the sum of the present value of the cash flows from the project, so the NPV of eachproject will be:Deepwater fishing:NPV = –$600,000 + $270,000 / 1.15 + $350,000 / 1.152 + $300,000 / 1.153NPV = $96,687.76Submarine ride:NPV = –$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / 1.15 + $700,000 / 1.152 + $900,000 / 1.153NPV = $190,630.39Since the NPV of the submarine ride project is greater than the NPV of the deepwater fishingproject, choose the submarine ride project. The incremental IRR rule is always consistent withthe NPV rule.14. a.The profitability index is the PV of the future cash flows divided by the initial investment. Thecash flows for both projects are an annuity, so:PI I = 元15,000(PVIFA10%,3 ) / 元30,000 = 1.243PI II = 元2,800(PVIFA10%,3) / 元5,000 = 1.393The profitability index decision rule implies that we accept project II, since PI II is greater thanthe PI I.b.The NPV of each project is:NPV I = –元30,000 + 元15,000(PVIFA10%,3) = 元7,302.78NPV II = –元5,000 + 元2,800(PVIFA10%,3) = 元1,963.19The NPV decision rule implies accepting Project I, since the NPV I is greater than the NPV II.ing the profitability index to compare mutually exclusive projects can be ambiguous whenthe magnitudes of the cash flows for the two projects are of different scale. In this problem,project I is roughly 3 times as large as project II and produces a larger NPV, yet the profit-ability index criterion implies that project II is more acceptable.15. a.The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = –₦28,000,000 + ₦53,000,000/1.11 –₦8,000,000/1.112 = ₦13,254,768.28The NPV is greater than 0, so we would accept the project.b.The equation for the IRR of the project is:0 = –₦28,000,000 + ₦53,000,000/(1+IRR) –₦8,000,000/(1+IRR)2From Descartes rule of signs, we know there are two IRRs since the cash flows change signstwice. From trial and error, the two IRRs are:IRR = 72.75%, –83.46%。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap015

公司理财习题答案第十五章Chapter 15: Capital Structure: Basic Concepts15.1 a. The value of Nadus’ stock is ($20)(5,000) = $100,000. Since Nadus is an all-equityfirm, $100,000 is also the value of the firm.b. The value of any firm is the sum of the market value of its bonds and the marketvalue of its stocks, i.e. V=B+S, For Logis, the value of the stock is not yet known,nor is the value of the firm. The market value of Logis’ bonds is $25,000. Thus,the value of Logis’ stock isS=V - $25,000.c. Costs:Nadus: 0.20 ($100,000) = $20,000Logis: 0.20 (V - $25,000)Returns: You are entitled to 20% of the net income of each firm.Nadus: 0.20 ($350,000) = $70,000Logis: 0.20 [$350,000-0.12($25,000)] = $69,400d. From the standpoint of the stockholders, Logis is riskier. If you hold Logis stock,you can receive returns only after the bondholders have been paid.e. In this problem, positive signs denote negative signs denote all cash inflows and alloutflows. You should expect the immediate flows to be on net negative (anoutflow). The future flows should be on net positive (an inflow).Immediate flows:Borrow from the bank an amount equal to 20% of Logis’ debt$5,000Buy 20% of Nadus’ stock -20,000Total Immediate Flows -$15,000Future flows:Pay the interest on the loan 0.12 ($5,000) -$600Receive 20% of Nadus’ net income 70,000Total Future Flows $69,400f. Since the returns from the purchase of the Logis stock are the same as the returns inthe strategy you constructed in part e, the two investments must cost the same.Cost of the strategy = Cost of Logis stock$15,000 = 0.20 (V-$25,000)Therefore, V=$100,000Note: This is an application of MM-Proposition I, In this MM world with no taxesand no financial distress costs, the value of an levered firm will equal the value ofan un-levered firm. Thus, capital structure does not matter.g. If the value of the Logis firm is $135,000 then the value of Logis stock is $110,000(= $135,000 - $25,000). If that is true, purchasing 20% of Logis’ stock would costyou $22,000 ( = 0.20 x $110,000). You will receive the same return as before($69,400). You can receive the same return for only $15,000 by following thestrategy in part e. Thus, if Logis is worth $135,000, you should borrow on yourown account an amount equal to 20% of Logis’ debt and purchase 20% of Nadus’stock.15.2 a. B=$10 million S=$20 millionTherefore, B/S=$10 / $20 = 1/2b. The required return is the firm’s after-tax overall cost of capital. In this no tax world,that is simplyrBVrSVr 0B S =+Use CAPM to find the required return on equity. Sr = 8% + (0.9)(10%) = 17%The cost of debt is 14%.Therefore,r$10 m illion$30 m illion0.14$20 m illion$30 m illion0.1716% 0=+=15.3 You expect to earn a 20% return on your investment of $25,000. Thus, you are earning$5,000 (=$25,000 x 0.20) per year. Since you borrowed $75,000, you will be makinginterest payments of $7,500 (=$75,000 x 0.10) per annum. Your share of the stock must earn $12,500 (= $5,000 + $7,500). The return without leverage is 0.125 (=$12,500 /$100,000).15.4 The firms are identical except for their capital structures. Thus, under MM-Proposition Itheir market values must be the same regardless of their capital structures. If they are not equal, the lower valued stock is a better purchase.Market values:Levered: V=$275 million + $100 x 4.5 million = $725 millionUnlevered: V= $80 x 10 million = $800 millionSince Levered’s market value is less than Unlevered’s market value, you should buyLevered’s stock. To understand why, construct the strategies that were presented in thetext. Suppose you want to own 5% of the equity of each firm.Strategy One: Buy 5% of Unlevered’s equityStrategy Two: Buy 5% of Levered’s equityStrategy Three: Create the dollar returns of Levered through borrowing an amount equal to 5% of Levered’s debt and purchasing 5% of Unlevered’s stock. If youfollow this strategy you will own what amounts to 5% of the equity ofLevered. The reason why is that the dollar returns will be identical topurchasing 5% of Levered outright.Dollar Investment Dollar Return Strategy One: -(0.05)($800) (0.05)($96)Strategy Two: -(0.05)($450) (0.05)[$96 - (0.08)($275)]Strategy Three:Borrow (0.05)($275) -[(0.05) ($275)] (0.08)Buy Unlevered -(0.05)($800) (0.05)($96)Net $ Flows -(0.05)($525) (0.05)[$96 - (0.08)($275)] Note: Dollar amounts are in millions.Note: Negative signs denote outflows and positive denotes inflows.Since the payoffs to strategies Two and Three are identical, their costs should be the same.Yet, strategy three is more expensive than strategy two ($26.25 million versus $22.5公司理财习题答案第十五章million). Thus, Levered’s stock is underpriced relative to Unlevered’s stock. You should purchase Levered’s s tock.15.5 a. In this MM world, the market value of Veblen must be the same as the market valueof Knight. If they are not equal, an investor can improve his net returns throughborrowing and buying Veblen stock. To understand the improvement, construct thestrategies discussed in the text. The investor already owns 0.0058343 (=$10,000 /$1,714,000) of the equity of Knight. Suppose he is willing to purchase the sameamount of Veblen’s equity.Strategy One (SI): Buy 0.58343% of Veblen’s equit y.Strategy Two (SII): Continue to hold the 0.58343% of Knight’s equity.Strategy Three (SIII): Create the dollar returns of Knight through borrowing anamount equal to 0.58343% of Knight’s debt and purchasing0.58343% of Veblen’s stock. If you follow this strategy youwill own what amounts to 0.58343% of the equity of Knight.The reason why is that the dollar returns will be identical topurchasing 0.58343% of Knight outright.Dollar Investment Dollar Return SI: -(0.0058343)($2.4) (0.0058343)($0.3)SII: -(0.0058343)($1.714) (0.0058343)($0.24)SIII:Borrow (0.0058343)($1) -[(0.0058343) ($1)] (0.06)Buy Veblen -(0.0058343)($2.4) (0.0058343)($0.3)Net $ Flows -(0.0058343)($1.4) (0.0058343)($0.24) Note: Dollar amounts are in millions.Note: Negative signs denote outflows and positive denotes inflows.Since strategies Two and Three have the same payoffs, they should cost the same.Strategy three is cheaper, thus, Knight stock is overpriced relative to Veblen stock.An investor can benefit by selling the Knight stock, borrowing an amount equal to0.0058343 of Knights debt and buying the same portion of Veblen stock. Theinvestor’s dollar returns will be identical to holding the Knight stock, but the costwill be less.b. Modigliani and Miller argue that everyone would attempt to construct the strategy.Investors would attempt to follow the strategy and the act of them doing so willlower the market value of Knight and raise the market value of Veblen until theyare equal.15.6 Each lady has purchased shares of the all-equity NLAW and borrowed or lent to create thenet dollar returns she desires. Once NLAW becomes levered, the return that the ladiesreceive for owning stock will be decreased by the interest payments. Thus, to continue to receive the same net dollar returns, each lady must rebalance her portfolio. The easiestapproach to this problem is to consider each lady individually. Determine the dollarreturns that the investor would receive from an all-equity NLAW. Determine what she will receive from the firm if it is levered. Then adjust her borrowing or lending position tocreate the returns she received from the all-equity firm.Before looking at the women’s positions, look at the firm value.All-equity: V=100,000 x $50 = $5,000,000Levered: V=$1,000,000 + 80,000 x $50 = $5,000,000Remember, the firm repurchased 20,000 shares.The income of the firm is unknown. Since we need it to compute the investor’s returns, we will denote it as Y. Assume that the income of the firm does not change due to the capital restructuring and that it is constant for the foreseeable future.Ms. A before rebalancing: Ms. A owns $10,000 worth of NLAW stock. That ownership represents ownership of 0.002 (=$10,000/$5,000,000) of the all-equity firm. That ownership entitles her to receive 0.002 of the firm’s income; i.e. her dollar return is 0.002Y. Also, Ms. A has borrowed $2,000. That loan will require her to make an interest payment of $400 ($2,000 x 0.20). Thus, the dollar investment and dollar return positions of Ms. A are:Dollar Investment Dollar Return NLAW Stock -$10,000 0.002YBorrowing 2,000 -$400Net -$8,000 0.002Y-$400Note: Negative signs denote outflows and positive denotes inflows.Ms. A after rebalancing: After rebalancing, Ms. A will want to receive net dollar returnsof 0.002Y-$400. The only way to receive the 0.002Y is to own 0.002 of NLAW’s stock. Examine the returns she will receive from the levered NLAW if she owns 0.002 of thef irm’s equity. She will receive (0.002) [Y - ($1,000,000)(0.20)] = 0.002Y - $400. This is exactly the dollar return she desires! Therefore, Ms. A should own 0.002 of the levered firm’s equity and neither lends nor borrow. Owning 0.002 of the firm’s equi ty means she has $8,000 (= 0.0002 x $4,000,000) invested in NLAW stock.Dollar Investment Dollar Return NLAW stock -$8,000 0.002Y - $400Ms. B before rebalancing: Ms. B owns $50,000 worth of NLAW stock. That ownership represents ownership of 0.01 (=$50,000/$5,000,000) of the all-equity firm. That ownership entitles her to receive 0.01 of the firm’s income; i.e. her dollar return is 0.01Y. Also, Ms. B has lent $6,000. That loan will generate interest income for her of the amount $1,200 (=$6,000 x 0.20). Thus, the dollar investment and dollar return positions of Ms. B are:Dollar Investment Dollar Return NLAW Stock -$50,000 0.01YLending -6,000 $1,200Net -$56,000 0.01Y + $1,200Ms. B after rebalancing: After rebalancing, Ms. B will want to receive net dollar returns of 0.01Y + $1,200. The only way to receive the 0.01Y is to own 0.01 of NLAW’s stock. Examine the returns she will receive from the levered NLAW if she owns 0.01 of the firm’s equity. She will receive (0.01) [Y - ($1,000,000) (0.20)] = 0.01Y - $2,000. This is not the return which Ms. B desires, so she must lend enough money to generate interest income of $3,200 (=$2,000 + $1,200). Since the interest rate is 20% she must lend公司理财习题答案第十五章$16,000 (= $3,200 / 0.20). The 0.01 equity interest of Ms. B means she will have $40,000 (=0.01 x $4,000,000) invested in NLAW.Dollar Investment Dollar ReturnNLAW Stock -$40,000 0.01Y - $2,000Lending -16,000 $3,200Net -$56,000 0.01Y + $1,200Ms. C before rebalancing: Ms. C owns $20,000 worth of NLAW stock. That ownershiprepresents ownership of 0.004 (=$20,000 / $5,000,000) of the all-equity firm. Thatownership entitles her to receive 0.004 of the firm’s income; i.e. her dollar return is 0.004Y.The dollar investment and dollar return positions of Ms. A are:Dollar Investment Dollar ReturnNLAW Stock -$20,000 0.004YMs. C after rebalancing: After rebalancing, Ms. C will want to receive net dollar returns of0.004Y. The only way to receive the 0.004Y is to ow n 0.004 of NLAW’s stock. Examinethe returns she will receive from the levered NLAW if she owns 0.004 of the firm’s equity.She will receive (0.004) [Y - ($1,000,000) (0.20)] = 0.004Y - $800. This is not the dollar return she desires. Therefore, Ms. C must lend enough money to offset the $800 she loses once the firm becomes levered. Since the interest rate is 20% she must lend $4,000 (=$800 / 0.20). The 0.004 equity interest of Ms. C means she will have $16,000 (0.004 x$4,000,000) invested in NLAW.Dollar Investment Dollar ReturnNLAW Stock -$16,000 0.004Y - $800Lending -4,000 $800Net -$20,000 0.004Y15.7 a. Since Rayburn is currently an all-equity firm, the value of the firm’s assets equalsthe value of its equity. Under MM-Proposition One, the value of a firm will notchange due to a capital structure change, and the overall cost of capital will remainunchanged. Therefore, Rayburn’s overall cost of capital is 18%.b. MM-Proposition Two states r r(B/S)(r r)=+-.S00BApplying this formula you can find the cost of equity.r = 18% + ($400,000 / $1,600,000) (18% - 10%) = 20%Sc. In accordance with Proposition Two, the expected return on Rayburn’s equity willrise with the amount of leverage. This rise occurs because of the risk which the debt adds.15.8 a.b.i. According to efficient markets, Strom’s stock price will rise immediately toreflect the NPV of the project.ii. The NPV of the facilities that Strom is buying isNPV= -$300,000 + ($120,000 / 0.15) = $500,000The sum of the old assets and the NPV of the new facilities is the new value ofthe firm ($5.5 million). Since new shares have not yet been sold, the price of theoutstanding shares must rise. The new price is $5,500,000 / 250,000 = $22.iii. Strom needed to raise $300,000 through the sale of stock that sells for $22.Thus, Strom sold 13,636.364 (=$300,000 / $22) shares.iv.v.vi. The returns available to the shareholders are the sum of the returns from each portion of the firm.Total earnings = $750,000 + $120,000 = $870,000Return = ($870,000 / $5,800,000) = 15%Note: The returns to the shareholder had to be the same since r0 was unchangedand the firm added no debt.c.i.Under efficient markets the price of the shares must rise to reflect the NPV of thenew facilities. The value will be the same as with all-equity financing because1. Strom purchased the same competitor and2. In this MM world debt is no better or no worse than equity.公司理财习题答案第十五章ii.iii. The cost of equity will be the earnings after interest and taxes divided by the market value of common. Since Strom pays no taxes, the cost of equity is simplythe earnings after interest (EAI) divided by the market value of common.EAI = $750,000 + $120,000 - $300,000 (0.10) = $840,000Cost of equity = $840,000 / $5,500,000 = 15.27%iv. The debt causes the equity of the firm to be riskier. Remember, stockholders are residual owners of the firm.v. MM-Proposition Two states,r r(B/S)(r r)15%($300,000/$5,500,000)(15%10%)15.27% =+-=+-=S00Bd. Examine the final balance sheet for the firm and you will see that the price is $22under each plan.15.9 a. The market value of the firm will be the present value of Gulf’s earning s after thenew plant is built. Since the firm is an all-equity firm, the overall required return isthe required return on equity.Annual earnings = Original plant + New Plant= $27 million + $3 million = $30 millionValue = $30 million / 0.1 = $300 millionb. Gulf Power is in an MM world (no taxes, no costs of financial distress). Therefore,the value of the firm is unchanged by a change in the capital structure.c. The overall required rate of return is also unchanged by the capital structurechange. Thus, according to MM-Proposition Two, r r(B/S)(r r)=+-. TheS00B firm is valued at $300 million of which $20 million is debt. The remaining $280million is the value of the stock.r S = 10% + ($20 million / $280 million) (10% - 8%) = 10.14%15.10 a. False. Leverage increases both the risks of the stock and its expected return. MMpoint out that these two effects exactly cancel out each other and leave the price ofthe stock and the value of the firm invariant to leverage. Since leverage is beingreduced in this firm, the risk of the shares is lower; however, the price of the stockremains the same in accordance with MM.b. False. If moderate borrowing does not affect the probability of financial distress,then the required return on equity is proportional to the debt-equity ratio [i.e.=+-]. Increasing the amount of debt will increase the return on r r(B/S)(r r)S00Bequity.15.11 a.i. Individuals can borrow at the same interest rate at which firms borrow.ii. There are no taxes.iii. There are no costs of financial distress.b.i. If firms are able to borrow at a rate that is lower than that at which individualsborrow, then it is possible to increase the firm’s value through borrowing. Asthe text discussed, since investors can purchase securities on margin, theindividuals’ effective rate is probably no higher than that of the firms.ii. In the presence of corporate taxes, the value of the firm is positively related to the level of debt. Since interest payments are deductible, increasing debtminimizes tax expenditure and thus maximizes the value of the firm for thestockholders. As will be shown in the next chapter, personal taxes offset thepositive effect of debt.iii. Because these costs are substantial and stockholders eventually bear them, they are incentives to lower the amount of debt. This implies that the capital structuremay matter. This topic will also be discussed more fully in the next chapter. 15.12 a and b.Total investment in the firm’s assets = $10 x 1million x 1% = $0.1 million3 choices of financing 20% debt 40% debt 60% debtTotal asset investment 0.1 0.1 0.1x ROA (15%) 0.015 0.015 0.015- Interest 0.2 x 0.1 x0.1 0.4 x 0.1 x 0.1 0.6 x 0.1 x 0.1Profit after interest 0.013 0.011 0.009/ Investment in equity 0.1 x 0.8 0.1 x 0.6 0.1 x 0.4ROE 16.25% 18.33% 22.5%Susan can expect to earn $0.013 million, $0.011 million, and $0.009 million,respectively, from the correspondent three scenarios of financing choices, i.e.borrowing 20%, 40%, or 60% of the total investment. The respective returns onequity are 16.25%, 18.33% and 22.5%.c. From part a and b, we can see that in an MM with no tax world, higher leveragebrings about higher return on equity. The high ROE is due to the increased risk ofequity while the WACC remains unchanged. See below.WACC for 20% debt = 16.25% x 0.8 + 10% x 0.2 = 15%WACC for 40% debt = 18.33% x 0.6 + 10% x 0.4 = 15%WACC for 60% debt = 22.5% x 0.4 + 10% x 0.6 = 15%This example is a case of homemade leverage, so the results are parallel to that of aleveraged firm.15.13 Suppose individuals can borrow at the same rate as the corporation, there is no needfor the firm to change its capital structure because of the different forecasts ofearnings growth rates, as investors can always duplicate the leverage by creatinghomemade leverage. Different expectation of earnings growth rates can affect theexpected return on assets. But this change is the result of the change in expectedoperating performance of the corporation and/or other macroeconomic factors. Theleverage ratio is irrelevant here since we are in an MM without tax world.公司理财习题答案第十五章15.14 a. current debt = 0.75 / 10% = $7.5 millioncurrent equity = 7.5 / 40% = $18.75 millionTotal firm value = 7.5 + 18.75 = $26.25 millionb. r s = earnings after interest/total equity value = $(3.75 - .75)/$18.75 = 16%r B =10%r 0 = (.4/1.4)(10%) + (1/1.4)(16%) = 14.29%r S after repurchase = 14.29% + (50%)(14.29% - 10%) = 16.44%So, the return on equity would increase from 16% to 16.44% with the completion of the planned stock repurchase.c. The stock price wouldn’t change because in an MM world, there’s no added value toa change in firm leverage. In other words, it’s a zero NPV transaction.15.15 a. Since V V T B L U C =+,V =V T B U L C -. L V = $1,700,000, B = $500,000 and C T =0.34. Therefore, the value of the unlevered firm isU V = $1,700,000 - (0.34)($500,000) = $1,530,000b. Equity holders earn 20% after-tax in an all-equity firm. That amount is $306,000(=$1,530,000 x 0.20). The yearly, after-tax interest expense in the levered firm is$33,000 [=$500,000 x 0.10 (1-0.34)]. Thus, the after-tax earnings of the equityholders in a levered firm are $273,000 (=$306,000 - $33,000). This amount is thefirm’s net income.15.16 The initial market value of the equity is given as $3,500,000. On a per share basis this is$20 (=$3,500,000 / 175,000). The firm buys back $1,000,000 worth of shares, or 50,000 (= $1,000,000 / $20) shares.In this MM world with taxes,V V T B L U C =+= $3,500,000 + (0.3) ($1,000,000) = $3,800,000Since V = B + S, the market value of the equity is $2,800,000 (= $3,800,000 - $1,000,000).15.17 a. Since Streiber is an all-equity firm,V = EBIT (1 - C T ) / 0r = $2,500,000 (1 - 0.34) / 0.20 = $8,250,000b. V V T B L U C =+= $8,250,000 + (0.34)($600,000) = $8,454,000c. The presence of debt creates a tax shield for the firm. That tax shield has value andaccounts for the increase in the value of the firm.d. You are making the MM assumptions:i. No personal taxesii. No costs of financial distressiii. Debt level of the firm is constant through time15.18 a. In this MM world with no financial distress costs, the value of the levered firm isgiven by V V T B L U C =+. The value of the unlevered firm is V = EBIT (1 - C T ) / r 0.The market value of the debt of Olbet is B = $200,000 / 0.08 = $2,500,000.Therefore, V = $1,200,000 (1 - 0.35) / 0.12 + ($2,500,000) (0.35) = $7,375,000b. Since debt adds to the value of the firm, it implies that the firm should be financedentirely with debt if it wishes to maximize its value.c. This conclusion is incorrect because it does not consider the costs of financialdistress or other agency costs that might offset the positive contribution of the debt. These costs will be discussed in further detail in the next chapter.15.19 a. Since Green is currently an all-equity firm, the value of the firm is the value of itsoutstanding equity, $10 million. The value of the firm must also equal the PV ofthe after-tax earnings, discounted at the overall required return. The after-taxearnings are simply ($1,500,000) (1 - 0.4) = $900,000. Thus, $10,000,000 =$900,000 / 0r0r = 0.09b. With 500,000 shares outstanding, the current price of a share is $20 (=$10,000,000 / 500,000). Green’s market value balance sheet isTherefore, at the announcement, the value of the firm will rise by the PV of the tax shield (PVTS). The PVTS is ($2,000,000) (0.4) = $800,000. Since the value of the firm has risen $800,000 and the debt has not yet been issued, the price of Green stock must rise to reflect the increase in firm value. Since the firm is worth $10,800,000 (=$10,000,000 + 800,000) and there are 500,000 shares outstanding,the price of a share rises to $21.60 (= $10,800,000 / 500,000). price of the stock rises to $21.60. Thus, Green will retire $2,000,000 / $21.60 = $92,592.59 shares. e. After the restructuring, the value of the firm will still be $10,800,000. Debt will be $2,000,000 and the 407,407.41 (=500,000 - 92,592.59) outstanding shares of stockwill sell for $21.60. )T -)(1r (B /S)(r r r C B 00S -+= = 0.09 + ($2,000,000 / $8,800,000) (0.09 - 0.06) (1 - 0.4) = 9.41%15.20 a.million $20.83$100.3515.0)65.0(4$B T r )T EBIT(1B T V V C 0C C U L =⨯+=+-=+= b.公司理财习题答案第十五章Answers to End-of-Chapter Problems B-15112.48%V )T EBIT(1r V S )T (1r V Br L C S L C B L WACC =-=+-= c. r r (B /S)(r r )(1-T S 00B C =+-)= 0.15 + [10 / (20.83 - 10)] (0.65) (0.15 - 0.10) = 18.01%15.21 a. r S = 0r + (B / S)( 0r – B r )(1 – C T )= 15% + (2.5)(15% – 11%)(1– 35%)= 21.50%b. If there is no debt, WACC r = r S = 15%c. S r = 15% + 0.75 (15% – 11%)(1 – 35%)= 16.95%B/S = 0.75, B = 0.75SB/(B+S) = 0.75S/(0.75S +S)= 0.75 /1.75S/(B+S) = 1– (0.75 /1.75) = (1/1.75)r WACC = (0.75/1.75)(0.11)(1– 0.35) + (1/1.75)(16.95%)= 12.75%S r = 15% + 1.5 (15% – 11%)(1 – 35%)= 18.90%B/S = 1.5, B = 1.5SB/(B+S) = 1.5S/(1.5S +S)= 1.5/2.5S /(B+S) = 1 – (1.5/2.5)WACC r = (1.5/2.5)(0.11)(1 – 0.35) + (1/2.5)(0.1890)= 11.85%15.22 Since this is an all-equity firm, the WACC = S r .$240,00025.0)4.01(000,100$r )T EBIT(1V S C U =-=-=If the firm borrows to repurchase its own shares, then the value of GT will be: L V = U V + C T B()$440,000000,500$4.025.0)6.0(000,100$=⨯+=。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap030

公司理财习题答案第三十章Chapter 30: Mergers and Acquisitions30.1 The new corporation issues $300,000 in new debt. The merger creates $100,000 ofgoodwill because the merger is a purchase.Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets$480Current liabilities$200Other assets140Long-term debt400Net fixed assets580Equity700Goodwill100Total assets$1,300Total liabilities$1,300 30.2 If the balance sheet for Philadelphia Pretzel shows assets at book value instead of marketvalue, the goodwill will be only $60,000 (=$300,000 - $240,000). Thus, the net fixed assetsare $620,000 (=$1,300,000 - $480,000 - $140,000 - $60,000).Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets$480Current liabilities$200Other assets140Long-term debt400Net fixed assets620Equity700Goodwill60Total assets$1,300Total liabilities$1,300 30.3Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets$480Current liabilities$280Other assets140Long-term debt100Net fixed assets580Equity820Total assets$1,200Total liabilities$1,200 30.4 a. False. Although the reasoning seems correct, the Stillman-Eckbo data do not supportthe monopoly power theory.b. True. When managers act in their own interest, acquisitions are an important controldevice for shareholders. It appears that some acquisitions and takeovers are theconsequence of underlying conflicts between managers and shareholders.c. False. Even if markets are efficient, the presence of synergy will make the value ofthe combined firm different from the sum of the values of the separate firms.Incremental cash flows provide the positive NPV of the transaction.d. False. In an efficient market, traders will value takeovers based on “Fundamentalfactors” regardless of the time horizon. Recall that the evidence as a whole suggestsefficiency in the markets. Mergers should be no different.e. False. The tax effect of an acquisition depends on whether the merger is taxable ornon-taxable. In a taxable merger, there are two opposing factors to consider, thecapital gains effect and the write-up effect. The net effect is the sum of these twoeffects.f. True. Because of the coinsurance effect, wealth might be transferred from thestockholders to the bondholders. Acquisition analysis usually disregards this effectand considers only the total value.30.5(in $ millions)Net Cash FlowPer Year(Perpetual)DiscountRate (%)ValueSmall Fry816%50Whale2010%200Benefits from Acquisition:511.76%42.5Revenue Enhancement 2.520%12.5Cost Reduction210%20Tax Shelters0.55%10Whale-Fry$3311.28%$292.5Per share price = ($292.5-100)/5 = $38.530.6 a. The weather conditions are independent. Thus, the joint probabilities are theproducts of the individual probabilities.Possible states Joint probabilityRain Rain0.1 x 0.1=0.01Rain Warm0.1 x 0.4=0.04Rain Hot0.1 x 0.5=0.05Warm Rain0.4 x 0.1=0.04Warm Warm0.4 x 0.4=0.16Warm Hot0.4 x 0.5=0.20Hot Rain0.5 x 0.1=0.05Hot Warm0.5 x 0.4=0.20Hot Hot0.5 x 0.5=0.25Since the state Rain Warm has the same outcome (revenue) as Warm Rain, theirprobabilities can be added. The same is true of Rain Hot, Hot Rain and Warm Hot,Hot Warm. Thus the joint probabilities arePossiblestatesJoint probabilityRain Rain0.01Rain Warm0.08Rain Hot0.10Warm Warm0.16Warm Hot0.40Hot Hot0.25公司理财习题答案第三十章The joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particular state.Possible states Joint valueRain Rain$200,000Rain Warm300,000Warm Warm400,000Rain Hot500,000Warm Hot600,000Hot Hot800,000b. Recall, if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of theassets. Thus, the value of the debt is the value of the company if the face value of the debt is greater than the value of the company. If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value. Here the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt.Joint Prob.Joint Value Debt Value Stock Value0.01$200,000$200,000$00.08300,000300,00000.16400,000400,00000.10500,000400,000100,0000.40600,000400,000200,0000.25800,000400,000400,000c. To show that the value of the combined firm is the sum of the individual values, youmust show that the expected joint value is equal to the sum of the separate expected values.Expected joint value= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($500,000) +0.40($600,000) + 0.25($800,000)= $580,000Since the firms are identical, the sum of the expected values is twice the expectedvalue of either.Expected individual value = 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($400,000) = $290,000 Expected combined value = 2($290,000) = $580,000d. The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater thanthe value of the debt before the merger.Value of the debt before the merger:The value of debt for either company= 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($200,000) = $190,000Total value of debt before the merger = 2($190,000) = $380,000Value of debt after the merger= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($400,000) + 0.40($400,000) +0.25($400,000) = $390,000The bondholders are $10,000 better off after the merger.30.7 The decision hinges upon the risk of surviving. The final decision should hinge on thewealth transfer from bondholders to stockholders when risky projects are undertaken. High-risk projects will reduce the expected value of the bondholders’ claims on the firm. The telecommunications business is riskier than the utilities business. If the total value of the firm does not change, the increase in risk should favor the stockholder. Hence, management should approve this transaction. Note, if the total value of the firm drops because of the transaction and the wealth effect is lower than the reduction in total value, management should reject the project.30.8 If the market is “smart,” the P/E ratio will not be constant.a. Value = $2,500 + $1,000 = $3,500b. EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=($100 + $100)/200 =$1c. Price per share = Value/Total number of shares=$3,500/200 =$17.50d. If the market is “fooled,” the P/E ratio will be constant at $25.Value = P/E * Total number of shares= 25 * 200 = $5,000EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=$5,000/200 = $25.0030.9 a. After the merger, Arcadia Financial will have 130,000 [=10,000 + (50,000)(6/10)]shares outstanding. The earnings of the combined firm will be $325,000. The earnings per share of the combined firm will be $2.50 (=$325,000/130,000). The acquisition will increase the EPS for the stockholders from $2.25 to $2.50.b. There will be no effect on the original Arcadia stockholders. No synergies exist in this merger since Arcadia is buying Coldran at its market price. Examining the relative values of the two firms sees the latter point.Share price of Arcadia = (16 * $225,000) / 100,000=$36Share price of Coldran = (10.8 * $100,000) / 50,000=$21.60The relative value of these prices is $21.6/$36 = 0.6. Since Coldran’s shareholders receive 0.6 shares of Arcadia for every share of Coldran, no synergies exist.30.10 a. The synergy will be the discounted incremental cash flows. Since the cash flows areperpetual, this amount is000,500,7$08.0000,600$公司理财习题答案第三十章b.The value of Flash-in-the-Pan to Fly-by-Night is the synergy plus the current marketvalue of Flash-in-the-Pan.V = $7,500,000 + $20,000,000= $27,500,000c. Cash alternative = $15,000,000Stock alternative = 0.25($27,500,000 + $35,000,000)= $15,625,000d. NPV of cash alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,000,000=$12,500,000NPV of stock alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,625,000=$11,875,000e. Use the cash alternative, its NPV is greater.30.11 a. The value of Portland Industries before the merger is $9,000,000 (=750,000x12). Thisvalue is also the discounted value of the expected future dividends.$9,000,000 = $1.80250,000)1.05(r0.05)⨯-r = 0.1025 = 10.25%r is the risk-adjusted discount rate for Portland’s expected future dividends. the value of Portland Industries after the merger is385,815,14$) 07.01025 .0(07.1) 000 ,25080.1($V =-⨯=This is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.b. NPV= Gain - Cost= $14,815,385 - ($40x250, 000)= $4,815,385c. If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but thecost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $14,815,385= $29,815,385Fraction of ownership600,0001,000,000600,0000.375 =+=Cost= 0.375x$29,815,385= $11,180,769NPV= $14,815,385 - $11,180,769=$3,634,616d. The acquisition should be attempted with a cash offer since it provides a higher NPV.e. The value of Portland Industries after the merger isV($1.80250,000)1.06(0.10250.06)$11,223,529 =⨯-=This is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.NPV= Gain-Cost=$11,223,529 - ($40x250,000)=$1,223,529If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but the cost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $11,223,529= $26,223,529Fraction of ownership600,0001,000,000600,0000.375 =+=Cost = 0.375 * $26,223,529=$9,833,823NPV = $11,223,529 - $9,833,823=$1,389,706The acquisition should be attempted with a stock offer since it provides a higher NPV.30.12a. Number of shares after acquisition=30 + 15 = 45 milStock price of Harrods after acquisition = 1,000/45=22.22 poundsb.Value of Selfridge stockholders after merger:α * 1,000 = 300α = 30%30%New Shares IssuedNew Shares Issued Old SharesNew Shares IssuedNew Shares Issued30=+=+New shares issued = 12.86 mil12.86:20 = 0.643:1The proper exchange ratio should be 0.643 to make the stock offer’s value to Selfridge equivalent to the cash offer.30.13To evaluate this proposal, look at the present value of the incremental cash flows.公司理财习题答案第三十章Cash Flows to Company A(in $ million)Year012345 Acquisition of B-550Dividends from B150325203045 Tax-loss carryforwards2525Terminal value600 Total-40032304530645 The additional cash flows from the tax-loss carry forwards and the proposed level of debt should be discounted at the cost of debt because they are determined with very little uncertainty.The after-tax cash flows are subject to normal business risk and must be discounted at a normal rate.Beta coefficient for the bond = 0.25 = [(8%-6%)/8%].Beta coefficient for the company = 1 = [(0.25)2 + (1.25)(0.75)]Discount rate for normal operations:r = 6% + 8% (1) = 14%Discount rate for dividends:The new beta coefficient for the company, 1, must be the weighted average of the debt beta and the stock beta.1 = 0.5(0.25) + 0.5(βs)βs = 1.75r = 6% + 8%(1.75) = 20%2. 21 $17.204$43.467$85.19$43.21$08.18$47.14$57.11$47.3$67.26$400 $)08.1(300$)14.1(900$)08.1(25$)08.1(25$)2.1(45$)2.1(30$2.1(20$)2.1(5$2.132$400$NPV5532543)2-=-++++++++-=-++++++++-=Because the NPV of the acquisition is negative, Company A should not acquireCompany B.30.14 The commonly used defensive tactics by target-firm managers include:i. corporate charter amendments like super-majority amendment or staggering theelection of board members.ii. repurchase standstill agreements.iii. exclusionary self-tenders.iv. going private and leveraged buyouts.v. other devices like golden parachutes, scorched earth strategy, poison pill, ..., etc.Mini Case: U.S.Steel’s case.You have 3 choices: tender, or do not tender or sell in the market. If you do sell your shares in the market, at some point, somebody else would need to make a decision in “tender” or “not tender” as well.It is important to recognize that the firm has about 60 million shares outstanding (since 30million shares will give US Steel 50.1% of Marathon shares). Let’s consider the possible selling prices, which you will receive for each of the following scenarios:US Steel Tender offerSucceeds FailsTenderA pro-ratedPrice between $125 and $85Market priceDo not Tender$85Market priceIf US Steel’s tender offer fails, you are equally well off since your share value is determined by the market price.If you choose not to tender, and 30 million shares were tendered US Steel succeeds to gain50.1% control, you will only receive $85 a share. If you do tender, the price you will receive will be no worse than $85 a share and can be as high as $125 a share. Depending on the number of shares tendered, you will receive one of the following prices.1.If only 50.1% tendered, you will get $125 per share.2.If the shares tendered exceed 50.1% but less than 100%, you will get more than $105 ashare.3.If all 60 million shares were tendered, you will get $105 per share. (which is)()()85$6030125$6030+It is clear that, in the above 3 cases, when you are not sure about whether US Steel will succeed or not, you will be better off to tender your shares than not tender. This is because at best, you will only receive $85 per share if you choose not to tender.。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap006

公司理财习题答案第六章Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment Rules6.1 a. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 yearsPayback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. NPV A = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96NPV B = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83Project B should be chosen.6.2 a. Payback period = 6 + {$1,000,000 - ($150,000 ⨯ 6)} / $150,000 = 6.67 yearsYes, the project should be adopted.b. $150,000 11A= $974,259.010The discounted payback period = 11 + ($1,000,000 - $974,259) / ($150,000 / 1.112)= 11.54 yearsc. NPV = -$1,000,000 + $150,000 / 0.10 = $500,0006.3 a. Average Investment:($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000Average accounting return:$4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25%b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does notconsider the time value of money.2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule.3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows.6.4 Average Investment = ($2,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $1,000,000Average net income = [$100,000 {(1 + g)5 - 1} / g] / 5= {$100,000A (1.075 - 1} / 0.07} / 5= $115,014.78AAR = $115,014.78 / $1,000,000 = 11.50%No, since the machine’s AAR is less than the firm’s cutoff AAR.6.5 a6.6PI = $40,000 7A / $160,000 = 1.04.015Since the PI exceeds one accept the project.6.7 The IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0.-$3,000 + $2,500 / (1 + IRR A) + $1,000 / (1 + IRR A)2 = 0By trial and error, IRR A = 12.87%Since project B’s cash flows are two times of those of project A, the IRR B = IRR A =12.87%6.8 a. Solve x by trial and error:-$4,000 + $2,000 / (1 + x) + $1,500 / (1 + x)2 + $1,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0x = 6.93%b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discount rate of 8%.6.9 Find the IRRs of project A analytically. Since the IRR is the discount rate that makes the NPVequal to zero, the following equation must hold.-$200 + $200 / (1 + r) + $800 / (1 + r)2 - $800 / (1 + r)3 = 0$200 [-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] - {$800 / (1 + r)2}[-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] = 0[-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] [$200 - $800 / (1 + r)2] = 0For this equation to hold, either [-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] = 0 or [$200 - $800 / (1 + r)2] = 0.Solve each of these factors for the r that would cause the factor to equal zero. Theresulting rates are the two IRRs for project A. They are either r = 0% or r = 100%.Note: By inspection you should have known that one of the IRRs of project A iszero. Notice that the sum of the un-discounted cash flows for project A is zero.Thus, not discounting the cash flows would yield a zero NPV. The discount ratewhich is tantamount to not discounting is zero.Here are some of the interactions used to find the IRR by trial and error.Sophisticated calculators can compute this rate without all of the tedium involved inthe trial-and-error method.NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.3 + $100 / 1.32 + $150 / 1.33 = $15.91NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.4 + $100 / 1.42 + $150 / 1.43 = -$8.60NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.37 + $100 / 1.372 + $150 / 1.373 = -$1.89NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36 + $100 / 1.36 2 + $150 / 1.363 = $0.46NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36194 + $100 / 1.361942 + $150 / 1.361943= $0.0010NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36195 + $100 / 1.361952 + $150 / 1.361953= -$0.0013NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.361944 + $100 / 1.3619442 + $150 / 1.3619443= $0.0000906Thus, the IRR is approximately 36.1944%.6.10 a. Solve r in the equation:$5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3- $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0By trial and error,IRR = r = 13.99%b. Since this problem is the case of financing, accept the project if the IRR is less thanthe required rate of return.IRR = 13.99% > 10%Reject the offer.c. IRR = 13.99% < 20%Accept the offer.d. When r = 10%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14= -$359.95When r = 20%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24= $466.82Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cashflows change only once.公司理财习题答案第六章6.11 a. Project A:NPV = -$5,000 + $3,500 / (1 + r) + $3,500 / (1 + r)2 = 0IRR = r = 25.69%Project B:NPV = -$100,000 + $65,000 / (1 + r) + $65,000 / (1 + r)2 = 0IRR = r = 19.43%b. Choose project A because it has a higher IRR.c. The difference in scale is ignored.d. Apply the incremental IRR method.e.C0C1C2B - A -$95,000 $61,500 $61,500NPV = -$95,000 + $61,500 / (1 + r) + $61,500 / (1 + r)2 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 19.09%f. If the discount rate is less than 19.09%, choose project B.Otherwise, choose project A.g. NPV A = -$5,000 + $3,500 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 = $689.98NPV B = -$100,000 + $65,000 / 1.15 + $65,000 / 1.152 = $5,671.08Choose project B.6.12 a. PV A = {$5,000 / (0.12 - 0.04)} / 1.122 = $49,824.61PV B = (-$6,000 / 0.12) / 1.12 = -$44,642.86b. The IRR for project C must solve{$5,000 / (x - 0.04)} / (1 + x)2 + (-$6,000 / x) / (1 + x) = 0$5,000 / (x - 0.04) - $6,000 (1 + x) / x = 025 x2 + 3.17 x - 1 =0x = {-3.17 - (110.0489)0.5} / 50 or {-3.17 + (110.0489)0.5} / 50The relevant positive root is IRR = x = 0.1464 = 14.64%c. To arrive at the appropriate decision rule, we must graph the NPV as a function ofthe discount rate. At a discount rate of 14.64% the NPV is zero. To determine if thegraph is upward or downward sloping, check the NPV at another discount rate. At adiscount rate of 10% the NPV is $14,325.07 [= $68,870.52 - $54,545.54]. Thus, thegraph of the NPV is downward sloping. From the discussion in the text, if an NPVgraph is downward sloping, the project is an investing project. The correct decisionrule for an investing project is to accept the project if the discount rate is below14.64%.14.64% 10% rNPV0 $14,325.076.13 Generally, the statement is false. If the cash flows of project B occur early and the cashflows of project A occur late, then for a low discount rate the NPV of A can exceed theNPV of B. Examples are easy to construct.C0C1C2IRR NPV @ 0% A: -$1,000,000 $0 $1,440,000 0.20 $440,000B: -2,000,000 2,400,000 0 0.20 400,000 In one particular case, the statement is true for equally risky projects. If the lives of thetwo projects are equal and in every time period the cash flows of the project B are twice the cash flows of project A, then the NPV of project B will be twice as great as the NPV of project A for any discount rate between 0% and 20%.6.14 a. NPVα = $756.57 - $500 = $256.57NPVβ = $2,492.11 - $2,000 = $492.11b. Choose project beta.6.15 Although the profitability index is higher for project B than for project A, the NPV is theincrease in the value of the company that will occur if a particular project is undertaken.Thus, the project with the higher NPV should be chosen because it increases the value of the firm the most. Only in the case of capital rationing could the pension fund manager be correct.6.16 a. PI A = ($70,000 / 1.12 + $70,000 / 1.122) / $100,000 = 1.183PI B = ($130,000 / 1.12 + $130,000 / 1.122) / $200,000 = 1.099PI C = ($75,000 / 1.12 + $60,000 / 1.122) / $100,000 = 1.148b. NPV A = -$100,000 + $118,303.57 = $18,303.57NPV B = -$200,000 + $219,706.63 = $19,706.63NPV C = -$100,000 + $114,795.92 = $14,795.92c. Accept all three projects because PIs of all the three projects are greater than one.d. Based on the PI rule, project C can be eliminated because its PI is less than the oneof project A, while both have the same amount of the investment. We can computethe PI of the incremental cash flows between the two projects,Project C0C1C2PIB - A -$100,000 $60,000 $60,000 1.014We should take project B since the PI of the incremental cash flows is greater thanone.e. Project B has the highest NPV, while A has the next highest NPV.Take both projects A and B.6.17 a. The payback period is the time it takes to recoup the initial investment of a project.Accept any project that has a payback period that is equal to or shorter than thecompany’s standard payback period. Reject all other projects.b. The average accounting return (AAR) is defined asAverage project earnings ÷ Average book value of the investment.Accept projects for which the AAR is equal to or greater than the firm’s standard.Reject all other projects.c. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the discount rate which makes the net presentvalue (NPV) of the project zero. The accept / reject criteria is:公司理财习题答案第六章If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, accept the project if IRR ≥discount rate.If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, reject the project if IRR <discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, accept the project if IRR ≤discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, reject the project if IRR >discount rate.If the project has cash flows that alternate in sign, there is likely to be more thanone positive IRR. In that situation, there is no valid IRR accept / reject rule.d. The profitability index (PI) is defined as:(The present value of the cash flows subsequent to the initial investment ÷The initial investment)Accept any project for which the profitability index is equal to or greater thanone. Reject project for which that is not true.e. The net present value (NPV) is the sum of the present values of all project cashflows. Accept those projects with NPVs which are equal to or greater than zero.Rejects p roposals with negative NPVs.6.18 Let project A represent New Sunday Early Edition; and let project B represent NewSaturday Late Edition.a. Payback period of project A = 2 + ($1,200 - $1,150) / $450 = 2.11 yearsPayback period of project B = 2 + ($2,100 - $1,900) / $800 = 2.25 yearsBased on the payback period rule, you should choose project A.b. Project A:Average investment = ($1,200 + $0) / 2 = $600Depreciation = $400 / yearAverage income = [($600 - $400) + ($550 - $400) + ($450 - $400)] / 3= $133.33AAR = $133.33 / $600 = 22.22%Project B:Average investment = ($2,100 + $0) / 2 = $1,050Depreciation = $700 / yearAverage income = [($1,000 - $700) + ($900 - $700) + ($800 - $700)] / 3= $200AAR = $200 / $1,050 = 19.05%c. IRR of project A:-$1,200 + $600 / (1 + r) + $550 / (1 + r)2 + $450 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 16.76%IRR of project B:-$2,100 + $1,000 / (1 + r) + $900 / (1 + r)2 + $800 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 14.29%Project A has a greater IRR.d. IRR of project B-A:Incremental cash flowsYear 0 1 2 3B - A -$900 $400 $350 $350-$900 + $400 / (1 + r) + $350 / (1 + r)2 + $350 / (1 + r)3 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 11.02%If the required rate of return is greater than 11.02%, then choose project A.If the required rate of return is less than 11.02%, then choose project B.6.19 Let project A be Deepwater Fishing; let project B be New Submarine Ride.a. Project A:Year Discounted CF Cumulative CF0 -$600,000 -$600,0001 234,783 -365,2172 264,650 -100,5673 197,255Discounted payback period of project A = 2 + $100,567 / $197,255= 2.51 yearsProject B:Year Discounted CF Cumulative CF0 -$1,800,000 -$1,800,0001 869,565 -930,4352 529,301 -401,1343 591,765Discounted payback period of project B = 2 + $401,134 / $591,765= 2.68 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. IRR of project A:-$600,000 + $270,000 / (1 + r) + $350,000 / (1 + r)2 + $300,000 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 24.30%IRR of project B:-$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 /(1 + r) + $700,000 / (1 + r)2 + $900,000 / (1 + r)3= 0IRR = r = 21.46%Based on the IRR rule, project A should be chosen since it has a greater IRR.c. Incremental IRR:Year 0 1 2 3B - A -$1,200,000 $730,000 $350,000 $600,000-$1,200,000 + $730,000 / (1 + r) + $350,000 / (1 + r)2 + $600,000 / (1 + r)3 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 19.92%Since the incremental IRR is greater than the required rate of return, 15%, chooseproject B.d. NPV A = -$600,000 + $270,000 / 1.15 + $350,000 / 1.152 + $300,000 / 1.153= $96,687.76公司理财习题答案第六章NPV B = -$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / 1.15 + $700,000 / 1.152 + $900,000 / 1.153= $190,630.39Since NPV B > NPV A , choose project B.Yes, the NPV rule is consistent with the incremental IRR rule. 6.20 a. The IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0-$600,000 + ()0r 1000,50$r 1%811%)8r (000,100$1111=+-⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛++--IRR ≈18.56%b.Yes, the mine should be opened since its IRR exceeds its required return of 10%.。

罗斯公司理财Chap002全英文题库及答案

罗斯公司理财Chap002全英⽂题库及答案Chapter 02 Financial Statements and Cash Flow Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. The financial statement showing a firm's accounting value on a particular date is the:A. income statement.B. balance sheet.C. statement of cash flows.D. tax reconciliation statement.E. shareholders' equity sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: DEFINITIONS2. A current asset is:A. an item currently owned by the firm.B. an item that the firm expects to own within the next year.C. an item currently owned by the firm that will convert to cash within the next 12 months.D. the amount of cash on hand the firm currently shows on its balance sheet.E. the market value of all items currently owned by the firm.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: DEFINITIONS3. The long-term debts of a firm are liabilities:A. that come due within the next 12 months.B. that do not come due for at least 12 months.C. owed to the firm's suppliers.D. owed to the firm's shareholders.E. the firm expects to incur within the next 12 months.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: LONG-TERM DEBTType: DEFINITIONS4. Net working capital is defined as:A. total liabilities minus shareholders' equity.B. current liabilities minus shareholders' equity.C. fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.D. total assets minus total liabilities.E. current assets minus current liabilities.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: DEFINITIONS5. A(n) ____ asset is one which can be quickly converted into cash without significant loss in value.A. currentB. fixedC. intangibleD. liquidE. long-termDifficulty level: EasyTopic: LIQUID ASSETSType: DEFINITIONS6. The financial statement summarizing a firm's accounting performance over a period of time is the:A. income statement.B. balance sheet.C. statement of cash flows.D. tax reconciliation statement.E. shareholders' equity sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: DEFINITIONS7. Noncash items refer to:A. the credit sales of a firm.B. the accounts payable of a firm.C. the costs incurred for the purchase of intangible fixed assets.D. expenses charged against revenues that do not directly affect cash flow.E. all accounts on the balance sheet other than cash on hand.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: NONCASH ITEMSType: DEFINITIONS8. Your _____ tax rate is the amount of tax payable on the next taxable dollar you earn.A. deductibleB. residualC. totalD. averageE. marginalDifficulty level: EasyTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATESType: DEFINITIONS9. Your _____ tax rate is the total taxes you pay divided by your taxable income.A. deductibleB. residualC. totalD. averageE. marginalDifficulty level: EasyTopic: AVERAGE TAX RATESType: DEFINITIONS10. _____ refers to the cash flow that results from the firm's ongoing, normal business activities.A. Cash flow from operating activitiesB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIESType: DEFINITIONS11. _____ refers to the changes in net capital assets.A. Operating cash flowB. Cash flow from investingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM INVESTINGType: DEFINITIONS12. _____ refers to the difference between a firm's current assets and its current liabilities.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: EasyTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: DEFINITIONS13. _____ is calculated by adding back noncash expenses to net income and adjusting for changes in current assets and liabilities.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from operationsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM OPERATIONSType: DEFINITIONS14. _____ refers to the firm's interest payments less any net new borrowing.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from shareholdersE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: DEFINITIONS15. _____ refers to the firm's dividend payments less any net new equity raised.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from creditorsE. Cash flow to stockholdersDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: DEFINITIONS16. Earnings per share is equal to:A. net income divided by the total number of shares outstanding.B. net income divided by the par value of the common stock.C. gross income multiplied by the par value of the common stock.D. operating income divided by the par value of the common stock.E. net income divided by total shareholders' equity.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: DEFINITIONS17. Dividends per share is equal to dividends paid:A. divided by the par value of common stock.B. divided by the total number of shares outstanding.C. divided by total shareholders' equity.D. multiplied by the par value of the common stock.E. multiplied by the total number of shares outstanding. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DIVIDENDS PER SHAREType: DEFINITIONS18. Which of the following are included in current assets?I. equipmentII. inventoryIII. accounts payableIV. cashA. II and IV onlyB. I and III onlyC. I, II, and IV onlyD. III and IV onlyE. II, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: CONCEPTS19. Which of the following are included in current liabilities?I. note payable to a supplier in eighteen monthsII. debt payable to a mortgage company in nine monthsIII. accounts payable to suppliersIV. loan payable to the bank in fourteen monthsA. I and III onlyB. II and III onlyC. III and IV onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, II, and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT LIABILITIESType: CONCEPTS20. An increase in total assets:A. means that net working capital is also increasing.B. requires an investment in fixed assets.C. means that shareholders' equity must also increase.D. must be offset by an equal increase in liabilities and shareholders' equity.E. can only occur when a firm has positive net income.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS21. Which one of the following assets is generally the most liquid?A. inventoryB. buildingsC. accounts receivableD. equipmentE. patentsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS22. Which one of the following statements concerning liquidity is correct?A. If you sold an asset today, it was a liquid asset.B. If you can sell an asset next year at a price equal to its actual value, the asset is highly liquid.C. Trademarks and patents are highly liquid.D. The less liquidity a firm has, the lower the probability the firm will encounter financial difficulties.E. Balance sheet accounts are listed in order of decreasing liquidity.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS23. Liquidity is:A. a measure of the use of debt in a firm's capital structure.B. equal to current assets minus current liabilities.C. equal to the market value of a firm's total assets minus its current liabilities.D. valuable to a firm even though liquid assets tend to be less profitable to own.E. generally associated with intangible assets.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS24. Which of the following accounts are included in shareholders' equity?I. interest paidII. retained earningsIII. capital surplusIV. long-term debtA. I and II onlyB. II and IV onlyC. I and IV onlyD. II and III onlyE. I and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: SHAREHOLDERS' EQUITYType: CONCEPTS25. Book value:A. is equivalent to market value for firms with fixed assets.B. is based on historical cost.C. generally tends to exceed market value when fixed assets are included.D. is more of a financial than an accounting valuation.E. is adjusted to market value whenever the market value exceeds the stated book value. Difficulty level: Medium Topic: BOOK VALUEType: CONCEPTS26. When making financial decisions related to assets, you should:A. always consider market values.B. place more emphasis on book values than on market values.C. rely primarily on the value of assets as shown on the balance sheet.D. place primary emphasis on historical costs.E. only consider market values if they are less than book values.Topic: MARKET VALUEType: CONCEPTS27. As seen on an income statement:A. interest is deducted from income and increases the total taxes incurred.B. the tax rate is applied to the earnings before interest and taxes when the firm has both depreciation and interest expenses.C. depreciation is shown as an expense but does not affect the taxes payable.D. depreciation reduces both the pretax income and the net income.E. interest expense is added to earnings before interest and taxes to get pretax income. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: CONCEPTS28. The earnings per share will:A. increase as net income increases.B. increase as the number of shares outstanding increase.C. decrease as the total revenue of the firm increases.D. increase as the tax rate increases.E. decrease as the costs decrease.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS29. Dividends per share:A. increase as the net income increases as long as the number of shares outstanding remains constant.B. decrease as the number of shares outstanding decrease, all else constant.C. are inversely related to the earnings per share.D. are based upon the dividend requirements established by Generally Accepted Accounting Procedures.E. are equal to the amount of net income distributed to shareholders divided by the number of shares outstanding. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DIVIDENDS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS30. Earnings per shareA. will increase if net income increases and number of shares remains constant.B. will increase if net income decreases and number of shares remains constant.C. is number of shares divided by net income.D. is the amount of money that goes into retained earnings on a per share basis.E. None of the above.Topic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS31. According to Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, costs are:A. recorded as incurred.B. recorded when paid.C. matched with revenues.D. matched with production levels.E. expensed as management desires.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: MATCHING PRINCIPLEType: CONCEPTS32. Depreciation:A. is a noncash expense that is recorded on the income statement.B. increases the net fixed assets as shown on the balance sheet.C. reduces both the net fixed assets and the costs of a firm.D. is a non-cash expense which increases the net operating income.E. decreases net fixed assets, net income, and operating cash flows.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NONCASH ITEMSType: CONCEPTS33. When you are making a financial decision, the most relevant tax rate is the _____ rate.A. averageB. fixedC. marginalD. totalE. variableDifficulty level: MediumTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATEType: CONCEPTS34. An increase in which one of the following will cause the operating cash flow to increase?A. depreciationB. changes in the amount of net fixed capitalC. net working capitalD. taxesE. costsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS35. A firm starts its year with a positive net working capital. During the year, the firm acquires more short-term debt than it does short-term assets. This means that:A. the ending net working capital will be negative.B. both accounts receivable and inventory decreased during the year.C. the beginning current assets were less than the beginning current liabilities.D. accounts payable increased and inventory decreased during the year.E. the ending net working capital can be positive, negative, or equal to zero.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CHANGE IN NET WORKING CAPITALType: CONCEPTS36. The cash flow to creditors includes the cash:A. received by the firm when payments are paid to suppliers.B. outflow of the firm when new debt is acquired.C. outflow when interest is paid on outstanding debt.D. inflow when accounts payable decreases.E. received when long-term debt is paid off.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: CONCEPTS37. Cash flow to stockholders must be positive when:A. the dividends paid exceed the net new equity raised.B. the net sale of common stock exceeds the amount of dividends paid.C. no income is distributed but new shares of stock are sold.D. both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors are negative.E. both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors are positive. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS38. Which equality is the basis for the balance sheet?A. Fixed Assets = Stockholder's Equity + Current AssetsB. Assets = Liabilities + Stockholder's EquityC. Assets = Current Long-Term Debt + Retained EarningsD. Fixed Assets = Liabilities + Stockholder's EquityE. None of the aboveDifficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS39. Assets are listed on the balance sheet in order of:A. decreasing liquidity.B. decreasing size.C. increasing size.D. relative life.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS40. Debt is a contractual obligation that:A. requires the payout of residual flows to the holders of these instruments.B. requires a repayment of a stated amount and interest over the period.C. allows the bondholders to sue the firm if it defaults.D. Both A and B.E. Both B and C.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DEBTType: CONCEPTS41. The carrying value or book value of assets:A. is determined under GAAP and is based on the cost of the asset.B. represents the true market value according to GAAP.C. is always the best measure of the company's value to an investor.D. is always higher than the replacement cost of the assets.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CARRYING VALUEType: CONCEPTS42. Under GAAP, a firm's assets are reported at:A. market value.B. liquidation value.C. intrinsic value.D. cost.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GAAPType: CONCEPTS43. Which of the following statements concerning the income statement is true?A. It measures performance over a specific period of time.B. It determines after-tax income of the firm.C. It includes deferred taxes.D. It treats interest as an expense.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: CONCEPTS44. According to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), revenue is recognized as income when:A. a contract is signed to perform a service or deliver a good.B. the transaction is complete and the goods or services are delivered.C. payment is requested.D. income taxes are paid.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GAAP INCOME RECOGNITIONType: CONCEPTS45. Which of the following is not included in the computation of operating cash flow?A. Earnings before interest and taxesB. Interest paidC. DepreciationD. Current taxesE. All of the above are includedDifficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS46. Net capital spending is equal to:A. net additions to net working capital.B. the net change in fixed assets.C. net income plus depreciation.D. total cash flow to stockholders less interest and dividends paid.E. the change in total assets.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET CAPITAL SPENDINGType: CONCEPTS47. Cash flow to stockholders is defined as:A. interest payments.B. repurchases of equity less cash dividends paid plus new equity sold.C. cash flow from financing less cash flow to creditors.D. cash dividends plus repurchases of equity minus new equity financing.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS48. Free cash flow is:A. without cost to the firm.B. net income plus taxes.C. an increase in net working capital.D. cash that the firm is free to distribute to creditors and stockholders.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: FREE CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS49. The cash flow of the firm must be equal to:A. cash flow to stockholders minus cash flow to debtholders.B. cash flow to debtholders minus cash flow to stockholders.C. cash flow to governments plus cash flow to stockholders.D. cash flow to stockholders plus cash flow to debtholders.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS50. Which of the following are all components of the statement of cash flows?A. Cash flow from operating activities, cash flow from investing activities, and cash flow from financing activitiesB. Cash flow from operating activities, cash flow from investing activities, and cash flow from divesting activitiesC. Cash flow from internal activities, cash flow from external activities, and cash flow from financing activitiesD. Cash flow from brokering activities, cash flow from profitable activities, and cash flow from non-profitable activitiesE. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWSType: CONCEPTS51. One of the reasons why cash flow analysis is popular is because:A. cash flows are more subjective than net income.B. cash flows are hard to understand.C. it is easy to manipulate, or spin the cash flows.D. it is difficult to manipulate, or spin the cash flows.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS52. A firm has $300 in inventory, $600 in fixed assets, $200 in accounts receivable, $100 in accounts payable, and $50 in cash. What is the amount of the current assets?A. $500B. $550C. $600D. $1,150E. $1,200Current assets = $300 + $200 + $50 = $550Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: PROBLEMS53. Total assets are $900, fixed assets are $600, long-term debt is $500, and short-term debt is $200. What is the amount of net working capital?A. $0B. $100C. $200D. $300E. $400Net working capital = $900 - $600 - $200 = $100Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: PROBLEMS54. Brad's Company has equipment with a book value of $500 that could be sold today at a 50% discount. Its inventory is valued at $400 and could be sold to a competitor for that amount. The firm has $50 in cash and customers owe it $300. What is the accounting value of its liquid assets?A. $50B. $350C. $700D. $750E. $1,000Liquid assets = $400 + $50 + $300 = $750Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: PROBLEMS55. Martha's Enterprises spent $2,400 to purchase equipment three years ago. This equipment is currently valued at $1,800 on today's balance sheet but could actually be sold for $2,000. Net working capital is $200 and long-term debt is $800. Assuming the equipment is the firm's only fixed asset, what is the book value of shareholders' equity?A. $200B. $800C. $1,200D. $1,400E. The answer cannot be determined from the information providedBook value of shareholders' equity = $1,800 + $200 - $800 = $1,200Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BOOK VALUEType: PROBLEMS。

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案

CHAPTER 8MAKING CAPITAL INVESTMENT DECISIONSAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. In this context, an opportunity cost refers to the value of anasset or other input that will be used in a project. The relevant cost is what the asset or input is actually worth today, not, for example, what it cost to acquire.2. a.Yes, the reduction in the sales of the company’s otherproducts, referred to as erosion, and should be treated as an incremental cash flow. These lost sales are included because they are a cost (a revenue reduction) that the firm must bear if it chooses to produce the new product.b. Yes, expenditures on plant and equipment should be treatedas incremental cash flows. These are costs of the new product line. However, if these expenditures have already occurred, they are sunk costs and are not included as incremental cash flows.c. No, the research and development costs should not be treatedas incremental cash flows. The costs of research and development undertaken on the product during the past 3 years are sunk costs and should not be included in the evaluation of the project. Decisions made and costs incurred in the past cannot be changed. They should not affect the decision to accept or reject the project.d. Yes, the annual depreciation expense should be treated as anincremental cash flow. Depreciation expense must be taken into account when calculating the cash flows related to a given project. While depreciation is not a cash expense that directly affects c ash flow, it decreases a firm’s netincome and hence, lowers its tax bill for the year. Because of this depreciation tax shield, the firm has more cash on hand at the end of the year than it would have had without expensing depreciation.e.No, dividend payments should not be treated as incrementalcash flows. A firm’s decision to pay or not pay dividends is independent of the decision to accept or reject any given investment project. For this reason, it is not an incremental cash flow to a given project. Dividend policy is discussed in more detail in later chapters.f.Yes, the resale value of plant and equipment at the end of aproject’s life should be treated as an incremental cashflow. The price at which the firm sells the equipment is a cash inflow, and any difference between the book value ofthe equipment and its sale price will create gains or losses that result in either a tax credit or liability.g.Yes, salary and medical costs for production employees hiredfor a project should be treated as incremental cash flows.The salaries of all personnel connected to the project must be included as costs of that project.3.I tem I is a relevant cost because the opportunity to sell theland is lost if the new golf club is produced. Item II is also relevant because the firm must take into account the erosion of sales of existing products when a new product is introduced. If the firm produces the new club, the earnings from the existing clubs will decrease, effectively creating a cost that must be included in the decision. Item III is not relevant because the costs of Research and Development are sunk costs. Decisions made in the past cannot be changed. They are not relevant to the production of the new clubs.4. For tax purposes, a firm would choose MACRS because it providesfor larger depreciation deductions earlier. These larger deductions reduce taxes, but have no other cash consequences.Notice that the choice between MACRS and straight-line is purely a time value issue; the total depreciation is the same;only the timing differs.5.It’s probably only a mild over-simplification. Currentliabilities will all be paid, presumably. The cash portion of current assets will be retrieved. Some receivables won’t be collected, and some inventory will not be sold, of course.Counterbalancing these losses is the fact that inventory sold above cost (and not replaced at the end of the project’s life) acts to increase working capital. These effects tend to offset one another.6.Management’s discretion to set the firm’s capital structureis applicable at the firm level. Since any one particular project could be financed entirely with equity, another project could be financed with debt, and the firm’s overall capital structure remains unchanged, financing costs are not relevant in the analysis of a project’s incremental cash flows according to the stand-alone principle.7. The EAC approach is appropriate when comparing mutuallyexclusive projects with different lives that will be replaced when they wear out. This type of analysis is necessary so that the projects have a common life span over which they can be compared; in effect, each project is assumed to exist over an infinite horizon of N-year repeating projects. Assuming that this type of analysis is valid implies that the project cash flows remain the same forever, thus ignoring the possible effects of, among other things: (1) inflation, (2) changing economic conditions, (3) the increasing unreliability of cash flow estimates that occur far into the future, and (4) the possible effects of future technology improvement that could alter the project cash flows.8. Depreciation is a non-cash expense, but it is tax-deductible onthe income statement. Thus depreciation causes taxes paid, an actual cash outflow, to be reduced by an amount equal to the depreciation tax shield, t c D. A reduction in taxes that would otherwise be paid is the same thing as a cash inflow, so the effects of the depreciation tax shield must be added in to get the total incremental aftertax cash flows.9. There are two particularly important considerations. The firstis erosion. Will the “essentialized”book simply displace copies of the existing book that would have otherwise been sold?This is of special concern given the lower price. The second consideration is competition. Will other publishers step in and produce such a product? If so, then any erosion is much less relevant. A particular concern to book publishers (and producers of a variety of other product types) is that the publisher only makes money from the sale of new books. Thus, it is important to examine whether the new book would displace sales of used books (good from the publisher’s perspective) or new books (not good). The concern arises any time there is an active market for used product.10.D efinitely. The damage to Porsche’s reputation is definitely afactor the company needed to consider. If the reputation was damaged, the company would have lost sales of its existing car lines.11.O ne company may be able to produce at lower incremental cost ormarket better. Also, of course, one of the two may have made a mistake!12.P orsche would recognize that the outsized profits would dwindleas more products come to market and competition becomes more intense.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1. Using the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = [($5 × 2,000 –($2 × 2,000)](1 –0.35) +0.35($10,000/5)OCF = $4,600So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –$10,000 + $4,600(PVIFA17%,5)NPV = $4,7172. We will use the bottom-up approach to calculate the operatingcash flow for each year. We also must be sure to include the net working capital cash flows each year. So, the total cash flow each year will be:Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Sales Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000Costs 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000Depreciation 2,500 2,500 2,500 2,500EBT Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500Tax 850 850 850 850Net income Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650OCF 0 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150Capital spending –Rs.10,000 0 0 0 0NWC –200 –250 –300 –200 950 Incremental cashflow –Rs.10,200 Rs.3,900 Rs.3,850 Rs.3,950 Rs.5,100The NPV for the project is:NPV = –Rs.10,200 + Rs.3,900 / 1.10 + Rs.3,850 / 1.102+ Rs.3,950 / 1.103 + Rs.5,100 / 1.104NPV = Rs.2,978.333. U sing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = (R2,400,000 – 960,000)(1 – 0.30) + 0.30(R2,700,000/3) OCF = R1,278,000So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R2,700,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,3)NPV = R217,961.704.T he cash outflow at the beginning of the project will increasebecause of the spending on NWC. At the end of the project, the company will recover the NWC, so it will be a cash inflow. The sale of the equipment will result in a cash inflow, but we also must account for the taxes which will be paid on this sale. So, the cash flows for each year of the project will be:Year Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,278,0002 1,278,0003 1,725,000 = R1,278,000 + 300,000 + 210,000 + (0 – 210,000)(.30)And the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R3,000,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,2) + (R1,725,000 / 1.153) NPV = R211,871.465. First we will calculate the annual depreciation for theequipment necessary for the project. The depreciation amount each year will be:Year 1 depreciation = R2.7M(0.3330) = R899,100Year 2 depreciation = R2.7M(0.4440) = R1,198,800Year 3 depreciation = R2.7M(0.1480) = R399,600So, the book value of the equipment at the end of three years, which will be the initial investment minus the accumulated depreciation, is:Book value in 3 years = R2.7M –(R899,100 + 1,198,800 + 399,600)Book value in 3 years = R202,500The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = R202,500 + (R202,500 – 210,000)(0.30) Aftertax salvage value = R207,750To calculate the OCF, we will use the tax shield approach, so the cash flow each year is:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationYear Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,277,730.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R899,100)2 1,367,640.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R1,198,800)3 1,635,630.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R399,600) + R207,750 + 300,000Remember to include the NWC cost in Year 0, and the recovery of the NWC at the end of the project. The NPV of the project with these assumptions is:NPV = – R3.0M + (R1,277,730/1.15) + (R1,367,640/1.152) +(R1,635,630/1.153)NPV = R220,655.206. First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the newequipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = €925,000/5Annual depreciation charge = €185,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = €90,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = €58,500Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = €360,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(€185,000)OCF = €298,750Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project. Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of theproject, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –€925,000 + 125,000 + €298,750(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [(€58,500 – 125,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 23.85%7. First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the newequipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = £390,000/5Annual depreciation = £78,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often, the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero. So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = £60,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = £39,600Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = £120,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(£78,000)OCF = £105,720Now we can find the project NPV. Notice that we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –£390,000 –28,000 + £105,720(PVIFA10%,5) + [(£39,600 + 28,000) / 1.15]NPV = £24,736.268. To find the BV at the end of four years, we need to find theaccumulated depreciation for the first four years. We could calculate a table with the depreciation each year, but an easier way is to add the MACRS depreciation amounts for each of the first four years and multiply this percentage times the cost of the asset. We can then subtract this from the asset cost. Doing so, we get:BV4 = $9,300,000 – 9,300,000(0.2000 + 0.3200 + 0.1920 + 0.1150) BV4 = $1,608,900The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = $2,100,000 + ($1,608,900 –2,100,000)(.40)Aftertax salvage value = $1,903,5609. We will begin by calculating the initial cash outlay, that is,the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake the project, we will have to purchase the equipment and increase net working capital. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment –€2,000,000NWC –100,000Total –€2,100,000Using the bottom-up approach to calculating the operating cash flow, we find the operating cash flow each year will be:Sales €1,200,000Costs 300,000Depreciation 500,000EBT €400,000Tax 140,000Net income €260,000The operating cash flow is:OCF = Net income + DepreciationOCF = €260,000 + 500,000OCF = €760,000To find the NPV of the project, we add the present value of the project cash flows. We must be sure to add back the net working capital at the end of the project life, since we are assuming the net working capital will be recovered. So, the project NPV is:NPV = –€2,100,000 + €760,000(PVIFA14%,4) + €100,000 / 1.144NPV = €173,629.3810.W e will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment tocompute the EAC. Even though the equipment for each product hasa different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. Theaftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $20,000(1 –0.35) = $13,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = – $34,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($210,000/3) = $2,400NPV = –$210,000 + $2,400(PVIFA14%,3) + ($13,000/1.143) = –$195,653.45EAC = –$195,653.45 / (PVIFA14%,3) = –$84,274.10And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = – $23,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($320,000/5) = $7,450NPV = –$320,000 + $7,450(PVIFA14%,5) + ($13,000/1.145) = –$287,671.75EAC = –$287,671.75 / (PVIFA14%,5) = –$83,794.05The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.Intermediate11.F irst, we will calculate the depreciation each year, which willbe:D1 = ¥480,000(0.2000) = ¥96,000D2 = ¥480,000(0.3200) = ¥153,600D3 = ¥480,000(0.1920) = ¥92,160D4 = ¥480,000(0.1150) = ¥55,200The book value of the equipment at the end of the project is:BV4= ¥480,000 –(¥96,000 + 153,600 + 92,160 + 55,200) = ¥83,040The asset is sold at a loss to book value, so this creates a tax refund.After-tax salvage value = ¥70,000 + (¥83,040 – 70,000)(0.35) = ¥74,564.00So, the OCF for each year will be:OCF1 = ¥160,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(¥96,000) = ¥137,600.00OCF2 = ¥160,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(¥153,600) = ¥157,760.00OCF3 = ¥160,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(¥92,160) = ¥136,256.00OCF4 = ¥160,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(¥55,200) = ¥123,320.00Now we have all the necessary information to calculate the project NPV. We need to be careful with the NWC in this project.Notice the project requires ¥20,000 of NWC at the beginning, and ¥3,000 more in NWC each successive year. We will subtract the ¥20,000 from the initial cash flow, and subtract ¥3,000 each year from the OCF to account for this spending. In Year 4, we will add back the total spent on NWC, which is ¥29,000. The ¥3,000 spent on NWC capital during Year 4 is irrelevant. Why?Well, during this year the project required an additional ¥3,000, but we would get the money back immediately. So, thenet cash flow for additional NWC would be zero. With all this, the equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = –¥480,000 –20,000 + (¥137,600 –3,000)/1.14 + (¥157,760 – 3,000)/1.142+ (¥136,256 –3,000)/1.143+ (¥123,320 + 29,000 + 74,564)/1.144NPV = –¥38,569.4812.I f we are trying to decide between two projects that will notbe replaced when they wear out, the proper capital budgeting method to use is NPV. Both projects only have costs associated with them, not sales, so we will use these to calculate the NPV of each project. Using the tax shield approach to calculate the OCF, the NPV of System A is:OCF A = –元120,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(元430,000/4)OCF A = –元42,650NPV A = –元430,000 –元42,650(PVIFA20%,4)NPV A = –元540,409.53And the NPV of System B is:OCF B = –元80,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(元540,000/6)OCF B = –元22,200NPV B = –元540,000 –元22,200(PVIFA20%,6)NPV B = –元613,826.32If the system will not be replaced when it wears out, then System A should be chosen, because it has the more positive NPV.13.If the equipment will be replaced at the end of its useful life,the correct capital budgeting technique is EAC. Using the NPVs we calculated in the previous problem, the EAC for each system is:EAC A = –元540,409.53 / (PVIFA20%,4)EAC A = –元208,754.32EAC B = –元613,826.32 / (PVIFA20%,6)EAC B = –元184,581.10If the conveyor belt system will be continually replaced, we should choose System B since it has the more positive NPV.14.S ince we need to calculate the EAC for each machine, sales areirrelevant. EAC only uses the costs of operating the equipment, not the sales. Using the bottom up approach, or net income plus depreciation, method to calculate OCF, we get:Machine A Machine BVariable costs –₪3,150,000 –₪2,700,000Fixed costs –150,000 –100,000Depreciation –350,000 –500,000EBT –₪3,650,000 –₪3,300,000Tax 1,277,500 1,155,000Net income –₪2,372,500 –₪2,145,000+ Depreciation 350,000 500,000OCF –₪2,022,500 –₪1,645,000The NPV and EAC for Machine A is:NPV A = –₪2,100,000 –₪2,022,500(PVIFA10%,6) NPV A = –₪10,908,514.76EAC A = –₪10,908,514.76 / (PVIFA10%,6)EAC A = –₪2,504,675.50And the NPV and EAC for Machine B is:NPV B = –₪4,500,000 – 1,645,000(PVIFA10%,9)NPV B = –₪13,973,594.18EAC B = –₪13,973,594.18 / (PVIFA10%,9)EAC B = –₪2,426,382.43You should choose Machine B since it has a more positive EAC.15.W hen we are dealing with nominal cash flows, we must be carefulto discount cash flows at the nominal interest rate, and we must discount real cash flows using the real interest rate.Project A’s cash flows are in real terms, so we need to find the real interest rate. Using the Fisher equation, the real interest rate is:1 + R = (1 + r)(1 + h)1.15 = (1 + r)(1 + .04)r = .1058 or 10.58%So, the NPV of Project A’s real cash flows, discounting at the real interest rate, is:NPV = –฿40,000 + ฿20,000 / 1.1058 + ฿15,000 / 1.10582 + ฿15,000 / 1.10583NPV = ฿1,448.88Project B’s cash flow are in nominal terms, so the NPV discount at the nominal interest rate is:NPV = –฿50,000 + ฿10,000 / 1.15 + ฿20,000 / 1.152+ ฿40,000 /1.153NPV = ฿119.17We should accept Project A if the projects are mutually exclusive since it has the highest NPV.16.T o determine the value of a firm, we can simply find thepre sent value of the firm’s future cash flows. No depreciation is given, so we can assume depreciation is zero. Using the tax shield approach, we can find the present value of the aftertax revenues, and the present value of the aftertax costs. The required return, growth rates, price, and costs are all given in real terms. Subtracting the costs from the revenues will give us the value of the firm’s cash flows. We must calculate the present value of each separately since each is growing at a different rate. First, we will find the present value of the revenues. The revenues in year 1 will be the number of bottles sold, times the price per bottle, or:Aftertax revenue in year 1 in real terms = (2,000,000 ×$1.50)(1 – 0.34)Aftertax revenue in year 1 in real terms = $1,650,000Revenues will grow at six percent per year in real terms forever. Apply the growing perpetuity formula, we find the present value of the revenues is:PV of revenues = C1 / (R–g)PV of revenues = $1,650,000 / (0.10 – 0.06)PV of revenues = $41,250,000The real aftertax costs in year 1 will be:Aftertax costs in year 1 in real terms = (2,000,000 ×$0.65)(1 – 0.34)Aftertax costs in year 1 in real terms = $858,000Costs will grow at five percent per year in real terms forever.Applying the growing perpetuity formula, we find the present value of the costs is:PV of costs = C1 / (R–g)PV of costs = $858,000 / (0.10 – 0.05)PV of costs = $17,160,000Now we can find the value of the firm, which is:Value of the firm = PV of revenues – PV of costsValue of the firm = $41,250,000 – 17,160,000Value of the firm = $24,090,00017.To calculate the nominal cash flows, we simple increase eachitem in the income statement by the inflation rate, except for depreciation. Depreciation is a nominal cash flow, so it does not need to be adjusted for inflation in nominal cash flow analysis. Since the resale value is given in nominal terms as of the end of year 5, it does not need to be adjusted for inflation. Also, no inflation adjustment is needed for either the depreciation charge or the recovery of net working capital since these items are already expressed in nominal terms. Note that an increase in required net working capital is a negative cash flow whereas a decrease in required net working capital isa positive cash flow. The nominal aftertax salvage value is:Market price $30,000Tax on sale –10,200Aftertax salvage value $19,800Remember, to calculate the taxes paid (or tax credit) on the salvage value, we take the book value minus the market value, times the tax rate, which, in this case, would be:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = ($0 – 30,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –$10,200Now we can find the nominal cash flows each year using the income statement. Doing so, we find:Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 Sales $200,000 $206,000 $212,180 $218,545 $225,102Expenses 50,000 51,500 53,045 54,636 56,275Depreciation 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000EBT $100,000 $104,500 $109,135 $113,909 $118,826Tax 34,000 35,530 37,106 38,729 40,401Net income $66,000 $68,970 $72,029 $75,180 $78,425OCF $116,000 $118,970 $122,029 $125,180 $128,425Capital spending –$250,000 $19,800NWC –10,000 10,000Total cash flow –$260,000 $116,000 $118,970 $122,029 $125,180 $158,22518.T he present value of the company is the present value of thefuture cash flows generated by the company. Here we have real cash flows, a real interest rate, and a real growth rate. The cash flows are a growing perpetuity, with a negative growth rate. Using the growing perpetuity equation, the present value of the cash flows are:PV = C1 / (R–g)PV = $120,000 / [.11 – (–.07)]PV = $666,666.6719.T o find the EAC, we first need to calculate the NPV of theincremental cash flows. We will begin with the aftertax salvage value, which is:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = (€0 – 10,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –€3,400Market price €10,000Tax on sale –3,400Aftertax salvage value €6,600Now we can find the operating cash flows. Using the tax shield approach, the operating cash flow each year will be:OCF = –€5,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(€45,000/3)OCF = €1,800So, the NPV of the cost of the decision to buy is:NPV = –€45,000 + €1,800(PVIFA12%,3) + (€6,600/1.123)NPV = –€35,987.95In order to calculate the equivalent annual cost, set the NPV of the equipment equal to an annuity with the same economic life. Since the project has an economic life of three years and is discounted at 12 percent, set the NPV equal to a three-year annuity, discounted at 12 percent.EAC = –€35,987.95 / (PVIFA12%,3)EAC = –€14,979.8020.W e will find the EAC of the EVF first. There are no taxes sincethe university is tax-exempt, so the maintenance costs are the operating cash flows. The NPV of the decision to buy one EVF is:NPV = –₩8,000 –₩2,000(PVIFA14%,4)NPV = –₩13,827.42In order to calculate the equivalent annual cost, set the NPV of the equipment equal to an annuity with the same economic life. Since the project has an economic life of four years and is discounted at 14 percent, set the NPV equal to a three-year annuity, discounted at 14 percent. So, the EAC per unit is:EAC = –₩13,827.42 / (PVIFA14%,4)EAC = –₩4,745.64Since the university must buy 10 of the word processors, the total EAC of the decision to buy the EVF word processor is:Total EAC = 10(–₩4,745.64)Total EAC = –₩47,456.38Note, we could have found the total EAC for this decision by multiplying the initial cost by the number of word processors needed, and multiplying the annual maintenance cost of each by the same number. We would have arrived at the same EAC.We can find the EAC of the AEH word processors using the same method, but we need to include the salvage value as well. Thereare no taxes on the salvage value since the university is tax-exempt, so the NPV of buying one AEH will be:NPV = –₩5,000 –₩2,500(PVIFA14%,3) + (₩500/1.143)NPV = –₩10,466.59So, the EAC per machine is:EAC = –₩10,466.59 / (PVIFA14%,3)EAC = –₩4,508.29Since the university must buy 11 of the word processors, the total EAC of the decision to buy the AEH word processor is:Total EAC = 11(–₩4,508.29)Total EAC = –₩49,591.21The university should buy the EVF word processors since the EAC is lower. Notice that the EAC of the AEH is lower on a per machine basis, but because the university needs more of these word processors, the total EAC is higher.21.W e will calculate the aftertax salvage value first. Theaftertax salvage value of the equipment will be:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = (₫0 – 100,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –₫34,000Market price ₫100,000Tax on sale –34,000Aftertax salvage value ₫66,000Next, we will calculate the initial cash outlay, that is, the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake the project, we will have to purchase the equipment. The new project will decrease the net working capital, so this is a cash inflow at the beginning of the project. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment –₫500,000NWC 100,000Total –₫400,000Now we can calculate the operating cash flow each year for the project. Using the bottom up approach, the operating cash flow will be:Saved salaries ₫120,000Depreciation 100,000EBT ₫20,000。

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap001

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap001CHAPTER 1INTRODUCTION TO CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concept Questions1.The three basic forms are sole proprietorships, partnerships, and corporations. The advantages anddisadvantages of sole proprietorships and partnerships are: Disadvantages: unlimited liability, limited life, difficulty in transferring ownership, hard to raise capital funds. Some advantages: simpler, less regulation, the owners are also the managers, sometimes personal tax rates are better than corporate tax rates. The primary disadvantage of the corporate form is the double taxation to shareholders of distributed earnings and dividends. Some advantages include: limited liability, ease of transferability, ability to raise capital, and unlimited life. When a business is started, most take the form ofa sole proprietorship or partnership.2.To maximize the current market value (share price) of the equity of the firm (whether it’s publiclytraded or not).3. In the corporate form of ownership, the shareholders are the owners of the firm. The shareholderselect the directors of the corporation, who in turn appoint the firm’s management. This separation of ownership from control in the corporate form of organization is what causes agency problems to exist. Management may act in its own or someone else’s best interests, rather than those of the shareholders. If such events occur, they may contradict the goal of maximizing the share price of the equity of the firm.4.Such organizations frequently pursue social or political missions, so many different goals areconceivable. One goal that is often cited is revenue minimization; i.e., provide whatever goods and services are offered at the lowest possible cost to society. A better approach might be to observe that even a not-for-profit business has equity. Thus, one answer is that the appropriate goal is to maximize the value of the equity.5.Presumably, the current stock value reflects the risk, timing, and magnitude of all future cash flows,both short-term and long-term. If this is correct, then the statement is false.6.An argument can be made either way. At the one extreme, we could argue that in a market economy,all of these things are priced. There is thus an optimal level of, for example, ethical and/or illegal behavior, and the framework of stock valuation explicitly includes these. At the other extreme, we could argue that these are non-economic phenomena and are best handled through the political process.A classic (and highly relevant) thought question that illustrates this debate goes something like this: “A firm has estimated that the cost of improving the safety of one of its products is $30 million. However, the firm believes that improving the safety of the product will only save $20 million in product liability claims. Wha t should the firm do?”7.The goal will be the same, but the best course of action toward that goal may be different because ofdiffering social, political, and economic institutions.8.The goal of management should be to maximize the share price for the current shareholders. Ifmanagement believes that it can improve the profitability of the firm so that the share price will exceed $35, then they should fight the offer from the outside company. If management believes that this bidder or other unidentified bidders will actually pay more than $35 per share to acquire the company, then they should still fight the offer. However, if the current management cannot increase the value of the firm beyond the bid price, and no other higher bids come in, then management is not acting in the interests of the shareholders by fighting the offer. Since current managers often lose their jobs when the corporation is acquired, poorly monitored managers have an incentive to fight corporate takeovers in situations such as this.9.We would expect agency problems to be less severe in other countries, primarily due to the relativelysmall percentage of individual ownership. Fewer individual owners should reduce the number of diverse opinions concerning corporate goals. The high percentage of institutional ownership might lead to a higher degree of agreement between owners and managers on decisions concerning risky projects. In addition, institutions may be better able to implement effective monitoring mechanisms on managers th an can individual owners, based on the institutions’ deeper resources and experiences with their own management. The increase in institutional ownership of stock in the United States and the growing activism of these large shareholder groups may lead to a reduction in agency problems for U.S. corporations and a more efficient market for corporate control.10. How much is too much? Who is worth more, Jack Welch or Tiger Woods? The simplest answer isthat there is a market for executives just as there is for alltypes of labor. Executive compensation is the price that clears the market. The same is true for athletes and performers. Having said that, one aspect of executive compensation deserves comment.A primary reason that executive compensation has grown so dramatically is that companies have increasingly moved to stock-based compensation.Such movement is obviously consistent with the attempt to better align stockholder and management interests. In recent years, stock prices have soared, so management has cleaned up. It is sometimes argued that much of this reward is simply due to rising stock prices in general, not managerial performance. Perhaps in the future, executive compensation will be designed to reward only differential performance, i.e., stock price increases in excess of general market increases.。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap008

公司理财习题答案第八章Chapter 8: Strategy and Analysis in Using Net Present Value8.1 Go directly:NPV = 0.5 ⨯ $20 million + 0.5 ⨯ $5 million= $12.5 millionTest marketing:NPV = -$2 million + (0.75 ⨯ $20 million + 0.25 ⨯ $5 million) / 1.15= $12.13 millionGo directly to the market.8.2 Focus group: -$120,000 + 0.70 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $720,000Consulting firm: -$400,000 + 0.90 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $680,000Direct marketing: 0.50 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $600,000The manager should conduct a focus group.8.3 Price more aggressively:-$1,300,000 + (0.55 ⨯ 0) + 0.45 ⨯ (-$550,000)= -$1,547,500Hire lobbyist:-$800,000 + (0.75 ⨯ 0) + 0.25 ⨯ (-$2,000,000)= -$1,300,000Tandem should hire the lobbyist.8.4 Let sales price be x.Depreciation = $600,000 / 5 = $120,000BEP: ($900,000 + $120,000) / (x - $15) = 20,000x = $668.5 The accounting break-even= (120,000 + 20,000) / (1,500 - 1,100)= 350 units8.6 a. The accounting break-even= 340,000 / (2.00 - 0.72)= 265,625 abalonesb. [($2.00 ⨯ 300,000) - (340,000 + 0.72 ⨯ 300,000)] (0.65)= $28,600This is the after tax profit.8.7 EAC = $140,000 / 7A = $33,650.015Depreciation = $140,000 / 7 = $20,000BEP = {$33,650 + $340,000 ⨯ 0.65 - $20,000 ⨯ 0.35} / {($2 - $0.72) ⨯ 0.65} = 297,656.25≈ 297,657 units8.8 Depreciation = $200,000 / 5 = $40,000 EAC = $200,000 / 512.0A = $200,000 / 3.60478 = $55,482BEP = {$55,482 + $350,000 ⨯ 0.75 - $40,000 ⨯ 0.25} / {($25 - $5) ⨯ 0.75} = 20,532.13 ≈ 20533 units 8.9 Let I be the break-even purchase price. Incremental C 0$20,000 Tax effect 3,400 Total $23,400 Depreciation per period = $45,000 / 15 = $3,000Book value of the machine = $45,000 - 5 ⨯ $3,000 = $30,000Loss on sale of machine = $30,000 - $20,000 = $10,000 Tax credit due to loss = $10,000 ⨯ 0.34 = $3,400Incremental cost savings: $10,000 (1 - 0.34) = $6,600 Incremental depreciation tax shield: [I / 10 - $3,000] (0.34)The break-even purchase price is the Investment (I), which makes the NPV be zero. NPV = 0 = -I + $23,400 + $6,600 1015.0A + [I / 10 - $3,000] (0.34) 1015.0A = -I + $23,400 + $6,600 (5.0188) + I (0.034) (5.0188) - $3,000 (0.34) (5.0188) I = $61,981 8.10 Pessimistic:NPV= -$420,000 + (){}23,000$38$21$320,0000.65$60,0000.351.13t t 17--⨯+⨯=∑= -$123,021.71 Expected: NPV = -$420,000 + (){}25,000$40$20$300,0000.65$60,0000.351.13t7--⨯+⨯=∑t 1= $247,814.17公司理财习题答案第八章Optimistic:NPV= -$420,000 +(){}27,000$42$19$280,0000.65$60,0000.351.13tt 17--⨯+⨯=∑= $653,146.42Even though the NPV of pessimistic case is negative, if we change one input while allothers are assumed to meet their expectation, we have all positive NPVs like the one before. Thus, this project is quite profitable.PessimisticNPVUnit sales 23,000 $132,826.30 Price$38 $104,079.33 Variable costs $21 $175,946.75 Fixed costs$320,000$190,320.248.11 Pessimistic: NPV = -$1,500,000 +(){}1100000220000600000401131,.$850,.$300,..⨯--⨯+⨯=∑$115$725tt= -$675,701.68 Expected: NPV = -$1,500,000+(){}1200000250000600000401131,.$800,.$300,..⨯--⨯+⨯=∑$120$705tt= $399,304.88Optimistic: NPV = -$1,500,000+(){}130,0000.27$125$68$750,0000.60$300,0000.401.13tt 15⨯--⨯+⨯=∑= $1,561,468.43The expected present value of the new tennis racket is $428,357.21. (Assuming there are equal chances of the 3 scenarios occurring.)8.12 NPV = (){}-+⨯--⨯+⨯=∑1,500,000130,0000.22$120$70$800,0000.60$300,0000.401.13tt 15= $251,581.17The 3% drop in market share hurt significantly more than the 10,000 increase in market size helped. However, if the drop were only 2%, the effects would be about even. Market size is going up by over 8%, thus it seems market share is more important than market size.8.13 a. NPV = -$10,000,000 + ( $750, 000 ⨯10A) = -$5,391,574.6710.b.Revised NPV = -$10,000,000 + $750,000 / 1.10 + [(.5 ⨯ $1,500,000 ⨯9A).10+ (.5 ⨯ $200,000 )] / 1.10= -$5,300,665.58Option value of abandonment = -$5,300,665.58 – ( -$5,391,574.67 )= $90,909.098.14 a. NPV = -$100M + ( $100 ⨯ 2M ⨯10A) = $738.49Million.20b.$50M = C9A20.C = $12.40 Million (or 1.24 Million units )。

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