国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案4
国际财务管理课后作业答案
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《国际财务管理》章后练习题第一章【题1—1】某跨国公司A,2006年11月兼并某亏损国有企业B。
B企业兼并时账面净资产为500万元,2005年亏损100万元(以前年度无亏损),评估确认的价值为550万元。
经双方协商,A 跨国公司可以用以下两种方式兼并B企业。
甲方式:A公司以180万股和10万元人民币购买B企业(A公司股票市价为3元/股);乙方式:A公司以150万股和100万元人民币购买B企业。
兼并后A公司股票市价3.1元/股。
A公司共有已发行的股票2000万股(面值为1元/股)。
假设兼并后B企业的股东在A公司中所占的股份以后年度不发生变化,兼并后A公司企业每年未弥补亏损前应纳税所得额为900万元,增值后的资产的平均折旧年限为5年,行业平均利润率为10%。
所得税税率为33%。
请计算方式两种发方式的差异。
【题1—1】答案(1)甲方式:B企业不需将转让所得缴纳所得税;B 企业2005年的亏损可以由A公司弥补。
A公司当年应缴所得税=(900-100)×33%=264万元,与合并前相比少缴33万元所得税,但每年必须为增加的股权支付股利。
(2)乙方式:由于支付的非股权额(100万元)大于股权面值的20%(30万元)。
所以,被兼并企业B应就转让所得缴纳所得税。
B企业应缴纳的所得税=(150 ×3 + 100- 500)×33% = 16.5(万元)B企业去年的亏损不能由A公司再弥补。
(3)A公司可按评估后的资产价值入帐,计提折旧,每年可减少所得税(550-500)/5×33%=3.3万元。
【题1—2】东方跨国公司有A、B、C、D四个下属公司,2006年四个公司计税所得额和所在国的所得税税率为:A公司:500万美元 33%B公司:400万美元 33%C公司:300万美元 24%D公司:-300万美元 15%东方公司的计税所得额为-100万美元,其所在地区的所得税税率为15%。
国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2
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CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer:We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions,i.e., consumption, production,and investment,are highly globalized。
It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management。
This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago. At that time, most professors customarily (and safely, to some extent) ignored international aspects of finance。
This mode of operation has become untenable since then。
2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance。
国际财务管理课后习题答案
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CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRM ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions, i。
e。
,consumption,production,and investment,are highly globalized。
It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management. This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago。
At that time, most professors customarily (and safely, to some extent)ignored international aspects of finance。
This mode of operation has become untenable since then.2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are:1. foreign exchange and political risks,2. market imperfections, and3. expanded opportunity set.3. Discuss the major trends that have prevailed in international business during the last two decades。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter
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C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€ exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. U sing an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planc k Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As oftoday, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forwardrate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and 5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the twohedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) =$22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield: $20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). T hus the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client? (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure? Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,453.75$3,1500.5790.64(strike price) $/SF$253.75per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge? Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to take?What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent€600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thusthe net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$SpotPut Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 1.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 1.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,5291.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,2410.75 (75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,2410.77 (75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,2410.78 (75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,2410.79 (75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,2410.80 (75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,2410.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (wh ich would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for the DM loan, because it has a known quantity and maturity, but the Lira exposure would retain some of its uncertainty because these factors are not assured.The parent could buy DM calls and Lira puts. This would allow them to take advantage of favorable。
国际财务管理 课后答案
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1/Banker`s AcceptancesA.Describe how foreign trade would be affected if banks did not provide trade services.Foreign trade would be reduced without the trade-related services by banks, because some trade can only occur if banks back the transaction with bankers acceptances.B.How can a banker`s acceptance be beneficial to an exporter, an importer, and a bank?The exporter does not need to worry about the credit risk of the importer and can therefore penetrate new foreign markets without concern about the credit risk of potential customer.The importer benefit from a banker`s acceptance by obtaining greater access to foreign markets when purchasing supplies and other products. Without banker`s acceptances, exporters may be unwilling to accept credit risk of importers.The bank accepting the draft benefits in that it can earns a commission for creating an acceptance.A banker’s acceptance guarantees payment to the exporter so that credit risk of the importer is not worrisome. It allows the importers to import goods without being turned down due to uncertainty about their credit standing. It is a revenue generator for the bank since a fee is received by the bank for this service.2/Export Financing.a. Why would an exporter provide financing for an importer?b. Is there much risk in this activity? Explain.ANSWER: An exporter could increase sales by allowing the importer to pay at a future date. Importers may not be able to afford to pay. There may be high credit risk incurred by the exporter here, especially if the importer is an unknown small company.3/ Role of Factors. What is the role of a factor in international trade transactions?ANSWER: A factor can relieve the exporter of the worry about the credit risk of the importer. In return, the factor is rewarded by being able to purchase the accounts receivables at a lower price than their cash value.5/What are bills of lading, and how do they facilitate international trade transactions?A bill of lading is a document issued by a carrier which details a shipment of merchandise and gives title of that shipment to a specified party.Bills of lading are one of three important documents used in international trade to help guarantee that exporters receive payment and importers receive merchandise.6/Forfaiting. What is forfaiting? Specify the type of traded goods for which forfaiting is applied. Forfaiting is a type of trade finance. Forfaiting is refers to the purchase of financial obligations, such as bills of exchange or promissory notes, without recourse to the original holder, usually the exporter. In a forfaiting transaction, the importer issues a promissory note to pay the exporter for the importer for the importer goods over a period that generally ranges from 3 to 7years. The exporter then sells the notes, without recourse, to the forfaiting bank.Like mechanical, electronic or complete sets of equipment and other capital goods trading, the amount of the transaction is large. The longer importer’s deferred payment period is, the more suitable for Forfaiting is.9/ Countertrade. What is countertrade?The term countertrade denotes all types of foreign trade transaction in which the sale of goods toone country is linked to t/he purchase or exchange of goods from that same country. Countertrade can be classified into three broad categories-barter, compensation and counterpurchase. Barter is the exchange of goods between two parties without the use of any currency as a medium of exchange. In a compensation, the delivery of goods to one party is compensated for by the seller's buying back a certain amount of the product from the same party. The counterpurchase means that the exchange of goods between two parties under two distinct contracts expressed in monetary terms.。
国际财务管理课后习题答案
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C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure How is it different from economic exposureAnswer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same resultAnswer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contractAnswer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this resultAnswer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge Why or why notAnswer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable Why or why not(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case Why or why not Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000 –= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, .,250m/ = ¥245,700,So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340, = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340, as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,with dollars ¥245,700,2. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700, ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference.You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $SF and the three-month forward rate is $SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $SF for the premium of $ per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $ = $250. At the expected future spot rate of $SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $, ., $3,.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + , where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3, = $3,200 + $.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and the one -year forward rateis $€. The annual interest rate is % in the U.S. and % in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend Why(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methodsSolution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, ., 20,000,000/ =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($€) = $20,000,000, which can be in vested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000 = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = / = $€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000. 6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the .$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,$3,1500 (strike price)$/SF$PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000/(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000 = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,.The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When t he option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on . dollars with a strike price of €$ for a premium of € per . dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is % in the euro zone and % in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to takeWhat would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this casec.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on . dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedgeSolution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million for ward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, ., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to ke ep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, ., €< €, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x . Thus the net europroceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, ., €$, or $€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) .Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above . They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of . If the spot rate rises above , they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/ DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/ DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM. If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price , the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between and . If the rate rises above , the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below , the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/ DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/ DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$SpotPut Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit(1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529(1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x –= A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @Buy puts for $/A$ @# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below , fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above , fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,241(75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,241(75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,241(75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,241(75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,241(75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,241(75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,241(75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241 4. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar strike vs. forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to , and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen ., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium¥/$ = ¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for the DM loan, because it has a known quantity and maturity, but the Lira exposure would retain some of its uncertainty because these factors are not assured.The parent could buy DM calls and Lira puts. This would allow them to take advantage of favorable。
国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2
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CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF—CHAPTER QUESTIONS QUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer:We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions,i.e。
,consumption, production, and investment,are highly globalized. It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management。
This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago。
At that time,most professors customarily (and safely,to some extent)ignored international aspects of finance。
This mode of operation has become untenable since then。
2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are:1。
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CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRM SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial managementAnswer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions i.e. consumptionproduction and investment are highly globalized. It is thus essential for financial managers to fullyunderstand vital international dimensions of financial management. This global shift is in markedcontrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty yearsago.At that time most professors customarily and safely to some extent ignored international aspectsof finance. This mode of operation has become untenable since then.2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial managementAnswer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance.They are: 1. foreign exchange and political risks 2. market imperfections and 3. expanded opportunity set.3. Discuss the three major trends that have prevailed in international business during the last two decades.Answer: The 1980s brought a rapid integration of international capital and financial markets. Impetus forglobalized financial markets initially came from the governments of major countries that had begun toderegulate their foreign exchange and capital markets. The economic integration and globalization thatbegan in the eighties is picking up speed in the 1990s via privatization. Privatization is the process bywhich a country divests itself of the ownership and operation of a business venture by turning it over tothe free market system. Lastly trade liberalization and economic integration continued to proceed at boththe regional and global levels.4. How is a country‟s economic well-being enhanced through free international trade in goods andservicesAnswer: According to David Ricardo with free international trade it is mutually beneficial for twocountries to each specialize in the production of the goods that it can produce relatively most efficientlyand then trade those goods. By doing so the two countries can increase their combined productionwhich allows both countries to consume more of both goods. This argument remains valid even if acountry can produce both goods more efficiently than the other country. International trade is not a …zero-sum‟ game in which one country benefits at the expense of another country. Rather international tradecould be an …increasing-sum‟ game at which all players become winners.5. What considerations might limit the extent to which the theory of comparative advantage is realisticAnswer: The theory of comparative advantage was originally advanced by the nineteenth centuryeconomist David Ricardo as an explanation for why nations trade with one another. The theory claimsthat economic well-being is enhanced if each country‟s citizens produce what they have a comparativeadvantage in producing relative to the citizens of other countries and then trade products. Underlying thetheory are the assumptions of free trade between nations and that the factors of production landbuildings labor technology and capital are relatively immobile. To the extent that these assumptions donot hold the theory of comparative advantage will not realistically describe international trade.6. What are multinational corporations MNCs and what economic roles do they playAnswer: A multinational corporation MNC can be defined as a business firm incorporated in onecountry that has production and sales operations in several other countries. Indeed some MNCs haveoperations in dozens of different countries. MNCs obtain financing from major money centers around theworld in many different currencies to finance their operations. Global operations force the treasurer‟soffice to establish international banking relationships to place short-term fundsin several currencydenominations and to effectively manage foreign exchange risk.7. Mr. Ross Perot a former Presidential candidate of the Reform Party which is a third political party inthe United States had strongly objected to the creation of the North American Trade AgreementNAFTA which nonetheless was inaugurated in 1994 for the fear of losing American jobs to Mexicowhere it is much cheaper to hire workers. What are the merits and demerits of Mr. Perot‟s position onNAFTA Considering the recent economic developments in North America how would you assess Mr.Perot‟s position on NAFTAAnswer: Since the inception of NAFTA many American companies indeed have invested heavily inMexico sometimes relocating production from the United States to Mexico. Although this might havetemporarily caused unemployment of some American workers they were eventually rehired by otherindustries often for higher wages. Currently the unemployment rate in the U.S. is quite low by historicalstandard. At the same time Mexico has been experiencing a major economic boom. It seems clear thatboth Mexico and the U.S. have benefited from NAFTA. Mr. Perot‟s concern appears to hav e been illfounded.8. In 1995 a working group of French chief executive officers was set up by the Confederation of FrenchIndustry CNPF and the French Association of Private Companies AFEP to study the French corporategovernance structure. The group reported the following among other things “The board of directorsshould not simply aim at maximizing share values as in the U.K. and the U.S. Rather its goal should be toserve the company whose interests should be clearly distinguished from those of its shareholdersemployees creditors suppliers and clients but still equated with their general common interest which isto safeguard the prosperity and continuity of the company”. Evaluate the above recommendation of theworking group.Answer: The recommendations of the French working group clearly show that shareholder wealthmaximization is not a universally accepted goal of corporate management especially outside the UnitedStates and possibly a few other Anglo-Saxon countries including the United Kingdom and Canada. Tosome extent this may reflect the fact that share ownership is not wide spread in most other countries. InFrance about 15 of households own shares.9. Emphasizing the importance of voluntary compliance as opposed to enforcement in the aftermath ofcorporate scandals e.g. Enron and WorldCom U.S. President George W. Bush stated that while tougherlaws might help “ultimately the ethics of American business depends on the conscience of America‟sbusiness leaders.” Describe your view on this statement.Answer: There can be different answers to this question. If business leaders always behave with a highethical standard many of the corporate scandals we have seen lately might not have happened. Since wecannot fully depend on the ethical behavior on the part of business leaders the society should protectitself by adopting therules/regulations and governance structure that would induce business leaders tobehave in the interest of the society at large.10. Suppose you are interested in investing in shares of Nokia Corporation of Finland which is a worldleader in wireless communication. But before you make investment decision you would like to learnabout the company. Visit the website of CNN Financial network and collectinformation about Nokia including the recent stock price history and analysts‟ views of the company.Discuss what you learn about the company. Also discuss how the instantaneous access to information viainternet would affect the nature and workings of financial markets.Answer: As students might have learned from visiting the website information is readily available evenfor foreign companies like Nokia. Ready access to international information helpsintegrate financialmarkets dismantling barriers to international investment and financing. Integration however may help afinancial shock in one market to be transmitted to other markets.MINI CASE: NIKE‟S DECISION Nike a U.S.-based company with a globally recognized brand name manufactures athletic shoes insuch Asian developing countries as China Indonesia and Vietnam using subcontractors and sells theproducts in the U.S. and foreign markets. The company has no production facilities in the United States.In each of those Asian countries where Nike has production facilities the rates of unemployment andunderemployment are quite high. The wage rate is very low in those countries by the U.S. standardhourly wage rate in the manufacturing sector is less than one dollar in each of those countries which iscompared with about 18 in the U.S. In addition workers in those countries often are operating in poorand unhealthy environments and their rights are not well protected. Understandably Asian host countriesare eager to attract foreign investments like Nike‟s to develop their economies and raise the livingstandards of th eir citizens. Recently however Nike came under a world-wide criticism for its practice ofhiring workers for such a low pay “next to nothing” in the words of critics and condoning poor workingconditions in host countries. Evaluate and discuss various …ethical‟ as well as economic ramifications of Nike‟s decision toinvest in those Asian countries.Suggested Solution to Nike‟s Decision Obviously Nike‟s investments in such Asian countries as China Indonesia and Vietnam weremotivated to take advantage of low labor costs in those countries. While Nike was criticized for the poorworking conditions for its workers the company has recognized the problem and has substantiallyimproved the working environments recently. Although Nike‟s workers get paid very low wages by theWestern standard they probably are making substantially more than their local compatriots who are eitherunder- or unemployed. While Nike‟s detractors may have valid points one should not ignore the fact thatthe company is making contributions to the economic welfare of those Asian countries by creating jobopportunities. CHAPTER 1A THEORY OF COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS TO APPENDIX PROBLEMSPROBLEMS1. Country C can produce seven pounds of food or four yards of textiles per unit of input. Compute theopportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles. Similarly compute the opportunity cost ofproducing textiles instead of food.Solution: The opportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles is one yard of textiles per 7/4 1.75pounds of food. A pound of food has an opportunity cost of4/7 .57 yards of textiles.2. Consider the no-trade input/output situation presented in the following table for Countries X and Y.Assuming that free trade is allowed develop a scenario that will benefit the citizens of both countries.INPUT/OUTPUT WITHOUT TRADE_________________________________________________________________ ______ Country X YTotal___________________________________________________________________ _____I. Units of Input000000_____________________________________________________Food 70 60Textiles 4030______________________________________________________________________ __II. Output per Unit of Inputlbs or yards____________________________________________________Food 17 5Textiles 52_______________________________________________________________________ _III. Total Outputlbs or yards000000____________________________________________________Food 1190 300 1490Textiles 200 60260_____________________________________________________________________ ___IV. Consumptionlbs or yards000000___________________________________________________Food 1190 300 1490Textiles 200 60260_____________________________________________________________________ ___Solution: Examination of the no-trade input/output table indicates that Country X has an absoluteadvantage in the production of food and textiles. Country X can “trade off” one unit of productionneeded to produce 17 pounds of food for five yards of textiles. Thus a yard of textiles has an opportunitycost of 17/5 3.40 pounds of food or a pound of food has an opportunity cost of 5/17 .29 yards oftextiles. Analogously Country Y has an opportunity cost of 5/2 2.50 pounds of food per yard oftextiles or 2/5 .40 yards of textiles per pound of food. In terms of opportunity cost it is clear thatCountry X is relatively more efficient in producing food and Country Y is relatively more efficient inproducing textiles. Thus Country X Y has a comparative advantage in producing food textile iscomparison to Country Y X. When there are no restrictions or impediments to free trade the economic-well being of thecitizens of both countries is enhanced through trade. Suppose that Country X shifts 20000000 unitsfrom the production of textiles to the production of food where it has a comparative advantage and thatCountry Y shifts 60000000 units from the production of food to the production of textiles where it has acomparative advantage. Total output will now be 90000000 x 17 1530000000 pounds of food and20000000 x 5 100000000 90000000 x 2 180000000 280000000 yards of textiles.Further suppose that Country X and Country Y agree on a price of 3.00 pounds of food for one yard oftextiles and that Country X sells Country Y 330000000 pounds of food for 110000000 yards of textiles.Under free trade the following table shows that the citizens of Country X Y have increased theirconsumption of food by 10000000 30000000 pounds and textiles by 10000000 10000000 yards.INPUT/OUTPUT WITH FREE TRADE_________________________________________________________________ _________ Country X YTotal___________________________________________________________________ _______I. Units of Input 000000_______________________________________________________Food 90 0Textiles 2090______________________________________________________________________ ____II. Output per Unit of Input lbs or yards______________________________________________________Food 17 5Textiles 52_______________________________________________________________________ ___III. Total Output lbs or yards 000000_____________________________________________________Food 1530 0 1530Textiles 100 180280_____________________________________________________________________ _____IV. Consumption lbs or yards 000000_____________________________________________________Food 1200 330 1530Textiles 210 70280_____________________________________________________________________ _____ CHAPTER 3 BALANCE OF PAYMENTS SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Define the balance of payments.Answer: The balance of payments BOP can be defined as the statistical record of a country‟sinternational transactions over a certain period of time presented in the form of double-entry bookkeeping.2. Why would it be useful.。
国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案1
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CHAPTER 14 INTEREST RATE AND CURRENCY SWAPSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Describe the difference between a swap broker and a swap dealer.Answer: A swap broker arranges a swap between two counterparties for a fee without taking a risk position in the swap. A swap dealer is a market maker of swaps and assumes a risk position in matching opposite sides of a swap and in assuring that each counterparty fulfills its contractual obligation to the other.2. What is the necessary condition for a fixed-for-floating interest rate swap to be possible?Answer: For a fixed-for-floating interest rate swap to be possible it is necessary for a quality spread differential to exist. In general, the default-risk premium of the fixed-rate debt will be larger than the default-risk premium of the floating-rate debt.3. Discuss the basic motivations for a counterparty to enter into a currency swap.Answer: One basic reason for a counterparty to enter into a currency swap is to exploit the comparative advantage of the other in obtaining debt financing at a lower interest rate than could be obtained on its own. A second basic reason is to lock in long-term exchange rates in the repayment of debt service obligations denominated in a foreign currency.4. How does the theory of comparative advantage relate to the currency swap market?Answer: Name recognition is extremely important in the international bond market. Without it, even a creditworthy corporation will find itself paying a higher interest rate for foreign denominated funds than a local borrower of equivalent creditworthiness. Consequently, two firms of equivalent creditworthiness can each exploit their, respective, name recognition by borrowing in their local capital market at a favorable rate and then re-lending at the same rate to the other.5. Discuss the risks confronting an interest rate and currency swap dealer.Answer: An interest rate and currency swap dealer confronts many different types of risk. Interest rate risk refers to the risk of interest rates changing unfavorably before the swap dealer can lay off on an opposing counterparty the unplaced side of a swap with another counterparty. Basis risk refers to the floating rates of two counterparties being pegged to two different indices. In this situation, since the indexes are not perfectly positively correlated, the swap bank may not always receive enough floating rate funds from one counterparty to pass through to satisfy the other side, while still covering its desired spread, or avoiding a loss. Exchange-rate risk refers to the risk the swap bank faces from fluctuating exchange rates during the time it takes the bank to lay off a swap it undertakes on an opposing counterparty before exchange rates change. Additionally, the dealer confronts credit risk from one counterparty defaulting and its having to fulfill the defaulting party’s obligation to the other counterparty. Mismatch risk refers to the difficulty of the dealer finding an exact opposite match for a swap it has agreed to take. Sovereign risk refers to a country imposing exchange restrictions on a currency involved in a swap making it costly, or impossible, for a counterparty to honor its swap obligations to the dealer. In this event, provisions exist for the early termination of a swap, which means a loss of revenue to the swap bank.6. Briefly discuss some variants of the basic interest rate and currency swaps diagramed in the chapter.Answer: Instead of the basic fixed-for-floating interest rate swap, there are also zero-coupon-for-floating rate swaps where the fixed rate payer makes only one zero-coupon payment at maturity on the notional value. There are also floating-for-floating rate swaps where each side is tied to a different floating rate index or a different frequency of the same index. Currency swaps need not be fixed-for-fixed; fixed-for-floating and floating-for-floating rate currency swaps are frequently arranged. Moreover, both currency and interest rate swaps can be amortizing as well as non-amortizing.7. If the cost advantage of interest rate swaps would likely be arbitraged away in competitive markets, what other explanations exist to explain the rapid development of the interest rate swap market?Answer: All types of debt instruments are not always available to all borrowers. Interest rate swaps can assist in market completeness. That is, a borrower may use a swap to get out of one type of financing and to obtain a more desirable type of credit that is more suitable for its asset maturity structure.8. Suppose Morgan Guaranty, Ltd. is quoting swap rates as follows: 7.75 - 8.10 percent annually against six-month dollar LIBOR for dollars and 11.25 - 11.65 percent annually against six-month dollar LIBOR for British pound sterling. At what rates will Morgan Guaranty enter into a $/£ currency swap?Answer: Morgan Guaranty will pay annual fixed-rate dollar payments of 7.75 percent against receiving six-month dollar LIBOR flat, or it will receive fixed-rate annual dollar payments at 8.10 percent against paying six-month dollar LIBOR flat. Morgan Guaranty will make annual fixed-rate £ payments at 11.25 percent against receiving six-month dollar LIBOR flat, or it will receive annual fixed-rate £ payments at 11.65 percent against paying six-month dollar LIBOR flat. Thus, Morgan Guaranty will enter into a currency swap in which it would pay annual fixed-rate dollar payments of 7.75 percent in return for receiving semi-annual fixed-rate £ payments at 11.65 percent, or it will receive annual fixed-rate dollar payments at 8.10 percent against paying annual fixed-rate £ payments at 11.25 percent.*9. Assume a currency swap in which two counterparties of comparable credit risk each borrow at the best rate available, yet the nominal rate of one counterparty is higher than the other. After the initial principal exchange, is the counterparty that is required to make interest payments at the higher nominal rate at a financial disadvantage to the other in the swap agreement? Explain your thinking.Answer: Superficially, it may appear that the counterparty paying the higher nominal rate is at a disadvantage since it has borrowed at a lower rate. However, if the forward rate is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot rate and if IRP holds, then the currency with the higher nominal rate is expected to depreciate versus the other. In this case, the counterparty making the interest payments at the higher nominal rate is in effect making interest payments at the lower interest rate because the payment currency is depreciating in value versus the borrowing currency.PROBLEMS1. Alpha and Beta Companies can borrow for a five-year term at the following rates:Alpha BetaMoody’s credit rating Aa BaaFixed-rate borrowing cost 10.5% 12.0%Floating-rate borrowing cost LIBOR LIBOR + 1%a. Calculate the quality spread differential (QSD).b. Develop an interest rate swap in which both Alpha and Beta have an equal cost savings in their borrowing costs. Assume Alpha desires floating-rate debt and Beta desires fixed-rate debt. No swap bank is involved in this transaction.Solution:a. The QSD = (12.0% - 10.5%) minus (LIBOR + 1% - LIBOR) = .5%.b. Alpha needs to issue fixed-rate debt at 10.5% and Beta needs to issue floating rate-debt at LIBOR + 1%. Alpha needs to pay LIBOR to Beta. Beta needs to pay 10.75% to Alpha. If this is done, Alpha’s floating-rate all-in-cost is: 10.5% + LIBOR - 10.75% = LIBOR - .25%, a .25% savings over issuing floating-rat e debt on its own. Beta’s fixed-rate all-in-cost is: LIBOR+ 1% + 10.75% - LIBOR = 11.75%, a .25% savings over issuing fixed-rate debt.2. Do problem 1 over again, this time assuming more realistically that a swap bank is involved as an intermediary. Assume the swap bank is quoting five-year dollar interest rate swaps at 10.7% - 10.8% against LIBOR flat.Solution: Alpha will issue fixed-rate debt at 10.5% and Beta will issue floating rate-debt at LIBOR + 1%. Alpha will receive 10.7% from the swap bank and pay it LIBOR. Beta will pay 10.8% to the swap bank and receive from it LIBOR. If this is done, Alpha’s floating-rate all-in-cost is: 10.5% + LIBOR - 10.7% = LIBOR - .20%, a .20% savings over issuing floating-rate debt on its own. Beta’s fixed-rate all-in-cost is: LIBOR+ 1% + 10.8% - LIBOR = 11.8%, a .20% savings over issuing fixed-rate debt.3. Company A is a AAA-rated firm desiring to issue five-year FRNs. It finds that it can issue FRNs at six-month LIBOR + .125 percent or at three-month LIBOR + .125 percent. Given its asset structure, three-month LIBOR is the preferred index. Company B is an A-rated firm that also desires to issue five-year FRNs. It finds it can issue at six-month LIBOR + 1.0 percent or at three-month LIBOR + .625 percent. Given its asset structure, six-month LIBOR is the preferred index. Assume a notional principal of $15,000,000. Determine the QSD and set up a floating-for-floating rate swap where the swap bank receives .125 percent and the two counterparties share the remaining savings equally.Solution: The quality spread differential is [(Six-month LIBOR + 1.0 percent) minus (Six-month LIBOR + .125 percent) =] .875 percent minus [(Three-month LIBOR + .625 percent) minus (Three-month LIBOR + .125 percent) =] .50 percent, which equals .375 percent. If the swap bank receives .125 percent, each counterparty is to save .125 percent. To effect the swap, Company A would issue FRNs indexed to six-month LIBOR and Company B would issue FRNs indexed three-month LIBOR. Company B might make semi-annual payments of six-month LIBOR + .125 percent to the swap bank, which would pass all of it through to Company A. Company A, in turn, might make quarterly payments of three-month LIBOR to the swap bank, which would pass through three-month LIBOR - .125 percent to Company B. On an annualized basis, Company B will remit to the swap bank six-month LIBOR + .125 percent and pay three-month LIBOR + .625 percent on its FRNs. It will receive three-month LIBOR - .125 percent from the swap bank. This arrangement results in an all-in cost of the six-month LIBOR + .825 percent, which is a rate .125 percent below the FRNs indexed to six-month LIBOR + 1.0 percent Company B could issue on its own. Company A will remit three-month LIBOR to the swap bank and pay six-month LIBOR + .125 percent on its FRNs. It will receive six-month LIBOR + .125 percent from the swap bank. This arrangement results in an all-in cost of three-month LIBOR for Company A, which is .125 percent less than the FRNs indexed to three-month LIBOR + .125 percent it could issue on its own. The arrangements with the two counterparties net the swap bank .125 percent per annum, received quarterly.*4. A corporation enters into a five-year interest rate swap with a swap bank in which it agrees to pay the swap bank a fixed rate of 9.75 percent annually on a notional amount of €15,000,000 and receive LIBOR. As of the second reset date, determine the price of the swap from the corporation’s viewpoint assuming that the fixed-rate side of the swap has increased to 10.25 percent.Solution: On the reset date, the present value of the future floating-rate payments the corporation will receive from the swap bank based on the notional value will be €15,000,000. The present value of a hypothetical bond issu e of €15,000,000 with three remaining 9.75 percent coupon payments at the newfixed-rate of 10.25 percent is €14,814,304. This sum represents the present value of the remaining payments the swap bank will receive from the corporation. Thus, the swap bank should be willing to buy and the corporation should be willing to sell the swap for €15,000,000 - €14,814,304 = €185,696.5. Karla Ferris, a fixed income manager at Mangus Capital Management, expects the current positively sloped U.S. Treasury yield curve to shift parallel upward.Ferris owns two $1,000,000 corporate bonds maturing on June 15, 1999, one with a variable rate based on 6-month U.S. dollar LIBOR and one with a fixed rate. Both yield 50 basis points over comparable U.S. Treasury market rates, have very similar credit quality, and pay interest semi-annually.Ferris wished to execute a swap to take advantage of her expectation of a yield curve shift and believes that any difference in credit spread between LIBOR and U.S. Treasury market rates will remain constant.a. Describe a six-month U.S. dollar LIBOR-based swap that would allow Ferris to take advantage of her expectation. Discuss, assuming Ferris’ expectation is correct, the change in the swap’s value and how that change would affect the value of her portfolio. [No calculations required to answer part a.] Instead of the swap described in part a, Ferris would use the following alternative derivative strategy to achieve the same result.b. Explain, assuming Ferris’ expectation is correc t, how the following strategy achieves the same result in response to the yield curve shift. [No calculations required to answer part b.]Settlement Date Nominal Eurodollar Futures Contract Value12-15-97 $1,000,00003-15-98 1,000,00006-15-98 1,000,00009-15-98 1,000,00012-15-98 1,000,00003-15-99 1,000,000c. Discuss one reason why these two derivative strategies provide the same result.CFA Guideline Answera.The Swap Value and its Effect on Ferris’ PortfolioBecause Karla Ferris believes interest rates will rise, she will want to swap her $1,000,000 fixed-rate corporate bond interest to receive six-month U.S. dollar LIBOR. She will continue to hold her variable-rate six-month U.S. dollar LIBOR rate bond because its payments will increase as interest rates rise. Because the credit risk between the U.S. dollar LIBOR and the U.S. Treasury market is expected to remain constant, Ferris can use the U.S. dollar LIBOR market to take advantage of her interest rate expectation without affecting her credit risk exposure.To execute this swap, she would enter into a two-year term, semi-annual settle, $1,000,000 nominal principal, pay fixed-receive floating U.S. dollar LIBOR swap. If rates rise, the swap’s mark-to-market value will increase because the U.S. dollar LIBOR Ferris receives will be higher than the LIBOR rates from which the swap was priced. If Ferris were to enter into the same swap after interest rates rise, she would pay a higher fixed rate to receive LIBOR rates. This higher fixed rate would be calculated as the present value of now higher forward LIBOR rates. Because Ferris would be paying a stated fixed rate that is lower than this new higher-present-value fixed rate, she could sell her swap at a premium. This premium is called the “replacement cost” value of the swap.b. Eurodollar Futures StrategyThe appropriate futures hedge is to short a combination of Eurodollar futures contracts with different settlement dates to match the coupon payments and principal. This futures hedge accomplishes the same objective as the pay fixed-receive floating swap described in Part a. By discussing how the yield-curve shift affects the value of the futures hedge, the candidate can show an understanding of how Eurodollar futures contracts can be used instead of a pay fixed-receive floating swap.If rates rise, the mark-to-market values of the Eurodollar contracts decrease; their yields must increase to equal the new higher forward and spot LIBOR rates. Because Ferris must short or sell the Eurodollar contracts to duplicate the pay fixed-receive variable swap in Part a, she gains as the Eurodollar futures contracts decline in value and the futures hedge increases in value. As the contracts expire, or if Ferris sells the remaining contracts prior to maturity, she will recognize a gain that increases her return. With higher interest rates, the value of the fixed-rate bond will decrease. If the hedge ratios are appropriate, the value of the portfolio, however, will remain unchanged because of the increased value of the hedge, which offsets the fixed-rate bond’s decrease.a. Why the Derivative Strategies Achieve the Same ResultArbitrage market forces make these two strategies provide the same result to Ferris. The two strategies are different mechanisms for different market participants to hedge against increasing rates. Some money managers prefer swaps; others, Eurodollar futures contracts. Each institutional marketparticipant has different preferences and choices in hedging interest rate risk. The key is that market makers moving into and out of these two markets ensure that the markets are similarly priced and provide similar returns. As an example of such an arbitrage, consider what would happen if forward market LIBOR rates were lower than swap market LIBOR rates. An arbitrageur would, under such circumstances, sell the futures/forwards contracts and enter into a received fixed-pay variable swap. This arbitrageur could now receive the higher fixed rate of the swap market and pay the lower fixed rate of the futures market. He or she would pocket the differences between the two rates (without risk and without having to make any [net] investment.) This arbitrage could not last.As more and more market makers sold Eurodollar futures contracts, the selling pressure would cause their prices to fall and yields to rise, which would cause the present value cost of selling the Eurodollar contracts also to increase. Similarly, as more and more market makers offer to receive fixed rates in the swap market, market makers would have to lower their fixed rates to attract customers so they could lock in the lower hedge cost in the Eurodollar futures market. Thus, Eurodollar forward contract yields would rise and/or swap market receive-fixed rates would fall until the two rates converge. At this point, the arbitrage opportunity would no longer exist and the swap and forwards/futures markets would be in equilibrium.6. Rone Company asks Paula Scott, a treasury analyst, to recommend a flexible way to manage the company’s financial risks.Two years ago, Rone issued a $25 million (U.S.$), five-year floating rate note (FRN). The FRN pays an annual coupon equal to one-year LIBOR plus 75 basis points. The FRN is non-callable and will be repaid at par at maturity.Scott expects interest rates to increase and she recognizes that Rone could protect itself against the increase by using a pay-fixed swap. However, Rone’s Board of Directors prohibits both short sales of securities and swap transactions. Scott decides to replicate a pay-fixed swap using a combination of capital market instruments.a. Identify the instruments needed by Scott to replicate a pay-fixed swap and describe the required transactions.b. Explain how the transactions in Part a are equivalent to using a pay-fixed swap.CFA Guideline Answera. The instruments needed by Scott are a fixed-coupon bond and a floating rate note (FRN).The transactions required are to:∙issue a fixed-coupon bond with a maturity of three years and a notional amount of $25 million, and∙buy a $25 million FRN of the same maturity that pays one-year LIBOR plus 75 bps.b. At the outset, Rone will issue the bond and buy the FRN, resulting in a zero net cash flow at initiation. At the end of the third year, Rone will repay the fixed-coupon bond and will be repaid the FRN, resulting in a zero net cash flow at maturity. The net cash flow associated with each of the three annual coupon payments will be the difference between the inflow (to Rone) on the FRN and the outflow (to Rone) on the bond. Movements in interest rates during the three-year period will determine whether the net cash flow associated with the coupons is positive or negative to Rone. Thus, the bond transactions are financially equivalent to a plain vanilla pay-fixed interest rate swap.7. Dustin Financial owns a $10 million 30-year maturity, noncallable corporate bond with a 6.5 percent coupon paid annually. Dustin pays annual LIBOR minus 1 percent on its three-year term time deposits.Vega Corporation owns an annual-pay LIBOR floater and wants to swap for three years. One-year LIBOR is now 5 percent.a. Diagram the cash flows between Dustin, Vega, Dustin’s depositors, and Dustin’s corporate bond. Label the following items:•Dustin, Vega, Dustin’s depositors, and Dustin’s corporate bond.• Applicable interest rate at each line and specify whether it is floating orfixed.•Direction of each of the cash flows.Answer problem a in the template provided.b. i. Calculate the first new swap payment between Dustin and Vega and indicate the direction of the net payment amount.ii. Identify the net interest rate spread that Dustin expects to earn.CFA Guideline Answera. The cash flows between Dustin, Vega, Dustin’s depositors, and Dustin’s corporate bond are asfollows:b. i. As the fixed rate payer, Dustin would owe Vega $10,000,000 x 6.5% = $650,000. As the floating rate payer, Vega would owe Dustin $10,000,000 x 5.0% = $500,000. On a net basis, Dustin would pay Vega $650,000 - $500,000 = $150,000. There is no exchange of principal, either at the beginning of the swap or at payment dates.b. ii. Dustin expects to earn 1 percent spread. Dustin receives 6.5 percent on the corporate bonds it owns. After entering the swap, it also pays 6.5 percent to Vega. Effectively, then Dustin receives the corporate bond interest and passes it through to Vega. Under the swap agreement, Dustin receives LIBOR flat. Fixed 6.5% Floating: LIBOR Floating LIBOR –1% Fixed: 6.5%From this cash flow, it pays its depositors LIBOR minus 1 percent. It makes no difference to Dustin how high short-term rates move, because it has locked in a 1 percent spread.8. Ashton Bishop is the debt manager for World Telephone, which needs €3.33 billion Euro financing for its operations. Bishop is considering the choice between issuance of debt denominated in: •Euros (€), or• U.S. dollars, accompanied by a combined interest rate and currency swap.a. Explain one risk World would assume by entering into the combined interest rate and currency swap.Bishop believes that issuing the U.S.-dollar debt and entering into the swap can lower World’s cost of debt by 45 basis points. Immediately after selling the debt issue, World would swap the U.S. dollar payments for Euro payments throughout the maturity of the debt. She assumes a constant currency exchange rate throughout the tenor of the swap.Exhibit 1 gives details for the two alternative debt issues. Exhibit 2 provides current information about spot currency exchange rates and the 3-year tenor Euro/U.S. Dollar currency and interest rate swap.Exhibit 1World Telephone Debt DetailsExhibit 2Currency Exchange Rate and Swap Informationb. Show the notional principal and interest payment cash flows of the combined interest rate and currency swap.Note: Your response should show both the correct currency ($ or €) and amoun t for each cash flow. Answer problem b in the template provided.Template for problem bc. State whether or not World would reduce its borrowing cost by issuing the debt denominated in U.S. dollars, accompanied by the combined interest rate and currency swap. Justify your response with one reason.CFA Guideline Answera. World would assume both counterparty risk and currency risk. Counterparty risk is the risk that Bishop’s counterparty will default on payment of principal or interest cash flows in the swap.Currency risk is the currency exposure risk associated with all cash flows. If the US$ appreciates (Euro depreciates), there would be a loss on funding of the coupon payments; however, if the US$ depreciates, then the dollars will be worth less at the swap’s maturity.1€ 193.14 million = € 3.33 billion x 5.8%2 $219 million = $3 billion x 7.3%c. World would not reduce its borrowing cost, because what Bishop saves in the Euro market, she loses in the dollar market. The interest rate on the Euro pay side of her swap is 5.80 percent, lower than the6.25 percent she would pay on her Euro debt issue, an interest savings of 45 bps. But Bishop is only receiving7.30 percent in U.S. dollars to pay on her 7.75 percent U.S. debt interest payment, an interest shortfall of 45 bps. Given a constant currency exchange rate, this 45 bps shortfall exactly offsets the savings from paying 5.80 percent versus the 6.25 percent. Thus there is no interest cost savings by selling the U.S. dollar debt issue and entering into the swap arrangement.MINI CASE: THE CENTRALIA CORPORATION’S CURRENCY SWAPThe Centralia Corporation is a U.S. manufacturer of small kitchen electrical appliances. It has decided to construct a wholly owned manufacturing facility in Zaragoza, Spain, to manufacture microwave ovens for sale in the European Union. The plant is expected to cost €5,500,000, and to take about one year to complete. The plant is to be financed over its economic life of eight years. The borrowing capacity created by this capital expenditure is $2,900,000; the remainder of the plant will be equity financed. Centralia is not well known in the Spanish or international bond market; consequently, it would have to pay 7 percent per annum to borrow euros, whereas the normal borrowing rate in the euro zone for well-known firms of equivalent risk is 6 percent. Alternatively, Centralia can borrow dollars in the U.S. at a rate of 8 percent.Study Questions1. Suppose a Spanish MNC has a mirror-image situation and needs $2,900,000 to finance a capital expenditure of one of its U.S. subsidiaries. It finds that it must pay a 9 percent fixed rate in the United States for dollars, whereas it can borrow euros at 6 percent. The exchange rate has been forecast to be $1.33/€1.00 in one year. Set up a currency swap that will benefit each counterparty.*2. Suppose that one year after the inception of the currency swap between Centralia and the Spanish MNC, the U.S. dollar fixed-rate has fallen from 8 to 6 percent and the euro zone fixed-rate for euros has fallen from 6 to 5.50 percent. In both dollars and euros, determine the market value of the swap if the exchange rate is $1.3343/€1.00.Suggested Solution to The Centralia Corporation’s Currency Swap1. The Spanish MNC should issue €2,180,500 of 6 percent fixed-rate debt and Centralia should issue $2,900,000 of fixed-rate 8 percent debt, since each counterparty has a relative comparative advantage in their home market. They will exchange principal sums in one year. The contractual exchange rate for the initial exchange is $2,900,000/€2,180,500, or $1.33/€1.00. Annually the counterparties will swap debt service: the Spanish MNC will pay Centralia $232,000 (= $2,900,000 x .08) and Centralia will pay the Spanish MNC €130,830 (= €2,180,500 x .06). The contractual exchange rate of the first seven annual debt service exchanges is $232,000/€130,830, or $1.7733/€1.00. At maturity, Centralia and the Spanish MNC will re-exchange the principal sums and the final debt service payments. The contractual exchange rate of the final currency exchange is $3,132,000/€2,311,330 = ($2,900,000 + $232,000)/(€2,180,500 + €130,830), or $1.3551/€1.00.*2. The market value of the dollar debt is the present value of a seven-year annuity of $232,000 and a lump sum of $2,900,000 discounted at 6 percent. This present value is $3,223,778. Similarly, the market value of the euro debt is the present value of a seven-year annuity of €130,830 and a lump sum of€2,180,500 discounted at 5.50 percent. This present value is €2,242,459. The dollar value of the swap is $3,223,778 - €2,242,459 x 1.3343 = $231,665. The euro value of the swap is €2,242,459 -$3,223,778/1.3343 = -€173,623.。
国际财务管理课后答案_10th edition_chapter04_杰夫·马杜拉著
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1. Why did exchange rates change recently?
2. Show the class a current exchange rate table from a periodical—identify spot and forward quotations. Then show the class an exchange rate table from a date a month ago, or three months ago. The comparison of tables will illustrate how exchange rates change, and how forward rates of the earlier date will differ from the spot rate of the future date for a given currency.
duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in wholenge Rate Determination
Chapter Theme
This chapter provides an overview of the foreign exchange market. It is designed to illustrate (1) why a market exists, and (2) why exchange rates change over time.
Anticipation of Exchange Rate Movements Bank Speculation Based on Expected Appreciation Bank Speculation Based on Expected Depreciation Speculation by Individuals
国际财务管理课后习题答案
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国际财务管理
第四章 外汇汇率预测
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第六章 外汇风险管理的策略 与方法
外汇现货市场
外汇期货市场
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国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter
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CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regretshis/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $€ and the foreign exchange advisor for C ray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000 –= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, .,250m/ = ¥245,700,So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340, = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340, as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,with dollars ¥245,700,2. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $SF and the three-month forward rate is $SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $SF for the premium of $ per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $ = $250. At the expected future spot rate of $SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $, ., $3,.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + , where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3, = $3,200 + $.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The curre nt spot exchange rate is $€ and the one -year forward rate is $€. The annual interest rate is % in the U.S. and % in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV o f its euro receivable, ., 20,000,000/ =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar $ Cost Options hedge Forward hedge $3, $3,150 0 (strike price) $/SF$interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000 = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i$)/(1+i F). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:F = / = $€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars u sing Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client?(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the . PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000/(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000 = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,.The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on . dollars with a strike price of €$ for a premiumof € per . dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is % in the euro zone and % in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides tohedge using a forward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action doesAirbus need to take? What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on . dollars, what would be the‘expected’ euro proceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent betweenthe option and money market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, ., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, ., €< €, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x . Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, ., €$, or $€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) .Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above . They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of . If the spot rate rises above , they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/ DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/ DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price , the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between and . If the rate rises above , the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below , the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/ DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/ DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”ProfitsCallPayoff“Call”Profits Net Profit(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,454(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,454(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,454 (1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,454(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,45460,716,454 (1,742,846)60,606,061,742,846060,606,061(1,742,846)60,240,961,742,846060,240,964 41,742,846059,880,240 (1,742,846)59,880,24(1,742,846)59,523,811,742,846059,523,810 01,742,846059,171,598 (1,742,846)59,171,598(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 91,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,529(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 91,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,5291,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,529(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 91,742,846058,823,529 (1,742,846)58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x –= A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @Buy puts for $/A$ @# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360) 3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360) 4) Put payoffIf spot falls below , fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above , fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoffAustralian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”PrincipalCallPayoff“Call”Principal Net Profit(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241 (75,332)73,000,0075,573073,000,241(75,332)74,000,0075,573074,000,24175,573075,000,241 (75,332)75,000,00(75,332)76,000,0075,573076,000,24175,573077,000,241 (75,332)77,000,00(75,332)78,000,0075,573078,000,241(75,332)79,000,0075,573079,000,241(75,332)80,000,0075,573080,000,24180,250,241 (75,332)075,57380,250,00(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,24180,250,241 (75,332)075,57380,250,00(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,24180,250,241 (75,332)075,57380,250,004. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. Fora premium of:12 million STG x = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange ratewill not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar strike vs. forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to , and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen ., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium¥/$ = ¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following tablesummarizes the payoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit 120(1,524,990)100,000,00098,475,010 121(1,524,990)99,173,66497,648,564 122(1,524,990)98,360,65696,835,666 123(1,524,990)97,560,97686,035,986 124(1,524,990)96,774,19495,249,204 125(1,524,990)96,000,00094,475,010 126(1,524,990)95,238,09593,713,105 127(847,829)94,488,18993,640,360 128(109,640)93,750,00093,640,360 129617,10493,023,25693,640,360 1301,332,66892,307,69293,640,360 1312,037,30791,603,05393,640,360 1322,731,26990,909,09193,640,360 1333,414,79690,225,66493,640,360 1344,088,12289,552,23993,640,360 1354,751,43188,888,88993,640,360 1365,405,06688,235,29493,640,360 1376,049,11887,591,24193,640,360 1386,683,83986,966,52293,640,360 1397,308,42586,330,93693,640,360 1407,926,07585,714,28693,640,360 1418,533,97785,106,38393,640,360 1429,133,31884,507,04293,640,360 1439,724,27683,916,08493,640,360 14410,307,02783,333,33393,640,360 14510,881,74082,758,62193,640,360 14611,448,57982,191,78193,640,36014712,007,70781,632,65393,640,36014812,569,27981,081,08193,640,36014913,103,44880,536,91393,640,36015013,640,36080,000,00093,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for the DM loan, because it has a known quantity and maturity, but the Lira exposure would retain some of its uncertainty because these factors are not assured.The parent could buy DM calls and Lira puts. This would allow them to take advantage of favorable currency fluctuations, but would require paying for two premiums.Finally, they could swap their Lira receivable into DM. This would leave a net DM exposure which would probably be smaller than the amount of the loan, which they could hedge using forwards or options, depending upon their risk outlook.The company has Lira receivables, and is concerned about possible depreciation versus the dollar. Because of the high costs of Lira options, they instead buy DM puts, making the assumption that movement in the DM and Lira exchange rates versus the dollar correlate well.A hedge of lira using DM options will depend on the relationship between lira FX rates and DM options. This relationship could be determined using a regression of historical data.The hedged risk as a percent of the open risk can be estimated as:Square Root (var(error)/(b2var(lira FX rate) ) * 100。
国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案8(可编辑修改word版)
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CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1.Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2.In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3.Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreignexchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission that buyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4.How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these contracts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5.What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6.What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t> E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7.List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T and . When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1.the larger (smaller) is S,2.the smaller (larger) is E,3.the smaller (larger) is r i,4.the larger (smaller) is r$,5.the larger (smaller) r$is relative to r i, and6.the greater is .When r$and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1.Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three days’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the changes in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2.Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.ing the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.ing the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5.Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) xMP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6.George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsLoan initiatedFirst loan payment (9%)and futures contract expiresSecond paymentand principal• • •9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a.Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan initiatedFirstpayment (9%)SecondpaymentThirdpaymentFourth paymentand principal• • • • • 9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b.Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera.The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b.In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used tohedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between the futures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7.Jacob Bower has a liability that:•has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,•accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,•pays interest quarterly,•has a one-year term to maturity, and•calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) ina.Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b.Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera.Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b.Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain inter est rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.e the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9.Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10.Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 centse the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1= [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142).50 = .2675d2= d1- .142.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e= [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e= [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 centse the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50 = 1.1056 and d = 1/u = .9045. At the exercise price of E = 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0= Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1.Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2.Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3.Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4.Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1. +-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。
(完整word版)国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter4
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CHAPTER 4 CORPORATE GOVERNANCE AROUND THE WORLDSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQuestions1.The majority of major corporations are franchised as public corporations. Discuss the key strengthand weakness of the ‘public corporation’. When do you think the public corporation as an organizational form is unsuitable?Answer: The key strength of the public corporation lies in that it allows for efficient risk sharing among investors. As a result, the public corporation may raise a large sum of capital at a relatively low cost. The main weakness of the public corporation stems from the conflicts of interest between managers and shareholders.2.The public corporation is owned by multitude of shareholders but managed by professional managers.Managers can take self-interested actions at the expense of shareholders. Discuss the conditions under which the so-called agency problem arises.Answer: The agency problem arises when managers have control rights but insignificant cash flow rights. This wedge between control and cash flow rights motivates managers to engage in self-dealings at the expense of shareholders.3.Following corporate scandals and failures in the U.S. and abroad, there is a growingdemand for corporate governance reform. What should be the key objectives ofcorporate governance reform? What kind of obstacles can there be thwarting reformefforts?Answer: The key objectives of corporate governance reform should be to strengthen shareholder rights and protect shareholders from expropriation by corporate insiders, whether managers or large shareholders. Controlling shareholders or managers do not wish to lose their control rights and thus resist reform efforts.4.Studies show that the legal protection of shareholder rights varies a great deal acrosscountries. Discuss the possible reasons why the English common law traditionprovides the strongest and the French civil law tradition the weakest protection ofinvestors.Answer: In civil law countries, the state historically has played an active role in regulating economic activities and has been less protective of property rights. In England, control of the court passed from the crown to the parliament and property owners in seventeenth century. English common law thus became more protective of property owners, and this protection was extended to investors over time.5.Explain ‘the wedge’ between the control and cash flow rights and discuss its implications forcorporate governance.Answer: When there is a separation of ownership and control, managers have control rights with insignificant cash flow rights, whereas shareholders have cash flow rights but no control rights. This wedge gives rise to the conflicts of interest between managers and shareholders. The wedge is the source of the agency problem.6.Discuss different ways that dominant investors use to establish and maintain the control of thecompany with relatively small investments.Answer: Dominant investors may use: (i) shares with superior voting rights, (ii) pyramidal ownership structure, and (iii) inter-firm cross-holdings.7.The Cadbury Code of the Best Practice adopted in the United Kingdom led to a successful reform ofcorporate governance in the country. Explain the key requirements of the Code and discuss how it may have contributed to the success of reform.Answer: The Code requires that chairman of the board and CEO be held by two different individuals, and that there should be at least three outside board members. The recommended board structure helped to strengthen the monitoring function of the board and reduce the agency problem.8.Many companies grant stocks or stock options to the managers. Discuss the benefitsand possible costs of using this kind of incentive compensation scheme.Answer: Stock options can be useful for aligning the interest of managers with that of shareholders and reduce the wedge between managerial control rights and cash flow rights. But at the same time, stock options may induce managers to distort investment decisions and manipulate financial statements so that they can maximize their benefits in the short run.9.It has been shown that foreign companies listed in the U.S. stock exchanges are valued more thanthose from the same countries that are not listed in the U.S. Explain the reasons why U.S.-listed foreign firms are valued more than those which are not. Also explain why not every foreign firm wants to list stocks in the United States.Answer: Foreign companies domiciled in countries with weak investor protection can bond themselves credibly to better investor protection by listing their stocks in U.S. exchanges that are known to provide a strong investor protection. Managers of some companies may not wish to list shares in U.S. exchanges, subjecting themselves to stringent disclosure and monitoring, for fear of losing their control rights and private benefits.。
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CHAPTER 3 BALANCE OF PAY MENTSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Define the balance of payments.Answer: The balance of payments (BOP) can be defined as the statistical record of a country‟s international transactions over a certain period of time presented in the form of double-entry bookkeeping.2. Why would it be useful to examine a country‟s balance of payments data?Answer: It would be useful to examine a country‟s BOP for at least two reaso ns. First, BOP provides detailed information about the supply and demand of the country‟s currency. Second, BOP data can be used to evaluate the performance of the country in international economic competition. For example, if a country is experiencing per ennial BOP deficits, it may signal that the country‟s industries lack competitiveness.3. The United States has experienced continuous current account deficits since the early 1980s. What do you think are the main causes for the deficits? What would be the consequences of continuous U.S. current account deficits?Answer: The current account deficits of U.S. may have reflected a few reasons such as (I) a historically high real interest rate in the U.S., which is due to ballooning federal budget deficits, that kept the dollar strong, and (ii) weak competitiveness of the U.S. industries.4. In contrast to the U.S., Japan has realized continuous current account surpluses. What could be the main causes for these surpluses? Is it desirable to have continuous current account surpluses?Answer: Japan‟s continuous current account surpluses may have reflected a weak yen and high competitiveness of Japanese industries. Massive capital exports by Japan prevented yen from appreciating more than it did. At the same time, foreigners‟ exports to Japan were hampered by closed nature ofJapanese markets. Continuous current account surpluses disrupt free trade by promoting protectionist sentiment in the deficit country. It is not desirable especially when it is brought about by the mercantilist policies.5. Comment on the following statement: “Since the U.S. imports more than it exports, it is necessary for the U.S. to import capital from foreign countries to finance its current account deficits.”Answer: The statement presupposes that the U.S. current account deficit causes its capital account surplus. In reality, the causality may be running in the opposite direction: U.S. capital account surplus may cause the country‟s current account deficit. Suppose foreigners fin d the U.S. a great place to invest and send their capital to the U.S., resulting in U.S. capital account surplus. This capital inflow will strengthen the dollar, hurting the U.S. export and encouraging imports from foreign countries, causing current account deficits.6. Explain how a country can run an overall balance of payments deficit or surplus.Answer: A country can run an overall BOP deficit or surplus by engaging in the official reserve transactions. For example, an overall BOP deficit can be su pported by drawing down the central bank‟s reserve holdings. Likewise, an overall BOP surplus can be absorbed by adding to the central bank‟s reserve holdings.7. Explain official reserve assets and its major components.Answer: Official reserve assets are those financial assets that can be used as international means of payments. Currently, official reserve assets comprise: (I) gold, (ii) foreign exchanges, (iii) special drawing rights (SDRs), and (iv) reserve positions with the IMF. Foreign exchanges are by far the most important official reserves.8. Explain how to compute the overall balance and discuss its significance.Answer: The overall BOP is determined by computing the cumulative balance of payments including the current account, capital account, and the statistical discrepancies. The overall BOP is significant because it indicates a country‟s international payment gap that must be financed by the government‟s official reserve transactions.9. Since the early 1980s, foreign portfolio investors have purchased a significant portion of U.S. treasury bond issues. Discuss the short-term and long-term effects of foreigners‟ portfolio investment on the U.S. balance of payments.Answer: As foreigners purchase U.S. Treasury bonds, U.S. BOP will improve in the short run. But in the l ong run, U.S. BOP may deteriorate because the U.S. should pay interests and principals to foreigners. If foreign funds are used productively and contributes to the competitiveness of U.S. industries, however, U.S. BOP may improve in the long run.10. Describe the balance of payments identity and discuss its implications under the fixed and flexible exchange rate regimes.Answer: The balance of payments identity holds that the combined balance on the current and capital accounts should be equal in size, but opposite in sign, to the change in the official reserves: BCA + BKA = -BRA. Under the pure flexible exchange rate regime, central banks do not engage in official reserve transactions. Thus, the overall balance must balance, i.e., BCA = -BKA. Under the fixed exchange rate regime, however, a country can have an overall BOP surplus or deficit as the central bank will accommodate it via official reserve transactions.11. Exhibit 3.3 indicates that in 1991, the U.S. had a current account deficit and at the same time a capital account deficit. Explain how this can happen?Answer: In 1991, the U.S. experienced an overall BOP deficit, which must have been accommodated by the Federal Reserve‟s official reserve action, i.e., drawing down its reserve holdings.12. Explain how each of the following transactions will be classified and recorded in the debit and credit of the U.S. balance of payments:(1) A Japanese insurance company purchases U.S. Treasury bonds and pays out of its bank account kept in New York City.(2) A U.S. citizen consumes a meal at a restaurant in Paris and pays with her American Express card.(3) A Indian immigrant living in Los Angeles sends a check drawn on his L.A. bank account as a gift to his parents living in Bombay.(4) A U.S. computer programmer is hired by a British company for consulting and gets paid from the U.S. bank account maintained by the British company.Answer:_________________________________________________________________Transactions CreditDebit_________________________________________________________________Japanese purchase of U.S. T bonds √Japanese payment using NYC account √U.S. citizen having a meal in Paris √Paying the meal with American Express √Gift to parents in Bombay √Receipts of the check by parents (goodwill) √Export of programming service √British payment out its account in U.S. √_________________________________________________________________13. Construct the balance of payment table for Japan for the year of 1998 which is comparable in format to Exhibit 3.1, and interpret the numerical data. You may consult International Financial Statistics published by IMF or research for useful websites for the data yourself.Answer:A summary of the Japanese Balance of Payments for 1998 (in $ billion)Credits DebitsCurrent Account(1) Exports 646.03(1.1) Merchandise 374.04(1.2) Services 62.41(1.3) Factor income 209.58(2) Imports -516.50(2.1) Merchandise -251.66(2.2) Services -111.83(3.3) Factor income -153.01(3) Unilateral transfer 5.53 -14.37Balance on current account 120.69[(1) + (2) + (3)]Capital Account(4) Direct investment 3.27 -24.62(5) Portfolio investment 73.70 -113.73(5.1) Equity securities 16.11 -14.00(5.2) Debt securities 57.59 -99.73(6) Other investment 39.51 -109.35Balance on financial account -131.22[(4) + (5) + (6)](7) Statistical discrepancies 4.36Overall balance -6.17Official Reserve Account 6.17Source: IMF, International Financial Statistics Yearbook, 1999.Note: Capital account in the above table corresponds with the …Financial account‟ in IMF‟s balance of payment statistics. IMF‟s Capital account‟ is included in …Other investment‟ in the above table.MINI CASE: MEXICO‟S BALANCE OF PAYMENTS PROBLEMRecently, Mexico experienced large-scale trade deficits, depletion of foreign reserve holdings and a major currency devaluation in December 1994, followed by the decision to freely float the peso. These events also brought about a severe recession and higher unemployment in Mexico. Since the devaluation, however, the trade balance has improved.Investigate the Mexican experiences in detail and write a report on the subject. In the report, you may:(a) document the tr end in Mexico‟s key economic indicators, such as the balance of payments, the exchange rate, and foreign reserve holdings, during the period 1994.1 through 1995.12.;(b) investigate the causes of Mexico‟s balance of payments difficulties prior to the peso devaluation;(c) discuss what policy actions might have prevented or mitigated the balance of payments problem and the subsequent collapse of the peso; and(d) derive lessons from the Mexican experience that may be useful for other developing countries.In your report, you may identify and address any other relevant issues concerning Mexico‟s balance of payment problem.Suggested Solution to Mexico‟s Balance-of-Payments ProblemTo solve this case, it is useful to review Chapter 2, especially the section on the Mexican peso crisis. Despite the fact that Mexico had experienced continuous trade deficits until December 1994, the country‟s currency was not allowed to depreciate for political reasons. The Mexican government did not want the peso devaluation before the Presidential election held in 1994. If the Mexican peso had been allowed to gradually depreciate against the major currencies, the peso crisis could have been prevented.The key lessons that can be derived from the peso crisis are: First, Mexico depended too much on short-term foreign portfolio capital (which is easily reversible) for its economic growth. The country perhaps should have saved more domestically and depended more on long-term foreign capital. This can be a valuable lesson for many developing countries. Second, the lack of reliable economic information was another contributing factor to the peso crisis. The Salinas administration was reluctant to fully disclose the true state of the Mexican economy. If investors had known that Mexico was experiencing serious trade deficits and rapid depletion of foreign exchange reserves, the peso might have been gradually depreciating, rather than suddenly collapsed as it did. The transparent disclosure of economic data can help prevent the peso-type crisis. Third, it is important to safeguard the world financial system from the peso-type crisis. To this end, a multinational safety net needs to be in place to contain the peso-type crisis in the early stage.。