美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题2(含答案)

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2021年美国法学院入学考试LSAT题库和答案

2021年美国法学院入学考试LSAT题库和答案

2021年美国法学院入学考试LSAT题库和答案
2021年美国法学院入学考试(LSAT)题库【真题精选+章节题库+模拟试题】
内容简介
本题库包括真题精选、章节题库和模拟试题三部分。

具体如下:
第一部分为真题精选及详解。

根据试卷结构,精选LSAT阅读理解、逻辑推理、分析推理部分典型考试真题,每题均给出答案及解析。

既可以体验真实考试,也可以测试自己的水平。

通过该部分学习,学员可充分了解出题风格,熟知解题思路,从而能够有针对性地备考。

第二部分为章节题库。

按照试卷结构,共分为阅读理解、逻辑推理、分析推理共三种考试题型。

每种题型精选专项练习,帮助学员加深对解题思路的理解和掌握,并在实战中灵活运用。

专项练习是在参考众多相关考试用书、国内外权威杂志以及优秀论文等大量素材的基础上精心设计而成,具有很强的针对性和实用性。

每题均提供答案及解析。

第三部分为模拟试题及详解。

由圣才辅导名师根据历年命题规律及热门考点进行考前预测,可用于考前冲刺或摸底自测。


试看部分内容
•第一部分真题精选及详解
•LSAT阅读理解真题精选及详解•LSAT逻辑推理真题精选及详解•LSAT分析推理真题精选及详解•第二部分章节题库
•第1章阅读理解
•第2章逻辑推理(议论)•第3章分析推理(游戏)•第三部分模拟试题
•LSAT模拟试题及详解(一)•LSAT模拟试题及详解(二)。

lsat真题答案

lsat真题答案

感谢ELSAT委员会的辛勤工作.(Alex Li, Cathy, Chessnetlover, Chimneyjane, Danny_cao, Dave. P, Fanye, Feng_xiao, Flyover, GMATcrackeress, Gmatstart(inspire), Gull99, Iliana, Littlesweet, Logln, Meiguo, Radioshack, Robert. W, anan28, Ronaldz, Simongz, Small fish, Wli, Xiaolifeidao2002,饭吃饱了, 管兔, 文谦)SET 1SECTION1 DECED DDDAE EEADE CABDB BDDEB SECTION3 BDEAA CCABD BADDB BBEEA BDADE A SECTION4 EBDCE AADDC BABCA ACEDC BABDA DSET 2SECTION1 CBDBA DEBBE CDADD AABEC ABEBB CAD SECTION2 DEEDC BAEBC BACCB EBBDC DAEE SECTION4 CCEAB BDCDD BABEA CADDD EDCDASET 3SECTION1 EAEDC EDDAE CEDCD ACDDB BBCE SECTION2 BCACC DEEDB BACDC BDAEB BCCAD DE SECTION4 BECAD ADBBD BCDEA CBBED EDBDESET 4SECTION1 EABAB EABAC DDEAA BDBCB ECBCE SECTION3 CBEEB AECCA CCDBC BAAEB CEDBE SECTION4 ADDEE CDACC CBEBD BEECB ACEBE CCSET 5SECTION2 CEDBE CABDE DDABD CCCBC BACAE SECTION3 EDACD CCCEC DADAD EEDBA EACDD CBB SECTION4 DCCDC ABEAE EECDE ADEDC BBAESET 6SECTION1 ECAEB DEDAA DDDAD BBDDC CACEE AE SECTION2 CADEB CEACE BEEDC EBEEC DDECC SECTION3 ABDBD EADAD ACEBB EAADC EADBECSET 7SECTION1 CCEEB ECADB CACEA BBCCB BEDAD SECTION3 EDCBD AADAB CCEDB DCEAD CCDEB BD SECTION4 DEBEA CAECD AADDE EDABA ADCDESET 8SECTION2 DCADD BBEEE BDCDA DCABA ABEA SECTION3 AEACB AACAC EBDAD BDECD BBEDC BBE SECTION4 BBECC DCCBA DCADA CADBA EEBDESET 9SECTION1 DAACC CCBDB BEDBA BBEEB DAEBB SECTION3 DADAE BADBA BCCDE BDACB CDAEB DE SECTION4 CDDAC CECBC ADEAA CADDB ADECBSET 10SECTION1 BADEC ECAAC BABBD CADBB CDCCE CE SECTION2 ADBBD CDDAB EADCB ABEDA DDADA SECTION4 CECCE CDCBB DCAAD EBCAC EEEDDSET 11SECTION1 BEEDB CAEDE CBBEA EBEDD BCDEE SECTION3 ADBEC BEDBC BEACE EBADD DBDEB AE SECTION4 ABCDB DACDA ADBBB DEEAE EEDCCSET 12SECTION2 EDCBE EDBDD BEAED CEDAA BAAAE E SECTION3 DEBED CCAEB ABEDC CDAEE EBBEB DD SECTION4 DCEDC BCCED BDAAE ABAAD EBBAPage 1/1 Edited by文谦SET 13SECTION1 DCEBD ABCEB DDDDB BCABD CCCAB E SECTION3 DEBCB EEECD EAACE EDACA DABAE CE SECTION4 DEEBA BDCDA AACDB ECEBA DCCASET 14SECTION2 DCCAA EBADA DDADE CAACA CDDEA B SECTION3 ADBCD ACCEB ADDED EBCAD ADDCB AE SECTION4 ACDEE BEDCD CBBEB CDBDE DAECSET 15SECTION2 CCBED DDBCB DABCE DCDEB ADEDE SECTION3 CEABD DAECB CBDCB CCADE ABCCA DD SECTION4 EDCCB ACEDA EECDC AEDAE BACCBSET 16SECTION1 CADAD BBEEC BAADB CCDBD AEBCC AD SECTION2 ADEDA BBAEC ECEBC EDBAA EEBA SECTION3 BECAB EBABB CEACB CAAAB DCECD ESET 17SECTION1 CEDDA EDBBE ABAAB CAEBD BEDCD EBC SECTION3 ABEDC AABAC BDCEB CDECE CECEA SECTION4 CACCB DDCEC BABEE ABEAD DBCESET 18SECTION2 BECBB CABDD BDDBC EBDDE DECAE E SECTION3 AECEA BBCAD ACDBB EBDAD BEDBD A SECTION4 BBDAC AAAEC ADBBD AACBC ADBAA CSET 19SECTION2 BADEC DCECE DBDDE EBAAE AEDE SECTION3 DBBCD CABAA EABEC CADAD DBDBC A SECTION4 BDCCC EBAEA CBDEB CEAEE DCDCA ABSET 20SECTION2 BCBDC BBEEA CBDCA ECACD AEBAE SECTION3 EAEAC CDCBD CBADE CDDBD BCCEE SECTION4 BEDAB BEBAB BDEDC ADBAB CCBBA ABSET 21SECTION1 BACDE BDCBA CBCDB EAADA CDCEC ED SECTION2 BDBCD CABCE ECDAA ABEEB ADAEA SECTION3 BEDED DECED BDBCE AAADB ACBDD BSET 22SECTION2 BECED DCBAA ECACA BBDEB CDCAD SECTION3 BDDDE ECADD BDDEB ABEEA AECEE SECTION4 EBCEC BCBCC DDBBE BAABC EBBDA DESET23SECTION2 ACDDD BBCBB BDACB CCEEB ADEA SECTION3 AEBEA DDCCE DBADC EAEDB BADCB AC SECTION4 DAEBA CEEBA BCEBC CBCCC CDDAB DSET24SECTION1 BABBE DEBCC DDDCC ADCDC AEEBD SECTION2 BEAED BCABC ABBCB ABAED BDEEB E SECTION4 DCBAD CEABC DBACB DEADE DADBD BSET 25SECTION1 CBABC ECDCA ADDBB AABBA CDABB A SECTION2 CBDDA EEACB EBCDD EDBAE DDECB SECTION4 ACCAC CCDAE CBDAC EDBBB DDBEA DSET 26SECTION2 CBEDC DADEC CBAAD CDBBB EDEDB D SECTION3 CCAAA CEBEB BBEDB CCCBE DEBDCPage 2/2 Edited by文谦SECTION4 DDEDA CEBCE DABDA ECDCE CDBCA BSET 27SECTION1 DBADB CDCBA CDACA AEECB CDAEB B SECTION2 ACAAB CCAEE DABAD EDEBD EACED SECTION4 ABEBA DAABB DDBDE DBDAC CCBDE ESET28SECTION2 BBACA DCABC ADADC CBCBC ECCEE SECTION3 BBDCC EEECD ADEAC DDADB CDBEB SECTION4 EAAEB EBBDD CAEDE AAEEC DCEBA CDPage 3/3 Edited by文谦。

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题9

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题9

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题9SECTION IITime 35 minutes 27 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.The extent of a nation’s power over its coastal ecosystems and the natural resources in its coastal waters has been defined by two international law doctrines: freedom of the seas and adjacent state sovereignty. Until the mid-twentieth century, most nations favored application of broad open-seas freedoms and limited sovereign rights over coastal waters. A nation had the right to include within its territorial dominion only a very narrow band of coastal waters (generally extending three miles from the shoreline), within which it had the authority but not the responsibility, to regulate all activities. But, because this area of territorial dominion was so limited, most nations did not establish rules for management or protection of their territorial waters.Regardless of whether or not nations enforced regulations in their territorial waters, large ocean areas remained free of controls or restrictions. The citizens of all nations had the right to use these unrestricted ocean areas for any innocent purpose, including navigation and fishing. Except for controls over its own citizens, no nation had the responsibility, let alone the unilateralauthority, to control such activities in international waters. And, since there were few standards of conduct that applied on the “open seas”, there were few jurisdictional conflicts between nations.The lack of standards is traceable to popular perceptions held before the middle of this century. By and large, marine pollution was not perceived as a significant problem, in part because the adverse effect of coastal activities on ocean ecosystems was not widely recognized, and pollution caused by human activities was generally believed to be limited to that caused by navigation.Moreover, the freedom to fish, or overfish, was an essential element of the traditional legal doctrine of freedom of the seas that no maritime country wished to see limited. And finally, the technology that later allowed exploitation of other ocean resources, such as oil, did not yet exist.To date, controlling pollution and regulating ocean resources have still not been comprehensively addressed by law, but international law—established through the customs and practices of nations—does not preclude such efforts.And two recent developments may actually lead to future international rules providing for ecosystem management. First, the establishment of extensive fishery zones extending territorial authority as far as 200 miles out from a country’s coast, has provided the opportunity for nations individually to manage larger ecosystems. This opportunity, combined with national self-interest in maintaining fish populations, could lead nations to reevaluate policies formanagement of their fisheries and to address the problem of pollution in territorial waters. Second, the internationalcommunity is beginning to understand the importance of preserving the resources and ecology of international waters and to show signs of accepting responsibility for doing so.As an international consensus regarding the need for comprehensive management of ocean resources develops, it will become more likely that international standards and policies for broader regulation of human activities that affect ocean ecosystems will be adopted and implemented.1. According to the passage, until the mid-twentieth century there were few jurisdictional disputes over international waters because.(A) the nearest coastal nation regulated activities(B) few controls or restrictions applied to ocean areas(C) the ocean areas were used for only innocent purposes(D) the freedom of the seas doctrine settled all claims concerning navigation and fishing(E) broad authority over international waters was shared equally among all nations2. According to the international law doctrines applicable before themid-twentieth century, if commercial activity within a particular nation’s territorial waters threatened all marine life in those waters, the nation would have been(A) formally censured by an international organization for not properly regulating marine activities(B) called upon by other nations to establish rules to protect its territorial waters(C) able but not required to place legal limits on such commercial activities(D) allowed to resolve the problem at it own discretionproviding it could contain the threat to its own territorial waters(E) permitted to hold the commercial offenders liable only if they were citizens of that particular nation3. The author suggests that, before the mid-twentieth cen tury, most nations’ actions with respect to territorial and international waters indicated that(A) managing ecosystems in either territorial or international waters was given low priority(B) unlimited resources in international waters resulted in little interest in territorial waters(C) nations considered it their responsibility to protect territorial but not international waters(D) a nation’s authority over its citizenry ended at territorial lines(E) although nations could extend their territorial dominion beyond three milesfrom their shoreline, most chose not to do so4. The author cites which one of the following as an effect of the extension of territorial waters beyond the three-mile limit?(A) increased political pressure on individual nations to establish comprehensive laws regulating ocean resources(B) a greater number of jurisdictional disputes among nations over the regulation of fishing on the open seas(C) the opportunity for some nations to manage large ocean ecosystems(D) a new awareness of the need to minimize pollution caused by navigation(E) a political incentive for smaller nations to solve the problems of pollution in their coastal waters5. According to the passage, before the middle of thetwentieth century, nations failed to establish rules protecting their territorial waters because(A) the waters appeared to be unpolluted and to contain unlimited resources(B) the fishing industry would be adversely affected by such rules(C) the size of the area that would be subject to such rules was insignificant(D) the technology needed for pollution control and resource management did not exist(E) there were few jurisdictional conflicts over nations’ territorial waters6. The passage as a whole can best be described as(A) a chronology of the events that have led up to present-day crisis(B) a legal inquiry into the abuse of existing laws and the likelihood of reform(C) a political analysis of the problems inherent in directing national attention to an international issue(D) a historical analysis of a problem that requires international attention(E) a proposal for adopting and implementing international standards to solve an ecological problem参考答案:1-6 BCACCDThe human species came into being at the time of the greatest biological diversity in the history of the Earth. Today, as human populations expand and alter the natural environment, they are reducing biological diversity to its lowest level since the end of the Mesozoic era, 65 million years ago. The ultimate consequences of this biological collision are beyond calculation,but they are certain to be harmful. That, in essence, is the biodiversity crisis.The history of global diversity can be summarized as follows: after the initial flowering of multicellular animals, there was a swift rise in the number of species in early Paleozoic times (between 600 and 430 million years ago), thenplateaulike stagnation for the remaining 200 million years of the Paleozoic era, and finally a slow but steady climb through the Mesozoic and Cenozoic era s to di versity’s all-time high. This history suggests that biological diversity was hard won and a long time in coming. Furthermore, this pattern of increase was set back by five massive extinction episodes. The most recent of these, during the Cretaceous period, is by far the most famous, because it ended the age of the dinosaurs, conferred hegemony on the mammals, and ultimately made possible the ascendancy of the human species. But the cretaceous crisis was minor compared with the Permian extinctions 240 million years ago, during which between 77 and 96 percent of marine animal species perished. It took 5 million years, well into Mesozoic times, for species diversity to begin a significant recovery.Within the past 10,000 years biological diversity has entered a wholly new era. Human activity has had a devastating effect on species diversity, and the rate of human-induced extinctions is accelerating. Half of the bird species of Polynesia have been eliminated through hunting and the destruction of native forests. Hundreds of fish species endemic to Lake Victoria are now threatened with extinction following the careless introduction of one species of fish, the Nile perch. The list of such biogeographic disasters is extensive.Because every species is unique and irreplaceable, the loss ofbiodiversity is the most profound process of environmental change. Its consequences are also the least predictable because the value of Earth’s biota (the fauna and flora collectively) remains largely unstudied and unappreciated; unlike material and cultural wealth, which we understand because they are the substance of our everyday lives, biological wealth is usually taken for granted. This is a serious strategic error, one that will be increasingly regretted as time passes. The biota is not only part of a country’s heritage, the product of millions of years of evolution centered on that place; it is also a potential source for immense untapped material wealth in the form of food, medicine, and other commercially important substance.7. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?(A) The reduction in biodiversity is an irreversible process that represents a setback both for science and for society as a whole.(B) The material and cultural wealth of a nation are insignificant when compared with the country’s biological wealth.(C) The enormous diversity of life on Earth could not have come about without periodic extinctions that have conferred preeminence on one species at the expense of another.(D) The human species is in the process of initiating a massive extinction episode that may make past episodes look minor by comparison.(E) The current decline in species diversity is human-induced tragedy of incalculable proportions that has potentially grave consequences for the humanspecies.8. Which one of the following situations is most analogous to the history of global diversity summarized in lines 10-18 of the passage?(A) The number of fish in a lake declines abruptly as a result of water pollution, then makes a slow comeback after cleanup efforts and the passage of ordinances against dumping.(B) The concentration of chlorine in the water supply of large city fluctuates widely before stabilizing at a constant and safe level.(C) An old-fashioned article of clothing goes in and out of style periodically as a result of features in fashion magazines and the popularity of certain period films.(D) After valuable mineral deposits are discovered, the population of a geographic region booms then levels off and begins to decrease at a slow and steady pace.(E) The variety of styles stocked by a shoe store increases rapidly after the store opens, holds constant for many months, and then gradually creeps upward.9. The author suggests which one of the following about the Cretaceous crisis?(A) It was the second most devastating extinction episode in history.(B) It was the most devastating extinction episode up until that time.(C) It was less devastating to species diversity than is the current biodiversity crisis.(D) The rate of extinction among marine animal species as a result of the crisis did not approach 77 percent.(E) The dinosaurs comprised the great majority of species that perished during the crisis.10. The author mentions the Nile perch in order to provide an example of(A) a species that has become extinct through human activity(B) the typical lack of foresight that has led to biogeographic disaster(C) a marine animal species that survived the Permian extinctions(D) a species that is a potential source of material wealth(E) the kind of action that is necessary to reverse the decline in species diversity11. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as contributing to the extinction of species EXCEPT(A) hunting(B) pollution(C) deforestation(D) the growth of human populations(E) human-engineered changes in the environment12. The passage suggests which one of the following about material and cultural wealth?(A) Because we can readily assess the value of material and cultural wealth, we tend not to take them for granted.(B) Just as the biota is a source of potential material wealth, it is an untapped source of cultural wealth as well.(C) Some degree of material and cultural wealth may have to be sacrificed if we are to protect our biological heritage.(D) Material and cultural wealth are of less value than biological wealth because they have evolved over a shorter period of time.(E) Material wealth and biological wealth are interdependent in a way that material wealth and cultural wealth are not.13. The author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the consequences of the biodiversity crisis?(A) The loss of species diversity will have as immediate an impact on the material of nations as on their biological wealth.(B) The crisis will likely end the hegemony of the human race and bring about the ascendancy of another species.(C) The effects of the loss of species diversity will be dire, but we cannot yet tell how dire.(D) It is more fruitful to discuss the consequences of the crisis in terms of the potential loss to humanity than in strictly biological loss to humanity than in strictly biological terms.(E) The consequences of the crisis can be minimized, but the pace of extinctions can not be reversed.参考答案:7-13 EEDBBACWomen’s participation in the revolutionary events in France between 1789 and 1795 has only recently been given nuanced treatment. Early twentieth century historians of the French Revolution are typified by Jaures, who, though sympathetic to the women’s movement of his own time, never even mentions its antecedents in revolutionary France. Even today most general histories treat only cursorily a few individual women, like Marie Antoinette. The recent studies by Landes, Badinter, Godineau, and Roudinesco, however, should signal a much-needed reassessment of women’s participation.Godineau and Roudinesco point to three significant phases in that participation. The first, up to mid-1792, involved those women who wrote political tracts. Typical of their orientation to theoretical issues—in Godineaus’s。

(LSAT 逻辑考试)Set09

(LSAT 逻辑考试)Set09

SECTION ⅠTime—35 minutes25 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. Of all of the surgeons practicing at the city hospital, the chief surgeon has the worst record in terms of the percentage of his patients who die either during or immediately following an operation performed by him. Paradoxically, the hospital’s administrators claim that he is the best surgeon currently working at the hospital.Which one of the following, if true, goes farthest toward showing that the administrators’ claim and the statistic cited might both be correct?(A) Since the hospital administrators appoint the chief surgeon, the administrators are strongly motivated to depict the chief surgeon they have chosen as a wise choice.(B) In appointing the current chief surgeon, the hospital administrators followed the practice, well established at the city hospital, of promoting one of the surgeons already on staff.(C) Some of the younger surgeons on the city hospital’s staff received part of their training from the current chief surgeon.(E) The current chief surgeon has a better record of patients’ surviving surgery than did his immediate predecessor.2. Between 1971 and 1975, the government office that monitors drug companies issued an average of 60 citations a year for serious violations of drug-promotion laws. Between 1976 and 1980, the annual average for issuance of such citations was only 5. This decrease indicates that the government office was, on average, considerably more lax in enforcing drug-promotion laws between 1976 and 1980 than it was between 1971 and 1975.The argument assumes which one of the following?(B) A change in enforcement of drug-promotion laws did not apply to minor violations.(C) The enforcement of drug-promotion laws changed in response to political pressure.(D) The government office should not issue more than an average of 5 citations a year to drug companies for serious violations of drug-promotion laws.(E) Before 1971 the government office issued more than 60 citations a year to drug companies for serious violations of drug-promotion laws.3. Sheila: Health experts generally agree that smoking a tobacco product for many years is very likely to be harmful to the smoker’s health.Tim: On the contrary, smoking has no effect on health at all: although my grandfather smoked three cigars a day from the age of fourteen, he died at age ninety-six.A major weakness of Tim’s counterargument is that his counterargument(A) attempts to refute a probabilistic conclusion by claiming the existence of a single counterexample(B) challenges expert opinion on the basis of specific information unavailable to experts in the field(C) describes an individual case that is explicitly discounted as an exception to the experts’ conclusion(D) presupposes that longevity and health status are unrelated to each other in the general population(E) tacitly assumes that those health experts who are in agreement on this issue arrived at that agreement independently of one another4. The case of the French Revolution is typically regarded as the best evidence for the claim that societies can reap more benefit than harm from a revolution. But even the French Revolution serves this role poorly, since France at the time of the Revolution had a unique advantage. Despite the Revolution, the same civil servants and functionaries remained in office, carrying on the day-to-day work of government, and thus many of the disruptions that revolutions normally bring were avoided.Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the argumentative strategy used in the passage?(A) demonstrating that the claim argued against is internally inconsistent(B) supporting a particular position on the basis of general principles(C) opposing a claim by undermining evidence offered in support of that claim(D) justifying a view through the use of a series of persuasive examples(E) comparing two positions in order to illustrate their relative strengths and weaknesses5. A person can develop or outgrow asthma at any age. In children under ten, asthma is twice as likely to develop in boys. Boys are less likely than girls to outgrow asthma, yet by adolescence the percentage of boys with asthma is about the same as the percentage of girls with asthma because a large number of girls develop asthma in early adolescence.Assuming the truth of the passage, one can conclude from it that the number of adolescent boys with asthma is approximately equal to the number of adolescent girls with asthma, if one also knows that(A) a tendency toward asthma is often inherited(B) children who develop asthma before two years of age are unlikely to outgrow it(C) there are approximately equal numbers of adolescent boys and adolescent girls in the population(D) the development of asthma in childhood is not closely related to climate or environment(E) the percentage of adults with asthma is lower than the percentage of adolescents with asthma6. Harry Trevalga: You and your publication have unfairly discriminated against my poems. I have submitted thirty poems in the last two years and you have not published any of them! It is all because I won the Fenner Poetry Award two years ago and your poetry editor thought she deserved it.Publisher: Ridiculous! Our editorial policy and practice is perfectly fair, since our poetry editor judges all submissions for publication without ever seeing the names of the poets, and hence cannot possibly have known who wrote your poems.The publisher makes which one of the following assumptions in replying to Trevalga’s charges of unfair discrimination?(A) The poetry editor does not bear a grudge against Harry Trevalga for his winning the Fenner Poetry Award.(B) It is not unusual for poets to contribute many poems to the publisher’s publication without ever having any accepted for publication.(C) The poetry editor cannot recognize the poems submitted by Harry Trevalga as his unless Trevalga’s name is attached to them.(D) The poetry editor’s decisions on which poems to publish are not based strictly on judgments of intrinsic merit.(E) Harry Trevalga submitted his poems to the publisher’s publication under his pen name.7. In a study of the effect of radiation from nuclear weapons plants on people living in areas near them, researchers compared death rates in the areas near the plants with death rates in areas that had no such plants. Finding no difference in these rates, the researchers concluded that radiation from the nuclear weapons plants poses no health hazards to people living near them.Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the researchers’ argument?(A) Nuclear power plants were not included in the study.(B) The areas studied had similar death rates before and after the nuclear weapons plants were built.(C) Exposure to nuclear radiation can cause many serious diseases that do not necessarily result in death.(D) Only a small number of areas have nuclear weapons plants.(E) The researchers did not study the possible health hazards of radiation on people who were employed at the nuclear weapons plants if those employees did not live in the study areas.8. It was once believed that cells grown in laboratory tissue cultures were essentially immortal. That is, as long as all of their needs were met, they would continue dividing forever. However, it has been shown that normal cells have a finite reproductive limit. A human liver cell, for example, divides 60 times and then stops. If such a cell divides 30 times and then is put into a deep freeze for months or even years. It “remembers” where it stopped dividing. After thawing, it divides another 30 times---but no more.If the information above is accurate, a liver cell in which more than 60 divisions took place in a tissue culture CANNOT be which one of the following?(A) an abnormal human liver cell(B) a normal human liver cell that had been frozen after its first division and afterward thawed(C) a normal cell that came from the liver of an individual of a nonhuman species and had never been frozen(D) a normal liver cell that came from an individual of a nonhuman species and had been frozen after its first division and afterward thawed(E) an abnormal cell from the liver of an individual of a nonhuman species9. Complaints that milk bottlers take enormous markups on the bottled milk sold to consumers are most likely to arise when least warranted by the actual spread between the price that bottlers pay for raw milk and the price at which they sell bottled milk. The complaints occur when the bottled-milk price rises, yet these price increases most often merely reflect the rising price of the raw milk that bottlers buy from dairy farmers. When the raw-milk price is rising, the bottlers’ markups are actually smallest proportionate to the retail price. When the raw-milk price is falling, however, the markups are greatest.If all of the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?(A) Consumers pay more for bottled milk when raw-milk prices are falling than when these prices are rising.(B) Increases in dairy farmers’ cost of producing milk are generally not passed on to consumers.(C) Milk bottlers take substantially greater markups on bottled milk when its price is low for an extended period than when it is high for an extended period.(D) Milk bottlers generally do not respond to a decrease in raw-milk prices by straightaway proportionately lowering the price of the bottled milk they sell.(E) Consumers tend to complain more about the price they pay for bottled milk when dairy farmers are earning their smallest profits.Questions 10-11If the public library shared by the adjacent towns of Redville and Glenwood were relocated from the library’s current, overcrowded building in central Redville to a larger, available building in central Glenwood, the library would then be within walking distance of a larger number of library users. That is because there are many more people living in central Glenwood than in central Redville, and people generally will walk to the library only if it is located close to their homes.10 Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?(A) The public library was located between Gienwood and Redville before being moved to its current location in central Redville.(B) The area covered by central Glenwood is approximately the same size as that covered by central Redville.(C) The building that is available in Glenwood is smaller than an alternative building that is available in Redville.(D) Many of the people who use the public library do not live in either Glenwood or Redville.(E) The distance that people currently walk to get to the library is farther than what is generally considered walking distance.11. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?(A) Many more people who currently walk to the library live in central Redville than in central Glenwood.(B) The number of people living in central Glenwood who would use the library if it were located there is smaller than the number of people living in central Redville who currently use the library.(C) The number of people using the public library would continue to increase steadily if the library were moved to Glenwood.(D) Most of the people who currently either drive to the library or take public transportation to reach it would continue to do so if the library were moved to central Glenwood.(E) Most of the people who currently walk to the library would remain library users if the library were relocated to central Glenwood.12. Light utility trucks have become popular among consumers who buy them primarily for the trucks’ rugged appearance. Yet although these trucks are tough-looking, they are exempt from the government’s car-safety standards that dictate minimum roof strength and minimum resistance to impact. Therefore, if involved in a serious high-impact accident, a driver of one of these trucks is more likely to be injured than is a driver of a car that is subject to these government standards.The argument depends on the assumption that(A) the government has established safety standards for the construction of light utility trucks(B) people who buy automobiles solely for their appearance are more likely than other people to drive recklessly(C) light utility trucks are more likely than other kinds of vehicles to be involved in accidents that result in injuries(D) the trucks’ rugged appearance is deceptive in that their engines are not especially powerful(E) light utility trucks are less likely to meet the car-safety standards than are cars that are subject to the standards13. Five years ago, during the first North American outbreak of the cattle disease CXC, the death rate fromthe disease was 5 percent of all reported cases, whereas today the corresponding figure is over 18 percent. It is clear, therefore, that during these past 5 years, CXC has increased in virulence.Which one of the following, if true, most substantially weakens the argument?(A) Many recent cattle deaths that have actually been caused by CXC have been mistakenly attributed to another disease that mimics the symptoms of CXC.(B) During the first North American outbreak of the disease, many of the deaths reported to have been caused by CXC were actually due to other causes.(C) An inoculation program against CXC was recently begun after controlled studies snowed inoculation to be70 percent effective in preventing serious cases of the illness.(D) Since the first outbreak, farmers have learned to treat mild cases of CXC and no longer report them to veterinarians or authorities.(E) Cattle that have contracted and survived CXC rarely contract the disease a second time.Questions 14-15Economist: Some policymakers believe that our country’s continued economic growth requires a higher level of personal savings than we currently have. A recent legislative proposal would allow individuals to set up savings accounts in which interest earned would be exempt from taxes until money is withdrawn from the account. Backers of this proposal claim that its implementation would increase the amount of money available for banks to loan at a relatively small cost to the government in lost tax revenues. Yet, when similar tax-incentive programs were tried in the past, virtually all of the money invested through them was diverted from other personal savings, and the overall level of personal savings was unchanged.14. The passage as a whole provides the most support for which one of the following conclusions?(A) Backers of the tax-incentive proposal undoubtedly have some motive other than their expressed aim of increasing the amount of money available for banks to loan.(B) The proposed tax incentive is unlikely to attract enough additional money into personal savings accounts to make up for the attendant loss in tax revenues.(C) A tax-incentive program that resulted in substantial loss of tax revenues would be likely to generate a large increase in personal savings.(D) The economy will be in danger unless some alternative to increased personal savings can be found to stimulate growth.(E) The government has no effective means of influencing the amount of money that people are willing to put into savings accounts.15. The author criticizes the proposed tax-incentive program by(A) challenging a premise on which the proposal is based(B) pointing out a disagreement among policymakers(C) demonstrating that the proposal’s implementation is not feasible(D) questioning the judgment of the proposal’s backers by citing past cases in which they had advocatedprograms that have proved ineffective(E) disputing the assumption that a program to encourage personal savings is needed16. Although all birds have feathers and all birds have wings, some birds do not fly. For example, penguins and ostriches use their wings to move in a different way from other birds. Penguins use their wings only to swim under water at high speeds. Ostriches use their wings only to run with the wind by lifting them as if they were sails.Which one of the following is most parallel in its reasoning to the argument above?(A) Ancient philosophers tried to explain not how the world functions but why it functions. In contrast, most contemporary biologists seek comprehensive theories of how organisms’ function, but many refuse to speculate about purpose.(B) Some chairs are used only as decorations, and other chairs are used only to tame lions. Therefore, not all chairs are used for sitting in despite the fact that all chairs have a seat and some support such as legs.(C) Some musicians in a symphony orchestra play the violin, and others play the viola, but these are both in the same category of musical instruments, namely string instruments.(D) All cars have similar drive mechanisms, but some cars derive their power from solar energy, whereas others burn gasoline. Thus, solar-powered cars are less efficient than gasoline-powered ones.(E) Sailing ships move in a different way from steamships. Both sailing ships and steamships navigate over water, but only sailing ships use sails to move over the surface.Questions 17-18Jones: Prehistoric wooden tools found in South America have been dated to 13,000 years ago. Although scientists attribute these tools to peoples whose ancestors first crossed into the Americas from Siberia to Alaska, this cannot be correct. In order to have reached a site so far south, these peoples must have been migrating southward well before 13,000 years ago. However, no such tools dating to before 13,000 years ago have been found anywhere between Alaska and South America.Smith: Your evidence is inconclusive. Those tools were found in peat bogs, which are rare in the Americas. Wooden tools in soils other than peat bogs usually decompose within only a few years.17. The point at issue between Jones and Smith is(A) whether all prehistoric tools that are 13,000 years or older were made of wood(B) whether the scientists’ attribution of tools could be correct in light of Jones’s evidence(C) whether the dating of the wooden tools by the scientists could be correct(D) how long ago the peoples who crossed into the American from Siberia to Alaska first did so(E) whether Smith’s evidence entails that the wooden tools have been dated correctly18. Smith responds to Jones by(A) citing several studies that invalidate Jones’s conclusion(B) accusing Jones of distorting the scientists’ position(C) disputing the accuracy of the supporting evidence cited by Jones(D) showing that Jones’s evidence actually supports the denial of Jones’s conclusion(E) challenging an implicit assumption in Jones’s argument19. Editorial: It is clear that if this country’s universities were living up to both their moral and their intellectual responsibilities, the best-selling publications in most university bookstores would not be frivolous ones like TV Today and Gossip Review. However, in most university bookstores the only publication that sells better than Gossip Review is TV Today.If the statements in the editorial are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?(A) People who purchase publications that are devoted primarily to gossip or to television programming are intellectually irresponsible.(B) It is irresponsible for university bookstores to carry publications such as Gossip Review and TV Today.(C) Most people who purchase publications at university bookstores purchase either TV Today or Gossip Review.(D) Many people who attend this country’s universities fail to live up to both their moral and their intellectual responsibilities.(E) At least some of this country’s universities are not meeting their moral responsibilities or their intellectual responsibilities or both.Questions 20-21Saunders: Everyone at last week’s neighborhood association meeting agreed that the row of abandoned and vandalized houses on Cariton Street posed a threat to the safety of our neighborhood. Moreover, no one now disputes that getting the houses torn down eliminated that threat. Some people tried to argue that it was unnecessary to demolish what they claimed were basically sound buildings, since the city had established a fund to help people in need of housing buy and rehabilitate such buildings. The overwhelming success of the demolition strategy, however, proves that the majority, who favored demolition, were right and that those who claimed that the problem could and should be solved by rehabilitating the houses were wrong.20. Which one of the following principles, if established would determine that demolishing the houses was the right decision or instead would determine that the proposal advocated by the opponents of demolition should have been adopted?(A) When what to do about an abandoned neighborhood building is in dispute, the course of action that would result in the most housing for people who need it should be the one adopted unless the building is believed to pose a threat to neighborhood safety.(B) When there are two proposals for solving a neighborhood problem, and only one of them would preclude the possibility of trying the other approach if the first proves unsatisfactory, then the approach that does not foreclose the other possibility should be the one adopted.(C) If one of two proposals for renovating vacant neighborhood buildings requires government funding whereas the second does not, the second proposal should be the one adopted unless the necessary government funds have already been secured.(D) No pain for eliminating a neighborhood problem that requires demolishing basically sound houses should be carried out until all other possible alternatives have been thoroughly investigated.(E) No proposal for dealing with a threat to a neighborhood’s safety should be adopted merely because a majority of the residents of that neighborhood prefer that proposal to a particular counterproposal.21. Saunders’ reasoning is flawed because it(A) relies on fear rather than on argument to persuade the neighborhood association to reject the policy advocated by Saunders’ opponents(B) fails to establish that there is anyone who could qualify for city funds who would be interested in buying and rehabilitating the houses(C) mistakenly equates an absence of vocal public dissent with the presence of universal public support(D) offers no evidence that the policy advocated by Saunders’ opponents would not have succeeded if it had been given the chance(E) does not specify the precise nature of the threat to neighborhood safety supposedly posed by the vandalized houses22. For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.23. Mayor Smith, one of our few government officials with a record of outspoken, informed, and consistent opposition to nuclear power plant construction projects, has now declared herself in favor of building the nuclear power plant at Littletown. If someone with her past antinuclear record now favors building this powerplant, then there is good reason to believe that it will be safe and therefore should be built.The argument is vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds?(A) It overlooks the possibility that not all those who fail to speak out on issues of nuclear power are necessarily opposed to it.(B) It assumes without warrant that the qualities enabling a person to be elected to public office confer on that person a grasp of the scientific principles on which technical decisions are based.(C) It fails to establish that a consistent and outspoken opposition is necessarily an informed opposition.(D) It leads to the further but unacceptable conclusion that any project favored by Mayor Smith should be sanctioned simply on the basis of her having spoken out in favor of it.(E) It gives no indication of either the basis of Mayor Smith’s former opposition to nuclear power plant construction or the reasons for her support for the Littletown project.24. Advertisement: In today’s world, you make a statement about the person you are by the car you own. The message of the SKX Mach-5 is unambiguous: Its owner is Dynamic, Aggressive, and Successful. Shouldn’t you own an SKX Mach-5?If the claims made in the advertisement are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?(A) Anyone who is dynamic and aggressive is also successful.(B) Anyone who is not both dynamic and successful would misrepresent himself or herself by being the owner of an SKX Mach-5.(C) People who buy the SKX Mach-5 are usually more aggressive than people who buy other cars.(D) No car other than the SKX Mach-5 announces that its owner is successful.(E) Almost no one would fail to recognize the kind of person who would choose to own an SKX Mach-5.25. The great medieval universities had no administrators, yet they endured for centuries. Our university hasa huge administrative staff, and we are in serious financial difficulties. Therefore, we should abolish the positions and salaries of the administrators to ensure the longevity of the university.Which one of the following arguments contains flawed reasoning that most closely parallels the flawed reasoning in the argument above?(A) No airplane had jet engines before 1940, yet airplanes had been flying since 1903. Therefore, jet engines are not necessary for the operation of airplanes.(B) The novelist’s stories began to be accepted for publication soon after she started using a computer to write them. You have been having trouble getting your stories accepted for publication, and you do not use a computer. To make sure your stories are accepted for publication, then, you should write them with the aid of a computer.(C) After doctors began using antibiotics, the number of infections among patients dropped drastically. Now,。

SAT阅读真题及答案解析(二)

SAT阅读真题及答案解析(二)

SAT阅读真题及答案解析(二)SAT考试真题是很重要的备考资料,那么,很早以前的真题资料还有参考性吗?其实大家可以先以最近真题为主,以前的真题资料为辅进行练习。

下面文都国际小编为大家整理了一篇SAT阅读真题及答案解析,供大家参考。

In the wake of the Industrial Revolution, when mass production became the pride and joy of nineteenth-century entrepreneurs, a fast-growing middle class reveled in the luxury of consumer goods, including jewelry, made available at economical prices. Prosperous segments of the population wanted to demonstrate their affluence, a development that provided a powerful stimulus to the jewelry industry in both Europe and the United States.在工业革命苏醒之际,大规模生产变成了十九世纪企业家的骄傲和自豪。

快速发展的中产阶级让奢侈品变成了大众消费品。

百姓中富裕的人们想要显示自己的富裕。

而这一因素的存在也快速激励了美国及欧洲的珠宝行业。

In this avalanche of mass production, many artists and artisans of the Arts and Crafts movement felt that the human touch, respect for materials, and the satisfaction of a fine finish were being lost. Jewelry, like other articles, was becoming impersonal, carelessly constructed, unimaginatively designed. Though labeled romantic and idealistic, some artists sought to produce individually conceived and executed pieces in workshop situations similar to those of medieval guilds. They wanted to produce, handmade jewelry from less-expensive materials for the general public, yet with the same care and commitment a court jeweler might apply to work for aristocratic clientele. In medieval times there had been artisans in towns and villages, working for ordinary people on a one-to-one basis; the adherents of the movement felt there was an urgency to return to this special relationship. It was considered particularly important that artists be involved to ensure the production of more meaningful objects, whether they be pottery, furniture, or, especially,jewelry. The material used in jewelry was prized for its decorative and symbolic effects, not for its intrinsic value. Rejecting the cluttered overornamentation of the past, artists influenced by Art Nouveau sought to draw popular interest away from machine-made products by incorporating more delicate and fluid natural forms—peacock feathers, flower stalks, vine tendrils, even insect wings.在这个大规模生产的爆发中,在这场艺术手工变革的很多艺术家和手工制作者觉得人们内心的触动,对物质的高要求,和完成品的完美感都全部丢失。

LSAT考试全真试题二 含答案(4部分)

LSAT考试全真试题二 含答案(4部分)

LSAT考试全真题二SECTION 1Time-35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions. If may be useful to draw a rough diagram Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheetQuestion 1-6Eight new students-R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z-are being divided among exactly three classes-class 1, class 2, and class3. Classes 1 and 2 will gain three new students each: class 3 will gain two new students. The following restrictions apply:R must be added to class 1.S must be added to class 3.Neither S nor W can be added to the same class as Y.V cannot be added to the same class as Z.If T is added to class 1, Z must also be added to class 1.1.Which one of the following is an acceptable assignment of students to the three classes?12 3(A) R, T, Y V, W, X S, Z(B) R, T, Z S, V, Y W, X(C) R, W, X V, Y, X S, T(D) R, X, Z T, V, Y S, W(E) R, X, Z V, W, Y S, T2.Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of classes any one of which could be the class to which V is added?(A) class 1(B) class 3(C) class 1, class 3(D) class 2, class 3(E) class 1, class 2, class 3.3.If X is added to class 1, which one of the following is a student who must be added to class 2?(A) T(B) V(C) W(D) Y(E) Z4.If X is added to class 3, each of the following is a pair of students who can be added to class 1 EXCEPT(A) Y and Z(B) W and Z(C) V and Y(D) V and W(E) T and z5.If T is added to class 3, which one of the following is a student who must be added to class 2?(A) V(B) W(C) X(D) Y(E) Z6.Which one of the following must be true?(A) If T and X are added to class 2. V is added to class 3.(B) If V and W are added to class 1. V is added to class 3.(C) If V and W are added to class 1. V is added to class 3.(D) If V and X are added to class 1. V is added to class 3.(E) If Y and Z are added to class 2. V is added to class 2.Question 7-12Four lions-F, G, H, J-and two tigers-K and M-will be assigned to exactly six stalls, one animal per stall. The stalls are arranged as follows:First Row: 1 2 3Second Row:45 6The only stalls that face each other are stalls 1 and 4, stalls 2 and 5, and stalls 3 and 6. The following conditions apply:The tigers' stalls cannot face each other.A lion must be assigned to stall 1H must be assigned to stall 6.J must be assigned to a stall numbered one higher than K's stall.K cannot be assigned to the stall that faces H's stall.7. Which one of the following must be true?(A) F is assigned to an even-numbered stall(B) F is assigned to stall 1(C) J is assigned to stall 2 or else stall 3(D) J is assigned to stall 3 or else stall 4(E) K is assigned to stall 2 or else stall 48. Which one of the following could be true?(A) F's stall is numbered one higher than J's stall(B) H's stall faces M's stall(C) J is assigned to stall 4(D) K's stall faces J'S stall(E) K's stall is in a different row than J's stall9. Which one of the following must be true?(A) A tiger is assigned to stall 2(B) A tiger is assigned to stall 5(C) K's stall is in a different row from M's stall(D) Each tiger is assigned to an even-numbered stall(E) Each lion is assigned to a stall that faces a tiger is stall10. If K's stall is in the same row as H's stall which one of the following must be true?(A) F's stall is in the same row as J's stall(B) F is assigned to a lower-numbered stall than G(C) G is assigned to a lower-numbered stall than M(D) G's stall faces H's stall(E) M's stall is in the same row as G's stall11. If J is assigned to stall 3, which one of the following could be true?(A) F is assigned to stall 2(B) F is assigned to stall 4(C) G is assigned to stall 1(D) G is assigned to stall 4(E) M is assigned to stall 512. Which one of the following must be true(A) A tiger is assigned to stall 2(B) A tiger is assigned to stall 4(C) A tiger is assigned to stall 5(D) A lion is assigned to stall 3(E) A lion is assigned to stall 4SECTION ⅡTime-35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages For some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are bycommonsense standards implausible superfluous or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best1.The city's center for disease control reports that the rabies eoidemic is more serious now than it was two years ago: two years ago less than 25 percent of the local raccoon population was infected, whereas today the infection has spread to more than 50 percent of the raccoon population. However, the newspaper reports that whereas two years ago 32 cases of rabid raccoons were confirmed during a 12-month period in the past 12 months only 18 cases of rabid raccoons were confirmed.Which one of the following if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy between the two reports?(A) The number of cases of rabies in wild animals other than raccoons has increased in the past12 months.(B) A significant proportion of the raccoon population succumbed to rabies in the year before last.(C) The symptoms of distemper another disease to which raccoons are susceptible are usually identical to those of rabies.(D) Since the outbreak of the epidemic, raccoons, which are mormally nocturnal have increasingly been seen during daylight hours(E) The number of confirmed cases of rabid raccoons in neighboring cities has also decreased over the past year2.Recently, reviewers of patent applications decided against granting a patent to a university for a genetically engineered mouse developed for laboratory use in studying cancer. The reviewers argued that the mouse was a new variety of animal and that rules governing the granting of patents specifically disallow patents for new animal varieties.Which one of the following if true most weakens the patent feviewers argument?(A) The restrictions the patent reviewers cited pertain only to domesticated farm animals.(B) The university's application for a patent for the genetically engineered mouse was the first such patent application made by the university(C) The patent reviewers had reached the same decision on all previous patent requess for new animal varieties.(D) The patent reviewers had in the past approved patents for genetically engineered plant varieties.(E) The patent reviewers had previously decided against granting patents for new animal varieties that were developed through conventional breeding programs rather than through genetic engineering.Questions 3-4Although water in deep aquifers does not contain disease-causing bacteria, when public water supplies are arawn from deep aquifers chlorine is often added to the water as a disinfectant because contamination can occur as a result of flaws in pipes or storage tanks. Of 50 municipalities that all pumped water from the same deep aquifer 30 chlorinated their water and 20 did not. The water in all of the municipalities met the regional government's standards for cleanliness yet the water supplied by the 20 municipalities that did not chlorinated had less bacterial contamination than the water supplied by the municipalities that added chlorine.3.Which one of the following can properly be concluded from the information given above?(A) A municipality's initial decision whether or not to use chlorine is based on the amount of bacterial contamination in the water source(B) Water in deep aquifers does not contain any bacteria of any kind(C) Where accessible deep aquifers are the best choice as a source for a municipal water supply(D) The regional government's standards allow some bacteria in municipal water supplies(E) Chlorine is the least effective disinfecting agent4.Which one of the following, if true, most helps explain the difference in bacterial contamination in the two groups of municipalities?(A) Chlorine is considered by some experts to be dangerous to human health, even in the small concentrations used in municipal water supplies.(B) When municipalities decide not to chlorinate their water supplies, it is usually because their citxens have voiced objections to the taste and smell of chlorine.(C) The municipalities that did not add chlorine to their water supplies also did not add any of the other available water disinfectants which are more expensive than chlorine.(D) Other agents commonly added to public water supplies such as fluoride and sodium hydroxide were not used by any of the 50 municipalities(E) Municipalities that do not chlorinate their water supplies are subject to stricter regulation by the regional government in regard to pipes and water tanks than are municipalities that use chlorine.5.The population of songbirds throughout England has decreased in recent years. Many people explain this decrease as the result of an increase during the same period in the population of magpies, which eat the eggs and chicks of songbirds.Which one of the following, if true, argues most strongly against the explanation reported in the passage?(A) Official records of the population of birds in England have been kept for only the past 30 years.(B) The number of eggs laid yearly by a female songbird varies widely according to the songbird's species.(C) Although the overall population of magpies has increased, in most areas of England in which the songbird population has decreased the number of magpies has remained stable. (D) The population of magpies has increased because farmers no longer shoot or trap magpies to any greal extent, though farmers.(E) Although magpies eat the eggs and chicks of songbirds, magpies diets consist of a wide variety of other foods as well.6.The introduction of symbols for numbers is an event lost in prehistory, but the earliest known number symbols, in the form of simple grooves and scratches on bones and stones date back 20,000 years or more. Nevertheless, since it was not until 5,500 years ago that systematic methods for writing numerais were invented, it was only then that any sort of computation became possible.Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?(A) Grooves and scratches found on bones and stones were all made by people, and none resulted from natural processes.(B) Some kinds of surfaces upon which numeric symbols could have been made in the period before 5,500 years ago were not used for that purpose.(C) Grooves and scratches inscribed on bones and stones do not date back to the time of the earliest people.(D) Computation of any sort required a systematic method for writing numerals.(E) Systematic methods for writing numerals were invented only because the need for computation arose.7.Politician: Now that we are finally cleaning up the industrial pollution in the bay, we must start making the bay more accessible to the public for recreational purposes.Reporter: But if we increase public access to the bay, it will soon become polluted again.Politician: Not true. The public did not have access to the bay, and it got polluted. Therefore, if and when the public is given access to the bay, it will not get polluted.Which one of the following most closely parallels the flawed pattern of reasoning in the politician's reply to the reporter?(A) If there had been a full moon last night, the tide would be higher than usual today. Since the tide is no higher than usual, there must not have been a full moon last night.(B) The detective said that whoever stole the money would be spending it conspicuously by now. Jones is spending money conspicuously, so he must be the thief.(C) When prisoners convicted of especially violent crimes were kept in solitary confinement, violence in the prisons increased. Therefore, violence in the prisons will not increase if such prisoners are allowed to mix with fellow prisoners.(D) To get a driver's license, one must pass a written test. Smith passed the written test, so she must have gotten a driver's license.(E) In order to like abstract art, you have to understand it . therefore, in order to understand abstract art, you have to like it.8.Because learned patterns of behavior, such as the association of a green light with "go" or the expectation that switches will flip up for "on" become deeply ingrained designers should make allowances for that fact in order not to produce machines that are inefficient or dangerous. In which one of the following situations is the principle expressed most clearly violated?(A) Manufacturers have refused to change the standard order of letters on the typewriter keyboard even though some people who have over learned to type find this arrangement of letters bewildering(B) Government regulations require that crucial instruments in airplane cockpits-be placed in exactly the same array in all commercial aircraft(C) Automobile manufacturers generally design for all of their automobiles a square or oblong lgnition key and a round or oval luggage compartment key.(D) The only traffic signs that are triangular in shape are "yield" signs.(E) On some tape recorders the "start" button is red and the "stop" button is yellow.9.From 1973 to 1989 total energy use in this country increased less than 10percent. However, the use of electrical energy in this country during this same period grew by more than 50 percent as did the gross national product-the total value of all goods and services produced in the nation.If the statements above are true, then which one of the following must also be true?(A) Most of the energy used in this country in 1989 was electrical energy.(B) From 1973 to 1989 there was a decline in the use of energy other than electrical energy in this country.(C) From 1973 to 1989 there was an increase in the proportion of energy use in this country that consisted of electrical energy use(D) In 1989 electrical energy constituted a larger proportion of the energy used to produce the gross national product than did any other form of energy.(E) In 1973 the electrical energy that was produced constituted a smaller proportion of the gross national product than did all other forms of energy combined.10. A fundamental illusion in robotics is the belief that improvements in robots will liberate humanity from "hazardous and demeaning work" Englineers are designing only those types of robots that can be properly maintained with the least expensive, least skilied human labor possible. Therefore, robots will not eliminate demeaning work-only substitute one type of demeaning work for another.The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it(A) ignores the consideration that in a competitive business environment some jobs might be eliminated if robots are not used in the manufacturing process(B) assumes what it sets out to prove, that robots create demeaning work.(C) Does not specify whether or not the engineers who design robots consider their work demeaning(D) Attempts to support its conclusion by an appeal to the emotion of fear, which is often experienced by people faced with the prospect of losing their jobs to robots(E) Fails to address the possibility that the amount of demeaning work eliminated by robots might be significantly greater than the amount they createSECTION ⅢTime-35 minutes26 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages For some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are answer blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet1.The painted spiders spins webs that are much stickier than the webs spun by the other species of spiders that share the same habitat. Stickler webs are more efficient at trapping insects that fly into them. Spiders prey on insects by trapping them in their webs therefore. If can be concluded that the painted spider is a more successful predator than its competitorsWhich one of the following if true most seriously weakens the argument?(A) Not all of the species of insects living in the painted spider's habitat are flying insects(B) Butterflies and moths which can shed scales are especially unlikely to be trapped by spider webs that are not very sticky(C) Although the painted spider's venom does not kill insects quickly. It paralyzes them almost instantaneously(D) Stickier webs reflect more light and so are more visible to insects than are less-sticky webs.(E) The webs spun by the painted spider are no larger than the webs spun by the other species of spiders in the same habitat2.Despite the best efforts of astronomers, no one has yet succeeded in exchanging messages with intelligent life on other planets or in other solar systems. In fact, no one has even managed to prove that any kind of extraterrestrial life exists. Thus, there is clearly no intelligent life anywhere but on Earth.The argument's reasoning is flawed because the argument(A) fails to consider that there might be extraterrestrial forms of intelligence that are not living beings(B) confuses an absence of evidence for a nypothesis with the existence of evidence against the hypothesis(C) interprets a disagreement over a scientitic theory as a disproof of that theory(D) makes an inference that relies on the vagueness of the term "life"(E) relies on a weak analogy rather than on evidence to draw a conclusionQuestions 3-4Bart: A mathematical problem that defied solution for hundreds of years has finally yielded to a supercomputer. The process by which the supercomputer derived the result is so complex. However, that no one can fully comprehend it. Consequently, the result is unacceptable.Anne: In scientific research if the results of a test can be replicated in other tests, the resultsare acceptable even though the way they were derived might not be fully understood. Therefore, if a mathematical result derived by a supercomputer can be reproduced by other supercomputers following the same procedure it is acceptable3. Bart's argument requires which one of the following assumptions?(A) The mathematical result in question is unacceptable because it was derived with the use of a supercomputer(B) For the mathematical result in question to be someone who can fully comprehend the process by which it was derived.(C) To be acceptable the mathematical result in question must be reproduced on another supercomputer.(D) Making the mathematical result in question less complex would guarantee its acceptablility.(E) The supercomputer cannot derive an acceptable solution to the mathematical problem in question.4.The exchange between Bart and Anne most strongly supports the view that they disagree as to(A) whether a scientific result that has not been replicated can properly be accepted(B) whether the result that a supercomputer derives for a mathematical problem must be replicated on another supercomputer before it can be accepted(C) the criterion to be used for accepting a mathematical result derived by a supercomputer(D) the level of complexity of the process to which Bart refers in his statements(E) the relative complexity of mathematical preblems as compared to scientific problems5.It is commonly held among marketing experts that in a nonexpanding market a company's best strategy is to go after a bigger share of the market and that the best way to do this is to run comparative advertisements that emphasize weaknesses in the products of rivals. In the stagnant market for food oil, soybean-oil and palm-oil producers did wage a two-year battle with comparative advertisements about the deleterious effect on health of each other's products. These campaigns, however had little effiect on respective market shares; rather they stopped many people from buying any edible oils at all.The statements above most strongly support the conclusion that comparative advertisements(A) increase a company's market share in all cases in which that company's products are clearly superior to the products of rivals(B) should not be used in a market that is expanding or likely to expand(C) should under no circumstances be used as a retaliatory measure(D) carry the risk of causing a contraction of the market at which they are aimed(E) yield no long-term gains unless consumers can easily verify the claims made6.Recent unexpectedly heavy rainfalls in the metropolitan area have filled the reservoirs andstreams; water rationing, therefore, will not be necessary this summer.Which one of the following, if true most undermines the author's prediction?(A) Water rationing was fmposed in the city in three of the last five years.(B) A small part of the city's water supply is obtained from deep underground water systems that are not reached by rainwater(C) The water company's capacity to pump water to customers has not kept up with the increased demand created by population growth in the metropolitan area.(D) The long-range weather forecast predicts lower-than-average temperatures for this summer.(E) In most years the city receives less total precipitation in the summer than if receives in any other season.7.John: In 80 percent of car accidents the driver at fault was within five miles of home, so people evidently drive less safely near home than they do on long trips.Judy: But people do 80 percent of their driving within five miles of home.How is Judy's response related to John's argument?(A) It shows that the evidence that John presents by itself is not enough to prove his claim.(B) It restates the evidence that John presents in different terms.(C) It gives additional evidence that is needed by John to support his conclusion.(D) It calls into question John's assumption that whenever people drive more than five miles from home they are going on a long trip.(E) It suggests that John's conclusion is merely a restatement of his argument's premise.8.Reasonable people adapt themselves to the world: unreasonable people persist in trying to adapt the world to themselves. Therefore, all progress depends on unreasonable people.If all of the statements in the passage above are true which one of the following statements must also be true?(A) Reasonable people and unreasonable people are incompatible.(B) If there are only reasonable people there cannot be progress.(C) If there are unreasonable people there will be progress.(D) Some unreasonable people are unable to bring about progress.(E) Unreasonable people are more persistent than reasonable people.9.Theater critic: The theater is in a dismal state.Audiences are and revenue is down. Without the audience and the revenue the talented and creative people who are the lifeblood of the theater are abandoning it. No wonder standards are deteriorating.Producer: It's not true that the theater is in decline.Don't you realize that your comments constitute a self-fulfilling prophecy? By publishing these opinions, you yourself are discouraging new audiences from emerging and new talent from joining the theater.Which one of the following is a questionable technique employed by the produce in responding to the critic?(A) focusing on the effects of the critie's evaluation rather than on its content(B) accusing the critic of relying solely on opinion unsupported by factual evidence(C) challenging the motives behind the critle's remarks rather than the remarks themselves(D) relying on emphasis rather than on argument(E) invoking authority in order to intimidate the critic10. Michelangelo's sixteenth-century Sistine Chapel paintings are currently being restored. A goal of the restorers is to uncover Michelangelo's original work, and so additions made to Michelangelo's paintings by later artists are being removed. However, the restorers have decided to make one exception: to leave intact additions that were painted by da Volterra.Which one of the following, if true, most helps to reconcile the restorers' decision with the goal stated in the passage?(A) The restorers believe that da Volterra stripped away all previous layers of paint before he painted his own additions to the Sistine Chapel.(B) Because da Volterra used a type of pigment that is especially sensitive to light, the additions to the Sistine Chapel that ad Volterra painted have relatively muted colors.(C) Da Volterra's additions were painted in a style that was similar to the style used by Michelangelo.(D) Michelangelo is famous primarily for his sculptures and only secondarily for his paintings, whereas da Volterra is known exclusively for his paintings.(E) Da Volterra's work is considered by certain art historians to be just as valuable as the work of additions to Michelangelo's work.SECTION IVTime-35 minutes27 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implies in the passage for some of the questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheetThree kinds of study have been performed on Byron. There is the biographical study-the very valuable examination of Byron's psychology and the events in his life. Escarpit's 1958 work is an example(5) of this kind of study and biographers to this day continue to speculate about Byron's life. Equally valuable is the study of Byron as a figure important in the history of ideas; Russell and Prza have written studies of this kind. Finally, there are(10)studies that primarily consider Byron's poetry. Such inerary studies are valuable however only when they avoid concentrating solely on analyzing the verbal shadings of Byron's poetry to the exclusion of any discussion of biographical considerations. A(15)study with such a concentration would be of questionable value because Byron's poetry, for the most part, is simply not a poetry of subtle verbal most part, is simply not a poetry of subtle verbal meanings. Rather, on the whole, Byron's poerns record the emotional pressure of certain moments(20)in his life. I believe we cannot often read a poem of Bvron's we often can one of Shakespeare's without wondering what events or circumstances in his life prompted him to write it.No doubt the fact that most of Byron's poems(25)cannot be convincingly read as subtle verbal creations indicates that Byron is not a "great" poet. It must be admitted too that Byron's literary craftsmanship is irregular and often his temperament disrupts even his lax literrary method(30)(although the result an absence of method has a significant purpose: it functions as a rebuke to a cosmos that Byron feels he cannot understand). If Byron is not a "great" poet his poetry is nonetheless of extrtaordinary interest to us because(35)of the pleasure it gives us: Our main pleasure in reading Byron's poetry is the contact with a singular personality. Reading his work gives us illumination-self-understanding-after we have seen our weaknesses and aspirations mirrored in(40)the personality we usually find in the poems. Anyone who thinks that this kind of illumination is not a genuine reason for reading a poet should think carefully about why we read Donne's sonnets.It is Byron and Byron's idea of himself that hold(45)his work together (and that enthralled early nineteenth-century Europe Different character s speak in his poems, but finally it is usually he himself who is speaking a far cry from the。

LSAT历年真题-阅读

LSAT历年真题-阅读

LSAT第01套SECTION IIITime 35 minutes 26 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than oneof the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Immigrants’ adoption of English as their primary language is one measure of assimilation into the larger United States society. Generally languages define social groups and provide justification for social structures. Hence, a distinctive language sets a cultural group off from the dominant language group. Throughout United States history this pattern has resulted in one consistent, unhappy consequence, discrimination against members of the cultural minority. Language differences provide both a way to rationalize subordination and a ready means for achieving it.Traditionally, English has replaced the native language of immigrant groups by the second or third generation. Some characteristics of today’s Spanish-speaking population, however, suggest the possibility of a departure from this historical pattern. Many families retain ties in Latin America and move back and forth between their present and former communities. This “revolving door” phenomenon, along with the high probability of additional immigrants from the south, means that large Spanish-speaking communities are likely to exist in the United States for the indefinite future.This expectation underlies the call for national support for bilingual education in Spanish-speaking communities’ public schools. Bilingual education can serve different purposes, however. In the 1960s, such programs were established to facilitate the learning of English so as to avoid disadvantaging children in their other subjects because of their limited English. More recently, many advocates have viewed bilingual education as a means to maintain children’s native languages and cultures. The issue is important for people with different political agendas, from absorption at one pole to separatism at the other.To date, the evaluations of bilingual education’s impact on learning have been inconclusive. The issue of bilingual education has, nevertheless, served to unite the leadership of the nation’s Hispanic communities. Grounded in concerns about status that are directly traceable to the United States history of discrimination against Hispanics, the demand for maintenance of the Spanish language in the schools is an assertion of the worth of a people and their culture. If the United States is truly a multicultural nation—that is, if it is one culture reflecting the contributions of many—this demand should be seen as a demand not for separation but for inclusion.More direct efforts to force inclusion can be misguided. For example, movements to declare English the official language do not truly advance the cohesion of a multicultural nation. They alienate the twenty million people who do not speak English as their mother tongue. They are unnecessary since the public’s business is already conducted largely in English. Further, given the present state of understanding about the effects of bilingual education on learning, itwould be unwise to require the universal use of English. Finally, it is for parents and local communities to choose the path they will follow, including how much of their culture they want to maintain for their children.1. It can be inferred from the passage that one of the characteristics of immigrantgroups to the United States has traditionally been that, after immigration,relatively few members of the group(A) became politically active in their new communities(B) moved back and forth repeatedly between the United States and their formercommunities(C) used their native languages in their new communities(D) suffered discrimination in their new communities at the hands of the culturalmajority(E) sought assimilation into the dominant culture of the new communities theywere entering2. The passage suggests that one of the effects of the debate over bilingualeducation is that it has(A) given the Hispanic community a new-found pride in its culture(B) hampered the education of Spanish-speaking students(C) demonstrated the negative impact on imposing English as the official UnitedStates language(D) provided a common banner under which the Spanish-speaking communitiescould rally(E) polarized the opinions of local Spanish-speaking community leaders3. In lines 38-39, the phrase “different political agendas” refers specifically toconflicting opinions regarding the(A) means of legislating the assimilation of minorities into United States society(B) methods of inducing Hispanics to adopt English as their primary language(C) means of achieving nondiscriminatory education for Hispanics(D) official given responsibility for decisions regarding bilingual education(E) extent to which Hispanics should blend into the larger United States society4. In lines 64-65 the author says that “It would be unwise to require the universaluse of English.” One reason for this, according to the author, is that(A) it is not clear yet whether requiring the universal use of English wouldpromote or hinder the education of children whose English is limited(B) the nation’s Hispanic leaders have shown that bilingual education is mosteffective when it includes the maintenance of the Spanish language in theschools(C) requiring the universal use of English would reduce the cohesion of thenation’s Hispanic communities and leadership(D) the question of language in the schools should be answered by those whoevaluate bilingual education, not by people with specific political agendas(E) it has been shown that bilingual education is necessary to avoiddisadvantaging in their general learning children whose English is limited 5. In the last paragraph, the author of the passage is primarily concerned withdiscussing(A) reasons against enacting a measure that would mandate the forced inclusionof immigrant groups within the dominant United culture(B) the virtues and limitations of declaring English the official language of theUnited States(C) the history of attitudes within the Hispanic community toward bilingualeducation in the United States(D) the importance for immigrant groups of maintaining large segments of theirculture to pass on to their children(E) the difference in cultures between Hispanics and other immigrant groups inthe United StatesThe refusal of some countries to extradite persons accused or convicted of terrorist act has focused attention on the problems caused by the political offense exception to extradition. Extradition is the process by which one country returns an accused or convicted person found within its borders to another country for trial or punishment. Under the political offense exception, the requested state may, if it considers the crime to be a “political offense,” deny extradition to the requesting state.Protection of political offenses is a recent addition to the ancient practice of extradition. It is the result of two fundamental changes that occurred as European monarchies were replaced by representative governments. First, these governments began to reject what had been a primary intent of extradition, to expedite the return of political offenders, and instead sought to protect dissidents fleeing despotic regimes. Second, countries began to contend that they had no legal or moral duty to extradite offenders without specific agreements creating such obligations. As extradition laws subsequently developed through international treaties, the political offense exception gradually became an accepted principle among Western nations.There is no international consensus, however, as to what constitutes a political offense. For analytical purposes illegal political conduct has traditionally been divided into two categories. “Pure” political offenses are acts perpetrated directly against the government, such as treason and espionage. These crimes are generally recognized as nonextraditable, even if not expressly excluded from extradition by the applicable treaty. In contrast, common crimes, such as murder, assault, and robbery, are generally extraditable. However, there are some common crimes that are so inseparable from a political act that the entire offense is regarded as political. These crimes, which are called “relative” political offenses, are generally nonextraditable. Despite the widespread acceptance of these analytic constructs, the distinctions are more academic than meaningful. When it comes to real cases, there is no agreement about what transforms a common crime into a political offense and about whether terrorist acts fall within the protection of the exception. Most terrorists claim that their acts do fall under this protection.Nations of the world must now balance the competing needs of political freedom and international public order. It is time to reexamine the political offense exception, as international terrorism eradicates the critical distinctions between political offenses and nonpolitical crimes. The only rational and attainable objective of the exception is to protect the requested person against unfair treatment by the requesting country. The international community needs to find an alternative to the political offense exception that would protect the rights of requested persons and yet not offer terrorists immunity from criminal liability.6. In the passage, the author primarily seeks to(A) define a set of terms(B) outline a new approach(C) describe a current problem(D) expose an illegal practice(E) present historical information7. According to the passage, when did countries begin to except political offendersfrom extradition?(A) when the principle of extraditing accused or convicted persons originated(B) when some nations began refusing to extradite persons accused or convictedof terrorist acts(C) when representative governments began to replace European monarchies(D) when countries began to refuse to extradite persons accused or convicted ofcommon crimes(E) when governments began to use extradition to expedite the return of politicaloffenders8. Given the discussion in the passage, which one of the following distinctions doesthe author consider particularly problematic?(A) between common crimes and “relative” political offense(B) between “pure” political offenses and common crimes(C) between “pure” political offenses and “relative” political offenses(D) between terrorist acts and acts of espionage(E) between the political offense exception and other exceptions to extradition9. According to the author, the primary purpose of the political offense exceptionshould be to(A) ensure that terrorists are tried for their acts(B) ensure that individuals accused of political crimes are not treated unfairly(C) distinguish between political and nonpolitical offenses(D) limit extradition to those accused of “pure” political offenses(E) limit extradition to those accused of “relative” political offenses10. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would agree with which one ofthe following statements about the political offense exception?(A) The exception is very unpopular.(B) The exception is probably illegal.(C) The exception is used too little.(D) The exception needs rethinking.(E) The exception is too limited.11. When referring to a balance between “the competing needs of political freedomand international public order” (lines 54-55) the author means that nations must strike a balance between(A) allowing persons to protest political injustice and preventing them fromcommitting political offenses(B) protecting the rights of persons requested for extradition and holdingterrorists criminally liable(C) maintaining the political offense exception to extradition and clearing up theconfusion over what is a political offense(D) allowing nations to establish their own extradition policies and establishingan agreed-upon international approach to extradition(E) protecting from extradition persons accused of “pure” political offenses andensuring the trial of persons accused of “relative” political offenses12. The author would most likely agree that the political offense exception(A) has, in some cases, been stretched beyond intended use(B) has been used too infrequently to be evaluated(C) has been a modestly useful weapon again terrorism(D) has never met the objective for which it was originally established(E) has been of more academic than practical value to political dissidents13. Which one of the following, if true, would give the author most cause toreconsider her recommendation regarding the political offence exception (lines 62-66)?(A) More nations started refusing to extradite persons accused or convicted ofterrorist acts.(B) More nations started extraditing persons accused or convicted of treason,espionage, and other similar crimes.(C) The nations of the world sharply decreased their use of the political offenseexception protect persons accused of each of the various types of “pure”political offenses.(D) The nations of the world sharply decreased their use of the political offenseexception to protect persons accused of each of the various types of“relative” political offenses.(E) The nations of the world started to disagree over the analytical distinctionbetween “pure” political offenses and “relative” political offenses.As is well known and has often been described, the machine industry of recent times took its rise by a gradual emergence out of handicraft in England in the eighteenth century. Since then the mechanical industry has progressively been getting the upper hand in all the civilized nations, in much the same degree in which these nations have come to be counted as civilized. This mechanical industry now stands dominant at the apex of the industrial system.The state of the industrial arts, as it runs on the lines of the mechanical industry, is a technology of physics and chemistry. That is to say, it is governed by the same logic as the scientific laboratories. The procedure, the principles, habits of thought, preconceptions, units of measurement and of valuation, are the same in both cases.The technology of physics and chemistry is not derived from established law and custom, and it goes on its way with as nearly complete a disregard of the spiritual truths of law and custom as the circumstances will permit. The realities with which this technology is occupied are of another order of actuality, lying altogether within the three dimensions that contain the material universe, and running altogether on the logic of material fact. In effect it is the logic of inanimate facts.The mechanical industry makes use of the same range of facts handled in the same impersonal way and directed to the same manner of objective results. In both cases alike it is of the first importance to eliminate the “personal equation,” to let the work go forward and let the forces at work take effect quite objectively, without hindrance or deflection for any personal end, interest, or gain. It is the technician’s place in industry, as it is the scientist’s place in the laboratory, to serve as an intellectual embodiment of the forces at work, isolate the forces engaged from all extraneous disturbances, and let them take full effect along the lines of designed work. The technician is an active or creative factor in the case only in the sense that he is the keeper of the logic which governs the forces at work.These forces that so are brought to bear in mechanical industry are of an objective, impersonal, unconventional nature, of course. They are of the nature of opaque fact. Pecuniary gain is not one of these impersonal facts. Any consideration of pecuniary gain that may be injected into the technician’s working plans will come into the case as an intrusive and alien factor, whose sole effect is to deflect, retard, derange and curtail the work in hand. At the same time considerations of pecuniary gain are the only agency brought into the case by the businessmen, and the only ground on which they exercise a control of production.14. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with discussing(A) industrial organization in the eighteenth century(B) the motives for pecuniary gain(C) the technician’s place in mechanical industry(D) the impersonal organization of industry(E) the material contribution of physics in industrial society15. The author of the passage suggests that businessmen in the mechanical industryare responsible mainly for(A) keeping the logic governing the forces at work(B) managing the profits(C) directing the activities of the technicians(D) employing the technological procedures of physics and chemistry(E) treating material gain as a spiritual truth16. Which one of the following, if true, would contradict the author’s belief that therole of technician is to be “the keeper of the logic” (lines 45-46)?(A) All technicians are human beings with feelings and emotions.(B) An interest in pecuniary gain is the technician’s sole motive for participationin industry.(C) The technician’s working plans do not coincide with the technician’specuniary interests.(D) Technicians are employed by businessmen to oversee the forces at work.(E) Technicians refuse to carry out the instructions of the businessmen.17. The author would probably most strongly agree with which one of the followingstatements about the evolution of the industrial system?(A) The handicraft system of industry emerged in eighteenth-century England andwas subsequently replaced by the machine industry.(B) The handicraft system of industrial production has gradually given rise to amechanistic technology that dominates contemporary industry.(C) The handicraft system emerged as the dominant factor of production ineighteenth-century England but was soon replaced by mechanical techniquesof production.(D) The mechanical system of production that preceded the handicraft systemwas the precursor of contemporary means of production.(E) The industrial arts developed as a result of the growth of the mechanicalindustry that followed the decline of the handicraft system of production. 18. Which one of the following best describes the author’s attitude toward scientifictechniques?(A) critical(B) hostile(C) idealistic(D) ironic(E) neutral(This passage was originally published in 1905)The word democracy may stand for a natural social equality in the body politic or for a constitutional form of government in which power lies more or less directly in the people’s hand. The former may be called social democracy and the later democratic government. The two differ widely, both in origin and in moral principle. Genetically considered, social democracy is something primitive, unintended, proper to communities where there is general competenceand no marked personal eminence. There be no will aristocracy, no prestige, but instead an intelligent readiness to lend a hand and to do in unison whatever is done. In other words, there will be that most democratic of governments—no government at all. But when pressure of circumstances, danger, or inward strife makes recognized and prolonged guidance necessary to a social democracy, the form its government takes is that of a rudimentary monarchy established by election or general consent. A natural leader emerges and is instinctively obeyed. That leader may indeed be freely criticized and will not be screened by any pomp or traditional mystery; he or she will be easy to replace and every citizen will feel essentially his or her equal. Yet such a state is at the beginnings of monarchy and aristocracy.Political democracy, on the other hand, is a late and artificial product. It arises by a gradual extension of aristocratic privileges, through rebellion against abuses, and in answer to restlessness on the people’s part. Its principle is not the absence of eminence, but the discovery that existing eminence is no longer genuine and representative. It may retain many vestiges of older and less democratic institutions. For under democratic governments the people have not created the state; they merely control it. Their suspicions and jealousies are quieted by assigning to them a voice, perhaps only a veto, in the administration. The people’s liberty consists not in their original responsibility for what exists, but merely in the faculty they have acquired of abolishing any detail that may distress or wound them, and of imposing any new measure, which, seen against the background of existing laws, may commend itself from time to time to their instinct and mind.If we turn from origins to ideals, the contrast between social and political democracy is no less marked. Social democracy is a general ethical ideal, looking to human equality and brotherhood, and inconsistent, in its radical form, with such institutions as the family and hereditary property. Democratic government, on the contrary, is merely a means to an end, an expedient for the better and smoother government of certain states at certain junctures. It involves no special ideals of life; it is a question of policy, namely, whether the general interest will be better served by granting all people an equal voice in elections. For political democracy must necessarily be a government by deputy, and the questions actually submitted to the people can be only very large rough matters of general policy or of confidence in party leaders.19. The author suggests that the lack of “marked personal eminence” (line 11) is animportant feature of a social democracy because(A) such a society is also likely to contain the seeds of monarchy and aristocracy(B) the absence of visible social leaders in such a society will probably impedethe development of a political democracy(C) social democracy represents a more sophisticated form of government thanpolitical democracy(D) a society that lacks recognized leadership will be unable to accomplish itscultural objectives(E) the absence of visible social leaders in such a community is likely to beaccompanied by a spirit of cooperation20. Which one of the following forms of government does the author say is mostlikely to evolve from a social democracy?(A) monarchy(B) government by deputy(C) political democracy(D) representative democracy(E) constitutional democracy21. The author of the passage suggests that a political democracy is likely to havebeen immediately preceded by which one of the following forms of socialorganization?(A) a social democracy in which the spirit of participation has been diminished bythe need to maintain internal security(B) an aristocratic society in which government leaders have grown insensitive topeople’s interests(C) a primitive society that stresses the radical equality of all its members(D) a state of utopian brotherhood in which no government exists(E) a government based on general ethical ideals22. According to the passage, “the people’s liberty” (line 42) in a political democracyis best defined as(A) a willingness to accept responsibility for existing governmental forms(B) a myth perpetrated by aristocratic leaders who refuse to grant political powerto their subjects(C) the ability to impose radically new measures when existing governmentalforms are found to be inadequate(D) the ability to secure concessions from a government that may retain manyaristocratic characteristics(E) the ability to elect leaders whom the people consider socially equal tothemselves23. According to the author of this passage, a social democracy would most likelyadopt a formal system of government when(A) recognized leadership becomes necessary to deal with social problems(B) people lose the instinctive ability to cooperate in solving social problems(C) a ruling monarch decides that it is necessary to grant political concessions tothe people(D) citizens no longer consider their social leaders essentially equal to themselves(E) the human instinct to obey social leaders has been weakened by suspicion andjealousy24. According to the passage, which one of the following is likely to occur as a resultof the discovery that “existing eminence is no longer genuine and representative”(lines 35-36)?(A) Aristocratic privileges will be strengthened, which will result in a further lossof the people’s liberty.(B) The government will be forced to admit its responsibility for the inadequacyof existing political institutions.(C) The remaining vestiges of less democratic institutions will be banished fromgovernment.(D) People will gain political concessions from the government and a voice in theaffairs of state.(E) People will demand that political democracy conform to the ethical ideals ofsocial democracy.25. It can be inferred from the passage that the practice of “government by deputy”(line 64) in a political democracy probably has its origins in(A) aristocratic ideals(B) human instincts(C) a commitment to human equality(D) a general ethical ideal(E) a policy decision26. Which one of the following statements, if true, would contradict the author’snotion of the characteristics of social democracy?(A) Organized governmental systems tend to arise spontaneously, rather than inresponse to specific problem situations.(B) The presence of an organized system of government stifles the expression ofhuman equality and brotherhood.(C) Social democracy represents a more primitive form of communalorganization than political democracy.(D) Prolonged and formal leadership may become necessary in a socialdemocracy when problems arise that cannot be resolved by recourse to thegeneral competence of the people.(E) Although political democracy and social democracy are radically differentforms of communal organization, it is possible for both to contain elementsof monarchy.LSAT第02套SECTION ITime 35 minutes 28 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of The Weary Blues, Langston Hughes had broken with two well-established traditions in African American literature. In The Weary Blues, Hughes chose to modify the traditions that decreed that African American literature must promote racial acceptance and integration, and that, in order to do so, it must reflect an understanding and mastery of Western European literary techniques and styles. Necessarily excluded by this decree, linguistically and thematically, was the vast amount of secular folk material in the oral tradition that had been created by Black people in the years of slavery and after. It might be pointed out that even the spirituals or “sorrow songs” of the slaves—as distinct from their secular songs and stories—had been Europeanized to make them acceptable within these African American traditions after the Civil War. In 1862 northern White writers had commented favorably on the unique and provocative melodies of these “sorrow songs” when they first heard them sung by slaves in the Carolina sea islands. But by 1916, ten years before the publication of The Weary Blues, Hurry T. Burleigh, the Black baritone soloist at New York’s ultrafashionable Saint George’s Episcopal Church, had published Jubilee Songs of the United States, with every spiritual arranged so that a concert singer could sing it “in the manner of an art song.” Clearly, the artistic work of Black people could be used to promote racial acceptance and integration only on the condition that it became Europeanized.Even more than his rebellion against this restrictive tradition in African American art, Hughes’s expression of the vibrant folk culture of Black people established his writing as a landmark in the history of African American literature. Most of his folk poems have the distinctive marks of this folk culture’s oral tradition: they contain many instances of naming and enumeration, considerable hyperbole and understatement, and a strong infusion of street-talk rhyming. There is a deceptive veil of artlessness in these poems. Hughes prided himself on being an impromptu and impressionistic writer of poetry. His, he insisted, was not an artfully constructed poetry. Yet an analysis of his dramatic monologues and other poems reveals that his poetry was carefully and artfully crafted. In his folk poetry we find features common to all folk literature, such as dramatic ellipsis, narrative compression, rhythmic repetition, and monosyllabic emphasis. The peculiar mixture of irony and humor we find in his writing is a distinguishing feature of his folk poetry. Together, these aspects of Hughes’s writing helped to modify the previous restrictions on the techniques and subject matter of Black writers and consequently to broaden the linguistic and thematic range of African American literature.1. The author mentions which one of the following as an example of the influenceof Black folk culture on Hughes’s poetry?(A) his exploitation of ambiguous and deceptive meanings(B) his care and craft in composing poems(C) his use of naming and enumeration(D) his use of first-person narrative(E) his strong religious beliefs2. The author suggests that the “deceptive veil” (line 42) in Hughes’s poetryobscures(A) evidence of his use of oral techniques in his poetry(B) evidence of his thoughtful deliberation in composing his poems。

lsat题型

lsat题型

LSAT题型LSAT(Law School Admission Test)是美国法学院入学考试。

作为申请者进入美国法学院的必备考试之一,LSAT考试主要用于评估申请者的逻辑推理、阅读理解和分析问题的能力。

一、LSAT题型概述LSAT考试涵盖了多个题型,包括逻辑推理、阅读理解和分析问题。

每个题型都测试不同的能力和技巧,考生需要针对不同题型制定相应的解题策略。

以下是LSAT 常见的题型:1. 逻辑推理题逻辑推理题主要考察考生的逻辑思维和分析能力。

题干通常会给出一段逻辑论证的论据和结论,考生需要根据所给信息判断论证的有效性、推理的合理性等。

2. 阅读理解题阅读理解题考察考生的阅读理解和理解能力。

考生需要在规定的时间内阅读文章,并回答与文章内容相关的问题。

文章内容涉及法律、哲学、社会科学等多个领域。

3. 分析问题题分析问题题主要考察考生分析问题和解决问题的能力。

题干通常给出一个问题和相关信息,考生需要根据所给信息作出推理、分析和判断。

二、LSAT题型分析接下来将分别对LSAT的三个常见题型进行详细分析。

1. 逻辑推理题分析逻辑推理题是LSAT考试中最常见的题型,占据了考试的很大比例。

逻辑推理题要求考生根据所给的事实和推理进行逻辑推理,判断陈述的真伪、条件的充分性等。

解答这类题目的关键是理解论据和结论,并进行合理的推理。

逻辑推理题可以分为几个常见的类型,包括:•假设题:要求考生根据所给的假设条件判断结论的合理性。

•推理题:要求考生根据所给的事实和条件推理结论。

•强弱化题:要求考生根据所给的信息判断某一论证的论据或结论的强弱。

•概括题:要求考生根据所给的论证内容判断最适合的概括。

在解答逻辑推理题时,考生需要注意判断过程的逻辑合理性,善于分析论证的结构和推理方式,避免被干扰选项所迷惑。

2. 阅读理解题分析阅读理解题在LSAT考试中是必不可少的一部分,考察考生的阅读理解和分析能力。

阅读理解题通常要求考生在规定时间内阅读一篇文章,并回答与文章内容相关的问题。

最全LSAT考试详解

最全LSAT考试详解

最全LSAT考试详解最全LSAT考试详解所有法学专业渴望留学的学子都要面对“LAST”这座大山,俗话说知己知彼才能百战不殆,下面就和店铺一起来了解一下这个独具特色的考试吧!LSAT(Law School Admission Test),即法学院入学考试。

它是由位于美国宾西法尼亚州的法学院入学委员会负责主办的法学院入学资格考试。

几乎所有的美国、加拿大法学院、澳大利亚墨尔本大学都要求申请人参加LSAT考试。

LSAT考试共有五个部分(包含一个不记分的供入学委员会评估用的评测部分),包括三个方面的内容,每部分时间为35分钟,另加30分钟的写作。

这三个方面的内容分别是阅读理解、逻辑推理及分析推理,主要测试考生下列几方面的能力:1.准确阅读并理解复杂文章的能力2.组织有关信息并得出合理结论的能力3.批判性地推理的能力4.对他人的推理进行分析和评价的能力考试自1948年起就以某种形式出现,它之所以被创立是在学校平均分GPA之外给予法学院考察申请人水平的标准。

目前的考试是1991年版。

考试分六个部分:4个选择题部分,不计分的写作部分,不计分的实验部分。

原始分值被转化为量表分数,最高180、最低120,平均数为150。

在申请法学院时,过去五年内的所有成绩都将被递交。

LSAT考试满分为180分,最低分为120分,其计算方法是根据选择的正确的答案的数目来确定。

选对25个左右,分数大概为130分;选对39个左右,分数大概为140分;选对55个,分数大致为150分;选对72个,分数为160;选对87个,分数为170分;选对98个以上,分数为满分180分。

一般来说,排名前14的法学院要求成绩都在170分以上;排名前25的法学要求成绩在160分以上。

考试成绩一般在考后五周左右由主办机构寄出,LSAT成绩在5年内有效。

LSAT考试每年举办四次,分别在2月、6月、10月及12月,考生不得在两年内参加超过3次LSAT的考试。

中国大陆地区6月和12月在北京大学有固定考试。

法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文(10篇)

法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文(10篇)

法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文1"In some countries, television and radio programs are carefully censored for offensive language and behavior. In other countries, there is little or no censorship."In your view. To what extent should government or any other group be able to censor television or radio programs? Explain, giving relevant reasons and/or examples to support your position. (技术进步对人类影响)The extent to which the broadcast media should be censored for offensive language and behavior involves a conflict between our right as individuals to freely express ourselves and the duty of government to protect its citizenry from potential harm. In my view, our societal interest in preventing the harm that exposure to obscenity produces takes precedence over the rights of individuals to broadcast this type of content.First of all, I believe that exposure to obscene and offensive language and behavior does indeed cause similar behavior on the part of those who are exposed to it. Although we may not have conclusive scientific evidence of a cause-effect relationship, ample anecdotal evidence establishes a significant correlation. Moreover, both common sense and our experiences with children inform us that people tend to mimic the language and behavior they are exposed to.Secondly, I believe that obscene and offensive behavior is indeed harmful to a society. The harm it produces is, in my view, both palpable and profound. For the individual, it has a debasing impact on vital human relationships; for the society, it promotes a tendency toward immoral and antisocial behavior. Both outcomes, in turn, tear apart the social fabric that holds a society together.Those who advocate unbridled individual expression might point out that the right of free speech is intrinsic to a democracy and necessary to its survival. Even so, this right is not absolute, nor is it the most critical element. In my assessment, the interests server by restricting obscenity in broadcast media are, on balance, more crucial to the survival of a society. Advocates of free expression might also point out difficulties in defining "obscene" or "offensive" language or behavior. But in my view, however difficult it may be to agree on standards, the effort is worthwhile.In sum, it is in our best interest as a society for the government to censor broadcast media for obscene and offensive language and behavior Exposure to such media content tends to harm society and its citizenry in ways that are worth preventing, even in light of the resulting infringement of our right of free expression.法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文2"There is only one definition of success-to be able to spend your life in your own way. "To what extent do you agree or disagree-with this definition of success? Support your position by using reasons and examples from your reading, your own experience, or your observation of others. (少数和多数)Some people define success simply as the ability to choose how to spend one's life. Under this definition, people who have the freedom to do whatever they want at any time they choose would presumably be the most successful ones, while those who have no such freedom would be the biggest failures. Viewing the definition in this light reveals three serious problems with it.The chief problem with this definition of success is that by the definition nearly all people would be regarded as failures. The reason for this is simple. Most people have extremely limited choices in what they can do and when they can do it. In other words, unrestricted freedom of choice is a luxury only a few people-perhaps a handful of tyrannical dictators and ultra-wealthy individuals-can afford.Secondly, people who have a high degree of freedom in choosing their lifestyle often acquire it through means that would not earn them the accolade of being successful. For example, lottery winners or people who inherit a great deal of money may be able to spend their life in any way they choose, but few people would regard them as successful merely due to their financial fortune.A third reason why this definition of success is unacceptable is that it repudiates some of our basic intuitions about success. For most people, success is related to achievement. The more you achieve, the more successful you are: conversely, the less you achieve the less successful you are. Defining success in terms of freedom of choice ignores this intuition.In sum, the proposed definition of success is far too limited, and it belies our intuition about the concept. I think most people would agree with me that success is better defined in terms of the attainment of goals.法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文3A few points to bear in mind:Drop a coin and choose whichever side the coin suggestsDont keep pondering over it. You dont have the time to ponder, and the result of pondering will be no better than a random choice.Use the three-part and five-paragraph formatFirst tell people what you want to say, then say it, and finally tell people what you have just said.Give each of the main paragraphs a topic sentenceThe topic sentence tells the reader pointedly what you think. Remember that a topic sentence embodies a debatable statement that calls for support, development or elaboration. It expresses some sort of judgment rather than states hard facts.Put each option through both of the tests法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文4The English department at a university must choose a text for its first-year composition course. Write an argument in favor of selection either of the following texts with these. Considerations in mind:The department has a strong commitment to teaching basic writing skills, such as grammar and essay organization.The department wants to increase the students enthusiasm for and interest in writing.During the three years that the department has used The Standard Textbook of English, instructors in other departments have reported significant improvement in students writing skills. Nicknamed "The Best and the Dullest" the text contains classic essays from both ancient and modern authors and is organized to illustrate the various forms of the essay- such as narration, exposition, and persuasion. The essay average more than 10 pages and almost all are written in a formal style. While students find some of the subjects foreign, they feel the materials covered are often useful in their other coursework.A new text, The Modern Writer, contains both an introductions describing the basics of grammar and a number of journalistic essays by contemporary authors. The pieces are typicallyshort (only 2 to 3 pages) and explore topics of interest to most college students, such as popular music and career planning. The style of the essays tends to be informal, even colloquial. Each chapter contains several essays on a given topic and exercises designed to aid students in developing essays of their own. Although the introduction provides an adequate overview of basic grammar, the text does not discuss the essay form.法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文5English writing textbookI would urge the English Department to change its English composition textbook from The Standard Textbook of English to The Modern Writer. By helping to make the students more enthusiastic about writing, the new textbook should ultimately boost the students writing skills in general.To give credit where credit is due, we must acknowledge that The Standard Textbook of English is not a bad book. This textbook has shown itself to be somewhat effective in helping to improve the students basic writing skills, and it presents a variety of essay forms, exposing the students to different types of essays they have to either write or understand late on. It would be a safe choice for the department to continue its use of this time-tested book.But the past glories of the old textbook cannot hide its problems, particularly its dullness. The essays in this textbook are obviously too long for first-year students to appreciate their beauty. While various essay forms are illustrated in this textbook, they are often illustrated with content that students find very hard to relate to. Students using The Standard Textbook of English may have improved their writing skills in the past three years, but if that is true, they must have had a hard time doing so, to the possible detriment of their performance in other areas. Such problems can only be solved with a new textbook like The Modern Writer.The Modern Writer is such that it should generate a lot more enthusiasm in students for learning English writing. The essays in this book are much shorter and therefore easier for university beginners to grasp. Moreover, these essays explore topics that are of interest to most college students such as popular music and career planning. Given the built-in appeal in this new textbook, just no student will have to be compelled to read and learn from it. With this book, the students can be expected to learn while they are having fun or at least thinking of issues that they care about. In all likelihood, the enthusiastic student will be a better student than the bored student.The Modern Writer should be able to reach students basic writing skills at least as well as, if not better than,The Standard Textbook of English. The new textbook contains not only a good description of the basics of grammar but also carefully designed exercises to aid students in developing their own essays. In contrast, the old textbook may load the students with too much grammar but give them little chance to actually use it. With their enthusiasm and opportunities to practice, students should be able to pick up writing skills fairly easily, even those skills that are not fully covered by the textbook. The interested students can, for example, do their own research on essay forms.Although The Standard Textbook of English is okay as a writing textbook, The Modern Writer should now be preferred. The new textbook can match the old one in strength bur does not have its problems. Besides, the new textbook contains qualities that are not only lacking in the old one but also fundamentally important to the learning students.法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文6"If the primary duty and concern of a corporation is to make money, then conflict is inevitable when the corporation must also acknowledge a duly to serve society." From your perspective, how accurate is the above statement? Support your position with reasons and/or examples from your own experience, observations, or reading.We take for granted that a primary objective and obligation of a corporation is to maximize profits. But does this mean a corporation cannot also fulfill its obligations to society? The speaker claims mat the two duties necessarily conflict. In my view, however, a corporation's duties to maximize shareholder wealth and to serve society will at times coincide and at times conflict; and when they do conflict, neither takes automatic precedence over the other.Beyond the obvious duty to maximize shareholder wealth, corporations indeed owe a duty to serve society, especially the immediate community, which permits corporation to operate in exchange for an implied promise that the corporations will do no harm and will bring some benefit to the community These duties can often be fulfilled together. For example, a successful corporation brings jobs and elated economic benefit to the community. And, by contributing to community activities and charities in other ways, the corporation gains a reputation for social responsibility that often helps it become even more successful.However, at times these duties do conflict. Consider, for instance, a company that unknowingly leaks into the ground a toxic substance that threatens to contaminate local groundwater. While the company may favor an inexpensive containment program, communityleaders may want the company to go further by cleaning up and restoring their environment-even if the expense will force the company to leave and take jobs from the community. Whatever the company decides, it should not assume that protecting profits automatically outweighs social obligation. In many instances it does not, as highly-visible tobacco, automobile safety, and asbestos liability cases aptly illustrate. Such examples reveal a limit as to how far a corporation can ethically go in trading off the well-being of the community for the sake of its own profits,In sum, corporations have duties both to do well and to do good. Although conflict between these duties is not inevitable, it does occur. Determining which duty takes precedence in time of conflict requires careful consideration of all the ethical ramifications of each alternative.法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文7"In this age of automation, many people complain that humans are becoming subservient to machines. But, in fact, machines are continually improving our lives. " Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion expressed above. Support your point of view with reasons and/or examples from your own experience, observations, or reading. (技术进步对人类的影响)In this age of automation, many people complain that humans are becoming subservient to machines. In my point of view, in some respects humans serve machines, while in other respects machines serve us by enhancing our lives. While mechanical automation may have diminished our quality of life on balance, digital automation is doing more to improve our lives than to undermine our autonomy.Consider first mechanical automation, particularly assembly-line manufacturing. With automation came a loss of pride in and alienation from one's work. In this sense, automation both diminished our quality of life and rendered us slaves to machines in our inability to reverse "progress." Admittedly, mechanical automation spawned entire industries, creating jobs, stimulating economic growth, and supplying a plethora of innovative conveniences. Nevertheless, the sociological and environmental price of progress may have outweighed its benefits.Digital automation has brought its own brand of alienation. Computer automation, and especially the internet, breeds information overload and steals our time and attention away from family, community,and coworkers. In these respects, digital automation tends to diminish our quality of life and create its own legion of human slaves. On the other hand, by relegating repetitive tasks to computers, digits technology has spawned great advances in medicine and physics, helping us to better understand the world, to enhance our health, and to prolong our lives. Digital automation has also emancipated architects, artists, designers, and musicians, by openingup creative possibilities and by saving time. Perhaps most important, however, information technology makes possible universal access to information, thereby providing a democratizing influence on our culture.In sum, while mechanical automation may have created a society of slaves to modern conveniences and unfulfilling work, digital automation holds more promise for improving our lives without enslaving us to the technology.法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文8"Clearly, government has a responsibility to support the arts. However, if that support is going to produce anything of value, government must place no restrictions on the art that is produced. "To what extent do you agree or disagree with the opinion expressed above? Develop your position by giving specific reasons and/or examples from your own experience, observations, or reading. (国家和艺术的关系)The speaker argues that government must support the arts but at the same time impose no control over what art is produced. The implicit rationale for government intervention in the arts is that, without it, cultural decline and erosion of our social fabric will result. However, I find no empirical evidence to support this argument, which in any event is unconvincing in light of more persuasive arguments that government should play no part in either supporting or restricting the arts.First, subsidizing the arts is neither a proper nor necessary job for government. Although public health is generally viewed as critical to a society's very survival and therefore an appropriate concern of government, this concern should not extend tenuously to our cultural "health" or well-being. A lack of private funding might justify an exception: in my observation; however, philanthropy is alive and well today, especially among the new technology and media moguls.Second, government cannot possibly play an evenhanded role as arts patron. Inadequate resources call for restrictions; priorities, and choices, it is unconscionable to relegate normative decisions as to which art has "value" to a few legislators and jurists, who may be unenlightened in their notions about art. Also, legislators are all too likely to make choices in favor of the cultural agendas of those lobbyists with the most money and influence. Third, restricting artistic expression may in some cases encroach upon the constitutional right of free expression. In anycase, governmental restriction may chill creativity, thereby defeating the very purpose of subsidizing the arts.In the final analysis, government cannot philosophically or economically justify its involvement in the arts, either by subsidy or sanction. Responsibility lies with individuals to determine what art has value and to support that art.法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文9"Schools should be responsible only for teaching academic skills and not for leaching ethical and social values."Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion expressed above. Support your point of view with reasons and/or examples from your own experience, observations, or reading.(理想和现实)Many people assert that schools should teach only academic skills, and not ethical or social values. I agree with them insofar as instruction on certain moral issues is best left to parents and churches. However, in my view it is in the best interests of a democratic society for schools to teach at least the values necessary to preserve freedom and a democratic way of life, and perhaps even additional values that enrich and nurture asociety and its members.We all have in interest in preserving our freedom and democratic way of life. At the very least, then, schools should provide instruction in the ethical and social values required for our democracy to survive-particularly the values of respect and tolerance. Respect for individual persons is a basic ethical value that requires us to acknowledge the fundamental equality of all people, a tenet of a democratic society. Tolerance of differences among individuals and their viewpoints is required to actualize many of our basic constitutional rights-including life, liberty, pursuit of happiness, and freedom of speech and religion. While respect and tolerance are the minimal values that schools should teach, the list should ideally go further-to include caring, compassion, and willingness to help one another. A democracy might survive without these values, but it would not thrive. Respect and tolerance without compassion, it seems to me, breed a cool aloofness that undermines our humanity, and leaves those in the worst position to suffer more and suffer alone-an unhealthy state for any society.Admittedly, schools should avoid advocating particular viewpoints on controversial moral issues such as abortion or capital punishment. Instruction on issues with clear spiritual or religious implications is best left to parents and churches. Even so, schools should teach students how to approach these kinds of issues-by helping students to recognize their complexity and to clarify competing points of view. In doing so, schools can help breed citizens who approach controversy in the rational and responsible ways characteristic of a healthy democracy.In sum, schools should by all means refrain from indoctrinating our young people withparticular viewpoint on controversial questions of morality. However, it is in a democratic society's interest for schools to inculcate the democratic values of respect and tolerance, and perhaps even additional values that humanize and enrich a society..法学院入学考试(LSAT)写作范文10"A powerful business leader has far more opportunity to influence the course of a community or a nation than does any government official. " Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion stated above. Support your views with reasons and/or examples from your own experience, observations, or reading. (人民和政府的关系)Historical examples of both influential public officials and influential business leaders abound. However, the power of the modern-era business leader is quite different from that of the government official. On balance, the CEO seems to be better positioned to influence the course of community and of nations.Admittedly the opportunities for the legislator to regulate commerce or of the Jurist to dictate rules of equity are official and immediate. No private individual can hold that brand of influence. Yet official power is tempered by our check-and-balance system of government and, in the case of legislators, by the voting power of the electorate. Our business leaders are not so constrained, so their opportunities far exceed those of any public official. Moreover, powerful business leaders all too often seem to hold de facto(actual) legislative and judicial power by way of their direct influence over public officials, as the Clinton Administration's fund-raising scandal of 1997 illuminated all too well.The industrial and technological eras have bred such moguls of capitalism as Pullman, Rockefeller, Carnegie, and Gates, who by the nature of their industries and their business savvy, not by force of law, have transformed our economy, the nature of work, and our very day-to-day existence. Of course, many modem-day public servants have made the most of their opportunities, for example, the crime-busting mayor Rudolph Giuliani and the new-dealing President Franklin Roosevelt. Yet their impact seems to pale next to those of our modem captains of industry.In sum, modem business leaders by virtue of the far-reaching impact of their industries and of their freedom from external constraints, have supplanted lawmakers as the great opportunists of the world and prime movers of society.。

法学院入学考试(LSAT)阅读理解文章结构解析

法学院入学考试(LSAT)阅读理解文章结构解析

法学院入学考试(LSAT)阅读理解文章结构解析1读文章就像拎衣服,要将衣领拎起来,要将主要观点拎出来,其他内容都为它服务,都围着它转。

读观点时,作者要批评某个观点,常将它放在AT BEST的位置,以便全面主要观点在末端,少数在倒数第二段末句:(为了得出主要观点作铺垫)1. 基于一个有不同看法的观点,包括作者的观点(作者观点在末段)2. 解释或回答某个问题或某种现象或PUZZLE(首段描述该问题,末段回答)3. 评价某人或某人的观点主要观点在首段,少数在二段首句(先明白要讲什麽),有时观点具体内容在末端或倒数第二段末端1.作者详述某个观点(多数)2.解释或详述某人观点(作者没观点)3.描述新发现(新发现的过程)(作者没观点)A(FEBRUARY1996)(SuperPrep)第一篇:解释某个(历史学家)观点1. 历史学家对20世纪有关结婚的教会和法律意见赋予特殊意义。

法律方面2. 教会方面3. 某个历史学家对它赋予重要意义第二篇:解释(详述)某个观点(自己)(要结合以下内容)1.Nontraditional black women和filmmakers radical一样,与mainstream, realist cinematic 有problematic relation。

filmmakers radical方面2.Nontraditional black women方面3.举个例说明第三篇:描述某个理论(drifting continent)的发展(被接受的过程)1. 某人的drifting continent理论如果没有struggle,就不能成功2. 某人提出假设,J反对3. C提出支持4. 更有说服力的证据证明了该理论第四篇:评价某人观点1. 某人认为European Baroque反映了社会政治和文化的理念2. 3。

某人分析3. 某人的观点受其经验影响,高估了Baroque的作用。

法学院入学考试(LSAT)阅读理解文章结构解析2第一篇:详述自己某个观点1. 最近研究发现脊椎动物也像鱼一样会成群(schooling)(要结合以下内容)2. 如何成群3. 成群的PASSIVE ADVANTAGE4. 成群的ACTIVE ADVANTAGE5. 其他BENEFITS第二篇:解释某个疑问1. 觉得punishments公不公平的根源2. 有两种惩罚犯罪的原理:benefit to society和severity of the crime。

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读理解真题15(含答案)

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读理解真题15(含答案)

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读理解真题15(含答案)Directions: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.After thirty years of investigation into cell genetics, researchers made startling discoveries in the 1960s and early 1970s which culminated in the development of processes, collectively known as recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (rDNA) technology, for the active manipulation of a cell’s genetic code. The technology has created excitement and controversy because it involves altering DNA—which contains the building blocks of the genetic code.Using rDNA technology, scientists can transfer a portion of the DNA from one organism to a single living cell of another. The scientist chemically “snips”the DNA chain of the host cell at a predetermined point and attaches another piece of DNA from a donor cell at that place, creating a completely new organism.Proponents of rDNA research and development claim that it will allow scientists to find cures for disease and to better understand how genetic information controls an organism’s development. They also see many other potentially practical benefits, especially in the pharmaceutical industry. Some corporations employing the new technology even claim that by the end of the century all major diseases will be treated with drugs derived from microorganisms created through rDNA technology. Pharmaceutical products already developed, but not yet marketed, indicate that these predictions may be realized.Proponents also cite nonmedical applications for this technology. Energy production and waste disposal may benefit: genetically altered organisms could convert sewage and other organic material into methane fuel. Agriculture might also take advantage of rDNA technology to produce new varieties of crops that resist foul weather, pests, and the effects of poor soil.A major concern of the critics of rDNA research is that genetically altered microorganisms might escape from the laboratory. Because these microorganisms are laboratory creations that, in all probability (in all probability: adv.很可能), do not occur in nature, their interaction with the natural world cannot be predicted with certainty. It is possible that they could cause previously unknown, perhaps incurable diseases. The effect of genetically altered microorganisms on the world’s microbiological predator-prey relationships is another potentially serious problem pointed out by the opponents of rDNA research. Introducing a new species may disrupt or even destroy the existing ecosystem. The collapse of interdependent relationships among species, extrapolated to its extreme, could eventually result in the destruction of humanity.Opponents of rDNA technology also cite ethical problems with it. For example, it gives scientists the power to instantly cross evolutionary and species boundaries that nature took millennia to establish. The implications of such power would become particularly profound if genetic engineers were to tinker with human genes, a practice that would bring us one step closer to Aldous Huxley’s grim vision in Brave New World of a totalitarian society that engineers (策划,操纵) human beings to fulfill specific roles.1. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which one of the following?(A) explaining the process and applications of rDNA technology(B) advocating continued rDNA research and development(C) providing evidence indicating the need for regulation of rDNA research and development(D) summarizing the controversy surrounding rDNA research and development(E) arguing that the environmental risks of rDNA technology may outweigh its medical benefits2. According to the passage, which one of the following is an accurate statement about research into the genetic code of cells?(A) It led to the development of processes for the manipulation of DNA.(B) It was initiated by the discovery of rDNA technology.(C) It led to the use of new treatments for major diseases.(D) It was universally heralded as a great benefit to humanity.(E) It was motivated by a desire to create new organisms.3. The potential benefits of rDNA technology referred to in the passage include all of the following EXCEPT(A) new methods of waste treatment(B) new biological knowledge(C) enhanced food production(D) development of less expensive drugs(E) increased energy production4. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken an argument of opponents of rDNA technology?(A) New safety procedures developed by rDNA researchers make it impossible for genetically altered microorganisms to escape from laboratories.(B) A genetically altered microorganism accidentally released from a laboratory is successfully contained.(C) A particular rDNA-engineered microorganism introduced into an ecosystem attracts predators that keep its population down.(D) Genetically altered organisms designed to process sewage into methane cannot survive outside the waste treatment plant.(E) A specific hereditary disease that has plagued humankind for generations is successfully eradicated.5. The author’s reference in the last sentence of the passage to a society that engineers human beings to fulfill specific roles serves to(A) emphasize the potential medical dangers of rDNA technology(B) advocate research on the use of rDNA technology in human genetics(C) warn of the possible disasters that could result from upsetting the balance of nature(D) present Brave New World as an example of a work of fiction that accurately predicted technological developments(E) illustrate the sociopolitical ramifications of applying genetic engineering to humans6. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen an argument of the opponents of rDNA technology?(A) Agricultural products developed through rDNA technology are no more attractive toconsumers than are traditional crops.(B) Genetically altered microorganisms have no natural predators but can prey on a wide variety of other microorganisms.(C) Drugs produced using rDNA technology cost more to manufacture than drugs produced with traditional technologies.(D) Ecosystems are impermanent systems that are often liable to collapse, and occasionally do so.(E) Genetically altered microorganisms generally cannot survive for more than a few hours in the natural environment.。

(LSAT 逻辑考试)Set15

(LSAT 逻辑考试)Set15

Section IITime—35 minutes25 QuestionsDirections: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, More than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, You are to choose the best answer; that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous. or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer; blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. Rainfall in the drought plagued metropolitan area was heavier than usual for the month of June. Nevertheless, by the first o July the city’s water shortage was more severe than ever, and officials proposed drastic restrictions on the use of waterWhich one of the following, if true, helps to explain why the city’s water shortage was not alleviated by the first of July?(A) Moderate restrictions on the industrial use of water had gone into effect in the metropolitan area several months earlier.(B) Because of the heavier rainfall, people watered their lawns much less in June that they usually do in the metropolitan area during that month.(C) During the drought most residents of the metropolitan area had been informed about water conservation methods that would help them to reduce their water consumption significantly with a minimal reduction in their standard of living.(D) The per capita rate of the use of water in the metropolitan area was slightly lower in June that in each of the three previous months and significantly lower that in June of the previous year.2. Manager: I have circulated posting fro the position of Social Scientific Researched. Applicants must have either an earned doctorate and a track record of published research, or else five years’ work experience. The relevant fields for these requirements are sociology, psychology, and education.Which one of the applicants, as described below, does NOT meet the manager’s requirements?(A) Joanne Bernstein has worked for the department of education as coordinator of research for the pas eleven years. She also served for six years as director of the Save the Children Fun. For which she was awarded an honorary doctorate from the liberal arts college where she earned her bachelor’s degree. (B) Alvin Johnson is a doctoral candidate ate a local university and is currently working on dissertation. Prior to undertaking doctoral studies, he worked as a psychology research for seven years.(C) Edward St. John has worked as business consultant for the pas t ten years, during which time he has published six novels. He holds an earned doctorate from one of the nation’s foremost business schools.(D) Michael Roberts has published two highly regarded books on the problems of urban public schools and has a master’s degree in special education. He taught special education classes for two years and then for four years served as a research associate with the Mayor’s T ask Force on Education.(E) Alicia Arias holds an earned doctorate in sociology from a prestigious university and has published one book and fifteen research articles in sociology.3. Deer mice normally do not travel far from their nests, and deer mice that are moved more that half a kilometer from their nests generally never find their way back. Yet in one case, when researchers camped near a deer mouse nest and observed a young deer mouse for several weeks before moving it to an area over two kilometers away, the deer mouse found its way back to its nest near their camp I unless than two days.Which one of the followings, if true, most help to explain how the deer mouse might have found its way back to its nest?(A) The area to which the deer mouse was moved was dryer and more rocky than the area in which its nest was located.(B) The researchers released the deer mouse in a flat area across which their campfire smoke drifted.(C) There were very few deer mice in the area to which the deer mouse was moved.(D) The researchers had moved the deer muse in a small dark box, keeping the mouse calm before it was released.(E) Animals that prey on deer mice were common in the area to which the deer mouse was moved.4. The government’s proposed 8 percent cut in all subsidies to arts groups will be difficult for those groups to absorb. As can be seen, however, from their response to last year’s cut, it will not put them out of existence. Last year there was also an 8 percent cut and though private fund-raising was very difficult for the arts groups in the current necessary economy, the did survive.The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument(A) relies without warrant on the probability that the economy will improve(B) does not raise the issue of whether there should be any government subsidies to arts groups at all(C) equates the mere survival of the arts groups with their flourishing(D) Does not take into account that the dollar amount of the proposed cut is lower than the dollar amount of last year’s cut(E) Overlooks the possibility that the cumulative effect of the cuts will be more that the arts groups can withstand.5. The average literate person today spends significantly less time reading than the average literate person did 50 years ago, yet many more books are sold per year now than were sold 50 years ago.Each of the following, if true, help resolve the apparent discrepancy above EXCEPT:(A) The population of the literate people is significantly larger today that it was 50 years ago.(B) People who read books 50 years ago were more likely to read books borrowed from libraries that are people who read books today.(C) The average scholar ore other person who uses books professionally today owns and consults many more different books than did the average scholar or similar professional 50 years ago.(D) People of 50 years ago were more likely than people are today to display large collections of books as a sign of education and good taste.(E) Books sold now tend to be shorter and easier to read that were books sold 50 years ago6. Some scientists believe that the relationship between mice and humans has, over time, diminished the ability of mice to survive in nature, so that now the must depend upon human civilization for their continued existence. This opinion, however, ignores significant facts. Despite numerous predators and humanity’s enmity, mice have distributed themselves more widely across the planet than any other mammal except humans. Mice reproduce rapidly and, more important to their survival, they have the ability to adapt to an extraordinary range of habitats. Should the environment ever become too extreme to support human life, naturalists predict that mice would be able to adapt and survive.Which one of the following, if true, would most support the naturalists’ prediction?(A) The size of the mouse population is limited by the availability of food.(B) Under optimum conditions, mice reproduce every four weeks, with five to seven pups per litter.(C) Fossil remains prove that mice inhabited North America prior to the arrival of humans.(D) Mice have colonized and island near Antarctica which is too bleak and harsh to support human life.(E) A significant percentage of the world’s mouse population lives in urban areas7. all zebras have stripes, and the most widespread subspecies has the best-defined stripes. The stripes must therefore be of importance to the species. Since among these grassland grazers the stripes can hardly function as camouflage, they must serve as some sort of signal for other zebras.Which one of the following, if true, most strongly supports the conclusion regarding a signaling function?(A) The subspecies of zebras with the best-defined strips is also characterized by exceptional size and vigor.(B) In certain tall grasses zebras can be harder to spot than grazing animals with a coat of uniform color.(C) A visual signal transmitted among the members of a species can consist of a temporary change of color perceptible to other members of the species.(D) Zebras react much faster to moving shapes that have stripes than they do to moving shapes that are otherwise identical but lack stripes(E) Zebras have a richer repertoire of vocal signals than do similar species such as horses.8. Some years ago, an editorial defended Unite States government restrictions on academic freedom,arguing that scientists who receive public funding cannot rightly “ detach themselves from the government’s policies on national security.” Yet the same editorial criticized the Soviet government for not allowing scientists to “detach themselves from politics.” If there is a significant difference between the principles involved in each case, the editorial should have explained what that difference is.The author of the passage criticizes the editorial by(A) disputing certain factual claims made in the editorial(B) pointing out an apparent inconsistency in the editorial(C) describing an alleged exception to a general claim made in the editorial(D) refuting an assumption on which the argument of the editorial appears to have been based(E) drawing conclusions form the editorial different form the conclusion drawn by the writer of the editorial9. Ph.D. programs are valuable only if they inculcate good scholarship and expedite the student’s full participation in the field. Hence, doctoral dissertations should not be required in the humanities. Undertaking a quality book-length dissertation demands an accumulation of knowledge virtually impossible for those relatively new to their disciplines. The student consequently either seeks to compensate for poor quality with quantity or ends up spending years producing a work of quality. Either way, the dissertation is counterproductive and frustrates the appropriate goals of the doctoral program.The claim that doctoral dissertations should not be required in the humanities play which one of the following roles in the argument?(A) It provides essential support for the conclusion.(B) It is an example illustrative of a general principle concerning the goals of Ph.D. programs.(C) It is what the argument is attempting to establish.(D) It provides evidence for the assumption that requirements for degrees in other disciplines.(E) It confirms the observation that the requirement for a dissertation can frustrate the goals of a doctoral program.10. The government of Penglai, an isolated island, proposed eliminating outdoor adverting except for small signs of standard shape that identify places of business. Some island merchants protested that the law would reduce the overall volume of business in Penglai, pointing to a report done by the government indicating that in every industry the Penglai businesses that used outdoor advertising had a larger market share than those that did not.Which one of the following describes an error of reasoning in the merchants’ argument?(A) presupposing that there are no good reasons for restricting the use of outdoor advertising in Penglai.(B) Assuming without giving justification that the outdoor advertising increased market share by some means other than by diverting trader form competing businesses.(C) Ignoring the question of whether the government’s survey of the island could be objective.(D) Failing to establish whether the market-share advantage enjoyed by businesses employing outdoor advertising was precisely.(E) Disregarding the possibility that the government’s proposed restrictions are unconstitutional.11. Unless they are used as strictly temporary measures, rent-control ordinances ( municipal regulations placing limits on rent increases) have several negative effects for renters. One of these is that the controls will bring about a shortage of rental units. This disadvantage for renters occurs over the long run, but the advantage –smaller rent increases—occurs immediately. In many municipalities, specifically in all those where tenants of rent-control units have a secure hold on political power and can get rent-control ordinances enacted or repealed, it is invariably the desire for short –term gain that guides those tenants in the exercise of that power.If the statements above are true, which one of the following can be properly inferred form them?(A) It is impossible for landlords to raise rents when rent controls are in effect.(B) In many municipalities rent-control ordinances are repealed as soon as shortages of rental unites arise.(C) The only negative effect of tent control for renters is that it brings about a shortage of rental units.(D) In many municipalities there is now, or eventually will be, a shortage of rental units.(E) In the long term, a shortage of rental units will raise rents substantially.Questions 12-13In many languages other than English there is a word for “ mother’s brother” which is different from the word for “father’s brother.” Whereas English uses the word “uncle” for both. Thus, speakers of these languages evidence a more finely discriminated kinship system than English speakers do. The number of basic words for colors also caries widely from language to language. Therefore. Speakers of languages that have fewer basic words for colors than English has must be perceptually unable to distinguish as many colors as speakers of English can distinguish.12. which one of the following, if true, undermines the conclusion concerning words for colors?(A) Speakers of English are able to distinguish between lighter and darker shades of the color they call “blue,” for which Russian has two different basic words.(B) Almost every language distinguishes red from the other colors.(C) Khmer uses a basic word corresponding to English “blue” for most leaves, but uses its basic word corresponding to English “green” for unripe bananas.(D) The word “orange” in English has the same origin as the equivalent word in Spanish.(E) Most languages do not have a basic word that distinguishes gray from other colors, although gray is commonly found in nature.13. The conclusion concerning words for colors would be properly draw if which one of the following were assumed?(A) Most languages have distinct words for “sister” and “brother.”(B) Each language has a different basic word for each sensory quality that its speakers can perceptually distinguish.(C) Every language makes some category distinctions that no other language makes.(D) In any language shot, frequently used words express categories that are important for its speakers to distinguish perceptually form each other.(E) Speaker of languages with relatively few basic words for colors live in geographical regions where flora and fauna do not vary greatly in colorQuestions 14—15Zachary: One world have to be blind to the reality of moral obligation to deny that people who believe a course of action to be morally obligatory for them have both the right and the duty to pursue that action, and that no one else has any right to stop them form doing so.Cynthia: But imagine an artist who feels morally obliged to do whatever she can to prevent works of art from being destroyed confronting a morally committed antipornography demonstrator engaged in destroying artworks he deems pornographic. According to your principle that artist has, simultaneously, both the right and the duty to stop the destruction and no right whatsoever to stop it.14. Cynthia’s response to Zachary’s claim is structured to demonstrate that(A) the concept of moral obligation is incoherent(B) the ideas of right and duty should not be taken seriously since doing so leads to morally undesirable consequences.(C) Zachary’s principle is untenable on its own terms.(D) Zachary’s principle is based on an understanding of moral obligation that is too narrow to encompass the kind of moral obligation artists feel toward works of art15. Which one of the following, if substituted for the scenario invoked by Cynthia, would preserve the force of her argument?(A) a medical researcher who feels a moral obligation not to claim sole credit for work that was performed in part by someone else confronting another researcher who feels no such moral obligation(B) a manufacturer who feels a moral obligation to recall potentially dangerous products confronting a consumer advocate who feels morally obliged to expose product defects(C) an investment baker who believes that governments are morally obliged to regulate major industries confronting and investment banker who holds that governments nave a moral obligation not to interfere with market forces(D) an architect who feels amoral obligation to design only energy-efficient buildings confronting, as a potential client, a corporation that believes its primary moral obligation is to maximize shareholder profits (E) a health inspector who feels morally obliged to enforce restrictions on the number of cats a householder may keep confronting a householder who, feeling morally obliged to keep every stray that comes along ,has over twice that number of cats.16. A county airport, designed to serve the needs of private aircraft owners, planned to cover its operating expenses in part by charging user fees to private aircraft using the airport. The airport was unable to pay its operating expenses because the revenue from user fees was lower that expected.If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true?(A) Most of the country’s citizens live a convenient distance from one or another airport now offering commercial airline services.(B) Private aircraft owners were unwilling to pay the user fees charged at the airport(C) The airport’s construction was financed exclusively by private funds(D) The airport’s operating expenses were greater than the revenues raised from sources other than the airport user fees for private planes(E) The number of owners of private aircraft who use the county’s airport facilities will not change appreciably in the futureQuestions 17—18Consumer activist: By allowing major airlines to abandon, as they promptly did, all but their most profitable routes, the government’s decision to cease regulation of the airline industry has worked to the disadvantage of everyone who lacks access to large metropolitan airport.Industry representative: On the contrary, where major airlines moved out, regional airlines have moved in and ,as a consequence, there are more flights into and out of most small airports now that before the change in regulatory policy.17. The industry representative’s argument will not provide an effective answer to the consumer activist’s claim unless which one of the following is true?(A) No small airport has fewer flights now than it did before the change in policy regarding regulation of the airline industry.(B) When permitted to do so by changes in regulatory policy, each major airline abandoned all but large metropolitan airports.(C) Policies that result in an increase in the number of flights to which consumers have easy access do not generally work to the disadvantage of consumers.(D) Regional airlines charge les to fly a given route now that the major airlines charged when they flew the same route.(E) Any policy that leads to an increase in the number of competitors in a given field works to the long-term advantage of consumers.18. Which one of the following is assumption on which the consumer activist’s argument depends?(A) Before the recent change in regulatory policy, there was no advantage in having easy access to large metropolitan airport.(B) When any sizable group of consumers is seriously disadvantaged by a change in government policy, thatchange should be reversed.(C) Government regulation of industry almost always works to the advantage of consumers.(D) At the time of the regulatory change, the major airlines were maintaining their less profitable routes at least in part be4cause of government requirements.(E) Regional airlines lack the resources to provides consumers with service of the same quality as that provided by the major airlines.19. A report on the likely effects of current levels o air pollutions on forest growth in North America concluded that, since nitrogen is necessary nutrient for optimal plant growth, the nitrogen deposited on forest soil as result of air pollution probably benefits eastern forests. However, European soil scientists have found that in forests saturated with sulfate and nitrate, tress begin to die when the nitrogen deposited exceeds the amount of nitrogen absorbed by the forest system. Since this finding is likely to apply to forests everywhere, large areas of eastern forests of North America are, undoubtedly, already being affected adversely.Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?(A) The implication of the report cited is that the amount of nitrogen reaching eastern forests by way of polluted air is approximately what those forests need for optimal growth.(B) If large areas of eastern forests were increasingly saturated with sulfate and nitrate, the capacity of those forest systems for absorbing nitrogen would also increase.(C) The type of analysis used by European soil scientists does not necessarily apply to eastern forests of North America.(D) The eastern forests are the only forests of North America currently affected by polluted air.(E) Contrary to the report cited, the nitrogen pollution now in the air is more likely to cause trees to die in eastern forests than to benefit them.20. Railroad spokesperson: Of course it is a difficult task to maintain quality of service at the same time that the amount of subsidy the taxpayers give the railroad network is reduced. Over recent years, however, the number of passengers has increased in spite of subsidy reductions. This fact leads to the conclusion that our quality of service has been satisfactory.The spokesperson’s argument is based on which one of the following assumptions?(A) T axpayers do not wish to have their taxes raised to subsidize the railroads.(B) Some people refuse to travel by train if they are dissatisfied with the quality of service.(C) The quality of service on the trains must have improved in spite of subsidy reductions.(D) It is impossible to reduce subsidies to the railroad network without some effect on the quality of service.(E) The increase in the number of passengers will increase revenue sufficiently to offset the subsidy reductions21. In response to high mortality in area hospitals, surgery was restricted to emergency procedures duringa five-week period. Mortality in these hospitals was found to have fallen by nearly one-third during the period.The number of deaths rose again when elective surgery(surgery that can be postponed) was resumed. It can be concluded that ,before the five –week period, the risks of elective surgery had been incurred unnecessarily often in the area.Which one of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the conclusion above?(A) The conclusions for which elective surgery was performed would in the long run have been life-threatening, and surgery for them would have become riskier with time.(B) The physicians planning elective surgery performed before the five-week period had fully informed the patients who would undergo it of the possible risks of the procedures.(C) Before the suspension of elective surgery, surgical operations were performed in area hospitals at a higher rate, per thousand residents of the area, than was usual elsewhere.(D) Elective surgery is, in general, less risky than is emergency surgery because the conditions requiring or indicating surgery are often less severe.(E) Even if a surgical procedure is successful, the patient can die of a hospital-contracted infection with a bacterium that is resistant to antibiotic treatment.22. Gallery owner: Because this painting appears in no catalog of van Gogh’s work, we cannot guarantee that he painted it. But consider the subject is one he painted often, and experts agree that in his later paintings van Gogh invariably used just such broad brushstrokes and distinctive combinations of colors as we find here. Internal evidence, therefore, makes it virtually certain that this is a previously uncataloged, late van Gogh, and as such, a bargain at its price.The reasoning used by the gallery owner is flawed because it(A) ignores the fact that there can be general agreement that something is the case without its being the case(B) neglects to cite expert authority to substantiate the claim about the subject matter of the painting(C) assumes without sufficient warrant that the only reason anyone would want to acquire a painting is to make a profit(D) provides no evidence that the painting is more likely to be an uncataloged van Gogh than to be a painting by someone else who painted that particular subject in van Gogh’s style.(E) Attempts to establish a particular conclusion because doing so is in the reasoner’s self-interest rather than because of any genuine concern for the truth of the matter.23. Government-subsidized insurance available to home owners makers it feasible for anyone to build a house on a section of coastline regularly struck by hurricanes. Each major storm causes billions of dollars worth of damage in such coastal areas, after which owners who have insurance are able to collect an amount of money sufficient to recoup a high percentage of their losses.(A) that power companies be required to bury power lines in areas of the coastline regularly struck by hurricanes(B) an increase in funding of weather service programs that provide a hurricane watch and warning system for coastal areas(C) renewal of federal funding for emergency life-support programs in hurricane-stricken areas(D) establishment of an agency committed to managing coastal lands in ecologically responsible ways(E) establishment of a contingency fund protecting owners of uninsured houses in the coastal areas from catastrophic losses due to the hurricane damage.24. Between 1951 and 1963, it was illegal in the country of Geronia to manufacture, sell, or transport any alcoholic beverages. Despite this prohibition, however, the death rate form diseases during the first five years of the period than it was during the five years prior to 1951. Therefore, the attempt to prevent alcohol use merely make people want and use alcohol more than they would have it had not been forbidden. Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:(A) Death form an alcohol-related disease generally does not occur until five to ten years after the onset of excessive alcohol consumption.(B) The diseases that can be caused by excessive alcohol consumption can also be caused by other kinds of behavior that increased between 1951 and 1963.(C) The death rate resulting from alcohol-related diseases increase just as sharply during the ten years before and the ten years after the prohibition of alcohol as it did during the years of prohibition.(D) Many who died of alcohol-related diseases between 1951 and 1963 consumed illegally imported alcoholic beverages produced by the same methods as those used within Geronia.(E) Between 1951 and 1963, among the people with preexisting alcohol-related diseases, the percentage who obtained lifesaving medical attention declined because of a social stigma attached to excessive alcohol consumption.25. A letter submitted to the editor of a national newsmagazine was written and signed by a Dr. Shirley Martin who, in the text of the letter, mentions being a professor at a major North American medical school. Knowing that fewer than 5 percent of the professors at such schools are women, the editor reasons that the chances are better than 19 to 1 that the letter was written by a man.Which one of the following involves flawed reasoning most like that used by the editor?(A) Since 19 out of 20 home computers are purchased primarily for use with computer games, and the first computer sold today was purchased solely for word processing, the next 19 computers sold will almost certainly be used primarily for computer games.(B) Fewer than 1 in 20 of the manuscripts submitted to Argon Publishing Vo. Are accepted for publication. Since only 15 manuscripts were submitted last week, there is almost no chance that any of them will be accepted for publication.(C) Fewer that 5 percent of last year’s graduating class took Latin in secondary school. Howard took Latin in secondary school, so if he had graduated last year, it is likely that one or the other Latin scholars would not have graduated.(D) More that 95 percent of the planes built by UBC last year met government standards for large airliners. Since small planes account for just under 5 percent of UBC’s output last year, it is almost certain that all their large planes met government standards.。

LSAT逻辑分析

LSAT逻辑分析

GRE逻辑分析辅助材料LSAT 逻辑分析 9 sectionsLeo.XuMay 1st, 2001SECTION 1Time-35 minutes23 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Questoins 1-6 A man buys three outfits-X, Y, and Z-each of which consists of two articles of clothing. Each of the articles of clothing is either brown gray or navy. At least one of the outfits is made up of two articles different in color from one another. No more than two of the outfits contain the same combination of colors. Outfit X contains at least one navy article of clothing. Outfit X contains at least one brown article of clothing and does not contain a gray article.1. Which one of the following can be the colors of the man's outfits? (A) X: gray and navy; Y: brown and gray; Z: gray and gray (B) X: brown and gray; Y: brown and navy; Z: gray and gray (C) X: navy and navy; Y: brown and brown; Z: brown and navy (D) X: brown and navy; Y: brown and navy; Z: brown and navy (E) X: navy and navy; Y: brown and brown; Z: navy and navy2. If outfits X and Y each consist of one brown article and one navy article of clothing, what combinations for outfit Z? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 63. If outfit Z does not contain two brown items of clothing, what is the maximum number of items of clothing in the three outfits that can be navy? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 54. If outfit Y consists of two brown articles of clothing and outfit Z consists of two navy items, what is the total number of possible color combinations for outfit X? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 55. Which one of the following color combinations for outfit Z would be acceptable under any of the acceptable color combinations for outfits X and Y? (A) gray and gray (B) brown and gray (C) brown and brown (D) brown and navy (E) navy and navy6. If no two outfits contain the same color combination but each contains at least one navy item, which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the possible combinations for outfit X? (A) gray and navy (B) brown and navy (C) navy and navy (D) gray and navy; brown and navy (E) gray and navy; navy and navyQuestion 7-11 Five seats on a train are arranged in two rows that face each other. The seats in row 1 are seat 1 and seat 2. The seats in row 2 are seat 3, seat 4, and seat 5 in that order. Seat 1 is directly across from seat 3. Seat 2 is directly across from seat 4. Seat 5 is not directly across from any other seat. Three women-, Betty, and Carol-and two men-David Edmund-each must be seated in one of me five seats, one person to a seat. Carol sits next to neither Betty nor David. Alice does not sit directly across from Carol.7. If Edmund sits directly across from Betty, which one of the following must be true? (A) Alice does not sit directly across from anyone. (B) Alice sits directly across from David. (C) Alice sits next to Edmund. (D) David sits next to Alice. (E) David sits next to Edmund.8. If Edmund does not sit directly across from anyone, which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of those (other than Edmund) who cannot sit in seat 1? (A) Betty (B) Carol (C) David (D) Betty and Carol (E) Betty and David9. If none of the five passengers sits directly across from a passenger of the same sex, how many seating arrangements of the five passengers are possible? (A) exactly 0 (B) exactly 1 (C) exactly 2 (D) exactly 3 (E) exactly 410. How many of the seats could be the one Alice selects as her seat? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 4 only (E) 5 only11. How many different seating arrangements of the passengers might there be for row 2? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6Question 12-17 Six people-Julio, Kevin, May, Norma, Olivia, and T amio-participate in a track meet. Two of them enter the marathon, two enter the relay, and two enter the sprint. Each participant enters only one event. If Kevin enters the marathon, then both Julio and May enter the relay, and if both Julio and May enter the relay, then Kevin enters the marathon. If Norma does not enter the sprint, then T amio enters the relay. If Olivia enters the relay, then Julio does not enter the relay. Olivia and T amio do not both enter the relay.12. If Kevin enters the marathon, then which one of the following cannot be true? (A) Julio enters the relay and Norma enters the sprint. (B) Olivia enters the marathon and Norma enters the sprint. (C) T amio enters the marathon and Olivia enters the sprint. (D) T amio enters the relay and Olivia enters the sprint. (E) T amio enters the marathon and May enters the sprint.13. If Norma enters the marathon, then which one of the following cannot be true? (A) Both Kevin and Olivia enter the sprint. (B) Kevin enters the relay and Olivia enters the sprint. (C) Kevin enters the marathon and May enters the relay. (D) Julio enters the marathon and May enters the relay. (E) Julio enters the marathon and Kevin enters the relay.14. If both Kevin and Olivia enter the relay, then which one of the following must be true? (B) May enters the marathon. (C) May enters the sprint. (D) T amio enters the sprint. (E) Norma enters the sprint.15. If both Julio and Kevin enter the same event, then which of the following can be true? Ⅰ.Julio enters the relay. Ⅱ. May enters the marathon. Ⅲ. Olivia enters the relay. (A) Ⅰonly (B) Ⅱ only (C) Ⅲ only (D) Ⅰand Ⅱonly (E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ,and Ⅲ16. If Norma and Olivia each enter different events, then which one of the following cannot be true? (A) Kevin and Olivia enter the marathon. (B) Julio and Norma enter the relay. (C) May and Olivia enter the relay. (D) Norma and T amio enter the relay. (E) Olivia enters the sprint and T amio enters the relay.17. If both Julio and Kevin enter the relay, then which one of the following must be false? (A) May and Norma enter the marathon. (B) May and Olivia enter the marathon. (C) Norma and T amio enter the sprint. (D) May and Norma enter the sprint. (E) May enters the sprint and T amio enters marathon.Questions 18-23 Seven lights-J, K, L, M, N, O, and P-have only two possible settings: on or off. They are arranged on a particular electric circuit as follows. If K is on, L is off; if K is off, L is on. J and N cannot both be on. If M is off, either J or N is on; if either J or N is on, M is off. If P is on, L is on. If O is off, N is off; if O is on, N is on. Assume that the circuit is working as designed.18. Any of the following can be true EXCEPT: (A) J and O are both off. (B) K and N are both off. (C) K and P are both on. (D) L and M are both on. (E) N and O are both on.19. If L and O are on, which one of the following must be true? (A) J is and K is off. (B) J is off and N is on. (C) K is off and M is on. (D) K is off and P is on. (E) M is off and P is on.20. Which one of the following can be true? (A) Only J, K, and M are off. (B) Only J, L, and M are off. (C) Only K, M, and O are off. (D) Only L, N, and O are off. (E) Only M, N, and O are off.21. If P is on, what is the maximum number of lights that can be off? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 522. What is the minimum number of lights that must be on? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 423. If J is on, which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the remaining lights that are also on? (A) K, L, and M (B) L, N, and P (C) L, O, and P (D) M, N, and O(E) L and PCDEBB EAEBD CDCED BACBA CCEsection 2Time-35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions. If may be useful to draw a rough diagram Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheetQuestion 1-6Eight new students-R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z-are being divided among exactly three classes-class 1, class 2, and class3. Classes 1 and 2 will gain three new students each: class 3 will gain two new students. The following restrictions apply: R must be added to class 1. S must be added to class 3. Neither S nor W can be added to the same class as Y. V cannot be added to the same class as Z. If T is added to class 1, Z must also be added to class 1.1.Which one of the following is an acceptable assignment of students to the three classes? 1 2 3 (A) R, T, Y V, W, X S, Z (B) R, T, Z S, V, Y W, X (C) R, W, X V, Y, X S, T (D) R, X, Z T, V, Y S, W (E) R, X, Z V, W, Y S, T2.Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of classes any one of which could be the class to which V is added? (A) class 1 (B) class 3 (C) class 1, class 3 (D) class 2, class 3 (E) class 1, class 2, class 3.3.If X is added to class 1, which one of the following is a student who must be added to class 2? (A) T (B) V (C) W (D) Y (E) Z4.If X is added to class 3, each of the following is a pair of students who can be added to class 1 EXCEPT (A) Y and Z (B) W and Z (C) V and Y (D) V and W (E) T and z5.If T is added to class 3, which one of the following is a student who must be added to class 2? (B) W (C) X (D) Y (E) Z6.Which one of the following must be true? (A) If T and X are added to class 2. V is added to class 3. (B) If V and W are added to class 1. V is added to class 3. (C) If V and W are added to class 1. V is added to class 3. (D) If V and X are added to class 1. V is added to class 3. (E) If Y and Z are added to class 2. V is added to class 2.Question 7-12Four lions-F, G, H, J-and two tigers-K and M-will be assigned to exactly six stalls, one animal per stall. The stalls are arranged as follows: First Row: 1 2 3 Second Row: 4 5 6The only stalls that face each other are stalls 1 and 4, stalls 2 and 5, and stalls 3 and 6. The following conditions apply: The tigers' stalls cannot face each other. A lion must be assigned to stall 1 H must be assigned to stall 6. J must be assigned to a stall numbered one higher than K's stall. K cannot be assigned to the stall that faces H's stall.7. Which one of the following must be true? (A) F is assigned to an even-numbered stall (B) F is assigned to stall 1 (C) J is assigned to stall 2 or else stall 3 (D) J is assigned to stall 3 or else stall 4 (E) K is assigned to stall 2 or else stall 48. Which one of the following could be true? (A) F's stall is numbered one higher than J's stall (B) H's stall faces M's stall (C) J is assigned to stall 4 (D) K's stall faces J'S stall (E) K's stall is in a different row than J's stall9. Which one of the following must be true? (A) A tiger is assigned to stall 2 (B) A tiger is assigned to stall 5 (C) K's stall is in a different row from M's stall (D) Each tiger is assigned to an even-numbered stall (E) Each lion is assigned to a stall that faces a tiger is stall10. If K's stall is in the same row as H's stall which one of the following must be true? (A) F's stall is in the same row as J's stall (B) F is assigned to a lower-numbered stall than G (C) G is assigned to a lower-numbered stall than M (D) G's stall faces H's stall (E) M's stall is in the same row as G's stall11. If J is assigned to stall 3, which one of the following could be true? (A) F is assigned to stall 2 (B) F is assigned to stall 4 (C) G is assigned to stall 1 (D) G is assigned to stall 4 (E) M is assigned to stall 512. Which one of the following must be true (A) A tiger is assigned to stall 2 (B) A tiger is assigned to stall 4 (C) A tiger is assigned to stall 5 (D) A lion is assigned to stall 3Question 13-18On an undeveloped street, a developer will simultaneously build four houses on one side, numbered consecutively 1, 3, 5, and 7, and four houses on the opposite side, numbered consecutively 2, 4, 6, and 8. Houses 2, 4, 6, and 8 will face houses 1, 3, 5, and 7, respectively. Each house will be exactly one of three styles-ranch, split-level or Tudor-according to the following conditions: Adjacent houses are of different styles. No split-level house faces another split-level house. Every ranch house has at least one Tudor house adjacent to it House 3 is a ranch house. House 6 is a split-level house.13. Any of the following could be a Tudor house EXCEPT house (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 7 (E) 814. If there is one ranch house directly opposite another ranch house, which one of the following could be true? (A) House 8 is a ranch house (B) House 7 is a split-level house. (C) House 4 is a Tudor house. (D) House 2 is a split-level house. (E) House 1 is a ranch house.15. If house 4 is a Tudor house, then it could be true that house (A) 1 is a Tudor house (B) 2 is a Tudor house (C) 5 is a Tudor house (D) 7 is a Tudor house (E) 8 is a Tudor house16. On the street, there could be exactly. (A) one ranch house (B) one Tudor house (C) two Tudor houses (D) four ranch houses (E) five ranch houses17. If no house faces a house of the same style, then it must be true that house (A) 1 is a split-level house (B) 1 is a Tudor house (C) 2 is a ranch house (D) 2 is a split-level house (E) 4 is a Tudor house18. If the condition requiring house 6 to be a split-level house is suspended but all other original conditions remain the same, the any of the following could be an accurate list of the styles of houses 2, 4, 6, and 8, respectively, EXCEPT: (A) ranch, split-level, ranch, Tudor (B) split-level, ranch, Tudor, split-level (C) split-level, Tudor, ranch, split-level (D) Tudor, ranch. Tudor, split-level (E) Tudor split-level, ranch, TudorQuestions 19-24Within a tennis league each of five teams occupies one of five positions, numbered 1 through 5 in order of rank, with number 1 as the highest position. The teams are initially in the order R, J, S, M, L, with R in position 1. T eams change positions only when a lower-positioned team defeats a higher-positioned team. The rules are as follows: Matches are played alternately in odd-position rounds and in even-position rounds. In an odd-position round, teams in position 3 and 5 play against teams positioned immediately above them. In an even-position round, teams in position 2 and 4 play against teams positioned immediately above them.19. Which one of the of following could be the order of teams, from position 1 through position 5 respectively, after exactly one round of even-position matches if no odd-position round has yet been played? (A) J , R, M, L, S (B) J, R, S, L, M (C) R, J, M, L, S (D) R, J, M, S, L (E) R, S, J, L, M20. If exactly two rounds of matches have been played, beginning with an odd-position round, and if the lower-positioned teams have won every match in those two rounds, then each of the following must be true EXCEPT: (A) L is one position higher than J. (B) R is one position higher than L. (C) S is one position higher than R. (D) J is in position 4. (E) M is position 3.21. Which one of the following could be true after exactly two rounds of matches have been played? (A) J has won two matches. (B) L has lost two matches. (C) R has won two matches. (D) L's only match was played against J. (E) M played against S in two matches.22. If after exactly three rounds of matches M is in position 4, and J and L have won all of their matches, then which one of the following can be true? (A) J is in position 2. (B) J is in position 3. (C) L is in position 2. (D) R is in position 1. (E) S is in position 3.23. If after exactly three rounds M has won three matches and the rankings of the other four teams relative to each other remain the same, then which one of the following must be in position 3? (A) J (B) L (C) M (D) R (E) S24. If after exactly three rounds the teams, in order from first to fifth position, are R, J, L, S, and M, then which one of the following could be the order, from first to fifth position, of the teams after the second round? (A) J, R, M, S, L (B) J, L, S, M, R (C) R, J, S, L, M (D) R, L, M, S, J (E) R, M, L, S, JDEAEC DEBCE CBDBA AEADE ACACsection 3Time-35 minutes24 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to araw a rough diagram. Choose the resoonse that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Questions 1-6 Seven students-fourth-year students Kim and Lee; third-year students Pat and Robin: and second-year students Sandy, T ety and V al-and only those seven, are being assigned a rooms of equal size in a dormitory. Each room assigned must have either one or two or three students assigned to it and will accordingly be called either a single or a double or a triple. The seven students are assigned to moms in accordence with the following conditions: Lio fourth-year student can be assigned to a triple. No second-year student can be assigned to a single. Lee and Pobin must not share the same room Kim and Pat must share the same room.1. Which one of the following is a combination of rooms to which the seven students could be assigned? (A) two triples and one single (C) three doubles and a stngle (D) two doubles and three singles (E) one double and five singles2. It the room assigned to Robin is a single, which one of the following could be true? (A) There is exactly one double that has a second-year student assigned to it. (B) Lee is assigned to a stngle. (C) Sandy Fat and one other student are zseigned to a triple together. (D) Lixactly three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles (E) Exactly two of the rooms assigned to the students are doubles.3. Which one of the following must be true? (A) Lee is assigned to a single (B) Pat sharts a double with another student (C) Robin shares a double with another student (D) Two of the second-year students share a double with each other (E) Neither of the third-year students is assigned to a single4. If Robin is assigred to a triple, which one of the following must be true? (A) Lee is assigned to a single (B) Two second-year students share a double with each other (C) None of the rooms assigned to the students is a single (D) Two of the rooms assigned to the students are singles. (E) Three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles5. If T erry and V al assigned to different doubles from each other, other, then it must be true of the students' rooms that exactly (A) one is a single (B) two are singles (C) two are doubles (D) one is a triple (E) two are triples6. Which one of the following could be true? (A) The two fourth-year students are assigned to singles. (B) The two fourth-year students share a double with cach other. (C) Lee shares a room with a second-year student (D) Lee shares a room with a third-year student (E) Pat shares a triple with two other studentsQuestions 7-11 A worker will insert colored light bulbs into a billboard equipped with exactly three light sockets, which are labled lights 1, 2, and 3. The worker has three green bulbs, three purple bulbs, and three yellow bulbs. Seiection of bulbs for the sockets is governed by the following conditions: Whenever light 1 is purple, light 2 must be yellow. Whenever light 2 is purple, light 1 must be green. Whenever light 3 is either purple or yellow, light 2 must be purple.7. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colors of light bulbs selected for lights 1, 2 and 3, respectively? (A) green, green, yellow (B) purple, green, green (C) purple, purple, green (D) yellow, purple, green (E) yellow, yellow, yellow8. If light 1 is yellow, then any of the following can be true, EXCEPT: (A) Light 2 is green. (B) Light 2 is purple (C) Light 3 is green (D) Light 3 is purple (E) Light 3 is yellow9. There is exactly one possible color sequence of the three lights if which one of the following is true? (A) Light 1 is purple. (B) Light 2 is purple. (C) Light 2 is yellow (D) Light 3 is purple. (E) Light 3 is yellow (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four (E) five11. If no two lights are assigned light bulbs that are the same color as each other, then which one of the following could be true? (A) Light I is green, and light 2 is purple. (B) Light I is green, and light 2 is yellow. (C) Light I is purple, and light 2 is yellow. (D) Light I is yellow, and light 2 is green. (E) Light I is yellow, and light 2 is purple.Questions 12-17 An attorney is scheduling interviews with witnesses for a given week. Monday through Saturday. Two full consecutive days of the week must be reserved for interviewing hostile withesses. In addition, nonhostile witnesses Q, R, U, X, Y, and Z will each be interviewed exactly once for a full morning or afternoon. The only witnesses who will be interviewed simultaneously with each other are Q and R. The following conditions apply. X must be interviewed on Thursday morning Q must be interviewed at some time before X. U must be interviewed at some time before R Z must be interviewed at some time after X and at some time after Y.12. Which one of the following is a sequence, from first to last, in which the nonhostile witnesses could be interviewed? (A) Q with R, U, X, Y, Z (B) Q, U, R, X, with Y, Z (C) U, X, Q, with R, Y, Z (D) U, Y, Q, with R, X, Z (E) X, Q, with U, Z, R, Y13, Which one of the following is acceptable as a complete schedule of witnesses for Tuesday morning. Tuesday afternoon, and Wednesday morning,respectively? (A) Q, R, none (B) R, none, Y (C) U, Y, none (D) U, Y, none (E) Y, Z, none14.If Y is interviewed at some time after X, which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses? (A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Friday (E) Saturday15. If R is interviewed at some time after Y which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses? (A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday (E) Friday16. If on Wednesday afternoon and on Monday the attomey conducts no interviews, which one of the following be true? (A) Q is interviewed on the same day as U (B) R is interviewed on the same day as Y (C) Y is interviewed on the same day as U (D) Y is interviewed on the same day as Wednesday (E) Z is interviewed on the same day as Friday17. If Z is interviewed on Saturday morning which one of the following can be true? (A) Wednesday is a day reserved for interiewing hostile witnesses. (B) Friday is a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses. (C) R is interviewed on Thursday (D) U is interviewed on Tuesday (E) Y is interviewed at some time before ThursdayQuestions 18-24advertised each week. Exactly one of the products will be a member of two of these four pairs. The following constraints must be observed: J is not advertised during a given week unless H is advertised during the immediately precceding week. The product that is advertised during two of the weeks is advertised during week 4 but is not advertised during week 3 G is not advertised during a given week unless either J or else O is also advertised that week. K is advertised during one of the first two weeks O is one of the products advertised during week 318. Which one of the following could be the schedule of advertisernents? (A) week 1: G, J; week 2: K, L; week 3: O, M; week 4: H, L (B) week 1: H, K; week 2: J, G; week 3: O, L; week 4: M, K (C) week 1: H, K; week 2: J, M; week 3: O, L; week 4: G, M (D) week 1: H, L; week 2: J, M; week 3: O, G; week 4: K, L (E) week 1: K, M; week 2: H, J; week 3: O, G; week 4: L, M19. Which one of the following is a pair of products that CANNOT be advertised during the same week as each other? (A) H and k (B) H and M (C) J and O (D) K and L (E) L and M20. Which one of the following must be advertised during week 2? (A) G (B) J (C) K (D) L (E) M21. Which one of the following CANNOT be the product that is advertised during two of the weeks? (A) G (B) H (C) K (D) L (E) M22. If L is the product that is advertised during two of the weeks, which one of the following is a product that must be advertised during one of the weeks in which L is advertised (A) G (B) H (C) J (D) K (E) M23. Which one of the following is a product that could be advertised in any of the four weeks? (A) H (B) J (C) K (D) L (E) O24. Which one of the following is a pair of products that could be advertised during the same week as each other (A) G and H (B) H and J (C) H and O (D) K and O (E) K and O(F) M and OCBBCA CDAAB ADDBE EABCB AEDEsection 4Time—35 minutes23 QuestionsDirections: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each questions and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. In certain recipe contest each contestant submits submits two recipes. one for an appetizer and one for a main dish T ogether the two recipes must include exactly seven flavorings—fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika, saffron, and turmeric—with no flavoring included in more than one of the two recipes. Each contestant's recipes must satisfy the following conditions The appetizer recipe includes at most three of the flavorings. Fenugreek is not included in the same recipe as nutmeg. Saffron is not included in the same recipe as turmeric Ginger is included in the same recipe as nutmeg1. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the flavorings included in one contestant's main-dish recipe?(A) fenugreek, lemongrass, saffron(B) fenugreek, ginger, nutmeg, turmeric(C) ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika(D) ginger, nutmeg, paprika, turmeric(E) lemongass nutmeg, saffron, turmeric2. If a contestant's appetizer recipe does not include fenugreek, then the contestant's appetizer recipe must include(A) ginger(B) lemongrass(C) paprika(D) saffron(E) turmeric3. Which one of the following could be a list of all of the flavorings included in one contestant's appetizer recipe?(A) fenugreek, saffron(B) ginger, nutmeg(C) fenugreek, nutmeg, turmeric(D) lemongrass, nutmeg, saffron(E) fenugreek, lemongrass, paprika, turmeric4. If a contestant includes lemongrass in the same recipe as paprika, which one of the following is a flavoring that must be included in the contestant's main-dish recipe?(A) ginger(B) lemongrass(C) nutmeg(D) saffron(E) turmeric5. If the condition that requires ginger to be included in the same recipe as nutmeg is suspended but all of the other original conditions remain in effect. then which one of the following could be a list of all of the flavorings included in one contestant's main-dish recipe?(A) ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika(B) ginger, lemongrass, paprika, turmeric(C) fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, paprika, saffron(D) fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, saffron, turmeric(D) fenugreek,lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika, saffronQuestions 6-10 Seven singer—Jamine, Ken, Lalitha, Maya, Norton, Olive, and Patrick—will be scheduled to perform in the finals of a singing competition. During the evening of the competition, each singer, performing alone, will give exactly one performance. The schedule for the evening must conform to the following requirements. Jamle performs immediately after Ken Parick performs at some time after Maya Lalitha performs third only if Norton performs fifth. If Patrick does not perform second, he performs fifth6. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for the evening's performers, from first through seventh?(A) Ken, Jamie, Maya, Lalitha, Patrick Norton, Olive(B) Lalitha, Patrick, Norton, Olive Maya, Ken, Jamie(C) Norton, Olive Ken, Jamie, Maya, Patrick, Lalitha(D) Olive, Maya, Ken, Lalitha, Patrick, Norton, Jamie(E) Olive, Maya, Lalitha, Norton,Patrick, Ken Jamie7. If Lalitha is scheduled for the third performance which one of the following must be scheduled for the sixth performance?(A) Jame(B) Ken。

推荐-法学院入学考试LSAT历年全真试题整理 精品

推荐-法学院入学考试LSAT历年全真试题整理 精品

法学院入学考试(LSAT)历年全真试题整理It’s not an ideal time to be unemployed, and even those who have jobs are trying to hold on to them more fiercely than ever. So what happens when you don’t seal a deal? Or you lose a big client? Or you make an accounting error that costs your pany thousands of dollars?现在不是失业的好时机,甚至连有工作的人都千方百计的想保住工作。

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不要只是不知所措的看着你的工作被毁。

采用下面的建议立即行动起来,弥补你犯的错误。

1. Own it. 承认错误While many of us would prefer to forget our mistakes, initially you need to acknowledge to your supervisor and everyone involved that you’re accepting responsibility for what went wrong. Advises career strategist Daisy Swan, "If you see something has gone awry, be sure to be proactive. Talk to the people you report to, and with, and be upfront with what happened."虽然我们中的大部分人都选择忘记我们犯的错,但是犯了错误之后,首先你要像你的上司和涉及到得每个人承认错误,并表示你愿意承担责任。

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题4

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题4

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题4【简介】:读真题1(含答案)Historiansgenerallyagreethat,ofthegreatmoderninnovations,therailroadhadthemostfar-r eachingimpactonmajoreventsintheUnitedStatesinthenineteenth精品源自教学论文读真题1(含答案)Historians generally agree that, of the great modern innovations, the railroad had the most far-reaching impact on major events in the United States in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, particularly on the Industrial Revolution. There is, however, considerable disagreement among cultural historians regarding public attitudes toward the railroad, both at its inception in the 1830s and during the half century between 1880 and 1930, when the national rail system was netpleted and reached the zenith of its popularity in the United States. In a recent book, John Stilgoe has addressed this issue by arguing that the “romantic-era distrust” of the railroad that he claims was present during the 1830s vanished in the decades after 1880. But the argument he provides in support of this position is unconvincing.What Stilgoe calls “romantic-era distrust” was in fact the reaction of a minority of writers, artistes, and intellectuals who distrusted the railroad not so much for what it was as for what it signified. Thoreau and Hawthorne appreciated, even admired, an improved means of moving things and people from one place to another. What these writers and others were concerned about was not the new machinery as such, but the new kind ofeconomy, social order, and culture that it prefigured. In addition, Stilgoe is wrong to imply that the critical attitude of these writers was typical of the period: their distrust was largely a reaction against the prevailing attitude in the 1830s that the railroad was an unqualified improvement.Stilgoe’s assertion that the ambivalence toward the railroad exhibited by writers like Hawthorne and Thoreau disappeared after the 1880s is also misleading. In support of this thesis, Stilgoe has unearthed an impressive volume of material, the work of hitherto unknown illustrators, journalists, and novelists, all devotees of the railroad; but it is not clear what this new material proves except perhaps that the works of popular culture greatly expanded at the time. The volume of the material proves nothing if Stilgoe’s point is that the earlier distrust of a minority of intellectuals did not endure beyond the 1880s, and, oddly, much of Stilgoe’s other evidence indicates that it did. When he glances at the treatment of railroads by writers like Henry James, Sinclair Lewis, or F. Scott Fitzgerald, what netes through in spite of Stilgoe’s analysis is remarkably like Thoreau’s feeling of contrariety and ambivalence. (Had he looked at the work of Frank Norris, Eugene O’Neill, or Henry Adams, Stilgoe’s case would have been much stronger.) The point is that the sharp contrast between the enthusiastic supporters of the railroad in the 1830s and the minority of intellectual dissenters during that period extended into the 1880s and beyond.7. The passage provides information to answer all of the following questions EXCEPT:(A) During what period did the railroad reach the zenith of its popularity in the UnitedStates?(B) How extensive was the impact of the railroad on the Industrial Revolution in the United States, relative to that of other modern innovations?(C) Who are some of the writers of the 1830s who expressed ambivalence toward the railroad?(D) In what way could Stilgoe have strengthened his argument regarding intellectuals’ attitudes toward the railroad in the years after the 1880s?(E) What arguments did the writers after the 1880s, as cited by Stilgoe, offer to justify their support for the railroad?8. According to the author of the passage, Stilgoe uses the phrase “romantic-era distrust” (line 13) to imply that the view he is referring to was(A) the attitude of a minority of intellectuals toward technological innovation that began after 1830(B) a netmonly held attitude toward the railroad during the 1830s(C) an ambivalent view of the railroad expressed by many poets and novelists between 1880 and 1930(D) a critique of social and economic developments during the 1830s by a minority of intellectuals(E) an attitude toward the railroad that was disseminated by works of popular culture after 18809. According to the author, the attitude toward the railroad that was reflected in writings of Henry James, Sinclair Lewis, and F. Scott Fitzgerald was(A) influenced by the writings of Frank Norris, Eugene O’Neill, and Henry Adams(B) similar to that of the minority of writers who had expressed ambivalence toward the railroad prior to the 1880s(C) consistent with the public attitudes toward the railroad that were reflected in works of popular culture after the 1880s(D) largely a reaction to the works of writers who had been severely critical of the railroad in the 1830s(E) consistent with the prevailing attitude toward the railroad during the 1830s10. It can be inferred from the passage that the author uses the phrase “works of popular culture” (line 41) primarily to refer to the(A) work of a large group of writers that was published between 1880 and 1930 and that in Stilgoe’s view was highly critical of the railroad(B) work of writers who were heavily influenced by Hawthorne and Thoreau(C) large volume of writing produced by Henry Adams, Sinclair Lewis, and Eugene O’Neill(D) work of journalists, novelists, and illustrators who were responsible for creating enthusiasm for the railroad during the 1830s(E) work of journalists, novelists, and illustrators that was published after 1880 and that has received little attention from scholars other than Stilgoe11. Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the work of Frank Norris, Eugene O’Neill, and Henry Adams?(A) Their work never achieved broad popular appeal.(B) Their ideas were disseminated to a large audience by the popular culture of the early 1800s.(C) Their work expressed a more positive attitude toward the railroad than did that of Henry James, Sinclair Lewis, and F. Scott Fitzgerald.(D) Although they were primarily novelists, some of their work could be classified as journalism.(E) Although they were influenced by Thoreau, their attitude toward the railroad was significantly different from his.12. It can be inferred from the passage that Stilgoe would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements regarding the study of cultural history?(A) It is impossible to know exactly what period historians are referring to when they use the term “romantic era.”(B) The writing of intellectuals often anticipates ideas and movements that are later embraced by popular culture.(C) Writers who were not popular in their own time tell us little about the age in which they lived.(D) The works of popular culture can serve as a reliable indicator of public attitudes toward modern innovations like the railroad.(E) The best source of information concerning the impact of an event as large as the Industrial Revolution is the private letters and journals of individuals.13. The primary purpose of the passage is to(A) evaluate one scholar’s view of public attitudes toward the railroad in the UnitedStates from the early nineteenth to the early twentieth century(B) review the treatment of the railroad in American literature of the nineteenth and twentieth centuries(C) survey the views of cultural historians regarding the railroad’s impact on major events in United States history(D) explore the origins of the public support for the railroad that existed after the netpletion of a national rail system in the United States(E) define what historians mean when they refer to the “romantic-era distrust” of the railroad参考答案:7-13 EBBECDA。

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题12(含答案)

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题12(含答案)

美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题12(含答案)美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题12(含答案)SECTION IIITime 35 minutes 28 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.Until recently many astronomers believed that asteroids travel about the solar system unaccompanied by satellites. These astronomers assumed this because they considered asteroid-satellite systems inherently unstable. Theoreticians could have told them otherwise: even minuscule bodies in the solar system can theoretically have satellites, as long as everything is in proper scale. If a bowling ball were orbiting about the Sun in the asteroid belt, it could have a pebble orbiting it as far away as a few hundred radii (or about 50 meters) without losing the pebble to the Sun’s gravitational pull.Observations now suggest that asteroid satellites may exists not only in theory but also in reality. Several astronomers have noticed, while watching asteroids pass briefly in front of stars, that something besides the known asteroid sometimes blocks out the star as well. Is that something a satellite?The most convincing such report concerns the asteroid Herculina, which was due to pass in front of a star in 1978. Astronomers waiting for the predicted event found not just oneoccultation, or eclipse, of the star, but two distinct drops in brightness. One was the predicted occultation, exactly on time. The other, lasting about five seconds, preceded the predicted event by about two minutes. The presence of a secondary body near Herculina thus seemed strongly indicated. To cause the secondary occultation, an unseen satellite would have to be about 45 kilometers in diameter, a quarter of the size of Herculina, and at a distance of 990 kilometers from the asteroid at the time. These values are within theoretical bounds, and such an asteroid-satellite pair could be stable.With the Herculina event, apparent secondary occultations became “respectable”—and more commonly reported. In fact, so common did reports of secondary events become that they are now simply too numerous for all of them to be accurate. Even if every asteroid has as many satellites as can be fitted around it without an undue number of collisions, only one in every hundred primary occultations would be accompanied by a secondary event (one in every thousand if asteroid satellites system resembled those of the planets).Yet even astronomers who find the case for asteroid satellites unconvincing at present say they would change their minds if a photoelectric record were made of a well-behaved secondary event. By “well-behaved”they mean that during occultation the observed brightness must drop sharply as the star winks out and must rise sharply as it reappears from behind the obstructing object, but the brightness during the secondary occultation must drop to that of the asteroid, no higher and no lower. This would make it extremely unlikely that an airplane or a glitch in the instruments was masquerading as an occulting body.1. Which one of the following best expresses the main ideaof the passage?(A) The observation of Herculina represented the crucial event that astronomical observers and theoreticians had been waiting for to establish a convincing case for the stability of asteroid-satellite systems.(B) Although astronomers long believed that observation supports the existence of stable asteroid-satellite systems, numerous recent reports have increased skepticism on this issue in astronomy.(C) Theoreticians’views on the stability of asteroid-satellite systems may be revised in the light of reports like those about Herculina.(D) Astronomers continue to consider it respectable to doubt the stability of asteroid-satellite systems, but new theoretical developments may change their views.(E) The Herculina event suggests that theoreticians’views about asteroid-satellite systems may be correct, and astronomers agree about the kind of evidence needed to clearly resolve the issue.2. Which one of the following is mentioned in the passage as providing evidence that Herculina has a satellite?(A) the diameter of a body directly observed near Herculina(B) the distance between Herculina and planet nearest to it(C) the shortest possible time in which satellites of Herculina, if any, could complete a single orbit(D) the occultation that occurred shortly before the predicted occultation by Herculina(E) the precise extent to which observed brightness dropped during the occultation by Herculina3. According to the passage, the attitude of astronomerstoward asteroid satellites since the Herculina event can best described as(A) open-mindedness combined with a concern for rigorous standards of proof(B) contempt for and impatience with the position held by theoreticians(C) bemusement at a chaotic mix of theory, inadequate or spurious data, and calls for scientific rigor(D) hardheaded skepticism, implying rejection of all data not recorded automatically by state-of-the-art instruments(E) admiration for the methodical process by which science progresses from initial hypothesis to incontrovertible proof4. The author implies that which one of the following was true prior to reports of the Herculina event?(A) Since no good theoretical model existed, all claims that reports of secondary occultations were common were disputed.(B) Some of the reported observations of secondary occultations were actually observations of collisions of satellites with one another.(C) If there were observations of phenomena exactly like the phenomena now labeled secondary occultations, astronomers were less likely than to have reported such observations.(D) The prevailing standards concerning what to classify as a well-behaved secondary event were less stringent than they are now.(E) Astronomers were eager to publish their observations of occultations of stars by satellites of asteroids.5. The information presented in the passage implies which one of the following about the frequency of reports of secondary occultations after the Herculina event?(A) The percentage of reports of primary occultations that also included reports of secondary occultations increased tenfold compared to the time before the Herculina event.(B) Primary occultations by asteroids were reported to have been accompanied by secondary occultations in about one out of every thousand cases.(C) The absolute number of reports of secondary occultations increased tenfold compared to the time before the Herculina event.(D) Primary occultations by asteroids were reported to have been accompanied by secondary occultations in more than one out of every hundred cases.(E) In more than one out of every hundred cases, primary occultations were reported to have been accompanied by more than one secondary occultation.6. The primary purpose of the passage is to(A) cast doubts on existing reports of secondary occultations of stars(B) describe experimental efforts by astronomers to separate theoretically believable observations of satellites of asteroids from spurious ones(C) review the development of ideas among astronomers about whether or not satellites of asteroids exist(D) bring a theoretician’s perspective to bear on an incomplete discussion of satellites of asteroids(E) illustrate the limits of reasonable speculation concerning the occultation of stars7. The passage suggests that which one of the following would most help to resolve the question of whether asteroids have satellites?(A) a review of pre-1978 reports of secondary occultations(B) an improved theoretical model of stable satellite systems(C) a photoelectric record of a well-behaved secondary occultation(D) a more stringent definition of what constitutes a well-behaved secondary occultation(E) a powerful telescope that would permit a comparison of ground-based observation with those made from airplanes 参考答案:1-7 EDACDCCHistorians attempting to explain how scientific work was done in the laboratory of the seventeenth-century chemist and natural philosopher Robert Boyle must address a fundamental discrepancy between how such experimentation was actually performed and the seventeenth-century rhetoric describing it. Leaders of the new Royal Society of London in the 1660s insisted that authentic science depended upon actual experiments performed, observed, and recorded by the scientists themselves. Rejecting the traditional contempt for manual operations, these scientists, all members of the English upper class, were not to think themselves demeaned by the mucking about with chemicals, furnaces, and pumps; rather, the willingness of each of them to become, as Boyle himself said, a mere “drudge”and “under-builder”in the search for God’s truth in nature was taken as a sign of their nobility and Christian piety.This rhetoric has been so effective that one modern historian assures us that Boyle himself actually performed all of the thousand or more experiments he reported. In fact, due to poor eyesight, fragile health, and frequent absences from his laboratory, Boyle turned over much of the labor of obtaining and recording experimental results to paid technicians, althoughpublishedaccounts of the experiments rarely, if ever, acknowledged the technicians’contributions. Nor was Boyle unique in relying on technicians without publicly crediting their work.Why were the contributions of these technicians not recognized by their employers? One reason is the historical tendency, which has persisted into the twentieth century, to view scientific discovery as resulting from momentary flashes of individual insight rather than from extended periods of cooperative work by individuals with varying levels of knowledge and skill. Moreover, despite the clamor of seventeenth-century scientific rhetoric commending a hands-on approach, science was still overwhelmingly an activity of the English upper class, and the traditional contempt that genteel society maintained for manual labor was pervasive and deeply rooted. Finally, all of Boyle’s technicians were “servants,”which in s eventeenth-century usage meant anyone who worked for pay. To seventeenth-century sensibilities, the wage relationship was charged with political significance. Servants, meaning wage earners, were excluded from the franchise because they were perceived as ultimately dependent on their wages and thus controlled by the will of their employers. Technicians remained invisible in the political economy of science for the same reasons that underlay servants’general political exclusion. The technicians’contribution,their observations and judgment, if acknowledged, would not have been perceived in the larger scientific community as objective because the technicians were dependent on the wages paid to them by their employers. Servants might have made the apparatus work, but their contributions to the making of scientific knowledge werelargely—and conveniently—ignored by their employers.8. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?(A) Seventeenth-century scientific experimentation would have been impossible without the work of paid laboratory technicians.(B) Seventeenth-century social conventions prohibited upper-class laboratory workers from taking public credit for their work.(C) Seventeenth-century views of scientific discovery combined with social class distinctions to ensure that laboratory technicians’scientific work was never publicly acknowledged.(D) Seventeenth-century scientists were far more dependent on their laboratory technicians than are scientists today, yet far less wil ling to acknowledge technicians’scientific contributions.(E) Seventeenth-century scientists liberated themselves from the stigma attached to manual labor by relying heavily on the work of laboratory technicians.9. It can be inferred from the passage that the “seventeenth-century rhetoric”mentioned in line 6 would have more accurately described the experimentation performed in Boyle’s laboratory if which one of the following were true?(A) Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists, Boyle recognized that most scientific discoveries resulted from the cooperative efforts of many individuals.(B) Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists, Boyle maintained a deeply rooted and pervasive contempt for manual labor.(C) Unlike many seventeenth-century scientists, Boyle was a member of the Royal Society of London.(D) Boyle generously acknowledged the contribution of the technicians who worked in his laboratory.(E) Boyle himself performed the actual labor of obtaining and recording experimental results.10. According to the author, servants of seventeenth-century England were excluded fromthe franchised because of the belief that(A) their interests were adequately represented by their employers(B) their education was inadequate to make informed political decisions(C) the independence of their political judgment would be compromised by their economic dependence on their employers(D) their participation in the elections would be a polarizing influence on the political process(E) the manual labor that they performed did not constitute a contribution to the society that was sufficient to justify their participation in elections11. According to the author, the Royal Society of London insisted that scientists abandon the(A) belief that the primary purpose of scientific discovery was to reveal the divine truth that could be found in nature(B) view that scientific knowledge results largely from the insights of a few brilliant individuals rather than from the cooperative efforts of many workers(C) seventeenth-century belief that servants should be denied the right to vote because they were dependent on wages paid to them by their employers(D) traditional disdain for manual labor that was maintained by most members of the English upper class during theseventeenth-century(E) idea that the search for scientific truth was a sign of piety12. The author implies that which one of the following beliefs was held in both the seventeenth and the twentieth centuries?(A) Individual insights rather than cooperative endeavors produce most scientific discoveries.(B) How science is practiced is significantly influenced by the political beliefs and assumption of scientists.(C) Scientific research undertaken for pay cannot be considered objective.(D) Scientific discovery can reveal divine truth in nature.(E) Scientific discovery often relies on the unacknowledged contributions of laboratory technicians.13. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the last paragraph?(A) Several alternative answers are presented to a question posed in the previous paragraph, and the last is adopted as the most plausible.(B) A question regarding the cause of the phenomenon described in the previous paragraph is posed, two possible explanations are rejected, and evidence is provided in support of a third.(C) A question regarding the phenomenon described in the previous paragraph is posed, and several incompatible views are presented.(D) A question regarding the cause of the phenomenon described in the previous paragraph is posed, and several contributing factors are then discussed.(E) Several answers to a question are evaluated in light of recent discoveries cited earlier in the passage.14. The author’s discussion of the political significance of the “wage relationship”(line 48) serves to(A) place the failure of seventeenth-century scientists to acknowledge the contributions of their technicians in the large context of relations between workers and their employers in seventeenth-century England(B) provide evidence in s upport of the author’s more general thesis regarding the relationship of scientific discovery to the economic conditions of societies in which it takes place(C) provide evidence in support of the author’s explanation of why scientists in seventeenth-century England were reluctant to rely on their technicians for the performance of anything but the most menial tasks(D) illustrate political and economic changes in the society of seventeenth-century England that had a profound impact on how scientific research was conduced(E) undermine the view that scientific discovery results from individual enterprise rather than from the collective endeavor of many workers15. It can be inferred from the passage that “the clamor of seventeenth-century scientific rhetoric”(lines 39-40) refers to(A) the claim that scientific discovery results largely from the insights of brilliant individuals working alone(B) ridicule of scientists who were members of the English upper class and who were thought to demean themselves by engaging in the manual labor required by their experiments(C) criticism of scientists who publicly acknowledged the contributions of their technicians(D) assertions by members of the Royal Society of London that scientists themselves should be responsible for obtainingand recording experimental results(E) the claim by Boyle and his colleagues that the primary reason for scientific research is to discover evidence of divine truth in the natural world参考答案:8-15 CECDADADOne type of violation of the antitrust laws is the abuse of monopoly power. Monopoly power is the ability of a firm to raise its prices above the competitive level—that is, above the level that would exist naturally if several firms had to compete—without driving away so many customers as to make the price increase unprofitable. In order to show that a firm has abused monopoly power, and thereby violated the antitrust laws, two essential facts must be established. First, a firm must be shown to possess monopoly power, and second, that power must have been used to exclude competition in the monopolized market or related markets.The price a firm may charge for its product is constrained by the availability of close substitutes for the product. If a firm attempts to charge a higher price—a supracompetitive price —consumers will turn to other firms able to supply substitute products at competitive prices. If a firm provides a large percentage of the products actually or potentially available, however, customers may find it difficult to buy from alternative suppliers. Consequently, a firm with a large share of the relevant market of substitutable products may be able to raise its price without losing many customers. For this reason courts often use market share as a rough indicator of monopoly power.Supracompetitive prices are associated with a loss of consumers’welfare because such prices force some consumers to buy a less attractive mix of products than they would ordinarilybuy. Supracompetitive prices, however, do not themselves constitute an abuse of monopoly power. Antitrust laws do not attempt to counter the mere existence of monopoly power, or even the use of monopoly power to extract extraordinarily high profits. For example, a firm enjoying economies of scale—that is, low unit production costs due to high volume—does not violate the antitrust laws when it obtains a large market share by charging prices that are profitable but so low that its smaller rivals cannot survive. If the antitrust laws posed disincentives to the existenceand growth of such firms, the laws could impair consumers’welfare. Even if the firm, upon acquiring monopoly power, chose to raise prices in order to increase profits, it would not be in violation of the antitrust laws.The antitrust prohibitions focus instead on abuses of monopoly power that exclude competition in the monopolized market or involve leverage—the use of power in one market to reduce competition in another. One such forbidden practice is a tying arrangement, in which a monopolist conditions the sale of a product in one market on the buyer’s purchase of another product in a different market. For example, a firm enjoying a monopoly in the communications systems market might not sell its products to a consumer unless that customer also buys its computer systems, which are competing with other firms’computer systems.The focus on the abuse of monopoly power, rather than on monopoly itself, follows from the primary purpose of the antitrust laws: to promote consumers’welfare through assurance of the quality and quantity of products available to consumers.16. Which one of the following distinctions between monopoly power and the abuse of monopoly power would the author say underlies the antitrust laws discussed in the passage?(A) Monopoly power is assessed in term of market share, whereas abuse of monopoly power is assessed in term of market control.(B) Monopoly power is easy to demonstrate, whereas abuse of monopoly power is difficult to demonstrate.(C) Monopoly power involves only one market, whereas abuse of monopoly power involves at least two or more related markets.(D) Monopoly power is the ability to charge supracompetitive prices, whereas abuse of monopoly power is the use of that ability.(E) Monopoly power does not necessarily hurt consumer welfare, whereas abuse of monopoly power does.17. Would the use of leverage meet the criteria for abuse of monopoly power outlined in the first paragraph?(A) No, because leverage involves a nonmonopolized market.(B) No, unless the leverage involves a tying arrangement.(C) Yes, because leverage is a characteristic of monopoly power.(D) Yes, unless the firm using leverage is charging competitive prices.(E) Yes, because leverage is used to eliminate competition ina related market.18. What is the main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 28—47)?(A) to distinguish between supracompetitive prices and supracompetitive profits(B) to describe the positive use of monopoly power(C) to introduce the concept of economies of scale(D) to distinguish what is not covered by the antitrust law under discussion from what is covered(E) to remind the reader of the issue of consumers welfare19. Given only the information in the passage, with which one of the following statements about competition would those responsible for the antitrust laws most likely agree?(A) Competition is essential to consumers’welfare.(B) There are acceptable and unacceptable ways for firms to reduce their competition.(C) The preservation of competition is the principal aim of the antitrust laws.(D) Supracompetitive prices lead to reductions in competition.(E) Competition is necessary to ensure high-quality products at low prices.20. Which one of the following sentences would best complete the last paragraph of the passage?(A) By limiting consumers’choices, abuse of monopoly power reduces consumers’welfare, but monopoly alone can sometimes actually operate in the consumers’best interest.(B) What is needed now is a set of related laws to deal with the negative impacts that monopoly itself has on consumers’ability to purchase products at reasonable cost.(C) Over time, the antitrust laws have been very effective in ensuring competition and, consequently, consumers’welfare in the volatile communications and computer systems industries.(D) By controlling supracompetitive prices and corresponding supracompetitive profits, the antitrust laws have,indeed, gone a long way toward meeting that objective.(E) As noted above, the necessary restraints on monopoly itself have been left to the market, where competitive prices and economies of scale are rewarded through increased market share.参考答案:16-20 EEDBAAmsden has divided Navajo weaving into four distinct styles. He argues that three of them can be identified by the type of design used to form horizontal bands: colored strips, zigzags, or diamonds. The fourth, or bordered, style he identifies by a distinct border surrounding centrally placed, dominating figures.Amsden believes that the diamond style appeared after 1869 when, under Anglo influence and encouragement, the blanket became a rug with larger designs and bolder lines. The bordered style appeared about 1890, and, Amsden argues, it reflects the greatest number of Anglo influences on the newly emerging rug business. The Anglo desire that anything with a graphic designs have a top, bottom, and border is a cultural preference that the Navajo abhorred, as evidenced, he suggests, by the fact that in early bordered specimens strips of color unexpectedly break through the enclosing pattern.Amsden argues that the bordered rug represents a radical break with previous styles. He asserts that the border changed the artistic problem facing weavers: a blank area suggests the use of isolated figures, while traditional, banded Navajo designs were continuous and did not use isolated figures. The old patterns alternated horizontal decorative zones in a regular order.Amsden’s view raises several questions. First, what is involved in altering artistic styles? Some studies suggest that artisans’motor habits and th ought processes must be revised when a style changes precipitously. In the evolution of Navajoweaving, however, no radical revisions in the way articles are produced need be assumed. After all, all weaving subordinates design to the physical limitations created by the process of weaving, which includes creating an edge or border. The habits required to make decorative borders are, therefore, latent and easily brought to the surface.Second, is the relationship between the banded and bordered styles as simple as Amsden suggests? He assumes that a break in style is a break in psychology. But if style results from constant quests for invention, such stylistic breaks are inevitable. When a style has exhausted the possibilities inherent in its principles, artists cast about for new, but not necessarily alien, principles. Navajo weaving may have reached this turning point prior to 1890.Third, is there really a significant stylistic gap? Two other styles lie between the bandedstyles and the bordered styles. They suggest that disintegration of the bands may have altered visual and motor habits and prepared the way for a border filled with separate units. In the Chief White Antelope blanket, dated prior to 1865, ten years before the first Anglo trading post on the Navajo reservation, whole and partial diamonds interrupt the flowing design and become separate forms. Parts of diamonds arranged vertically at each side may be seen to anticipate the border.21. The author’s central thesis is that(A) the Navajo rejected the stylistic influences of Anglo culture(B) Navajo weaving cannot be classified by Amsden’s categories(C) the Navajo changed their style of weaving because theysought the challenge of new artistic problems(D) original motor habits and thought processes limit the extent to which a style can be revised(E) the casual factors leading to the emergence of the bordered style are not as clear-cut as Amsden suggests22. It can be inferred from the passage that Amsden views the use of “strips of color”(line18) in the early bordered style as(A) a sign of resistance to a change in style(B) an echo of the diamond style(C) a feature derived from Anglo culture(D) an attempt to disintegrate the rigid form of the banded style(E) a means of differentiating the top of the weaving from the bottom23. The author’s view of Navajo weaving suggests which one of the following?(A) The appearance of the first trading post on the Navajo reservation coincided with the appearance of the diamond style.(B) Traces of thought processes and motor habits of one culture can generally be found in the art of another culture occupying the same period and region.(C) The bordered style may have developed gradually from the banded style as a result of Navajo experiencing with design.(D) The influence of Anglo culture was not the only non-Native American influence on Navajo weaving.(E) Horizontal and vertical rows of diamond forms were transformed by the Navajos into solid lines to create the bordered style.24. According to the passage, Navajo weavings made prior。

美国法学院入学考试LSAT逻辑推理真题精选及详解【圣才出品】

美国法学院入学考试LSAT逻辑推理真题精选及详解【圣才出品】

LSAT逻辑推理真题精选及详解Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.1. Economist: Every business strives to increase its productivity, for this increases profits for the owners and the likelihood that the business will survive. But not all efforts to increase productivity are beneficial to the business as a whole. Often, attempts to increase productivity decrease the number of employees, which clearly harms the dismissed employees as well as the sense of security of the retained employees.Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the economist’s argument?(A) If an action taken to secure the survival of a business fails to enhance the welfare of the business’s employees, that acti on cannot be good for the business as a whole.(B) Some measures taken by a business to increase productivity fail to be beneficial to the business as a whole.(C) Only if the employees of a business are also its owners will the interests of the employees and owners coincide, enabling measures that will be beneficial to the business as a whole.(D) There is no business that does not make efforts to increase its productivity.(E) Decreasing the number of employees in a business undermines the sense of security of retained employees.答案:B解析:选项B译为:商家为提高生产力而采取的有些措施并没有带来企业整体利益。

SAT阅读真题及答案解析

SAT阅读真题及答案解析

SAT考试真题是很重要的备考资料,那么,很早以前的真题资料还有参考性吗?其实大家可以先以最近真题为主,以前的真题资料为辅进行练习。

下面就让我为大家整理了一篇SAT阅读题目以及答案解析,供大家参考。

Passage 1Every age, after his own, has gone in search of Shakespeare. The first biography was written in 1709. Now it is a poor year for the Shakespeare business when two or three more do not show up on bookstore shelves. We want to know who he was hoping that the narrative of his life will somehow explain the genius of his writing. But it never does. We find him but who we find only adds to the mystery. How is it that a man without a university education, a glover's son from a small Warwickshire market town, could have written the plays and poems that have spoken to generations of readers and theatergoers?每一个时代,都在追寻莎士比亚。

他的第一本传记写于1709年。

现在对于莎士比亚作品生意来说,这的确是糟糕的一年,因为他的作品在书架上再也没有超过两三本。

我们希望知道他的人生故事能在某种程度上解释他为什么是写作天才,但是这不太可能实现。

美国法学院入学考试(LSAT)

美国法学院入学考试(LSAT)
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美国法学院入学考试LSAT阅读真题2(含答案)SECTION ITime 35 minutes 27 QuestionsDirections: Each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.The Taft-Hartley Act, passed by the United States Congress in 1947, gave states the power to enact “right-to-work”legislation that prohibits union shop agreements. According to such an agreement, a labor union negotiates wages and working conditions for all workers in a business, and all workers are required to belong to the union. Since 1947, 20 states have adopted right-to-work laws. Much of the literature concerning right-to-work laws implies that such legislation has not actually had a significant impact. This point of view, however, has not gone uncriticized. Thomas V Carroll has proposed that the conclusions drawn by previous researchers are attributable to their myopic focus on the premise that, unless right-to-work laws significantly reduce union membership within a state, they have no effect. Carroll argues that the right-to-work laws “do matter”in that such laws generate differences in real wages across states. Specifically, Carroll indicates that while right-to-work laws may not “destroy”unions by reducing the absolute number of unionized workers, they do impede the spread of unions and thereby reduce wages within right-to-work states. Because the countervailing power of unions is weakened in right-to-work states, manufacturers and their suppliers can act cohesively in competitive labor markers, thus lowering wages in the affected industries.Such a finding has important implications regarding the demographics of employment and wages in right-to-work states. Specifically, if right-to-work laws lower wages by weakening union power, minority workers can be expected to suffer a relatively greater economic disadvantage in right-to-work states than in union shop states. This is so because, contrary to what was once thought, union tend to have a significant positive impact on the economic position of minority workers, especially Black workers, relative to White workers. Most studies concerned with the impact of unionism on the Black worker’s economic position relative to the White worker’s have concentrated on the changes in Black wages due to union membership. That is, they have concentrated on union versus nonunion groups. In a pioneering study, however, Ashenfelter finds that these studies overlook an important fact: although craft unionism increase the differential between the wages of White workers and Black workers due to the traditional exclusion of minority workers from unions in the craft sectors of the labor market, strong positive wage gains are made by Black workers within industrial unions. In fact, Ashenfelter estimates that industrial unionism decreases the differential between the wages of Black workers and White workers by about 3 percent. If state right-to-work laws weaken the economic power of unions to raise wages, Black workers will experience a disproportionate decline in their relative wage positions. Black workers in right-to-work states would therefore experience a decline in their relative economic positions unless there is strong economic growth in right-to-work states, creating labor shortages and thereby driving up wages.1. The reasoning behind the “literature”(line 9), as that reasoning is presented in the passage, is most analogous to the reasoning behind which one of the following situations?(A) A law is proposed that benefits many but disadvantages a few: those advocating passage of the law argue that the disadvantages to few are not so serious that the benefits should be denied to many.(B) A new tax on certain categories of consumer items is proposed: those in favor of the tax argue that those affected by the tax are well able to pay it, since the items taxed are luxury items.(C) A college sets strict course requirements that every student must complete before graduating; students already enrolled argue that it is unfair for the new requirements to apply to those enrolled before the change.(D) The personnel office of a company designs a promotions become effective on January 1: the managers protest that such a policy means that they cannot respond fast enough to changes in staffing needs.(E) A fare increase in a public transportation system does not significantly reduce the number of fares sold: the management of the public transportation system asserts, therefore, that the fare hike has had no negative effects.2. According to the passage, which one of the following is true of Carroll’s study?(A) It implies that right-to-work laws have had a negligible effect on workers in right-to-work states.(B) It demonstrates that right-to-work laws have significantly decreased union membership from what it once was in right-to-work states.(C) It argues that right-to-work laws have affected wages in right-to-work states.(D) It supports the findings of most earlier researchers.(E) It explains the mechanisms by which collusion between manufacturers and suppliers is accomplished.3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which one of following about craft unions?(A) Craft unions have been successful in ensuring that the wages of their members remain higher than the wages of nonunion workers in the same occupational groups.(B) The number of minority workers joining craft unions has increased sharply in states that have not adopted right-to-work legislation.(C) Wages for workers belonging to craft unions have generally risen faster and more steadily than wages for workers belonging to industrial unions.(D) The wages of workers belonging to craft unions have not been significantly affected by right-to-work legislation, although the wages of workers belonging to industrial unions have been negatively affected.(E) The wages of workers belonging to craft unions are more likely to be driven up in the event of labor shortages than are the wages of workers belonging to industrial unions.4. Which one of the following best describes the effect industrial unionism has had on the wages of Black workers relative to those of White workers, as that effect is presented in the passage?(A) Prior to 1947, industrial unionism had little effect on the wages of Black workers relative to those of White workers: since 1947, it has had a slight positive effect.(B) Prior to 1947, industrial unionism had a strong positive effect on the wages of Blackworkers relative to those of White workers: since 1947, it has had little effect.(C) Prior to 1947, industrial unionism had a negative effect on the wages of Black workers relative to those of White workers: since 1947, it has had a significant positive effect.(D) Industrial unionism has contributed moderately to an increase in the wage differential between Black workers and White workers.(E) Industrial unionism has contributed strongly to a 3 percent decrease in the wage differential between Black workers and White workers.5. According to the passage, which one of the following could counteract the effects of a decrease in unions’economic power to raise wages in right-to-work states?(A) a decease in the number of union shop agreements(B) strong economic growth that creates labor shortages(C) a decrease in membership in craft unions(D) the merging of large industrial unions(E) a decline in the craft sectors of the labor market6. Which one of the following best describes the passage as a whole?(A) an overview of a problem in research methodology and a recommended solution to that problem(B) a comparison of two competing theories and a suggestion for reconciling them(C) a critique of certain legislation and a proposal for modification of that legislation(D) a review of research that challenges the conclusions of earlier researchers(E) a presentation of a specific case that confirms the findings of an earlier study参考答案:1-6 ECAEBDIn the late nineteenth century, the need for women physicians in missionary hospitals in Canton, China, led to expanded opportunities for both Western women and Chinese women. The presence of Western women as medical missionaries in China was made possible by certain changes within the Western missionary movement. Beginning in the 1870s, increasingly large numbers of women were forming women’s foreign mission societies dedicated to the support of women’s foreign mission work. Beyond giving the women who organized the societies a formal activity outside their home circles, these organizations enabled an increasing number of single women missionaries (as opposed to women who were part of the more typical husband-wife missionary teams) to work abroad. Before the formation of these women’s organizations, mission funds had been collected by ministers and other church leaders, most of whom emphasized local parish work. What money was spent on foreign missions was under the control of exclusively male foreign mission boards whose members were uniformly uneasy about the new idea of sending single women out into the mission field. But as women’s groups began raising impressive amounts of money donated specifically in support of single women missionaries, the home churches bowed both to women’s changing roles at home and to increasing numbers of single professional missionary women abroad.Although the idea of employing a woman physician was a daring one for most Western missionaries in China, the advantages of a well-trained Western woman physician could not be ignored by Canton mission hospital administrators. A woman physician could attend women patients without offending any of the accepted conventions of female modesty. Eventually, some of these women were able to found and head separate women’s medical institutions, thereby gaining access to professional responsibilities far beyond those available to them at home.These developments also led to the attainment of valuable training and status by a significant number of Chinese women. The presence of women physicians in Canton mission hospitals led many Chinese women to avail themselves of Western medicine who might otherwise have failed to do so because of their culture’s emphasis on physical modesty. In order to provide enough women physicians for these patients, growing numbers of young Chinese women were given instruction in medicine. This enabled them to earn an independent income, something that was then largely unavailable to women within traditional Chinese society. Many women graduates were eventually able to go out on their own into private practice, freeing themselves of dependence upon the mission community.The most important result of these opportunities was the establishment of clear evidence of women’s abilities and strengths, clear reasons for affording women expanded opportunities, and clear role models for how these abilities and responsibilities might be exercised.7. Which one of the following statements about Western women missionaries working abroad can be inferred from the passage?(A) There were very few women involved in foreign missionary work before the 1870s.(B) Most women working abroad as missionaries before the 1870s were financed by women’s foreign mission societies.(C) Most women employed in mission hospitals abroad before the 1870s were trained as nurses rather than as physicians.(D) The majority of professional women missionaries working abroad before the 1870s were located in Canton, China.(E) Most women missionaries working abroad before the 1870s were married to men who were also missionaries.8. The author mentions that most foreign mission boards were exclusively male most probably in order to(A) Contrast foreign mission boards with the boards of secular organizations sending aid to China.(B) Explain the policy of foreign mission boards toward training Chinese women in medicine.(C) Justify the preference of foreign mission boards for professionally qualified missionaries.(D) Help account for the attitude of foreign mission boards towards sending single women missionaries abroad.(E) Differentiate foreign mission boards from boards directing parish work at home.9. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?(A) A situation is described, conditions that brought about the situation are explained, and results of the situation are enumerated.(B) An assertion is made, statements supporting and refuting the assertion are examined, and a conclusion is drawn.(C) An obstacle is identified, a variety of possible ways to overcome the obstacle are presented, and an opinion is ventured.(D) A predicament is outlined, factors leading up to the predicament are scrutinized, and a tentative resolution of the predicament is recommended.(E) A development is analyzed, the drawbacks and advantages accompanying the development are contrasted, and an eventual outcome is predicted.10. Which one of the following, if true, would most undermine the author’s analysis of thereason for the increasing number of single women missionaries sent abroad beginning in the 1870s?(A) The Western church boards that sent the greatest number of single women missionaries abroad had not received any financial support from women’s auxiliary groups.(B) The women who were sent abroad as missionary physicians had been raised in families with a strong history of missionary commitment.(C) Most of the single missionary women sent abroad were trained as teachers and translators rather than as medical practitioners.(D) The western church boards tended to send abroad single missionary women who had previously been active in local parish work.(E) None of the single missionary women who were sent abroad were active members of foreign mission boards.11. According to the passage, which one of the following was a factor in the acceptance of Western women as physicians in mission hospitals in Canton, China?(A) The number of male physicians practicing in that region.(B) The specific women’s foreign mission society that supplied the funding.(C) The specific home parishes from which the missionary women came.(D) The cultural conventions of the host society.(E) The relations between the foreign mission boards and the hospital administrators.12. The passage suggests which one of the following about medical practices in late-nineteenth-century Canton, China?(A) There was great suspicion of non-Chinese medical practices.(B) Medical care was more often administered in the home than in hospitals.(C) It was customary for women physicians to donate a portion of their income for the maintenance of their extended family.(D) It was not customary for female patients to be treated by male physicians.(E) Young women tended to be afforded as many educational opportunities in medicine as young men were.参考答案:7-12 EDAADDIn recent years the early music movement, which advocates performing a work as it was performed at the time of its composition, has taken on the character of a crusade, particularly as it has moved beyond the sphere of medieval and baroque music and into music from the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries by composers such as Mozart and Beethoven. Granted, knowledge about the experience of playing old music on now-obsolete instruments has been of inestimable value to scholars. Nevertheless, the early music approach to performance raises profound and troubling questions.Early music advocates assume that composers write only for the instruments available to them, but evidence suggests that composers of Beethoven’s stature imagined extraordinarily high and low notes as part of their compositions, even when they recognized that such notes could not be played on instruments available at the time. In the score of Beethoven’s first piano concerto, there is a “wrong”note, a high F-natural where the melody obviously calls for a high F-sharp, but pianos did not have this high an F-sharp when Beethoven composed the concerto. Because Beethoven once expressed a desire to revise his early works to exploit the extended range of pianos that became available to him some years later, it seems likely that he would haveplayed the F-sharp if given the opportunity. To use a piano exactly contemporary with the work’s composition would require playing a note that was probably frustrating for Beethoven himself to have had to play.In addition, early music advocates often inadvertently divorce music and its performance from the life of which they were, and are, a part. The discovery that Haydn’s and Mozart’s symphonies were conducted during their lifetimes by a pianist who played the chords to keep the orchestra together has given rise to early music recordings in which a piano can be heard obtrusively in the foreground, despite evidence indicating that the orchestral piano was virtually inaudible to audiences at eighteenth-century concerts and was dropped as musically unnecessary when a better way to beat time was found. And although in the early nineteenth century the first three movements (sections) of Mozart’s and Beethoven’s symphonies were often played faster, and the last movement slower than today, this difference can readily be explained by the fact that at that time audiences applauded at the end of each movement, rather than withholding applause until the end of the entire work. As a result, musicians were not forced into extra brilliance in the finale in order to generate applause, as they are now. To restore the original tempo of these symphonies represents an irrational denial of the fact that our concepts of musical intensity and excitement have quite simply, changed.13. It can be inferred from the passage that by “a piano exactly contemporary”(line 30) with the composition of Beethoven’s first piano concerto, the author means the kind of piano that was(A) Designed to be inaudible to the audience when used by conductors of orchestras.(B) Incapable of playing the high F-natural that is in the score of Beethoven’s original version of the concerto.(C) Unavailable to Mozart and Haydn.(D) Incapable of playing the high F-sharp that the melody of the concerto calls for.(E) Influential in Beethoven’s decision to revise his early compositions.14. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?(A) The early music movement has yet to resolve a number of troubling questions regarding its approach to the performance of music.(B) The early music movement, while largely successful in its approach to the performance of medieval and baroque music, has yet to justify its use of obsolete instruments in the performance of music by Beethoven and Mozart.(C) The early music approach to performance often assumes that composers write music that is perfectly tailored to the limitations of the instruments on which it will be performed during their lifetimes.(D) Although advocates of early music know much about the instruments used to perform music at the time it was composed, they lack information regarding how the style of such performances has changed since such music was written.(E) The early music movement has not yet fully exploited the knowledge that it has gained from playing music on instruments available at the time such music was composed.15. In the second paragraph, the author discusses Beethoven’s first piano concerto primarily in order to(A) Illustrate how piano music began to change in response to the extended range of pianos that became available during Beethoven’s lifetime.(B) Illustrate how Beethoven’s work failed to anticipate the changes in the design of instruments that were about to be made during his lifetime.(C) Suggest that early music advocates commonly perform music using scores that do not reflect revisions made to the music years after it was originally composed.(D) Illustrate how composers like Beethoven sometimes composed music that called for notes that could not be played on instruments that were currently available.(E) Provide an example of a piano composition that is especially amenable to being played on piano available at the time the music was composed.16. The author suggests that the final movements of symphonies by Mozart and Beethoven might be played more slowly by today’s orchestras if which one of the following were to occur?(A) Orchestras were to use instruments no more advanced in design than those used by orchestras at the time Mozart and Beethoven composed their symphonies.(B) Audiences were to return to the custom of applauding at the end of each movement of a symphony.(C) Audiences were to reserve their most enthusiastic applause for the most brilliantly played finales.(D) Conductors were to return to the practice of playing the chords on an orchestral piano to keep the orchestra together.(E) Conductors were to conduct the symphonies in the manner in which Beethoven and Mozart had conducted them.17. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the last paragraph?(A) A generalization is made evidence undermining it is presented, and a conclusion rejecting it is then drawn.(B) A criticism is stated and then elaborated with two supporting examples.(C) An assumption is identified and then evidence undermining its validity is presented.(D) An assumption is identified and then evidence frequently provided in support of it is then critically evaluated.(E) Two specific cases are presented and then a conclusion regarding their significance is drawn.18. It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s explanation in lines 50-54 would be most weakened if which one of the following were true?(A) Musicians who perform in modern orchestras generally receive more extensive training than did their nineteenth-century counterparts.(B) Breaks between the movements of symphonies performed during the early nineteenth century often lasted longer than they do today because nineteenth-century musicians needed to retune their instruments between each movement.(C) Early nineteenth-century orchestral musicians were generally as concerned with the audience’s response to their music as are the musicians who perform today in modern orchestras.(D) Early nineteenth-century audience applauded only perfunctorily after the first three movements of symphonies and conventionally withheld their most enthusiastic applause until the final movement was completed.(E) Early nineteenth-century audiences were generally more knowledgeable about music than are their modern counterparts.19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following assertions regarding the early music recordings mentioned in the third paragraph?(A) These recordings fail to recognize that the last movements of Haydn’s and Mozart’s symphonies were often played slower in the eighteenth century than they are played today.(B) These recordings betray the influence of baroque musical style on those early music advocates who have recently turned their attention to the music of Haydn and Mozart.(C) By making audible the sound of an orchestral piano that was inaudible in eighteenth century performances, these recordings attempt to achieve aesthetic integrity at the expense of historical authenticity.(D) By making audible the sound of an orchestral piano that was inaudible in eighteenth century performances, these recordings unwittingly create music that is unlike what eighteenth century audiences heard.(E) These recordings suggest that at least some advocates of early music recognize that concepts of musical intensity and excitement have changed since Haydn and Mozart composed their symphonies.20. The author suggests that the modern audience’s tendency to withhold applause until the end of a symphony’s performance is primarily related to which one of the following?(A) The replacement of the orchestral piano as a method of keeping the orchestra together.(B) A gradual increase since the time of Mozart and Beethoven in audiences’expectations regarding the ability of orchestral musicians.(C) A change since the early nineteenth century in audiences’concepts of musical excitement and intensity.(D) A more sophisticated appreciation of the structural integrity of the symphony as a piece of music.(E) The tendency of orchestral musicians to employ their most brilliant effects in the early.参考答案:13-20 DADBBDDCAlthough the United States steel industry faces widely publicized economic problems that have eroded its steel production capacity, not all branches of the industry have been equally affected. The steel industry is not monolithic: it includes integrated producers, minimills, and specialty-steel mills. The integrated producers start with iron ore and coal and produce a wide assortment of shaped steels. The minimills reprocess scrap steel into a limited range of low-quality products, such as reinforcing rods for concrete. The specialty-steel mills are similar to minimills in that they tend to be smaller than the integrated producers and are based on scrap, but they manufacture much more expensive products than minimills do and commonly have an active in-house research-and-development effort.Both minimills and specialty-steel mills have succeeded in avoiding the worst of the economic difficulties that are afflicting integrated steel producers, and some of the mills are quite profitable. Both take advantage of new technology for refining and casting steel, such as continuous casting, as soon as it becomes available. The minimills concentrate on producing a narrow range of products for sale in their immediate geographic area, whereas specialty-steel mills preserve flexibility in their operations in order to fulfill a customer’s particular specifications.Among the factors that constrain the competitiveness of integrated producers are excessivelabor, energy, and capital costs, as well as manufacturing inflexibility. Their equipment is old and less automated, and does not incorporate many of the latest refinement in steelmaking technology. (For example, only about half of the United States integrated producers have continuous casters, which combine pouring and rolling into one operation and thus save the cost of separate rolling equipment.) One might conclude that the older labor-intensive machinery still operating in United States integrated plants is at fault for the poor performance of the United States industry, but this cannot explain why Japanese integrated producers, who produce a higher-quality product using less energy and labor, are also experiencing economic trouble. The fact is that the common technological denominator of integrated producers is an inherently inefficient process that is still rooted in the nineteenth century.Integrated producers have been unable to compete successfully with minimills because the minimills, like specialty-steel mills, have dispensed almost entirely with the archaic energy and capital-intensive front end of integrated steelmaking: the iron-smelting process, including the mining and preparation of the raw materials and the blast-furnace operation. In addition, minimills have found a profitable way to market steel products: as indicated above, they sell their finished products locally, thereby reducing transportation costs, and concentrate on a limited range of shapes and sizes within a narrow group of products that can be manufactured economically. For these reasons, minimills have been able to avoid the economic decline affecting integrated steel producers.21. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?(A) United States steel producers face economic problems that are shared by producers in other nations.(B) Minimills are the most successful steel producers because they best meet market demands for cheap steel.(C) Minimills and specialty-steel mills are more economically competitive than integrated producers because they use new technology and avoid the costs of the iron-smelting process.(D) United States steel producers are experiencing an economic decline that can be traced back to the nineteenth century.(E) New steelmaking technologies such as continuous casting will replace blast-furnace operations to reverse the decline in United States steel production.22. The author mentions all of the following as features of minimills EXCEPT(A) flexibility in their operations(B) local sale of their products(C) avoidance of mining operations(D) use of new steel-refining technology(E) a limited range of low-quality products23. The author of the passage refers to “Japanese integrated producers”(line 43) primarily in order to support the view that(A) different economic difficulties face the steel industries of different nations(B) not all integrated producers share a common technological denominator(C) labor-intensive machinery cannot be blamed for the economic condition of United States integrated steel producers(D) modern steelmaking technology is generally labor-and energy-efficient(E) labor-intensive machinery is an economic burden on United States integrated steel。

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