罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap012

合集下载

罗斯公司理财chap001全英文题库及答案

罗斯公司理财chap001全英文题库及答案

Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate FinanceChapter 01 Introduction to Corporate Finance Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. The person generally directly responsible for overseeing the tax management, cost accounting, financial accounting, and information system functions is the:A. treasurer.B. director.C. controller.D. chairman of the board.E. chief executive officer.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CONTROLLERType: DEFINITIONS2. The person generally directly responsible for overseeing the cash and credit functions,financial planning, and capital expenditures is the:A. treasurer.B. director.C. controller.D. chairman of the board.E. chief operations officer.1-1Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance3. The process of planning and managing a firm's long-term investments is called:A. working capital management.B. financial depreciation.C. agency cost analysis.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CAPITAL BUDGETINGType: DEFINITIONS4. The mixture of debt and equity used by a firm to finance its operations is called:A. working capital management.B. financial depreciation.C. cost analysis.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.5. The management of a firm's short-term assets and liabilities is called:A. working capital management.B. debt management.C. equity management.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.1-2Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance6. A business owned by a single individual is called a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. limited liability company.7. A business formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for businessdebts is called a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. limited liability company.8. The division of profits and losses among the members of a partnership is formalized in the:A. indemnity clause.B. indenture contract.C. statement of purpose.D. partnership agreement.E. group charter.9. A business created as a distinct legal entity composed of one or more individuals or entities iscalled a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. unlimited liability company.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: DEFINITIONS1-3Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance10. The corporate document that sets forth the business purpose of a firm is the:A. indenture contract.B. state tax agreement.C. corporate bylaws.D. debt charter.E. articles of incorporation.11. The rules by which corporations govern themselves are called:A. indenture provisions.B. indemnity provisions.C. charter agreements.D. bylaws.E. articles of incorporation.12. A business entity operated and taxed like a partnership, but with limited liability for theowners, is called a:A. limited liability company.B. general partnership.C. limited proprietorship.D. sole proprietorship.E. corporation.13. The primary goal of financial management is to:A. maximize current dividends per share of the existing stock.B. maximize the current value per share of the existing stock.C. avoid financial distress.D. minimize operational costs and maximize firm efficiency.E. maintain steady growth in both sales and net earnings.14. A conflict of interest between the stockholders and management of a firm is called:A. stockholders' liability.B. corporate breakdown.C. the agency problem.D. corporate activism.E. legal liability.1-4Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance15. Agency costs refer to:A. the total dividends paid to stockholders over the lifetime of a firm.B. the costs that result from default and bankruptcy of a firm.C. corporate income subject to double taxation.D. the costs of any conflicts of interest between stockholders and management.E. the total interest paid to creditors over the lifetime of the firm.16. A stakeholder is:A. any person or entity that owns shares of stock of a corporation.B. any person or entity that has voting rights based on stock ownership of a corporation.C. a person who initially started a firm and currently has management control over the cashflows of the firm due to his/her current ownership of company stock.D. a creditor to whom the firm currently owes money and who consequently has a claim on thecash flows of the firm.E. any person or entity other than a stockholder or creditor who potentially has a claim on thecash flows of the firm.17. The Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 is intended to:A. protect financial managers from investors.B. not have any effect on foreign companies.C. reduce corporate revenues.D. protect investors from corporate abuses.E. decrease audit costs for U.S. firms.18. The treasurer and the controller of a corporation generally report to the:A. board of directors.B. chairman of the board.C. chief executive officer.D. president.E. chief financial officer.19. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the organizational structure ofa corporation?A. The vice president of finance reports to the chairman of the board.B. The chief executive officer reports to the board of directors.C. The controller reports to the president.D. The treasurer reports to the chief executive officer.E. The chief operations officer reports to the vice president of production.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTUREType: CONCEPTS1-5Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance20. Which one of the following is a capital budgeting decision?A. determining how much debt should be borrowed from a particular lenderB. deciding whether or not to open a new storeC. deciding when to repay a long-term debtD. determining how much inventory to keep on handE. determining how much money should be kept in the checking account21. The Sarbanes Oxley Act was enacted in:A. 1952.B. 1967.C. 1998.D. 2002.E. 2006.22. Since the implementation of Sarbanes-Oxley, the cost of going public in the United Stateshas:A. increased.B. decreased.C. remained about the same.D. been erratic, but over time has decreased.E. It is impossible to tell since Sarbanes-Oxley compliance does not involve direct cost to thefirm.23. Working capital management includes decisions concerning which of the following?I. accounts payableII. long-term debtIII. accounts receivableIV. inventoryA. I and II onlyB. I and III onlyC. II and IV onlyD. I, II, and III onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS1-6Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance24. Working capital management:A. ensures that sufficient equipment is available to produce the amount of product desired on adaily basis.B. ensures that long-term debt is acquired at the lowest possible cost.C. ensures that dividends are paid to all stockholders on an annual basis.D. balances the amount of company debt to the amount of available equity.E. is concerned with the upper portion of the balance sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS25. Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A. A sole proprietorship is the least common form of business ownership.B. The profits of a sole proprietorship are taxed twice.C. The owners of a sole proprietorship share profits as established by the partnership agreement.D. The owner of a sole proprietorship may be forced to sell his/her personal assets to paycompany debts.E. A sole proprietorship is often structured as a limited liability company.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPType: CONCEPTS26. Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A. The life of the firm is limited to the life span of the owner.B. The owner can generally raise large sums of capital quite easily.C. The ownership of the firm is easy to transfer to another individual.D. The company must pay separate taxes from those paid by the owner.E. The legal costs to form a sole proprietorship are quite substantial.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-7Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance27. Which one of the following best describes the primary advantage of being a limited partnerrather than a general partner?A. entitlement to a larger portion of the partnership's incomeB. ability to manage the day-to-day affairs of the businessC. no potential financial lossD. greater management responsibilityE. liability for firm debts limited to the capital investedDifficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS28. A general partner:A. has less legal liability than a limited partner.B. has more management responsibility than a limited partner.C. faces double taxation whereas a limited partner does not.D. cannot lose more than the amount of his/her equity investment.E. is the term applied only to corporations which invest in partnerships.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS29. A partnership:A. is taxed the same as a corporation.B. agreement defines whether the business income will be taxed like a partnership or acorporation.C. terminates at the death of any general partner.D. has less of an ability to raise capital than a proprietorship.E. allows for easy transfer of interest from one general partner to another.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-8Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance30. Which of the following are disadvantages of a partnership?I. limited life of the firmII. personal liability for firm debtIII. greater ability to raise capital than a sole proprietorshipIV. lack of ability to transfer partnership interestA. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II, and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS31. Which of the following are advantages of the corporate form of business ownership?I. limited liability for firm debtII. double taxationIII. ability to raise capitalIV. unlimited firm lifeA. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. I, II, and III onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS32. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning corporations?A. The largest firms are usually corporations.B. The majority of firms are corporations.C. The stockholders are usually the managers of a corporation.D. The ability of a corporation to raise capital is quite limited.E. The income of a corporation is taxed as personal income of the stockholders.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS1-9Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance33. Which one of the following statements is correct?A. Both partnerships and corporations incur double taxation.B. Both sole proprietorships and partnerships are taxed in a similar fashion.C. Partnerships are the most complicated type of business to form.D. Both partnerships and corporations have limited liability for general partners and shareholders.E. All types of business formations have limited lives.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BUSINESS TYPESType: CONCEPTS34. The articles of incorporation:A. can be used to remove company management.B. are amended annually by the company stockholders.C. set forth the number of shares of stock that can be issued.D. set forth the rules by which the corporation regulates its existence.E. can set forth the conditions under which the firm can avoid double taxation.35. The bylaws:A. establish the name of the corporation.B. are rules which apply only to limited liability companies.C. set forth the purpose of the firm.D. mandate the procedure for electing corporate directors.E. set forth the procedure by which the stockholders elect the senior managers of the firm.36. The owners of a limited liability company prefer:A. being taxed like a corporation.B. having liability exposure similar to that of a sole proprietor.C. being taxed personally on all business income.D. having liability exposure similar to that of a general partner.E. being taxed like a corporation with liability like a partnership.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANYType: CONCEPTS1-10Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance37. Which one of the following business types is best suited to raising large amounts ofcapital?A. sole proprietorshipB. limited liability companyC. corporationD. general partnershipE. limited partnershipDifficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS38. Which type of business organization has all the respective rights and privileges ofa legalperson?A. sole proprietorshipB. general partnershipC. limited partnershipD. corporationE. limited liability companyDifficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS39. Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existingstock because:A. doing so guarantees the company will grow in size at the maximum possible rate.B. doing so increases the salaries of all the employees.C. the current stockholders are the owners of the corporation.D. doing so means the firm is growing in size faster than its competitors.E. the managers often receive shares of stock as part of their compensation.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: GOAL OF FINANC IAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS1-11Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance40. The decisions made by financial managers should all be ones which increase the:A. size of the firm.B. growth rate of the firm.C. marketability of the managers.D. market value of the existing owners' equity.E. financial distress of the firm.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: GOAL OF FINANCIAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS41. Which one of the following actions by a financial manager creates an agency problem?A. refusing to borrow money when doing so will create losses for the firmB. refusing to lower selling prices if doing so will reduce the net profitsC. agreeing to expand the company at the expense of stockholders' valueD. agreeing to pay bonuses based on the book value of the company stockE. increasing current costs in order to increase the market value of the stockholders' equity42. Which of the following help convince managers to work in the best interest of the stockholders?I. compensation based on the value of the stockII. stock option plansIII. threat of a proxy fightIV. threat of conversion to a partnershipA. I and II onlyB. II and III onlyC. I, II and III onlyD. I and III onlyE. I, II, III, and IVDifficulty level: MediumTopic: AGENCY PROBLEMType: CONCEPTS1-12Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance43. Which form of business structure faces the greatest agency problems?A. sole proprietorshipB. general partnershipC. limited partnershipD. corporationE. limited liability company44. A proxy fight occurs when:A. the board solicits renewal of current members.B. a group solicits proxies to replace the board of directors.C. a competitor offers to sell their ownership in the firm.D. the firm files for bankruptcy.E. the firm is declared insolvent.45. Which one of the following parties is considered a stakeholder of a firm?A. employeeB. short-term creditorC. long-term creditorD. preferred stockholderE. common stockholderDifficulty level: EasyTopic: STAKEHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS46. Which of the following are key requirements of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?I. Officers of the corporation must review and sign annual reports.II. Officers of the corporation must now own more than 5% of the firm's stock. III. Annual reports must list deficiencies in internal controlsIV. Annual reports must be filed with the SEC within 30 days of year end.A. I onlyB. II onlyC. I and III onlyD. II and III onlyE. II and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: SARBANES-OXLEYType: CONCEPTS1-13Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance47. Insider trading is:A. legal.B. illegal.C. impossible to have in our efficient market.D. discouraged, but legal.E. list only the securities of the largest firms.48. Sole proprietorships are predominantly started because:A. they are easily and cheaply setup.B. the proprietorship life is limited to the business owner's life.C. all business taxes are paid as individual tax.D. All of the above.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPSType: CONCEPTS49. Managers are encouraged to act in shareholders' interests by:A. shareholder election of a board of directors who select management.B. the threat of a takeover by another firm.C. compensation contracts that tie compensation to corporate success.D. Both A and B.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GOVERNANCEType: CONCEPTS50. The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 focuses on:A. all stock transactions.B. sales of existing securities.C. issuance of new securities.D. insider trading.E. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) insurance.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS1-14Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance51. The basic regulatory framework in the United States was provided by:A. the Securities Act of 1933.B. the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.C. the monetary system.D. A and B.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS52. The Securities Act of 1933 focuses on:A. all stock transactions.B. sales of existing securities.C. issuance of new securities.D. insider trading.E. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) insurance.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS53. In a limited partnership:A. each limited partner's liability is limited to his net worth.B. each limited partner's liability is limited to the amount he put into the partnership.C. each limited partner's liability is limited to his annual salary.D. there is no limitation on liability; only a limitation on what the partner can earn.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: LIMITED PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-15Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance54. Accounting profits and cash flows are:A. generally the same since they reflect current laws and accounting standards.B. generally the same since accounting profits reflect when the cash flows are received.C. generally not the same since GAAP allows for revenue recognition separate from the receiptof cash flows.D. generally not the same because cash inflows occur before revenue recognition.E. Both c and d.1-16。

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案ChapWord版

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案ChapWord版

CHAPTER 8MAKING CAPITAL INVESTMENT DECISIONSAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.In this context, an opportunity cost refers to the value of an asset or other input that will be used in aproject. The relevant cost is what the asset or input is actually worth today, not, for example, what it cost to acquire.2. a.Yes, the reduction in the sales of the company’s other products, referred to as erosion, andshould be treated as an incremental cash flow. These lost sales are included because they are a cost (a revenue reduction) that the firm must bear if it chooses to produce the new product.b. Yes, expenditures on plant and equipment should be treated as incremental cash flows. Theseare costs of the new product line. However, if these expenditures have already occurred, they are sunk costs and are not included as incremental cash flows.c. No, the research and development costs should not be treated as incremental cash flows. Thecosts of research and development undertaken on the product during the past 3 years are sunk costs and should not be included in the evaluation of the project. Decisions made and costs incurred in the past cannot be changed. They should not affect the decision to accept or reject the project.d. Yes, the annual depreciation expense should be treated as an incremental cash flow.Depreciation expense must be taken into account when calculating the cash flows related to a given project. While depreciation is not a cash expense that directly affects cash flow, it decreases a firm’s net income and hence, lowers its tax bill for the year. Because of this depreciation tax shield, the firm has more cash on hand at the end of the year than it would have had without expensing depreciation.e.No, dividend payments should not be treated as incremental cash flows. A firm’s decision topay or not pay dividends is independent of the decision to accept or reject any given investment project. For this reason, it is not an incremental cash flow to a given project. Dividend policy is discussed in more detail in later chapters.f.Yes, the resale value of plant and equipment at the end of a project’s life should be treated as anincremental cash flow. The price at which the firm sells the equipment is a cash inflow, and any difference between the book value of the equipment and its sale price will create gains or lossesthat result in either a tax credit or liability.g.Yes, salary and medical costs for production employees hired for a project should be treated asincremental cash flows. The salaries of all personnel connected to the project must be included as costs of that project.3.Item I is a relevant cost because the opportunity to sell the land is lost if the new golf club is produced. Item II is also relevant because the firm must take into account the erosion of sales of existing products when a new product is introduced. If the firm produces the new club, the earnings from the existing clubs will decrease, effectively creating a cost that must be included in the decision.Item III is not relevant because the costs of Research and Development are sunk costs. Decisions made in the past cannot be changed. They are not relevant to the production of the new clubs.4.For tax purposes, a firm would choose MACRS because it provides for larger depreciationdeductions earlier. These larger deductions reduce taxes, but have no other cash consequences.Notice that the choice between MACRS and straight-line is purely a time value issue; the total depreciation is the same; only the timing differs.5.It’s probably only a mild over-simplification. Current liabilities will all be paid, presumably. Thecash portion of current assets will be retrieved. Some receivables won’t be collected, and some inventory will not be sold, of course. Counterbalancing these losses is the fact that inventory sold above cost (and not replaced at the end of the project’s life) acts to increase working capital. These effects tend to offset one another.6.Management’s discretion to set the firm’s capital structure is applicable at the firm level. Since anyone particular project could be financed entirely with equity, another project could be financed with debt, and the firm’s overall capital structure remains unchanged, financing cost s are not relevant in the analysis of a project’s incremental cash flows according to the stand-alone principle.7.The EAC approach is appropriate when comparing mutually exclusive projects with different livesthat will be replaced when they wear out. This type of analysis is necessary so that the projects havea common life span over which they can be compared; in effect, each project is assumed to existover an infinite horizon of N-year repeating projects. Assuming that this type of analysis is valid implies that the project cash flows remain the same forever, thus ignoring the possible effects of, among other things: (1) inflation, (2) changing economic conditions, (3) the increasing unreliability of cash flow estimates that occur far into the future, and (4) the possible effects of future technology improvement that could alter the project cash flows.8.Depreciation is a non-cash expense, but it is tax-deductible on the income statement. Thusdepreciation causes taxes paid, an actual cash outflow, to be reduced by an amount equal to the depreciation tax shield, t c D. A reduction in taxes that would otherwise be paid is the same thing as a cash inflow, so the effects of the depreciation tax shield must be added in to get the total incremental aftertax cash flows.9.There are two particularly important considerations. The first is erosion. Will the “essentialized”book simply displace copies of the existing book that would have otherwise been sold? This is of special concern given the lower price. The second consideration is competition. Will other publishers step in and produce such a product? If so, then any erosion is much less relevant. A particular concern to book publishers (and producers of a variety of other product types) is that the publisher only makes money from the sale of new books. Thus, it is important to examine whether the new book would displace sales of used books (good from the publisher’s perspective) or new books (not good). The concern arises any time there is an active market for used product.10.Definitely. The damage to Porsche’s reputation is definitely a factor the company needed to consider.If the reputation was damaged, the company would have lost sales of its existing car lines.11.One company may be able to produce at lower incremental cost or market better. Also, of course,one of the two may have made a mistake!12.Porsche would recognize that the outsized profits would dwindle as more products come to marketand competition becomes more intense.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = [($5 × 2,000 – ($2 × 2,000)](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($10,000/5)OCF = $4,600So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –$10,000 + $4,600(PVIFA17%,5)NPV = $4,7172.We will use the bottom-up approach to calculate the operating cash flow for each year. We also mustbe sure to include the net working capital cash flows each year. So, the total cash flow each year will be:Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Sales Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000Costs 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000Depreciation 2,500 2,500 2,500 2,500EBT Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500Tax 850 850 850 850Net income Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650OCF 0 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150Capital spending –Rs.10,000 0 0 0 0NWC –200 –250 –300 –200 950Incremental cashflow –Rs.10,200 Rs.3,900 Rs.3,850 Rs.3,950 Rs.5,100The NPV for the project is:NPV = –Rs.10,200 + Rs.3,900 / 1.10 + Rs.3,850 / 1.102 + Rs.3,950 / 1.103 + Rs.5,100 / 1.104NPV = Rs.2,978.333. Using the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = (R2,400,000 – 960,000)(1 – 0.30) + 0.30(R2,700,000/3)OCF = R1,278,000So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R2,700,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,3)NPV = R217,961.704.The cash outflow at the beginning of the project will increase because of the spending on NWC. Atthe end of the project, the company will recover the NWC, so it will be a cash inflow. The sale of the equipment will result in a cash inflow, but we also must account for the taxes which will be paid on this sale. So, the cash flows for each year of the project will be:Year Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,278,0002 1,278,0003 1,725,000 = R1,278,000 + 300,000 + 210,000 + (0 – 210,000)(.30)And the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R3,000,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,2) + (R1,725,000 / 1.153)NPV = R211,871.465. First we will calculate the annual depreciation for the equipment necessary for the project. Thedepreciation amount each year will be:Year 1 depreciation = R2.7M(0.3330) = R899,100Year 2 depreciation = R2.7M(0.4440) = R1,198,800Year 3 depreciation = R2.7M(0.1480) = R399,600So, the book value of the equipment at the end of three years, which will be the initial investment minus the accumulated depreciation, is:Book value in 3 years = R2.7M – (R899,100 + 1,198,800 + 399,600)Book value in 3 years = R202,500The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = R202,500 + (R202,500 – 210,000)(0.30)Aftertax salvage value = R207,750To calculate the OCF, we will use the tax shield approach, so the cash flow each year is:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationYear Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,277,730.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R899,100)2 1,367,640.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R1,198,800)3 1,635,630.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R399,600) + R207,750 + 300,000Remember to include the NWC cost in Year 0, and the recovery of the NWC at the end of the project.The NPV of the project with these assumptions is:NPV = – R3.0M + (R1,277,730/1.15) + (R1,367,640/1.152) + (R1,635,630/1.153)NPV = R220,655.206. First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = €925,000/5Annual depreciation charge = €185,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = €90,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = €58,500Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = €360,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(€185,000)OCF = €298,750Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project. Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –€925,000 + 125,000 + €298,750(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [(€58,500 – 125,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 23.85%7.First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = £390,000/5Annual depreciation = £78,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often, the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero. So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = £60,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = £39,600Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = £120,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(£78,000)OCF = £105,720Now we can find the project NPV. Notice that we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –£390,000 – 28,000 + £105,720(PVIFA10%,5) + [(£39,600 + 28,000) / 1.15]NPV = £24,736.268.To find the BV at the end of four years, we need to find the accumulated depreciation for the firstfour years. We could calculate a table with the depreciation each year, but an easier way is to add the MACRS depreciation amounts for each of the first four years and multiply this percentage times the cost of the asset. We can then subtract this from the asset cost. Doing so, we get:BV4 = $9,300,000 – 9,300,000(0.2000 + 0.3200 + 0.1920 + 0.1150)BV4 = $1,608,900The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = $2,100,000 + ($1,608,900 – 2,100,000)(.40)Aftertax salvage value = $1,903,5609. We will begin by calculating the initial cash outlay, that is, the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake theproject, we will have to purchase the equipment and increase net working capital. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment –€2,000,000NWC –100,000Total –€2,100,000Using the bottom-up approach to calculating the operating cash flow, we find the operating cash flow each year will be:Sales €1,200,000Costs 300,000Depreciation 500,000EBT €400,000Tax 140,000Net income €260,000The operating cash flow is:OCF = Net income + DepreciationOCF = €260,000 + 500,000OCF = €760,000To find the NPV of the project, we add the present value of the project cash flows. We must be sure to add back the net working capital at the end of the project life, since we are assuming the net working capital will be recovered. So, the project NPV is:NPV = –€2,100,000 + €760,000(PVIFA14%,4) + €100,000 / 1.144NPV = €173,629.3810.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $20,000(1 – 0.35) = $13,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = – $34,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($210,000/3) = $2,400NPV = –$210,000 + $2,400(PVIFA14%,3) + ($13,000/1.143) = –$195,653.45EAC = –$195,653.45 / (PVIFA14%,3) = –$84,274.10And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = – $23,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($320,000/5) = $7,450NPV = –$320,000 + $7,450(PVIFA14%,5) + ($13,000/1.145) = –$287,671.75EAC = –$287,671.75 / (PVIFA14%,5) = –$83,794.05The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.。

(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C

(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C

CHAPTER 20INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. a.The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than inthe spot market (SFr 1.53 versus SFr 1.50).b.The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buyone dollar in the future than it does today.c.Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates.2.The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar. This isthe relative PPP relationship.3. a.The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take moreA$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today.b.The inflation rate in Australia is higher.c.Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are thesame.4. A Yankee bond is most accurately described by d.5. No. For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exportsbecome more expensive for others to buy (bad). The reverse is true for currency depreciation.6.Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving ontransportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk. Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations.7.One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency. Moregenerally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified.8. a.False. If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the sameamount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar.b.False. The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relativeto the dollar. Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines.c.True. The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time.9. a.American exporters: their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods fora fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars.American importers: their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars.b.American exporters: they would generally be better off if the British government’s intentionsresult in a strengthened pound.American importers: they would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens.c.American exporters: they would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscalexpansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in cruzeiros, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars.American importers: they would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars.10.IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit anyarbitrage opportunities. Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly.11.It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period andwhether the expectation is accurate. Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders do not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure.12.One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investmentprovides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own. Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country. Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment. Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk. If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk. As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment.13.Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment. If, after taking into consideration all risks, aproject in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it. Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task. But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic.14.If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S. parent will experience an exchange rate loss when theforeign cash flow is remitted to the U.S. This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts. Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located.15.False. If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rateand the U.S. rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation. Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial.16.The difference between a Eurobond and a foreign bond is that the foreign bond is denominated in thecurrency of the country of origin of the issuing company. Eurobonds are more popular than foreign bonds because of registration differences. Eurobonds are unregistered securities.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the quotes from the table, we get:a.$50(€0.7870/$1) = €39.35b.$1.2706c.€5M($1.2706/€) = $6,353,240d.New Zealand dollare.Mexican pesof.(P11.0023/$1)($1.2186/€1) = P13.9801/€This is a cross rate.g.The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar. The least valuable is the Indonesian rupiah.2. a.You would prefer £100, since:(£100)($.5359/£1) = $53.59b.You would still prefer £100. Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/£ exchange rate to find theamount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get:(£100)($1.8660/£1)(SF .8233) = SF 226.6489ing the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find:(SF 1.2146/$1)($0.5359/£1) = SF 2.2665/£1The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so:£1/SF .4412 = £0.4412/SF 13. a.F180= ¥104.93 (per $). The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in theforward market than in the spot market ($0.0093659 versus $0.009530).b.F90 = $1.8587/£. The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forwardmarket than in the spot market ($0.5380 versus $0.5359).c.The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen inthe future than it does today. The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take fewer dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today.4. a.The U.S. dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy:(Can$1)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $0.7937b.The cost in U.S. dollars is:(Can$2.19)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $1.74Among the reasons that absolute PPP doe sn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes.c.The U.S. dollar is selling at a discount, because it is less expensive in the forward market thanin the spot market (Can$1.22 versus Can$1.26).d.The Canadian dollar is expected to appreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takesfewer Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar in the future than it does today.e.Interest rates in the United States are probably higher than they are in Canada.5. a.The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is:(¥115/$1)($1.70/£1) = ¥195.5/£1b.The yen is quoted too low relative to the pound. Take out a loan for $1 and buy ¥115. Use the¥115 to purchase pounds at the cross-rate, which will give you:¥115(£1/¥185) = £0.6216Use the pounds to buy back dollars and repay the loan. The cost to repay the loan will be:£0.6216($1.70/£1) = $1.0568You arbitrage profit is $0.0568 per dollar used.6.We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question. The equation we will useis:R FC = (F T– S0)/S0 + R USUsing this relationship, we find:Great Britain: R FC = (£0.5394 – £0.5359)/£0.5359 + .038 = 4.45%Japan: R FC = (¥104.93 – ¥106.77)/¥106.77 + .038 = 2.08%Switzerland: R FC = (SFr 1.1980 – SFr 1.2146)/SFr 1.2146 + .038 = 2.43%7.If we invest in the U.S. for the next three months, we will have:$30M(1.0045)3 = $30,406,825.23If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months. After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be:($30M)(£0.56/$1)(1.0060)3/(£0.59/$1) = $28,990,200.05We should invest in U.S.ing the relative purchasing power parity equation:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]tWe find:Z3.92 = Z3.84[1 + (h FC– h US)]3h FC– h US = (Z3.92/Z3.84)1/3– 1h FC– h US = .0069Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S. by 0.69% over this period.9.The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production. Theproduction cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S. dollars. Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,295,250.18If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/1.1(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,572,954.71If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/0.9(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $955,833.53To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that make the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S. dollars, so:$145 = S$168.50/S TS T = S$1.1621/$1S T = –.2978 or –29.78% decline10. a.If IRP holds, then:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.5257Since given F180 is Kr6.56, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high.Borrow Kr1 today at 8% interest. Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 6.56. Convert the loan proceeds into dollars:Kr 1 ($1/Kr 6.43) = $0.15552Invest these dollars at 5%, ending up with $0.15931. Convert the dollars back into krone as$0.15931(Kr 6.56/$1) = Kr 1.04506Repay the Kr 1 loan, ending with a profit of:Kr1.04506 – Kr1.03868 = Kr 0.00638b.To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.525711.The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal. We canrearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question:R US– h US = R FC– h FCh FC = R FC + h US– R USa.h AUS = .05 + .035 – .039h AUS = .046 or 4.6%b.h CAN = .07 + .035 – .039h CAN = .066 or 6.6%c.h TAI = .10 + .035 – .039h TAI = .096 or 9.6%12. a.The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the futurethan it does today.b.h US– h JAP (¥129.76 – ¥131.30)/¥131.30h US– h JAP = – .0117 or –1.17%(1 – .0117)4– 1 = –.0461 or –4.61%The approximate inflation differential between the U.S. and Japan is – 4.61% annually.13. We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasingpower parity relationship:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]TUsing this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be:F1 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]1F1 = HUF 225.97The exchange rate in two years should be:F2 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]2F2 = HUF 237.49And the exchange rate in five years should be:F5 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]5F5 = HUF 275.71ing the interest-rate parity theorem:(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC) = F(0,1) / S0We can find the forward rate as:F(0,1) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)] S0F(0,1) = (1.13 / 1.08)$1.50/£F(0,1) = $1.57/£Intermediate15.First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years. From interest rate andpurchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is:E(S T) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)]T S0So:E(S1) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)1 $1.22/€ = $1.2282/€E(S2) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)2 $1.22/€ = $1.2365/€E(S3) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)3 $1.22/€ = $1.2448/€Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows. The dollar cash flow each year will be:Year 0 cash flow = –€$12,000,000($1.22/€) = –$14,640,000.00Year 1 cash flow = €$2,700,000($1.2282/€) = $3,316,149.86Year 2 cash flow = €$3,500,000($1.2365/€) = $4,327,618.63Year 3 cash flow = (€3,300,000 + 7,400,000)($1.2448/€) = $13,319,111.90And the NPV of the project will be:NPV = –$14,640,000 + $3,316,149.86/1.13 + $4,4327,618.63/1.132 + $13,319,111.90/1.133NPV = $914,618.7316. a.Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but theexchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate.b.We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time. Theequation is:E[S T] = (SFr 1.72)[1 + (.07 – .08)]TE[S T] = 1.72(.99)TSo, the cash flows each year in U.S. dollar terms will be:t SFr E[S T] US$0 –27.0M –$15,697,674.421 +7.5M 1.7028 $4,404,510.222 +7.5M 1.6858 $4,449,000.223 +7.5M 1.6689 $4,493,939.624 +7.5M 1.6522 $4,539,332.955 +7.5M 1.6357 $4,585,184.79And the NPV is:NPV = –$15,697,674.42 + $4,404,510.22/1.13 + $4,449,000.22/1.132 + $4,493,939.62/1.133 + $4,539,332.95/1.134 + $4,585,184.79/1.135NPV = $71,580.10c.Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swissfrancs, we get:R SFr = 1.13[1 + (.07 – .08)] – 1R SFr = 11.87%So, the NPV in Swiss francs is:NPV = –SFr 27.0M + SFr 7.5M(PVIFA11.87%,5)NPV = SFr 123,117.76Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S. dollars as:NPV = (SFr 123,117.76)($1/SFr 1.72)NPV = $71,580.10Challenge17. a.The domestic Fisher effect is:1 + R US = (1 + r US)(1 + h US)1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US)This relationship must hold for any country, that is:1 + r FC = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC)The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so:1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US) = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC) = 1 + r FCb.The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is:E[S t] = F t = S0 [(1 + R FC)/(1 + R US)]tc.The exact form for relative PPP is:E[S t] = S0 [(1 + h FC)/(1 + h US)]td.For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at time t as:E[S t] = (€0.5)[1.07/1.05]t= (€0.5)(1.019)tWe then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value. Doing so, we find:NPV = –[€2M/(€0.5)] + {€0.9M/[1.019(€0.5)]}/1.1 + {€0.9M/[1.0192(€0.5)]}/1.12 + {€0.9M/[1.0193(€0.5/$1)]}/1.13NPV = $316,230.72For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in the euros as:R FC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – 1 = 0.121Next, we find the NPV in euros as:NPV = –€2M + (€0.9M)/1.121 + (€0.9M)/1.1212+ (€0.9M)/1.1213= €158,115.36And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is:NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /(€0.5/$1) = $316,230.72。

公司理财第九版罗斯课后案例答案 Case Solutions Corporate Finance

公司理财第九版罗斯课后案例答案  Case Solutions Corporate Finance

公司理财第九版罗斯课后案例答案 Case Solutions CorporateFinance1. 案例一:公司资金需求分析问题:一家公司需要资金支持其新项目。

通过分析现金流量,推断该公司是否需要向外部借款或筹集其他资金。

解答:为了确定公司是否需要外部资金,我们需要分析公司的现金流量状况。

首先,我们需要计算公司的净现金流量(净收入加上非现金项目)。

然后,我们需要将净现金流量与项目的投资现金流量进行对比。

假设公司预计在项目开始时投资100万美元,并在项目运营期为5年。

预计该项目每年将产生50万美元的净现金流量。

现在,我们需要进行以下计算:净现金流量 = 年度现金流量 - 年度投资现金流量年度投资现金流量 = 100万美元年度现金流量 = 50万美元净现金流量 = 50万美元 - 100万美元 = -50万美元根据计算结果,公司的净现金流量为负数(即净现金流出),意味着公司每年都会亏损50万美元。

因此,公司需要从外部筹集资金以支持项目的运营。

2. 案例二:公司股权融资问题:一家公司正在考虑通过股权融资来筹集资金。

根据公司的财务数据和资本结构分析,我们需要确定公司最佳的股权融资方案。

解答:为了确定最佳的股权融资方案,我们需要参考公司的财务数据和资本结构分析。

首先,我们需要计算公司的资本结构比例,即股本占总资本的比例。

然后,我们将不同的股权融资方案与资本结构比例进行对比,选择最佳的方案。

假设公司当前的资本结构比例为60%的股本和40%的债务,在当前的资本结构下,公司的加权平均资本成本(WACC)为10%。

现在,我们需要进行以下计算:•方案一:以新股发行筹集1000万美元,并将其用于项目投资。

在这种方案下,公司的资本结构比例将发生变化。

假设公司的股本增加至80%,债务比例减少至20%。

根据资本结构比例的变化,WACC也将发生变化。

新的WACC可以通过以下公式计算得出:新的WACC = (股本比例 * 股本成本) + (债务比例 * 债务成本)假设公司的股本成本为12%,债务成本为8%:新的WACC = (0.8 * 12%) + (0.2 * 8%) = 9.6%•方案二:以新股发行筹集5000万美元,并将其用于项目投资。

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap020.doc

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap020.doc

CHAPTER 20INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. a.The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than inthe spot market (SFr 1.53 versus SFr 1.50).b.The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buyone dollar in the future than it does today.c.Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates.2.The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar. This isthe relative PPP relationship.3. a.The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take moreA$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today.b.The inflation rate in Australia is higher.c.Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are thesame.4. A Yankee bond is most accurately described by d.5. No. For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exportsbecome more expensive for others to buy (bad). The reverse is true for currency depreciation.6.Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving ontransportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk. Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations.7.One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency. Moregenerally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified.8. a.False. If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the sameamount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar.b.False. The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relativeto the dollar. Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines.c.True. The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time.9. a.American exporters: their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods fora fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars.American importers: their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars.b.American exporters: they would generally be better off if the British government’s intentionsresult in a strengthened pound.American importers: they would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens.c.American exporters: they would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscalexpansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in cruzeiros, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars.American importers: they would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars.10.IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit anyarbitrage opportunities. Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly.11.It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period andwhether the expectation is accurate. Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders do not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure.12.One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investmentprovides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own. Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country. Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment. Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk. If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk. As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment.13.Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment. If, after taking into consideration all risks, aproject in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it. Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task. But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic.14.If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S. parent will experience an exchange rate loss when theforeign cash flow is remitted to the U.S. This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts. Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located.15.False. If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rateand the U.S. rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation. Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial.16.The difference between a Eurobond and a foreign bond is that the foreign bond is denominated in thecurrency of the country of origin of the issuing company. Eurobonds are more popular than foreign bonds because of registration differences. Eurobonds are unregistered securities.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the quotes from the table, we get:a.$50(€0.7870/$1) = €39.35b.$1.2706c.€5M($1.2706/€) = $6,353,240d.New Zealand dollare.Mexican pesof.(P11.0023/$1)($1.2186/€1) = P13.9801/€This is a cross rate.g.The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar. The least valuable is the Indonesian rupiah.2. a.You would prefer £100, since:(£100)($.5359/£1) = $53.59b.You would still prefer £100. Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/£ exchange rate to find theamount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get:(£100)($1.8660/£1)(SF .8233) = SF 226.6489ing the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find:(SF 1.2146/$1)($0.5359/£1) = SF 2.2665/£1The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so:£1/SF .4412 = £0.4412/SF 13. a.F180= ¥104.93 (per $). The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in theforward market than in the spot market ($0.0093659 versus $0.009530).b.F90 = $1.8587/£. The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forwardmarket than in the spot market ($0.5380 versus $0.5359).c.The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen inthe future than it does today. The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take fewer dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today.4. a.The U.S. dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy:(Can$1)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $0.7937b.The cost in U.S. dollars is:(Can$2.19)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $1.74Among the reasons that absolute PPP doe sn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes.c.The U.S. dollar is selling at a discount, because it is less expensive in the forward market thanin the spot market (Can$1.22 versus Can$1.26).d.The Canadian dollar is expected to appreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takesfewer Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar in the future than it does today.e.Interest rates in the United States are probably higher than they are in Canada.5. a.The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is:(¥115/$1)($1.70/£1) = ¥195.5/£1b.The yen is quoted too low relative to the pound. Take out a loan for $1 and buy ¥115. Use the¥115 to purchase pounds at the cross-rate, which will give you:¥115(£1/¥185) = £0.6216Use the pounds to buy back dollars and repay the loan. The cost to repay the loan will be:£0.6216($1.70/£1) = $1.0568You arbitrage profit is $0.0568 per dollar used.6.We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question. The equation we will useis:R FC = (F T– S0)/S0 + R USUsing this relationship, we find:Great Britain: R FC = (£0.5394 – £0.5359)/£0.5359 + .038 = 4.45%Japan: R FC = (¥104.93 – ¥106.77)/¥106.77 + .038 = 2.08%Switzerland: R FC = (SFr 1.1980 – SFr 1.2146)/SFr 1.2146 + .038 = 2.43%7.If we invest in the U.S. for the next three months, we will have:$30M(1.0045)3 = $30,406,825.23If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months. After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be:($30M)(£0.56/$1)(1.0060)3/(£0.59/$1) = $28,990,200.05We should invest in U.S.ing the relative purchasing power parity equation:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]tWe find:Z3.92 = Z3.84[1 + (h FC– h US)]3h FC– h US = (Z3.92/Z3.84)1/3– 1h FC– h US = .0069Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S. by 0.69% over this period.9.The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production. Theproduction cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S. dollars. Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,295,250.18If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/1.1(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,572,954.71If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/0.9(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $955,833.53To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that make the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S. dollars, so:$145 = S$168.50/S TS T = S$1.1621/$1S T = –.2978 or –29.78% decline10. a.If IRP holds, then:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.5257Since given F180 is Kr6.56, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high.Borrow Kr1 today at 8% interest. Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 6.56. Convert the loan proceeds into dollars:Kr 1 ($1/Kr 6.43) = $0.15552Invest these dollars at 5%, ending up with $0.15931. Convert the dollars back into krone as$0.15931(Kr 6.56/$1) = Kr 1.04506Repay the Kr 1 loan, ending with a profit of:Kr1.04506 – Kr1.03868 = Kr 0.00638b.To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.525711.The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal. We canrearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question:R US– h US = R FC– h FCh FC = R FC + h US– R USa.h AUS = .05 + .035 – .039h AUS = .046 or 4.6%b.h CAN = .07 + .035 – .039h CAN = .066 or 6.6%c.h TAI = .10 + .035 – .039h TAI = .096 or 9.6%12. a.The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the futurethan it does today.b.h US– h JAP (¥129.76 – ¥131.30)/¥131.30h US– h JAP = – .0117 or –1.17%(1 – .0117)4– 1 = –.0461 or –4.61%The approximate inflation differential between the U.S. and Japan is – 4.61% annually.13. We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasingpower parity relationship:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]TUsing this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be:F1 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]1F1 = HUF 225.97The exchange rate in two years should be:F2 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]2F2 = HUF 237.49And the exchange rate in five years should be:F5 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]5F5 = HUF 275.71ing the interest-rate parity theorem:(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC) = F(0,1) / S0We can find the forward rate as:F(0,1) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)] S0F(0,1) = (1.13 / 1.08)$1.50/£F(0,1) = $1.57/£Intermediate15.First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years. From interest rate andpurchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is:E(S T) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)]T S0So:E(S1) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)1 $1.22/€ = $1.2282/€E(S2) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)2 $1.22/€ = $1.2365/€E(S3) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)3 $1.22/€ = $1.2448/€Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows. The dollar cash flow each year will be:Year 0 cash flow = –€$12,000,000($1.22/€) = –$14,640,000.00Year 1 cash flow = €$2,700,000($1.2282/€) = $3,316,149.86Year 2 cash flow = €$3,500,000($1.2365/€) = $4,327,618.63Year 3 cash flow = (€3,300,000 + 7,400,000)($1.2448/€) = $13,319,111.90And the NPV of the project will be:NPV = –$14,640,000 + $3,316,149.86/1.13 + $4,4327,618.63/1.132 + $13,319,111.90/1.133NPV = $914,618.7316. a.Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but theexchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate.b.We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time. Theequation is:E[S T] = (SFr 1.72)[1 + (.07 – .08)]TE[S T] = 1.72(.99)TSo, the cash flows each year in U.S. dollar terms will be:t SFr E[S T] US$0 –27.0M –$15,697,674.421 +7.5M 1.7028 $4,404,510.222 +7.5M 1.6858 $4,449,000.223 +7.5M 1.6689 $4,493,939.624 +7.5M 1.6522 $4,539,332.955 +7.5M 1.6357 $4,585,184.79And the NPV is:NPV = –$15,697,674.42 + $4,404,510.22/1.13 + $4,449,000.22/1.132 + $4,493,939.62/1.133 + $4,539,332.95/1.134 + $4,585,184.79/1.135NPV = $71,580.10c.Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swissfrancs, we get:R SFr = 1.13[1 + (.07 – .08)] – 1R SFr = 11.87%So, the NPV in Swiss francs is:NPV = –SFr 27.0M + SFr 7.5M(PVIFA11.87%,5)NPV = SFr 123,117.76Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S. dollars as:NPV = (SFr 123,117.76)($1/SFr 1.72)NPV = $71,580.10Challenge17. a.The domestic Fisher effect is:1 + R US = (1 + r US)(1 + h US)1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US)This relationship must hold for any country, that is:1 + r FC = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC)The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so:1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US) = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC) = 1 + r FCb.The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is:E[S t] = F t = S0 [(1 + R FC)/(1 + R US)]tc.The exact form for relative PPP is:E[S t] = S0 [(1 + h FC)/(1 + h US)]td.For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at time t as:E[S t] = (€0.5)[1.07/1.05]t= (€0.5)(1.019)tWe then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value. Doing so, we find:NPV = –[€2M/(€0.5)] + {€0.9M/[1.019(€0.5)]}/1.1 + {€0.9M/[1.0192(€0.5)]}/1.12 + {€0.9M/[1.0193(€0.5/$1)]}/1.13NPV = $316,230.72For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in the euros as:R FC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – 1 = 0.121Next, we find the NPV in euros as:NPV = –€2M + (€0.9M)/1.121 + (€0.9M)/1.1212+ (€0.9M)/1.1213= €158,115.36And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is:NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /(€0.5/$1) = $316,230.72。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版英文原书课后部分章节答案

罗斯《公司理财》第9版英文原书课后部分章节答案

罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11,13,18,19,20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16,24,27,42,58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FV A. The equation to find the FV A is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PV A = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3,18,21,22,31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is thesemiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4,18,20,22,244. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Y ear 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 –.28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Y ear 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Y ear 3 will be the dividend in Y ear 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Y ear 3 will be: 6 / 17 P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Y ear 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3,4,6,9,15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Y ear 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: V alue today of Y ear 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 V alue today of Y ear 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 V alue today of Y ear 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Y ear 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To findthe discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 –4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Y ear 1 and Y ear 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Y ear 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: A verage net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: A verage book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = A verage net income / A verage book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap

30.1 The new corporation issues $300,000 in new debt. The merger creates $100,000 ofgoodwill because the merger is a purchase.Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 580 Equity 700Goodwill 100Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.2 If the balance sheet for Philadelphia Pretzel shows assets at book value instead of marketvalue, the goodwill will be only $60,000 (=$300,000 - $240,000). Thus, the net fixed assetsare $620,000 (=$1,300,000 - $480,000 - $140,000 - $60,000).Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 620 Equity 700Goodwill 60Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.3Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $280Other assets 140 Long-term debt 100Net fixed assets 580 Equity 820Total assets $1,200 Total liabilities $1,200 30.4 a. False. Although the reasoning seems correct, the Stillman-Eckbo data do not supportthe monopoly power theory.b. True. When managers act in their own interest, acquisitions are an important controldevice for shareholders. It appears that some acquisitions and takeovers are theconsequence of underlying conflicts between managers and shareholders.c. False. Even if markets are efficient, the presence of synergy will make the value ofthe combined firm different from the sum of the values of the separate firms.Incremental cash flows provide the positive NPV of the transaction.d. False. In an efficient market, traders will value takeovers based on “Fundamentalfactors” regardless of the time horizon. Recall that the evidence as a whole suggestsefficiency in the markets. Mergers should be no different.e. False. The tax effect of an acquisition depends on whether the merger is taxable ornon-taxable. In a taxable merger, there are two opposing factors to consider, thecapital gains effect and the write-up effect. The net effect is the sum of these twoeffects.f. True. Because of the coinsurance effect, wealth might be transferred from thestockholders to the bondholders. Acquisition analysis usually disregards this effectand considers only the total value.30.530.6 a. The weather conditions are independent. Thus, the joint probabilities are theproducts of the individual probabilities.Possible states Joint probabilityRain Rain 0.1 x 0.1=0.01Rain Warm 0.1 x 0.4=0.04Rain Hot 0.1 x 0.5=0.05Warm Rain 0.4 x 0.1=0.04Warm Warm 0.4 x 0.4=0.16Warm Hot 0.4 x 0.5=0.20Hot Rain 0.5 x 0.1=0.05Hot Warm 0.5 x 0.4=0.20Hot Hot 0.5 x 0.5=0.25Since the state Rain Warm has the same outcome (revenue) as Warm Rain, theirprobabilities can be added. The same is true of Rain Hot, Hot Rain and Warm Hot,Hot Warm. Thus the joint probabilities arePossibleJoint probabilitystatesRain Rain 0.01Rain Warm 0.08Rain Hot 0.10Warm Warm 0.16Warm Hot 0.40Hot Hot 0.25The joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particularstate.Possible states Joint valueRain Rain $200,000Rain Warm 300,000Warm Warm 400,000Rain Hot 500,000Warm Hot 600,000Hot Hot 800,000b. Recall, if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of the assets.Thus, the value of the debt is the value of the company if the face value of the debt isgreater than the value of the company. If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value. Here the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt.Joint Prob. Joint Value Debt Value Stock Value0.01 $200,000 $200,000 $00.08 300,000 300,000 00.16 400,000 400,000 00.10 500,000 400,000 100,0000.40 600,000 400,000 200,0000.25 800,000 400,000 400,000c. To show that the value of the combined firm is the sum of the individual values, youmust show that the expected joint value is equal to the sum of the separate expected values.Expected joint value= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($500,000) +0.40($600,000) + 0.25($800,000)= $580,000Since the firms are identical, the sum of the expected values is twice the expectedvalue of either.Expected individual value = 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($400,000) = $290,000 Expected combined value = 2($290,000) = $580,000d. The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater thanthe value of the debt before the merger.Value of the debt before the merger:The value of debt for either company= 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($200,000) = $190,000Total value of debt before the merger = 2($190,000) = $380,000Value of debt after the merger= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($400,000) +0.40($400,000) +0.25($400,000)= $390,000The bondholders are $10,000 better off after the merger.30.7 The decision hinges upon the risk of surviving. The final decision should hinge on thewealth transfer from bondholders to stockholders when risky projects are undertaken.High-risk projects will reduce the expected value of the bondholders’ claims on the firm.The telecommunications business is riskier than the utilities business. If the total value of the firm does not change, the increase in risk should favor the stockholder. Hence,management should approve this transaction. Note, if the total value of the firm dropsbecause of the transaction and the wealth effect is lower than the reduction in total value, management should reject the project.30.8 If the market is “smart,” the P/E ratio will not be constant.a. Value = $2,500 + $1,000 = $3,500b. EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=($100 + $100)/200 =$1c. Price per share = Value/Total number of shares=$3,500/200 =$17.50d. If the market is “fooled,” the P/E ratio will be constant at $25.Value = P/E * Total number of shares= 25 * 200 = $5,000EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=$5,000/200 = $25.0030.9 a. After the merger, Arcadia Financial will have 130,000 [=10,000 + (50,000)(6/10)]shares outstanding. The earnings of the combined firm will be $325,000. The earningsper share of the combined firm will be $2.50 (=$325,000/130,000). The acquisition will increase the EPS for the stockholders from $2.25 to $2.50.b. There will be no effect on the original Arcadia stockholders. No synergies exist in thismerger since Arcadia is buying Coldran at its market price. Examining the relativevalues of the two firms sees the latter point.Share price of Arcadia = (16 * $225,000) / 100,000=$36Share price of Coldran = (10.8 * $100,000) / 50,000=$21.60The relative value of these prices is $21.6/$36 = 0.6. Since Coldran’s shareholdersreceive 0.6 shares of Arcadia for every share of Coldran, no synergies exist.30.10 a. The synergy will be the discounted incremental cash flows. Since the cash flows areperpetual, this amount isb. The value of Flash-in-the-Pan to Fly-by-Night is the synergy plus the current marketvalue of Flash-in-the-Pan.V = $7,500,000 + $20,000,000= $27,500,000c. Cash alternative = $15,000,000Stock alternative = 0.25($27,500,000 + $35,000,000)= $15,625,000d. NPV of cash alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,000,000=$12,500,000NPV of stock alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,625,000=$11,875,000e. Use the cash alternative, its NPV is greater.30.11 a. The value of Portland Industries before the merger is $9,000,000 (=750,000x12). Thisvalue is also the discounted value of the expected future dividends.$9,000,000 =r = 0.1025 = 10.25%r is the risk-adjusted discount rate for Portland’s expected future dividends.the value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.b. NPV = Gain - Cost= $14,815,385 - ($40x250, 000)= $4,815,385c. If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but thecost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $14,815,385= $29,815,385Cost = 0.375x$29,815,385= $11,180,769NPV= $14,815,385 - $11,180,769=$3,634,616d. The acquisition should be attempted with a cash offer since it provides a higher NPV.e. The value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.NPV = Gain-Cost=$11,223,529 - ($40x250,000)=$1,223,529If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but the cost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $11,223,529= $26,223,529Cost = 0.375 * $26,223,529=$9,833,823NPV = $11,223,529 - $9,833,823=$1,389,706The acquisition should be attempted with a stock offer since it provides a higher NPV.30.12 a. Number of shares after acquisition=30 + 15 = 45 milStock price of Harrods after acquisition = 1,000/45=22.22 poundsb. Value of Selfridge stockholders after merger:α * 1,000 = 300α = 30%New shares issued = 12.86 mil12.86:20 = 0.643:1The proper exchange ratio should be 0.643 to make the stock offer’s value to Selfridgeequivalent to the cash offer.30.13 To evaluate this proposal, look at the present value of the incremental cash flows.Cash Flows to Company A(in $ million)Year 0 1 2 3 4 5Acquisition of B -550Dividends from B 150 32 5 20 30 45Tax-loss carryforwards 25 25Terminal value 600Total -400 32 30 45 30 645 The additional cash flows from the tax-loss carry forwards and the proposed level of debt should be discounted at the cost of debt because they are determined with very littleuncertainty.The after-tax cash flows are subject to normal business risk and must be discounted at anormal rate.Beta coefficient for the bond = 0.25 = [(8%-6%)/8%].Beta coefficient for the company = 1 = [(0.25)2 + (1.25)(0.75)]Discount rate for normal operations:r = 6% + 8% (1) = 14%Discount rate for dividends:The new beta coefficient for the company, 1, must be the weighted average of the debtbeta and the stock beta.1 = 0.5(0.25) + 0.5(βs)βs = 1.75r = 6% + 8%(1.75) = 20%Because the NPV of the acquisition is negative, Company A should not acquireCompany B.30.14 The commonly used defensive tactics by target-firm managers include:i. corporate charter amendments like super-majority amendment or staggering theelection of board members.ii. repurchase standstill agreements.iii. exclusionary self-tenders.iv. going private and leveraged buyouts.v. other devices like golden parachutes, scorched earth strategy, poison pill, ..., etc.Mini Case: U.S.Steel’s case.You have 3 choices: tender, or do not tender or sell in the market. If you do sell your shares in the market, at some point, somebody else would need to make a decision in “tender” or “not tender” as well.It is important to recognize that the firm has about 60 million shares outstanding (since 30 million shares will give US Steel 50.1% of Marathon shares). Let’s consider the possible sellingthe market price.If you choose not to tender, and 30 million shares were tendered US Steel succeeds to gain50.1% control, you will only receive $85 a share. If you do tender, the price you will receive will be no worse than $85 a share and can be as high as $125 a share. Depending on the number of shares tendered, you will receive one of the following prices.If only 50.1% tendered, you will get $125 per share.If the shares tendered exceed 50.1% but less than 100%, you will get more than $105 ashare.If all 60 million shares were tendered, you will get $105 per share. (which is )It is clear that, in the above 3 cases, when you are not sure about whether US Steel will succeed or not, you will be better off to tender your shares than not tender. This is because at best, you will only receive $85 per share if you choose not to tender.版权申明本文部分内容,包括文字、图片、以及设计等在网上搜集整理。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap011-推荐下载

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap011-推荐下载

公司理财习题答案第十一章Chapter 11: An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing Theory 11.1Real GNP was higher than anticipated. Since returns are positively related to the level of GNP, returns should rise based on this factor.Inflation was exactly the amount anticipated. Since there was no surprise in this announcement, it will not affect Lewis-Striden returns.Interest Rates are lower than anticipated. Since returns are negatively related to interest rates, the lower than expected rate is good news. Returns should rise due to interest rates.The President’s death is bad news. Although the president was expected to retire, his retirement would not be effective for six months. During that period he would still contribute to the firm. His untimely death mean that thosecontributions would not be made. Since he was generally considered an asset to the firm, his death will cause returns to fall.The poor research results are also bad news. Since Lewis-Striden must continue to test the drug as early as expected. The delay will affect expected future earnings, and thus it will dampen returns now.The research breakthrough is positive news for Lewis Striden. Since it was unexpected, it will cause returns to rise.The competitor’s announcement is also unexpected, but it is not a welcome surprise. this announcement will lower the returns on Lewis-Striden.Systematic risk is risk that cannot be diversified away through formation of a portfolio. Generally, systematic risk factors are those factors that affect a large number of firms in the market. Note those factors do not have to equally affect the firms. The systematic factors in the list are real GNP, inflation and interest rates.Unsystematic risk is the type of risk that can be diversified away throughportfolio formation. Unsystematic risk factors are specific to the firm or industry.Surprises in these factors will affect the returns of the firm in which you are interested, but they will have no effect on the returns of firms in a different industry and perhaps little effect on other firms in the same industry. For Lewis-Striden, the unsystematic risk factors are the president’s ability to contribute to the firm, the research results and the competitor.11.2a.Systematic Risk = 0.042(4,480– 4,416) –1.4(4.3%– 3.1%)– 0.67(11.8% –9.5%)= –0.53%b.Unsystematic Risk = – 2.6%c.Total Return = 9.5% – 0.53% – 2.6% = 6.37%11.3()()()11.81%1.440.3710.0Return Total c.1.44%=23-270.36=Return ic Unsystemat b.0.372%=14.0%15.2%1.903.5%-4.8%2.04=Risk Systematic a.=++=--11.4 a.Stock A:()()R R R R R A A A m m Am A=+-+=+-+βεε105%12142%...Stock B:()()R R R R R B B m m Bm B=+-+=+-+βεε130%098142%...Stock C:()R R R R R C C C m m Cm C=+-+=+-+βεε157%137142%)..(.b.()[]()[]()[]()()()()()()[]()()CB A m cB A m c m B m A m CB A P 25.045.030.0%2.14R 1435.1%925.1225.045.030.0%2.14R 37.125.098.045.02.130.0%7.1525.0%1345.0%5.1030.0%2.14R 37.1%7.1525.0%2.14R 98.0%0.1345.0%2.14R 2.1%5.1030.0R 25.0R 45.0R 30.0R ε+ε+ε+-+=ε+ε+ε+-+++++=ε+-++ε+-++ε+-+=++=c.i.()R R R A B C =+-==+-==+-=105%1215%142%)1113%09815%142%)137%157%13715%142%168%..(..46%.(......ii.R P =+-=12925%1143515%142%)138398%..(..11.5a.Since five stocks have the same expected returns and the same betas, theportfolio also has the same expected return and beta.()R F F E E E E E p =+++++++110084169151212345...b.公司理财习题答案第十一章R F F E N E N E NAs N s are fini F F p N =++++++→∞→=++1100841690110084169121212......,...,1Nbut E te,Thus, R j p 11.6To determine which investment investor would prefer, you must compute the variance of portfolios created by many stocks from either market. Note, because you know that diversification is good, it is reasonable to assume that once an investor chose the market in which he or she will invest, he or she will buy many stocks in that market.Known:E EF ====001002 and and for all i.i σσεε..Assume: The weight of each stock is 1/N; that is, for all i.X N i =1/If a portfolio is composed of N stocks each forming 1/N proportion of the portfolio, thereturn on the portfolio is 1/N times the sum of the returns on the N stocks. Recall that the return on each stock is 0.1+βF+ε.()()()()()()[]()()()()()()()[]()[]()[]()()[]()()()()()j i 2j i 22j i i 2222222222P P P P iP ,0.04Corr 0.01,Cov s =isvariance the ,N as limit In the ,Cov 1/N 1s 1/N s )(1/N 1/N F 2F E 1/N F E 0.10.1/N F 0.1E R E R E R Var 0.101/N 00.1E 1/N F E 0.11/N F 0.1E R E 1/N F 0.1F 0.1(1/N)R 1/N R εε+β=εε+β∞⇒εε-+ε+β=ε∑+εβ+β=ε+β=-ε+β+=-==+β+=ε+β+=ε∑+β+=ε+β+=ε+β+==∑∑∑∑∑∑∑∑()()()()()()Thus,F R f E R E R Var R Corr Var R Corr ii ip P pi jPijR 1i =++=++===+=+010*********002250040002500412212111222.........,,εεεεεεa.()()()()Corr Corr Var R Var R i j i j ppεεεε112212000225000225,,..====Since Var , a risk averse investor will prefer to invest()()R p 1 Var R 2p 〉in the second market.b.Corr ()()εεεε112090i j j ,.,== and Corr 2i ()()Var R Var R pp120058500025==..Since Var averse investor will prefer to invest()()risk a ,R Var R 2p p 1〉in the second market.c.()()()()Corr Var R Var R i j j ppεεεε112120050022500225,,...==== and Corr 2i Since , a risk averse investor will be indifferent ()()Var R Var R pp12=between investing in the two market.d.Indifference implies that the variances of the portfolio in the two markets are equal.()()()()()()Var R Var R Corr Corr Corr Corr p pijiji jij1211222211002250040002500405=+=+=+..,..,,,.εεεεεεεε公司理财习题答案第十一章This is exactly the relationship used in part c.11.7()()()()()()()()()()()() 2.7225%1.211.5s 1.7424%1.211.2s 0.5929%1.210.7s R Var R Var 0/N Var ,N As i.b.22.30%0.22304.9725/100s 4.9725%2.251.211.5s 17.84%0.17843.1824/100s 3.1824%1.441.211.2s 12.62%1.5929/100s 1.5929%1.001.210.7s Var R Var R Var a.22C 22B 22A m 2i i j C 22C B 2B 2A 2A 2i m 2i j ======β=∴→ε∞→===⇒=+====⇒=+===⇒=+=∴ε+β=ii.APT Model:()R R R R i F m F i=+-β%25.14)5.1)(3.36.10(3.3R %06.12)2.1)(3.36.10(3.3R %41.8)7.0)(3.36.10(3.3R C B A =-+==-+==-+=APT Model shows that assets A & B are accurately priced but asset C isoverpriced. Thus, rational investors will not hold asset C.iii.If short selling is allowed, all rational investors will sell short asset C so that the price of asset C will decrease until no arbitrage opportunity exists. In other words, price of asset C should decrease until the return become 14.25%.11.8 a.Let X= the proportion of security of one in the portfolio and (1-X) = the proportion of security two in the portfolio.()()[]()()[]t 222t 121t 2t 212t 111t 1t2t 1pt F F R E x 1F F R E x R X 1XR R β+β+-++β+=-+=The condition that the return of the portfolio does not depend on implies:F 1()05.0)X 1(X 0X 1X 2111=-+=β-+βThus, P=(-1,2); i.e. sell short security one and buy security two.()()()()()()5.2225.11%20%202%201R E 2p p =+-=β=+-=b.Follow the same logic as in part a, we have()()3X 05.1X 1X 0X 1X 4131==-+=β-+βWhere X is the proportion of security three in the portfolio. Thus, sell short security four and buy security three.()()()()()()075.025.03%10%102%103R E 2p p =-=β=-+=this is a risk free portfolio!c.The portfolio in part b provides a risk free return of 10% which is higher than the5% return provided by the risk free security. To take advantage of this opportunity, borrow at the risk free rate of 5% and invest the funds in a portfolio built by selling short security four and buying security three with weights (3,-2).d.Assuming that the risk free security will not change. The price of security four ( that everyone is trying to sell short) will decrease and the price of security three ( that everyone is trying to buy ) will increase. Hence the return of security four will increase and the return of security three will decrease.The alternative is that the prices of securities three and four will remain the same, and the price of the risk-free security drops until its return is 10%.Finally, a combined movement of all security prices is also possible. The prices of security four and the risk-free security will decrease and the price of security four will increase until the opportunity disappears.E (R j 20%10%5%()ββ1210i =2.5。

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap012

罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap012

公司理财习题答案第十二章Chapter 12: Risk, Return, and Capital Budgeting12.1 Cost of equity R S = 5 + 0.95 (9) = 13.55% NPV of the project= -$1.2 million + $340,.0001135515tt =∑= -$20,016.52Do not undertake the project. 12.2 a. R D= (-0.05 + 0.05 + 0.08 + 0.15 + 0.10) / 5 = 0.066 R M = (-0.12 + 0.01 + 0.06 + 0.10 + 0.05) / 5 = 0.02b.DR- D R M R -R M(M R -M R )2 (D R -R D )(M R -R M )-0.116 -0.14 0.0196 0.01624 -0.016 -0.01 0.0001 0.00016 0.014 0.04 0.0016 0.00056 0.084 0.08 0.0064 0.00672 0.034 0.03 0.0009 0.001020.02860.02470Beta of Douglas = 0.02470 / 0.0286 = 0.86412.3 R S = 6% + 1.15 ⨯ 10% = 17.5% R B = 6% + 0.3 ⨯ 10% = 9% a. Cost of equity = R S = 17.5% b. B / S = 0.25 B / (B + S) = 0.2 S / (B + S) = 0.8WACC = 0.8 ⨯ 17.5% + 0.2 ⨯ 9% (1 - 0.35)= 15.17%12.4 C σ = ()2104225.0 = 0.065M σ = ()2101467.0 = 0.0383Beta of ceramics craftsman = CM ρC σ M σ / M σ2 = CM ρC σ/ M σ = (0.675) (0.065) / 0.0383 = 1.146 12.5a. To compute the beta of Mercantile Manufacturing’s stock, you need the product of the deviations of Mercantile’s returns from their mean and the deviations of the market’s returns from their mean. You also need the squares of the deviations ofthe market’s returns from their mean.The mechanics of computing the means and the deviations were presented in an earlier chapter.R T = 0.196 / 12 = 0.016333 R M = 0.236 / 12 = 0.019667 E(T R -R T ) (M R -R M ) = 0.038711 E(M R -R M )2 = 0.038588 β = 0.038711 / 0.038588= 1.0032b.The beta of the average stock is 1. Mercantile’s beta is close to 1, indicating that its stock has average risk.12.6 a.R M can have three values, 0.16, 0.18 or 0.20. The probability that M R takes one of these values is the sum of the joint probabilities of the return pair that include theparticular value of M R . For example, if M R is 0.16, R J will be 0.16, 0.18 or 0.22. The probability that M R is 0.16 and R J is 0.16 is 0.10. The probability that R M is 0.16 and R J is 0.18 is 0.06. The probability that M R is 0.16 and R J is 0.22 is 0.04. The probability that M R is 0.16 is, therefore, 0.10 + 0.06 + 0.04 = 0.20. The same procedure is used to calculate the probability that M R is 0.18 and the probability that M R is 0.20. Remember, the sum of the probability must be one.M RProbability 0.16 0.20 0.18 0.60 0.20 0.20 b. i.RM= 0.16 (0.20) + 0.18 (0.60) + 0.20 (0.20) = 0.18ii. 2M σ = (0.16 - 0.18) 2 (0.20) + (0.18 - 0.18) 2 (0.60) + (0.20 - 0.18) 2 (0.20)= 0.00016iii. M σ = ()2100016.0 = 0.01265c. R J Probability .18 .20 .20 .40 .22 .20 .24.10d. i. E j = .16 (.10) + .18 (.20) + .20 (.40) + .22 (.20) + .24(.10) = .20 ii. σj 2 = (.16 - .20)2 (.10) + (.18 - .20)2 (.20) + (.20 - .20)2 (.40)+ (.22 - .20)2 (.20) + (.24 - .20)2 (.10) = .00048公司理财习题答案第十二章iii. σj = ()21.0 = .0219100048e. Cov mj= (.16 - .18) (.16 - .20) (.10) + (.16 - .18) (.18 - .20) (.06)+ (.16 - .18) (.22 - .20) (.04) + (.20 - .18) (.18 - .20) (.02)+ (.20 - .18) (.22 - .20) (.04) + (.20 - .18) (.24 - .20) (.10)= .000176Corr mj = (0.000176) / (0.01265) (0.02191) = 0.635f. βj = (.635) (.02191) / (.01265) = 1.1012.7 i. The risk of the new project is the same as the risk of the firm without the project.ii. The firm is financed entirely with equity.12.8 a. Pacific Cosmetics should use its stock beta in the evaluation of the project only ifthe risk of the perfume project is the same as the risk of Pacific Cosmetics.b. If the risk of the project is the same as the risk of the firm, use the firm’s stock beta.If the risk differs, then use the beta of an all-equity firm with similar risk as theperfume project. A good way to estimate the beta of the project would be toaverage the betas of many perfume producing firms.12.9 E(R S) = 0.1 ⨯ 3 + 0.3 ⨯ 8 + 0.4 ⨯ 20 + 0.2 ⨯ 15 = 13.7%E(R B) = 0.1 ⨯ 8 + 0.3 ⨯ 8 + 0.4 ⨯ 10 + 0.2 ⨯ 10 = 9.2%E(R M) = 0.1 ⨯ 5 + 0.3 ⨯ 10 + 0.4 ⨯ 15 + 0.2 ⨯ 20 = 13.5%State {R S - E(R S)}{R M - E(R M)}Pr {R B - E(R B)}{R M - E(R M)}Pr1 (0.03-0.137)(0.05-0.135)⨯0.1 (0.08-0.092)(0.05-0.135)⨯0.12 (0.08-0.137)(0.10-0.135)⨯0.3 (0.08-0.092)(0.10-0.135)⨯0.33 (0.20-0.137)(0.15-0.135)⨯0.4 (0.10-0.092)(0.15-0.135)⨯0.44 (0.15-0.137)(0.20-0.135)⨯0.2 (0.10-0.092)(0.20-0.135)⨯0.2Sum 0.002056 0.00038= Cov(R S, R M) = Cov(R B, R M)σM 2= 0.1 (0.05 - 0.135)2 + 0.3 (0.10-0.135)2+ 0.4 (0.15-0.135)2 + 0.2 (0.20-0.135)2= 0.002025a. Beta of debt = Cov(R B, R M) / σM2 = 0.00038 / 0.002025= 0.188b. Beta of stock = Cov(R S, R M) / σM2 = 0.002055 / 0.002025= 1.015c. B / S = 0.5Thus, B / (S + B) = 1 / 3 = 0.3333S / (S + B) = 2 / 3 = 0.6667Beta of asset = 0.188 ⨯ 0.3333 + 1.015 ⨯ 0.6667= 0.73912.10 The discount rate for the project should be lower than the rate implied by the use ofthe Security Market Line. The appropriate discount rate for such projects is theweighted average of the interest rate on debt and the cost of equity. Since theinterest rate on the debt of a given firm is generally less than the firm’s cost ofequity, using only the stock’s beta yields a discount rate that is too high. Theconcept and practical uses of a weighted average discount rate will be in a laterchapter.12.11i. RevenuesThe gross income of the firm is an important factor in determining beta. Firmswhose revenues are cyclical (fluctuate with the business cycle) generally have highbetas. Firms whose revenues are not cyclical tend to have lower betas.ii. Operating leverageOperating leverage is the percentage change in earnings before interest and taxes(EBIT) for a percentage change in sales, [(Change in EBIT / EBIT) (Sales / Changein sales)]. Operating leverage indicates the ability of the firm to service its debt andpay stockholders.iii. Financial leverageFinancial leverage arises from the use of debt. Financial leverage indicates theability of the firm to pay stockholders. Since debt holders must be paid beforestockholders, the higher the financial leverage of the firm, the riskier its stock.The beta of common stock is a function of all three of these factors. Ultimately, theriskiness of the stock, of which beta captures a portion, is determined by thefluctuations in the income available to the stockholders. (As was discussed in thechapter, whether income is paid to the stockholders in the form of dividends or it isretained to finance projects are irrelevant as long as the projects are of similar riskas the firm.) The income available to common stock, the net income of the firm,depends initially on the revenues or sales of the firm. The operating leverageindicates how much of each dollar of revenue will become EBIT. Financialleverage indicates how much of each dollar of EBIT will become net income.12.12 a. Cost of equity for National Napkin= 7 + 1.29 (13 - 7)= 14.74%b. B / (S + B) = S / (S + B) = 0.5WACC = 0.5 ⨯ 7 ⨯ 0.65 + 0.5 ⨯ 14.74= 9.645%12.13 B = $60 million ⨯ 1.2 = $72 millionS = $20 ⨯ 5 million = $100 millionB / (S + B) = 72 / 172 = 0.4186S / (S + B) = 100 / 172 = 0.5814WACC = 0.4186 ⨯ 12% ⨯ 0.75 + 0.5814 ⨯ 18%= 14.23%12.14 S = $25 ⨯ 20 million = $500 millionB = 0.95 ⨯ $180 million = $171 million公司理财习题答案第十二章B / (S + B) = 0.2548 S / (S + B) = 0.7452 WACC = 0.7452 ⨯ 20% + 0.2548 ⨯ 10%⨯ 0.60 = 16.43%12.15 B / S = 0.75 B / (S + B) = 3 / 7 S / (S + B) = 4 / 7 WACC = (4 / 7) ⨯ 15% + (3 / 7) ⨯ 9%⨯ (1 - 0.35) = 11.08%NPV = -$25 million + $7(.)m illion tt 10110815+=∑= $819,299.04 Undertake the project.12.16 WACC = (0.5) x 28% + (0.5) x 10% x (1 - 0.35)= 17.25%NPV = - $1,000,000 + (1 - 0.35) $600,000 51725.0A = $240,608.50Mini Case: Allied ProductsAssumptionsPP&E Investment 42,000,000 Useful life of PP&E Investment (years) 7NEW GPWS price/unit (Year 1) 70,000 NEW GPWS variable cost/unit (Year 1) 50,000 UPGRADE GPWS price/unit (Year 1) 35,000 UPGRADE GPWS variable cost/unit (Year 1) 22,000Year 1 marketing and admin costs 3,000,000 Annual inflation rate 3.00% Corporate Tax rate 40.00%Beta (9/27 Valueline) 1.20 Rf (30 year U.S. Treasury Bond) 6.20%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Strong Growth) 15.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Moderate Growth) 10.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Mild Recession) 6.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Severe Recession state of economy) 3.00%Total Annual Market for UPGRADE GPWS (units) 2,500Allied Signal Market Share in each market 45.00%公司理财习题答案第十二章Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 SalesNEWUnits 97 107 118 130 144 Price 70,000 72,100 74,263 76,491 78,786 Total NEW 6,772,500 7,688,654 8,736,317 9,935,345 11,308,721 UPGRADEUnits 1,125 1,125 1,125 1,125 1,125 Price 35,000 36,050 37,132 38,245 39,393 Total UPGRADE 39,375,000 40,556,250 41,772,938 43,026,126 44,316,909 Total Sales 46,147,500 48,244,904 50,509,254 52,961,470 55,625,630 Variable CostsNEW 4,837,500 5,491,896 6,240,226 7,096,675 8,077,658 UPGRADE 24,750,000 25,492,500 26,257,275 27,044,993 27,856,343 Total Variable Costs 29,587,500 30,984,396 32,497,501 34,141,668 35,934,001SG&A 3,000,000 3,090,000 3,182,700 3,278,181 3,376,526 Depreciation 6,001,800 10,285,800 7,345,800 5,245,800 3,750,600EBIT 7,558,200 3,884,708 7,483,253 10,295,821 12,564,503 Interest 0 0 0 0 0 Tax 3,023,280 1,553,883 2,993,301 4,118,329 5,025,801 Net Income 4,534,920 2,330,825 4,489,952 6,177,493 7,538,702EBIT + Dep - Taxes 10,536,720 12,616,625 11,835,752 11,423,293 11,289,302 Less: Change in NWC 2,000,000 307,375 104,870 113,218 122,611 (2,648,074) Less: Captial Spending 42,000,000 (10,948,080) CF from Assets: (44,000,000) 10,229,345 12,511,755 11,722,534 11,300,682 24,885,455 Discounted CF from Assets 9,304,480 10,351,583 8,821,741 7,735,381 15,494,120Total Discounted CF from Assets 51,707,305Results。

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案

CHAPTER 7NET PRESENT VALUE AND OTHER INVESTMENT CRITERIAAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. A payback period less than the project’s life means that the NPV is positive for a zero discount rate,but nothing more definitive can be said. For discount rates greater than zero, the payback period will still be less than the project’s life, but the NPV may be positive, zero, or negative, depending on whether the discount rate is less than, equal to, or greater than the IRR. The discounted payback includes the effect of the relevant discount rate. If a project’s discounted payback period is less than the project’s life, it must be the case that NPV is positive.2.If a project has a positive NPV for a certain discount rate, then it will also have a positive NPV for azero discount rate; thus, the payback period must be less than the project life. Since discounted payback is calculated at the same discount rate as is NPV, if NPV is positive, the discounted payback period must be less than the project’s life. If NPV is positive, then the present value of future cash inflows is greater than the initial investment cost; thus PI must be greater than 1. If NPV is positive for a certain discount rate R, then it will be zero for some larger discount rate R*; thus, the IRR must be greater than the required return.3. a.Payback period is simply the accounting break-even point of a series of cash flows. To actuallycompute the payback period, it is assumed that any cash flow occurring during a given period isrealized continuously throughout the period, and not at a single point in time. The payback isthen the point in time for the series of cash flows when the initial cash outlays are fullyrecovered. Given some predetermined cutoff for the payback period, the decision rule is toaccept projects that payback before this cutoff, and reject projects that take longer to payback.The worst problem associated with payback period is that it ignores the time value of money. Inaddition, the selection of a hurdle point for payback period is an arbitrary exercise that lacksany steadfast rule or method. The payback period is biased towards short-term projects; it fullyignores any cash flows that occur after the cutoff point.b.The average accounting return is interpreted as an average measure of the accountingperformance of a project over time, computed as some average profit measure attributable tothe project divided by some average balance sheet value for the project. This text computesAAR as average net income with respect to average (total) book value. Given somepredetermined cutoff for AAR, the decision rule is to accept projects with an AAR in excess ofthe target measure, and reject all other projects. AAR is not a measure of cash flows and marketvalue, but a measure of financial statement accounts that often bear little resemblance to therelevant value of a project. In addition, the selection of a cutoff is arbitrary, and the time valueof money is ignored. For a financial manager, both the reliance on accounting numbers ratherthan relevant market data and the exclusion of time value of money considerations are troubling.Despite these problems, AAR continues to be used in practice because (1) the accountinginformation is usually available, (2) analysts often use accounting ratios to analyze firmperformance, and (3) managerial compensation is often tied to the attainment of targetaccounting ratio goals.c.The IRR is the discount rate that causes the NPV of a series of cash flows to be identically zero.IRR can thus be interpreted as a financial break-even rate of return; at the IRR discount rate,the net value of the project is zero. The acceptance and rejection criteria are:If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, accept the project if the internal rate ofreturn is greater than or equal to the discount rate.If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, reject the project if the internal rate ofreturn is less than the discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, accept the project if the internal rate ofreturn is less than or equal to the discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, reject the project if the internal rate ofreturn is greater than the discount rate.IRR is the interest rate that causes NPV for a series of cash flows to be zero. NPV is preferred in all situations to IRR; IRR can lead to ambiguous results if there are non-conventional cash flows, and it also ambiguously ranks some mutually exclusive projects. However, for stand-alone projects with conventional cash flows, IRR and NPV are interchangeable techniques. The IRR decision rule for projectsd.The profitability index is the present value of cash inflows relative to the project cost. As such,it is a benefit/cost ratio, providing a measure of the relative profitability of a project. The profitability index decision rule is to accept projects with a PI greater than one, and to reject projects with a PI less than one. The profitability index can be expressed as: PI = (NPV + cost)/cost = 1 + (NPV/cost). If a firm has a basket of positive NPV projects and is subject to capital rationing, PI may provide a good ranking measure of the projects, indicating the “bang for the buck” of each particu lar project.e.NPV is simply the present value of a project’s cash flows. NPV specifically measures, afterconsidering the time value of money, the net increase or decrease in firm wealth due to the project. The decision rule is to accept projects that have a positive NPV, and reject projects with a negative NPV. NPV is superior to the other methods of analysis presented in the text because it has no serious flaws. The method unambiguously ranks mutually exclusive projects, and can differentiate between projects of different scale and time horizon. The only drawback to NPV is that it relies on cash flow and discount rate values that are often estimates and not certain, but this is a problem shared by the other performance criteria as well. A project with NPV = $2,500 implies that the total shareholder wealth of the firm will increase by $2,500 if the project is accepted.4.For a project with future cash flows that are an annuity:Payback = I / CAnd the IRR is:0 = – I + C / IRRSolving the IRR equation for IRR, we get:IRR = C / INotice this is just the reciprocal of the payback. So:IRR = 1 / PBFor long-lived projects with relatively constant cash flows, the sooner the project pays back, the greater is the IRR.5.There are a number of reasons. Two of the most important have to do with transportation costs andexchange rates. Manufacturing in the U.S. places the finished product much closer to the point of sale, resulting in significant savings in transportation costs. It also reduces inventories because goods spend less time in transit. Higher labor costs tend to offset these savings to some degree, at least compared to other possible manufacturing locations. Of great importance is the fact that manufacturing in the U.S. means that a much higher proportion of the costs are paid in dollars. Since sales are in dollars, the net effect is to immunize profits to a large extent against fluctuations in exchange rates. This issue is discussed in greater detail in the chapter on international finance.6.The single biggest difficulty, by far, is coming up with reliable cash flow estimates. Determining anappropriate discount rate is also not a simple task. These issues are discussed in greater depth in the next several chapters. The payback approach is probably the simplest, followed by the AAR, but even these require revenue and cost projections. The discounted cash flow measures (discounted payback, NPV, IRR, and profitability index) are really only slightly more difficult in practice.7.Yes, they are. Such entities generally need to allocate available capital efficiently, just as for-profitsdo. However, it is frequently the case that the “revenues” from not-for-profit ventures are not tangible. For example, charitable giving has real opportunity costs, but the benefits are generally hard to measure. To the extent that benefits are measurable, the question of an appropriate required return remains. Payback rules are commonly used in such cases. Finally, realistic cost/benefit analysis along the lines indicated should definitely be used by the U.S. government and would go a long way toward balancing the budget!8.The statement is false. If the cash flows of Project B occur early and the cash flows of Project Aoccur late, then for a low discount rate the NPV of A can exceed the NPV of B. Observe the following example.C0C1C2IRR NPV @ 0% Project A –$1,000,000 $0 $1,440,000 20% $440,000 Project B –$2,000,000 $2,400,000 $0 20% 400,000However, in one particular case, the statement is true for equally risky Projects. If the lives of the two Projects are equal and the cash flows of Project B are twice the cash flows of Project A in every time period, the NPV of Project B will be twice the NPV of Project A.9. Although the profitability index (PI) is higher for Project B than for Project A, Project A should bechosen because it has the greater NPV. Confusion arises because Project B requires a smaller investment than Project A requires. Since the denominator of the PI ratio is lower for Project B than for Project A, B can have a higher PI yet have a lower NPV. Only in the case of capital rationing could the company’s decision have been incorrect.10. a.Project A would have a higher IRR since initial investment for Project A is less than that ofProject B, if the cash flows for the two projects are identical.b.Yes, since both the cash flows as well as the initial investment are twice that of Project B.11.Project B would have a more sensitive NPV to changes in the discount rate. The reason is the timevalue of money. Cash flows that occur further out in the future are always more sensitive to changes in the interest rate. This is similar to the interest rate risk of a bond.12.The MIRR is calculated by finding the present value of all cash outflows, the future value of all cashinflows to the end of the project, and then calculating the IRR of the two cash flows. As a result, the cash flows have been discounted or compounded by one interest rate (the required return), and then the interest rate between the two remaining cash flows is calculated. As such, the MIRR is not a true interest rate. In contrast, consider the IRR. If you take the initial investment, and calculate the future value at the IRR, you can replicate the future cash flows of the project exactly.13.The criticism is incorrect. It is true that if you calculate the future value of all intermediate cashflows to the end of the project at the required return, then calculate the NPV of this future value and the initial investment, you will get the same NPV. However, NPV says nothing about reinvestment of intermediate cash flows. The NPV is the present value of the project cash flows. The fact that the reinvestment works is an artifact of the time value of money.14.The criticism is incorrect for several reasons. It is true that if you calculate the future value of allintermediate cash flows to the end of the project at the IRR, then calculate the IRR of this future value and the initial investment, you will get the same IRR. This only occurs if the intermediate cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. However, similar to the previous question, IRR deals with the present value of the cash flows, not the future value. There is also another important point. This criticism deals with the reinvestment of the intermediate cash flows. As we will see in the next chapter, any reinvestment assumption concerning the intermediate cash flows is incorrect. The reason is that when we are calculating the cash flows for a project, we are concerned with the incremental cash flows from the project, that is, the cash flows the project creates. Reinvestment violates this principal. Consider the following example:C0C1C2IRR Project A –$100 $10 $110 10% Suppose this is a deposit into a bank account. The IRR of the cash flows is 10 percent. Does it the IRR change if the Year 1 cash flow is reinvested in the account, or if it is withdrawn and spent on pizza? No. Finally, think back to the yield to maturity calculation on a bond. The YTM is the IRR of the bond investment, but no mention of a reinvestment assumption of the bond coupons is inferred.The reason is that the reinvestment assumption is irrelevant to calculating the YTM on a bond; in the same way, the reinvestment assumption is irrelevant in the IRR calculation.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1. a.The payback period is the time that it takes for the cumulative undiscounted cash inflows toequal the initial investment.Project A:Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = €4,000 = €4,000Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = €4,000 +3,500 = €7,500 Payback period = 2 yearsProject B:Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = €2,500 = €2,500Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = €2,500 + 1,200 = €3,700Cumulative cash flows Year 3 = €2,500 + 1,200 + 3,000 = €6,700 Companies can calculate a more precise value using fractional years. To calculate the fractionalpayba ck period, find the fraction of year 3’s cash flows that is needed for the company to have cumulative undiscounted cash flows of €5,000. Divide the difference between the initial investment and the cumulative undiscounted cash flows as of year 2 by the undiscounted cashflow of year 3.Payback period = 2 + (€5,000 –€3,700) / €3,000Payback period = 2.43Since project A has a shorter payback period than project B has, the company should chooseproject A.b.Discount each project’s cash flows at 15 percent. Choose the project with the highest NPV.Project A:NPV = –€7,500 + €4,000 / 1.15 + €3,500 / 1.152 + €1,500 / 1.153NPV = –€388.96Project B:NPV = –€5,000 + €2,500 / 1.15 + €1,200 / 1.152 + €3,000 / 1.153NPV = €53.83The firm should choose Project B since it has a higher NPV than Project A has.2.To calculate the payback period, we need to find the time that the project has recovered its initialinvestment. The cash flows in this problem are an annuity, so the calculation is simpler. If the initial cost is £3,000, the payback period is:Payback = 3 + (£300 / £900) = 3.33 yearsThere is a shortcut to calculate the payback period if the future cash flows are an annuity. Just divide the initial cost by the annual cash flow. For the £3,000 cost, the payback period is:Payback = £3,000 / £900 = 3.33 yearsFor an initial cost of £5,000, the payback period is:Payback = 5 + (£500 / £900) = 5.55 yearsThe payback period for an initial cost of £10,000 is a little trickier. Notice that the total cash inflows after nine years will be:Total cash inflows = 8(£900) = £7,200If the initial cost is £10,000, the project never pays back. Notice that if you use the shortcut forannuity cash flows, you get:Payback = £10,000 / £900 = 11.11 years.This answer does not make sense since the cash flows stop after nine years, so the payback period is never.3.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value todayof the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $7,000/1.14 = $6,140.35Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $7,500/1.142 = $5,771.01Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $8,000/1.143 = $5,399.77Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $8,500/1.144 = $5,032.68To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $6,140.35, so the discounted payback for an $8,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($8,000 – 6,140.35)/$5,771.01 = 1.32 yearsFor an initial cost of $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($13,000 – 6,140.35 – 5,771.01)/$5,399.77 = 2.20 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost.This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $18,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($18,000 – 6,140.35 – 5,771.01 – 5,399.77) / $5,032.68 = 3.14 years4.To calculate the discounted payback, discount all future cash flows back to the present, and use thesediscounted cash flows to calculate the payback period. Doing so, we find:R = 0%: 4 + (£1,100 / £2,100) = 4.52 yearsDiscounted payback = Regular payback = 4.52 yearsR = 5%: £2,100/1.05 + £2,100/1.052 + £2,100/1.053 + £2,100/1.054 + £2,100/1.055 = £9,091.90 £2,100/1.056 = £1,567.05Discounted payback = 5 + (£9,500 – 9,091.90) / £1,567.05 = 5.26 years R = 15%: £2,100/1.15 + £2,100/1.152 + £2,100/1.153 + £2,100/1.154 + £2,100/1.155 + £2,100/1.156 = £7,947.41; The project never pays back.5. a.The average accounting return is the average project earnings after taxes, divided by theaverage book value, or average net investment, of the machine during its life. The book value of the machine is the gross investment minus the accumulated depreciation.Average book value = (Book Value0 + Book Value1 + Book Value2 + Book Value3 +Book Value4 + Book Value5) / (Economic Life)Average book value = ($16,000 + 12,000 + 8,000 + 4,000 + 0) / (5 years)Average book value = $8,000Average Project Earnings = $4,500To find the average accounting return, we divide the average project earnings by the average book value of the machine to calculate the average accounting return. Doing so, we find:Average Accounting Return = Average Project Earnings / Average Book ValueAverage Accounting Return = $4,500 / $8,000Average Accounting Return = 0.5625 or 56.25%6.First, we need to determine the average book value of the project. The book value is the grossinvestment minus accumulated depreciation.Purchase Date Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Gross Investment €8,000 €8,000 €8,000 €8,000Less: Accumulated Depreciation 0 4,000 6,500 8,000Net Investment €8,000 €4,000 €1,500 €0 Now, we can calculate the average book value as:Average book value = (€8,000 + 4,000 + 1,500 + 0) / (4 years)Average book value = €3,375To calculate the average accounting return, we must remember to use the aftertax average netincome when calculating the average accounting return. So, the average aftertax net income is:Average aftertax net income = (1 – t c) Annual pretax net incomeAverage aftertax net income = (1 – 0.25) €2,000Average aftertax net income = €1,500The average accounting return is the average after-tax net income divided by the average book value, which is:Average accounting return = €1,500 / €3,375Average accounting return = 0.4444 or 44.44%7.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that definesthe IRR for this project is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –¥8,000,000 + ¥4,000,000/(1 + IRR) + ¥3,000,000/(1 + IRR)2 + ¥2,000,000/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 6.93%Since the IRR is less than the required return we would reject the project.8.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that definesthe IRR for this Project A is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = – £2,000 + £1,000/(1 + IRR) + £1,500/(1 + IRR)2 + £2,000/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 47.15%And the IRR for Project B is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = – £1,500 + £500/(1 + IRR) + £1,000/(1 + IRR)2 + £1,500/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 36.19%9.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The cash flows from this project are an annuity, so the equation for the profitability index is:PI = C(PVIFA R,t) / C0PI = €41,000(PVIFA15%,7) / €160,000PI = 1.066110. a.The profitability index is the present value of the future cash flows divided by the initial cost.So, for Project Alpha, the profitability index is:PI Alpha = [$300 / 1.10 + $700 / 1.102 + $600 / 1.103] / $500 = 2.604And for Project Beta the profitability index is:PI Beta = [$300 / 1.10 + $1,800 / 1.102 + $1,700 / 1.103] / $2,000 = 1.519b.According to the profitability index, you would accept Project Alpha. However, remember theprofitability index rule can lead to incorrect decision when ranking mutually exclusive projects.Intermediate11. a.To have a payback equal to the project’s life, given C is a constant cash flow for N years:C = I/Nb.To have a positive NPV, I < C (PVIFA R%, N). Thus, C > I / (PVIFA R%, N).c.Benefits = C (PVIFA R%, N) = 2 × costs = 2IC = 2I / (PVIFA R%, N)12. a.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equationthat defines the IRR for this project is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3 + C4 / (1 + IRR)40 = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / (1 + IRR) –₩2,000 / (1 + IRR)2–₩1,000 / (1 + IRR)3–₩1,000 / (1 +IRR)4Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 13.99%b.This problem differs from previous ones because the initial cash flow is positive and all futurecash flows are negative. In other words, this is a financing-type project, while previous projects were investing-type projects. For financing situations, accept the project when the IRR is less than the discount rate. Reject the project when the IRR is greater than the discount rate.IRR = 13.99%Discount Rate = 12%IRR > Discount RateReject the offer when the discount rate is less than the IRR.ing the same reason as part b., we would accept the project if the discount rate is 20 percent.IRR = 13.99%Discount Rate = 19%IRR < Discount RateAccept the offer when the discount rate is greater than the IRR.d.The NPV is the sum of the present value of all cash flows, so the NPV of the project if thediscount rate is 10 percent will be:NPV = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / 1.12 –₩2,000 / 1.122–₩1,000 / 1.123–₩1,000 / 1.124NPV = –₩173.83When the discount rate is 12 percent, the NPV of the offer is –₩359.95. Reject the offer.And the NPV of the project is the discount rate is 19 percent will be:NPV = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / 1.19 –₩2,000 / 1.192–₩1,000 / 1.193–₩1,000 / 1.194NPV = ₩394.75When the discount rate is 19 percent, the NPV of the offer is ₩466.82. Accept the offer.e.Yes, the decisions under the NPV rule are consistent with the choices made under the IRR rulesince the signs of the cash flows change only once.13. a.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the IRR foreach project is:Deepwater Fishing IRR:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$600,000 + $270,000 / (1 + IRR) + $350,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $300,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 24.30%Submarine Ride IRR:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / (1 + IRR) + $700,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $900,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 21.46%Based on the IRR rule, the deepwater fishing project should be chosen because it has the higher IRR.b.To calculate the incremental IRR, we s ubtract the smaller project’s cash flows from the largerproject’s cash flows. In this case, we subtract the deepwater fishing cash flows from the submarine ride cash flows. The incremental IRR is the IRR of these incremental cash flows. So, the incremental cash flows of the submarine ride are:Year 0Year 1Year 2 Year 3 Submarine Ride –$1,800,000 $1,000,000 $700,000 $900,000Deepwater Fishing –600,000 270,000 350,000 300,000Submarine – Fishing –$1,200,000 $730,000 $350,000 $600,000 Setting the present value of these incremental cash flows equal to zero, we find the incremental IRR is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$1,200,000 + $730,000 / (1 + IRR) + $350,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $600,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:Incremental IRR = 19.92%For investing-type projects, accept the larger project when the incremental IRR is greater than the discount rate. Since the incremental IRR, 19.92%, is greater than the required rate of return of 15 percent, choose the submarine ride project. Note that this is the choice when evaluating only the IRR of each project. The IRR decision rule is flawed because there is a scale problem.That is, the submarine ride has a greater initial investment than does the deepwater fishing project. This problem is corrected by calculating the IRR of the incremental cash flows, or by evaluating the NPV of each project.c.The NPV is the sum of the present value of the cash flows from the project, so the NPV of eachproject will be:Deepwater fishing:NPV = –$600,000 + $270,000 / 1.15 + $350,000 / 1.152 + $300,000 / 1.153NPV = $96,687.76Submarine ride:NPV = –$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / 1.15 + $700,000 / 1.152 + $900,000 / 1.153NPV = $190,630.39Since the NPV of the submarine ride project is greater than the NPV of the deepwater fishingproject, choose the submarine ride project. The incremental IRR rule is always consistent withthe NPV rule.14. a.The profitability index is the PV of the future cash flows divided by the initial investment. Thecash flows for both projects are an annuity, so:PI I = 元15,000(PVIFA10%,3 ) / 元30,000 = 1.243PI II = 元2,800(PVIFA10%,3) / 元5,000 = 1.393The profitability index decision rule implies that we accept project II, since PI II is greater thanthe PI I.b.The NPV of each project is:NPV I = –元30,000 + 元15,000(PVIFA10%,3) = 元7,302.78NPV II = –元5,000 + 元2,800(PVIFA10%,3) = 元1,963.19The NPV decision rule implies accepting Project I, since the NPV I is greater than the NPV II.ing the profitability index to compare mutually exclusive projects can be ambiguous whenthe magnitudes of the cash flows for the two projects are of different scale. In this problem,project I is roughly 3 times as large as project II and produces a larger NPV, yet the profit-ability index criterion implies that project II is more acceptable.15. a.The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = –₦28,000,000 + ₦53,000,000/1.11 –₦8,000,000/1.112 = ₦13,254,768.28The NPV is greater than 0, so we would accept the project.b.The equation for the IRR of the project is:0 = –₦28,000,000 + ₦53,000,000/(1+IRR) –₦8,000,000/(1+IRR)2From Descartes rule of signs, we know there are two IRRs since the cash flows change signstwice. From trial and error, the two IRRs are:IRR = 72.75%, –83.46%。

Cha02 罗斯公司理财第九版原版书课后习题

Cha02 罗斯公司理财第九版原版书课后习题

reported in the financing activity section of the accounting statement of cash flows. When Tyco received payments from customers, the cash inflows were reported as operating cash flows. Another method used by Tyco was to have acquired companies prepay operating expenses. In other words, the company acquired by Tyco would pay vendors for items not yet received. In one case, the payments totaled more than $50 million. When the acquired company was consolidated with Tyco, the prepayments reduced Tyco’s cash outflows, thus increasing the operating cash flows.Dynegy, the energy giant, was accused of engaging in a number of complex “round-trip trades.” The round-trip trades essentially involved the sale of natural resources to a counterparty, with the repurchase of the resources from the same party at the same price. In essence, Dynegy would sell an asset for $100, and immediately repurchase it from the buyer for $100. The problem arose with the treatment of the cash flows from the sale. Dynegy treated the cash from the sale of the asset as an operating cash flow, but classified the repurchase as an investing cash outflow. The total cash flows of the contracts traded by Dynegy in these round-trip trades totaled $300 million.Adelphia Communications was another company that apparently manipulated cash flows. In Adelphia’s case, the company capitalized the labor required to install cable. In other words, the company classified this labor expense as a fixed asset. While this practice is fairly common in the telecommunications industry, Adelphia capitalized a higher percentage of labor than is common. The effect of this classification was that the labor was treated as an investment cash flow, which increased the operating cash flow.In each of these examples, the companies were trying to boost operating cash flows by shifting cash flows to a different heading. The important thing to notice is that these movements don’t affect the total cash flow of the firm, which is why we recommend focusing on this number, not just operating cash flow.Summary and ConclusionsBesides introducing you to corporate accounting, the purpose of this chapter has been to teach you how to determine cash flow from the accounting statements of a typical company.1. Cash flow is generated by the firm and paid to creditors and shareholders. It can be classifiedas:1. Cash flow from operations.2. Cash flow from changes in fixed assets.3. Cash flow from changes in working capital.2. Calculations of cash flow are not difficult, but they require care and particular attention to detailin properly accounting for noncash expenses such as depreciation and deferred taxes. It is especially important that you do not confuse cash flow with changes in net working capital and net income.Concept Questions1. Liquidity True or false: All assets are liquid at some price. Explain.2. Accounting and Cash Flows Why might the revenue and cost figures shown on a standardincome statement not represent the actual cash inflows and outflows that occurred during a period?3. Accounting Statement of Cash Flows Looking at the accounting statement of cash flows,what does the bottom line number mean? How useful is this number for analyzing a company? 4. Cash Flows How do financial cash flows and the accounting statement of cash flows differ?Which is more useful for analyzing a company?5. Book Values versus Market Values Under standard accounting rules, it is possible for astockholders’ equity of Information Control Corp. one year ago:During the past year, Information Control issued 10 million shares of new stock at a total price of $43 million, and issued $10 million in new long-term debt. The company generated $9 million in net income and paid $2 million in dividends. Construct the current balance sheet reflecting the changes that occurred at Information Control Corp. during the year.8. Cash Flow to Creditors The 2009 balance sheet of Anna’s Tennis Shop, Inc., showed long-term debt of $1.34 million, and the 2010 balance sheet showed long-term debt of $1.39 million.The 2010 income statement showed an interest expense of $118,000. What was the firm’s cash flow to creditors during 2010?9. Cash Flow to Stockholders The 2009 balance sheet of Anna’s Tennis Shop, Inc., showed$430,000 in the common stock account and $2.6 million in the additional paid-in surplus account.The 2010 balance sheet showed $450,000 and $3.05 million in the same two accounts, respectively. If the company paid out $385,000 in cash dividends during 2010, what was the cash flow to stockholders for the year?10. Calculating Cash Flows Given the information for Anna’s Tennis Shop, Inc., in the previoustwo problems, suppose you also know that the firm’s net capital spending for 2010 was $875,000 and that the firm reduced its net working capital investment by $69,000. What was the firm’s 2010 operating cash flow, or OCF?INTERMEDIATE (Questions 11–24)11. Cash Flows Ritter Corporation’s accountants prepared the following financial statements foryear-end 2010:1. Explain the change in cash during 2010.2. Determine the change in net working capital in 2010.3. Determine the cash flow generated by the firm’s assets during 2010.12. Financial Cash Flows The Stancil Corporation provided the following current information:Determine the cash flows from the firm and the cash flows to investors of the firm.13. Building an Income Statement During the year, the Senbet Discount Tire Company hadgross sales of $1.2 million. The firm’s cost of goods sold and selling expenses were $450,000 and $225,000, respectively. Senbet also had notes payable of $900,000. These notes carried an interest rate of 9 percent. Depreciation was $110,000. Senbet’s tax rate was 35 percent.1. What was Senbet’s net income?2. What was Senbet’s operating cash flow?14. Calculating Total Cash Flows Schwert Corp. shows the following information on its 2010income statement: sales = $167,000; costs = $91,000; other expenses = $5,400; depreciation expense = $8,000; interest expense = $11,000; taxes = $18,060; dividends = $9,500. In addition, you’re told that the firm issued $7,250 in new equity during 2010 and redeemed $7,100 in outstanding long-term debt.1. What is the 2010 operating cash flow?2. What is the 2010 cash flow to creditors?3. What is the 2010 cash flow to stockholders?4. If net fixed assets increased by $22,400 during the year, what was the addition to networking capital (NWC)?15. Using Income Statements Given the following information for O’Hara Marine Co., calculatethe depreciation expense: sales = $43,000; costs = $27,500; addition to retained earnings = $5,300; dividends paid = $1,530; interest expense = $1,900; tax rate = 35 percent.1. What is owners’ equity for 2009 and 2010?2. What is the change in net working capital for 2010?3. In 2010, Weston Enterprises purchased $1,800 in new fixed assets. How much in fixedassets did Weston Enterprises sell? What is the cash flow from assets for the year? (The tax rate is 35 percent.)4. During 2010, Weston Enterprises raised $360 in new long-term debt. How much long-termdebt must Weston Enterprises have paid off during the year? What is the cash flow to creditors?Use the following information for Ingersoll, Inc., for Problems 23 and 24 (assume the tax rate is34 percent):23. Financial Statements Draw up an income statement and balance sheet for this company for2009 and 2010.24. Calculating Cash Flow For 2010, calculate the cash flow from assets, cash flow to creditors,and cash flow to stockholders.CHALLENGE (Questions 25–27)25. Cash Flows You are researching Time Manufacturing and have found the following accountingstatement of cash flows for the most recent year. You also know that the company paid $82 million in current taxes and had an interest expense of $43 million. Use the accounting statement of cash flows to construct the financial statement of cash flows.Nick has also provided the following information: During the year the company raised $118,000 in new long-term debt and retired $98,000 in long-term debt. The company also sold $11,000 in new stock and repurchased $40,000 in stock. The company purchased $786,000 in fixed assets and sold $139,000 in fixed assets.Angus has asked you to prepare the financial statement of cash flows and the accounting statement of cash flows. He has also asked you to answer the following questions:1. How would you describe Warf Computers’ cash flows?2. Which cash flow statement more accurately describes the cash flows at the company?3. In light of your previous answers, comment on Nick’s expansion plans.。

(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案

(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案

(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案-CAL-FENGHAI-(2020YEAR-YICAI)_JINGBIAN第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3.这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4.有两种结论。

一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。

另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。

现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。

7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。

较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。

罗斯公司理财题库全集

罗斯公司理财题库全集

Chapter 12 An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing TheoryMultiple Choice Questions1. In the equation R = + U, the three symbols stand for:A. average return, expected return, and unexpected return.B. required return, expected return, and unbiased return.C. actual total return, expected return, and unexpected return.D. required return, expected return, and unbiased risk.E. risk, expected return, and unsystematic risk.2. The acronym APT stands for:A. Arbitrage Pricing Techniques.B. Absolute Profit Theory.C. Arbitrage Pricing Theory.D. Asset Puting Theory.E. Assured Price Techniques.3. The acronym CAPM stands for:A. Capital Asset Pricing Model.B. Certain Arbitrage Pressure Model.C. Current Arbitrage Prices Model.D. Cumulative Asset Price Model.E. None of the above.4. The unexpected return on a security, U, is made up of:A. market risk and systematic risk.B. systematic risk and unsystematic risk.C. idiosyncratic risk and unsystematic risk.D. expected return and market risk.E. expected return and idiosyncratic risk.5. Systematic risk is defined as:A. a risk that specifically affects an asset or small group of assets.B. any risk that affects a large number of assets.C. any risk that has a huge impact on the return of a security.D. the random component of return.E. None of the above.6. The term Corr(ε R, ε T) = 0 tells us that:A. all error terms of company R and T are 0.B. the unsystematic risk of companies R and T is unrelated or uncorrelated.C. the correlation between the returns of companies R and T is -1.D. the systematic risk of companies R and T is unrelated.E. None of the above.7. A factor is a variable that:A. affects the returns of risky assets in a systematic fashion.B. affects the returns of risky assets in an unsystematic fashion.C. correlates with risky asset returns in a unsystematic fashion.D. does not correlate with the returns of risky assets in an systematic fashion.E. None of the above.8. A security that has a beta of zero will have an expected return of:A. zero.B. the market risk premium.C. the risk free rate.D. less than the risk free rate but not negative.E. less than the risk free rate which can be negative.9. Which of the following is true about the impact on market price of a security when a company makes an announcement and the market has discounted the news?A. The price will change a great deal; even though the impact is primarily in the future, the future value is discounted to the present.B. The price will change little, if at all, since the impact is primarily in the future.C. The price will change little, if at all, since the market considers this information unimportant.D. The price will change little, if at all, since the market considers this information untrue.E. The price will change little, if at all, since the market has already included this information in the security's price.10. Shareholders discount many corporate announcements because of their prior expectations. If an announcement causes the price to change it will mostly be driven by:A. the expected part of the announcement.B. market inefficiency.C. the unexpected part of the announcement.D. the systematic risk.E. None of the above.11. A company owning gold mines will probably have a _____ inflation beta because an ___ increase in inflation is usually associated with an increase in gold prices.A. negative; anticipatedB. positive; anticipatedC. negative; unanticipatedD. positive; unanticipatedE. None of the above.12. If company A, a medical research company, makes a new product discovery and their stock rises 5%, this will have:A. no effect on Company B's, a newspaper, stock price because it is a systematic risk element.B. no effect on Company B's, a newspaper, stock price because it is an unsystematic risk element.C. a large effect on Company B's, a newspaper, stock price because it is a systematic risk element.D. a large effect on Company B's, a newspaper, stock price because it is an unsystematic risk element.E. None of the above.13. What would not be true about a GNP beta?A. If a stock's βGNP = 1.5, the stock will experience a 1.5% increase for every 1% surprise increase in GNP.B. If a stock's β GNP = -1.5, the stock will experience a 1.5% decrease for every 1% surprise increase in GNP.C. It is a measure of risk.D. It measures the impact of systematic risk associated with GNP.E. None of the above.14. If the expected rate of inflation was 3% and the actual rate was 6.2%; the systematic response coefficient from inflation, β, would result in a change inI.any security return of ___ βIA. 9.2B. 3.2C. -3.2D. 3.0E. 6.215. In a portfolio of risky assets, the response to a factor, Fi, can be determined by:A. summing the weightedi s and multiplying by the factor Fi.B. summing the Fis.C. adding the average weighted expected returns.D. summing the weighted random errors.E. All of the above.16. In the one factor (APT) model, the characteristic line to estimate i passes through the origin, unlike the estimate used in the CAPM because:A. the relationship is between the actual return on a security and the market index.B. the relationship measures the change in the security return over time versus the change in the market return.C. the relationship measures the change in excess return on a security versus GNP.D. the relationship measures the change in excess return on a security versus the return on the factor about its mean of zero.E. Cannot be determined without actual data.17. The betas along with the factors in the APT adjust the expected return for:A. calculation errors.B. unsystematic risks.C. spurious correlations of factors.D. differences between actual and expected levels of factors.E. All of the above.18. The single factor APT model that resembles the market model uses _________ as the single factor.A. arbitrage feesB. GNPC. the inflation rateD. the market returnE. the risk-free return19. For a diversified portfolio including a large number of stocks, the:A. weighted average expected return goes to zero.B. weighted average of the betas goes to zero.C. weighted average of the unsystematic risk goes to zero.D. return of the portfolio goes to zero.E. return on the portfolio equals the risk-free rate.20. Which of the following statements is true?A. A well-diversified portfolio has negligible systematic risk.B. A well-diversified portfolio has negligible unsystematic risk.C. An individual security has negligible systematic risk.D. An individual security has negligible unsystematic risk.E. Both A and D.21. Assuming that the single factor APT model applies, the beta for the market portfolio is:A. zero.B. one.C. the average of the risk free beta and the beta for the highest risk security.D. impossible to calculate without collecting sample data.E. None of the above.22. In normal market conditions if a security has a negative beta:A. the security always has a positive return.B. the security has an expected return above the risk-free return.C. the security has an expected return less than the risk-free rate.D. the security has an expected return equal to the market portfolio.E. Both A and B.23. A criticism of the CAPM is that it:A. ignores the return on the market portfolio.B. ignores the risk-free return.C. requires a single measure of systematic risk.D. utilizes too many factors.E. None of the above.24. To estimate the cost of equity capital for a firm using the CAPM, it is necessary to have:A. company financial leverage, beta, and the market risk premium.B. company financial leverage, beta, and the risk-free rate.C. beta, company financial leverage, and the industry beta.D. beta, company financial leverage, and the market risk premium.E. beta, the risk-free rate, and the market risk premium.25. An advantage of the APT over CAPM is:A. APT can handle multiple factors.B. if the factors can be properly identified, the APT may have more explanation/predictive power for returns.C. the APT forces unsystematic risk to be negative to offset systematic risk; thus making the total portfolio risk free, allowing for an arbitrage opportunity for the astute investor.D. Both A and B.E. All of the above.26. Parametric or empirical models rely on:A. security betas explaining systematic factor relationships.B. finding regularities and relations in past market data.C. there being no true explanations of pricing relationships.D. always being able to find the exception to the rule.E. None of the above27. A growth stock portfolio and a value portfolio might be characterized:A. each by their P/E relative to the index P/E; high P/E for growth and lower for value.B. as earning a high rate of return for a growth security and a low rate of return for value security irrespective of risk.C. low unsystematic risk and high systematic risk respectively.D. moderate systematic risk and zero systematic risk respectively.E. None of the above.28. Style portfolios are characterized by:A. their stock attributes; P/Es less than the market P/E are value funds.B. their systematic factors, higher systematic factors are benchmark portfolios.C. their stock attributes; higher stock attribute factors are benchmark portfolios.D. their systematic factors, P/Es greater than the market are value portfolios.E. There is no difference between systematic factors and stock attributes.29. The most realistic APT model would likely include:A. multiple factors.B. only one factor.C. a factor to measure inflation.D. Both A and C.E. Both B and C.30. Which of the following statements is/are true?A. Both APT and CAPM argue that expected excess return must be proportional to the beta(s).B. APT and CAPM are the only approaches to measure expected returns in risky assets.C. Both CAPM and APT are risk-based models.D. Both A and B.E. Both A and C.31. Three factors likely to occur in the APT model are:A. unemployment, inflation, and current rates.B. inflation, GNP, and interest rates.C. current rates, inflation and change in housing prices.D. unemployment, college tuition, and GNP.E. This cannot be determined or even estimated.32. Both the APT and the CAPM imply a positive relationship between expected return and risk. The APT views risk:A. very similarly to the CAPM via the beta of the security.B. in terms of individual intersecurity correlation versus the beta of the CAPM.C. via the industry wide or marketwide factors creating correlation between securities.D. as the standardized deviation of the covariance.E. None of the above.33. The Fama-French three factor model includes the following factors:A. beta, expected return on the market, risk free rate of interest, a size factor, and a value factor.B. the market risk premium, a volume factor, and a size factor.C. beta, expected return on the market, risk free rate of interest, a volume factor, and a value factor.D. the yield on corporate bonds, a size factor, and a market factor.E. None of the above.34. A value company is defined as one that:A. tends to have a lower average return than a growth company.B. tends to have higher average return than a growth company.C. has a high ratio of book equity to market equity.D. a and b.E. a and c.35. The Fama-French three factor model predicts the expected return on a portfolio increases:A. linearly with its factor loading of the size factor.B. linearly with its factor loading of the volume.C. exponentially with its factor loading of the size factor.D. exponentially with its factor loading of the volume factor.E. None of the above.36. The systematic response coefficient for productivity, β, would produce anpif the expected rate of unexpected change in any security return of __ βPproductivity was 1.5% and the actual rate was 2.25%.A. 0.75%B. -0.75%C. 2.25%D. -2.25%E. 1.5%37. Assume that the single factor APT model applies and a portfolio exists such that 2/3 of the funds are invested in Security Q and the rest in the risk-free asset. Security Q has a beta of 1.5. The portfolio has a beta of:A. 0.00B. 0.50C. 0.75D. 1.00E. 1.5038. Suppose the JumpStart Corporation's common stock has a beta of 0.8. If the risk-free rate is 4% and the expected market return is 9%, the expected return for JumpStart's common stock is:A. 3.2%.B. 4.0%.C. 7.2%.D. 8.0%.E. 9.0%.39. Suppose the MiniCD Corporation's common stock has a return of 12%. Assume the risk-free rate is 4%, the expected market return is 9%, and no unsystematic influence affected Mini's return. The beta for MiniCD is:A. 0.89.B. 1.60.C. 2.40.D. 3.00.E. It is impossible to calculate beta without the inflation rate.Suppose that we have identified three important systematic risk factors given by exports, inflation, and industrial production. In the beginning of the year, growth in these three factors is estimated at -1%, 2.5%, and 3.5% respectively. However, actual growth in these factors turns out to be 1%, -2%, and 2%. The factor betas are given by βEX = 1.8, βI = 0.7, and βIP = 1.0.40. If the expected return on the stock is 6%, and no unexpected news concerning the stock surfaces, calculate the stock's total return.A. 2.95%B. 4.95%C. 6.55%D. 7.40%E. 8.85%41. Calculate the stock's total return if the company announces that an important patent filing has been granted sooner than expected and will earn the company 5% more in return.A. 7.95%B. 9.95%C. 11.55%D. 7.90%E. 9.35%42. Calculate the stock's total return if the company announces that they had an industrial accident and the operating facilities will close down for some time thus resulting in a loss by the company of 7% in return.A. -4.05%B. -2.05%C. 4.55%D. 0.40%E. 1.85%43. What would the stock's total return be if the actual growth in each of the factors was equal to growth expected? Assume no unexpected news on the patent.A. 4%B. 5%C. 6%D. 7%E. 8%Essay Questions44. An investor is considering the three stocks given below:Calculate the expected return and beta of a portfolio equally weighted between stocks B and C. Demonstrate that holding stock A actually reduces risk by comparing the risk of a portfolio equally weighted between stock B and T-Bills with a portfolio equally weighted between stocks B and A.45. Explain the conceptual differences in the theoretical development of the CAPM and APT.46. You have a 3 factor model to explain returns. Explain what a factor represents in the context of the APT? Each factor is multiplied by a beta. What do these represent and how do they relate to the actual return?47. Discuss the Fama-French three factor model; both what it means and the factors of the model.Chapter 12 An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing Theory Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. In the equation R = + U, the three symbols stand for:A.average return, expected return, and unexpected return.B.required return, expected return, and unbiased return.C.actual total return, expected return, and unexpected return.D.required return, expected return, and unbiased risk.E.risk, expected return, and unsystematic risk.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORYType: DEFINITIONS2. The acronym APT stands for:A.Arbitrage Pricing Techniques.B.Absolute Profit Theory.C.Arbitrage Pricing Theory.D.Asset Puting Theory.E.Assured Price Techniques.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORYType: DEFINITIONS3. The acronym CAPM stands for:A.Capital Asset Pricing Model.B.Certain Arbitrage Pressure Model.C.Current Arbitrage Prices Model.D.Cumulative Asset Price Model.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODELType: DEFINITIONS4. The unexpected return on a security, U, is made up of:A.market risk and systematic risk.B.systematic risk and unsystematic risk.C.idiosyncratic risk and unsystematic risk.D.expected return and market risk.E.expected return and idiosyncratic risk.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: UNEXPECTED RETURNType: DEFINITIONS5. Systematic risk is defined as:A. a risk that specifically affects an asset or small group of assets.B.any risk that affects a large number of assets.C.any risk that has a huge impact on the return of a security.D.the random component of return.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SYSTEMATIC RISKType: DEFINITIONS6. The term Corr(ε R, ε T) = 0 tells us that:A.all error terms of company R and T are 0.B.the unsystematic risk of companies R and T is unrelated or uncorrelated.C.the correlation between the returns of companies R and T is -1.D.the systematic risk of companies R and T is unrelated.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CORRELATIONType: DEFINITIONS7. A factor is a variable that:A.affects the returns of risky assets in a systematic fashion.B.affects the returns of risky assets in an unsystematic fashion.C.correlates with risky asset returns in a unsystematic fashion.D.does not correlate with the returns of risky assets in an systematic fashion.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: FACTORSType: DEFINITIONS8. A security that has a beta of zero will have an expected return of:A.zero.B.the market risk premium.C.the risk free rate.D.less than the risk free rate but not negative.E.less than the risk free rate which can be negative.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ZERO BETAType: DEFINITIONS9. Which of the following is true about the impact on market price of a security when a company makes an announcement and the market has discounted the news?A.The price will change a great deal; even though the impact is primarily in the future, the future value is discounted to the present.B.The price will change little, if at all, since the impact is primarily in the future.C.The price will change little, if at all, since the market considers this information unimportant.D.The price will change little, if at all, since the market considers this information untrue.E.The price will change little, if at all, since the market has already included this information in the security's price.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ANNOUNCEMENT EFFECTSType: CONCEPTS10. Shareholders discount many corporate announcements because of their prior expectations. If an announcement causes the price to change it will mostly be driven by:A.the expected part of the announcement.B.market inefficiency.C.the unexpected part of the announcement.D.the systematic risk.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ANNOUNCEMENT EFFECTSType: CONCEPTS11. A company owning gold mines will probably have a _____ inflation beta because an ___ increase in inflation is usually associated with an increase in gold prices.A.negative; anticipatedB.positive; anticipatedC.negative; unanticipatedD.positive; unanticipatedE.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INFLATION AND BETAType: CONCEPTS12. If company A, a medical research company, makes a new product discovery and their stock rises 5%, this will have:A.no effect on Company B's, a newspaper, stock price because it is a systematic risk element.B.no effect on Company B's, a newspaper, stock price because it is an unsystematic risk element.C. a large effect on Company B's, a newspaper, stock price because it is a systematic risk element.D. a large effect on Company B's, a newspaper, stock price because it is an unsystematic risk element.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: UNSYSTEMATIC RISKType: CONCEPTS13. What would not be true about a GNP beta?A.If a stock's βGNP = 1.5, the stock will experience a 1.5% increase for every 1% surprise increase in GNP.B.If a stock's β GNP = -1.5, the stock will experience a 1.5% decrease for every 1% surprise increase in GNP.C.It is a measure of risk.D.It measures the impact of systematic risk associated with GNP.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BETAType: CONCEPTS14. If the expected rate of inflation was 3% and the actual rate was 6.2%; the, would result in a change in systematic response coefficient from inflation, βI.any security return of ___ βIA.9.2B. 3.2C.-3.2D. 3.0E. 6.2Difficulty level: EasyTopic: FACTORS AND INFLATIONType: CONCEPTS15. In a portfolio of risky assets, the response to a factor, Fi, can be determined by:A.summing the weighted βi s and multiplying by the factor Fi.B.summing the Fis.C.adding the average weighted expected returns.D.summing the weighted random errors.E.All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: FACTORSType: CONCEPTS16. In the one factor (APT) model, the characteristic line to estimate βi passes through the origin, unlike the estimate used in the CAPM because:A.the relationship is between the actual return on a security and the market index.B.the relationship measures the change in the security return over time versus the change in the market return.C.the relationship measures the change in excess return on a security versus GNP.D.the relationship measures the change in excess return on a security versus the return on the factor about its mean of zero.E.Cannot be determined without actual data.Difficulty level: ChallengeTopic: APT AND CAPMType: CONCEPTS17. The betas along with the factors in the APT adjust the expected return for:A.calculation errors.B.unsystematic risks.C.spurious correlations of factors.D.differences between actual and expected levels of factors.E.All of the above.Difficulty level: ChallengeTopic: BETAS AND FACTORSType: CONCEPTS18. The single factor APT model that resembles the market model uses _________ as the single factor.A.arbitrage feesB.GNPC.the inflation rateD.the market returnE.the risk-free returnDifficulty level: EasyTopic: SINGLE FACTOR APTType: CONCEPTS19. For a diversified portfolio including a large number of stocks, the:A.weighted average expected return goes to zero.B.weighted average of the betas goes to zero.C.weighted average of the unsystematic risk goes to zero.D.return of the portfolio goes to zero.E.return on the portfolio equals the risk-free rate.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: UNSYSTEMATIC RISK AND DIVERSIFICATIONType: CONCEPTS20. Which of the following statements is true?A. A well-diversified portfolio has negligible systematic risk.B. A well-diversified portfolio has negligible unsystematic risk.C.An individual security has negligible systematic risk.D.An individual security has negligible unsystematic risk.E.Both A and D.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: UNSYSTEMATIC RISK AND DIVERSIFICATIONType: CONCEPTS21. Assuming that the single factor APT model applies, the beta for the market portfolio is:A.zero.B.one.C.the average of the risk free beta and the beta for the highest risk security.D.impossible to calculate without collecting sample data.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SINGLE FACTOR APTType: CONCEPTS22. In normal market conditions if a security has a negative beta:A.the security always has a positive return.B.the security has an expected return above the risk-free return.C.the security has an expected return less than the risk-free rate.D.the security has an expected return equal to the market portfolio.E.Both A and B.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NEGATIVE BETAType: CONCEPTS23. A criticism of the CAPM is that it:A.ignores the return on the market portfolio.B.ignores the risk-free return.C.requires a single measure of systematic risk.D.utilizes too many factors.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CAPMType: CONCEPTS24. To estimate the cost of equity capital for a firm using the CAPM, it is necessary to have:pany financial leverage, beta, and the market risk premium.pany financial leverage, beta, and the risk-free rate.C.beta, company financial leverage, and the industry beta.D.beta, company financial leverage, and the market risk premium.E.beta, the risk-free rate, and the market risk premium.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CAPMType: CONCEPTS25. An advantage of the APT over CAPM is:A.APT can handle multiple factors.B.if the factors can be properly identified, the APT may have more explanation/predictive power for returns.C.the APT forces unsystematic risk to be negative to offset systematic risk; thus making the total portfolio risk free, allowing for an arbitrage opportunity for the astute investor.D.Both A and B.E.All of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: APT AND CAPMType: CONCEPTS26. Parametric or empirical models rely on:A.security betas explaining systematic factor relationships.B.finding regularities and relations in past market data.C.there being no true explanations of pricing relationships.D.always being able to find the exception to the rule.E.None of the aboveDifficulty level: ChallengeTopic: EMPIRICAL MODELINGType: CONCEPTS27. A growth stock portfolio and a value portfolio might be characterized:A.each by their P/E relative to the index P/E; high P/E for growth and lower for value.B.as earning a high rate of return for a growth security and a low rate of return for value security irrespective of risk.C.low unsystematic risk and high systematic risk respectively.D.moderate systematic risk and zero systematic risk respectively.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: PORTFOLIOSType: CONCEPTS28. Style portfolios are characterized by:A.their stock attributes; P/Es less than the market P/E are value funds.B.their systematic factors, higher systematic factors are benchmark portfolios.C.their stock attributes; higher stock attribute factors are benchmark portfolios.D.their systematic factors, P/Es greater than the market are value portfolios.E.There is no difference between systematic factors and stock attributes. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: STYLE PORTFOLIOSType: CONCEPTS29. The most realistic APT model would likely include:A.multiple factors.B.only one factor.C. a factor to measure inflation.D.Both A and C.E.Both B and C.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: APTType: CONCEPTS30. Which of the following statements is/are true?A.Both APT and CAPM argue that expected excess return must be proportional to the beta(s).B.APT and CAPM are the only approaches to measure expected returns in risky assets.C.Both CAPM and APT are risk-based models.D.Both A and B.E.Both A and C.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: APT AND CAPMType: CONCEPTS31. Three factors likely to occur in the APT model are:A.unemployment, inflation, and current rates.B.inflation, GNP, and interest rates.C.current rates, inflation and change in housing prices.D.unemployment, college tuition, and GNP.E.This cannot be determined or even estimated.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: APT FACTORSType: CONCEPTS32. Both the APT and the CAPM imply a positive relationship between expected return and risk. The APT views risk:A.very similarly to the CAPM via the beta of the security.B.in terms of individual intersecurity correlation versus the beta of the CAPM.C.via the industry wide or marketwide factors creating correlation between securities.D.as the standardized deviation of the covariance.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORYType: CONCEPTS。

罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版

罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版

第五章:净现值和投资评价的其他方法1.如果项目会带来常规的现金流,回收期短于项目的生命周期意味着,在折现率为0 的情况下,NPV 为正值。

折现率大于0 时,回收期依旧会短于项目的生命周期,但根据折现率小于、等于、大于IRR 的情况,NPV 可能为正、为零、为负。

折现回收期包含了相关折现率的影响。

如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期,NPV 一定为正值。

2.如果某项目有常规的现金流,而且NPV 为正,该项目回收期一定短于其生命周期。

因为折现回收期是用与NPV 相同的折现值计算出来的,如果NPV为正,折现回收期也会短于该项目的生命周期。

NPV 为正表明未来流入现金流大于初始投资成本,盈利指数必然大于1。

如果NPV 以特定的折现率R 计算出来为正值时,必然存在一个大于R 的折现率R’使得NPV 为0,因此,IRR 必定大于必要报酬率。

3.(1)回收期法就是简单地计算出一系列现金流的盈亏平衡点。

其缺陷是忽略了货币的时间价值,另外,也忽略了回收期以后的现金流量。

当某项目的回收期小于该项目的生命周期,则可以接受;反之,则拒绝。

回收期法决策作出的选择比较武断。

(2)平均会计收益率为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。

其最大的缺陷在于没有使用正确的原始材料,其次也没有考虑到时间序列这个因素。

一般某项目的平均会计收益率大于公司的目标会计收益率,则可以接受;反之,则拒绝。

(3)内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0 的贴现率。

其缺陷在于没有办法对某些项目进行判断,例如有多重内部收益率的项目,而且对于融资型的项目以及投资型的项目判断标准截然相反。

对于投资型项目,若IRR 大于贴现率,项目可以接受;反之,则拒绝。

对于融资型项目,若IRR 小于贴现率,项目可以接受;反之,则拒绝。

(4)盈利指数是初始以后所有预期未来现金流量的现值和初始投资的比值。

必须注意的是,倘若初始投资期之后,在资金使用上还有限制,那盈利指数就会失效。

《公司理财》课后答案(英文版,第六版).doc

《公司理财》课后答案(英文版,第六版).doc

Chapter 2: Accounting Statements and Cash Flow2.10AssetsCurrent assetsCash $ 4,000Accounts receivable 8,000Total current assets $ 12,000Fixed assetsMachinery $ 34,000Patents 82,000Total fixed assets $116,000Total assets $128,000Liabilities and equityCurrent liabilitiesAccounts payable $ 6,000Taxes payable 2,000Total current liabilities $ 8,000Long-term liabilitiesBonds payable $7,000Stockholders equityCommon stock ($100 par) $ 88,000Capital surplus 19,000Retained earnings 6,000Total stockholders equity $113,000Total liabilities and equity $128,0002.11One year ago TodayLong-term debt $50,000,000 $50,000,000Preferred stock 30,000,000 30,000,000Common stock 100,000,000 110,000,000Retained earnings 20,000,000 22,000,000Total $200,000,000 $212,000,0002.12Total Cash Flow ofthe Stancil CompanyCash flows from the firmCapital spending $(1,000)Additions to working capital (4,000)Total $(5,000)Cash flows to investors of the firmShort-term debt $(6,000)Long-term debt (20,000)Equity (Dividend - Financing) 21,000Total $(5,000)[Note: This table isn’t the Statement of Cash Flows, which is only covered in Appendix 2B, since the latter has th e change in cash (on the balance sheet) as a final entry.]2.13 a. The changes in net working capital can be computed from:Sources of net working capitalNet income $100Depreciation 50Increases in long-term debt 75Total sources $225Uses of net working capitalDividends $50Increases in fixed assets* 150Total uses $200Additions to net working capital $25*Includes $50 of depreciation.b.Cash flow from the firmOperating cash flow $150Capital spending (150)Additions to net working capital (25)Total $(25)Cash flow to the investorsDebt $(75)Equity 50Total $(25)Chapter 3: Financial Markets and Net Present Value: First Principles of Finance (Advanced)3.14 $120,000 - ($150,000 - $100,000) (1.1) = $65,0003.15 $40,000 + ($50,000 - $20,000) (1.12) = $73,6003.16 a. ($7 million + $3 million) (1.10) = $11.0 millionb.i. They could spend $10 million by borrowing $5 million today.ii. They will have to spend $5.5 million [= $11 million - ($5 million x 1.1)] at t=1.Chapter 4: Net Present Valuea. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the interest already earned. Therefore, the interest earned inSince this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the present value of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.30PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.23a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same. Remember, FV =PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV. Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. You should choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. You know that rate mustfall between 10% and 20% because the option you would choose differs at these rates. Let r be thediscount rate that makes you indifferent between the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for six years. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earn interest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.61PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.18a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earning interest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at the e nd of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earns interest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balance that earns interest is rising faster.The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply the perpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $800a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of theperpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.pply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present value of an annuity factor.ANPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 81.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments. Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments.A= $2,000 (9.8181)Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20.008= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.88The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must be equal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A T r. The annuity factors are in the appendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the row labeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.[ 10% ⎤[6.1446 ⎤a ⎡r ⎥bc ⎡6.4 ⎪ d⎣9%⎦⎣6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate. Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.[Note: A standard financial calculator’s TVM keys can solve for this rate. With annuity flows, the IRR key on “advanced” financial c alculators is unnecessary.]a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000 which youThat amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075]. Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.A$17,824.65 = C 507.0$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 five years from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 / 1.075 =$17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (see footnote 11 of the text).Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-tax amounts. Theafter-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of $115,200 to obtain the value of this option.AValue = $115,200 + $115,200 30.010= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-tax payment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].AValue = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.et r be the rate of interest you must earn.$10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000(1 + r)12= 8r = 0.18921 = 18.921%First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s educati on. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education isA= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955.$21,000 415.0This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these isPV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516= $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44.A= $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.80Payment = $14,880.44 / 15.015This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is$50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60.PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is$21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46se the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV of the project. NoticeYou can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV0.9091 $636.371$70020.8264 743.769003 1,000 ⎤4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.805 1,000 ⎥6 1,000 ⎦7 1,250 0.5132 641.508 1,375 0.4665 641.44Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87= $282.87Purchase the machine.Chapter 5: How to Value Bonds and StocksThe amount of the semi-annual interest payment is $40 (=$1,000 ⨯ 0.08 / 2). There are a total of 40 periods;i.e., two half years in each of the twenty years in the term to maturity. The annuity factor tables can be usedto price these bonds. The appropriate discount rate to use is the semi-annual rate. That rate is simply the annual rate divided by two. Thus, for part b the rate to be used is 5% and for part c is it 3%.A+F/(1+r)40PV=C Tra. $40 (19.7928) + $1,000 / 1.0440 = $1,000Notice that whenever the coupon rate and the market rate are the same, the bond is priced at par.b. $40 (17.1591) + $1,000 / 1.0540 = $828.41Notice that whenever the coupon rate is below the market rate, the bond is priced below par.c. $40 (23.1148) + $1,000 / 1.0340 = $1,231.15Notice that whenever the coupon rate is above the market rate, the bond is priced above par.a. The semi-annual interest rate is $60 / $1,000 = 0.06. Thus, the effective annual rate is 1.062 - 1 =0.1236 = 12.36%.A+ $1,000 / 1.0612b. Price = $30 12.006= $748.48A+ $1,000 / 1.0412c. Price = $30 1204.0= $906.15Note: In parts b and c we are implicitly assuming that the yield curve is flat. That is, the yield in year 5applies for year 6 as well.rice = $2 (0.72) / 1.15 + $4 (0.72) / 1.152 + $50 / 1.153= $36.31The number of shares you own = $100,000 / $36.31 = 2,754 sharesPrice = $1.15 (1.18) / 1.12 + $1.15 (1.182) / 1.122 + $1.152 (1.182) / 1.123+ {$1.152 (1.182)(1.06) / (0.12 - 0.06)} / 1.123= $26.95[Insert before last sentence of question: Assume that dividends are a fixed proportion of earnings.] Dividend one year from now = $5 (1 - 0.10) = $4.50Price = $5 + $4.50 / {0.14 - (-0.10)}= $23.75Since the current $5 dividend has not yet been paid, it is still included in the stock price.Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment Rulesa. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 yearsPayback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. NPV A = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96NPV B = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83Project B should be chosen.a. Average Investment:($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000Average accounting return:$4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25%b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does not consider the timevalue of money.2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule.3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows.aAverage Investment = (8000 + 4000 + 1500 + 0)/4 = 3375.00Average Net Income = 2000(1-0.75) = 1500=> AAR = 1500/3375=44.44%a. Solve x by trial and error:-$8,000 + $4,000 / (1 + x) + $3000 / (1 + x)2 + $2,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0x = 6.93%b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discount rate of 8%.Alternatively, the NPV @ a discount rate of 0.08 = -$136.62.a. Solve r in the equation:$5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3- $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0By trial and error,IRR = r = 13.99%b. Since this problem is the case of financing, accept the project if the IRR is less than the required rate of return.IRR = 13.99% > 10%Reject the offer.c. IRR = 13.99% < 20%Accept the offer.d. When r = 10%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14When r = 20%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24= $466.82Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cash flows change only once.A/ $160,000 = 1.04PI = $40,000 715.0Since the PI exceeds one accept the project.Chapter 7: Net Present Value and Capital BudgetingSince there is uncertainty surrounding the bonus payments, which McRae might receive, you must use the expected value of McRae’s bonuses in the computation of the PV of his contract. McRae’s salary plus the expected value of his bonuses in years one through three is$250,000 + 0.6 ⨯ $75,000 + 0.4 ⨯ $0 = $295,000.Thus the total PV of his three-year contract isPV = $400,000 + $295,000 [(1 - 1 / 1.12363) / 0.1236]+ {$125,000 / 1.12363} [(1 - 1 / 1.123610 / 0.1236]= $1,594,825.68EPS = $800,000 / 200,000 = $4NPVGO = (-$400,000 + $1,000,000) / 200,000 = $3Price = EPS / r + NPVGO= $4 / 0.12 + $3=$36.33Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 51. Annual Salary$120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 Savings2. Depreciation 100,000 160,000 96,000 57,600 57,6003. Taxable Income 20,000 -40,000 24,000 62,400 62,4004. Taxes 6,800 -13,600 8,160 21,216 21,2165. Operating Cash Flow113,200 133,600 111,840 98,784 98,784 (line 1-4)$100,000 -100,0006. ∆ Net workingcapital7. Investment $500,000 75,792*8. Total Cash Flow -$400,000 $113,200 $133,600 $111,840 $98,784 $74,576*75,792 = $100,000 - 0.34 ($100,000 - $28,800)NPV = -$400,000+ $113,200 / 1.12 + $133,600 / 1.122 + $111,840 / 1.123+ $98,784 / 1.124 + $74,576 / 1.125= -$7,722.52Real interest rate = (1.15 / 1.04) - 1 = 10.58%NPV A = -$40,000+ $20,000 / 1.1058 + $15,000 / 1.10582 + $15,000 / 1.10583= $1,446.76NPV B = -$50,000+ $10,000 / 1.15 + $20,000 / 1.152 + $40,000 / 1.153= $119.17Choose project A.PV = $120,000 / {0.11 - (-0.06)}t = 0 t = 1 t = 2 t = 3 t = 4 t = 5 t = 6 ...$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 $6,000$4,000$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 ...The present value of one cycle is:A+ $4,000 / 1.064PV = $12,000 + $6,000 306.0= $12,000 + $6,000 (2.6730) + $4,000 / 1.064= $31,206.37The cycle is four years long, so use a four year annuity factor to compute the equivalent annual cost (EAC).AEAC = $31,206.37 / 406.0= $31,206.37 / 3.4651= $9,006The present value of such a stream in perpetuity is$9,006 / 0.06 = $150,100o evaluate the word processors, compute their equivalent annual costs (EAC).BangAPV(costs) = (10 ⨯ $8,000) + (10 ⨯ $2,000) 414.0= $80,000 + $20,000 (2.9137)= $138,274EAC = $138,274 / 2.9137= $47,456IOUAPV(costs) = (11 ⨯ $5,000) + (11 ⨯ $2,500) 3.014- (11 ⨯ $500) / 1.143= $55,000 + $27,500 (2.3216) - $5,500 / 1.143= $115,132EAC = $115,132 / 2.3216= $49,592BYO should purchase the Bang word processors.Chapter 8: Strategy and Analysis in Using Net Present ValueThe accounting break-even= (120,000 + 20,000) / (1,500 - 1,100)= 350 units. The accounting break-even= 340,000 / (2.00 - 0.72)= 265,625 abalonesb. [($2.00 ⨯ 300,000) - (340,000 + 0.72 ⨯ 300,000)] (0.65)= $28,600This is the after tax profit.Chapter 9: Capital Market Theory: An Overviewa. Capital gains = $38 - $37 = $1 per shareb. Total dollar returns = Dividends + Capital Gains = $1,000 + ($1*500) = $1,500 On a per share basis, this calculation is $2 + $1 = $3 per sharec. On a per share basis, $3/$37 = 0.0811 = 8.11% On a total dollar basis, $1,500/(500*$37) = 0.0811 = 8.11%d. No, you do not need to sell the shares to include the capital gains in the computation of the returns. The capital gain is included whether or not you realize the gain. Since you could realize the gain if you choose, you should include it.The expected holding period return is:()[]%865.1515865.052$/52$75.54$50.5$==-+There appears to be a lack of clarity about the meaning of holding period returns. The method used in the answer to this question is the one used in Section 9.1. However, the correspondence is not exact, because in this question, unlike Section 9.1, there are cash flows within the holding period. The answer above ignores the dividend paid in the first year. Although the answer above technically conforms to the eqn at the bottom of Fig. 9.2, the presence of intermediate cash flows that aren’t accounted for renders th is measure questionable, at best. There is no similar example in the body of the text, and I have never seen holding period returns calculated in this way before.Although not discussed in this book, there are two generally accepted methods of computing holding period returns in the presence of intermediate cash flows. First, the time weighted return calculates averages (geometric or arithmetic) of returns between cash flows. Unfortunately, that method can’t be used here, because we are not given the va lue of the stock at the end of year one. Second, the dollar weighted measure calculates the internal rate of return over the entire holding period. Theoretically, that method can be applied here, as follows: 0 = -52 + 5.50/(1+r) + 60.25/(1+r)2 => r = 0.1306.This produces a two year holding period return of (1.1306)2 – 1 = 0.2782. Unfortunately, this book does not teach the dollar weighted method.In order to salvage this question in a financially meaningful way, you would need the value of the stock at the end of one year. Then an illustration of the correct use of the time-weighted return would be appropriate. A complicating factor is that, while Section 9.2 illustrates the holding period return using the geometric return for historical data, the arithmetic return is more appropriate for expected future returns.E(R) = T-Bill rate + Average Excess Return = 6.2% + (13.0% -3.8%) = 15.4%. Common Treasury Realized Stocks Bills Risk Premium -7 32.4% 11.2% 21.2%-6 -4.9 14.7 -19.6-5 21.4 10.5 10.9 -4 22.5 8.8 13.7 -3 6.3 9.9 -3.6 -2 32.2 7.7 24.5 Last 18.5 6.2 12.3 b. The average risk premium is 8.49%.49.873.125.246.37.139.106.192.21=++-++- c. Yes, it is possible for the observed risk premium to be negative. This can happen in any single year. The.b.Standard deviation = 03311.0001096.0=.b.Standard deviation = = 0.03137 = 3.137%.b.Chapter 10: Return and Risk: The Capital-Asset-Pricing Model (CAPM)a. = 0.1 (– 4.5%) + 0.2 (4.4%) + 0.5 (12.0%) + 0.2 (20.7%) = 10.57%b.σ2 = 0.1 (–0.045 – 0.1057)2 + 0.2 (0.044 – 0.1057)2 + 0.5 (0.12 – 0.1057)2+ 0.2 (0.207 – 0.1057)2 = 0.0052σ = (0.0052)1/2 = 0.072 = 7.20%Holdings of Atlas stock = 120 ⨯ $50 = $6,000 ⨯ $20 = $3,000Weight of Atlas stock = $6,000 / $9,000 = 2 / 3Weight of Babcock stock = $3,000 / $9,000 = 1 / 3a. = 0.3 (0.12) + 0.7 (0.18) = 0.162 = 16.2%σP 2= 0.32 (0.09)2 + 0.72 (0.25)2 + 2 (0.3) (0.7) (0.09) (0.25) (0.2)= 0.033244σP= (0.033244)1/2 = 0.1823 = 18.23%a.State Return on A Return on B Probability1 15% 35% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.22 15% -5% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.23 10% 35% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.34 10% -5% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.3b. = 0.2 [0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.2[0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (-0.05)]+ 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (-0.05)]= 0.135= 13.5%Note: The solution to this problem requires calculus.Specifically, the solution is found by minimizing a function subject to a constraint. Calculus ability is not necessary to understand the principles behind a minimum variance portfolio.Min { X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)}subject to X A + X B = 1Let X A = 1 - X B. Then,Min {(1 - X B)2σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2(1 - X B) X B Cov (R A, R B)}Take a derivative with respect to X B.d{∙} / dX B = (2 X B - 2) σA2+ 2 X B σB2 + 2 Cov(R A, R B) - 4 X B Cov(R A, R B)Set the derivative equal to zero, cancel the common 2 and solve for X B.X BσA2- σA2+ X B σB2 + Cov(R A, R B) - 2 X B Cov(R A, R B) = 0X B = {σA2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}andX A = {σB2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}Using the data from the problem yields,X A = 0.8125 andX B = 0.1875.a. Using the weights calculated above, the expected return on the minimum variance portfolio isE(R P) = 0.8125 E(R A) + 0.1875 E(R B)= 0.8125 (5%) + 0.1875 (10%)= 5.9375%b. Using the formula derived above, the weights areX A = 2 / 3 andX B = 1 / 3c. The variance of this portfolio is zero.σP 2= X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)= (4 / 9) (0.01) + (1 / 9) (0.04) + 2 (2 / 3) (1 / 3) (-0.02)= 0This demonstrates that assets can be combined to form a risk-free portfolio.14.2%= 3.7%+β(7.5%) ⇒β = 1.40.25 = R f + 1.4 [R M– R f] (I)0.14 = R f + 0.7 [R M– R f] (II)(I) – (II)=0.11 = 0.7 [R M– R f] (III)[R M– R f ]= 0.1571Put (III) into (I) 0.25 = R f + 1.4[0.1571]R f = 3%[R M– R f ]= 0.1571R M = 0.1571 + 0.03= 18.71%a. = 4.9% + βi (9.4%)βD= Cov(R D, R M) / σM 2 = 0.0635 / 0.04326 = 1.468= 4.9 + 1.468 (9.4) = 18.70%Weights:X A = 5 / 30 = 0.1667X B = 10 / 30 = 0.3333X C = 8 / 30 = 0.2667X D = 1 - X A - X B - X C = 0.2333Beta of portfolio= 0.1667 (0.75) + 0.3333 (1.10) + 0.2667 (1.36) + 0.2333 (1.88)= 1.293= 4 + 1.293 (15 - 4) = 18.22%a. (i) βA= ρA,MσA / σMρA,M= βA σM / σA= (0.9) (0.10) / 0.12= 0.75(ii) σB= βB σM / ρB,M= (1.10) (0.10) / 0.40= 0.275(iii) βC= ρC,MσC / σM= (0.75) (0.24) / 0.10= 1.80(iv) ρM,M= 1(v) βM= 1(vi) σf= 0(vii) ρf,M= 0(viii) βf= 0b. SML:E(R i) = R f + βi {E(R M) - R f}= 0.05 + (0.10) βiSecurity βi E(R i)A 0.13 0.90 0.14B 0.16 1.10 0.16C 0.25 1.80 0.23Security A performed worse than the market, while security C performed better than the market.Security B is fairly priced.c. According to the SML, security A is overpriced while security C is under-priced. Thus, you could invest in security C while sell security A (if you currently hold it).a. The typical risk-averse investor seeks high returns and low risks. To assess thetwo stocks, find theReturns:State of economy ProbabilityReturn on A*Recession 0.1 -0.20 Normal 0.8 0.10 Expansion0.10.20* Since security A pays no dividend, the return on A is simply (P 1 / P 0) - 1. = 0.1 (-0.20) + 0.8 (0.10) + 0.1 (0.20) = 0.08 = 0.09 This was given in the problem.Risk:R A - (R A -)2 P ⨯ (R A -)2 -0.28 0.0784 0.00784 0.02 0.0004 0.00032 0.12 0.0144 0.00144 Variance 0.00960Standard deviation (R A ) = 0.0980βA = {Corr(R A , R M ) σ(R A )} / σ(R M ) = 0.8 (0.0980) / 0.10= 0.784βB = {Corr(R B , R M ) σ(R B )} / σ(R M ) = 0.2 (0.12) / 0.10= 0.24The return on stock B is higher than the return on stock A. The risk of stock B, as measured by itsbeta, is lower than the risk of A. Thus, a typical risk-averse investor will prefer stock B.b. = (0.7) + (0.3) = (0.7) (0.8) + (0.3) (0.09) = 0.083σP 2= 0.72 σA 2 + 0.32 σB 2 + 2 (0.7) (0.3) Corr (R A , R B ) σA σB = (0.49) (0.0096) + (0.09) (0.0144) + (0.42) (0.6) (0.0980) (0.12) = 0.0089635 σP = = 0.0947 c. The beta of a portfolio is the weighted average of the betas of the components of the portfolio. βP = (0.7) βA + (0.3) βB = (0.7) (0.784) + (0.3) (0.240) = 0.621Chapter 11:An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing Theorya. Stock A:()()R R R R R A A A m m Am A=+-+=+-+βεε105%12142%...Stock B:()()R R R R R B B m m Bm B=+-+=+-+βεε130%098142%...Stock C:()R R R R R C C C m m Cm C=+-+=+-+βεε157%137142%)..(.b.()[]()[]()[]()()()()()()[]()()CB A m cB A m c m B m A m CB A P 25.045.030.0%2.14R 1435.1%925.1225.045.030.0%2.14R 37.125.098.045.02.130.0%7.1525.0%1345.0%5.1030.0%2.14R 37.1%7.1525.0%2.14R 98.0%0.1345.0%2.14R 2.1%5.1030.0R 25.0R 45.0R 30.0R ε+ε+ε+-+=ε+ε+ε+-+++++=ε+-++ε+-++ε+-+=++= c.i.()R R R A B C =+-==+-==+-=105%1215%142%)1113%09815%142%)137%157%13715%142%168%..(..46%.(......ii.R P =+-=12925%1143515%142%)138398%..(..To determine which investment investor would prefer, you must compute the variance of portfolios created bymany stocks from either market. Note, because you know that diversification is good, it is reasonable to assume that once an investor chose the market in which he or she will invest, he or she will buy many stocks in that market.Known:E EF ====001002 and and for all i.i σσεε..Assume: The weight of each stock is 1/N; that is, X N i =1/for all i.If a portfolio is composed of N stocks each forming 1/N proportion of the portfolio, the return on the portfolio is 1/N times the sum of the returns on the N stocks. Recall that the return on each stock is 0.1+βF+ε.()()()()()()[]()()()()()()()[]()[]()[]()()[]()()()()()j i 2j i 22j i i 2222222222P P P P iP ,0.04Corr 0.01,Cov s =isvariance the ,N as limit In the ,Cov 1/N 1s 1/N s )(1/N 1/N F 2F E 1/N F E 0.10.1/N F 0.1E R E R E R Var 0.101/N 00.1E 1/N F E 0.11/N F 0.1E R E 1/N F 0.1F 0.1(1/N)R 1/N R εε+β=εε+β∞⇒εε-+ε+β=ε∑+εβ+β=ε+β=-ε+β+=-==+β+=ε+β+=ε∑+β+=ε+β+=ε+β+==∑∑∑∑∑∑∑∑()()()()()()Thus,F R f E R E R Var R Corr Var R Corr ii ip P p i j PijR 1i =++=++===+=+010*********002250040002500412212111222.........,,εεεεεεa.()()()()Corr Corr Var R Var R i j i j p pεεεε112212000225000225,,..====Since Var ()()R p 1 Var R 2p 〉, a risk averse investor will prefer to invest in the second market.b. Corr ()()εεεε112090i j j ,.,== and Corr 2i()()Var R Var R pp120058500025==..。

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap012

英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap012

CHAPTER 12RISK AND THE COST OF CAPITALAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.It is the minimum rate of return the firm must earn overall on its existing assets. If it earns more thanthis, value is created.2.Book values for debt are likely to be much closer to market values than are equity book values.3.No. The cost of capital depends on the risk of the project, not the source of the money.4.Interest expense is tax-deductible. There is no difference between pretax and aftertax equity costs.5.You are assuming that the new project’s risk is the same as the risk of the firm as a whole, and thatthe firm is financed entirely with equity.6.Two primary advantages of the SML approach are that the model explicitly incorporates the relevantrisk of the stock and the method is more widely applicable than is the DCF model, since the SML doesn’t make any assumptions about the firm’s dividends. The primary disadvantages of the SML method are (1) three parameters (the risk-free rate, the expected return on the market, and beta) must be estimated, and (2) the method essentially uses historical information to estimate these parameters.The risk-free rate is usually estimated to be the yield on very short maturity T-bills and is, hence, observable; the market risk premium is usually estimated from historical risk premiums and, hence, is not observable. The stock beta, which is unobservable, is usually estimated either by determining some average historical beta from the firm and the market’s return data, or by using beta estimates provided by analysts and investment firms.7.The appropriate aftertax cost of debt to the company is the interest rate it would have to pay if itwere to issue new debt today. Hence, if the YTM on outstanding bonds of the company is observed, the company has an accurate estimate of its cost of debt. If the debt is privately-placed, the firm could still estimate its cost of debt by (1) looking at the cost of debt for similar firms in similar risk classes, (2) looking at the average debt cost for firms with the same credit rating (assuming the firm’s private debt is rated), or (3) consulting analysts and investment bankers. Even if the debt is publicly traded, an additional complication is when the firm has more than one issue outstanding;these issues rarely have the same yield because no two issues are ever completely homogeneous.8. a.This only considers the dividend yield component of the required return on equity.b.This is the current yield only, not the promised yield to maturity. In addition, it is based on thebook value of the liability, and it ignores taxes.c.Equity is inherently riskier than debt (except, perhaps, in the unusual case where a firm’s assetshave a negative beta). For this reason, the cost of equity exceeds the cost of debt. If taxes are considered in this case, it can be seen that at reasonable tax rates, the cost of equity does exceed the cost of debt.B-2 SOLUTIONS= .12 + .75(.08) = .1800 or 18.00%9.RSupBoth should proceed. The appropriate discount rate does not depend on which company is investing;it depends on the risk of the project. Since Superior is in the business, it is closer to a pure play.Therefore, its cost of capital should be used. With an 18% cost of capital, the project has an NPV of $1 million regardless of who takes it.10.If the different operating divisions were in much different risk classes, then separate cost of capitalfigures should be used for the different divisions; the use of a single, overall cost of capital would be inappropriate. If the single hurdle rate were used, riskier divisions would tend to receive more funds for investment projects, since their return would exceed the hurdle rate despite the fact that they may actually plot below the SML and, hence, be unprofitable projects on a risk-adjusted basis. The typical problem encountered in estimating the cost of capital for a division is that it rarely has its own securities traded on the market, so it is difficult to observe the market’s valuation of the risk of the division. Two typical ways around this are to use a pure play proxy for the division, or to use subjective adjustments of the overall firm hurdle rate based on the perceived risk of the division.11.The discount rate for the projects should be lower that the rate implied by the security market line.The security market line is used to calculate the cost of equity. The appropriate discount rate for projects is the firm’s weighted average cost of capital. Since the firm’s cost of debt is generally less that the firm’s cost of equity, the rate implied by the security market line will be too high.12.Beta measures the responsiveness of a security's returns to movements in the market. Beta isdetermined by the cyclicality of a firm's revenues. This cyclicality is magnified by the firm's operating and financial leverage. The following three factors will impact the firm’s beta. (1) Revenues. The cyclicality of a firm's sales is an important factor in determining beta. In general, stock prices will rise when the economy expands and will fall when the economy contracts. As we said above, beta measures the responsiveness of a security's returns to movements in the market.Therefore, firms whose revenues are more responsive to movements in the economy will generally have higher betas than firms with less-cyclical revenues. (2) Operating leverage. Operating leverage is the percentage change in earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) for a percentage change in sales. A firm with high operating leverage will have greater fluctuations in EBIT for a change in sales than a firm with low operating leverage. In this way, operating leverage magnifies the cyclicality of a firm's revenues, leading to a high beta. (3) Financial leverage. Financial leverage arises from the use of debt in the firm's capital structure. A levered firm must make fixed interest payments regardless of its revenues. The effect of financial leverage on beta is analogous to the effect of operating leverage on beta. Fixed interest payments cause the percentage change in net income to be greater than the percentage change in EBIT, magnifying the cyclicality of a firm's revenues. Thus, returns on highly-levered stocks should be more responsive to movements in the market than the returns on stocks with little or no debt in their capital structure.CHAPTER 12 B-3 Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1. With the information given, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:R E = .05 + 1.30 (.12 – .05) = .1410 or 14.10%2. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,050 = $40(PVIFA R%,24) + $1,000(PVIF R%,24)R = 3.683%YTM = 2 × 3.683% = 7.37%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0737(1 – .40) = .0442 or 4.42%3. a.The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,080 = $50(PVIFA R%,46) + $1,000(PVIF R%,46)R = 4.58%YTM = 2 × 4.58% = 9.16%b.The aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0916(1 – .40) = .05496 or 5.50%c.The aftertax rate is more relevant because that is the actual cost to the company.4. The book value of debt is the total par value of all outstanding debt, so:BV D = €20M + 80M = €100MTo find the market value of debt, we find the price of the bonds and multiply by the number of bonds. Alternatively, we can multiply the price quote of the bond times the par value of the bonds.Doing so, we find:MV D = 1.08(€20M) + .58(€80M) = €68MB-4 SOLUTIONSThe YTM of the zero coupon bonds is:P Z = €580 = €1,000(PVIF R%,7)R = 8.09%So, the aftertax cost of the zero coupon bonds is:R Z = .0809(1 – .35) = .0526 or 5.26%The aftertax cost of debt for the company is the weighted average of the aftertax cost of debt for all outstanding bond issues. We need to use the market value weights of the bonds. The total aftertax cost of debt for the company is:R D = .0595(€21.6/€68) + .0526(€46.4/€68) = .0548 or 5.48%5. Using the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60 (.16) + .40(.09)(1 – .35) = .1194 or 11.94%6. Here we need to use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC. Doing so, we find:WACC = .18(1/1.60) + .10(.60/1.60)(1 – .35) = .1369 or 13.69%7.Here we have the WACC and need to find the debt-equity ratio of the company. Setting up theWACC equation, we find:WACC = .1150 = .16(E/V) + .075(D/V)(1 – .35)Rearranging the equation, we find:.115(V/E) = .16 + .075(.65)(D/E)Now we must realize that the V/E is just the equity multiplier, which is equal to:V/E = 1 + D/E.115(D/E + 1) = .16 + .04875(D/E)Now we can solve for D/E as:.06625(D/E) = .0450D/E = .6792CHAPTER 12 B-5 8. a.The book value of equity is the book value per share times the number of shares, and the bookvalue of debt is the face value of the company’s debt, so:BV E = 9.5M(£5) = £47.5MBV D = £75M + 60M = £135MSo, the total value of the company is:V = £47.5M + 135M = £182.5MAnd the book value weights of equity and debt are:E/V = £47.5/£182.5 = .2603D/V = 1 – E/V = .7397b.The market value of equity is the share price times the number of shares, so:MV E = 9.5M(£53) = £503.5MUsing the relationship that the total market value of debt is the price quote times the par value of the bond, we find the market value of debt is:MV D = .93(£75M) + .965(£60M) = £127.65MThis makes the total market value of the company:V = £503.5 + 127.65M = £631.15And the market value weights of equity and debt are:E/V = £503.5/£631.15 = .7978D/V = 1 – E/V = .2022c.The market value weights are more relevant.B-6 SOLUTIONS9.First, we will find the cost of equity for the company. The information provided allows us to solvefor the cost of equity using the CAPM, so:R E = .052 + 1.2(.09) = .1600 or 16.00%Next, we need to find the YTM on both bond issues. Doing so, we find:P1 = $930 = $40(PVIFA R%,20) + $1,000(PVIF R%,20)R = 4.54%YTM = 4.54% × 2 = 9.08%P2 = $965 = $37.5(PVIFA R%,12) + $1,000(PVIF R%,12)R = 4.13%YTM = 4.13% × 2 = 8.25%To find the weighted average aftertax cost of debt, we need the weight of each bond as a percentage of the total debt. We find:w D1 = .93($75M)/$127.65M = .546w D2 = .965($60M)/$127.65M = .454Now we can multiply the weighted average cost of debt times one minus the tax rate to find the weighted average aftertax cost of debt. This gives us:R D = (1 – .40)[(.546)(.0908) + (.454)(.0825)] = .0522 or 5.22%Using these costs and the weight of debt we calculated earlier, the WACC is:WACC = .7978(.1600) + .2022(.0522) = .1382 or 13.82%10. ing the equation to calculate WACC, we find:WACC = .105 = (1/1.8)(.15) + (.8/1.8)(1 – .35)R DR D = .0750 or 7.50%ing the equation to calculate WACC, we find:WACC = .105 = (1/1.8)R E + (.8/1.8)(.062)R E = .1394 or 13.94%CHAPTER 12 B-7 11.We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:MV D = 4,000($1,000)(1.03) = $4,120,000MV E = 90,000($57) = $5,130,000And the total market value of the firm is:V = $4,120,000 + 5,130,000 = $9,250,000Now, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:R E = .06 + 1.10(.08) = .1480 or 14.80%The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:P0 = $1,030 = $35(PVIFA R%,40) + $1,000(PVIF R%,40)R = 3.36%YTM = 3.36% × 2 = 6.72%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = (1 – .35)(.0672) = .0437 or 4.37%Now we have all of the components to calculate the WACC. The WACC is:WACC = .0437(4.12/9.25) + .1480(5.13/9.25) = .1015 or 10.15%Notice that we didn’t include the (1 – t C) term in the WACC equation. We simply used the aftertax cost of debt in the equation, so the term is not needed here.12. a.We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:MV D = 120,000(元1,000)(0.93) = 元111,600,000MV E = 9,000,000(元34) = 元306,000,000And the total market value of the firm is:V = 元111,600,000 + 306,000,000 = 元417,600,000So, the market value weights of the comp any’s financing is:D/V = 元111,600,000/元417,600,000 = .2672E/V = 元111,600,000/元417,600,000 = .7328B-8 SOLUTIONSb.For projects equally as risky as the firm itself, the WACC should be used as the discount rate.First we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:R E = .05 + 1.20(.10) = .1700 or 17.00%The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:P0 = 元930 = 元42.5(PVIFA R%,30) + 元1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 4.69%YTM = 4.69% × 2 = 9.38%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = (1 – .35)(.0938) = .0610 or 6.10%Now we can calculate the WACC as:WACC = .1700(.7328) + .0610 (.2672) = .1409 or 14.09%13. a.Projects X, Y and Z.ing the CAPM to consider the projects, we need to calculate the expected return of eachproject given its level of risk. This expected return should then be compared to the expected return of the project. If the return calculated using the CAPM is higher than the project expected return, we should accept the project; if not, we reject the project. After considering risk via the CAPM:E[W] = .05 + .60(.12 – .05) = .0920 < .11, so accept WE[X] = .05 + .90(.12 – .05) = .1130 < .13, so accept XE[Y] = .05 + 1.20(.12 – .05) = .1340 < .14, so accept YE[Z] = .05 + 1.70(.12 – .05) = .1690 > .16, so reject Zc. Project W would be incorrectly rejected; Project Z would be incorrectly accepted.Intermediateing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.65/1.65)(.055) + (1/1.65)(.15) = .1126 or 11.26%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 11.26% + 2.00% = 13.26%CHAPTER 12 B-9We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $3,500,000/(.1326 – .05) = $42,385,321The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $42,385,321 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.15.We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We will use D1 to representthe coupon bond, and D2 to represent the zero coupon bond. So, the market value of the firm’s financing is:MV D1 = 50,000(¥1,000)(1.1980) = ¥59,900,000MV D2 = 150,000(¥1,000)(.1385) = ¥20,775,000MV P = 120,000(¥112) = ¥13,440,000MV E = 2,000,000(¥65) = ¥130,000,000And the total market value of the firm is:V = ¥59,900,000 + 20,775,000 + 13,440,000 + 130,000,000 = ¥224,115,000Now, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:R E = .04 + 1.10(.09) = .1390 or 13.90%The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:P0 = ¥1,198 = ¥40(PVIFA R%,50) + ¥1,000(PVIF R%,50)R = 3.20%YTM = 3.20% × 2 = 6.40%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D2 = (1 – .40)(.0640) = .0384 or 3.84%And the aftertax cost of the zero coupon bonds is:P0 = ¥138.50 = ¥1,000(PVIF R%,60)R = 3.35%YTM = 3.35% × 2 = 6.70%R D1 = (1 – .40)(.0670) = .0402 or 4.02%Even though the zero coupon bonds make no payments, the calculation for the YTM (or price) still assumes semiannual compounding, consistent with a coupon bond. Also remember that, even though the company does not make interest payments, the accrued interest is still tax deductible for the company.B-10 SOLUTIONSTo find the required return on preferred stock, we can use the preferred stock pricing equation, which is the level perpetuity equation, so the required return on the company’s preferred stock is: R P = D1 / P0R P = ¥6.50 / ¥112R P = .0580 or 5.80%Notice that the required return in the preferred stock is lower than the required on the bonds. This result is not consistent with the risk levels of the two instruments, but is a common occurrence.There is a practical reason for this: Assume Company A owns stock in Company B. The tax code allows Company A to exclude at least 70 percent of the dividends received from Company B, meaning Company A does not pay taxes on this amount. In practice, much of the outstanding preferred stock is owned by other companies, who are willing to take the lower return since it is effectively tax exempt.Now we have all of the components to calculate the WACC. The WACC is:WACC = .0684(59.9/224.115) + .0402(20.775/224.115) + .1390(130/224.115)+ .0580(13.44/224.115)WACC = .0981 or 9.81%Challenge16.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/2.3)(.17) + (1.3/2.3)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.09)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0739 + .5652[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0488]WACC = .0739 + (.0942)WACC + .0276(.9058)WACC = .1015WACC = .1132 or 11.32%Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the future cash inflows using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$45,000,000 + ($5,700,000/.1132)NPV = –$45,000,000 + 50,372,552 = $5,372,552CHAPTER 12 B-11 17.The €4 million cost of the land 3 years ago is a sunk cost and irrelevant; the €6.5 million appraisedvalue of the land is an opportunity cost and is relevant. The relevant market value capitalization weights are:MV D = 15,000(€1,000)(0.92) = €13,800,000MV E = 300,000(€75) = €22,500,000MV P = 20,000(€72) = €1,440,000The total market value of the company is:V = €13,800,000 + 22,500,000 + 1,440,000 = €37,740,000Next we need to find the cost of funds. We have the information available to calculate the cost of equity using the CAPM, so:R E = .05 + 1.3(.08) = .1540 or 15.40%The cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s outstanding bonds, so:P0 = €920 = €35(PVIFA R%,30) + €1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.96%YTM = 3.96% × 2 = 7.92%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = (1 – .35)(.0792) = .0515 or 5.15%The cost of preferred stock is:R P = €5/€72 = .0694 or 6.94%a.The initial cost to the company will be the opportunity cost of the land, the cost of the plant,and the net working capital cash flow, so:CF0 = –€6,500,000 – 15,000,000 – 900,000 = –€22,400,000b.To find the required return on this project, we first need to calculate the WACC for thecompany. The company’s WACC is:WACC = [(€22.5/€37.74)(.1540) + (€1.44/€37.74)(.0694) + (€13.8/€37.74)(.0515)] = .1133The company wants to use the subjective approach to this project because it is located overseas.The adjustment factor is 2 percent, so the required return on this project is:Project required return = .1133 + .02 = .1333B-12 SOLUTIONSc.The annual depreciation for the equipment will be:€15,000,000/8 = €1,875,000So, the book value of the equipment at the end of five years will be:BV5 = €15,000,000 – 5(€1,875,000) = €5,625,000So, the aftertax salvage value will be:Aftertax salvage value = €5,000,000 + .35(€5,625,000 – 5,000,000) = €5,218,750ing the tax shield approach, the OCF for this project is:OCF = [(P – v)Q – FC](1 – t) + t C DOCF = [(€10,000 – 9,000)(12,000) – 400,000](1 – .35) + .35(€15M/8) = €8,196,250e.The accounting breakeven sales figure for this project is:Q A = (FC + D)/(P – v) = (€400,000 + 1,875,000)/(€10,000 – 9,000) = 2,275 unitsf.We have calculated all cash flows of the project. We just need to make sure that in Year 5 weadd back the aftertax salvage value, the recovery of the initial NWC, and the aftertax value of the land. The cash flows for the project are:Year Flow Cash0 –€22,400,0001 8,196,2502 8,196,2503 8,196,2504 8,196,2505 18,815,000Using the required return of 13.33 percent, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –€22,400,000 + €8,196,250(PVIFA13.33%,4) + €18,815,000/1.13335NPV = €11,878,610.78And the IRR is:NPV = 0 = –€22,400,000 + €8,196,250(PVIFA IRR%,4) + €18,815,000/(1 + IRR)5IRR = 30.87%。

公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter12_TB

公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter12_TB

公司理财精要版原书第12版习题库答案Ross12e_Chapter12_TBFundamentals of Corporate Finance, 12e (Ross)Chapter 12 Some Lessons from Capital Market History1) Stacy purchased a stock last year and sold it today for $4a share more than her purchase price. She received a total of $1.15 per share in dividends. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to this investment?A) The dividend yield is expressed as a percentage of the par value.B) The capital gain would have been less had Stacy not received the dividends.C) The total dollar return per share is $2.85.D) The capital gains yield is positive.E) The dividend yield is greater than the capital gains yield.2) Which one of the following correctly describes the dividend yield?A) Next year's annual dividend divided by today's stock priceB) This year's annual dividend divided by today's stock priceC) This year's annual dividend divided by next year's expected stock priceD) Next year's annual dividend divided by this year's annual dividendE) The increase in next year's dividend over this year's dividend divided by this year's dividend3) Bayside Marina just announced it is decreasing its annual dividend from $1.48 per share to $1.45 per share effective immediately. If the dividend yield remains at its pre-announcement level, then you know the stock price:A) was unaffected by the announcement.B) increased proportionately with the dividend decrease.C) decreased proportionately with the dividend decrease.D) decreased by $.03 per share.E) increased by $.03 per share.4) Which one of the following statements related to capital gains is correct?A) The capital gains yield includes only realized capital gains.B) An increase in an unrealized capital gain will increase the capital gains yield.C) The capital gains yield must be either positive or zero.D) The capital gains yield is expressed as a percentage of a security's total return.E) The capital gains yield represents the total return earned by an investor.5) Which of the following yields on a stock can be negative?A) Dividend yieldB) Capital gains yieldC) Capital gains yield and total returnD) Dividend yield, capital gains yield, and total returnE) Dividend yield and total return6) Small-company stocks, as the term is used in the textbook, are best defined as the:A) 500 newest corporations in the U.S.B) companies whose stock trades OTC.C) smallest 20 percent of the companies listed on the NYSE.D) smallest 25 percent of the companies listed on NASDAQ.E) companies whose stock is listed on NASDAQ.7) The historical record for the period 1926–2016 supports which one of the following statements?A) When large-company stocks have a negative return, they will have a negative return for at least two consecutive years.B) The return on U.S. Treasury bills exceeds the inflation rate by at least .5 percent each year.C) There was only one year during the period when double-digit inflation occurred.D) Small-company stocks have lost as much as 50 percent and gained as much as 100 percent in a single year.E) The inflation rate was positive each year throughout the period.8) Which one of the following time periods is associated with low rates of inflation?A) 1941–1942B) 1973–1974C) 2014–2015D) 1979–1980E) 1946–19479) For the period 1926–2016, U.S. Treasury bills always:A) provided an annual rate of return that exceeded the annual inflation rate.B) had an annual rate of return in excess of 1.2 percent.C) provided a positive annual rate of return.D) earned a higher annual rate of return than long-term government bonds.E) had a greater variation in returns year-over-year than did long-term government bonds.10) Which one of the following statements is a correct reflection of the U.S. financial markets for the period 1926–2016?A) U.S. Treasury bill returns never exceeded a return of 9 percent in any one year.B) U.S. Treasury bills had an annual return in excess of 10 percent in three or more years.C) Inflation equaled or exceeded the return on U.S. Treasury bills every year during the period.D) Long-term government bonds outperformed U.S. Treasury bills every year during the period.E) National deflation occurred in at least one year during every decade during the period.11) For the period 2009–2016, U.S. Treasury bills had an annual rate of return that was:A) between .5 and 1 percent.B) between 1 and 2 percent.C) negative in at least one year.D) negative for two or more years.E) between 0 and .25 percent.12) Which one of the following categories of securities had the highest average annual return for the period 1926–2016?A) U.S. Treasury billsB) Large-company stocksC) Small-company stocksD) Long-term corporate bondsE) Long-term government bonds13) Which one of the following categories of securities had the lowest average risk premium for the period 1926–2016?A) Long-term government bondsB) Small-company stocksC) Large-company stocksD) Long-term corporate bondsE) U.S. Treasury bills14) The rate of return on which type of security is normallyused as the risk-free rate of return?A) Long-term Treasury bondsB) Long-term corporate bondsC) Treasury billsD) Intermediate-term Treasury bondsE) Intermediate-term corporate bonds15) For the period 1926–2016, the average risk premium on large-company stocks was about:A) 12.7 percent.B) 10.4 percent.C) 8.6 percent.D) 6.9 percent.E) 7.3 percent.16) Assume that last year T-bills returned 2.8 percent while your investment in large-company stocks earned an average of 7.6 percent. Which one of the following terms refers to the difference between these two rates of return?A) Risk premiumB) Geometric average returnC) Arithmetic average returnD) Standard deviationE) Variance17) Which one of the following statements correctly applies to the period 1926–2016?A) Large-company stocks earned a higher average risk premium than did small-company stocks.B) The average inflation rate exceeded the average return on U.S. Treasury bills.C) Large-company stocks had an average annual return of14.7 percent.D) Inflation averaged 2.6 percent for the period.E) Long-term corporate bonds outperformed long-term government bonds.18) The excess return is computed as the:A) return on a security minus the inflation rate.B) return on a risky security minus the risk-free rate.C) risk premium on a risky security minus the risk-free rate.D) risk-free rate plus the inflation rate.E) risk-free rate minus the inflation rate.19) Which one of the following earned the highest risk premium over the period 1926–2016?A) Long-term corporate bondsB) U.S. Treasury billsC) Small-company stocksD) Large-company stocksE) Long-term government bonds20) What was the average rate of inflation over the period of 1926–2016?A) Less than 2.0 percentB) Between 2.0 and 2.4 percentC) Between 2.4 and 2.8 percentD) Between 2.8 and 3.2 percentE) Greater than 3.2 percent21) Assume you invest in a portfolio of long-term corporate bonds. Based on the period 1926–2016, what average annual rate of return should you expect to earn?A) Less than 5 percentB) Between 5 and 6 percentC) Between 6 and 7 percentD) Between 7 and 8 percentE) More than 8 percent22) The average annual return on small-company stocks was about ________ percent greater than the average annual return on large-company stocks over the period 1926–2016.A) 3B) 5C) 7D) 9E) 1123) Based on the period 1926-2016, the actual real return on large-company stocks has been around:A) 9 percent.B) 10 percent.C) 6 percent.D) 7 percent.E) 8 percent.24) To convince investors to accept greater volatility, you must:A) decrease the risk premium.B) increase the risk premium.C) decrease the real return.D) decrease the risk-free rate.E) increase the risk-free rate.25) Which one of the following best defines the variance of an investment's annual returns over a number of years?A) The average squared difference between the arithmetic and the geometric average annual returnsB) The squared summation of the differences between the actual returns and the average geometric returnC) The average difference between the annual returns andthe average return for the periodD) The difference between the arithmetic average and the geometric average return for the periodE) The average squared difference between the actual returns and the arithmetic average return26) Which one of the following categories of securities had the most volatile annual returns over the period 1926–2016?A) Long-term corporate bondsB) Large-company stocksC) Intermediate-term government bondsD) U.S. Treasury billsE) Small-company stocks27) If the variability of the returns on large-company stocks were to decrease over the long-term, you would expect which one of the following as related to large-company stocks to occur as a result?A) Increase in the risk premiumB) Increase in the average long-term rate of returnC) Decrease in the 68 percent probability range of returnsD) Increase in the standard deviationE) Increase in the geometric average rate of return28) Which one of the following statements is correct based on the historical record for the period 1926–2016?A) The standard deviation of returns for small-company stocks was double that of large-company stocks.B) U.S. Treasury bills had a zero standard deviation of returns because they are considered to be risk-free.C) Long-term government bonds had a lower return but a higher standard deviation on average than did long-term corporate bonds.D) Inflation was less volatile than the returns on U.S. Treasury bills.E) Long-term government bonds were less volatile than intermediate-term government bonds.29) What is the probability that small-company stocks will produce an annual return that is more than one standard deviation below the average?A) 1.0 percentB) 2.5 percentC) 5.0 percentD) 16 percentE) 32 percent30) Which one of the following is a correct ranking of securities based on the volatility of their annual returns over the period of 1926–2016? Rank from highest to lowest.A) Large-company stocks, U.S. Treasury bills, long-term government bondsB) Small-company stocks, long-term corporate bonds, large-company stocksC) Long-term government bonds, long-term corporate bonds, intermediate-term government bondsD) Large-company stocks, small-company stocks, long-term government bondsE) Intermediate-term government bonds, long-term corporate bonds, U.S. Treasury bills31) Which one of the following had the least volatile annual returns over the period of 1926–2016?A) Large-company stocksB) InflationC) Long-term corporate bondsD) U.S. Treasury billsE) Intermediate-term government bonds32) Which one of the following statements is correct based on the period 1926–2016?A) Long-term government bonds had more volatile annual returns than did the long-term corporate bonds.B) The standard deviation of the annual rate of inflation was less than 3 percent.C) U.S Treasury bills have a zero variance in returns because they are risk-free.D) The risk premium on small-company stocks was less than10 percent.E) The risk premium on all U.S. government securities is 0 percent.33) Generally speaking, which of the following best correspond to a wide frequency distribution?A) High standard deviation, low rate of returnB) Low rate of return, large risk premiumC) Small risk premium, high rate of returnD) Small risk premium, low standard deviationE) High standard deviation, large risk premium34) Standard deviation is a measure of which one of the following?A) Average rate of returnB) VolatilityC) ProbabilityD) Risk premiumE) Real returns35) Which one of the following is defined by its mean and its standard deviation?A) Arithmetic nominal returnB) Geometric real returnC) Normal distributionD) VarianceE) Risk premium36) Which of the following statements are true based on the historical record for 1926–2016?A) Risk-free securities produce a positive real rate of return each year.B) Bonds are generally a safer, or less risky, investment than are stocks.C) Risk and potential reward are inversely related.D) The normal distribution curve for large-company stocks is narrower than the curve for small-company stocks.E) Returns are more predictable over the short term than they are over the long term.37) Estimates of the rate of return on a security based on the historical arithmetic average will probably tend to ________ the expected return for the long-term and estimates using the historical geometric average will probably tend to ________ the expected return for the short-term.A) overestimate; overestimateB) overestimate; underestimateC) underestimate; overestimateD) underestimate; underestimateE) accurately estimate; accurately estimate38) The primary purpose of Blume's formula is to:A) compute an accurate historical rate of return.B) determine a stock's true current value.C) consider compounding when estimating a rate of return.D) determine the actual real rate of return.E) project future rates of return.39) The average compound return earned per year over a multiyear period is called the ________ average return.A) arithmeticB) standardC) variantD) geometricE) real40) The return earned in an average year over a multiyear period is called the ________ average return.A) arithmeticB) standardC) variantD) geometricE) real41) Assume all stock prices fairly reflect all of the available information on those stocks. Which one of the following terms best defines the stock market under these conditions?A) Riskless marketB) Evenly distributed marketC) Zero volatility marketD) Blume's marketE) Efficient capital market42) Which one of the following statements best defines the efficient market hypothesis?A) Efficient markets limit competition.B) Security prices in efficient markets remain steady as new information becomes available.C) Mispriced securities are common in efficient markets.D) All securities in an efficient market are zero net present value investments.E) All securities provide the same positive rate of return when the market is efficient.43) Which one of the following is the most likely reason whya stock price might not react at all on the day that new information related to the stock's issuer is released? Assume the market is semistrong form efficient.A) Company insiders were aware of the information prior to the announcement.B) Investors do not pay attention to daily news.C) Investors tend to overreact.D) The news was positive.E) The information was expected.44) Which one of the following is most indicative of a totally efficient stock market?A) Extraordinary returns earned on a routine basisB) Positive net present values on stock investments over the long-termC) Zero net present values for all stock investmentsD) Arbitrage opportunities which develop on a routine basisE) Realizing negative returns on a routine basis45) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning market efficiency?A) Real asset markets are more efficient than financial markets.B) If a market is efficient, arbitrage opportunities should be common.C) In an efficient market, some market participants will have an advantage over others.D) A firm will generally receive a fair price when it issues new shares of stock if the market is efficient.E) New information will gradually be reflected in a stock's price to avoid any sudden price changes in an efficient market.46) Efficient financial markets fluctuate continuously because:A) the markets are continually reacting to old information as that information is absorbed.B) the markets are continually reacting to new information.C) arbitrage trading is limited.D) current trading systems require human intervention.E) investments produce varying levels of net present values.47) Inside information has the least value when financial markets are:A) weak form efficient.B) semiweak form efficient.C) semistrong form efficient.D) strong form efficient.E) inefficient.48) Evidence seems to support the view that studying public information to identify mispriced stocks is:A) effective as long as the market is only semistrong form efficient.B) effective provided the market is only weak form efficient.C) ineffective.D) effective only in strong form efficient markets.E) ineffective only in strong form efficient markets.49) Which one of the following statements related to market efficiency tends to be supported by current evidence?A) It is easy for investors to earn abnormal returns.B) Short-run price movements are easy to predict.C) Markets are most likely only weak form efficient.D) Mispriced stocks are easy to identify.E) Markets tend to respond quickly to new information.50) Which form of market efficiency would most likely offer the greatest profit potential to an outstanding professional stock analyst?A) WeakB) SemiweakC) SemistrongD) StrongE) Perfect51) You are aware that your neighbor trades stocks based on confidential information he overhears at his workplace. This information is not available to the general public. This neighbor continually brags to you about the profits he earns on these trades. Given this, you would tend to argue that the financial markets are at best ________ form efficient.A) weakB) semiweakC) semistrongD) strongE) perfect52) The U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission periodically charges individuals with insider trading and claims those individuals have made unfair profits. Given this, you would be most apt to argue that the markets are less than ________ form efficient.A) weakB) semiweakC) semistrongD) strongE) perfect53) Individual investors who continually monitor the financial markets seeking mispriced securities:A) earn excess profits on all of their investments.B) make the markets increasingly more efficient.C) are never able to find a security that is temporarily mispriced.D) are overwhelmingly successful in earning abnormal profits.E) are always quite successful using only historical price information as their basis of evaluation.54) One year ago, you purchased a stock at a price of $43.20 per share. The stock pays quarterly dividends of $.18 per share. Today, the stock is selling for $45.36 per share. What is your capital gain on this investment?A) $1.44B) $2.16C) $2.80D) $1.74E) $2.3455) Six months ago, you purchased 300 shares of stock in Global Trading at a price of $26.19 a share. The stock pays a quarterly dividend of $.12 a share. Today, you sold all of your shares for $27.11 per share. What is the total amount of your dividend income on this investment?A) $36B) $72C) $348D) $144E) $20456) One year ago, you purchased 200 shares of SL Industries stock at a price of $18.97 a share. The stock pays an annual dividend of $1.42 per share. Today, you sold all of your shares for $17.86 per share. What is your total dollar return on this investment?A) $50B) $91C) $58D) $62E) $8257) You own 850 shares of Western Feed Mills stock valued at $53.15 per share. What is the dividend yield if your total annual dividend income is $1,256?A) 2.67 percentB) 2.78 percentC) 1.83 percentD) 2.13 percentE) 2.54 percent58) West Wind Tours stock is currently selling for $52.30 a share. The stock has a dividend yield of 2.48 percent. How much dividend income will you receive per year if you purchase 600 shares of this stock?A) $824.96B) $836.20C) $724.80D) $762.00E) $778.2259) One year ago, you purchased a stock at a price of $38.22a share. Today, you sold the stock and realized a total loss of 11.09 percent on your investment. Your capital gain was –$4.68 a share.What was your dividend yield?A) 1.15 percentB) .88 percentC) 1.02 percentD) .67 percentE) .38 percent60) You just sold 427 shares of stock at a price of $19.07 a share. You purchased the stock for $18.83 a share and have received total dividends of $614. What is the total capital gain on this investment?A) $716.48B) $511.52C) $102.48D) $618.48E) $476.5261) Last year, you purchased 400 shares of Analog stock for $12.92 a share. You have received a total of $136 in dividends and $4,301 in proceeds from selling the shares. What is your capital gains yield on this stock?A) 9.09 percentB) 6.73 percentC) ?16.78 percentD) ?14.14 percentE) ?11.02 percent62) Today, you sold 540 shares of stock and realized a total return of 7.3 percent. You purchased the shares one year ago at a price of $24 a share and have received a total of $86 in dividends. What is your capital gains yield on this investment?A) 5.68 percentB) 6.64 percentC) 6.39 percentD) 7.26 percentE) 7.41 percent63) Four months ago, you purchased 900 shares of LBM stock for $7.68 a share. Last month, you received a dividend payment of $.12 a share. Today, you sold the shares for $9.13 a share. What is your total dollar return on this investment?A) $1,305B) $1,413C) $1,512D) $1,394E) $1,08064) One year ago, you purchased 100 shares of Best Wings stock at a price of $38.19 a share. The company pays an annual dividend of $.46 per share. Today, you sold for the shares for $37.92 a share. What is your total percentage return on this investment?A) 2.62 percentB) 1.93 percentC) 2.72 percentD) 1.08 percentE) .50 percent65) Suppose a stock had an initial price of $76 per share, paida dividend of $1.42 per share during the year, and had an ending share price of $81. What was the capital gains yield?A) 6.17 percentB) 6.69 percentC) 7.05 percentD) 6.58 percentE) 5.44 percent66) Suppose you bought a $1,000 face value bond with a coupon rate of 5.6 percent one year ago. The purchase price was $987.50. You sold the bond today for $994.20. If the inflation rate last year was 2.6 percent, what was your exact real rate of return on this investment?A) 4.88 percentB) 5.32 percentC) 3.65 percentD) 3.78 percentE) 4.47 percent67) Leo purchased a stock for $63.80 a share, received a dividend of $2.68 a share and sold the shares for $59.74 each. During the time he owned the stock, inflation averaged 2.8 percent. What is his approximate real rate of return on this investment?A) ?.64 percentB) ?4.96 percentC) ?2.16 percentD) 2.16 percentE) 4.96 percent68) Christina purchased 500 shares of stock at a price of $62.30 a share and sold the shares for $64.25 each. She also received $738 in dividends. If the inflation rate was 3.9 percent, what was her exact real rate of return on this investment?A) 4.20 percentB) 1.54 percentC) 1.60 percentD) 3.95 percentE) 5.50 percent69) What is the amount of the risk premium on a U.S.Treasury bill if the risk-free rate is 3.1 percent, the inflation rate is2.6 percent, and the market rate of return is 7.4 percent?A) 0 percentB) 2.8 percentC) .5 percentD) 1.7 percentE) 4.3 percent70) You've observed the following returns on Crash-n-Burn Computer's stock over the past five years: 7 percent, 13 percent, 19 percent, ?8 percent, and 15 percent. Suppose the average inflation rate over this time period was 2.6 percent and the average T-bill rate was 3.1 percent. Based on this information, what was the average nominal risk premium?A) 6.6 percentB) 6.1 percentC) 9.2 percentD) 1.2 percentE) 3.5 percent71) You bought one of Shark Repellant's 6 percent coupon bonds one year ago for $867. These bonds pay annual payments, have a face value of $1,000, and mature 12 years from now. Suppose you decide to sell your bonds today when the required return on the bonds is 7.4 percent. The inflation rate over the past year was 2.9 percent. What was your total real return on this investment?A) 6.48 percentB) 6.61 percentC) 8.18 percentD) 7.44 percentE) 9.70 percent72) You find a certain stock that had returns of 8 percent, ?3 percent, 12 percent, and 17 percent for four of the last five years. The average return of the stock for the past five-year period was 6 percent. What is the standard deviation of the stock's returns for the five-year period?A) 10.39 percentB) 4.98 percentC) 7.16 percentD) 9.25 percentE) 5.38 percent73) A stock had returns of 5 percent, 14 percent, 11 percent, ?8 percent, and 6 percent over the past five years. What is the standard deviation of these returns?A) 7.74 percentB) 8.21 percentC) 9.68 percentD) 8.44 percentE) 7.49 percent74) The common stock of Air Express had annual returns of 11.7 percent, 8.8 percent,16.7 percent, and ?7.9 percent over the last four years, respectively. What is thestandard deviation of these returns?A) 8.29 percentB) 9.14 percentC) 11.54 percentD) 7.78 percentE) 10.66 percent75) A stock had annual returns of 5.3 percent, ?2.7 percent, 16.2 percent, and 13.6 percentover the past four years. Which one of the following best describes the probability that this stock will produce a return of20 percent or more in a single year?A) Less than 2.5 percent but more than .5 percentB) More than 16 percentC) Less than .5 percentD) Less than 1 percent but more than .5 percentE) Less than 16 percent but more than 2.5 percent76) A stock has an expected rate of return of 9.8 percent anda standard deviation of 15.4 percent. Which one of the following best describes the probability that this stock will lose at least half of its value in any one given year?A) less than 16 percentB) less than .5 percentC) less than 1.0 percentD) less than 2.5 percentE) less than 5.0 percent77) A stock had annual returns of 11.3 percent, 9.8 percent, ?7.3 percent, and 14.6percent for the past four years. Based on this information, what is the 95 percentprobability range of returns for any one given year?A) ?2.4 to 17.5 percentB) ?2.60 to 11.80 percentC) ?12.5 to 26.7 percentD) ?10.4 to 12.3 percentE) ?10.9 to 25.1 percent78) Aimee is the owner of a stock with annual returns of 17.6 percent, ?11.7 percent, 5.6 percent, and 9.7 percent for the past four years. She thinks the stock may achieve a returnof 17 percent again this coming year. What is the probability that your friend is correct?A) Less than .5 percentB) Greater than .5 percent but less than 1 percentC) Greater than 1 percent but less than 2.5 percentD) Greater than 2.5 percent but less than 16 percentE) Greater than 16 percent79) A stock had returns of 3 percent, 12 percent, 26 percent, ?14 percent, and ?1 percent for the past five years. Based on these returns, what is the approximate probability that this stock will return at least 20 percent in any one given year?A) Approximately .1 percentB) Approximately 5 percentC) Approximately 2.5 percentD) Approximately .5 percentE) Approximately 16 percent80) A stock had returns of 14 percent, 13 percent, ?10 percent, and 7 percent for thepast four years. Which one of the following best describes the probability that this stockwill lose no more than 10 percent in any one year?A) Greater than .5 but less than 1.0 percentB) Greater than 1 percent but less than 2.5 percentC) Greater than 2.5 percent but less than 16 percentD) Greater than 84 percent but less than 97.5 percentE) Greater than 95 percent81) Over the past five years, a stock produced returns of 11 percent, 14 percent, 4percent, ?9 percent, and 5 percent. What is the probability that an investor in this stock。

公司理财(罗斯)第2章(英文)

公司理财(罗斯)第2章(英文)
McGraw-Hill/Irwin Corporate Finance, 7/e 2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
2-2
Sources of Information
Annual reports Wall Street Journal Internet
2.1 The Balance Sheet 2.2 The Income Statement 2.3 Net Working Capital 2.4 Financial Cash Flow 2.5 The Statement of Cash Flows 2.6 Financial Statement Analysis 2.7 Summary and Conclusions
McGraw-Hill/Irwin Corporate Finance, 7/e 2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
2-6
Debt versus Equity
Generally, when a firm borrows it gives the bondholders first claim on the firm’s cash flow. Thus shareholder’s equity is the residual difference between assets and liabilities.
Total assets
McGraw-Hill/Irwin Corporate Finance, 7/e
$1,879
$1,742
2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
  1. 1、下载文档前请自行甄别文档内容的完整性,平台不提供额外的编辑、内容补充、找答案等附加服务。
  2. 2、"仅部分预览"的文档,不可在线预览部分如存在完整性等问题,可反馈申请退款(可完整预览的文档不适用该条件!)。
  3. 3、如文档侵犯您的权益,请联系客服反馈,我们会尽快为您处理(人工客服工作时间:9:00-18:30)。

公司理财习题答案第十二章Chapter 12: Risk, Return, and Capital Budgeting12.1 Cost of equity R S = 5 + 0.95 (9) = 13.55% NPV of the project= -$1.2 million + $340,.0001135515tt =∑= -$20,016.52Do not undertake the project. 12.2 a. R D= (-0.05 + 0.05 + 0.08 + 0.15 + 0.10) / 5 = 0.066 R M = (-0.12 + 0.01 + 0.06 + 0.10 + 0.05) / 5 = 0.02b.DR- D R M R -R M(M R -M R )2 (D R -R D )(M R -R M )-0.116 -0.14 0.0196 0.01624 -0.016 -0.01 0.0001 0.00016 0.014 0.04 0.0016 0.00056 0.084 0.08 0.0064 0.00672 0.034 0.03 0.0009 0.001020.02860.02470Beta of Douglas = 0.02470 / 0.0286 = 0.86412.3 R S = 6% + 1.15 ⨯ 10% = 17.5% R B = 6% + 0.3 ⨯ 10% = 9% a. Cost of equity = R S = 17.5% b. B / S = 0.25 B / (B + S) = 0.2 S / (B + S) = 0.8WACC = 0.8 ⨯ 17.5% + 0.2 ⨯ 9% (1 - 0.35)= 15.17%12.4 C σ = ()2104225.0 = 0.065M σ = ()2101467.0 = 0.0383Beta of ceramics craftsman = CM ρC σ M σ / M σ2 = CM ρC σ/ M σ = (0.675) (0.065) / 0.0383 = 1.146 12.5a. To compute the beta of Mercantile Manufacturing’s stock, you need the product of the deviations of Mercantile’s returns from their mean and the deviations of the market’s returns from their mean. You also need the squares of the deviations ofthe market’s returns from their mean.The mechanics of computing the means and the deviations were presented in an earlier chapter.R T = 0.196 / 12 = 0.016333 R M = 0.236 / 12 = 0.019667 E(T R -R T ) (M R -R M ) = 0.038711 E(M R -R M )2 = 0.038588 β = 0.038711 / 0.038588= 1.0032b.The beta of the average stock is 1. Mercantile’s beta is close to 1, indicating that its stock has average risk.12.6 a.R M can have three values, 0.16, 0.18 or 0.20. The probability that M R takes one of these values is the sum of the joint probabilities of the return pair that include theparticular value of M R . For example, if M R is 0.16, R J will be 0.16, 0.18 or 0.22. The probability that M R is 0.16 and R J is 0.16 is 0.10. The probability that R M is 0.16 and R J is 0.18 is 0.06. The probability that M R is 0.16 and R J is 0.22 is 0.04. The probability that M R is 0.16 is, therefore, 0.10 + 0.06 + 0.04 = 0.20. The same procedure is used to calculate the probability that M R is 0.18 and the probability that M R is 0.20. Remember, the sum of the probability must be one.M RProbability 0.16 0.20 0.18 0.60 0.20 0.20 b. i.RM= 0.16 (0.20) + 0.18 (0.60) + 0.20 (0.20) = 0.18ii. 2M σ = (0.16 - 0.18) 2 (0.20) + (0.18 - 0.18) 2 (0.60) + (0.20 - 0.18) 2 (0.20)= 0.00016iii. M σ = ()2100016.0 = 0.01265c. R J Probability .18 .20 .20 .40 .22 .20 .24.10d. i. E j = .16 (.10) + .18 (.20) + .20 (.40) + .22 (.20) + .24(.10) = .20 ii. σj 2 = (.16 - .20)2 (.10) + (.18 - .20)2 (.20) + (.20 - .20)2 (.40)+ (.22 - .20)2 (.20) + (.24 - .20)2 (.10) = .00048公司理财习题答案第十二章iii. σj = ()21.0 = .0219100048e. Cov mj= (.16 - .18) (.16 - .20) (.10) + (.16 - .18) (.18 - .20) (.06)+ (.16 - .18) (.22 - .20) (.04) + (.20 - .18) (.18 - .20) (.02)+ (.20 - .18) (.22 - .20) (.04) + (.20 - .18) (.24 - .20) (.10)= .000176Corr mj = (0.000176) / (0.01265) (0.02191) = 0.635f. βj = (.635) (.02191) / (.01265) = 1.1012.7 i. The risk of the new project is the same as the risk of the firm without the project.ii. The firm is financed entirely with equity.12.8 a. Pacific Cosmetics should use its stock beta in the evaluation of the project only ifthe risk of the perfume project is the same as the risk of Pacific Cosmetics.b. If the risk of the project is the same as the risk of the firm, use the firm’s stock beta.If the risk differs, then use the beta of an all-equity firm with similar risk as theperfume project. A good way to estimate the beta of the project would be toaverage the betas of many perfume producing firms.12.9 E(R S) = 0.1 ⨯ 3 + 0.3 ⨯ 8 + 0.4 ⨯ 20 + 0.2 ⨯ 15 = 13.7%E(R B) = 0.1 ⨯ 8 + 0.3 ⨯ 8 + 0.4 ⨯ 10 + 0.2 ⨯ 10 = 9.2%E(R M) = 0.1 ⨯ 5 + 0.3 ⨯ 10 + 0.4 ⨯ 15 + 0.2 ⨯ 20 = 13.5%State {R S - E(R S)}{R M - E(R M)}Pr {R B - E(R B)}{R M - E(R M)}Pr1 (0.03-0.137)(0.05-0.135)⨯0.1 (0.08-0.092)(0.05-0.135)⨯0.12 (0.08-0.137)(0.10-0.135)⨯0.3 (0.08-0.092)(0.10-0.135)⨯0.33 (0.20-0.137)(0.15-0.135)⨯0.4 (0.10-0.092)(0.15-0.135)⨯0.44 (0.15-0.137)(0.20-0.135)⨯0.2 (0.10-0.092)(0.20-0.135)⨯0.2Sum 0.002056 0.00038= Cov(R S, R M) = Cov(R B, R M)σM 2= 0.1 (0.05 - 0.135)2 + 0.3 (0.10-0.135)2+ 0.4 (0.15-0.135)2 + 0.2 (0.20-0.135)2= 0.002025a. Beta of debt = Cov(R B, R M) / σM2 = 0.00038 / 0.002025= 0.188b. Beta of stock = Cov(R S, R M) / σM2 = 0.002055 / 0.002025= 1.015c. B / S = 0.5Thus, B / (S + B) = 1 / 3 = 0.3333S / (S + B) = 2 / 3 = 0.6667Beta of asset = 0.188 ⨯ 0.3333 + 1.015 ⨯ 0.6667= 0.73912.10 The discount rate for the project should be lower than the rate implied by the use ofthe Security Market Line. The appropriate discount rate for such projects is theweighted average of the interest rate on debt and the cost of equity. Since theinterest rate on the debt of a given firm is generally less than the firm’s cost ofequity, using only the stock’s beta yields a discount rate that is too high. Theconcept and practical uses of a weighted average discount rate will be in a laterchapter.12.11i. RevenuesThe gross income of the firm is an important factor in determining beta. Firmswhose revenues are cyclical (fluctuate with the business cycle) generally have highbetas. Firms whose revenues are not cyclical tend to have lower betas.ii. Operating leverageOperating leverage is the percentage change in earnings before interest and taxes(EBIT) for a percentage change in sales, [(Change in EBIT / EBIT) (Sales / Changein sales)]. Operating leverage indicates the ability of the firm to service its debt andpay stockholders.iii. Financial leverageFinancial leverage arises from the use of debt. Financial leverage indicates theability of the firm to pay stockholders. Since debt holders must be paid beforestockholders, the higher the financial leverage of the firm, the riskier its stock.The beta of common stock is a function of all three of these factors. Ultimately, theriskiness of the stock, of which beta captures a portion, is determined by thefluctuations in the income available to the stockholders. (As was discussed in thechapter, whether income is paid to the stockholders in the form of dividends or it isretained to finance projects are irrelevant as long as the projects are of similar riskas the firm.) The income available to common stock, the net income of the firm,depends initially on the revenues or sales of the firm. The operating leverageindicates how much of each dollar of revenue will become EBIT. Financialleverage indicates how much of each dollar of EBIT will become net income.12.12 a. Cost of equity for National Napkin= 7 + 1.29 (13 - 7)= 14.74%b. B / (S + B) = S / (S + B) = 0.5WACC = 0.5 ⨯ 7 ⨯ 0.65 + 0.5 ⨯ 14.74= 9.645%12.13 B = $60 million ⨯ 1.2 = $72 millionS = $20 ⨯ 5 million = $100 millionB / (S + B) = 72 / 172 = 0.4186S / (S + B) = 100 / 172 = 0.5814WACC = 0.4186 ⨯ 12% ⨯ 0.75 + 0.5814 ⨯ 18%= 14.23%12.14 S = $25 ⨯ 20 million = $500 millionB = 0.95 ⨯ $180 million = $171 million公司理财习题答案第十二章B / (S + B) = 0.2548 S / (S + B) = 0.7452 WACC = 0.7452 ⨯ 20% + 0.2548 ⨯ 10%⨯ 0.60 = 16.43%12.15 B / S = 0.75 B / (S + B) = 3 / 7 S / (S + B) = 4 / 7 WACC = (4 / 7) ⨯ 15% + (3 / 7) ⨯ 9%⨯ (1 - 0.35) = 11.08%NPV = -$25 million + $7(.)m illion tt 10110815+=∑= $819,299.04 Undertake the project.12.16 WACC = (0.5) x 28% + (0.5) x 10% x (1 - 0.35)= 17.25%NPV = - $1,000,000 + (1 - 0.35) $600,000 51725.0A = $240,608.50Mini Case: Allied ProductsAssumptionsPP&E Investment 42,000,000 Useful life of PP&E Investment (years) 7NEW GPWS price/unit (Year 1) 70,000 NEW GPWS variable cost/unit (Year 1) 50,000 UPGRADE GPWS price/unit (Year 1) 35,000 UPGRADE GPWS variable cost/unit (Year 1) 22,000Year 1 marketing and admin costs 3,000,000 Annual inflation rate 3.00% Corporate Tax rate 40.00%Beta (9/27 Valueline) 1.20 Rf (30 year U.S. Treasury Bond) 6.20%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Strong Growth) 15.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Moderate Growth) 10.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Mild Recession) 6.00%NEW GPWS Market Growth (Severe Recession state of economy) 3.00%Total Annual Market for UPGRADE GPWS (units) 2,500Allied Signal Market Share in each market 45.00%公司理财习题答案第十二章Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 SalesNEWUnits 97 107 118 130 144 Price 70,000 72,100 74,263 76,491 78,786 Total NEW 6,772,500 7,688,654 8,736,317 9,935,345 11,308,721 UPGRADEUnits 1,125 1,125 1,125 1,125 1,125 Price 35,000 36,050 37,132 38,245 39,393 Total UPGRADE 39,375,000 40,556,250 41,772,938 43,026,126 44,316,909 Total Sales 46,147,500 48,244,904 50,509,254 52,961,470 55,625,630 Variable CostsNEW 4,837,500 5,491,896 6,240,226 7,096,675 8,077,658 UPGRADE 24,750,000 25,492,500 26,257,275 27,044,993 27,856,343 Total Variable Costs 29,587,500 30,984,396 32,497,501 34,141,668 35,934,001SG&A 3,000,000 3,090,000 3,182,700 3,278,181 3,376,526 Depreciation 6,001,800 10,285,800 7,345,800 5,245,800 3,750,600EBIT 7,558,200 3,884,708 7,483,253 10,295,821 12,564,503 Interest 0 0 0 0 0 Tax 3,023,280 1,553,883 2,993,301 4,118,329 5,025,801 Net Income 4,534,920 2,330,825 4,489,952 6,177,493 7,538,702EBIT + Dep - Taxes 10,536,720 12,616,625 11,835,752 11,423,293 11,289,302 Less: Change in NWC 2,000,000 307,375 104,870 113,218 122,611 (2,648,074) Less: Captial Spending 42,000,000 (10,948,080) CF from Assets: (44,000,000) 10,229,345 12,511,755 11,722,534 11,300,682 24,885,455 Discounted CF from Assets 9,304,480 10,351,583 8,821,741 7,735,381 15,494,120Total Discounted CF from Assets 51,707,305Results。

相关文档
最新文档