投资学第10版课后习题答案Chap001
投资学（博迪）第10版课后习题答...
投资学（博迪）第10版课后习题答...CHAPTER 10: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORY ANDMULTIFACTOR MODELS OF RISK AND RETURN PROBLEM SETS1. The revised estimate of the expected rate of return on the stock would be the oldestimate plus the sum of the products of the unexpected change in each factor times the respective sensitivity coefficient: Revised estimate = 12% + [(1 × 2%) + (0.5 × 3%)] = 15.5%Note that the IP estimate is computed as: 1 × (5% - 3%), and the IR estimate iscomputed as: 0.5 × (8% - 5%).2. The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty, i.e., sources ofuncertainty that are of concern to many investors. Researchers should investigatefactors that correlate with uncertainty in consumption and investment opportunities.GDP, the inflation rate, and interest rates are among the factors that can be expected to determine risk premiums. In particular, industrial production (IP) is a goodindicator of changes in the business cycle. Thus, IP is a candidate for a factor that is highly correlated with uncertainties that have to do with investment andconsumption opportunities in the economy.3. Any pattern of returns can be explained if we are free to choose an indefinitelylarge number of explanatory factors. If a theory of asset pricing is to have value, itmust explain returns using a reasonably limited number of explanatory variables(i.e., systematic factors such as unemployment levels, GDP, and oil prices).4. Equation 10.11 applies here:E(r p) = r f + βP1 [E(r1 ) ?r f ] + βP2 [E(r2 ) – r f]We need to find the risk premium (RP) for each of the two factors:RP1 = [E(r1 ) ?r f] and RP2 = [E(r2 ) ?r f]In order to do so, we solve the following system of two equations with two unknowns: .31 = .06 + (1.5 ×RP1 ) + (2.0 ×RP2 ).27 = .06 + (2.2 ×RP1 ) + [(–0.2) ×RP2 ]The solution to this set of equations isRP1 = 10% and RP2 = 5%Thus, the expected return-beta relationship isE(r P) = 6% + (βP1× 10%) + (βP2× 5%)5. The expected return for portfolio F equals the risk-free rate since its beta equals 0.For portfolio A, the ratio of risk premium to beta is (12 ?6)/1.2 = 5For portfolio E, the ratio is lower at (8 – 6)/0.6 = 3.33This implies that an arbitrage opportunity exists. For instance, you can create aportfolio G with beta equal to 0.6 (the same as E’s) by combining portfolio A and portfolio F in equal weights. The expected return and beta for portfolio G are then: E(r G) = (0.5 × 12%) + (0.5 × 6%) = 9%βG = (0.5 × 1.2) + (0.5 × 0%) = 0.6Comparing portfolio G to portfolio E, G has the same betaand higher return.Therefore, an arbitrage opportunity exists by buying portfolio G and selling anequal amount of portfolio E. The profit for this arbitrage will ber G –r E =[9% + (0.6 ×F)] ?[8% + (0.6 ×F)] = 1%That is, 1% of the funds (long or short) in each portfolio.6. Substituting the portfolio returns and betas in the expected return-beta relationship,we obtain two equations with two unknowns, the risk-free rate (r f) and the factor risk premium (RP):12% = r f + (1.2 ×RP)9% = r f + (0.8 ×RP)Solving these equations, we obtainr f = 3% and RP = 7.5%7. a. Shorting an equally weighted portfolio of the ten negative-alpha stocks andinvesting the proceeds in an equally-weighted portfolio of the 10 positive-alpha stocks eliminates the market exposure and creates a zero-investmentportfolio. Denoting the systematic market factor as R M, the expected dollarreturn is (noting that the expectation of nonsystematic risk, e, is zero):$1,000,000 × [0.02 + (1.0 ×R M)] ? $1,000,000 × [(–0.02) + (1.0 ×R M)]= $1,000,000 × 0.04 = $40,000The sensitivity of the payoff of this portfolio to the market factor is zerobecause the exposures of the positive alpha and negative alpha stocks cancelout. (Notice that the terms involving R M sum to zero.) Thus, the systematiccomponent of total risk is also zero. The variance of the analyst’s profit is notzero, however, since this portfolio is not well diversified.For n = 20 stocks (i.e., long 10 stocks and short 10 stocks) the investor willhave a $100,000 position (either long or short) in each stock. Net marketexposure is zero, but firm-specific risk has not been fully diversified. Thevariance of dollar returns from the positions in the 20 stocks is20 × [(100,000 × 0.30)2] = 18,000,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $134,164.b. If n = 50 stocks (25 stocks long and 25 stocks short), the investor will have a$40,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is50 × [(40,000 × 0.30)2] = 7,200,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $84,853.Similarly, if n = 100 stocks (50 stocks long and 50 stocks short), the investorwill have a $20,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is100 × [(20,000 × 0.30)2] = 3,600,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $60,000.Notice that, when the number of stocks increases by a factorof 5 (i.e., from 20 to 100), standard deviation decreases by a factor of 5= 2.23607 (from$134,164 to $60,000).8. a. )(σσβσ2222e M +=88125)208.0(σ2222=+×=A50010)200.1(σ2222=+×=B97620)202.1(σ2222=+×=Cb. If there are an infinite number of assets with identical characteristics, then awell-diversified portfolio of each type will have only systematic risk since thenonsystematic risk will approach zero with large n. Each variance is simply β2 × market variance:222Well-diversified σ256Well-diversified σ400Well-diversified σ576A B C;;;The mean will equal that of the individual (identical) stocks.c. There is no arbitrage opportunity because the well-diversified portfolios allplot on the security market line (SML). Because they are fairly priced, there isno arbitrage.9. a. A long position in a portfolio (P) composed of portfoliosA andB will offer anexpected return-beta trade-off lying on a straight linebetween points A and B.Therefore, we can choose weights such that βP = βC but with expected returnhigher than that of portfolio C. Hence, combining P with a short position in Cwill create an arbitrage portfolio with zero investment, zero beta, and positiverate of return.b. The argument in part (a) leads to the proposition that the coefficient of β2must be zero in order to preclude arbitrage opportunities.10. a. E(r) = 6% + (1.2 × 6%) + (0.5 × 8%) + (0.3 × 3%) = 18.1%b.Surprises in the macroeconomic factors will result in surprises in the return ofthe stock:Unexpected return from macro factors =[1.2 × (4% –5%)] + [0.5 × (6% –3%)] + [0.3 × (0% – 2%)] = –0.3%E(r) =18.1% ? 0.3% = 17.8%11. The APT required (i.e., equilibrium) rate of return on the stock based on r f and thefactor betas isRequired E(r) = 6% + (1 × 6%) + (0.5 × 2%) + (0.75 × 4%) = 16% According to the equation for the return on the stock, the actually expected return on the stock is 15% (because the expected surprises on all factors are zero bydefinition). Because the actually expected return based on risk is less than theequilibrium return, we conclude that the stock is overpriced.12. The first two factors seem promising with respect to thelikely impact on the firm’scost of capital. Both are macro factors that would elicit hedging demands acrossbroad sectors of investors. The third factor, while important to Pork Products, is a poor choice for a multifactor SML because the price of hogs is of minor importance to most investors and is therefore highly unlikely to be a priced risk factor. Better choices would focus on variables that investors in aggregate might find moreimportant to their welfare. Examples include: inflation uncertainty, short-terminterest-rate risk, energy price risk, or exchange rate risk. The important point here is that, in specifying a multifactor SML, we not confuse risk factors that are important toa particular investor with factors that are important to investors in general; only the latter are likely to command a risk premium in the capital markets.13. The formula is ()0.04 1.250.08 1.50.02.1717%E r =+×+×==14. If 4%f r = and based on the sensitivities to real GDP (0.75) and inflation (1.25),McCracken would calculate the expected return for the Orb Large Cap Fund to be:()0.040.750.08 1.250.02.040.0858.5% above the risk free rate E r =+×+×=+=Therefore, Kwon’s fundamental analysis estimate is congruent with McCr acken’sAPT estimate. If we assume that both Kwon and McCracken’s estimates on the return of Orb’s Large Cap Fund are accurate, then no arbitrage profit is possible.15. In order to eliminate inflation, the following three equations must be solvedsimultaneously, where the GDP sensitivity will equal 1 in the first equation,inflation sensitivity will equal 0 in the second equation and the sum of the weights must equal 1 in the third equation.1.1.250.75 1.012.1.5 1.25 2.003.1wx wy wz wz wy wz wx wy wz ++=++=++=Here, x represents Orb’s High Growth Fund, y represents Large Cap Fund and z represents Utility Fund. Using algebraic manipulation will yield wx = wy = 1.6 and wz = -2.2.16. Since retirees living off a steady income would be hurt by inflation, this portfoliowould not be appropriate for them. Retirees would want a portfolio with a return positively correlated with inflation to preserve value, and less correlated with the variable growth of GDP. Thus, Stiles is wrong. McCracken is correct in that supply side macroeconomic policies are generally designed to increase output at aminimum of inflationary pressure. Increased output would mean higher GDP, which in turn would increase returns of a fund positively correlated with GDP.17. The maximum residual variance is tied to the number of securities (n ) in theportfolio because, as we increase the number of securities, we are more likely to encounter securities with larger residual variances. The starting point is todetermine the practical limit on the portfolio residualstandard deviation, σ(e P ), that still qualifies as a well-diversified portfolio. A reasonable approach is to compareσ2(e P) to the market variance, or equivalently, to compare σ(e P) to the market standard deviation. Suppose we do n ot allow σ(e P) to exceed pσM, where p is a small decimal fraction, for example, 0.05; then, the smaller the value we choose for p, the more stringent our criterion for defining how diversified a well-diversified portfolio must be.Now construct a portfolio of n securities with weights w1, w2,…,w n, so that Σw i =1. The portfolio residual variance is σ2(e P) = Σw12σ2(e i)To meet our practical definition of sufficiently diversified, we require this residual variance to be less than (pσM)2. A sure and simple way to proceed is to assume the worst, that is, assume that the residual variance of each security is the highest possible value allowed under the assumptions of the problem: σ2(e i) = nσ2MIn that case σ2(e P) = Σw i2 nσM2Now apply the constraint: Σw i2nσM2 ≤ (pσM)2This requires that: nΣw i2 ≤ p2Or, equivalently, that: Σw i2 ≤ p2/nA relatively easy way to generate a set of well-diversified portfolios is to use portfolio weights that follow a geometric progression, since the computations then become relatively straightforward. Choose w1 and a common factor q for the geometric progression such that q < 1. Therefore, the weight on each stock is a fraction q of the weight on the previous stock in the series. Then the sum of n terms is:Σw i= w1(1– q n)/(1– q) = 1or: w1 = (1– q)/(1– q n)The sum of the n squared weights is similarly obtained from w12 and a common geometric progression factor of q2. ThereforeΣw i2 = w12(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)Substituting for w1 from above, we obtainΣw i2 = [(1– q)2/(1– q n)2] × [(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)]For sufficient diversification, we choose q so that Σw i2 ≤ p2/nFor example, continue to assume that p = 0.05 and n = 1,000. If we chooseq = 0.9973, then we will satisfy the required condition. At this value for q w1 = 0.0029 and w n = 0.0029 × 0.99731,000 In this case, w1 is about 15 times w n. Despite this significant departure from equal weighting, this portfolio is nevertheless well diversified. Any value of q between0.9973 and 1.0 results in a well-diversified portfolio. As q gets closer to 1, theportfolio approaches equal weighting.18. a. Assume a single-factor economy, with a factor risk premium E M and a (large)set of well-diversified portfolios with beta βP. Suppose we create a portfolio Zby allocating the portion w to portfolio P and (1 – w) to the market portfolioM. The rate of return on portfolio Z is:R Z = (w × R P) + [(1 –w) × R M]Portfolio Z is riskless if we choose w so that βZ = 0. This requires that:βZ = (w × βP) + [(1 –w) × 1] = 0 ?w = 1/(1 –βP) and (1 – w) = –βP/(1 –βP)Substitute this value for w in the expression for R Z:R Z = {[1/(1 –βP)] × R P} –{[βP/(1 –βP)] × R M}Since βZ = 0, then, in order to avoid arbitrage, R Z must be zero.This implies that: R P = βP × R MTaking expectations we have:E P = βP × E MThis is the SML for well-diversified portfolios.b. The same argument can be used to show that, in a three-factor model withfactor risk premiums E M, E1 and E2, in order to avoid arbitrage, we must have:E P = (βPM × E M) + (βP1 × E1) + (βP2 × E2)This is the SML for a three-factor economy.19. a. The Fama-French (FF) three-factor model holds that one of the factors drivingreturns is firm size. An index with returns highly correlated with firm size (i.e.,firm capitalization) that captures this factor is SMB (small minus big), thereturn for a portfolio of small stocks in excess of the return for a portfolio oflarge stocks. The returns for a small firm will be positively correlated withSMB. Moreover, the smaller the firm, the greater its residual from the othertwo factors, the market portfolio and the HML portfolio, which is the returnfor a portfolio of high book-to-market stocks in excess of the return for aportfolio of low book-to-market stocks. Hence, the ratio of the variance of thisresidual to the variance of the return on SMB will be larger and, together withthe higher correlation, results in a high beta on the SMB factor.b.This question appears to point to a flaw in the FF model. The model predictsthat firm size affects average returns so that, if two firms merge into a largerfirm, then the FF model predicts lower average returns for the merged firm.However, there seems to be no reason for the merged firm to underperformthe returns of the component companies, assuming that the component firmswere unrelated and that they will now be operated independently. We mighttherefore expect that the performance of the merged firm would be the sameas the performance of a portfolio of the originally independent firms, but theFF model predicts that the increased firm size will result in lower averagereturns. Therefore, the question revolves around the behavior of returns for aportfolio of small firms, compared to the return for larger firms that resultfrom merging those small firms into larger ones. Had past mergers of smallfirms into larger firms resulted, on average, in no change in the resultantlarger firms’ stock return characteristics (compared to the portfolio of stocksof the merged firms), the size factor in the FF model would have failed.Perhaps the reason the size factor seems to help explain stock returns is that,when small firms become large, the characteristics of their fortunes (andhence their stock returns) change in a significant way. Put differently, stocksof large firms that result from a merger of smaller firms appear empirically tobehave differently from portfolios of the smaller component firms.Specifically, the FF model predicts that the large firm will have a smaller riskpremium. Notice that this development is not necessarily a bad thing for thestockholders of the smaller firms that merge. The lower risk premium may bedue, in part, to the increase in value of the larger firm relative to the mergedfirms.CFA PROBLEMS1. a. This statement is incorrect. The CAPM requires a mean-variance efficientmarket portfolio, but APT does not.b.This statement is incorrect. The CAPM assumes normallydistributed securityreturns, but APT does not.c. This statement is correct.2. b. Since portfolio X has β = 1.0, then X is the market portfolio and E(R M) =16%.Using E(R M ) = 16% and r f = 8%, the expected return for portfolio Y is notconsistent.3. d.4. c.5. d.6. c. Investors will take on as large a position as possible only if the mispricingopportunity is an arbitrage. Otherwise, considerations of risk anddiversification will limit the position they attempt to take in the mispricedsecurity.7. d.8. d.。
投资学第10版课后习题答案
CHAPTER 7: OPTIMAL RISKY PORTFOLIOSPROBLEM SETS1. (a) and (e). Short-term rates and labor issues are factors thatare common to all firms and therefore must be considered as market risk factors. The remaining three factors are unique to this corporation and are not a part of market risk.2. (a) and (c). After real estate is added to the portfolio, there arefour asset classes in the portfolio: stocks, bonds, cash, and real estate. Portfolio variance now includes a variance term for real estate returns and a covariance term for real estate returns with returns for each of the other three asset classes. Therefore,portfolio risk is affected by the variance (or standard deviation) of real estate returns and the correlation between real estatereturns and returns for each of the other asset classes. (Note that the correlation between real estate returns and returns for cash is most likely zero.)3. (a) Answer (a) is valid because it provides the definition of theminimum variance portfolio.4. The parameters of the opportunity set are:E (r S ) = 20%, E (r B ) = 12%, σS = 30%, σB = 15%, ρ =From the standard deviations and the correlation coefficient we generate the covariance matrix [note that (,)S B S B Cov r r ρσσ=⨯⨯]: Bonds Stocks Bonds 225 45 Stocks 45 900The minimum-variance portfolio is computed as follows:w Min (S ) =1739.0)452(22590045225)(Cov 2)(Cov 222=⨯-+-=-+-B S B S B S B ,r r ,r r σσσ w Min (B ) = 1 =The minimum variance portfolio mean and standard deviation are:E (r Min ) = × .20) + × .12) = .1339 = %σMin = 2/12222)],(Cov 2[B S B S B B S Sr r w w w w ++σσ = [ 900) + 225) + (2 45)]1/2= %5.Proportion in Stock Fund Proportionin Bond Fund ExpectedReturnStandard Deviation% % % %minimumtangencyGraph shown below.0.005.0010.0015.0020.0025.000.00 5.00 10.00 15.00 20.00 25.00 30.00Tangency PortfolioMinimum Variance PortfolioEfficient frontier of risky assetsCMLINVESTMENT OPPORTUNITY SETr f = 8.006. The above graph indicates that the optimal portfolio is thetangency portfolio with expected return approximately % andstandard deviation approximately %.7. The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio invested in the stockfund is given by:222[()][()](,)[()][()][()()](,)S f B B f S B S S f B B f SS f B f S B E r r E r r Cov r r w E r r E r r E r r E r r Cov r r σσσ-⨯--⨯=-⨯+-⨯--+-⨯[(.20.08)225][(.12.08)45]0.4516[(.20.08)225][(.12.08)900][(.20.08.12.08)45]-⨯--⨯==-⨯+-⨯--+-⨯10.45160.5484B w =-=The mean and standard deviation of the optimal risky portfolio are:E (r P ) = × .20) + × .12) = .1561 = % σp = [ 900) +225) + (2× 45)]1/2= %8. The reward-to-volatility ratio of the optimal CAL is:().1561.080.4601.1654p fpE r r σ--==9. a. If you require that your portfolio yield an expected return of14%, then you can find the corresponding standard deviation from the optimal CAL. The equation for this CAL is:()().080.4601p fC f C C PE r r E r r σσσ-=+=+If E (r C ) is equal to 14%, then the standard deviation of the portfolio is %.b. To find the proportion invested in the T-bill fund, rememberthat the mean of the complete portfolio ., 14%) is an average of the T-bill rate and the optimal combination of stocks and bonds (P ). Let y be the proportion invested in the portfolio P . The mean of any portfolio along the optimal CAL is:()(1)()[()].08(.1561.08)C f P f P f E r y r y E r r y E r r y =-⨯+⨯=+⨯-=+⨯-Setting E (r C ) = 14% we find: y = and (1 − y ) = (the proportion invested in the T-bill fund).To find the proportions invested in each of the funds, multiply times the respective proportions of stocks and bonds in the optimal risky portfolio:Proportion of stocks in complete portfolio = =Proportion of bonds in complete portfolio = =10. Using only the stock and bond funds to achieve a portfolio expectedreturn of 14%, we must find the appropriate proportion in the stock fund (w S) and the appropriate proportion in the bond fund (w B = 1 −w S) as follows:= × w S + × (1 −w S) = + × w S w S =So the proportions are 25% invested in the stock fund and 75% inthe bond fund. The standard deviation of this portfolio will be:σP = [ 900) + 225) + (2 45)]1/2 = %This is considerably greater than the standard deviation of %achieved using T-bills and the optimal portfolio.11. a.Even though it seems that gold is dominated by stocks, gold mightstill be an attractive asset to hold as a part of a portfolio. Ifthe correlation between gold and stocks is sufficiently low, goldwill be held as a component in a portfolio, specifically, theoptimal tangency portfolio.b.If the correlation between gold and stocks equals +1, then no onewould hold gold. The optimal CAL would be composed of bills andstocks only. Since the set of risk/return combinations of stocksand gold would plot as a straight line with a negative slope (seethe following graph), these combinations would be dominated bythe stock portfolio. Of course, this situation could not persist.If no one desired gold, its price would fall and its expectedrate of return would increase until it became sufficientlyattractive to include in a portfolio.12. Since Stock A and Stock B are perfectly negatively correlated, arisk-free portfolio can be created and the rate of return for thisportfolio, in equilibrium, will be the risk-free rate. To find theproportions of this portfolio [with the proportion w A invested inStock A and w B = (1 –w A) invested in Stock B], set the standarddeviation equal to zero. With perfect negative correlation, theportfolio standard deviation is:σP = Absolute value [w AσA w BσB]0 = 5 × w A− [10 (1 –w A)] w A =The expected rate of return for this risk-free portfolio is:E(r) = × 10) + × 15) = %Therefore, the risk-free rate is: %13. False. If the borrowing and lending rates are not identical, then,depending on the tastes of the individuals (that is, the shape oftheir indifference curves), borrowers and lenders could havedifferent optimal risky portfolios.14. False. The portfolio standard deviation equals the weighted averageof the component-asset standard deviations only in the special case that all assets are perfectly positively correlated. Otherwise, as the formula for portfolio standard deviation shows, the portfoliostandard deviation is less than the weighted average of thecomponent-asset standard deviations. The portfolio variance is aweighted sum of the elements in the covariance matrix, with theproducts of the portfolio proportions as weights.15. The probability distribution is:Probability Rate ofReturn100%−50Mean = [ × 100%] + [ × (-50%)] = 55%Variance = [ × (100 − 55)2] + [ × (-50 − 55)2] = 4725Standard deviation = 47251/2 = %16. σP = 30 = y× σ = 40 × y y =E(r P) = 12 + (30 − 12) = %17. The correct choice is (c). Intuitively, we note that since allstocks have the same expected rate of return and standard deviation, we choose the stock that will result in lowest risk. This is thestock that has the lowest correlation with Stock A.More formally, we note that when all stocks have the same expected rate of return, the optimal portfolio for any risk-averse investor is the global minimum variance portfolio (G). When the portfolio is restricted to Stock A and one additional stock, the objective is to find G for any pair that includes Stock A, and then select thecombination with the lowest variance. With two stocks, I and J, theformula for the weights in G is:)(1)(),(Cov 2),(Cov )(222I w J w r r r r I w Min Min J I J I J I J Min -=-+-=σσσSince all standard deviations are equal to 20%:(,)400and ()()0.5I J I J Min Min Cov r r w I w J ρσσρ====This intuitive result is an implication of a property of any efficient frontier, namely, that the covariances of the global minimum variance portfolio with all other assets on the frontier are identical and equal to its own variance. (Otherwise, additional diversification would further reduce the variance.) In this case, the standard deviation of G(I, J) reduces to:1/2()[200(1)]Min IJ G σρ=⨯+This leads to the intuitive result that the desired addition would be the stock with the lowest correlation with Stock A, which is Stock D. The optimal portfolio is equally invested in Stock A and Stock D, and the standard deviation is %.18. No, the answer to Problem 17 would not change, at least as long asinvestors are not risk lovers. Risk neutral investors would not care which portfolio they held since all portfolios have an expected return of 8%.19. Yes, the answers to Problems 17 and 18 would change. The efficientfrontier of risky assets is horizontal at 8%, so the optimal CAL runs from the risk-free rate through G. This implies risk-averse investors will just hold Treasury bills.20. Rearrange the table (converting rows to columns) and compute serialcorrelation results in the following table:Nominal RatesFor example: to compute serial correlation in decade nominalreturns for large-company stocks, we set up the following twocolumns in an Excel spreadsheet. Then, use the Excel function“CORREL” to calculate the correlation for the data.Decade Previous1930s%%1940s%%1950s%%1960s%%1970s%%1980s%%1990s%%Note that each correlation is based on only seven observations, so we cannot arrive at any statistically significant conclusions.Looking at the results, however, it appears that, with theexception of large-company stocks, there is persistent serialcorrelation. (This conclusion changes when we turn to real rates in the next problem.)21. The table for real rates (using the approximation of subtracting adecade’s average inflation from the decade’s average nominalreturn) is:Real RatesSmall Company StocksLarge Company StocksLong-TermGovernmentBondsIntermed-TermGovernmentBondsTreasuryBills 1920s1930s1940s1950s1960s1970s1980s1990sSerialCorrelationWhile the serial correlation in decade nominal returns seems to be positive, it appears that real rates are serially uncorrelated. The decade time series (although again too short for any definitiveconclusions) suggest that real rates of return are independent from decade to decade.22. The 3-year risk premium for the S&P portfolio is, the 3-year risk premium for thehedge fund portfolio is S&P 3-year standard deviation is 0. The hedge fund 3-year standard deviation is 0. S&P Sharpe ratio is = , and the hedge fund Sharpe ratio is = .23. With a ρ = 0, the optimal asset allocation is,.With these weights,EThe resulting Sharpe ratio is = . Greta has a risk aversion of A=3, Therefore, she will investyof her wealth in this risky portfolio. The resulting investment composition will be S&P: = % and Hedge: = %. The remaining 26% will be invested in the risk-free asset.24. With ρ = , the annual covariance is .25. S&P 3-year standard deviation is . The hedge fund 3-year standard deviation is . Therefore, the 3-year covariance is 0.26. With a ρ=.3, the optimal asset allocation is, .With these weights,E. The resulting Sharpe ratio is = . Notice that the higher covariance results in a poorer Sharpe ratio.Greta will investyof her wealth in this risky portfolio. The resulting investment composition will be S&P: =% and hedge: = %. The remaining % will be invested in the risk-free asset.CFA PROBLEMS1. a. Restricting the portfolio to 20 stocks, rather than 40 to 50stocks, will increase the risk of the portfolio, but it ispossible that the increase in risk will be minimal. Suppose that, for instance, the 50 stocks in a universe have the same standard deviation () and the correlations between each pair areidentical, with correlation coefficient ρ. Then, the covariance between each pair of stocks would be ρσ2, and the variance of an equally weighted portfolio would be:222ρσ1σ1σnn n P -+=The effect of the reduction in n on the second term on theright-hand side would be relatively small (since 49/50 is close to 19/20 and ρσ2 is smaller than σ2), but thedenominator of the first term would be 20 instead of 50. For example, if σ = 45% and ρ = , then the standard deviation with 50 stocks would be %, and would rise to % when only 20 stocks are held. Such an increase might be acceptable if the expected return is increased sufficiently.b. Hennessy could contain the increase in risk by making sure thathe maintains reasonable diversification among the 20 stocks that remain in his portfolio. This entails maintaining a low correlation among the remaining stocks. For example, in part (a), with ρ = , the increase in portfolio risk was minimal. As a practical matter, this means that Hennessy would have to spread his portfolio among many industries; concentrating on just a few industries would result in higher correlations among the included stocks.2. Risk reduction benefits from diversification are not a linearfunction of the number of issues in the portfolio. Rather, the incremental benefits from additional diversification are mostimportant when you are least diversified. Restricting Hennessy to 10 instead of 20 issues would increase the risk of his portfolio by a greater amount than would a reduction in the size of theportfolio from 30 to 20 stocks. In our example, restricting the number of stocks to 10 will increase the standard deviation to %. The % increase in standard deviation resulting from giving up 10 of20 stocks is greater than the % increase that results from givingup 30 of 50 stocks.3. The point is well taken because the committee should be concernedwith the volatility of the entire portfolio. Since Hennessy’sportfolio is only one of six well-diversified portfolios and issmaller than the average, the concentration in fewer issues mighthave a minimal effect on the diversification of the total fund.Hence, unleashing Hennessy to do stock picking may be advantageous.4. d. Portfolio Y cannot be efficient because it is dominated byanother portfolio. For example, Portfolio X has both higherexpected return and lower standard deviation.5. c.6. d.7. b.8. a.9. c.10. Since we do not have any information about expected returns, wefocus exclusively on reducing variability. Stocks A and C have equal standard deviations, but the correlation of Stock B with Stock C is less than that of Stock A with Stock B . Therefore, a portfoliocomposed of Stocks B and C will have lower total risk than aportfolio composed of Stocks A and B.11. Fund D represents the single best addition to complementStephenson's current portfolio, given his selection criteria. Fund D’s expected return percent) has the potential to increase theportfolio’s return somewhat. Fund D’s relatively low correlation with his current portfolio (+ indicates that Fund D will providegreater diversification benefits than any of the other alternativesexcept Fund B. The result of adding Fund D should be a portfolio with approximately the same expected return and somewhat lower volatility compared to the original portfolio.The other three funds have shortcomings in terms of expected return enhancement or volatility reduction through diversification. Fund A offers the potential for increasing the portfolio’s return but is too highly correlated to provide substantial volatility reduction benefits through diversification. Fund B provides substantial volatility reduction through diversification benefits but is expected to generate a return well below the current portfolio’s return. Fund C has the greatest potential to increase the portfolio’s return but is too highly correlated with the current portfolio to provide substantial volatility reduction benefits through diversification.12. a. Subscript OP refers to the original portfolio, ABC to thenew stock, and NP to the new portfolio.i. E(r NP) = w OP E(r OP) + w ABC E(r ABC) = + = %ii. Cov = ρOP ABC = =iii. NP = [w OP2OP2 + w ABC2ABC2 + 2 w OP w ABC(Cov OP , ABC)]1/2= [ 2 + + (2 ]1/2= % %b. Subscript OP refers to the original portfolio, GS to governmentsecurities, and NP to the new portfolio.i. E(r NP) = w OP E(r OP) + w GS E(r GS) = + = %ii. Cov = ρOP GS = 0 0 = 0iii. NP = [w OP2OP2 + w GS2GS2 + 2 w OP w GS (Cov OP , GS)]1/2= [ + 0) + (2 0)]1/2= % %c. Adding the risk-free government securities would result in alower beta for the new portfolio. The new portfolio beta will bea weighted average of the individual security betas in theportfolio; the presence of the risk-free securities would lowerthat weighted average.d. The comment is not correct. Although the respective standarddeviations and expected returns for the two securities underconsideration are equal, the covariances between each security andthe original portfolio are unknown, making it impossible to drawthe conclusion stated. For instance, if the covariances aredifferent, selecting one security over the other may result in alower standard deviation for the portfolio as a whole. In such acase, that security would be the preferred investment, assumingall other factors are equal.e. i. Grace clearly expressed the sentiment that the risk of losswas more important to her than the opportunity for return. Usingvariance (or standard deviation) as a measure of risk in her casehas a serious limitation because standard deviation does notdistinguish between positive and negative price movements.ii. Two alternative risk measures that could be used instead ofvariance are:Range of returns, which considers the highest and lowestexpected returns in the future period, with a larger rangebeing a sign of greater variability and therefore of greaterrisk.Semivariance can be used to measure expected deviations ofreturns below the mean, or some other benchmark, such as zero.Either of these measures would potentially be superior tovariance for Grace. Range of returns would help to highlightthe full spectrum of risk she is assuming, especially thedownside portion of the range about which she is so concerned.Semivariance would also be effective, because it implicitlyassumes that the investor wants to minimize the likelihood ofreturns falling below some target rate; in Grace’s case, thetarget rate would be set at zero (to protect against negativereturns).13. a. Systematic risk refers to fluctuations in asset prices causedby macroeconomic factors that are common to all risky assets;hence systematic risk is often referred to as market risk.Examples of systematic risk factors include the business cycle,inflation, monetary policy, fiscal policy, and technologicalchanges.Firm-specific risk refers to fluctuations in asset pricescaused by factors that are independent of the market, such asindustry characteristics or firm characteristics. Examples offirm-specific risk factors include litigation, patents,management, operating cash flow changes, and financial leverage.b. Trudy should explain to the client that picking only the topfive best ideas would most likely result in the client holdinga much more risky portfolio. The total risk of a portfolio, orportfolio variance, is the combination of systematic risk andfirm-specific risk.The systematic component depends on the sensitivity of theindividual assets to market movements as measured by beta.Assuming the portfolio is well diversified, the number ofassets will not affect the systematic risk component ofportfolio variance. The portfolio beta depends on theindividual security betas and the portfolio weights of those securities.On the other hand, the components of firm-specific risk (sometimes called nonsystematic risk) are not perfectly positively correlated with each other and, as more assets are added to the portfolio, those additional assets tend to reduce portfolio risk. Hence, increasing the number of securities in a portfolio reduces firm-specific risk. For example, a patent expiration for one company would not affect the othersecurities in the portfolio. An increase in oil prices islikely to cause a drop in the price of an airline stock butwill likely result in an increase in the price of an energy stock. As the number of randomly selected securities increases, the total risk (variance) of the portfolio approaches its systematic variance.。
投资学第10版课后习题答案.docx
CHAPTER 4: MUTUAL FUNDS AND OTHER INVESTMENTCOMPANIESPROBLEM SETS1.The unit investment trust should have lower operating expenses.Because the investment trust portfolio is fixed once the trust isestablished, it does not have to pay portfolio managers toconstantly monitor and rebalance the portfolio as perceivedneeds or opportunities change. Because the portfolio is fixed, theunit investment trust also incurs virtually no trading costs.2. a. Unit investment trusts : Diversification from large-scale investing,lower transaction costs associated with large-scale trading, lowmanagement fees, predictable portfolio composition, guaranteed lowportfolio turnover rate.b.Open-end mutual funds : Diversification from large-scaleinvesting, lower transaction costs associated with large-scale trading, professional management that may be able totake advantage of buy or sell opportunities as they arise,record keeping.c.Individual stocks and bonds: No management fee; ability tocoordinate realization of capital gains or losses withinvestors ’ personal tax situation s; capability of designingportfolio to investor’s specific risk and return profile.3.Open-end funds are obligated to redeem investor's shares at netasset value and thus must keep cash or cash-equivalent securitieson hand in order to meet potential redemptions. Closed-end fundsdo not need the cash reserves because there are no redemptions forclosed-end funds. Investors in closed-end funds sell their shareswhen they wish to cash out.4.Balanced funds keep relatively stable proportions of funds investedin each asset class. They are meant as convenient instruments toprovide participation in a range of asset classes. Life-cycle fundsare balanced funds whose asset mix generally depends on the age of the investor. Aggressive life-cycle funds, with larger investments in equities, are marketed to younger investors, while conservative life-cycle funds, with larger investments in fixed-income securities, are designed for older investors. Asset allocation funds, in contrast, may vary the proportions invested in each asset class by large amounts as predictions of relative performance across classes vary. Asset allocation funds therefore engage in more aggressive market timing.5.Unlike an open-end fund, in which underlying shares are redeemedwhen the fund is redeemed, a closed-end fund trades as a security in the market. Thus, their prices may differ from the NAV.6.Advantages of an ETF over a mutual fund:ETFs are continuously traded and can be sold or purchasedon margin.There are no capital gains tax triggers when an ETF issold (shares are just sold from one investor to another).Investors buy from brokers, thus eliminating the cost ofdirect marketing to individual small investors. Thisimplies lower management fees.Disadvantages of an ETF over a mutual fund:Prices can depart from NAV (unlike an open-end fund).There is a broker fee when buying and selling (unlike ano-load fund).7.The offering price includes a 6% front-end load, or salescommission, meaning that every dollar paid results in only$ going toward purchase of shares. Therefore:Offering price =NAV$10.70 = $1Load 1 0.068.NAV = Offering price(1–Load) = $.95 = $9.Stock Value Held by FundA$ 7,000,000B12,000,000C8,000,000D15,000,000Total $42,000,000Net asset value =$42,000,000$30,000 = $4,000,00010.Value of stocks sold and replaced = $15,000,000Turnover rate =$15,000,000= , or % $42,000,00011. a.$200,000,000$3,000,000NAV$39.405,000,000b.Premium (or discount) =Pr ice NAV =$36$39.40 =–, or %NAV$39.40 The fund sells at an % discount from NAV.NAV 1 NAV 0 Distributions$12.10$12.50$1.50 12.$12.500.088, or 8.8%NAV 013. a. Start-of-year price:P0 = $×= $End-of-year price:P = $ × = $1Although NAV increased by $, the price of the fund decreased by$.Rate of return =P P Distributions$11.25$12.24$1.50100.042, or 4.2%P0$12.24b.An investor holding the same securities as the fund managerwould have earned a rate of return based on the increase inthe NAV of the portfolio:NAV 1 NAV 0 Distributions$12.10$12.00$1.50NAV 0$12.000.133, or 13.3%14. a. Empirical research indicates that past performance of mutualfunds is not highly predictive of future performance,especially for better-performing funds. While there maybe some tendency for the fund to be an above average performer nextyear, it is unlikely to once again be a top 10% performer.b.On the other hand, the evidence is more suggestive of atendency for poor performance to persist. This tendency isprobably related to fund costs and turnover rates. Thus ifthe fund is among the poorest performers, investors shouldbe concerned that the poor performance will persist.15.NAV0 = $200,000,000/10,000,000 = $20Dividends per share = $2,000,000/10,000,000 = $NAV is based on the 8% price gain, less the 1% 12b-1 fee: 1NAV1 = $20(1 – = $Rate of return =$21.384 $20$0.20 = , or %$2016.The excess of purchases over sales must be due to new inflowsinto the fund. Therefore, $400 million of stock previously held by thefund was replaced by new holdings. So turnover is: $400/$2,200 = ,or %.17. Fees paid to investment managers were: $ billion = $ million Since thetotal expense ratio was % and the management fee was %, weconclude that % must be for other expenses. Therefore, otheradministrative expenses were:$ billion = $ million.18.As an initial approximation, your return equals the return on the sharesminus the total of the expense ratio and purchase costs: 12%%4% = %.But the precise return is less than this because the 4% loadis paid up front, not at the end of the year.To purchase the shares, you would have had to invest:$20,000/(1 = $20,833.The shares increase in value from $20,000 to:= $20,000 $22,160.The rate of return is: ($22,160$20,833)/$20,833 = %.19.Assume $1,000 investment Loaded-Up Fund Economy Fund Yearly growth ( r is 6%)(1 r .01 .0075)(.98) (1 r .0025) t= 1 year$1,$1,t= 3 years$1,$1,t= 10 years$1,$1,20.a. $450,000,000 $10,000000 $1044,000,000b. The redemption of 1 million shares will most likely trigger capitalgains taxes which will lower the remaining portfolio by an amountgreater than $10,000,000 (implying a remaining total value lessthan $440,000,000). The outstanding shares fall to 43 million andthe NAV drops to below $10.21.Suppose you have $1,000 to invest. The initial investment inClass A shares is $940 net of the front-end load. After four years,your portfolio will be worth:$940 4 = $1,Class B shares allow you to invest the full $1,000, but yourinvestment performance net of 12b-1 fees will be only %, andyou will pay a 1% back-end load fee if you sell after four years.Your portfolio value after four years will be:$1,000 4 = $1,After paying the back-end load fee, your portfolio value will be:$1,.99 = $1,Class B shares are the better choice if your horizon is four years.With a 15-year horizon, the Class A shares will be worth:$94015 = $3,For the Class B shares, there is no back-end load in this casesince the horizon is greater than five years. Therefore, thevalue of the Class B shares will be:$1,00015 = $3,At this longer horizon, Class B shares are no longer the betterchoice. The effect of Class B's % 12b-1 fees accumulates over timeand finally overwhelms the 6% load charged to Class A investors.22. a.After two years, each dollar invested in a fund with a 4%load and a portfolio return equal to r will grow to: $ 2.(1 +r–Each dollar invested in the bank CD will grow to: $1.If the mutual fund is to be the better investment, thenthe portfolio return ( r ) must satisfy:(1 +r –2>(1 +r – 2 >(1 + r–2>1 + r – >1 + r >Therefore: r > = %b.If you invest for six years, then the portfolio returnmust satisfy:(1 + r –6 > =(1 +r–6>1 +r–>r > %The cutoff rate of return is lower for the six-year investment because the “fixed cost ” (the one -time front-end load) is spread over a greater number of years.c. With a 12b-1 fee instead of a front-end load, the portfoliomust earn a rate of return ( r ) that satisfies:1 + r – – >In this case, r must exceed % regardless of the investmenthorizon.23. The turnover rate is 50%. This means that, on average, 50% of theportfolio is sold and replaced with other securities each year.Trading costs on the sell orders are % and the buy orders toreplace those securities entail another % in trading costs. Totaltrading costs will reduce portfolio returns by: 2 % = %24. For the bond fund, the fraction of portfolio income given upto fees is:0.6% 4.0%= , or %For the equity fund, the fraction of investment earnings givenup to fees is:0. 6% = , or %12.0%Fees are a much higher fraction of expected earnings for thebond fund and therefore may be a more important factor inselecting the bond fund.This may help to explain why unmanaged unit investment trusts are concentrated in the fixed income market. The advantages of unitinvestment trusts are low turnover, low trading costs, and lowmanagement fees. This is a more important concern to bond-market investors.25. Suppose that finishing in the top half of all portfolio managersis purely luck, and that the probability of doing so in any year isexactly ? . Then the probability that any particular manager would5 = finish in the top half of the sample five years in a row is (?)1/32. We would then expect to find that [350 (1/32)] = 11managers finish in the top half for each of the five consecutiveyears. This is precisely what we found. Thus, we should not conclude that the consistent performance after five years is proof of skill. We would expect to find 11 managers exhibiting precisely this level of "consistency" even if performance is due solely to luck.。
金德环《投资学》课后习题答案共11页
答：证券是一种凭证，它表明持有人有权依凭证所记载的内容取得相应的权益并具有法律效力。按权益是否可以带来收益，证券可以分为有价证券和无价证券。有价证券可分为广义有价证券和狭义有价证券。广义有价证券分为商品证券、货币市场证券、和资本证券三种，狭义有价证券仅指资本证券。
2.证券投资主体。包括个人投资者、机构投资者、政府投资者和企业投资者。
3.证券市场中介。主要包括证券公司、证券投资咨询公司、证券交易所、证券服务机构。
证券市场的类型主要包括货币市场、债券市场、股票市场。
4、什么是货币市场？如何细分？货币市场的利率和工具有哪些？
货币市场指融通短期资金的货币工具交易市场，又称为短期资金市场，该市场交易的短期货币工具具有期限短、流动性强的特征。主要有同业拆借市场、票据贴现市场、债券回购市场、可转让大额存单市场短期国债市场。货币市场的利率主要有
第一章证券市场概述
要练说，先练胆。说话胆小是幼儿语言发展的障碍。不少幼儿当众说话时显得胆怯：有的结巴重复，面红耳赤；有的声音极低，自讲自听；有的低头不语，扯衣服，扭身子。总之，说话时外部表现不自然。我抓住练胆这个关键，面向全体，偏向差生。一是和幼儿建立和谐的语言交流关系。每当和幼儿讲话时，我总是笑脸相迎，声音亲切，动作亲昵，消除幼儿畏惧心理，让他能主动的、无拘无束地和我交谈。二是注重培养幼儿敢于当众说话的习惯。或在课堂教学中，改变过去老师讲学生听的传统的教学模式，取消了先举手后发言的约束，多采取自由讨论和谈话的形式，给每个幼儿较多的当众说话的机会，培养幼儿爱说话敢说话的兴趣，对一些说话有困难的幼儿，我总是认真地耐心地听，热情地帮助和鼓励他把话说完、说好，增强其说话的勇气和把话说好的信心。三是要提明确的说话要求，在说话训练中不断提高，我要求每个幼儿在说话时要仪态大方，口齿清楚，声音响亮，学会用眼神。对说得好的幼儿，即使是某一方面，我都抓住教育，提出表扬，并要其他幼儿模仿。长期坚持，不断训练，幼儿说话胆量也在不断提高。1、什么是投资？实体投资与金融投资、直接金融与间接金融、直接金融投资与间接金融投资的区别在哪里？
投资学10版习题答案
CHAPTER 14: BOND PRICES AND YIELDSPROBLEM SETS1. a. Catastrophe bond—A bond that allows the issuer to transfer“catastrophe risk” from the firm to the capital markets. Investors inthese bonds receive a compensation for taking on the risk in the form ofhigher coupon rates. In the event of a catastrophe, the bondholders willreceive only part or perhaps none of the principal payment due to themat maturity. Disaster can be defined by total insured losses or by criteriasuch as wind speed in a hurricane or Richter level in an earthquake.b. Eurobond—A bond that is denominated in one currency, usually thatof the issuer, but sold in other national markets.c. Zero-coupon bond—A bond that makes no coupon payments. Investorsreceive par value at the maturity date but receive no interest paymentsuntil then. These bonds are issued at prices below par value, and theinvestor’s return comes from the difference between issue price and thepayment of par value at maturity (capital gain).d. Samurai bond—Yen-dominated bonds sold in Japan by non-Japaneseissuers.e. Junk bond—A bond with a low credit rating due to its high default risk;also known as high-yield bonds.f. Convertible bond—A bond that gives the bondholders an option toexchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock ofthe firm.g. Serial bonds—Bonds issued with staggered maturity dates. As bondsmature sequentially, the principal repayment burden for the firm isspread over time.h. Equipment obligation bond—A collateralized bond for which thecollateral is equipment owned by the firm. If the firm defaults on thebond, the bondholders would receive the equipment.i. Original issue discount bond—A bond issued at a discount to the facevalue.j. Indexed bond— A bond that makes payments that are tied to ageneral price index or the price of a particular commodity.k. Callable bond—A bond that gives the issuer the option to repurchase the bond at a specified call price before the maturity date.l. Puttable bond —A bond that gives the bondholder the option to sell back the bond at a specified put price before the maturity date.2. The bond callable at 105 should sell at a lower price because the call provision is more valuable to the firm. Therefore, its yield to maturity should be higher.3.Zero coupon bonds provide no coupons to be reinvested. Therefore, the investor's proceeds from the bond are independent of the rate at which coupons could be reinvested (if they were paid). There is no reinvestment rate uncertainty with zeros.4.A bond’s coupon interest payments and principal repayment are not affected by changes in market rates. Consequently, if market ratesincrease, bond investors in the secondary markets are not willing to pay as much for a claim on a gi ven bond’s fixed interest and principalpayments as they would if market rates were lower. This relationship is apparent from the inverse relationship between interest rates and present value. An increase in the discount rate (i.e., the market rate. decreases the present value of the future cash flows. 5. Annual coupon rate: 4.80% $48 Coupon paymentsCurrent yield:$48 4.95%$970⎛⎫= ⎪⎝⎭6. a.Effective annual rate for 3-month T-bill:%0.10100.0102412.11645,97000,10044==-=-⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛b. Effective annual interest rate for coupon bond paying 5% semiannually:(1.05.2—1 = 0.1025 or 10.25%Therefore the coupon bond has the higher effective annual interest rate. 7.The effective annual yield on the semiannual coupon bonds is 8.16%. If the annual coupon bonds are to sell at par they must offer the same yield, which requires an annual coupon rate of 8.16%.8. The bond price will be lower. As time passes, the bond price, which isnow above par value, will approach par.9. Yield to maturity: Using a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 3; PV = -953.10; FV = 1000; PMT = 80; COMP iThis results in: YTM = 9.88%Realized compound yield: First, find the future value (FV. of reinvestedcoupons and principal:FV = ($80 * 1.10 *1.12. + ($80 * 1.12. + $1,080 = $1,268.16Then find the rate (y realized . that makes the FV of the purchase price equal to $1,268.16:$953.10 ⨯ (1 + y realized .3 = $1,268.16 ⇒y realized = 9.99% or approximately 10% Using a financial calculator, enter the following: N = 3; PV = -953.10; FV =1,268.16; PMT = 0; COMP I. Answer is 9.99%.10.a. Zero coupon 8%10% couponcouponCurrent prices $463.19 $1,000.00 $1,134.20b. Price 1 year from now $500.25 $1,000.00 $1,124.94Price increase $ 37.06 $ 0.00 − $ 9.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 37.06 $ 80.00 $ 90.74Pretax rate of return 8.00% 8.00% 8.00%Taxes* $ 11.12 $ 24.00 $ 28.15After-tax income $ 25.94 $ 56.00 $ 62.59After-tax rate of return 5.60% 5.60% 5.52%c. Price 1 year from now $543.93 $1,065.15 $1,195.46Price increase $ 80.74 $ 65.15 $ 61.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 80.74 $145.15 $161.26Pretax rate of return 17.43% 14.52% 14.22%Taxes†$ 19.86 $ 37.03 $ 42.25After-tax income $ 60.88 $108.12 $119.01After-tax rate of return 13.14% 10.81% 10.49%* In computing taxes, we assume that the 10% coupon bond was issued at par and that the decrease in price when the bond is sold at year-end is treated as a capital loss and therefore is not treated as an offset to ordinary income.† In computing taxes for the zero coupon bond, $37.06 is taxed as ordinary income (see part (b); the remainder of the price increase is taxed as a capital gain.11. a. On a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 40; FV = 1000; PV = –950; PMT = 40You will find that the yield to maturity on a semiannual basis is 4.26%.This implies a bond equivalent yield to maturity equal to: 4.26% * 2 =8.52%Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0426)2– 1 = 0.0870 = 8.70%b. Since the bond is selling at par, the yield to maturity on a semiannualbasis is the same as the semiannual coupon rate, i.e., 4%. The bondequivalent yield to maturity is 8%.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.04)2– 1 = 0.0816 = 8.16%c. Keeping other inputs unchanged but setting PV = –1050, we find abond equivalent yield to maturity of 7.52%, or 3.76% on a semiannualbasis.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0376)2– 1 = 0.0766 = 7.66%12. Since the bond payments are now made annually instead of semiannually,the bond equivalent yield to maturity is the same as the effective annual yield to maturity. [On a financial calculator, n = 20; FV = 1000; PV = –price; PMT = 80]The resulting yields for the three bonds are:Bond Price Bond Equivalent Yield= Effective Annual Yield$950 8.53%1,000 8.001,050 7.51The yields computed in this case are lower than the yields calculatedwith semiannual payments. All else equal, bonds with annual payments are less attractive to investors because more time elapses beforepayments are received. If the bond price is the same with annualpayments, then the bond's yield to maturity is lower.13.Price Maturity(years.BondEquivalentYTM$400.00 20.00 4.688% 500.00 20.00 3.526 500.00 10.00 7.177385.54 10.00 10.000 463.19 10.00 8.000 400.00 11.91 8.00014. a. The bond pays $50 every 6 months. The current price is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 6)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 6)] = $1,052.42 Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 6. Solve for PV = $1,052.42.If the market interest rate remains 4% per half year, price six months from now is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 5)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 5)] = $1,044.52Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 5. Solve for PV = $1,044.52.b. Rate of return $50($1,044.52$1,052.42)$50$7.904.0%$1,052.42$1,052.42+--===15.The reported bond price is: $1,001.250However, 15 days have passed since the last semiannual coupon was paid, so:Accrued interest = $35 * (15/182) = $2.885The invoice price is the reported price plus accrued interest: $1,004.1416. If the yield to maturity is greater than the current yield, then the bond offers the prospect of price appreciation as it approaches its maturity date. Therefore, the bond must be selling below par value.17. The coupon rate is less than 9%. If coupon divided by price equals 9%, and price is less than par, then price divided by par is less than 9%.18.Time Inflation in YearJust EndedPar Value Coupon Payment Principal Repayment 0 $1,000.001 2% 1,020.00 $40.80 $ 0.002 3% $1,050.60 $42.02 $ 0.00 31%$1,061.11$42.44$1,061.11The nominal rate of return and real rate of return on the bond in each year are computed as follows:Nominal rate of return = interest + price appreciationinitial priceReal rate of return = 1 + nominal return1 + inflation - 1Second YearThird YearNominal return 071196.0020,1$60.30$02.42$=+050400.060.050,1$51.10$44.42$=+Real return%0.4040.0103.1071196.1==- %0.4040.0101.1050400.1==- The real rate of return in each year is precisely the 4% real yield on the bond.19.The price schedule is as follows: Year Remaining Maturity (T).Constant Yield Value $1,000/(1.08)TImputed Interest (increase inconstant yield value)0 (now) 20 years$214.551 19 231.71 $17.162 18 250.25 18.54 19 1 925.93 201,000.0074.0720.The bond is issued at a price of $800. Therefore, its yield to maturity is: 6.8245%Therefore, using the constant yield method, we find that the price in one year (when maturity falls to 9 years) will be (at an unchanged yield. $814.60, representing an increase of $14.60. Total taxable income is: $40.00 + $14.60 = $54.6021. a. The bond sells for $1,124.72 based on the 3.5% yield to maturity .[n = 60; i = 3.5; FV = 1000; PMT = 40]Therefore, yield to call is 3.368% semiannually, 6.736% annually. [n = 10 semiannual periods; PV = –1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]b. If the call price were $1,050, we would set FV = 1,050 and redo part (a) to find that yield to call is 2.976% semiannually, 5.952% annually. With a lower call price, the yield to call is lower.c. Yield to call is 3.031% semiannually, 6.062% annually. [n = 4; PV = −1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]22. The stated yield to maturity, based on promised payments, equals 16.075%.[n = 10; PV = –900; FV = 1000; PMT = 140]Based on expected reduced coupon payments of $70 annually, theexpected yield to maturity is 8.526%.23. The bond is selling at par value. Its yield to maturity equals the couponrate, 10%. If the first-year coupon is reinvested at an interest rate of rpercent, then total proceeds at the end of the second year will be: [$100 *(1 + r)] + $1,100Therefore, realized compound yield to maturity is a function of r, as shown in the following table:8% $1,208 1208/1000 – 1 = 0.0991 = 9.91%10% $1,210 1210/1000 – 1 = 0.1000 = 10.00%12% $1,212 1212/1000 – 1 = 0.1009 = 10.09%24. April 15 is midway through the semiannual coupon period. Therefore,the invoice price will be higher than the stated ask price by an amountequal to one-half of the semiannual coupon. The ask price is 101.25percent of par, so the invoice price is:$1,012.50 + (½*$50) = $1,037.5025. Factors that might make the ABC debt more attractive to investors,therefore justifying a lower coupon rate and yield to maturity, are:i. The ABC debt is a larger issue and therefore may sell with greaterliquidity.ii. An option to extend the term from 10 years to 20 years is favorable ifinterest rates 10 years from now are lower than today’s interest rates. Incontrast, if interest rates increase, the investor can present the bond forpayment and reinvest the money for a higher return.iii. In the event of trouble, the ABC debt is a more senior claim. It hasmore underlying security in the form of a first claim against realproperty.iv. The call feature on the XYZ bonds makes the ABC bonds relativelymore attractive since ABC bonds cannot be called from the investor.v. The XYZ bond has a sinking fund requiring XYZ to retire part of theissue each year. Since most sinking funds give the firm the option toretire this amount at the lower of par or market value, the sinking fundcan be detrimental for bondholders.26. A. If an investor believes the firm’s credit prospects are poor in the nearterm and wishes to capitalize on this, the investor should buy a creditdefault swap. Although a short sale of a bond could accomplish the same objective, liquidity is often greater in the swap market than it is in theunderlying cash market. The investor could pick a swap with a maturitysimilar to the expected time horizon of the credit risk. By buying theswap, the investor would receive compensation if the bond experiencesan increase in credit risk.27. a. When credit risk increases, credit default swaps increase in valuebecause the protection they provide is more valuable. Credit defaultswaps do not provide protection against interest rate risk however.28. a. An increase in the firm’s times interest-earned ratio decreases thedefault risk of the firm→increases the bond’s price → decreases the YTM.b. An increase in the issuing firm’s debt-equity ratio increases thedefault risk of the firm → decreases the bond’s price → increases YTM.c. An increase in the issuing firm’s quick ratio increases short-runliquidity, → implying a decrease in default risk of the firm → increasesthe bond’s price → decreases YTM.29. a. The floating rate note pays a coupon that adjusts to market levels.Therefore, it will not experience dramatic price changes as marketyields fluctuate. The fixed rate note will therefore have a greater pricerange.b. Floating rate notes may not sell at par for any of several reasons:(i) The yield spread between one-year Treasury bills and othermoney market instruments of comparable maturity could be wider(or narrower. than when the bond was issued.(ii) The credit standing of the firm may have eroded (or improved.relative to Treasury securities, which have no credit risk.Therefore, the 2% premium would become insufficient to sustainthe issue at par.(iii) The coupon increases are implemented with a lag, i.e., onceevery year. During a period of changing interest rates, even thisbrief lag will be reflected in the price of the security.c. The risk of call is low. Because the bond will almost surely not sell for much above par value (given its adjustable coupon rate), it is unlikely that the bond will ever be called.d. The fixed-rate note currently sells at only 88% of the call price, so that yield to maturity is greater than the coupon rate. Call risk iscurrently low, since yields would need to fall substantially for the firm to use its option to call the bond.e. The 9% coupon notes currently have a remaining maturity of 15 years and sell at a yield to maturity of 9.9%. This is the coupon rate thatwould be needed for a newly issued 15-year maturity bond to sell at par.f. Because the floating rate note pays a variable stream of interestpayments to maturity, the effective maturity for comparative purposes with other debt securities is closer to the next coupon reset date than the final maturity date. Therefore, yield-to-maturity is anindeterminable calculation for a floating rate note, with “yield -to-recoupon date” a more meaningful measure of return.30. a. The yield to maturity on the par bond equals its coupon rate, 8.75%.All else equal, the 4% coupon bond would be more attractive because its coupon rate is far below current market yields, and its price is far below the call price. Therefore, if yields fall, capital gains on the bond will not be limited by the call price. In contrast, the 8¾% coupon bond canincrease in value to at most $1,050, offering a maximum possible gain of only 0.5%. The disadvantage of the 8¾% coupon bond, in terms ofvulnerability to being called, shows up in its higher promised yield to maturity.b. If an investor expects yields to fall substantially, the 4% bond offers a greater expected return.c. Implicit call protection is offered in the sense that any likely fallin yields would not be nearly enough to make the firm considercalling the bond. In this sense, the call feature is almost irrelevant.31. a. Initial price P 0 = $705.46 [n = 20; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 8]Next year's price P 1 = $793.29 [n = 19; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 7] HPR %54.191954.046.705$)46.705$29.793($50$==-+=b. Using OID tax rules, the cost basis and imputed interest under theconstant yield method are obtained by discounting bond payments at the original 8% yield and simply reducing maturity by one year at a time: Constant yield prices (compare these to actual prices to compute capital gains.: P 0 = $705.46P 1 = $711.89 ⇒ implicit interest over first year = $6.43P 2 = $718.84 ⇒ implicit interest over second year = $6.95Tax on explicit interest plus implicit interest in first year =0.40*($50 + $6.43) = $22.57Capital gain in first year = Actual price at 7% YTM —constant yield price =$793.29—$711.89 = $81.40Tax on capital gain = 0.30*$81.40 = $24.42Total taxes = $22.57 + $24.42 = $46.99c. After tax HPR =%88.121288.046.705$99.46$)46.705$29.793($50$==--+d. Value of bond after two years = $798.82 [using n = 18; i = 7%; PMT = $50; FV = $1,000]Reinvested income from the coupon interest payments = $50*1.03 + $50 = $101.50Total funds after two years = $798.82 + $101.50 = $900.32Therefore, the investment of $705.46 grows to $900.32 in two years:$705.46 (1 + r )2 = $900.32 ⇒ r = 0.1297 = 12.97%e. Coupon interest received in first year: $50.00Less: tax on coupon interest 40%: – 20.00Less: tax on imputed interest (0.40*$6.43): – 2.57Net cash flow in first year: $27.43The year-1 cash flow can be invested at an after-tax rate of:3% × (1 – 0.40) = 1.8%By year 2, this investment will grow to: $27.43 × 1.018 = $27.92In two years, sell the bond for: $798.82 [n = 18; i = 7%%; PMT =$50; FV = $1,000]Less: tax on imputed interest in second year:– 2.78 [0.40 × $6.95] Add: after-tax coupon interest received in second year: + 30.00 [$50 × (1 – 0.40)]Less: Capital gains tax on(sales price – constant yield value): – 23.99 [0.30 × (798.82 – 718.84)] Add: CF from first year's coupon (reinvested):+ 27.92 [from above]Total $829.97$705.46 (1 + r)2 = $829.97 r = 0.0847 = 8.47%CFA PROBLEMS1. a. A sinking fund provision requires the early redemption of a bond issue.The provision may be for a specific number of bonds or a percentage ofthe bond issue over a specified time period. The sinking fund can retireall or a portion of an issue over the life of the issue.b. (i) Compared to a bond without a sinking fund, the sinking fundreduces the average life of the overall issue because some of thebonds are retired prior to the stated maturity.(ii) The company will make the same total principal payments overthe life of the issue, although the timing of these payments will beaffected. The total interest payments associated with the issue willbe reduced given the early redemption of principal.c. From the investor’s point of view, the key reason for demanding asinking fund is to reduce credit risk. Default risk is reduced by theorderly retirement of the issue.2. a. (i) Current yield = Coupon/Price = $70/$960 = 0.0729 = 7.29%(ii) YTM = 3.993% semiannually, or 7.986% annual bond equivalent yield.On a financial calculator, enter: n = 10; PV = –960; FV = 1000; PMT = 35Compute the interest rate.(iii) Realized compound yield is 4.166% (semiannually), or 8.332% annualbond equivalent yield. To obtain this value, first find the future value(FV) of reinvested coupons and principal. There will be six payments of$35 each, reinvested semiannually at 3% per period. On a financialcalculator, enter:PV = 0; PMT = 35; n = 6; i = 3%. Compute: FV = 226.39Three years from now, the bond will be selling at the par value of $1,000because the yield to maturity is forecast to equal the coupon rate.Therefore, total proceeds in three years will be: $226.39 + $1,000 =$1,226.39Then find the rate (y realized. that makes the FV of the purchaseprice equal to $1,226.39:$960 × (1 + y realized.6 = $1,226.39 y realized = 4.166% (semiannual.Alternatively, PV = −$960; FV = $1,226.39; N = 6; PMT = $0. Solve for I =4.16%.b. Shortcomings of each measure:(i) Current yield does not account for capital gains or losses on bondsbought at prices other than par value. It also does not account forreinvestment income on coupon payments.(ii) Yield to maturity assumes the bond is held until maturity and that all coupon income can be reinvested at a rate equal to the yield to maturity.(iii) Realized compound yield is affected by the forecast ofreinvestment rates, holding period, and yield of the bond at the endof the investor's holding period.3. a. The maturity of each bond is 10 years, and we assume that couponsare paid semiannually. Since both bonds are selling at par value, thecurrent yield for each bond is equal to its coupon rate.If the yield declines by 1% to 5% (2.5% semiannual yield., the Sentinalbond will increase in value to $107.79 [n=20; i = 2.5%; FV = 100; PMT = 3].The price of the Colina bond will increase, but only to the call price of102. The present value of scheduled payments is greater than 102, butthe call price puts a ceiling on the actual bond price.b. If rates are expected to fall, the Sentinal bond is more attractive:since it is not subject to call, its potential capital gains are greater.If rates are expected to rise, Colina is a relatively better investment. Itshigher coupon (which presumably is compensation to investors for thecall feature of the bond. will provide a higher rate of return than theSentinal bond.c. An increase in the volatility of rates will increase the value of thefirm’s option to call back the Colina bond. If rates go down, the firm can call the bond, which puts a cap on possible capital gains. So, greatervolatility makes the option to call back the bond more valuable to theissuer. This makes the bond less attractive to the investor.4. Market conversion value = Value if converted into stock = 20.83 × $28 =$583.24Conversion premium = Bond price – Market conversion value= $775.00 – $583.24 = $191.765. a. The call feature requires the firm to offer a higher coupon (or higherpromised yield to maturity) on the bond in order to compensate theinvestor for the firm's option to call back the bond at a specified priceif interest rate falls sufficiently. Investors are willing to grant thisvaluable option to the issuer, but only for a price that reflects thepossibility that the bond will be called. That price is the higherpromised yield at which they are willing to buy the bond.b. The call feature reduces the expected life of the bond. If interestrates fall substantially so that the likelihood of a call increases,investors will treat the bond as if it will "mature" and be paid off at thecall date, not at the stated maturity date. On the other hand, if ratesrise, the bond must be paid off at the maturity date, not later. Thisasymmetry means that the expected life of the bond is less than thestated maturity.c. The advantage of a callable bond is the higher coupon (and higherpromised yield to maturity) when the bond is issued. If the bond is never called, then an investor earns a higher realized compound yield on acallable bond issued at par than a noncallable bond issued at par on the same date. The disadvantage of the callable bond is the risk of call. Ifrates fall and the bond is called, then the investor receives the call price and then has to reinvest the proceeds at interest rates that are lowerthan the yield to maturity at which the bond originally was issued. Inthis event, the firm's savings in interest payments is the investor's loss.6. a. (iii)b. (iii) The yield to maturity on the callable bond must compensatethe investor for the risk of call.Choice (i) is wrong because, although the owner of a callablebond receives a premium plus the principal in the event of a call,the interest rate at which he can reinvest will be low. The lowinterest rate that makes it profitable for the issuer to call thebond also makes it a bad deal f or the bond’s holder.Choice (ii) is wrong because a bond is more apt to be called wheninterest rates are low. Only if rates are low will there be aninterest saving for the issuer.c. (iii)d. (ii)。
《投资学》课后习题参考答案
习题参考答案第2章答案：一、选择1、D2、C二、填空1、公众投资者、工商企业投资者、政府2、中国人民保险公司；中国国际信托投资公司3、威尼斯、英格兰4、信用合作社、合作银行；农村信用合作社、城市信用合作社；5、安全性、流动性、效益性三、名词解释：财务公司又称金融公司，是一种经营部分银行业务的非银行金融机构。
其最初是为产业集团内部各分公司筹资，便利集团内部资金融通，但现在经营领域不断扩大，种类不断增加，有的专门经营抵押放款业务，有的专门经营耐用消费品的租购和分期付款业务，大的财务公司还兼营外汇、联合贷款、包销证券、不动产抵押、财务及投资咨询服务等。
信托公司是指以代人理财为主要经营内容、以委托人身份经营现代信托业务的金融机构。
信托公司的业务一般包括货币信托（信托贷款、信托存款、养老金信托、有价证券投资信托等）和非货币信托（债权信托、不动产信托、动产信托等）两大类。
保险公司是一类经营保险业务的金融中介机构。
它以集合多数单位或个人的风险为前提，用其概率计算分摊金，以保险费的形式聚集资金建立保险基金，用于补偿因自然灾害或以外事故造成的经济损失，或对个人因死亡伤残给予物质补偿。
四、简答1、家庭个人是金融市场上的主要资金供应者，其呈现出的主要特点如下：（1）投资目标简单；（2）投资活动更具盲目性（3）投资规模较小，投资方向分散，投资形式灵活。
企业作为非金融投资机构，其行为呈现出了以下的显著特点：（1）资金需求者地位突现；（2）投资目标的多元化；（3）投资比较稳定；（4）短期投资交易量大。
2、商业银行在经济运行中主要的职能如下：（1）信用中介职能；（2）支付中介职能；（3）调节媒介职能；（4）金融服务职能；（5）信用创造职能；总的来说，商业银行业务可以归为以下三类:（1）负债业务：是指资金来源的业务；（2）资产业务：是商业银行运用资金的业务；（3）中间业务和表外业务：中间业务指银行不需要运用自己的资金而代客户承办支付和其他委托事项，并据以收取手续费的业务第3章答案：一、选择题1、D2、D3、B二、填空题1、会员制证券交易所和公司制证券交易所、会员制、公司制。
投资学第10版课后习题答案
投资学第10版课后习题答案CHAPTER 2: ASSET CLASSES AND FINANCIALINSTRUMENTSPROBLEM SETS1. Preferred stock is like long-term debt in that it typicallypromises a fixed payment each year. In this way, it is aperpetuity. Preferred stock is also like long-term debt in that itdoes not give the holder voting rights in the firm.Preferred stock is like equity in that the firm is under nocontractual obligation to make the preferred stock dividend payments.Failure to make payments does not set off corporate bankruptcy. With respect to the priority of claims to the assets of the firm in theevent of corporate bankruptcy, preferred stock has a higher priority than common equity but a lower priority than bonds.2. Money market securities are called cash equivalents because oftheir high level of liquidity. The prices of money marketsecurities are very stable, and they can be converted to cash .,sold) on very short notice and with very low transaction costs.Examples of money market securities include Treasury bills,commercial paper, and banker's acceptances, each of which ishighly marketable and traded in the secondary market.3. (a) A repurchase agreement is an agreement whereby the seller ofa security agrees to “repurchase” it from the buyer on anagreed upon date at an agreed upon price. Repos are typicallyused by securities dealers as a means for obtaining funds topurchase securities.4. Spreads between risky commercial paper and risk-free governmentsecurities will widen. Deterioration of the economy increases thelikelihood of default on commercial paper, making them more risky.Investors will demand a greater premium on all risky debtsecurities, not just commercial paper.5.6. Municipal bond interest is tax-exempt at the federal level and possibly at the state level as well. When facing higher marginaltax rates, a high-income investor would be more inclined toinvest in tax-exempt securities.7. a. You would have to pay the ask price of:% of par value of $1,000 = $b. The coupon rate is % implying coupon payments of $ annually or, more precisely, $ semiannually.c. The yield to maturity on a fixed income security is also knownas its required return and is reported by The Wall StreetJournal and others in the financial press as the ask yield. Inthis case, the yield to maturity is %. An investor buying this security today and holding it until it matures will earn anannual return of %. Students will learn in a later chapter howto compute both the price and the yield to maturity with afinancial calculator.8. Treasury bills are discount securities that mature for $10,000. Therefore, a specific T-bill price is simply the maturity value divided by one plus the semi-annual return:P = $10,000/ = $9,9. The total before-tax income is $4. After the 70% exclusion for preferred stock dividends, the taxable income is: $4 = $ Therefore, taxes are: $ = $After-tax income is: $ – $ = $Rate of return is: $$ = %10. a. You could buy: $5,000/$ = shares. Since it is not possible to trade in fractions of shares, you could buy 77 shares of GD.b. Your annual dividend income would be: 77 $ = $c. The price-to-earnings ratio is and the price is $. Therefore: $Earnings per share = Earnings per share = $d. General Dynamics closed today at $, which was $ higher than yesterday’s price of $11. a. At t = 0, the value of the index is: (90 + 50 + 100)/3 = 80At t = 1, the value of the index is: (95 + 45 + 110)/3 =The rate of return is: 80) 1 = %b. In the absence of a split, Stock C would sell for 110, sothe value of the index would be: 250/3 = with a divisor of3.After the split, stock C sells for 55. Therefore, we needto find the divisor (d) such that: = (95 + 45 + 55)/dd = . The divisor fell, which is always the case after oneof the firms in an index splits its shares.c. The return is zero. The index remains unchanged because the return for each stock separately equals zero.12. a. Total market value at t = 0 is: ($9,000 + $10,000 + $20,000) = $39,000Total market value at t = 1 is: ($9,500 + $9,000 + $22,000) = $40,500 Rate of return = ($40,500/$39,000) – 1 = %b.The return on each stock is as follows:r= (95/90) – 1 =Ar= (45/50) – 1 = –Br= (110/100) – 1 =CThe equally weighted average is:[ + + ]/3 = = %13. The after-tax yield on the corporate bonds is: (1 – = = % Therefore, municipals must offer a yield to maturity of at least %.14. Equation shows that the equivalent taxable yield is: r = r m/(1 –t),so simply substitute each tax rate in the denominator to obtain thefollowing:a. %b. %c. %d. %15. In an equally weighted index fund, each stock is given equal weightregardless of its market capitalization. Smaller cap stocks will have the same weight as larger cap stocks. The challenges are as follows:Given equal weights placed to smaller cap and larger cap,equal-weighted indices (EWI) will tend to be more volatilethan their market-capitalization counterparts;It follows that EWIs are not good reflectors of the broadmarket that they represent; EWIs underplay the economicimportance of larger companies.Turnover rates will tend to be higher, as an EWI must berebalanced back to its original target. By design, many ofthe transactions would be among the smaller, less-liquidstocks.16. a. The ten-year Treasury bond with the higher coupon rate will sellfor a higher price because its bondholder receives higherinterest payments.b. The call option with the lower exercise price has more valuethan one with a higher exercise price.c. The put option written on the lower priced stock has more valuethan one written on a higher priced stock.17. a. You bought the contract when the futures price was $ (see Figureand remember that the number to the right of the apostropherepresents an eighth of a cent). The contract closes at a priceof $, which is $ more than the original futures price. Thecontract multiplier is 5000. Therefore, the gain will be: $5000 = $b. Open interest is 135,778 contracts.18. a. Owning the call option gives you the right, but not theobligation, to buy at $180, while the stock is trading in thesecondary market at $193. Since the stock price exceeds theexercise price, you exercise the call.The payoff on the option will be: $193 - $180 = $13The cost was originally $, so the profit is: $13 - $ = $b. Since the stock price is greater than the exercise price, youwill exercise the call. The payoff on the option will be: $193 -$185 = $8The option originally cost $, so the profit is $8 - $ = -$c. Owning the put option gives you the right, but not theobligation, to sell at $185, but you could sell in the secondarymarket for $193, so there is no value in exercising the option.Since the stock price is greater than the exercise price, youwill not exercise the put. The loss on the put will be theinitial cost of $.19. There is always a possibility that the option will be in-the-money atsome time prior to expiration. Investors will pay something for this possibility of a positive payoff.20.Value of Call atInitial Cost ProfitExpirationa.04-4b.04-4c.04-4d.541e.1046Value of Put atInitial Cost ProfitExpirationa.1064b.56-1c.06-6d.06-6e.06-621. A put option conveys the right to sell the underlying asset at theexercise price. A short position in a futures contract carries anobligation to sell the underlying asset at the futures price. Both positions, however, benefit if the price of the underlying asset falls.22. A call option conveys the right to buy the underlying asset at the exercise price. A long position in a futures contract carries an obligation to buy the underlying asset at the futures price. Both positions, however, benefit if the price of the underlying asset rises.CFA PROBLEMS1.(d) There are tax advantages for corporations that own preferred shares.2. The equivalent taxable yield is: %/(1 = %3. (a) Writing a call entails unlimited potential losses as the stock price rises.4. a. The taxable bond. With a zero tax bracket, the after-tax yield for thetaxable bond is the same as the before-tax yield (5%), which is greater than the yield on the municipal bond.b. The taxable bond. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:0.05 (1 – = %c. You are indifferent. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:(1 – = %The after-tax yield is the same as that of the municipal bond.d. The municipal bond offers the higher after-tax yield for investors in tax brackets above 20%.5.If the after-tax yields are equal, then: = × (1 –t)This implies that t = =30%.。
投资学第10版课后习题答案
CHAPTER 4: MUTUAL FUNDS AND OTHER INVESTMENTCOMPANIESPROBLEM SETS1. The unit investment trust should have lower operating expenses.Because the investment trust portfolio is fixed once the trust isestablished, it does not have to pay portfolio managers toconstantly monitor and rebalance the portfolio as perceived needsor opportunities change. Because the portfolio is fixed, the unitinvestment trust also incurs virtually no trading costs.2. a. Unit investment trusts: Diversification from large-scaleinvesting, lower transaction costs associated with large-scaletrading, low management fees, predictable portfolio composition,guaranteed low portfolio turnover rate.b. Open-end mutual funds: Diversification from large-scaleinvesting, lower transaction costs associated with large-scaletrading, professional management that may be able to takeadvantage of buy or sell opportunities as they arise, recordkeeping.c. Individual stocks and bonds: No management fee; ability tocoordinate realization of capital gains or losses withinvestors’ personal tax situation s; capability of designingportfolio to investor’s specific risk and return profile.3. Open-end funds are obligated to redeem investor's shares at netasset value and thus must keep cash or cash-equivalent securitieson hand in order to meet potential redemptions. Closed-end funds do not need the cash reserves because there are no redemptions forclosed-end funds. Investors in closed-end funds sell their shareswhen they wish to cash out.4. Balanced funds keep relatively stable proportions of funds investedin each asset class. They are meant as convenient instruments toprovide participation in a range of asset classes. Life-cycle fundsare balanced funds whose asset mix generally depends on the age of the investor. Aggressive life-cycle funds, with larger investments in equities, are marketed to younger investors, while conservative life-cycle funds, with larger investments in fixed-income securities, are designed for older investors. Asset allocation funds, in contrast, may vary the proportions invested in each asset class by large amounts as predictions of relative performance across classes vary. Asset allocation funds therefore engage in more aggressive market timing.5. Unlike an open-end fund, in which underlying shares are redeemedwhen the fund is redeemed, a closed-end fund trades as a security in the market. Thus, their prices may differ from the NAV.6. Advantages of an ETF over a mutual fund:ETFs are continuously traded and can be sold or purchased on margin.There are no capital gains tax triggers when an ETF is sold(shares are just sold from one investor to another).Investors buy from brokers, thus eliminating the cost ofdirect marketing to individual small investors. This implieslower management fees.Disadvantages of an ETF over a mutual fund:Prices can depart from NAV (unlike an open-end fund).There is a broker fee when buying and selling (unlike a no-load fund).7. The offering price includes a 6% front-end load, or salescommission, meaning that every dollar paid results in only $ going toward purchase of shares. Therefore: Offering price =06.0170.10$Load 1NAV -=-= $8. NAV = Offering price (1 –Load) = $ .95 = $9. Stock Value Held by FundA $ 7,000,000B 12,000,000C 8,000,000D 15,000,000Total $42,000,000Net asset value =000,000,4000,30$000,000,42$-= $10. Value of stocks sold and replaced = $15,000,000 Turnover rate =000,000,42$000,000,15$= , or %11. a. 40.39$000,000,5000,000,3$000,000,200$NAV =-=b. Premium (or discount) = NAVNAV ice Pr - = 40.39$40.39$36$-= –, or % The fund sells at an % discount from NAV.12. 100NAV NAV Distributions $12.10$12.50$1.500.088, or 8.8%NAV $12.50-+-+==13. a. Start-of-year price: P 0 = $ × = $End-of-year price: P 1 = $ × = $Although NAV increased by $, the price of the fund decreased by $. Rate of return =100Distributions $11.25$12.24$1.500.042, or 4.2%$12.24P P P -+-+==b. An investor holding the same securities as the fund managerwould have earned a rate of return based on the increase in the NAV of the portfolio:100NAV NAV Distributions $12.10$12.00$1.500.133, or 13.3%NAV $12.00-+-+==14. a. Empirical research indicates that past performance of mutualfunds is not highly predictive of future performance,especially for better-performing funds. While there may be some tendency for the fund to be an above average performer nextyear, it is unlikely to once again be a top 10% performer.b. On the other hand, the evidence is more suggestive of atendency for poor performance to persist. This tendency isprobably related to fund costs and turnover rates. Thus if the fund is among the poorest performers, investors should beconcerned that the poor performance will persist.15. NAV 0 = $200,000,000/10,000,000 = $20Dividends per share = $2,000,000/10,000,000 = $NAV1 is based on the 8% price gain, less the 1% 12b-1 fee: NAV1 = $20 (1 – = $Rate of return =20$20 .0$20$384.21$+-= , or %16. The excess of purchases over sales must be due to new inflows intothe fund. Therefore, $400 million of stock previously held by the fund was replaced by new holdings. So turnover is: $400/$2,200 = , or %.17. Fees paid to investment managers were: $ billion = $ millionSince the total expense ratio was % and the management fee was %, we conclude that % must be for other expenses. Therefore, other administrative expenses were: $ billion = $ million.18. As an initial approximation, your return equals the return on the shares minus the total of the expense ratio and purchase costs: 12% % 4% = %.But the precise return is less than this because the 4% load is paid up front, not at the end of the year. To purchase the shares, you would have had to invest: $20,000/(1 = $20,833. The shares increase in value from $20,000 to: $20,000 = $22,160. The rate of return is: ($22,160 $20,833)/$20,833 = %.19. Assume $1,000 investmentLoaded-Up Fund Economy Fund Yearly growth (r is 6%) (1.01.0075)r +-- (.98)(1.0025)r ⨯+- t = 1 year$1, $1, t = 3 years$1, $1, t = 10 years$1, $1,20. a. $450,000,000$10,000000$1044,000,000-= b. The redemption of 1 million shares will most likely triggercapital gains taxes which will lower the remaining portfolio by an amount greater than $10,000,000 (implying a remaining total value less than $440,000,000). The outstanding shares fall to 43 million and the NAV drops to below $10.21. Suppose you have $1,000 to invest. The initial investment in ClassA shares is $940 net of the front-end load. After four years, yourportfolio will be worth:$940 4 = $1,Class B shares allow you to invest the full $1,000, but yourinvestment performance net of 12b-1 fees will be only %, and you will pay a 1% back-end load fee if you sell after four years. Your portfolio value after four years will be:$1,000 4 = $1,After paying the back-end load fee, your portfolio value will be:$1, .99 = $1,Class B shares are the better choice if your horizon is four years.With a 15-year horizon, the Class A shares will be worth:$940 15 = $3,For the Class B shares, there is no back-end load in this casesince the horizon is greater than five years. Therefore, the value of the Class B shares will be:$1,000 15 = $3,At this longer horizon, Class B shares are no longer the betterchoice. The effect of Class B's % 12b-1 fees accumulates over time and finally overwhelms the 6% load charged to Class A investors.22. a. After two years, each dollar invested in a fund with a 4% loadand a portfolio return equal to r will grow to: $ (1 + r–2.Each dollar invested in the bank CD will grow to: $1 .If the mutual fund is to be the better investment, then theportfolio return (r) must satisfy:(1 + r–2 >(1 + r–2 >(1 + r–2 >1 + r– >1 + r >Therefore: r > = %b. If you invest for six years, then the portfolio return mustsatisfy:(1 + r–6 > =(1 + r–6 >1 + r– >r > %The cutoff rate of return is lower for the six-year investment because the “fixed cost” (the one-time front-end load) is spread over a greater number of years.c. With a 12b-1 fee instead of a front-end load, the portfoliomust earn a rate of return (r ) that satisfies:1 + r – – >In this case, r must exceed % regardless of the investmenthorizon.23. The turnover rate is 50%. This means that, on average, 50% of theportfolio is sold and replaced with other securities each year. Trading costs on the sell orders are % and the buy orders toreplace those securities entail another % in trading costs. Total trading costs will reduce portfolio returns by: 2 % = %24. For the bond fund, the fraction of portfolio income given up tofees is: %0.4%6.0= , or % For the equity fund, the fraction of investment earnings given up to fees is:%0.12%6.0= , or % Fees are a much higher fraction of expected earnings for the bond fund and therefore may be a more important factor in selecting the bond fund.This may help to explain why unmanaged unit investment trusts are concentrated in the fixed income market. The advantages of unit investment trusts are low turnover, low trading costs, and low management fees. This is a more important concern to bond-market investors.25. Suppose that finishing in the top half of all portfolio managers ispurely luck, and that the probability of doing so in any year is exactly ½. Then the probability that any particular manager would finish in the top half of the sample five years in a row is (½)5 = 1/32. We would then expect to find that [350 (1/32)] = 11managers finish in the top half for each of the five consecutiveyears. This is precisely what we found. Thus, we should not conclude that the consistent performance after five years is proof of skill. We would expect to find 11 managers exhibiting precisely this level of "consistency" even if performance is due solely to luck.。
31_博迪《投资学》Chap001资料
• 货币市场上的固定收益型证券：长期证 券，这些证券有的违约风险较低相对比 较安全，有的风险相对较高。
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
1-5
普通股证券和衍生证券
• 普通股证券代表了证券持有者对公司的 权益或所有权.
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
1-17
住房融资的变化
传统方式
• 当地的储蓄机构为房主提 供抵押贷款
• 储蓄机构的主要资产: 长 期抵押贷款的组合
• 储蓄机构的主要负债: 储 户的存款
• “源于持有”
新兴方式
• 证券化: 房利美和房地美 购买抵押贷款并将它们捆 绑在一起组成资产池。
– 高级份额: 低风险, 最高评级
– 低级份额: 高风险, 低评级或垃圾评级
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
1-21
抵押贷款衍生工具
• 问题: 这种评级是错误的! 这种结构给高级 份额带来的风险远远高于预期。
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
• 抵押支持证券是指对相应 抵押贷款资产池的索取权。
• “源于分配”
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
1-18
图 1.4 抵押转递证券的现金流
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
1-19
住房融资的变化
• 房利美和房地美持有或担保符合条件的证 券化抵押贷款, 这些抵押贷款的风险很低且 被妥善记录.
• 由私营企业提供的以不符合条件的违约风 险高的次级贷款为支持的证券化产品.
博迪《投资学》(第10版)笔记和课后习题详解 第11章~第13章【圣才出品】
第11章有效市场假说11.1复习笔记1．随机漫步与有效市场假说随机漫步理论认为股价变动是随机且不可预测的。
正是市场上的充分的竞争消化了各种可得的市场信息，使得股价呈现随机游走的状态。
有效市场假定（EMH）认为任何可用于预测股票表现的信息一定已经在股价中被反映出来。
一旦有信息指出某种股票的价位被低估，存在一个套利机会，投资者的蜂拥购买会使股价立刻上升到正常的水平，从而只能得到与股票风险相称的收益率。
所以股价只对新信息做出上涨或下跌的反应。
由于新信息是不可预测的，股价的变动也是不可预测的，呈现随机游走的状态。
股价的这种变化规律正是反映了市场的有效性。
（1）有效性来源于竞争一般来说，只要进行分析，就能比别人得到更多的信息。
但是人们只有在收益高于分析花费的成本时，才愿意进行分析。
由于市场存在着激烈的竞争，证券分析师们具有强大财力支持、领取高薪、有野心，能够进行充分的信息挖掘，使得股价能够以适当的水平保证已有的信息，使市场能够较为接近有效水平。
（2）有效市场假说的形式有效市场假说一般有三种不同的形式：弱有效形式、半强有效形式和强有效形式。
这些形式通过对“全部可获得信息”的定义不同来区分。
①弱有效形式。
弱式有效市场假说认为，股价已经反映了全部能从市场交易数据中得到的信息。
股票的历史价格信息已经被市场充分消化，不可能通过市场的价格趋势分析获利。
②半强有效形式。
半强式有效市场假说认为，与公司前景有关的全部公开的已知信息一定已经在股价中反映出来了。
如果任一投资者能从公开已知资源获取这些信息，都可认为它会被反映在股价中。
③强有效形式。
强式有效市场假说认为股价反映了全部与公司有关的信息，甚至包括仅为内幕人员所知的信息。
所有有效市场假说的一个共同点：都提出价格应该反映可获得的信息。
2．有效市场假说的含义（1）技术分析技术分析中有两个常用的概念：阻力水平和支撑水平。
这些数值是指股价很难超越或不太可能再低于的水平，一般认为它们是由市场心理决定的。
投资学习题答案第10版
投资学习题答案第10版
《投资学习题答案第10版》
投资是一门让人着迷的学科，它涵盖了金融、经济学、统计学等多个领域的知识。
而要想在这个领域取得成功，不仅需要有扎实的理论基础，还需要不断地
进行学习和实践。
《投资学习题答案第10版》是一本备受推崇的投资学习资料，它涵盖了从基础知识到高级技巧的全方位内容。
这本书不仅提供了大量的学习题和答案，还通
过实例和案例分析，帮助读者更好地理解和掌握投资的要点。
在这本书中，读者可以学习到如何进行投资组合的构建、如何进行风险管理、
如何分析金融市场的走势等内容。
这些知识不仅对于投资者来说是宝贵的财富，对于金融从业者来说也是必备的技能。
除了理论知识，这本书还强调了实践的重要性。
它通过大量的案例分析和实例
演练，帮助读者将理论知识应用到实际投资中。
这种理论与实践相结合的学习
方式，能够更好地帮助读者理解和掌握投资的精髓。
总的来说，《投资学习题答案第10版》是一本非常值得推荐的投资学习资料。
它不仅提供了丰富的知识内容，还通过实例和案例分析，帮助读者更好地理解
和掌握投资的要点。
如果你对投资感兴趣，这本书绝对是你的不二选择。
投资学题库Chap001
Chapter 01The Investment Environment Multiple Choice Questions1.The material wealth of a society is a function ofA. a ll financial assets.B. a ll real assets.C. a ll financial and real assets.D. a ll physical assets.2._______ are real assets.A. L andB. M achinesC. S tocks and bondsD. K nowledgeE. L and, machines, and knowledge3.The means by which individuals hold their claims on real assets in a well-developed economyareA. i nvestment assets.B. d epository assets.C. d erivative assets.D. f inancial assets.E. e xchange-driven assets.4._______ are financial assets.A. B ondsB. M achinesC. S tocksD. B onds and stocksE. B onds, machines, and stocks5._________ financial asset(s).A. B uildings areB. L and is aC. D erivatives areD. U.S. agency bonds areE. D erivatives and U.S. agency bonds are6.Financial assetsA. d irectly contribute to the country's productive capacity.B. i ndirectly contribute to the country's productive capacity.C. c ontribute to the country's productive capacity both directly and indirectly.D. d o not contribute to the country's productive capacity either directly or indirectly.E. a re of no value to anyone.7.In 2012, ____________ was the most significant real asset of U.S. households in terms of totalvalue.A. c onsumer durablesB. a utomobilesC. r eal estateD. m utual fund sharesE. b ank loans8.In 2012, ____________ was the least significant financial asset of U.S. households in terms oftotal value.A. r eal estateB. m utual fund sharesC. d ebt securitiesD. l ife insurance reservesE. p ension reserves9.In 2012, ____________ was the most significant financial asset of U.S. households in terms oftotal value.A. r eal estateB. m utual fund sharesC. d ebt securitiesD. l ife insurance reservesE. p ension reserves10.In 2012, ____________ was the most significant asset of U.S. households in terms of totalvalue.A. r eal estateB. m utual fund sharesC. d ebt securitiesD. l ife insurance reservesE. p ension reserves11.In 2012, ____________ was the most significant liability of U.S. households in terms of totalvalue.A. c redit cardsB. m ortgagesC. b ank loansD. s tudent loansE. o ther debt12.Which of the following financial assets made up the greatest proportion of the financial assetsheld by U.S. households?A. P ension reservesB. L ife insurance reservesC. M utual fund sharesD. D ebt securitiesE. P ersonal trusts13.In 2012 _______ of the assets of U.S. households were financial assets as opposed totangible assets.A. 20.4%B. 34.2%C. 68.8%D. 71.7%E. 82.5%14.The largest component of domestic net worth in 2012 wasA. n onresidential real estate.B. r esidential real estate.C. i nventories.D. c onsumer durables.E. e quipment and software.15.The smallest component of domestic net worth in 2012 wasA. n onresidential real estate.B. r esidential real estate.C. i nventories.D. c onsumer durables.E. e quipment and software.16.The national net worth of the U.S. in 2012 wasA. $15.411 trillion.B. $26.431 trillion.C. $42.669 trillion.D. $48.616 trillion.E. $70.983 trillion.17.A fixed-income security paysA. a fixed level of income for the life of the owner.B. a fixed stream of income or a stream of income that is determined according to a specifiedformula for the life of the security.C. a variable level of income for owners on a fixed income.D. a fixed or variable income stream at the option of the owner.18.A debt security paysA. a fixed level of income for the life of the owner.B. a variable level of income for owners on a fixed income.C. a fixed or variable income stream at the option of the owner.D. a fixed stream of income or a stream of income that is determined according to a specifiedformula for the life of the security.19.Money market securitiesA. a re short term.B. a re highly marketable.C. a re generally very low risk.D. a re highly marketable and are generally very low risk.E. A ll of the options20.An example of a derivative security isA. a common share of Microsoft.B. a call option on Intel stock.C. a commodity futures contract.D. a call option on Intel stock and a commodity futures contract.E. a common share of Microsoft and a call option on Intel stock.21.The value of a derivative securityA. d epends on the value of the related security.B. i s unable to be calculated.C. i s unrelated to the value of the related security.D. h as been enhanced due to the recent misuse and negative publicity regarding theseinstruments.E. i s worthless today.22.Although derivatives can be used as speculative instruments, businesses most often usethem toA. a ttract customers.B. a ppease stockholders.C. o ffset debt.D. h edge risks.E. e nhance their balance sheets.23.Financial assets permit all of the following exceptA. c onsumption timing.B. a llocation of risk.C. s eparation of ownership and control.D. e limination of risk.24.The ____________ refers to the potential conflict between management and shareholders.A. a gency problemB. d iversification problemC. l iquidity problemD. s olvency problemE. r egulatory problem25.A disadvantage of using stock options to compensate managers is thatA. i t encourages managers to undertake projects that will increase stock price.B. i t encourages managers to engage in empire building.C. i t can create an incentive for managers to manipulate information to prop up a stock pricetemporarily, giving them a chance to cash out before the price returns to a level reflective of the firm's true prospects.D. A ll of the options26.Which of the following are mechanisms that have evolved to mitigate potential agencyproblems?I) Using the firm's stock options for compensationII) Hiring bickering family members as corporate spiesIII) Boards of directors forcing out underperforming managementIV) Security analysts monitoring the firm closelyV) Takeover threatsA. I I and VB. I, III, and IVC. I, III, IV, and VD. I II, IV, and VE. I, III, and V27.Corporate shareholders are best protected from incompetent management decisions byA. t he ability to engage in proxy fights.B. m anagement's control of pecuniary rewards.C. t he ability to call shareholder meetings.D. t he threat of takeover by other firms.E. o ne-share/one-vote election rules.28.Theoretically, takeovers should result inA. i mproved management.B. i ncreased stock price.C. i ncreased benefits to existing management of taken-over firm.D. i mproved management and increased stock price.E. A ll of the options29.During the period between 2000 and 2002, a large number of scandals were uncovered. Mostof these scandals were related toI) manipulation of financial data to misrepresent the actual condition of the firm.II) misleading and overly optimistic research reports produced by analysts.III) allocating IPOs to executives as a quid pro quo for personal favors.IV) greenmail.A. I I, III, and IVB. I, II, and IVC. I I and IVD. I, III, and IVE. I, II, and III30.The Sarbanes-Oxley ActA. r equires corporations to have more independent directors.B. r equires the firm's CFO to personally vouch for the firm's accounting statements.C. p rohibits auditing firms from providing other services to clients.D. r equires corporations to have more independent directors and requires the firm's CFO topersonally vouch for the firm's accounting statements.E. A ll of the options31.Asset allocation refers toA. c hoosing which securities to hold based on their valuation.B. i nvesting only in "safe" securities.C. t he allocation of assets into broad asset classes.D. b ottom-up analysis.32.Security selection refers toA. c hoosing which securities to hold based on their valuation.B. i nvesting only in "safe" securities.C. t he allocation of assets into broad asset classes.D. t op-down analysis.33.Which of the following portfolio construction methods starts with security analysis?A. T op-downB. B ottom-upC. M iddle-outD. B uy and holdE. A sset allocation34.Which of the following portfolio construction methods starts with asset allocation?A. T op-downB. B ottom-upC. M iddle-outD. B uy and holdE. A sset allocation35._______ are examples of financial intermediaries.A. C ommercial banksB. I nsurance companiesC. I nvestment companiesD. C redit unionsE. A ll of the options36.Financial intermediaries exist because small investors cannot efficientlyA. d iversify their portfolios.B. a ssess credit risk of borrowers.C. a dvertise for needed investments.D. d iversify their portfolios and assess credit risk of borrowers.E. A ll of the options37.________ specialize in helping companies raise capital by selling securities.A. C ommercial bankersB. I nvestment bankersC. I nvestment issuersD. C redit ratersmercial banks differ from other businesses in that both their assets and their liabilities aremostlyA. i lliquid.B. f inancial.C. r eal.D. o wned by the government.E. r egulated.39.In 2012, ____________ was(were) the most significant financial asset(s) of U.S. commercialbanks in terms of total value.A. l oans and leasesB. c ashC. r eal estateD. d epositsE. i nvestment securities40.In 2012, ____________ was(were) the most significant liability(ies) of U.S. commercial banksin terms of total value.A. l oans and leasesB. c ashC. r eal estateD. d epositsE. i nvestment securities41.In 2012, ____________ was(were) the most significant real asset(s) of U.S. nonfinancialbusinesses in terms of total value.A. e quipment and softwareB. i nventoryC. r eal estateD. t rade creditE. m arketable securities42.In 2012, ____________ was(were) the least significant real asset(s) of U.S. nonfinancialbusinesses in terms of total value.A. e quipment and softwareB. i nventoryC. r eal estateD. t rade creditE. m arketable securities43.In 2012, ____________ was(were) the least significant liability(ies) of U.S. nonfinancialbusinesses in terms of total value.A. b onds and mortgagesB. b ank loansC. i nventoriesD. t rade debtE. m arketable securities44.In terms of total value, the most significant liability(ies) of U.S. nonfinancial businesses in2012 was(were)A. b ank loans.B. b onds and mortgages.C. t rade debt.D. o ther loans.E. m arketable securities.45.In 2012, ____________ was(were) the least significant financial asset(s) of U.S. nonfinancialbusinesses in terms of total value.A. c ash and depositsB. t rade creditC. t rade debtD. i nventoryE. m arketable securities46.New issues of securities are sold in the ________ market(s).A. p rimaryB. s econdaryC. o ver-the-counterD. p rimary and secondary47.Investors trade previously issued securities in the ________ market(s).A. p rimaryB. s econdaryC. p rimary and secondaryD. d erivatives48.Investment bankers perform which of the following role(s)?A. M arket new stock and bond issues for firmsB. P rovide advice to the firms as to market conditions, price, etc.C. D esign securities with desirable propertiesD. A ll of the optionsE. N one of the options49.Until 1999, the ________ Act(s) prohibited banks in the United States from both acceptingdeposits and underwriting securities.A. S arbanes-OxleyB. G lass-SteagallC. S ECD. S arbanes-Oxley and SECE. N one of the options50.The spread between the LIBOR and the Treasury-bill rate is called theA. t erm spread.B. T-bill spread.C. L IBOR spread.D. T ED spread.51.Mortgage-backed securities were created when ________ began buying mortgage loans fromoriginators and bundling them into large pools that could be traded like any other financial asset.A. G NMAB. F NMAC. F HLMCD. F NMA and FHLMCE. G NMA and FNMA52.The sale of a mortgage portfolio by setting up mortgage pass-through securities is anexample ofA. c redit enhancement.B. s ecuritization.C. u nbundling.D. d erivatives.53.Which of the following is true about mortgage-backed securities?I) They aggregate individual home mortgages into homogeneous pools.II) The purchaser receives monthly interest and principal payments received from payments made on the pool.III) The banks that originated the mortgages maintain ownership of them.IV) The banks that originated the mortgages continue to service them.A. I I, III, and IVB. I, II, and IVC. I I and IVD. I, III, and IVE. I, II, III, and IV54.________ were designed to concentrate the credit risk of a bundle of loans on one class ofinvestor, leaving the other investors in the pool relatively protected from that risk.A. S tocksB. B ondsC. D erivativesD. C ollateralized debt obligationsE. A ll of the options精选文库55.________ are in essence an insurance contract against the default of one or more borrowers.A. C redit default swapsB. C MOsC. E TFsD. C ollateralized debt obligationsE. A ll of the optionsShort Answer Questions56.Discuss the agency problem in detail.精选文库57.Discuss the similarities and differences between real and financial assets.58.Discuss securitization as it relates to the field of investments.Chapter 01 The Investment Environment Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1.The material wealth of a society is a function ofA.all financial assets.B.all real assets.C.all financial and real assets.D.all physical assets.The material wealth of a society is a function of all real assets.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets2._______ are real assets.ndB.MachinesC.Stocks and bondsD.Knowledgend, machines, and knowledgeLand, machines and knowledge are real assets; stocks and bonds are financial assets.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets3.The means by which individuals hold their claims on real assets in a well-developedeconomy areA.investment assets.B.depository assets.C.derivative assets.D.financial assets.E.exchange-driven assets.Financial assets allocate the wealth of the economy. Example: it is easier for an individual to own shares of an auto company than to own an auto company directly.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets4._______ are financial assets.A.BondsB.MachinesC.StocksD.Bonds and stocksE.Bonds, machines, and stocksMachines are real assets; stocks and bonds are financial assets.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets5._________ financial asset(s).A.Buildings arend is aC.Derivatives areD.U.S. agency bonds areE.Derivatives and U.S. agency bonds areBuildings and land are real assets.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets6.Financial assetsA.directly contribute to the country's productive capacity.B.indirectly contribute to the country's productive capacity.C.contribute to the country's productive capacity both directly and indirectly.D.do not contribute to the country's productive capacity either directly or indirectly.E.are of no value to anyone.Financial assets indirectly contribute to the country's productive capacity because these assets permit individuals to invest in firms and governments. This in turn allows firms and governments to increase productive capacity.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: UnderstandDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets7.In 2012, ____________ was the most significant real asset of U.S. households in terms oftotal value.A.consumer durablesB.automobilesC.real estateD.mutual fund sharesE.bank loansSee Table 1.1.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: Basic8.In 2012, ____________ was the least significant financial asset of U.S. households in termsof total value.A.real estateB.mutual fund sharesC.debt securitiesD.life insurance reservesE.pension reservesSee Table 1.1.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets9.In 2012, ____________ was the most significant financial asset of U.S. households in termsof total value.A.real estateB.mutual fund sharesC.debt securitiesD.life insurance reservesE.pension reservesSee Table 1.1.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberTopic: Assets10.In 2012, ____________ was the most significant asset of U.S. households in terms of totalvalue.A.real estateB.mutual fund sharesC.debt securitiesD.life insurance reservesE.pension reservesSee Table 1.1.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets11.In 2012, ____________ was the most significant liability of U.S. households in terms of totalvalue.A.credit cardsB.mortgagesC.bank loansD.student loansE.other debtSee Table 1.1.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Assets12.Which of the following financial assets made up the greatest proportion of the financialassets held by U.S. households?A.Pension reservesB.Life insurance reservesC.Mutual fund sharesD.Debt securitiesE.Personal trustsSee Table 1.1.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Assets13.In 2012 _______ of the assets of U.S. households were financial assets as opposed totangible assets.A.20.4%B.34.2%C.68.8%D.71.7%E.82.5%See Table 1.1.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Assets14.The largest component of domestic net worth in 2012 wasA.nonresidential real estate.B.residential real estate.C.inventories.D.consumer durables.E.equipment and software.See Table 1.2.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Assets精选文库15.The smallest component of domestic net worth in 2012 wasA.nonresidential real estate.B.residential real estate.C.inventories.D.consumer durables.E.equipment and software.See Table 1.2.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Assets16.The national net worth of the U.S. in 2012 wasA.$15.411 trillion.B.$26.431 trillion.C.$42.669 trillion.D.$48.616 trillion.E.$70.983 trillion.See Table 1.2.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Assets17. A fixed-income security paysA. a fixed level of income for the life of the owner.B. a fixed stream of income or a stream of income that is determined according to aspecified formula for the life of the security.C. a variable level of income for owners on a fixed income.D. a fixed or variable income stream at the option of the owner.A fixed-income security pays a fixed stream of income or a stream of income that isdetermined according to a specified formula for the life of the security.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Asset Types18. A debt security paysA. a fixed level of income for the life of the owner.B. a variable level of income for owners on a fixed income.C. a fixed or variable income stream at the option of the owner.D. a fixed stream of income or a stream of income that is determined according to aspecified formula for the life of the security.A debt security pays a fixed stream of income or a stream of income that is determinedaccording to a specified formula for the life of the security.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Asset Types19.Money market securitiesA.are short term.B.are highly marketable.C.are generally very low risk.D.are highly marketable and are generally very low risk.E.All of the optionsAll answers are correct.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Asset Types20.An example of a derivative security isA. a common share of Microsoft.B. a call option on Intel stock.C. a commodity futures contract.D. a call option on Intel stock and a commodity futures contract.E. a common share of Microsoft and a call option on Intel stock.The values of a call option on Intel stock and a commodity futures contract are derivedfrom that of an underlying asset; the value of a common share of Microsoft is based on the value of the firm only.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Asset Types21.The value of a derivative securityA.depends on the value of the related security.B.is unable to be calculated.C.is unrelated to the value of the related security.D.has been enhanced due to the recent misuse and negative publicity regarding theseinstruments.E.is worthless today.Of the factors cited above, only the value of the related security affects the value of thederivative and/or is a true statement.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: UnderstandDifficulty: BasicTopic: Asset Types22.Although derivatives can be used as speculative instruments, businesses most often usethem toA.attract customers.B.appease stockholders.C.offset debt.D.hedge risks.E.enhance their balance sheets.Firms may use forward contracts and futures to protect against currency fluctuations orchanges in commodity prices. Interest-rate options help companies control financing costs.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Asset Types23.Financial assets permit all of the following exceptA.consumption timing.B.allocation of risk.C.separation of ownership and control.D.elimination of risk.Financial assets do not allow risk to be eliminated. However, they do permit allocation of risk, consumption timing, and separation of ownership and control.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Assets24.The ____________ refers to the potential conflict between management and shareholders.A.agency problemB.diversification problemC.liquidity problemD.solvency problemE.regulatory problemThe agency problem describes potential conflict between management and shareholders.The other problems are those of firm management only.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Financial Management25. A disadvantage of using stock options to compensate managers is thatA.it encourages managers to undertake projects that will increase stock price.B.it encourages managers to engage in empire building.C.it can create an incentive for managers to manipulate information to prop up a stockprice temporarily, giving them a chance to cash out before the price returns to a levelreflective of the firm's true prospects.D.All of the optionsEncouraging managers to undertake projects that will increase stock price is a desiredcharacteristic. Encouraging managers to engage in empire building is not necessarily agood or bad thing in and of itself. Creating an incentive for managers to manipulateinformation to prop up a stock price temporarily creates an agency problem.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: UnderstandDifficulty: BasicTopic: Financial Management26.Which of the following are mechanisms that have evolved to mitigate potential agencyproblems?I) Using the firm's stock options for compensationII) Hiring bickering family members as corporate spiesIII) Boards of directors forcing out underperforming managementIV) Security analysts monitoring the firm closelyV) Takeover threatsA.II and VB.I, III, and IVC.I, III, IV, and VD.III, IV, and VE.I, III, and VAll the options except hiring bickering family members as corporate spies have been used to try to limit agency problems.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: UnderstandDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Financial Management27.Corporate shareholders are best protected from incompetent management decisions byA.the ability to engage in proxy fights.B.management's control of pecuniary rewards.C.the ability to call shareholder meetings.D.the threat of takeover by other firms.E.one-share/one-vote election rules.Proxy fights are expensive and seldom successful, and management may often control the board or own significant shares. It is the threat of takeover of underperforming firms that has the strongest ability to keep management on their toes.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: UnderstandDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Financial Management28.Theoretically, takeovers should result inA.improved management.B.increased stock price.C.increased benefits to existing management of taken-over firm.D.improved management and increased stock price.E.All of the optionsTheoretically, when firms are taken over, better managers come in and thus increase the price of the stock; existing management often must either leave the firm, be demoted, or suffer a loss of existing benefits.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: BasicTopic: Financial Management29.During the period between 2000 and 2002, a large number of scandals were uncovered.Most of these scandals were related toI) manipulation of financial data to misrepresent the actual condition of the firm.II) misleading and overly optimistic research reports produced by analysts.III) allocating IPOs to executives as a quid pro quo for personal favors.IV) greenmail.A.II, III, and IVB.I, II, and IVC.II and IVD.I, III, and IVE.I, II, and IIII, II, and III are all mentioned as causes of recent scandals.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: UnderstandDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Financial Management30.The Sarbanes-Oxley ActA.requires corporations to have more independent directors.B.requires the firm's CFO to personally vouch for the firm's accounting statements.C.prohibits auditing firms from providing other services to clients.D.requires corporations to have more independent directors and requires the firm's CFOto personally vouch for the firm's accounting statements.E.All of the optionsThe Sarbanes-Oxley Act does all of the above.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Regulation31.Asset allocation refers toA.choosing which securities to hold based on their valuation.B.investing only in "safe" securities.C.the allocation of assets into broad asset classes.D.bottom-up analysis.Asset allocation refers to the allocation of assets into broad asset classes.AACSB: AnalyticBlooms: RememberDifficulty: IntermediateTopic: Financial Management。
博迪投资学第10版笔记和课后习题详解
博迪《投资学》（第10版）笔记和课后习题详解益星学习网提供全套资料第一部分复习笔记1实物资产与金融资产（1）概念实物资产指经济活动中所创造的用于生产商品和提供服务的资产。
实物资产包括：土地、建筑物、知识、机械设备以及劳动力。
实物资产和“人力”资产是构成整个社会的产出和消费的主要内容。
金融资产是对实物资产所创造的利润或政府的收入的要求权。
金融资产主要指股票或债券等有价证券。
金融资产是投资者财富的一部分，但不是社会财富的组成部分。
（2）两种资产的区分①实物资产能够创造财富和收入，而金融资产却只是收入或财富在投资者之间配置的一种手段。
②实物资产通常只在资产负债表的资产一侧出现，而金融资产却可以作为资产或负债在资产负债表的两侧都出现。
对企业的金融要求权是一种资产，但是，企业发行的这种金融要求权则是企业的负债。
③金融资产的产生和消除一般要通过一定的商务过程。
而实物资产只能通过偶然事故或逐渐磨损来消除。
（3）金融资产分类通常将金融资产分为三类：固定收益型、权益型和衍生金融资产，具体如下：①固定收益型金融资产，或称为债券，承诺支付一系列固定的，或按某一特定公式计算的现金流。
②公司的普通股或权益型金融资产代表了公司所有权份额。
股权所有者不再享有任何特定的收益，但在公司选择分红时可以获得公司派发的股息，同时他们还拥有与持股比例相应的公司实物资产的所有权。
③衍生证券（如期权和期货合约）的收益取决于其他资产（如股票和债券）的价格。
2金融市场（1）金融市场与经济①金融市场的概念金融市场是指以金融资产为交易对象而形成的供求关系及其机制的总和。
它包括三层含义：一是它是金融资产进行交易的一个有形和无形的场所；二是它反映了金融资产的供应者和需求者之间所形成的供求关系；三是它包含了金融资产交易过程中所产生的运行机制。
②金融市场的作用a．金融市场在资本配置方面起着关键作用，股票市场上的投资者最终决定了公司的存亡。
b．金融市场允许人们通过金融资产储蓄财富，使人们的消费与收入在时间上分离。
投资学10版习题答案
CHAPTER 14: BOND PRICES AND YIELDSPROBLEM SETS1. a. Catastrophe bond—A bond that allows the issuer to transfer“catastrophe risk” from the firm to the capital markets. Investors inthese bonds receive a compensation for taking on the risk in the form ofhigher coupon rates. In the event of a catastrophe, the bondholders willreceive only part or perhaps none of the principal payment due to themat maturity. Disaster can be defined by total insured losses or by criteriasuch as wind speed in a hurricane or Richter level in an earthquake.b. Eurobond—A bond that is denominated in one currency, usually thatof the issuer, but sold in other national markets.c. Zero-coupon bond—A bond that makes no coupon payments. Investorsreceive par value at the maturity date but receive no interest paymentsuntil then. These bonds are issued at prices below par value, and theinvestor’s return comes from the difference between issue price and thepayment of par value at maturity (capital gain).d. Samurai bond—Yen-dominated bonds sold in Japan by non-Japaneseissuers.e. Junk bond—A bond with a low credit rating due to its high default risk;also known as high-yield bonds.f. Convertible bond—A bond that gives the bondholders an option toexchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock ofthe firm.g. Serial bonds—Bonds issued with staggered maturity dates. As bondsmature sequentially, the principal repayment burden for the firm isspread over time.h. Equipment obligation bond—A collateralized bond for which thecollateral is equipment owned by the firm. If the firm defaults on thebond, the bondholders would receive the equipment.i. Original issue discount bond—A bond issued at a discount to the facevalue.j. Indexed bond— A bond that makes payments that are tied to ageneral price index or the price of a particular commodity.k. Callable bond—A bond that gives the issuer the option to repurchase the bond at a specified call price before the maturity date.l. Puttable bond —A bond that gives the bondholder the option to sell back the bond at a specified put price before the maturity date.2. The bond callable at 105 should sell at a lower price because the call provision is more valuable to the firm. Therefore, its yield to maturity should be higher.3.Zero coupon bonds provide no coupons to be reinvested. Therefore, the investor's proceeds from the bond are independent of the rate at which coupons could be reinvested (if they were paid). There is no reinvestment rate uncertainty with zeros.4.A bond’s coupon interest payments and principal repayment are not affected by changes in market rates. Consequently, if market ratesincrease, bond investors in the secondary markets are not willing to pay as much for a claim on a gi ven bond’s fixed interest and principalpayments as they would if market rates were lower. This relationship is apparent from the inverse relationship between interest rates and present value. An increase in the discount rate (i.e., the market rate. decreases the present value of the future cash flows. 5. Annual coupon rate: 4.80% $48 Coupon paymentsCurrent yield:$48 4.95%$970⎛⎫= ⎪⎝⎭6. a.Effective annual rate for 3-month T-bill:%0.10100.0102412.11645,97000,10044==-=-⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛b. Effective annual interest rate for coupon bond paying 5% semiannually:(1.05.2—1 = 0.1025 or 10.25%Therefore the coupon bond has the higher effective annual interest rate. 7.The effective annual yield on the semiannual coupon bonds is 8.16%. If the annual coupon bonds are to sell at par they must offer the same yield, which requires an annual coupon rate of 8.16%.8. The bond price will be lower. As time passes, the bond price, which isnow above par value, will approach par.9. Yield to maturity: Using a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 3; PV = -953.10; FV = 1000; PMT = 80; COMP iThis results in: YTM = 9.88%Realized compound yield: First, find the future value (FV. of reinvestedcoupons and principal:FV = ($80 * 1.10 *1.12. + ($80 * 1.12. + $1,080 = $1,268.16Then find the rate (y realized . that makes the FV of the purchase price equal to $1,268.16:$953.10 ⨯ (1 + y realized .3 = $1,268.16 ⇒y realized = 9.99% or approximately 10% Using a financial calculator, enter the following: N = 3; PV = -953.10; FV =1,268.16; PMT = 0; COMP I. Answer is 9.99%.10.a. Zero coupon 8%10% couponcouponCurrent prices $463.19 $1,000.00 $1,134.20b. Price 1 year from now $500.25 $1,000.00 $1,124.94Price increase $ 37.06 $ 0.00 − $ 9.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 37.06 $ 80.00 $ 90.74Pretax rate of return 8.00% 8.00% 8.00%Taxes* $ 11.12 $ 24.00 $ 28.15After-tax income $ 25.94 $ 56.00 $ 62.59After-tax rate of return 5.60% 5.60% 5.52%c. Price 1 year from now $543.93 $1,065.15 $1,195.46Price increase $ 80.74 $ 65.15 $ 61.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 80.74 $145.15 $161.26Pretax rate of return 17.43% 14.52% 14.22%Taxes†$ 19.86 $ 37.03 $ 42.25After-tax income $ 60.88 $108.12 $119.01After-tax rate of return 13.14% 10.81% 10.49%* In computing taxes, we assume that the 10% coupon bond was issued at par and that the decrease in price when the bond is sold at year-end is treated as a capital loss and therefore is not treated as an offset to ordinary income.† In computing taxes for the zero coupon bond, $37.06 is taxed as ordinary income (see part (b); the remainder of the price increase is taxed as a capital gain.11. a. On a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 40; FV = 1000; PV = –950; PMT = 40You will find that the yield to maturity on a semiannual basis is 4.26%.This implies a bond equivalent yield to maturity equal to: 4.26% * 2 =8.52%Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0426)2– 1 = 0.0870 = 8.70%b. Since the bond is selling at par, the yield to maturity on a semiannualbasis is the same as the semiannual coupon rate, i.e., 4%. The bondequivalent yield to maturity is 8%.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.04)2– 1 = 0.0816 = 8.16%c. Keeping other inputs unchanged but setting PV = –1050, we find abond equivalent yield to maturity of 7.52%, or 3.76% on a semiannualbasis.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0376)2– 1 = 0.0766 = 7.66%12. Since the bond payments are now made annually instead of semiannually,the bond equivalent yield to maturity is the same as the effective annual yield to maturity. [On a financial calculator, n = 20; FV = 1000; PV = –price; PMT = 80]The resulting yields for the three bonds are:Bond Price Bond Equivalent Yield= Effective Annual Yield$950 8.53%1,000 8.001,050 7.51The yields computed in this case are lower than the yields calculatedwith semiannual payments. All else equal, bonds with annual payments are less attractive to investors because more time elapses beforepayments are received. If the bond price is the same with annualpayments, then the bond's yield to maturity is lower.13.Price Maturity(years.BondEquivalentYTM$400.00 20.00 4.688% 500.00 20.00 3.526 500.00 10.00 7.177385.54 10.00 10.000 463.19 10.00 8.000 400.00 11.91 8.00014. a. The bond pays $50 every 6 months. The current price is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 6)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 6)] = $1,052.42 Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 6. Solve for PV = $1,052.42.If the market interest rate remains 4% per half year, price six months from now is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 5)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 5)] = $1,044.52Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 5. Solve for PV = $1,044.52.b. Rate of return $50($1,044.52$1,052.42)$50$7.904.0%$1,052.42$1,052.42+--===15.The reported bond price is: $1,001.250However, 15 days have passed since the last semiannual coupon was paid, so:Accrued interest = $35 * (15/182) = $2.885The invoice price is the reported price plus accrued interest: $1,004.1416. If the yield to maturity is greater than the current yield, then the bond offers the prospect of price appreciation as it approaches its maturity date. Therefore, the bond must be selling below par value.17. The coupon rate is less than 9%. If coupon divided by price equals 9%, and price is less than par, then price divided by par is less than 9%.18.Time Inflation in YearJust EndedPar Value Coupon Payment Principal Repayment 0 $1,000.001 2% 1,020.00 $40.80 $ 0.002 3% $1,050.60 $42.02 $ 0.00 31%$1,061.11$42.44$1,061.11The nominal rate of return and real rate of return on the bond in each year are computed as follows:Nominal rate of return = interest + price appreciationinitial priceReal rate of return = 1 + nominal return1 + inflation - 1Second YearThird YearNominal return 071196.0020,1$60.30$02.42$=+050400.060.050,1$51.10$44.42$=+Real return%0.4040.0103.1071196.1==- %0.4040.0101.1050400.1==- The real rate of return in each year is precisely the 4% real yield on the bond.19.The price schedule is as follows: Year Remaining Maturity (T).Constant Yield Value $1,000/(1.08)TImputed Interest (increase inconstant yield value)0 (now) 20 years$214.551 19 231.71 $17.162 18 250.25 18.54 19 1 925.93 201,000.0074.0720.The bond is issued at a price of $800. Therefore, its yield to maturity is: 6.8245%Therefore, using the constant yield method, we find that the price in one year (when maturity falls to 9 years) will be (at an unchanged yield. $814.60, representing an increase of $14.60. Total taxable income is: $40.00 + $14.60 = $54.6021. a. The bond sells for $1,124.72 based on the 3.5% yield to maturity .[n = 60; i = 3.5; FV = 1000; PMT = 40]Therefore, yield to call is 3.368% semiannually, 6.736% annually. [n = 10 semiannual periods; PV = –1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]b. If the call price were $1,050, we would set FV = 1,050 and redo part (a) to find that yield to call is 2.976% semiannually, 5.952% annually. With a lower call price, the yield to call is lower.c. Yield to call is 3.031% semiannually, 6.062% annually. [n = 4; PV = −1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]22. The stated yield to maturity, based on promised payments, equals 16.075%.[n = 10; PV = –900; FV = 1000; PMT = 140]Based on expected reduced coupon payments of $70 annually, theexpected yield to maturity is 8.526%.23. The bond is selling at par value. Its yield to maturity equals the couponrate, 10%. If the first-year coupon is reinvested at an interest rate of rpercent, then total proceeds at the end of the second year will be: [$100 *(1 + r)] + $1,100Therefore, realized compound yield to maturity is a function of r, as shown in the following table:8% $1,208 1208/1000 – 1 = 0.0991 = 9.91%10% $1,210 1210/1000 – 1 = 0.1000 = 10.00%12% $1,212 1212/1000 – 1 = 0.1009 = 10.09%24. April 15 is midway through the semiannual coupon period. Therefore,the invoice price will be higher than the stated ask price by an amountequal to one-half of the semiannual coupon. The ask price is 101.25percent of par, so the invoice price is:$1,012.50 + (½*$50) = $1,037.5025. Factors that might make the ABC debt more attractive to investors,therefore justifying a lower coupon rate and yield to maturity, are:i. The ABC debt is a larger issue and therefore may sell with greaterliquidity.ii. An option to extend the term from 10 years to 20 years is favorable ifinterest rates 10 years from now are lower than today’s interest rates. Incontrast, if interest rates increase, the investor can present the bond forpayment and reinvest the money for a higher return.iii. In the event of trouble, the ABC debt is a more senior claim. It hasmore underlying security in the form of a first claim against realproperty.iv. The call feature on the XYZ bonds makes the ABC bonds relativelymore attractive since ABC bonds cannot be called from the investor.v. The XYZ bond has a sinking fund requiring XYZ to retire part of theissue each year. Since most sinking funds give the firm the option toretire this amount at the lower of par or market value, the sinking fundcan be detrimental for bondholders.26. A. If an investor believes the firm’s credit prospects are poor in the nearterm and wishes to capitalize on this, the investor should buy a creditdefault swap. Although a short sale of a bond could accomplish the same objective, liquidity is often greater in the swap market than it is in theunderlying cash market. The investor could pick a swap with a maturitysimilar to the expected time horizon of the credit risk. By buying theswap, the investor would receive compensation if the bond experiencesan increase in credit risk.27. a. When credit risk increases, credit default swaps increase in valuebecause the protection they provide is more valuable. Credit defaultswaps do not provide protection against interest rate risk however.28. a. An increase in the firm’s times interest-earned ratio decreases thedefault risk of the firm→increases the bond’s price → decreases the YTM.b. An increase in the issuing firm’s debt-equity ratio increases thedefault risk of the firm → decreases the bond’s price → increases YTM.c. An increase in the issuing firm’s quick ratio increases short-runliquidity, → implying a decrease in default risk of the firm → increasesthe bond’s price → decreases YTM.29. a. The floating rate note pays a coupon that adjusts to market levels.Therefore, it will not experience dramatic price changes as marketyields fluctuate. The fixed rate note will therefore have a greater pricerange.b. Floating rate notes may not sell at par for any of several reasons:(i) The yield spread between one-year Treasury bills and othermoney market instruments of comparable maturity could be wider(or narrower. than when the bond was issued.(ii) The credit standing of the firm may have eroded (or improved.relative to Treasury securities, which have no credit risk.Therefore, the 2% premium would become insufficient to sustainthe issue at par.(iii) The coupon increases are implemented with a lag, i.e., onceevery year. During a period of changing interest rates, even thisbrief lag will be reflected in the price of the security.c. The risk of call is low. Because the bond will almost surely not sell for much above par value (given its adjustable coupon rate), it is unlikely that the bond will ever be called.d. The fixed-rate note currently sells at only 88% of the call price, so that yield to maturity is greater than the coupon rate. Call risk iscurrently low, since yields would need to fall substantially for the firm to use its option to call the bond.e. The 9% coupon notes currently have a remaining maturity of 15 years and sell at a yield to maturity of 9.9%. This is the coupon rate thatwould be needed for a newly issued 15-year maturity bond to sell at par.f. Because the floating rate note pays a variable stream of interestpayments to maturity, the effective maturity for comparative purposes with other debt securities is closer to the next coupon reset date than the final maturity date. Therefore, yield-to-maturity is anindeterminable calculation for a floating rate note, with “yield -to-recoupon date” a more meaningful measure of return.30. a. The yield to maturity on the par bond equals its coupon rate, 8.75%.All else equal, the 4% coupon bond would be more attractive because its coupon rate is far below current market yields, and its price is far below the call price. Therefore, if yields fall, capital gains on the bond will not be limited by the call price. In contrast, the 8¾% coupon bond canincrease in value to at most $1,050, offering a maximum possible gain of only 0.5%. The disadvantage of the 8¾% coupon bond, in terms ofvulnerability to being called, shows up in its higher promised yield to maturity.b. If an investor expects yields to fall substantially, the 4% bond offers a greater expected return.c. Implicit call protection is offered in the sense that any likely fallin yields would not be nearly enough to make the firm considercalling the bond. In this sense, the call feature is almost irrelevant.31. a. Initial price P 0 = $705.46 [n = 20; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 8]Next year's price P 1 = $793.29 [n = 19; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 7] HPR %54.191954.046.705$)46.705$29.793($50$==-+=b. Using OID tax rules, the cost basis and imputed interest under theconstant yield method are obtained by discounting bond payments at the original 8% yield and simply reducing maturity by one year at a time: Constant yield prices (compare these to actual prices to compute capital gains.: P 0 = $705.46P 1 = $711.89 ⇒ implicit interest over first year = $6.43P 2 = $718.84 ⇒ implicit interest over second year = $6.95Tax on explicit interest plus implicit interest in first year =0.40*($50 + $6.43) = $22.57Capital gain in first year = Actual price at 7% YTM —constant yield price =$793.29—$711.89 = $81.40Tax on capital gain = 0.30*$81.40 = $24.42Total taxes = $22.57 + $24.42 = $46.99c. After tax HPR =%88.121288.046.705$99.46$)46.705$29.793($50$==--+d. Value of bond after two years = $798.82 [using n = 18; i = 7%; PMT = $50; FV = $1,000]Reinvested income from the coupon interest payments = $50*1.03 + $50 = $101.50Total funds after two years = $798.82 + $101.50 = $900.32Therefore, the investment of $705.46 grows to $900.32 in two years:$705.46 (1 + r )2 = $900.32 ⇒ r = 0.1297 = 12.97%e. Coupon interest received in first year: $50.00Less: tax on coupon interest 40%: – 20.00Less: tax on imputed interest (0.40*$6.43): – 2.57Net cash flow in first year: $27.43The year-1 cash flow can be invested at an after-tax rate of:3% × (1 – 0.40) = 1.8%By year 2, this investment will grow to: $27.43 × 1.018 = $27.92In two years, sell the bond for: $798.82 [n = 18; i = 7%%; PMT =$50; FV = $1,000]Less: tax on imputed interest in second year:– 2.78 [0.40 × $6.95] Add: after-tax coupon interest received in second year: + 30.00 [$50 × (1 – 0.40)]Less: Capital gains tax on(sales price – constant yield value): – 23.99 [0.30 × (798.82 – 718.84)] Add: CF from first year's coupon (reinvested):+ 27.92 [from above]Total $829.97$705.46 (1 + r)2 = $829.97 r = 0.0847 = 8.47%CFA PROBLEMS1. a. A sinking fund provision requires the early redemption of a bond issue.The provision may be for a specific number of bonds or a percentage ofthe bond issue over a specified time period. The sinking fund can retireall or a portion of an issue over the life of the issue.b. (i) Compared to a bond without a sinking fund, the sinking fundreduces the average life of the overall issue because some of thebonds are retired prior to the stated maturity.(ii) The company will make the same total principal payments overthe life of the issue, although the timing of these payments will beaffected. The total interest payments associated with the issue willbe reduced given the early redemption of principal.c. From the investor’s point of view, the key reason for demanding asinking fund is to reduce credit risk. Default risk is reduced by theorderly retirement of the issue.2. a. (i) Current yield = Coupon/Price = $70/$960 = 0.0729 = 7.29%(ii) YTM = 3.993% semiannually, or 7.986% annual bond equivalent yield.On a financial calculator, enter: n = 10; PV = –960; FV = 1000; PMT = 35Compute the interest rate.(iii) Realized compound yield is 4.166% (semiannually), or 8.332% annualbond equivalent yield. To obtain this value, first find the future value(FV) of reinvested coupons and principal. There will be six payments of$35 each, reinvested semiannually at 3% per period. On a financialcalculator, enter:PV = 0; PMT = 35; n = 6; i = 3%. Compute: FV = 226.39Three years from now, the bond will be selling at the par value of $1,000because the yield to maturity is forecast to equal the coupon rate.Therefore, total proceeds in three years will be: $226.39 + $1,000 =$1,226.39Then find the rate (y realized. that makes the FV of the purchaseprice equal to $1,226.39:$960 × (1 + y realized.6 = $1,226.39 y realized = 4.166% (semiannual.Alternatively, PV = −$960; FV = $1,226.39; N = 6; PMT = $0. Solve for I =4.16%.b. Shortcomings of each measure:(i) Current yield does not account for capital gains or losses on bondsbought at prices other than par value. It also does not account forreinvestment income on coupon payments.(ii) Yield to maturity assumes the bond is held until maturity and that all coupon income can be reinvested at a rate equal to the yield to maturity.(iii) Realized compound yield is affected by the forecast ofreinvestment rates, holding period, and yield of the bond at the endof the investor's holding period.3. a. The maturity of each bond is 10 years, and we assume that couponsare paid semiannually. Since both bonds are selling at par value, thecurrent yield for each bond is equal to its coupon rate.If the yield declines by 1% to 5% (2.5% semiannual yield., the Sentinalbond will increase in value to $107.79 [n=20; i = 2.5%; FV = 100; PMT = 3].The price of the Colina bond will increase, but only to the call price of102. The present value of scheduled payments is greater than 102, butthe call price puts a ceiling on the actual bond price.b. If rates are expected to fall, the Sentinal bond is more attractive:since it is not subject to call, its potential capital gains are greater.If rates are expected to rise, Colina is a relatively better investment. Itshigher coupon (which presumably is compensation to investors for thecall feature of the bond. will provide a higher rate of return than theSentinal bond.c. An increase in the volatility of rates will increase the value of thefirm’s option to call back the Colina bond. If rates go down, the firm can call the bond, which puts a cap on possible capital gains. So, greatervolatility makes the option to call back the bond more valuable to theissuer. This makes the bond less attractive to the investor.4. Market conversion value = Value if converted into stock = 20.83 × $28 =$583.24Conversion premium = Bond price – Market conversion value= $775.00 – $583.24 = $191.765. a. The call feature requires the firm to offer a higher coupon (or higherpromised yield to maturity) on the bond in order to compensate theinvestor for the firm's option to call back the bond at a specified priceif interest rate falls sufficiently. Investors are willing to grant thisvaluable option to the issuer, but only for a price that reflects thepossibility that the bond will be called. That price is the higherpromised yield at which they are willing to buy the bond.b. The call feature reduces the expected life of the bond. If interestrates fall substantially so that the likelihood of a call increases,investors will treat the bond as if it will "mature" and be paid off at thecall date, not at the stated maturity date. On the other hand, if ratesrise, the bond must be paid off at the maturity date, not later. Thisasymmetry means that the expected life of the bond is less than thestated maturity.c. The advantage of a callable bond is the higher coupon (and higherpromised yield to maturity) when the bond is issued. If the bond is never called, then an investor earns a higher realized compound yield on acallable bond issued at par than a noncallable bond issued at par on the same date. The disadvantage of the callable bond is the risk of call. Ifrates fall and the bond is called, then the investor receives the call price and then has to reinvest the proceeds at interest rates that are lowerthan the yield to maturity at which the bond originally was issued. Inthis event, the firm's savings in interest payments is the investor's loss.6. a. (iii)b. (iii) The yield to maturity on the callable bond must compensatethe investor for the risk of call.Choice (i) is wrong because, although the owner of a callablebond receives a premium plus the principal in the event of a call,the interest rate at which he can reinvest will be low. The lowinterest rate that makes it profitable for the issuer to call thebond also makes it a bad deal f or the bond’s holder.Choice (ii) is wrong because a bond is more apt to be called wheninterest rates are low. Only if rates are low will there be aninterest saving for the issuer.c. (iii)d. (ii)。
投资学第10版课后习题答案Chap001
CHAPTER 1: THE INVESTMENT ENVIRONMENT PROBLEM SETS1. While it is ultimately true that real assets determine the material well-being of aneconomy, financial innovation in the form of bundling and unbundling securitiescreates opportunities for investors to form more efficient portfolios. Bothinstitutional and individual investors can benefit when financial engineering creates new products that allow them to manage their portfolios of financial assets moreefficiently. Bundling and unbundling create financial products with new properties and sensitivities to various sources of risk that allows investors to reduce volatility by hedging particular sources of risk more efficiently.2.Securitization requires access to a large number of potential investors. To attractthese investors, the capital market needs:1. a safe system of business laws and low probability of confiscatorytaxation/regulation;2. a well-developed investment banking industry;3. a well-developed system of brokerage and financial transactions; and4.well-developed media, particularly financial reporting.These characteristics are found in (indeed make for) a well-developed financialmarket.3. Securitization leads to disintermediation; that is, securitization provides a meansfor market participants to bypass intermediaries. For example, mortgage-backedsecurities channel funds to the housing market without requiring that banks orthrift institutions make loans from their own portfolios. Securitization works welland can benefit many, but only if the market for these securities is highly liquid.As securitization progresses, however, and financial intermediaries loseopportunities, they must increase other revenue-generating activities such asproviding short-term liquidity to consumers and small business and financialservices.4. The existence of efficient capital markets and the liquid trading of financial assetsmake it easy for large firms to raise the capital needed to finance their investments in real assets. If Ford, for example, could not issue stocks or bonds to the generalpublic, it would have a far more difficult time raising capital. Contraction of thesupply of financial assets would make financing more difficult, thereby increasing the cost of capital. A higher cost of capital results in less investment and lowerreal growth.5. Even if the firm does not need to issue stock in any particular year, the stock marketis still important to the financial manager. The stock price provides importantinformation about how the market values the firm's investment projects. For example, if the stock price rises considerably, managers might conclude that the marketbelieves the firm's future prospects are bright. This might be a useful signal to thefirm to proceed with an investment such as an expansion of the firm's business.In addition, shares that can be traded in the secondary market are more attractive toinitial investors since they know that they will be able to sell their shares. This inturn makes investors more willing to buy shares in a primary offering and thusimproves the terms on which firms can raise money in the equity market.Remember that stock exchanges like those in New York, London, and Paris are theheart of capitalism, in which firms can raise capital quickly in primary marketsbecause investors know there are liquid secondary markets.6. a. No. The increase in price did not add to the productive capacity of the economy.b. Yes, the value of the equity held in these assets has increased.c. Future homeowners as a whole are worse off, since mortgage liabilities havealso increased. In addition, this housing price bubble will eventually burst andsociety as a whole (and most likely taxpayers) will suffer the damage.7. a. The bank loan is a financial liability for Lanni, and a financial asset for the bank.The cash Lanni receives is a financial asset. The new financial asset created isLanni's promissory note to repay the loan.b. Lanni transfers financial assets (cash) to the software developers. In return,Lanni receives the completed software package, which is a real asset. Nofinancial assets are created or destroyed; cash is simply transferred from one partyto another.c. Lanni exchanges the real asset (the software) for a financial asset, which is 1,500shares of Microsoft stock. If Microsoft issues new shares in order to pay Lanni,then this would represent the creation of new financial assets.d. By selling its shares in Microsoft, Lanni exchanges one financial asset (1,500shares of stock) for another ($120,000 in cash). Lanni uses the financial asset of$50,000 in cash to repay the bank and retire its promissory note. The bank mustreturn its financial asset to Lanni. The loan is "destroyed" in the transaction, since it is retired when paid off and no longer exists.8. a.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ EquityCash $ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity50,000 Total $100,000 Total $100,000 Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$100,000 = 0.30b.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ EquitySoftware product* $ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity50,000 Total $100,000 Total $100,000 *Valued at costRatio of real assets to total assets = $100,000/$100,000 = 1.0c.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ EquityMicrosoft shares $120,000 Bank loan $ 50,000Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity100,000Total $150,000 Total $150,000 Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$150,000 = 0.20Conclusion: when the firm starts up and raises working capital, it is characterized bya low ratio of real assets to total assets. When it is in full production, it has a highratio of real assets to total assets. When the project "shuts down" and the firm sells it off for cash, financial assets once again replace real assets.9. For commercial banks, the ratio is: $166.1/$13,926.0 = 0.0119For nonfinancial firms, the ratio is: $15,320/$30,649 = 0.4999The difference should be expected primarily because the bulk of thebusiness of financial institutions is to make loans and the bulk of non-financial corporations is to invest in equipment, manufacturing plants, andproperty. The loans are financial assets for financial institutions, but theinvestments of non-financial corporations are real assets.10. a. Primary-market transaction in which gold certificates are being offered topublic investors for the first time by an underwriting syndicate led by JW KorthCapital.b. The certificates are derivative assets because they represent an investment inphysical gold, but each investor receives a certificate and no gold. Note thatinvestors can convert the certificate into gold during the four-year period.c. Investors who wish to hold gold without the complication, risk, and cost ofphysical storage.11. a. A fixed salary means that compensation is (at least in the short run)independent of the firm's success. This salary structure does not tie the manager’simmediate compensation to the success of the firm, so a manager might not feeltoo compelled to work hard to maximize firm value. However, the managermight view this as the safest compensation structure and therefore value it morehighly.b. A salary that is paid in the form of stock in the firm means that the manager earnsthe most when the shareholders’ wealth is maximized. Five years of vesting helpsalign the interests of the employee with the long-term performance of the firm. Thisstructure is therefore most likely to align the interests of managers and shareholders.If stock compensation is overdone, however, the manager might view it as overlyrisky since the manager’s career is already linked to the firm, and this undiversifiedexposure would be exacerbated with a large stock position in the firm.c. A profit-linked salary creates great incentives for managers to contribute to thefirm’s success. However, a manager whose salary is tied to short-term profits will be risk seeking, especially if these short-term profits determine salary or if thecompensation structure does not bear the full cost of the project’s risks. Shareholders, in contrast, bear the losses as well as the gains on the project and might be lesswilling to assume that risk.12. Even if an individual shareholder could monitor and improve managers’ performanceand thereby increase the value of the firm, the payoff would be small, since theownership share in a large corporation would be very small. For example, if you own $10,000 of Ford stock and can increase the value of the firm by 5%, a very ambitious goal, you benefit by only: 0.05 $10,000 = $500. The cost, both personal andfinancial to an individual investor, is likely to be prohibitive and would typicallyeasily exceed any accrued benefits, in this case $500.In contrast, a bank that has a multimillion-dollar loan outstanding to the firm has a big stake in making sure that the firm can repay the loan. It is clearly worthwhile for thebank to spend considerable resources to monitor the firm.13. Mutual funds accept funds from small investors and invest, on behalf of theseinvestors, in the domestic and international securities markets.Pension funds accept funds and then invest in a wide range of financial securities, on behalf of current and future retirees, thereby channeling funds from one sector of theeconomy to another.Venture capital firms pool the funds of private investors and invest in start-up firms.Banks accept deposits from customers and loan those funds to businesses or use thefunds to buy securities of large corporations.14. Treasury bills serve a purpose for investors who prefer a low-risk investment.The lower average rate of return compared to stocks is the price investors payfor predictability of investment performance and portfolio value.15. With a top-down investing style, you focus on asset allocation or the broadcomposition of the entire portfolio, which is the major determinant of overallperformance. Moreover, top-down management is the natural way to establish aportfolio with a level of risk consistent with your risk tolerance. The disadvantage ofan exclusive emphasis on top-down issues is that you may forfeit the potential highreturns that could result from identifying and concentrating in undervalued securitiesor sectors of the market.With a bottom-up investing style, you try to benefit from identifying undervaluedsecurities. The disadvantage is that investors might tend to overlook the overallcomposition of your portfolio, which may result in a nondiversified portfolio or aportfolio with a risk level inconsistent with the appropriate level of risk tolerance. Inaddition, this technique tends to require more active management, thus generatingmore transaction costs. Finally, the bottom-up analysis may be incorrect, in which case there will be a fruitlessly expended effort and money attempting to beat a simple buy-and-hold strategy.16. You should be skeptical. If the author actually knows how to achieve such returns, onemust question why the author would then be so ready to sell the secret to others.Financial markets are very competitive; one of the implications of this fact is thatriches do not come easily. High expected returns require bearing some risk, andobvious bargains are few and far between. Odds are that the only one getting rich from the book is its author.17. Financial assets provide for a means to acquire real assets as well as an expansionof these real assets. Financial assets provide a measure of liquidity to real assetsand allow for investors to more effectively reduce risk through diversification.18. Allowing traders to share in the profits increases th e traders’ willingness toassume risk. Traders will share in the upside potential directly in the form ofhigher compensation but only in the downside indirectly in the form of potentialjob loss if performance is bad enough. This scenario creates a form of agencyconflict known as moral hazard, in which the owners of the financial institutionshare in both the total profits and losses, while the traders will tend to share more of the gains than the losses.19. Answers may vary, however, students should touch on the following: increasedtransparency, regulations to promote capital adequacy by increasing the frequency of gain or loss settlement, incentives to discourage excessive risk taking, and thepromotion of more accurate and unbiased risk assessment.。
投资学10版习题答案
投资学10版习题答案C H 18(总16页)CHAPTER 18: EQUITY VALUATION MODELSPROBLEM SETS1. Theoretically, dividend discount models can be used to value thestock of rapidly growing companies that do not currently pay dividends; in this scenario, we would be valuing expecteddividends in the relatively more distant future. However, as a practical matter, such estimates of payments to be made in the more distant future are notoriously inaccurate, rendering dividend discount models problematic for valuation of such companies; free cash flow models are more likely to beappropriate. At the other extreme, one would be more likely to choose a dividend discount model to value a mature firm paying a relatively stable dividend.2. It is most important to use multistage dividend discount modelswhen valuing companies with temporarily high growth rates. These companies tend to be companies in the early phases of their life cycles, when they have numerous opportunities for reinvestment, resulting in relatively rapid growth and relatively low dividends (or, in many cases, no dividends at all). As these firms mature,--本页仅作为文档封面，使用时请直接删除即可----内页可以根据需求调整合适字体及大小--attractive investment opportunities are less numerous so that growth rates slow.3. The intrinsic value of a share of stock is the individualinvestor’s assessme nt of the true worth of the stock. The market capitalization rate is the market consensus for the required rate of return for the stock. If the intrinsic value of the stock is equal to its price, then the market capitalization rate is equal to the expected rate of return. On the other hand, if the individual investor believes the stock is underpriced .,intrinsic value > price), then that investor’s expected rate of return is greater than the market capitalization rate.4. First estimate the amount of each of the next two dividends andthe terminal value. The current value is the sum of the present value of these cash flows, discounted at %.5. The required return is 9%. $1.22(1.05)0.05.09,or 9%$32.03k ⨯=+=6. The Gordon DDM uses the dividend for period (t +1) which would be .$1.05$35(0.05)$1.050.050.088%$35k k =-=+==7. The PVGO is $: $3.64$41$0.560.09PVGO =-= 8. a.1$20.160.12,or 12%$50D k g P g g =+=+⇒=b. 10$2$18.180.160.05D P k g ===-- The price falls in response to the more pessimisticdividend forecast. The forecast for current year earnings, however, is unchanged. Therefore, the P/E ratio falls. The lower P/E ratio is evidence of the diminished optimism concerning the firm's growth prospects.9. a. g = ROEb = 16%= 8%D 1 = $2 (1 – b ) = $2 (1 – = $110$1$25.000.120.08D P k g ===--b. P 3 = P 0(1 + g )3 = $253 = $10. a.b. Leading P 0/E 1 = $$ =Trailing P 0/E 0 = $$ =c. 10$3.18$10.60$9.2750.16E PVGO P k =-=-=- The low P/E ratios and negative PVGO are due to a poor ROE (9%) that is less than the market capitalization rate (16%).d. Now, you revise b to 1/3, g to 1/39% = 3%, and D 1 to:E 0 (1 + g ) (2/3)$3(2/3) = $Thus:V 0 = $ – = $1010[()]6% 1.25(14%6%)16%29%6%31(1)(1)$3(1.06)$1.063$1.06$10.600.160.06f m f k r E r rg D E g b D P k g β=+⨯-=+⨯-==⨯==⨯+⨯-=⨯⨯====--V 0 increases because the firm pays out more earnings instead of reinvesting a poor ROE. This information is not yet known to the rest of the market.11. a. 10$8$1600.100.05D P k g ===--b. The dividend payout ratio is 8/12 = 2/3, so the plowbackratio is b = 1/3. The implied value of ROE on future investments is found by solving:g = bROE with g = 5% and b = 1/3 ROE = 15%c. Assuming ROE = k , price is equal to:10$12$1200.10E P k === Therefore, the market is paying $40 per share ($160 – $120) for growth opportunities.12. a. k = D 1/P 0 + gD 1 = $2 = $1 g = b ROE = =Therefore: k = ($1/$10) + = , or 20%b. Since k = ROE, the NPV of future investment opportunities iszero:10$10$100E PVGO P k=-=-= c. Since k = ROE, the stock price would be unaffected bycutting the dividend and investing the additional earnings.13. a. k = r f + β [E (r M ) – r f ] = 8% + (15% – 8%) = %g = b ROE =20% = 12%00(1)$4 1.12$101.820.1640.12D g V k g +⨯===--b. P 1 = V 1 = V 0(1 + g ) = $= $1100$4.48$114.04$100()0.1852,or 18.52%$100D P PE r P -++-===14.Time: 0 1 5 6 E t $ $ $ $ D t $$$$ b g%%%%The year-6 earnings estimate is based on growth rate of × = . a. 65$10.85$180.820.150.09D V k g ===⇒-- 5055$180.82$89.90(1) 1.15V V k ===+b. The price should rise by 15% per year until year 6: because there is no dividend, the entire return must be in capital gains.c. The payout ratio would have no effect on intrinsic valuebecause ROE = k .15. a. The solution is shown in the Excel spreadsheet below:values are $ and $, respectively.16. The solutions derived from Spreadsheet are as follows:Intrinsic Value:FCFF IntrinsicValue:FCFEIntrinsicValue perShare: FCFFIntrinsicValue perShare: FCFEa.100,00075,128b.109,42281,795c.89,69366,01417.Time:0123Dt$$$$g%%%%a. The dividend to be paid at the end of year 3 is the firstinstallment of a dividend stream that will increaseindefinitely at the constant growth rate of 5%. Therefore, wecan use the constant growth model as of the end of year 2 inorder to calculate intrinsic value by adding the present value of the first two dividends plus the present value of the price of the stock at the end of year 2. The expected price 2 years from now is:P 2 = D 3/(k – g ) = $ – = $ The PV of this expected price is $ = $The PV of expected dividends in years 1 and 2 is13.2$20.15625.1$20.125.1$2=+ Thus the current price should be: $ + $ = $b. Expected dividend yield = D 1/P 0 = $$ = , or %c. The expected price one year from now is the PV at that time of P 2 and D 2:P 1 = (D 2 + P 2)/ = ($ + $/ = $ The implied capital gain is(P 1 – P 0)/P 0 = ($ – $/$ = = %The sum of the implied capital gains yield and the expected dividend yield is equal to the market capitalization rate. This is consistent with the DDM.18.Time: 0 1 4 5 E t $ $ $ $ D t$$$$Dividends = 0 for the next four years, so b = (100% plowback ratio). a. 54$10.368$69.120.15D P k === (Since k =ROE, knowing the plowback rate is unnecessary)4044$69.12$39.52(1) 1.15P V k ===+b. Price should increase at a rate of 15% over the next year, so that the HPR will equal k .19. Before-tax cash flow from operations $2,100,000Depreciation 210,000 Taxable Income 1,890,000 Taxes (@ 35%) 661,500 After-tax unleveraged income 1,228,500 After-tax cash flow from operations(After-tax unleveraged income + depreciation) 1,438,500 New investment (20% of cash flow from operations) 420,000 Free cash flow(After-tax cash flow from operations – new investment) $1,018,500The value of the firm ., debt plus equity) is:000,550,14$05.012.0500,018,1$10=-=-=g k C V Since the value of the debt is $4 million, the value of the equity is $10,550,000.20. a. g = ROEb = 20% = 10%010(1)$0.50 1.10$110.150.10D g D P k g k g +⨯====---b. Time EPS Dividen d Comment 0 $ $1 g = 10%, plowback =2EPS has grown by 10% based on last year’s earnings plowback and ROE; this year’s earnings plowback ratio now falls to and payout ratio =3 $ $EPS grows by (15%) = 6% and payout ratio =At time 2: 32$0.7696$8.5510.150.06D P k g ===-- At time 0: 02$0.55$0.726$8.551$7.4931.15(1.15)V +=+=c. P0 = $11 and P1 = P0(1 + g) = $(Because the market is unaware of the changed competitivesituation, it believes the stock price should grow at 10% peryear.)P2= $ after the market becomes aware of the changed competitive situation.P3 = $ = $ (The new growth rate is 6%.)Year Return1($12.10$11)$0.550.150,or 15.0%$11-+=2($8.551$12.10)$0.7260.233,or23.3%$12.10-+=--3($9.064$8.551)$0.76960.150,or 15.0%$8.551-+=Moral: In normal periods when there is no special information,the stock return = k = 15%. When special information arrives,all the abnormal return accrues in that period, as one wouldexpect in an efficient market.CFA PROBLEMS1. a. This director is confused. In the context of the constant growth model[., P0 = D1/ k –g)], it is true that price is higher whendividends are higher holding everything else includingdividend growth constant. But everything else will not beconstant. If the firm increases the dividend payout rate, thegrowth rate g will fall, and stock price will not necessarilyrise. In fact, if ROE > k, price will fall.b.(i) An increase in dividend payout will reduce thesustainable growth rate as less funds are reinvested in thefirm. The sustainable growth rate. ROE plowback) will fall as plowback ratio falls.(ii) The increased dividend payout rate will reduce thegrowth rate of book value for the same reason -- less fundsare reinvested in the firm.2. Using a two-stage dividend discount model, the current value of ashare of Sundanci is calculated as follows.3120122()(1)(1)(1)D D D k g V k k k -=+++++98.43$14.1)13.014.0(5623.0$14.14976.0$14.13770.0$221=-++= where:E 0 = $ D 0 = $E 1 = E 0 1 = $ = $ D 1 = E 1 = $ = $ E 2 = E 0 2 = $ 2 = $ D 2 = E 2 = $ = $E 3 = E 0 2 = $ 2 = $ D 3 = E 3 = $ = $3. a. Free cash flow to equity (FCFE) is defined as the cash flowremaining after meeting all financial obligations (includingdebt payment) and after covering capital expenditure andworking capital needs. The FCFE is a measure of how much thefirm can afford to pay out as dividends but, in a given year,may be more or less than the amount actually paid out.Sundanci's FCFE for the year 2008 is computed as follows:FCFE = Earnings + Depreciation Capital expendituresIncrease in NWC= $80 million + $23 million $38 million $41 million = $24 millionFCFE per share =$24 million$0.286 # of shares outstanding84 million sharesFCFE==At this payout ratio, Sundanci's FCFE per share equalsdividends per share.b. The FCFE model requires forecasts of FCFE for the highgrowth years (2012 and 2013) plus a forecast for the firstyear of stable growth (2014) in order to allow for anestimate of the terminal value in 2013 based on perpetualgrowth. Because all of the components of FCFE are expectedto grow at the same rate, the values can be obtained byprojecting the FCFE at the common rate. (Alternatively, thecomponents of FCFE can be projected and aggregated for eachyear.)This table shows the process for estimating the current pershare value:FCFE Base AssumptionsShares outstanding: 84 million, k =14%Actual 2011Projected2012Projected2013Projected2014Growth rate (g)27%27%13%Total Per ShareEarnings after tax$80$$$$ Plus: Depreciation expense23$ Less: Capital expenditures38$ Less: Increase in net working 41$capitalEquals: FCFE24$ Terminal value$*Total cash flows to equity$$†Discounted value$‡ $‡Current value per share$§*Projected 2013 terminal value = (Projected 2014 FCFE)/(r g)†Projected 2013 Total cash flows to equity =Projected 2013 FCFE + Projected 2013 terminal value‡Discounted values obtained using k= 14%§Current value per share=Sum of discounted projected 2012 and 2013total FCFEc. i. The DDM uses a strict definition of cash flows to equity, .the expected dividends on the common stock. In fact, taken toits extreme, the DDM cannot be used to estimate the value of astock that pays no dividends. The FCFE model expands thedefinition of cash flows to include the balance of residual cash flows after all financial obligations and investment needs have been met. Thus the FCFE model explicitly recognizes the firm’s investment and financing policies as well as its dividend policy.In instances of a change of corporate control, and therefore the possibility of changing dividend policy, the FCFE model providesa better estimate of value. The DDM is biased toward finding lowP/E ratio stocks with high dividend yields to be undervalued and conversely, high P/E ratio stocks with low dividend yields to be overvalued. It is considered a conservative model in that ittends to identify fewer undervalued firms as market prices rise relative to fundamentals. The DDM does not allow for thepotential tax disadvantage of high dividends relative to thecapital gains achievable from retention of earnings.ii. Both two-stage valuation models allow for two distinctphases of growth, an initial finite period where the growth rate is abnormal, followed by a stable growth period that is expected to last indefinitely. These two-stage models share the samelimitations with respect to the growth assumptions. First, there is the difficulty of defining the duration of the extraordinary growth period. For example, a longer period of high growth will lead to a higher valuation, and there is the temptation toassume an unrealistically long period of extraordinary growth.Second, the assumption of a sudden shift from high growth tolower, stable growth is unrealistic. The transformation is more likely to occur gradually, over a period of time. Given that the assumed total horizon does not shift ., is infinite), the timing of the shift from high to stable growth is a criticaldeterminant of the valuation estimate. Third, because the value is quite sensitive to the steady-state growth assumption, over- or underestimating this rate can lead to large errors in value.The two models share other limitations as well, notablydifficulties in accurately forecasting required rates of return, in dealing with the distortions that result from substantialand/or volatile debt ratios, and in accurately valuing assetsthat do not generate any cash flows.4. a. The formula for calculating a price earnings ratio (P/E) fora stable growth firm is the dividend payout ratio divided bythe difference between the required rate of return and thegrowth rate of dividends. If the P/E is calculated based ontrailing earnings (year 0), the payout ratio is increased bythe growth rate. If the P/E is calculated based on nextyear’s earnings (year 1), the numerator is the payout ratio.P/E on trailing earnings:P/E = [payout ratio (1 + g)]/(k g) = [ ]/ =P/E on next year's earnings:P/E = payout ratio/(k g) = =b. The P/E ratio is a decreasing function of riskiness; as risk increases, the P/E ratio decreases. Increases in the riskiness of Sundanci stock would be expected to lower the P/E ratio. The P/E ratio is an increasing function of the growth rate of the firm; the higher the expected growth, the higher the P/E ratio. Sundanci would command a higher P/E if analysts increase the expected growth rate. The P/E ratio is a decreasing function of the market risk premium. An increased market risk premium increases the required rate of return, lowering the price of a stock relative to its earnings. A higher market risk premium would be expected to lower Sundanci's P/E ratio.5. a.The sustainable growth rate is equal to: P lowback ratio × Return on equity = b × ROE Net income - (Dividends per share Shares outstanding)where Net income b ⨯= ROE = Net income/Beginning of year equity In 2010: b = [208 – × 100)]/208 = ROE = 208/1380 = Susta inable growth rate = × = % In 2013: b = [275 – × 100)]/275 = ROE = 275/1836 = Sustainable growth rate = × = %b. i. The increased retention ratio increased the sustainablegrowth rate. Retention ratio = [Net income - (Dividend per share Shares outstanding)]Net income⨯Retention ratio increased from in 2010 to in 2013.This increase in the retention ratio directly increased thesustainable growth rate because the retention ratio is one of the two factors determining the sustainable growth rate.ii. The decrease in leverage reduced the sustainable growthrate.Financial leverage = (Total assets/Beginning of year equity)Financial leverage decreased from (3230/1380) at the beginning of 2010 to at the beginning of 2013 (3856/1836)This decrease in leverage directly decreased ROE (and thus the sustainable growth rate) because financial leverage is one of the factors determining ROE (and ROE is one of the two factors determining the sustainable growth rate).6. a. The formula for the Gordon model is 00(1)D g V k g ⨯+=- where: D 0 = Dividend paid at time of valuation g = Annual growth rate of dividends k = Required rate of return for equity In the above formula, P 0, the market price of the common stock, substitutes for V 0 and g becomes the dividend growth rate implied by the market: P 0 = [D 0 × (1 + g )]/(k – g ) Substituting, we have: = [ × (1 + g )]/ – g ) g = %b.Use of the Gordon growth model would be inappropriate to value Dynamic’s common stock, for the following reasons: i. The Gordon growth model assumes a set of relationships about the growth rate for dividends, earnings, and stock values. Specifically, the model assumes that dividends, earnings, and stock values will grow at the same constant rate. In valuing Dynamic’s common stock, the Gordon growth model is inappropriate b ecause management’s dividend policy has held dividends constant in dollar amount although earnings have grown, thus reducing the payout ratio. This policy is inconsistent with the Gordon model assumption that the payout ratio is constant. ii. It could also be argued that use of the Gordon model, given Dynamic’s current dividend policy, violates one of the general conditions for suitability of the model, namely that the company’s dividend policy bears an understandable and consistent relationship with the co mpany’s profitability.7. a. The industry’s estimated P/E can be computed using thefollowing model:1Payout ratioP E k g =-However, since k and g are not explicitly given, they mustbe computed using the following formulas: g ind = ROE Retention rate = = k ind = Government bond yield + ( Industry beta Equity risk premium) = + = Therefore: 010.6030.00.120.10P E ==-b.i. Forecast growth in real GDP would cause P/E ratios to be generally higher for Country A. Higher expected growth in GDP implies higher earnings growth and a higher P/E. ii. Government bond yield would cause P/E ratios to be generally higher for Country B. A lower government bond yield implies a lower risk-free rate and therefore a higher P/E. iii. Equity risk premium would cause P/E ratios to be generally higher for Country B. A lower equity risk premium implies a lower required return and a higher P/E.8. a.k = r f + β (k M – r f ) = % + % %) = 16%b.Year Dividend 2009 $2010 $ = $2011 $ = $2012 $ = $ 2013 $ = $ Present value of dividends paid in 2010 – 2012:Year PV of Dividend2010 $ = $2011 $ = $2012 $ = $ Total = $Price at year-end 201257.37$09.016.063.2$2013=-=-=g k DPV in 2009 of this stock price 07.24$16.157.37$3==Intrinsic value of stock = $ + $ = $c. The data in the problem indicate that Quick Brush is sellingat a price substantially below its intrinsic value, whilethe calculations above demonstrate that SmileWhite isselling at a price somewhat above the estimate of itsintrinsic value. Based on this analysis, Quick Brush offers the potential for considerable abnormal returns, whileSmileWhite offers slightly below-market risk-adjustedreturns.d. Strengths of two-stage versus constant growth DDM:Two-stage model allows for separate valuation of twodistinct periods in a company’s future . This canaccommodate life-cycle effects. It also can avoid thedifficulties posed by initial growth that is higher thanthe discount rate.Two-stage model allows for initial period of above-sustainable growth. It allows the analyst to make use ofher expectations regarding when growth might shift fromoff-trend to a more sustainable level.A weakness of all DDMs is that they are very sensitive toinput values. Small changes in k or g can imply largechanges in estimated intrinsic value. These inputs aredifficult to measure.9. a. The value of a share of Rio National equity using the Gordongrowth model and the capital asset pricing model is $, asshown below.Calculate the required rate of return using the capitalasset pricing model:k = r f + β × (k M – r f ) = 4% + × (9% – 4%) = 13%Calculate the share value using the Gordon growth model:o 0(1)$0.20(10.12)$22.400.130.12D g P k g ⨯+⨯+===--b. The sustainable growth rate of Rio National is %, calculated asfollows:g = b × ROE = Earnings retention r ate × ROE = (1 – Payout r atio) × ROE =Dividends Net income $3.20$30.16110.09979.97%Net income Beginning equity $30.16$270.35⎛⎫⎛⎫-⨯=-⨯== ⎪ ⎪⎝⎭⎝⎭10. a. To obtain free cash flow to equity (FCFE), the twoadjustments that Shaar should make to cash flow fromoperations (CFO) are:1. Subtract investment in fixed capital: CFO does not takeinto account the investing activities in long-term assets,particularly plant and equipment. The cash flowscorresponding to those necessary expenditures are not available to equity holders and therefore should besubtracted from CFO to obtain FCFE.2. Add net borrowing: CFO does not take into account theamount of capital supplied to the firm by lenders .,bondholders). The new borrowings, net of debt repayment, are cash flows available to equity holders and should be added to CFO to obtain FCFE.b. Note 1: Rio National had $75 million in capital expendituresduring the year.Adjustment: negative $75 millionThe cash flows required for those capital expenditures (–$75 million) are no longer available to the equity holdersand should be subtracted from net income to obtain FCFE.Note 2: A piece of equipment that was originally purchased for $10 million was sold for $7 million at year-end, when it had a net book value of $3 million. Equipment sales are unusual for Rio National.Adjustment: positive $3 millionIn calculating FCFE, only cash flow investments in fixedcapital should be considered. The $7 million sale price ofequipment is a cash inflow now available to equity holders and should be added to net income. However, the gain over bookvalue that was realized when selling the equipment ($4 million) is already included in net income. Because the total sale iscash, not just the gain, the $3 million net book value must be added to net income. Therefore, the adjustment calculation is:$7 million in cash received – $4 million of gain recordedin net income =$3 million additional cash received added to net income toobtain FCFE.Note 3: The decrease in long-term debt represents anunscheduled principal repayment; there was no new borrowingduring the year.Adjustment: negative $5 millionThe unscheduled debt repayment cash flow (–$5 million) is an amount no longer available to equity holders and should besubtracted from net income to determine FCFE.Note 4: On January 1, 2013, the company received cash fromissuing 400,000 shares of common equity at a price of $25per share.No adjustmentTransactions between the firm and its shareholders do notaffect FCFE. To calculate FCFE, therefore, no adjustment tonet income is required with respect to the issuance of new shares.Note 5: A new appraisal during the year increased the estimated market value of land held for investment by $2 million, which was not recognized in 2013 income.No adjustmentThe increased market value of the land did not generate any cash flow and was not reflected in net income. To calculate FCFE, therefore, no adjustment to net income is required.c. Free cash flow to equity (FCFE) is calculated as follows:FCFE = NI + NCC – FCINV – WCINV + Net borrowingwhere:NCC = Noncash chargesFCINV = Investment in fixed capitalWCINV = Investment in working capital*Supplemental Note 2 in Table 18H affects both NCC and FCINV.11. Rio National’s equity is relatively undervalued compared to theindustry on a P/E-to-growth (PEG) basis. Rio Nation al’s PEG ratio of is below the industry PEG ratio of . The lower PEG ratio isattractive because it implies that the growth rate at Rio National is available at a relatively lower price than is the case for the industry. The PEG ratios for Rio National and the industry arecalculated below:Rio NationalCurrent price = $Normalized earnings per share = $Price-to-earnings ratio = $25/$ =Growth rate (as a percentage) = 11PEG ratio = 11 =IndustryPrice-to-earnings ratio =Growth rate (as a percentage) = 12 PEG ratio = 12 =。
投资学10版习题答案
CHAPTER 14: BOND PRICES AND YIELDSPROBLEM SETS1. a. Catastrophe bond—A bond that allows the issuer to transfer“catastrophe risk” from the firm to the capital markets. Investors inthese bonds receive a compensation for taking on the risk in the form ofhigher coupon rates. In the event of a catastrophe, the bondholders willreceive only part or perhaps none of the principal payment due to themat maturity. Disaster can be defined by total insured losses or by criteriasuch as wind speed in a hurricane or Richter level in an earthquake.b. Eurobond—A bond that is denominated in one currency, usually thatof the issuer, but sold in other national markets.c. Zero-coupon bond—A bond that makes no coupon payments. Investorsreceive par value at the maturity date but receive no interest paymentsuntil then. These bonds are issued at prices below par value, and theinvestor’s return comes from the difference between issue price and thepayment of par value at maturity (capital gain).d. Samurai bond—Yen-dominated bonds sold in Japan by non-Japaneseissuers.e. Junk bond—A bond with a low credit rating due to its high default risk;also known as high-yield bonds.f. Convertible bond—A bond that gives the bondholders an option toexchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock ofthe firm.g. Serial bonds—Bonds issued with staggered maturity dates. As bondsmature sequentially, the principal repayment burden for the firm isspread over time.h. Equipment obligation bond—A collateralized bond for which thecollateral is equipment owned by the firm. If the firm defaults on thebond, the bondholders would receive the equipment.i. Original issue discount bond—A bond issued at a discount to the facevalue.j. Indexed bond— A bond that makes payments that are tied to ageneral price index or the price of a particular commodity.k. Callable bond—A bond that gives the issuer the option to repurchase the bond at a specified call price before the maturity date.l. Puttable bond —A bond that gives the bondholder the option to sell back the bond at a specified put price before the maturity date.2. The bond callable at 105 should sell at a lower price because the call provision is more valuable to the firm. Therefore, its yield to maturity should be higher.3.Zero coupon bonds provide no coupons to be reinvested. Therefore, the investor's proceeds from the bond are independent of the rate at which coupons could be reinvested (if they were paid). There is no reinvestment rate uncertainty with zeros.4.A bond’s coupon interest payments and principal repayment are not affected by changes in market rates. Consequently, if market ratesincrease, bond investors in the secondary markets are not willing to pay as much for a claim on a gi ven bond’s fixed interest and principalpayments as they would if market rates were lower. This relationship is apparent from the inverse relationship between interest rates and present value. An increase in the discount rate (i.e., the market rate. decreases the present value of the future cash flows. 5. Annual coupon rate: 4.80% $48 Coupon paymentsCurrent yield:$48 4.95%$970⎛⎫= ⎪⎝⎭6. a.Effective annual rate for 3-month T-bill:%0.10100.0102412.11645,97000,10044==-=-⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛b. Effective annual interest rate for coupon bond paying 5% semiannually:(1.05.2—1 = 0.1025 or 10.25%Therefore the coupon bond has the higher effective annual interest rate. 7.The effective annual yield on the semiannual coupon bonds is 8.16%. If the annual coupon bonds are to sell at par they must offer the same yield, which requires an annual coupon rate of 8.16%.8. The bond price will be lower. As time passes, the bond price, which isnow above par value, will approach par.9. Yield to maturity: Using a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 3; PV = -953.10; FV = 1000; PMT = 80; COMP iThis results in: YTM = 9.88%Realized compound yield: First, find the future value (FV. of reinvestedcoupons and principal:FV = ($80 * 1.10 *1.12. + ($80 * 1.12. + $1,080 = $1,268.16Then find the rate (y realized . that makes the FV of the purchase price equal to $1,268.16:$953.10 ⨯ (1 + y realized .3 = $1,268.16 ⇒y realized = 9.99% or approximately 10% Using a financial calculator, enter the following: N = 3; PV = -953.10; FV =1,268.16; PMT = 0; COMP I. Answer is 9.99%.10.a. Zero coupon 8%10% couponcouponCurrent prices $463.19 $1,000.00 $1,134.20b. Price 1 year from now $500.25 $1,000.00 $1,124.94Price increase $ 37.06 $ 0.00 − $ 9.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 37.06 $ 80.00 $ 90.74Pretax rate of return 8.00% 8.00% 8.00%Taxes* $ 11.12 $ 24.00 $ 28.15After-tax income $ 25.94 $ 56.00 $ 62.59After-tax rate of return 5.60% 5.60% 5.52%c. Price 1 year from now $543.93 $1,065.15 $1,195.46Price increase $ 80.74 $ 65.15 $ 61.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 80.74 $145.15 $161.26Pretax rate of return 17.43% 14.52% 14.22%Taxes†$ 19.86 $ 37.03 $ 42.25After-tax income $ 60.88 $108.12 $119.01After-tax rate of return 13.14% 10.81% 10.49%* In computing taxes, we assume that the 10% coupon bond was issued at par and that the decrease in price when the bond is sold at year-end is treated as a capital loss and therefore is not treated as an offset to ordinary income.† In computing taxes for the zero coupon bond, $37.06 is taxed as ordinary income (see part (b); the remainder of the price increase is taxed as a capital gain.11. a. On a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 40; FV = 1000; PV = –950; PMT = 40You will find that the yield to maturity on a semiannual basis is 4.26%.This implies a bond equivalent yield to maturity equal to: 4.26% * 2 =8.52%Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0426)2– 1 = 0.0870 = 8.70%b. Since the bond is selling at par, the yield to maturity on a semiannualbasis is the same as the semiannual coupon rate, i.e., 4%. The bondequivalent yield to maturity is 8%.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.04)2– 1 = 0.0816 = 8.16%c. Keeping other inputs unchanged but setting PV = –1050, we find abond equivalent yield to maturity of 7.52%, or 3.76% on a semiannualbasis.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0376)2– 1 = 0.0766 = 7.66%12. Since the bond payments are now made annually instead of semiannually,the bond equivalent yield to maturity is the same as the effective annual yield to maturity. [On a financial calculator, n = 20; FV = 1000; PV = –price; PMT = 80]The resulting yields for the three bonds are:Bond Price Bond Equivalent Yield= Effective Annual Yield$950 8.53%1,000 8.001,050 7.51The yields computed in this case are lower than the yields calculatedwith semiannual payments. All else equal, bonds with annual payments are less attractive to investors because more time elapses beforepayments are received. If the bond price is the same with annualpayments, then the bond's yield to maturity is lower.13.Price Maturity(years.BondEquivalentYTM$400.00 20.00 4.688% 500.00 20.00 3.526 500.00 10.00 7.177385.54 10.00 10.000 463.19 10.00 8.000 400.00 11.91 8.00014. a. The bond pays $50 every 6 months. The current price is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 6)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 6)] = $1,052.42 Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 6. Solve for PV = $1,052.42.If the market interest rate remains 4% per half year, price six months from now is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 5)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 5)] = $1,044.52Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 5. Solve for PV = $1,044.52.b. Rate of return $50($1,044.52$1,052.42)$50$7.904.0%$1,052.42$1,052.42+--===15.The reported bond price is: $1,001.250However, 15 days have passed since the last semiannual coupon was paid, so:Accrued interest = $35 * (15/182) = $2.885The invoice price is the reported price plus accrued interest: $1,004.1416. If the yield to maturity is greater than the current yield, then the bond offers the prospect of price appreciation as it approaches its maturity date. Therefore, the bond must be selling below par value.17. The coupon rate is less than 9%. If coupon divided by price equals 9%, and price is less than par, then price divided by par is less than 9%.18.Time Inflation in YearJust EndedPar Value Coupon Payment Principal Repayment 0 $1,000.001 2% 1,020.00 $40.80 $ 0.002 3% $1,050.60 $42.02 $ 0.00 31%$1,061.11$42.44$1,061.11The nominal rate of return and real rate of return on the bond in each year are computed as follows:Nominal rate of return = interest + price appreciationinitial priceReal rate of return = 1 + nominal return1 + inflation - 1Second YearThird YearNominal return 071196.0020,1$60.30$02.42$=+050400.060.050,1$51.10$44.42$=+Real return%0.4040.0103.1071196.1==- %0.4040.0101.1050400.1==- The real rate of return in each year is precisely the 4% real yield on the bond.19.The price schedule is as follows: Year Remaining Maturity (T).Constant Yield Value $1,000/(1.08)TImputed Interest (increase inconstant yield value)0 (now) 20 years$214.551 19 231.71 $17.162 18 250.25 18.54 19 1 925.93 201,000.0074.0720.The bond is issued at a price of $800. Therefore, its yield to maturity is: 6.8245%Therefore, using the constant yield method, we find that the price in one year (when maturity falls to 9 years) will be (at an unchanged yield. $814.60, representing an increase of $14.60. Total taxable income is: $40.00 + $14.60 = $54.6021. a. The bond sells for $1,124.72 based on the 3.5% yield to maturity .[n = 60; i = 3.5; FV = 1000; PMT = 40]Therefore, yield to call is 3.368% semiannually, 6.736% annually. [n = 10 semiannual periods; PV = –1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]b. If the call price were $1,050, we would set FV = 1,050 and redo part (a) to find that yield to call is 2.976% semiannually, 5.952% annually. With a lower call price, the yield to call is lower.c. Yield to call is 3.031% semiannually, 6.062% annually. [n = 4; PV = −1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]22. The stated yield to maturity, based on promised payments, equals 16.075%.[n = 10; PV = –900; FV = 1000; PMT = 140]Based on expected reduced coupon payments of $70 annually, theexpected yield to maturity is 8.526%.23. The bond is selling at par value. Its yield to maturity equals the couponrate, 10%. If the first-year coupon is reinvested at an interest rate of rpercent, then total proceeds at the end of the second year will be: [$100 *(1 + r)] + $1,100Therefore, realized compound yield to maturity is a function of r, as shown in the following table:8% $1,208 1208/1000 – 1 = 0.0991 = 9.91%10% $1,210 1210/1000 – 1 = 0.1000 = 10.00%12% $1,212 1212/1000 – 1 = 0.1009 = 10.09%24. April 15 is midway through the semiannual coupon period. Therefore,the invoice price will be higher than the stated ask price by an amountequal to one-half of the semiannual coupon. The ask price is 101.25percent of par, so the invoice price is:$1,012.50 + (½*$50) = $1,037.5025. Factors that might make the ABC debt more attractive to investors,therefore justifying a lower coupon rate and yield to maturity, are:i. The ABC debt is a larger issue and therefore may sell with greaterliquidity.ii. An option to extend the term from 10 years to 20 years is favorable ifinterest rates 10 years from now are lower than today’s interest rates. Incontrast, if interest rates increase, the investor can present the bond forpayment and reinvest the money for a higher return.iii. In the event of trouble, the ABC debt is a more senior claim. It hasmore underlying security in the form of a first claim against realproperty.iv. The call feature on the XYZ bonds makes the ABC bonds relativelymore attractive since ABC bonds cannot be called from the investor.v. The XYZ bond has a sinking fund requiring XYZ to retire part of theissue each year. Since most sinking funds give the firm the option toretire this amount at the lower of par or market value, the sinking fundcan be detrimental for bondholders.26. A. If an investor believes the firm’s credit prospects are poor in the nearterm and wishes to capitalize on this, the investor should buy a creditdefault swap. Although a short sale of a bond could accomplish the same objective, liquidity is often greater in the swap market than it is in theunderlying cash market. The investor could pick a swap with a maturitysimilar to the expected time horizon of the credit risk. By buying theswap, the investor would receive compensation if the bond experiencesan increase in credit risk.27. a. When credit risk increases, credit default swaps increase in valuebecause the protection they provide is more valuable. Credit defaultswaps do not provide protection against interest rate risk however.28. a. An increase in the firm’s times interest-earned ratio decreases thedefault risk of the firm→increases the bond’s price → decreases the YTM.b. An increase in the issuing firm’s debt-equity ratio increases thedefault risk of the firm → decreases the bond’s price → increases YTM.c. An increase in the issuing firm’s quick ratio increases short-runliquidity, → implying a decrease in default risk of the firm → increasesthe bond’s price → decreases YTM.29. a. The floating rate note pays a coupon that adjusts to market levels.Therefore, it will not experience dramatic price changes as marketyields fluctuate. The fixed rate note will therefore have a greater pricerange.b. Floating rate notes may not sell at par for any of several reasons:(i) The yield spread between one-year Treasury bills and othermoney market instruments of comparable maturity could be wider(or narrower. than when the bond was issued.(ii) The credit standing of the firm may have eroded (or improved.relative to Treasury securities, which have no credit risk.Therefore, the 2% premium would become insufficient to sustainthe issue at par.(iii) The coupon increases are implemented with a lag, i.e., onceevery year. During a period of changing interest rates, even thisbrief lag will be reflected in the price of the security.c. The risk of call is low. Because the bond will almost surely not sell for much above par value (given its adjustable coupon rate), it is unlikely that the bond will ever be called.d. The fixed-rate note currently sells at only 88% of the call price, so that yield to maturity is greater than the coupon rate. Call risk iscurrently low, since yields would need to fall substantially for the firm to use its option to call the bond.e. The 9% coupon notes currently have a remaining maturity of 15 years and sell at a yield to maturity of 9.9%. This is the coupon rate thatwould be needed for a newly issued 15-year maturity bond to sell at par.f. Because the floating rate note pays a variable stream of interestpayments to maturity, the effective maturity for comparative purposes with other debt securities is closer to the next coupon reset date than the final maturity date. Therefore, yield-to-maturity is anindeterminable calculation for a floating rate note, with “yield -to-recoupon date” a more meaningful measure of return.30. a. The yield to maturity on the par bond equals its coupon rate, 8.75%.All else equal, the 4% coupon bond would be more attractive because its coupon rate is far below current market yields, and its price is far below the call price. Therefore, if yields fall, capital gains on the bond will not be limited by the call price. In contrast, the 8¾% coupon bond canincrease in value to at most $1,050, offering a maximum possible gain of only 0.5%. The disadvantage of the 8¾% coupon bond, in terms ofvulnerability to being called, shows up in its higher promised yield to maturity.b. If an investor expects yields to fall substantially, the 4% bond offers a greater expected return.c. Implicit call protection is offered in the sense that any likely fallin yields would not be nearly enough to make the firm considercalling the bond. In this sense, the call feature is almost irrelevant.31. a. Initial price P 0 = $705.46 [n = 20; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 8]Next year's price P 1 = $793.29 [n = 19; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 7] HPR %54.191954.046.705$)46.705$29.793($50$==-+=b. Using OID tax rules, the cost basis and imputed interest under theconstant yield method are obtained by discounting bond payments at the original 8% yield and simply reducing maturity by one year at a time: Constant yield prices (compare these to actual prices to compute capital gains.: P 0 = $705.46P 1 = $711.89 ⇒ implicit interest over first year = $6.43P 2 = $718.84 ⇒ implicit interest over second year = $6.95Tax on explicit interest plus implicit interest in first year =0.40*($50 + $6.43) = $22.57Capital gain in first year = Actual price at 7% YTM —constant yield price =$793.29—$711.89 = $81.40Tax on capital gain = 0.30*$81.40 = $24.42Total taxes = $22.57 + $24.42 = $46.99c. After tax HPR =%88.121288.046.705$99.46$)46.705$29.793($50$==--+d. Value of bond after two years = $798.82 [using n = 18; i = 7%; PMT = $50; FV = $1,000]Reinvested income from the coupon interest payments = $50*1.03 + $50 = $101.50Total funds after two years = $798.82 + $101.50 = $900.32Therefore, the investment of $705.46 grows to $900.32 in two years:$705.46 (1 + r )2 = $900.32 ⇒ r = 0.1297 = 12.97%e. Coupon interest received in first year: $50.00Less: tax on coupon interest 40%: – 20.00Less: tax on imputed interest (0.40*$6.43): – 2.57Net cash flow in first year: $27.43The year-1 cash flow can be invested at an after-tax rate of:3% × (1 – 0.40) = 1.8%By year 2, this investment will grow to: $27.43 × 1.018 = $27.92In two years, sell the bond for: $798.82 [n = 18; i = 7%%; PMT =$50; FV = $1,000]Less: tax on imputed interest in second year:– 2.78 [0.40 × $6.95] Add: after-tax coupon interest received in second year: + 30.00 [$50 × (1 – 0.40)]Less: Capital gains tax on(sales price – constant yield value): – 23.99 [0.30 × (798.82 – 718.84)] Add: CF from first year's coupon (reinvested):+ 27.92 [from above]Total $829.97$705.46 (1 + r)2 = $829.97 r = 0.0847 = 8.47%CFA PROBLEMS1. a. A sinking fund provision requires the early redemption of a bond issue.The provision may be for a specific number of bonds or a percentage ofthe bond issue over a specified time period. The sinking fund can retireall or a portion of an issue over the life of the issue.b. (i) Compared to a bond without a sinking fund, the sinking fundreduces the average life of the overall issue because some of thebonds are retired prior to the stated maturity.(ii) The company will make the same total principal payments overthe life of the issue, although the timing of these payments will beaffected. The total interest payments associated with the issue willbe reduced given the early redemption of principal.c. From the investor’s point of view, the key reason for demanding asinking fund is to reduce credit risk. Default risk is reduced by theorderly retirement of the issue.2. a. (i) Current yield = Coupon/Price = $70/$960 = 0.0729 = 7.29%(ii) YTM = 3.993% semiannually, or 7.986% annual bond equivalent yield.On a financial calculator, enter: n = 10; PV = –960; FV = 1000; PMT = 35Compute the interest rate.(iii) Realized compound yield is 4.166% (semiannually), or 8.332% annualbond equivalent yield. To obtain this value, first find the future value(FV) of reinvested coupons and principal. There will be six payments of$35 each, reinvested semiannually at 3% per period. On a financialcalculator, enter:PV = 0; PMT = 35; n = 6; i = 3%. Compute: FV = 226.39Three years from now, the bond will be selling at the par value of $1,000because the yield to maturity is forecast to equal the coupon rate.Therefore, total proceeds in three years will be: $226.39 + $1,000 =$1,226.39Then find the rate (y realized. that makes the FV of the purchaseprice equal to $1,226.39:$960 × (1 + y realized.6 = $1,226.39 y realized = 4.166% (semiannual.Alternatively, PV = −$960; FV = $1,226.39; N = 6; PMT = $0. Solve for I =4.16%.b. Shortcomings of each measure:(i) Current yield does not account for capital gains or losses on bondsbought at prices other than par value. It also does not account forreinvestment income on coupon payments.(ii) Yield to maturity assumes the bond is held until maturity and that all coupon income can be reinvested at a rate equal to the yield to maturity.(iii) Realized compound yield is affected by the forecast ofreinvestment rates, holding period, and yield of the bond at the endof the investor's holding period.3. a. The maturity of each bond is 10 years, and we assume that couponsare paid semiannually. Since both bonds are selling at par value, thecurrent yield for each bond is equal to its coupon rate.If the yield declines by 1% to 5% (2.5% semiannual yield., the Sentinalbond will increase in value to $107.79 [n=20; i = 2.5%; FV = 100; PMT = 3].The price of the Colina bond will increase, but only to the call price of102. The present value of scheduled payments is greater than 102, butthe call price puts a ceiling on the actual bond price.b. If rates are expected to fall, the Sentinal bond is more attractive:since it is not subject to call, its potential capital gains are greater.If rates are expected to rise, Colina is a relatively better investment. Itshigher coupon (which presumably is compensation to investors for thecall feature of the bond. will provide a higher rate of return than theSentinal bond.c. An increase in the volatility of rates will increase the value of thefirm’s option to call back the Colina bond. If rates go down, the firm can call the bond, which puts a cap on possible capital gains. So, greatervolatility makes the option to call back the bond more valuable to theissuer. This makes the bond less attractive to the investor.4. Market conversion value = Value if converted into stock = 20.83 × $28 =$583.24Conversion premium = Bond price – Market conversion value= $775.00 – $583.24 = $191.765. a. The call feature requires the firm to offer a higher coupon (or higherpromised yield to maturity) on the bond in order to compensate theinvestor for the firm's option to call back the bond at a specified priceif interest rate falls sufficiently. Investors are willing to grant thisvaluable option to the issuer, but only for a price that reflects thepossibility that the bond will be called. That price is the higherpromised yield at which they are willing to buy the bond.b. The call feature reduces the expected life of the bond. If interestrates fall substantially so that the likelihood of a call increases,investors will treat the bond as if it will "mature" and be paid off at thecall date, not at the stated maturity date. On the other hand, if ratesrise, the bond must be paid off at the maturity date, not later. Thisasymmetry means that the expected life of the bond is less than thestated maturity.c. The advantage of a callable bond is the higher coupon (and higherpromised yield to maturity) when the bond is issued. If the bond is never called, then an investor earns a higher realized compound yield on acallable bond issued at par than a noncallable bond issued at par on the same date. The disadvantage of the callable bond is the risk of call. Ifrates fall and the bond is called, then the investor receives the call price and then has to reinvest the proceeds at interest rates that are lowerthan the yield to maturity at which the bond originally was issued. Inthis event, the firm's savings in interest payments is the investor's loss.6. a. (iii)b. (iii) The yield to maturity on the callable bond must compensatethe investor for the risk of call.Choice (i) is wrong because, although the owner of a callablebond receives a premium plus the principal in the event of a call,the interest rate at which he can reinvest will be low. The lowinterest rate that makes it profitable for the issuer to call thebond also makes it a bad deal f or the bond’s holder.Choice (ii) is wrong because a bond is more apt to be called wheninterest rates are low. Only if rates are low will there be aninterest saving for the issuer.c. (iii)d. (ii)。
(NEW)博迪《投资学》(第10版)笔记和课后习题详解
目 录第一部分 绪论第1章 投资环境1.1 复习笔记1.2 课后习题详解第2章 资产类别与金融工具2.1 复习笔记2.2 课后习题详解第3章 证券是如何交易的3.1 复习笔记3.2 课后习题详解第4章 共同基金与其他投资公司4.1 复习笔记4.2 课后习题详解第二部分 资产组合理论与实践第5章 风险与收益入门及历史回顾5.1 复习笔记5.2 课后习题详解第6章 风险资产配置6.1 复习笔记6.2 课后习题详解第7章 最优风险资产组合7.1 复习笔记7.2 课后习题详解第8章 指数模型8.1 复习笔记8.2 课后习题详解第三部分 资本市场均衡第9章 资本资产定价模型9.1 复习笔记9.2 课后习题详解第10章 套利定价理论与风险收益多因素模型10.1 复习笔记10.2 课后习题详解第11章 有效市场假说11.1 复习笔记11.2 课后习题详解第12章 行为金融与技术分析12.1 复习笔记12.2 课后习题详解第13章 证券收益的实证证据13.1 复习笔记13.2 课后习题详解第四部分 固定收益证券第14章 债券的价格与收益14.1 复习笔记14.2 课后习题详解第15章 利率的期限结构15.1 复习笔记15.2 课后习题详解第16章 债券资产组合管理16.1 复习笔记16.2 课后习题详解第五部分 证券分析第17章 宏观经济分析与行业分析17.1 复习笔记17.2 课后习题详解第18章 权益估值模型18.1 复习笔记18.2 课后习题详解第19章 财务报表分析19.1 复习笔记19.2 课后习题详解第六部分 期权、期货与其他衍生证券第20章 期权市场介绍20.1 复习笔记20.2 课后习题详解第21章 期权定价21.1 复习笔记21.2 课后习题详解第22章 期货市场22.1 复习笔记22.2 课后习题详解第23章 期货、互换与风险管理23.1 复习笔记23.2 课后习题详解第七部分 应用投资组合管理第24章 投资组合业绩评价24.1 复习笔记24.2 课后习题详解第25章 投资的国际分散化25.1 复习笔记25.2 课后习题详解第26章 对冲基金26.1 复习笔记26.2 课后习题详解第27章 积极型投资组合管理理论27.1 复习笔记27.2 课后习题详解第28章 投资政策与特许金融分析师协会结构28.1 复习笔记28.2 课后习题详解第一部分 绪论第1章 投资环境1.1 复习笔记1实物资产与金融资产（1）概念实物资产指经济活动中所创造的用于生产商品和提供服务的资产。
博迪《投资学》(第10版)章节题库-资产组合理论与实践【圣才出品】
第二部分资产组合理论与实践第5章风险与收益入门及历史回顾计算题1．（1）连续复利是7%，那么有效年利率（EAR）是多少？（2）如果银行支付给你的有效年利率是8.75%，那么其他银行竞争者需要支付多少连续复利才能吸引到投资？答：（1）()1exp e cc r cc EAR r +==，因此1＋EAR＝e 0.07＝107.25%，解得：EAR ≈7.25%。
（2）()1exp e cc r cc EAR r +==，整理得ln （1＋EAR）＝r cc ，因此r cc ＝ln （1＋8.75%）≈8.39%。
2．你的公司在270天的商业票据上投资了2500000美元。
在投资期满后（270天之后），公司获得2585000美元。
（1）在这项投资中，270天持有期的收益率是多少？（2）在一年期限内，有几个270天的投资期？（3）在这项投资上获得的年百分比利率（APR）是多少？（4）有效年利率（EAR）是多少？（5）为什么EAR 比APR 要高？答：（1）持有期收益率：HPR＝（股票期末价格－期初价格＋现金股利）/期初价格则270天持有期收益率＝（2585000－2500000）/2500000＝3.40%（2）在1年中存在365/270＝1.35185个270天的投资期（3）如果一年分为n期，每个时期的利率为r f（T），那么APR＝n×r f（T）APR＝3.40%×1.35185＝4.60%（4）1＋EAR＝（1＋每期的利率）n则1＋EAR＝（1＋0.034）1.35185＝1.0462解得：EAR＝4.62%或者1＋EAR＝（1＋APR/n）n＝（1＋0.046/1.35185）1.35185＝1.0462，解得：EAR ＝4.62%（5）EAR之所以比APR高，是因为允许复利计算。
它假设投资可以在一年的剩余时间中重复进行。
3．高树共同基金在过去5年的算术平均收益率是10.95%，几何平均收益率是10.29%。
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CHAPTER 1: THE INVESTMENT ENVIRONMENT PROBLEM SETS1. While it is ultimately true that real assets determine the material well-being of aneconomy, financial innovation in the form of bundling and unbundling securitiescreates opportunities for investors to form more efficient portfolios. Bothinstitutional and individual investors can benefit when financial engineering creates new products that allow them to manage their portfolios of financial assets moreefficiently. Bundling and unbundling create financial products with new properties and sensitivities to various sources of risk that allows investors to reduce volatility by hedging particular sources of risk more efficiently.2.Securitization requires access to a large number of potential investors. To attractthese investors, the capital market needs:1. a safe system of business laws and low probability of confiscatorytaxation/regulation;2. a well-developed investment banking industry;3. a well-developed system of brokerage and financial transactions; and4.well-developed media, particularly financial reporting.These characteristics are found in (indeed make for) a well-developed financialmarket.3. Securitization leads to disintermediation; that is, securitization provides a meansfor market participants to bypass intermediaries. For example, mortgage-backedsecurities channel funds to the housing market without requiring that banks orthrift institutions make loans from their own portfolios. Securitization works welland can benefit many, but only if the market for these securities is highly liquid.As securitization progresses, however, and financial intermediaries loseopportunities, they must increase other revenue-generating activities such asproviding short-term liquidity to consumers and small business and financialservices.4. The existence of efficient capital markets and the liquid trading of financial assetsmake it easy for large firms to raise the capital needed to finance their investments in real assets. If Ford, for example, could not issue stocks or bonds to the generalpublic, it would have a far more difficult time raising capital. Contraction of thesupply of financial assets would make financing more difficult, thereby increasing the cost of capital. A higher cost of capital results in less investment and lowerreal growth.5. Even if the firm does not need to issue stock in any particular year, the stock marketis still important to the financial manager. The stock price provides importantinformation about how the market values the firm's investment projects. For example, if the stock price rises considerably, managers might conclude that the marketbelieves the firm's future prospects are bright. This might be a useful signal to thefirm to proceed with an investment such as an expansion of the firm's business.In addition, shares that can be traded in the secondary market are more attractive toinitial investors since they know that they will be able to sell their shares. This inturn makes investors more willing to buy shares in a primary offering and thusimproves the terms on which firms can raise money in the equity market.Remember that stock exchanges like those in New York, London, and Paris are theheart of capitalism, in which firms can raise capital quickly in primary marketsbecause investors know there are liquid secondary markets.6. a. No. The increase in price did not add to the productive capacity of the economy.b. Yes, the value of the equity held in these assets has increased.c. Future homeowners as a whole are worse off, since mortgage liabilities havealso increased. In addition, this housing price bubble will eventually burst andsociety as a whole (and most likely taxpayers) will suffer the damage.7. a. The bank loan is a financial liability for Lanni, and a financial asset for the bank.The cash Lanni receives is a financial asset. The new financial asset created isLanni's promissory note to repay the loan.b. Lanni transfers financial assets (cash) to the software developers. In return,Lanni receives the completed software package, which is a real asset. Nofinancial assets are created or destroyed; cash is simply transferred from one partyto another.c. Lanni exchanges the real asset (the software) for a financial asset, which is 1,500shares of Microsoft stock. If Microsoft issues new shares in order to pay Lanni,then this would represent the creation of new financial assets.d. By selling its shares in Microsoft, Lanni exchanges one financial asset (1,500shares of stock) for another ($120,000 in cash). Lanni uses the financial asset of$50,000 in cash to repay the bank and retire its promissory note. The bank mustreturn its financial asset to Lanni. The loan is "destroyed" in the transaction, since it is retired when paid off and no longer exists.8. a.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ EquityCash $ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity50,000 Total $100,000 Total $100,000 Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$100,000 = 0.30b.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ EquitySoftware product* $ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity50,000 Total $100,000 Total $100,000 *Valued at costRatio of real assets to total assets = $100,000/$100,000 = 1.0c.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ EquityMicrosoft shares $120,000 Bank loan $ 50,000Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity100,000Total $150,000 Total $150,000 Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$150,000 = 0.20Conclusion: when the firm starts up and raises working capital, it is characterized bya low ratio of real assets to total assets. When it is in full production, it has a highratio of real assets to total assets. When the project "shuts down" and the firm sells it off for cash, financial assets once again replace real assets.9. For commercial banks, the ratio is: $166.1/$13,926.0 = 0.0119For nonfinancial firms, the ratio is: $15,320/$30,649 = 0.4999The difference should be expected primarily because the bulk of thebusiness of financial institutions is to make loans and the bulk of non-financial corporations is to invest in equipment, manufacturing plants, andproperty. The loans are financial assets for financial institutions, but theinvestments of non-financial corporations are real assets.10. a. Primary-market transaction in which gold certificates are being offered topublic investors for the first time by an underwriting syndicate led by JW KorthCapital.b. The certificates are derivative assets because they represent an investment inphysical gold, but each investor receives a certificate and no gold. Note thatinvestors can convert the certificate into gold during the four-year period.c. Investors who wish to hold gold without the complication, risk, and cost ofphysical storage.11. a. A fixed salary means that compensation is (at least in the short run)independent of the firm's success. This salary structure does not tie the manager’simmediate compensation to the success of the firm, so a manager might not feeltoo compelled to work hard to maximize firm value. However, the managermight view this as the safest compensation structure and therefore value it morehighly.b. A salary that is paid in the form of stock in the firm means that the manager earnsthe most when the shareholders’ wealth is maximized. Five years of vesting helpsalign the interests of the employee with the long-term performance of the firm. Thisstructure is therefore most likely to align the interests of managers and shareholders.If stock compensation is overdone, however, the manager might view it as overlyrisky since the manager’s career is already linked to the firm, and this undiversifiedexposure would be exacerbated with a large stock position in the firm.c. A profit-linked salary creates great incentives for managers to contribute to thefirm’s success. However, a manager whose salary is tied to short-term profits will be risk seeking, especially if these short-term profits determine salary or if thecompensation structure does not bear the full cost of the project’s risks. Shareholders, in contrast, bear the losses as well as the gains on the project and might be lesswilling to assume that risk.12. Even if an individual shareholder could monitor and improve managers’ performanceand thereby increase the value of the firm, the payoff would be small, since theownership share in a large corporation would be very small. For example, if you own $10,000 of Ford stock and can increase the value of the firm by 5%, a very ambitious goal, you benefit by only: 0.05 $10,000 = $500. The cost, both personal andfinancial to an individual investor, is likely to be prohibitive and would typicallyeasily exceed any accrued benefits, in this case $500.In contrast, a bank that has a multimillion-dollar loan outstanding to the firm has a big stake in making sure that the firm can repay the loan. It is clearly worthwhile for thebank to spend considerable resources to monitor the firm.13. Mutual funds accept funds from small investors and invest, on behalf of theseinvestors, in the domestic and international securities markets.Pension funds accept funds and then invest in a wide range of financial securities, on behalf of current and future retirees, thereby channeling funds from one sector of theeconomy to another.Venture capital firms pool the funds of private investors and invest in start-up firms.Banks accept deposits from customers and loan those funds to businesses or use thefunds to buy securities of large corporations.14. Treasury bills serve a purpose for investors who prefer a low-risk investment.The lower average rate of return compared to stocks is the price investors payfor predictability of investment performance and portfolio value.15. With a top-down investing style, you focus on asset allocation or the broadcomposition of the entire portfolio, which is the major determinant of overallperformance. Moreover, top-down management is the natural way to establish aportfolio with a level of risk consistent with your risk tolerance. The disadvantage ofan exclusive emphasis on top-down issues is that you may forfeit the potential highreturns that could result from identifying and concentrating in undervalued securitiesor sectors of the market.With a bottom-up investing style, you try to benefit from identifying undervaluedsecurities. The disadvantage is that investors might tend to overlook the overallcomposition of your portfolio, which may result in a nondiversified portfolio or aportfolio with a risk level inconsistent with the appropriate level of risk tolerance. Inaddition, this technique tends to require more active management, thus generatingmore transaction costs. Finally, the bottom-up analysis may be incorrect, in which case there will be a fruitlessly expended effort and money attempting to beat a simple buy-and-hold strategy.16. You should be skeptical. If the author actually knows how to achieve such returns, onemust question why the author would then be so ready to sell the secret to others.Financial markets are very competitive; one of the implications of this fact is thatriches do not come easily. High expected returns require bearing some risk, andobvious bargains are few and far between. Odds are that the only one getting rich from the book is its author.17. Financial assets provide for a means to acquire real assets as well as an expansionof these real assets. Financial assets provide a measure of liquidity to real assetsand allow for investors to more effectively reduce risk through diversification.18. Allowing traders to share in the profits increases th e traders’ willingness toassume risk. Traders will share in the upside potential directly in the form ofhigher compensation but only in the downside indirectly in the form of potentialjob loss if performance is bad enough. This scenario creates a form of agencyconflict known as moral hazard, in which the owners of the financial institutionshare in both the total profits and losses, while the traders will tend to share more of the gains than the losses.19. Answers may vary, however, students should touch on the following: increasedtransparency, regulations to promote capital adequacy by increasing the frequency of gain or loss settlement, incentives to discourage excessive risk taking, and thepromotion of more accurate and unbiased risk assessment.。