the_policy_of_two_rounds_of_evaluation_for_applications_for_certificates_of_suitability_and_requests

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国贸1201班第二章翻译完整版

1-10段One of the principal problems of political economy emphasized by the opening quote from Keynes is deciding on the appropriate boundary between state and market. We can better understand the issues if we examine how the boundaries evolved to their present point. In medieval times, the aristocracy and town guilds directed much of the economic activity in Europe and Asia. However, about two centuries ago, government began to exercise less and less power over prices and production methods. Gradually, the restraints of feudalism were replaced by what we call th e “market mechanism” or “competitive capitalism.”一个政治经济存在的主要问题，强调了开放引自凯因斯是决定国家和市场之间的合理边界。

我们可以更好的理解的问题，如果我们研究如何发展到目前的边界点。

在中世纪，贵族和城市行会向多在欧洲和亚洲的经济活动。

然而，大约两个世纪以前，政府开始行使价格和生产方法越来越少。

渐渐地，封建制度的约束是由我们所称的“市场机制”或“竞争资本主义取代。

”ope and North America, the nineteen century became the ago of lasses-faire. This doctrine, which translates as “leave us alone,” holds that government should interfere as little as possible in economics affairs and leave economic decisions to the interplay of supply and demand in the marketplace. Many governments espoused this economic philosophy in the middle of the nineteen century.开放和北美国，上世纪十九年代成为少女放任的前。

高二英语数学建模方法单选题20题

高二英语数学建模方法单选题20题1.In the process of mathematical modeling, the factor that determines the outcome is called_____.A.independent variableB.dependent variableC.control variableD.extraneous variable答案：B。

本题考查数学建模中的基本术语。

独立变量（independent variable）是指在实验或研究中被研究者主动操纵的变量；因变量dependent variable）是指随着独立变量的变化而变化的变量，在数学建模中决定结果的因素通常是因变量；控制变量（control variable）是指在实验中保持不变的变量；无关变量（extraneous variable）是指与研究目的无关，但可能会影响研究结果的变量。

2.The statement “The value of y depends on the value of x” can be represented by a mathematical model where y is the_____.A.independent variableB.dependent variableC.control variableD.extraneous variable答案：B。

在“y 的值取决于x 的值”这句话中，y 是随着x 的变化而变化的变量，所以y 是因变量。

3.In a mathematical model, the variable that is held constant toobserve the effect on other variables is_____.A.independent variableB.dependent variableC.control variableD.extraneous variable答案：C。

Shulman--knowledge and teaching

Knowledge and Teaching: Foundations of the New ReformLEE S. SHULMANStanford UniversityLee S. Shulman builds his foundation for teaching reform on an idea of teaching that emphasizes comprehension and reasoning, transformation and reflection. "This emphasis is justified," he writes, "by the resoluteness with which research and policy have so blatantly ignored those aspects of teaching in the past." To articulate and j ustify this conception, Shulman responds to four questions: What are the sources of the knowledge base for teaching? In what terms can these sources be conceptualized? What are the processes of pedagogical reasoning and action? and What are the implications for teaching policy and educational reform? The answers — informed by philosophy, psychology, and a growing body of casework based on young and experienced practitioners — go far beyond current reform assumptions and initiatives. The outcome f or educational practitioners, scholars, and policymakers is a major redirection in how teaching is to be understood and teachers are to be trained and evaluated.This article was selected f or the November 1986 special issue on "Teachers, Teaching, and Teacher Education," but appears here because of the exigencies of publishing.Prologue: A Portrait of ExpertiseRichly developed portrayals of expertise in teaching are rare. While many characterizations of effective teachers exist, most of these dwell on the teacher's management of the classroom. W e find few descriptions or analyses of teachers that give careful attention not only to the management of students in classrooms, but also to the management of ideas within classroom discourse. Both kinds of emphasis will be needed if our portrayals of good practice are to serve as sufficient guides to the design of better education. Let us examine one brief account.A twenty-five-year veteran English teacher, Nancy, was the subject of a continuing study of experienced teachers that we had been conducting. The class wasnearing the end of the second week of a unit on Moby Dick. The observer had beenwell impressed with the depth of Nancy's understanding of that novel and her skillas a pedagogue, as she documented how Nancy helped a group of California highschool juniors grasp the many faces of that masterpiece. Nancy was a highly activeteacher, whose classroom style employed substantial interaction with her students, Harvard Educational Review Vol. 57 No. 1 February 1987Copyright © by President and Fellows of Harvard College0017—8055/87/0200-0001$01.25/01Harvard Educational Reviewboth through recitations and more open-ended discussion. She was like a symphony conductor, posing questions, probing for alternative views, drawing out the shy while tempering the boisterous. Not much happened in the classroom that did not pass through Nancy, whose pacing and ordering, structuring and expanding, controlled the rhythm of classroom life.Nancy characterized her treatment of literature in terms of a general theoretical model that she employed.Basically, I break reading skills into four levels:Level 1 is simply translation. . . . It is understanding the literal meaning,denotative, and frequently for students that means getting a dictionary.Level 2 is connotative meaning and again you are still looking at the words.. . . What does that mean, what does that tell us about the character? . . .We looked at The Scarlet Letter. Hawthorne described a rose bush in the firstchapter. Literal level is: What is a rose bush? More important, what does arose bush suggest, what is it that comes to mind, what did you picture?Level 3 is the level of interpretation . . . . It is the implication of Levels 1 and2. If the author is using a symbol, what does that say about his view of life?In Moby Dick, the example I used in class was the boots. The boots would bethe literal level. What does it mean when he gets under the bed? And the students would say, he is trying to hide something. Level 3 would be what doesMelville say about human nature? What is the implication of this? What doesthis tell us about this character?Level 4 is what I call application and evaluation and I try, as I teach literature,to get the students to Level 4, and that is where they take the literature andsee how it has meaning for their own lives. Where would we see that eventoccur in our own society? How would people that we know be behaving ifthey are doing what these characters are doing? How is this piece of literaturesimilar to our common experiences as human beings? . . . So my view ofreading is basically to take them from the literal on the page to making itmean something in their lives. In teaching literature I am always working inand out of those levels. (Gudmundsdottir, in preparation)Nancy employed this conceptual framework in her teaching, using it to guide her own sequencing of material and formulation of questions. She taught the framework explicitly to her students over the semester, helping them employ it like a scaffolding to organize their own study of the texts, to monitor their own thinking. Although as a teacher she maintained tight control of the classroom discourse, her teaching goals were to liberate her students' minds through literacy, eventually to use great works of literature to illuminate their own lives. Whichever work she was teaching, she understood how to organize it, frame it for teaching, divide it appropriately for assignments and activities. She seemed to possess a mental index for these books she had taught so often — The Red Badge of Courage, Moby Dick, The Scarlet Letter, The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn — with key episodes organized in her mind for different pedagogical purposes, different levels of difficulty, different kinds of pupils, different themes or emphases. Her combination of subject-matter understanding and pedagogical skill was quite dazzling.When the observer arrived at the classroom one morning, she found Nancy sitting at her desk as usual. But her morning greeting elicited no response from Nancy other than a grimace and motion toward the pad of paper on her desktop."I have laryngitis this morning and will not be able to speak aloud," said the note. 2Knowledge and TeachingLEE S. SHULMANWhat's more, she appeared to be fighting the flu, for she had little energy. Fora teacher who managed her classroom through the power of her voice and hermanner, this was certainly a disabling condition. Or was it?Using a combination of handwritten notes and whispers, she divided the class into small groups by rows, a tactic she had used twice before during this unit.Each group was given a different character who has a prominent role in the firstchapters of the novel, and each group was expected to answer a series of questionsabout that character. Ample time was used at the end of the period for representatives of each group to report to the whole class. Once again the class had runsmoothly, and the subject matter had been treated with care. But the style hadchanged radically, an utterly different teaching technology was employed, andstill the students were engaged, and learning appeared to occur.Subsequently, we were to see many more examples of Nancy's flexible style, adapted to the characteristics of learners, the complexities of subject matter, andher own physical condition. When learners experienced serious problems with aparticular text, she self-consciously stayed at the lower levels of the reading ladder,helping the students with denotative and connotative meanings, while emphasizing literary interpretations somewhat less. When teaching Huck Finn, a novel shesaw as less difficult than Moby Dick, her style changed once again. She gave muchmore autonomy to the students and did not directly run the classroom as much.For Huck Finn, she abandoned the stage early on and let the students teacheach other. She had the students working independently in eight multi-abilitygroups, each group tracing one of eight themes: hypocrisy; luck and superstition; greed and materialism; romantic ideas and fantasy; religion and theBible; social class and customs; family, racism, and prejudice; freedom andconscience. There were only two reading checks at the beginning and onlytwo rounds of reporting. Once the groups were underway, Nancy took a seatat the back of the class and only interacted with students when she was calledupon, and during group presentations. (Gudmundsdottir, in preparation)Thus Nancy's pattern of instruction, her style of teaching, is not uniform or predictable in some simple sense. She flexibly responds to the difficulty and characterof the subject matter, the capacities of the students (which can change even overthe span of a single course), and her educational purposes. She can not only conduct her orchestra from the podium, she can sit back and watch it play with virtuosity by itself.What does Nancy believe, understand, and know how to do that permits her to teach as she does?C a n other teachers be prepared to teach with such skill? The hope that teaching like Nancy's can become typical instead of unusual motivates much of the effort in the newly proposed reforms of teaching.T h e New ReformsDuring the past year the U.S. public and its professional educators have been presented with several reports on how to improve teaching as both an activity and a profession. One of the recurring themes of these reports has been the professionalization of teaching — the elevation of teaching to a more respected, more responsible, more rewarding and better rewarded occupation. T h e claim that teaching deserves professional status, however, is based on a more fundamental premise: that the standards by which the education and performance of teachers must be3Harvard Educational Reviewjudged can be raised and more clearly articulated. The advocates of professional reform base their arguments on the belief that there exists a "knowledge base for teaching" — a codified or codifiable aggregation of knowledge, skill, understanding, and technology, of ethics and disposition, of collective responsibility — as well as a means for representing and communicating it. The reports of the Holmes Group (1986) and the Carnegie Task Force (1986) rest on this belief and, furthermore, claim that the knowledge base is growing. They argue that it should frame teacher education and directly inform teaching practice.The rhetoric regarding the knowledge base, however, rarely specifies the character of such knowledge. It does not say what teachers should know, do, understand, or profess that will render teaching more than a form of individual labor, let alone be considered among the learned professions.In this paper, I present an argument regarding the content, character, and sources for a knowledge base of teaching that suggests an answer to the question of the intellectual, practical, and normative basis for the professionalization of teaching. The questions that focus the argument are: What are the sources of the knowledge base for teaching? In what terms can these sources be conceptualized? What are the implications for teaching policy and educational reform?1 In addressing these questions I am following in the footsteps of many eminent scholars, including Dewey (1904), Scheffler (1965), Green (1971), Fenstermacher (1978), Smith (1980), and Schwab (1983), among others. Their discussions of what qualities and understandings, skills and abilities, and what traits and sensibilities render someone a competent teacher have continued to echo in the conference rooms of educators for generations. My approach has been conditioned, as well, by two current projects: a study of how new teachers learn to teach and an attempt to develop a national board for teaching.First, for the past three years, my colleagues and I have been watching knowledge of pedagogy and content grow in the minds of young men and women. They have generously permitted us to observe and follow their eventful journeys from being teacher education students to becoming neophyte teachers. In this research, we are taking advantage of the kinds of insights Piaget provided from his investigations of knowledge growth. H e discovered that he could learn a great deal about knowledge and its development from careful observation of the very young — those who were just beginning to develop and organize their intelligence. We are following this lead by studying those just learning to teach. Their development from students to teachers, from a state of expertise as learners through a novitiate as teachers exposes and highlights the complex bodies of knowledge and skill needed to function effectively as a teacher. The result is that error, success, and refinement — in a word, teacher-knowledge growth — are seen in high profile and in slow motion. The neophyte's stumble becomes the scholar's window.Concurrently, we have found and explored cases of veteran teachers such as Nancy (Baxter, in preparation; Gudmundsdottir, in preparation; Hashweh, 1985)1 Most of the empirical work on which this essay rests has been conducted with secondary-school teachers, both new and experienced. While I firmly believe that much of the emphasis to be found here on the centrality of content knowledge in pedagogy holds reasonably well for the elementary level as well, I am reluctant to make that claim too boldly. Work currently underway at the elementary level, both by Leinhardt (1983) and her colleagues (for example, Leinhardt & Greeno, 1985; Leinhardt & Smith, 1986) and by our own research group, may help clarify this matter.4Knowledge and TeachingLEE S. SHULMANto compare with those of the novices. What these studies show is that the knowledge, understanding, and skill we see displayed haltingly, and occasionally masterfully, among beginners are often demonstrated with ease by the expert. But, as we have wrestled with our cases, we have repeatedly asked what teachers knew (or failed to know) that permitted them to teach in a particular manner.Second, for much of the past year, I have engaged in quite a different project on the role of knowledge in teaching. In conjunction with the recent Carnegie initiative for the reform of the teaching profession, my colleagues and I have been studying ways to design a national board assessment for teaching, parallel in several ways to the National Board of Medical Examiners (Shulman & Sykes, 1986; Sykes, 1986). This challenge renders the questions about the definition and operationalization of knowledge in teaching as far more than academic exercises. If teachers are to be certified on the basis of well-grounded judgments and standards, then those standards on which a national board relies must be legitimized by three factors: they must be closely tied to the findings of scholarship in the academic disciplines that form the curriculum (such as English, physics, and history) as well as those that serve as foundations for the process of education (such as psychology, sociology, or philosophy); they must possess intuitive credibility (or "face validity") in the opinions of the professional community in whose interests they have been designed; and they must relate to the appropriate normative conceptions of teaching and teacher education.The new reform proposals carry assumptions about the knowledge base for teaching: when advocates of reform suggest that requirements for the education of teachers should be augmented and periods of training lengthened, they assume there must be something substantial to be learned. When they recommend that standards be raised and a system of examinations introduced, they assume there must exist a body of knowledge and skill to examine. Our research and that of others (for example, Berliner, 1986; Leinhardt & Greeno, 1986) have identified the sources and suggested outlines of that knowledge base. Watching veterans such as Nancy teach the same material that poses difficulties for novice teachers helped focus our attention on what kinds of knowledge and skill were needed to teach demanding materials well. By focusing on the teaching of particular topics — Huck Finn, quadratic equations, the Indian subcontinent, photosynthesis — we learned how particular kinds of content knowledge and pedagogical strategies necessarily interacted in the minds of teachers.What follows is a discussion of the sources and outlines of the required knowledge base for teaching. I divide this discussion into two distinct analyses. First, after providing an overview of one framework for a knowledge base for teaching, I examine the sources of that knowledge base, that is, the domains of scholarship and experience from which teachers may draw their understanding. Second, I explore the processes of pedagogical reasoning and action within which such teacher knowledge is used.The Knowledge BaseBegin a discussion on the knowledge base of teaching, and several related questions immediately arise: What knowledge base? Is enough known about teaching to support a knowledge base? Isn't teaching little more than personal style, artful5Harvard Educational Reviewcommunication, knowing some subject matter, and applying the results of recent research on teaching effectiveness? Only the last of these, the findings of research on effective teaching, is typically deemed a legitimate part of a knowledge base.The actions of both policymakers and teacher educators in the past have been consistent with the formulation that teaching requires basic skills, content knowledge, and general pedagogical skills. Assessments of teachers in most states consist of some combination of basic-skills tests, an examination of competence in subject matter, and observations in the classroom to ensure that certain kinds of general teaching behavior are present. In this manner, I would argue, teaching is trivialized, its complexities ignored, and its demands diminished. Teachers themselves have difficulty in articulating what they know and how they know it.Nevertheless, the policy community at present continues to hold that the skills needed for teaching are those identified in the empirical research on teaching effectiveness. This research, summarized by Brophy and Good (1986), Gage (1986), and Rosenshine and Stevens (1986), was conducted within the psychological research tradition. It assumes that complex forms of situation-specific human performance can be understood in terms of the workings of underlying generic processes. In a study of teaching context, the research, therefore, seeks to identify those general forms of teaching behavior that correlate with student performance on standardized tests, whether in descriptive or experimental studies. The investigators who conduct the research realize that important simplifications must be made, but they believe that these are necessary steps for conducting scientific studies. Critical features of teaching, such as the subject matter being taught, the classroom context, the physical and psychological characteristics of the students, or the accomplishment of purposes not readily assessed on standardized tests, are typically ignored in the quest for general principles of effective teaching.When policymakers have sought "research-based" definitions of good teaching to serve as the basis for teacher tests or systems of classroom observation, the lists of teacher behaviors that had been identified as effective in the empirical research were translated into the desirable competencies for classroom teachers. They became items on tests or on classroom-observation scales. They were accorded legitimacy because they had been "confirmed by research." While the researchers understood the findings to be simplified and incomplete, the policy community accepted them as sufficient for the definitions of standards.For example, some research had indicated that students achieved more when teachers explicitly informed them of the lesson's objective. This seems like a perfectly reasonable finding. When translated into policy, however, classroom-observation competency-rating scales asked whether the teacher had written the objective on the blackboard and/or directly told the student the objectives at the beginning of class. If the teacher had not, he or she was marked off for failing to demonstrate a desired competency. No effort was made to discover whether the withholding of an objective might have been consistent with the form of the lesson being organized or delivered.Moreover, those who hold with bifurcating content and teaching processes have once again introduced into policy what had been merely an act of scholarly convenience and simplification in the research. Teaching processes were observed and evaluated without reference to the adequacy or accuracy of the ideas transmitted.6Knowledge and TeachingLEE S. SHULMANIn many cases, observers were not expected to have content expertise in the areas being observed, because it did not matter for the rating of teacher performance. Thus, what may have been an acceptable strategy for research became an unacceptable policy for teacher evaluation.In this paper I argue that the results of research on effective teaching, while valuable, are not the sole source of evidence on which to base a definition of the knowledge base of teaching. Those sources should be understood to be far richer and more extensive. Indeed, properly understood, the actual and potential sources for a knowledge base are so plentiful that our question should not be, Is there really much one needs to know in order to teach? Rather, it should express our wonder at how the extensive knowledge of teaching can be learned at all during the brief period allotted to teacher preparation. Much of the rest of this paper provides the details of the argument that there exists an elaborate knowledge base for teaching.A View of TeachingI begin with the formulation that the capacity to teach centers around the following commonplaces of teaching, paraphrased from Fenstermacher (1986). A teacher knows something not understood by others, presumably the students. The teacher can transform understanding, performance skills, or desired attitudes or values into pedagogical representations and actions. These are ways of talking, showing, enacting, or otherwise representing ideas so that the unknowing can come to know, those without understanding can comprehend and discern, and the unskilled can become adept. Thus, teaching necessarily begins with a teacher's understanding of what is to be learned and how it is to be taught. It proceeds through a series of activities during which the students are provided specific instruction and opportunities for learning,2 though the learning itself ultimately remains the responsibility of the students. Teaching ends with new comprehension by both the teacher and the student.3 Although this is certainly a core conception of teaching, it is also an incomplete conception. Teaching must properly be understood to be more than the enhancement of understanding; but if it is not even that, then ques-2 There are several aspects of this formulation that are unfortunate, if only for the impression they may leave. The rhetoric of the analysis, for example, is not meant to suggest that education is reduced to knowledge transmission, the conveying of information from an active teacher to a passive learner, and that this information is viewed as product rather than process.M y conception of teaching is not limited to direct instruction. Indeed, my affinity for discovery learning and inquiry teaching is both enthusiastic and ancient (for example, Shulman & Keislar, 1966). Yet even in those most student-centered forms of education, where much of the initiative is in the hands of the students, there is little room for teacher ignorance. Indeed, we have reason to believe that teacher comprehension is even more critical for the inquiry-oriented classroom than for its more didactic alternative.Central to my concept of teaching are the objectives of students learning how to understand and solve problems, learning to think critically and creatively as well as learning facts, principles, and rules of procedure. Finally, I understand that the learning of subject matter is often not an end in itself, but rather a vehicle employed in the service of other goals. Nevertheless, at least at the secondary level, subject matter is a nearly universal vehicle for instruction, whatever the ultimate goal.3 This formulation is drawn from the teacher's perspective and, hence, may be viewed by some readers as overly teacher-centered. I do not mean to diminish the centrality of student learning for the process of education, nor the priority that must be given to student learning over teacher comprehension. But our analyses of effective teaching must recognize that outcomes for teachers as well as pupils must be considered in any adequate treatment of educational outcomes.7Harvard Educational Reviewtions regarding performance of its other functions remain moot. The next step is to outline the categories of knowledge that underlie the teacher understanding needed to promote comprehension among students.Categories of t h e Knowledge BaseIf teacher knowledge were to be organized into a handbook, an encyclopedia, or some other format for arraying knowledge, what would the category headings look like?4 At minimum, they would include:— content knowledge;— general pedagogical knowledge, with special reference to those broad principlesand strategies of classroom management and organization that appear to transcend subject matter;— curriculum knowledge, with particular grasp of the materials and programsthat serve as "tools of the trade" for teachers;— pedagogical content knowledge, that special amalgam of content and pedagogythat is uniquely the province of teachers, their own special form of professionalunderstanding;— knowledge of learners and their characteristics;— knowledge of educational contexts, ranging from the workings of the group orclassroom, the governance and f inancing o f school districts, to the character ofcommunities and cultures; and— knowledge of educational ends, purposes, and values, and their philosophicaland historical grounds.Among those categories, pedagogical content knowledge is of special interest because it identifies the distinctive bodies of knowledge for teaching. It represents the blending of content and pedagogy into an understanding of how particular topics, problems, or issues are organized, represented, and adapted to the diverse interests and abilities of learners, and presented for instruction. Pedagogical content knowledge is the category most likely to distinguish the understanding of the content specialist from that of the pedagogue. While far more can be said regarding the categories of a knowledge base for teaching, elucidation of them is not a central purpose of this paper.Enumerating t h e SourcesThere are at least four major sources for the teaching knowledge base: (1) scholarship in content disciplines, (2) the materials and settings of the institutionalized educational process (for example, curricula, textbooks, school organizations and finance, and the structure of the teaching profession), (3) research on schooling, social organizations, human learning, teaching and development, and the other social and cultural phenomena that affect what teachers can do, and (4) the wisdom of practice itself. Let me elaborate on each of these.Scholarship in content disciplines. The first source of the knowledge base is content knowledge — the knowledge, understanding, skill, and disposition that are to be4 I have attempted this list in other publications, though, admittedly, not with great cross-article consistency (for example, Shulman, 1986b; Shulman & Sykes, 1986; Wilson, Shulman & Richert, in press).8。

高产抗病冬小麦新品种—农大1108

高产抗病冬小麦新品种—农大1108Abstract:Winter wheat is one of the most important crops in China, and its productivity and quality rely largely on the performance of cultivars. In this study, we report a new winter wheat cultivar,ND1108, developed by the researchers at China Agricultural University. The ND1108 cultivar is characterized by high yield potential, disease resistance, and high baking quality. This study aimed to investigate the agronomical and quality traits of ND1108 under different conditions, and to evaluate its overall performance in comparison with existing winter wheat cultivars.Introduction:China is the world's largest wheat producer, and wheat is one of the most important cereal crops in the country. However, the wheat production in China is threatened by various pests and diseases, which often lead to significant yield losses. In recent years, Chinese researchers have focused on developing high-yielding, disease-resistant wheat cultivars for sustainable wheat production. Methods:The ND1108 cultivar was developed by crossing the Jingdongmai and Linyoumai parents, and was selected through several rounds of field trials and laboratory analyses. The agronomic traits ofND1108, including plant height, days to heading, thousand grain weight, yield per hectare, and disease resistance were evaluated under field conditions in six different locations in China. Thebaking quality of the wheat flour was assessed using the Farinograph and the Mixograph tests.Results:The ND1108 cultivar exhibited excellent agronomic traits, including high yield potential (yield range of 7.55 to 10.39 t/ha), good resistance to wheat stripe rust and powdery mildew, and moderate resistance to Fusarium head blight. The cultivar also had a moderate plant height (80-90 cm) and a medium thousand grain weight (40-45 g). The Farinograph and Mixograph tests showed that ND1108 had good baking quality, with a higher water absorption capacity, slower dough development time, and a higher dough strength than the control cultivars.Conclusion:The ND1108 winter wheat cultivar is a high-yielding, disease-resistant cultivar with good baking quality. It offers potential benefits to farmers and the wheat industry in China. The study highlights the importance of breeding new wheat varieties that not only have high yield potential and disease resistance but also meet the quality requirements of the wheat industry. Ongoing research and development are needed to ensure the sustainable production of wheat in China.The development and release of ND1108 cultivar is a significant achievement in the breeding of winter wheat in China. This cultivar brings a new option for farmers to achieve high productivity and quality in wheat production, while reducing the risk of disease and pest damage.Among the agronomic traits evaluated, the high yield potential of ND1108 is particularly noteworthy. In different regions of China, the yield of ND1108 ranges from 7.55 to 10.39 t/ha, which is higher than the average yield of many common cultivars. The good disease resistance of ND1108 to stripe rust and powdery mildew is also a valuable trait, as these two diseases can cause severe yield losses in many wheat-growing areas of China.The moderate resistance of ND1108 to Fusarium head blight is also encouraging, as this disease has become more prevalent in recent years due to changing weather conditions and farming practices. The moderate plant height and medium thousand grain weight of ND1108 make it suitable for different planting densities, which can further optimize its yield potential and adaptation to various environments.The baking quality of ND1108 is another highlight of this study. The Farinograph and Mixograph tests showed that ND1108 has a higher water absorption capacity, slower dough development time, and a higher dough strength than the control cultivars. This indicates that ND1108 can produce dough with better texture and elasticity, which meets the quality requirements of many processed wheat products.In conclusion, the ND1108 winter wheat cultivar developed by Chinese researchers is a promising new option for wheat production in China. Its combination of high yield potential, disease resistance, and good baking quality makes it a valuable addition to the existing cultivars. The results of this study also demonstrate the importance of continuous breeding efforts toimprove the sustainability and competitiveness of the wheat industry in China.Furthermore, the development of ND1108 cultivar is significant in terms of its potential economic benefits for farmers and wheat industry. High yielding cultivars with good disease resistance can not only increase farmers’ income, but also contribute to food security and stability in the wheat market. Moreover, the good baking quality of ND1108 can enhance the competitiveness of wheat products in domestic and international markets. This cultivar can be an attractive option for flour mills and bakeries, as it can produce high-quality flour and bread while reducing production costs.However, it is important to note that the widespread adoption of ND1108 and other improved cultivars requires continuous efforts in supporting research, extension, and education programs. These programs can help farmers and extension agents to access information and technologies related to crop management, pest and disease control, and quality assessment. They can also facilitate the transfer and adoption of new cultivars and farming systems, and promote collaboration among different stakeholders in the wheat industry.In conclusion, the development and release of ND1108 winter wheat cultivar in China is a significant achievement that reflects the ongoing efforts of researchers and policy-makers to address the challenges facing the wheat industry. This cultivar can contribute to sustainable and profitable wheat production, while meeting the demands of consumers for safe, nutritious, and high-quality wheat products. Its success also highlights the importance of innovation, cooperation, and capacity building in promoting the developmentand transformation of agriculture in China and beyond.Apart from the economic benefits, ND1108 cultivar can also have environmental advantages. Its high yield potential and good disease resistance can reduce the need for pesticides and fertilizers, which can ultimately lower the environmental impact of wheat cultivation. It can also improve soil health and fertility by reducing tillage, improving water infiltration, and increasing organic matter content.In addition, the development of ND1108 reflects the growing importance of scientific research and innovation in modern agriculture. China has been investing heavily in agricultural research and development, and has made significant progress in breeding new cultivars, improving crop management practices, and applying new technologies. This has contributed to China's food security and self-sufficiency, and has also opened up new opportunities for international cooperation and collaboration.However, there are also challenges and risks associated with the adoption of new cultivars and farming practices. The introduction of ND1108 and other high-yielding cultivars can lead to monoculture and loss of genetic diversity, which can increase the vulnerability of crops to pests, diseases, and climate change. It can also raise concerns about the safety and quality of food products, especially if they are genetically modified or have high pesticide residues.To address these challenges, it is important to ensure that the development and adoption of new cultivars and farming practices are based on sound scientific evidence, rigorous testing, andeffective regulation. It is also crucial to promote sustainable and diversified agricultural systems that prioritize the conservation of natural resources, protect biodiversity, and enhance the resilience of crops and ecosystems.Therefore, the development of ND1108 winter wheat cultivar represents a major step forward for the Chinese agriculture industry, but also underscores the need for continued investment in research, education, and policy initiatives that can promote sustainable and inclusive growth in the sector.In addition to the importance of sustainable and diversified agricultural systems, it is also crucial to involve farmers and local communities in the development and adoption of new farming practices and technologies. Farmers' knowledge and experiences can be valuable in identifying the most pressing challenges and opportunities in their local contexts, and in developing and adapting appropriate solutions.Furthermore, promoting innovation in agriculture requires a multidisciplinary approach that involves not only scientists and researchers, but also policymakers, extension agents, and private sector actors. It is important to foster partnerships and collaboration among stakeholders from different sectors and disciplines, and to support the dissemination of research findings and practical knowledge through training and outreach programs. In the case of the ND1108 cultivar, it is also important to promote responsible use and management of the new variety, including monitoring and evaluation of its performance and impact on farmers' livelihoods and the environment. This can help identifypotential risks and opportunities associated with its adoption, and inform future breeding and research efforts.In summary, the development of ND1108 winter wheat cultivar represents a significant achievement for the Chinese agriculture industry, but also highlights the importance of promoting sustainable and inclusive growth in the sector. This requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the social, economic, and environmental aspects of agriculture, and involves all relevant stakeholders in the development and implementation of new farming practices and technologies.Moreover, the global food system faces several challenges such as climate change, population growth, and increasing demand for food. It is crucial to develop sustainable and resilient food systems to ensure food security for all. The ND1108 cultivar has the potential to contribute to sustainable food production by increasing yield and reducing pesticide use, and its successful adoption can serve as a model for other regions and crops.However, the adoption of new technologies and practices is not always easy, and there may be social, cultural, and economic barriers to their implementation. For instance, small-scale farmers may lack access to credit, markets, and information, which can hinder their ability to invest in new technologies or adopt new practices. Therefore, it is important to address these challenges through policies and programs that support innovation, entrepreneurship, and inclusive growth.In particular, rural development strategies should focus on creating an enabling environment for innovation and entrepreneurship byproviding access to land, water, and other resources, as well as financing, training, and technical support. Such strategies can also help promote sustainable agricultural practices by encouraging diversification, conservation, and ecological intensification.In conclusion, the development of the ND1108 winter wheat cultivar represents a significant milestone in Chinese agriculture, and highlights the importance of sustainable and inclusive growth in the sector. By promoting innovation, collaboration, and responsible use of new technologies and practices, we can not only increase food production and improve farmers' livelihoods, but also ensure the long-term sustainability and resilience of the global food system.One way to promote sustainable and inclusive growth in agriculture is through the development and promotion of agroecological approaches. Agroecology is the study of ecological processes in agricultural systems and emphasizes the integration of social, economic, and environmental dimensions. Agroecological approaches promote biodiversity, reduce the use of synthetic inputs, and enhance the resilience of agroecosystems to climate change and other stresses.Agroecological approaches also promote social and economic inclusion by empowering small-scale farmers, women, and marginalized groups to participate in sustainable agriculture. By shifting the focus from maximizing yields to promoting ecological function and social equity, agroecology can help create more just and sustainable food systems.Furthermore, policies and programs that promote agroecological approaches can also help reduce the negative environmentalimpacts of agriculture, such as soil degradation, water pollution, and greenhouse gas emissions. Sustainable intensification, which refers to increasing food production per unit area while minimizing negative environmental impacts, can be achieved through a combination of agroecological approaches and improved technologies and practices.In conclusion, the development of the ND1108 winter wheat cultivar is a promising step towards sustainable and inclusive growth in Chinese agriculture. However, sustainable and inclusive growth in agriculture requires a systemic approach that addresses social, economic, and environmental dimensions. Agroecology and sustainable intensification offer promising pathways towards more resilient and equitable food systems, but their success will depend on the adoption of supportive policies, programs, and institutions.In addition to agroecology and sustainable intensification, other strategies can also promote sustainable and inclusive growth in agriculture. These include supporting small-scale farmers through access to credit, input supplies, and markets. It is important to ensure that small-scale farmers are included in the value chain and receive fair prices for their products.Investing in research and development for agricultural technologies that are climate-smart, resource-efficient, and sustainable can also be a game-changer. This includes breeding crop varieties that are more resilient to climate change, developing agroforestry systems that promote biodiversity and soil health, and promoting sustainable approaches to livestock production.Lastly, creating an enabling policy environment is crucial forpromoting sustainable and inclusive growth in agriculture. This includes policies that support agroecological practices, promote sustainable intensification, and incentivize the adoption of climate-smart technologies. In addition, policies that promote gender equality, address land tenure issues, and ensure equitable access to resources are also important for creating inclusive agricultural systems.In conclusion, sustainable and inclusive growth in agriculture requires a holistic and integrated approach that addresses social, economic, and environmental dimensions. It is possible to achieve food security while promoting sustainability and equity, but it will require concerted efforts from governments, civil society, and the private sector. By adopting sustainable agricultural practices and empowering small-scale farmers, we can create more resilient and just food systems that benefit both people and the planet.Another key aspect of promoting sustainable and inclusive growth in agriculture is improving food distribution and reducing food waste. According to the United Nations, about one-third of all food produced globally is lost or wasted, which not only exacerbates food insecurity but also increases greenhouse gas emissions through the production and disposal of wasted food. Addressing food waste will require collaboration across the food supply chain, from reducing post-harvest loss on farms to improving food storage and transportation infrastructure.Additionally, promoting sustainable agriculture can have positive ripple effects beyond the farming sector, including job creation in rural areas and the development of local economies. By empowering small-scale farmers, creating sustainable value chainsand investing in rural infrastructure, agriculture can also contribute to poverty reduction and overall economic growth.Finally, education and awareness-raising are essential for promoting sustainable and inclusive agriculture. This includes educating farmers on sustainable farming techniques, training extension workers to disseminate information, and raising consumer awareness about the benefits of sustainable food systems. Education can also play a role in promoting gender equality in agriculture, by ensuring that women have equal access to education and training opportunities.Overall, promoting sustainable and inclusive growth in agriculture is a complex process that requires addressing social, economic, and environmental factors. However, by adopting a holistic approach and investing in sustainable practices and policies, we can create more resilient, equitable, and sustainable food systems for current and future generations.。

Conversion Factors

CONVERSION fACTORSThe following table gives conversion factors from various units of measure to SI units . It is reproduced from NIST Special Publication 811, Guide for the Use of the International System of Units (SI) . The table gives the factor by which a quantity expressed in a non-SI unit should be multiplied in order to calculate its value in the SI . The SI values are expressed in terms of the base, supple-mentary, and derived units of SI in order to provide a coherent presentation of the conversion factors and facilitate computations (see the table “International System of Units” in this section) . If desired, powers of ten can be avoided by using SI prefixes and shifting the decimal point if necessary .Conversion from a non-SI unit to a different non-SI unit may be carried out by using this table in two stages, e .g .,1 cal th = 4 .184 J1 Btu IT = 1 .055056 E+03 JThus,1 Btu IT = (1 .055056 E+03 ÷ 4 .184) cal th = 252 .164 cal th Conversion factors are presented for ready adaptation to com-puter readout and electronic data transmission . The factors are written as a number equal to or greater than one and less than ten with six or fewer decimal places . This number is followed by the letter E (for exponent), a plus or a minus sign, and two digits that indicate the power of 10 by which the number must be multiplied to obtain the correct value . For example:3 .523 907 E-02 is 3 .523 907 × 10–2or0 .035 239 07Similarly:3 .386 389 E+03 is 3 .386 389 × 103or3 386 .389A factor in boldface is exact; i .e ., all subsequent digits are zero . All other conversion factors have been rounded to the figures given in accordance with accepted practice . Where less than six digits after the decimal point are shown, more precision is not warranted .It is often desirable to round a number obtained from a conver-sion of units in order to retain information on the precision of the value . The following rounding rules may be followed:1 . If the digits to be discarded begin with a digit less than 5, thedigit preceding the first discarded digit is not changed .Example: 6 .974 951 5 rounded to 3 digits is 6 .972 . If the digits to be discarded begin with a digit greater than5, the digit preceding the first discarded digit is increasedby one .Example: 6 .974 951 5 rounded to 4 digits is 6 .9753 . If the digits to be discarded begin with a 5 and at least oneof the following digits is greater than 0, the digit precedingthe 5 is increased by 1 .Example: 6 .974 851 rounded to 5 digits is 6 .974 94 . If the digits to be discarded begin with a5 and all of the fol-lowing digits are 0, the digit preceding the 5 is unchangedif it is even and increased by one if it is odd . (Note that thismeans that the final digit is always even .)Examples:6 .974 951 5 rounded to7 digits is 6 .974 9526 .974 950 5 rounded to7 digits is 6 .974 950ReferenceTaylor, B . N ., Guide for the Use of the International System of Units (SI), NIST Special Publication 811, 1995 Edition, Superintendent of Documents, U .S . Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, 1995 .Factors in boldface are exactTo convert from to Multiply by abampere . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .ampere (A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E+01 abcoulomb . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .coulomb (C) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E+01 abfarad . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .farad (F) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E+09 abhenry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .henry (H) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E–09 abmho . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .siemens (S) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E+09 abohm . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .ohm (Ω) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E–09 abvolt . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .volt (V) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E–08 acceleration of free fall, standard (g n) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .meter per second squared (m/s2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .9.806 65E+00 acre (based on U .S . survey foot)9 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .square meter (m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4 .046 873 E+03 acre foot (based on U .S . survey foot)9 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .cubic meter (m3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .233 489 E+03 ampere hour (A ∙ h) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .coulomb (C) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3.6E+03ångström (Å) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .meter (m) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E–10ångström (Å) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .nanometer (nm) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E–01 apostilb (asb) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .candela per meter squared (cd/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3 .183 098 E–01 are (a) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .square meter (m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E+02 astronomical unit (ua or AU) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .meter (m) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .495 979 E+11 atmosphere, standard (atm) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .pascal (Pa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.013 25 E+05 atmosphere, standard (atm) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .kilopascal (kPa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.013 25E+02 atmosphere, technical (at)10 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .pascal (Pa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .9.806 65E+04 atmosphere, technical (at)10 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .kilopascal (kPa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .9.806 65E+019 The U .S . survey foot equals (1200/3937) m . 1 international foot = 0 .999998 survey foot .10 One technical atmosphere equals one kilogram-force per square centimeter (1 at = 1 kgf/cm2) .1-28To convert from to Multiply bybar (bar) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .pascal (Pa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E+05 bar (bar) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .kilopascal (kPa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E+02 barn (b) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .square meter (m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E–28 barrel [for petroleum, 42 gallons (U .S .)](bbl) . . . . .cubic meter (m3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .589 873 E–01 barrel [for petroleum, 42 gallons (U .S .)](bbl) . . . . .liter (L) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .589 873 E+02 biot (Bi) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .ampere (A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1.0E+01 British thermal unit IT (Btu IT)11 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .055 056 E+03 British thermal unit th (Btu th)11 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .054 350 E+03 British thermal unit (mean) (Btu) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .055 87 E+03 British thermal unit (39 ºF) (Btu) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .059 67 E+03 British thermal unit (59 ºF) (Btu) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .054 80 E+03 British thermal unit (60 ºF) (Btu) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .054 68 E+03 British thermal unit IT foot per hour square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu IT ∙ ft/(h ∙ ft2∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per meter kelvin [W/(m ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .730 735 E+00 British thermal unit th foot per hour square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu th ∙ ft/(h ∙ ft2∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per meter kelvin [W/(m ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .729 577 E+00 British thermal unit IT inch per hour square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu IT ∙ in/(h ∙ ft2∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per meter kelvin [W/(m ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .442 279 E–01 British thermal unit th inch per hour square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu th ∙ in/(h ∙ ft2∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per meter kelvin [W/(m ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .441 314 E–01 British thermal unit IT inch per second square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu IT ∙ in/(s ∙ ft2∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per meter kelvin [W/(m ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5 .192 204 E+02 British thermal unit th inch per second square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu th ∙ in/(s ∙ ft2∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per meter kelvin [W/(m ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5 .188 732 E+02 British thermal unit IT per cubic foot(Btu IT/ft3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per cubic meter (J/m3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3 .725 895 E+04 British thermal unit th per cubic foot(Btu th/ft3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per cubic meter (J/m3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3 .723 403 E+04 British thermal unit IT per degree Fahrenheit(Btu IT/ºF) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kelvin (J/k) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .899 101 E+03 British thermal unit th per degree Fahrenheit(Btu th/ºF) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kelvin (J/k) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .897 830 E+03 British thermal unit IT per degree Rankine(Btu IT/ºR) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kelvin (J/k) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .899 101 E+03 British thermal unit th per degree Rankine(Btu th/ºR) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kelvin (J/k) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .897 830 E+03 British thermal unit IT per hour (Btu IT/h) . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt (W) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2 .930 711 E–01 British thermal unit th per hour (Btu th/h) . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt (W) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2 .928 751 E–01 British thermal unit IT per hour square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu IT/(h ∙ ft2∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter kelvin[W/(m2 ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5 .678 263 E+00 British thermal unit th per hour square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu th/(h ∙ ft2 ∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter kelvin[W/(m2∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5 .674 466 E+00 British thermal unit th per minute (Btu th/min) . . . . .watt (W) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .757 250 E+01 British thermal unit IT per pound (Btu IT/lb) . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram (J/kg) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2.326E+03 British thermal unit th per pound (Btu th/lb) . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram (J/kg) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2 .324 444 E+03 British thermal unit IT per pound degree Fahrenheit[Btu IT/(lb ∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram kelvin (J/(kg ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.1868E+03 British thermal unit th per pound degree Fahrenheit[Btu th/(lb ∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram kelvin [J/(kg ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+03 British thermal unit IT per pound degree Rankine[Btu IT/(lb ∙ ºR)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram kelvin [J/(kg ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.1868E+03 British thermal unit th per pound degree Rankine[Btu th/(lb ∙ ºR)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram kelvin [J/(kg ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184 E+03 British thermal unit IT per second (Btu IT/s) . . . . . . . . . .watt (W) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .055 056 E+03 British thermal unit th per second (Btu th/s) . . . . . . . . . . .watt (W) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .054 350 E+0311 The Fifth International Conference on the Properties of Steam (London, July 1956) defined the International Table calorie as 4 .1868 J . Therefore the exact conversion factor for the International Table Btu is 1 .055 055 852 62 kJ . Note that the notation for the International Table used in this listing is subscript “IT” . Similarily, the notation for thermochemical is subscript “th .” Further, the thermochemical Btu, Btu th, is based on the thermochemical calorie, cal th, where cal th = 4 .184 J exactly .To convert from to Multiply by British thermal unit IT per second square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu IT/(s ∙ ft2 ∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter kelvin[W/(m2 ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2 .044 175 E+04 British thermal unit th per second square foot degree Fahrenheit[Btu th/(s ∙ ft2 ∙ ºF)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter kelvin[W/(m2 ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2 .042 808 E+04 British thermal unit IT per square foot(Btu IT/ft2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per square meter (J/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .135 653 E+04 British thermal unit th per square foot(Btu th/ft2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per square meter (J/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .134 893 E+04 British thermal unit IT per square foot hour[(Btu IT/(ft2 ∙ h)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter (W/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3 .154 591 E+00 British thermal unit th per square foot hour[Btu th/(ft2 ∙ h)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter (W/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3 .152 481 E+00 British thermal unit th per square foot minute[Btu th/(ft2 ∙ min)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter (W/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .891 489 E+02 British thermal unit IT per square foot second[(Btu IT/(ft2 ∙ s)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter (W/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .135 653 E+04 British thermal unit th per square foot second[Btu th/(ft2 ∙ s)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter (W/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .134 893 E+04 British thermal unit th per square inch second[Btu th/(in2 ∙ s)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter (W/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .634 246 E+06 bushel (U .S .) (bu) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .cubic meter (m3) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3 .523 907 E–02 bushel (U .S .) (bu) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .liter (L) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3 .523 907 E+01 calorie IT (cal IT)11 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.1868E+00 calorie th (cal th)11 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+00 calorie (cal) (mean) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4 .190 02 E+00 calorie (15 ºC) (cal15) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4 .185 80 E+00 calorie (20 ºC) (cal20) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4 .181 90 E+00 calorie IT, kilogram (nutrition)12 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.1868E+03 calorie th, kilogram (nutrition)12 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+03 calorie (mean), kilogram (nutrition)12 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule (J) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4 .190 02 E+03 calorie th per centimeter second degree Celsius[cal th/(cm ∙ s ∙ ºC)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per meter kelvin [W/(m ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+02 calorie IT per gram (cal IT/g) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram (J/kg) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.1868E+03 calorie th per gram (cal th/g) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram (J/kg) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+03 calorie IT per gram degree Celsius[cal IT/(g ∙ ºC)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram kelvin [J/(kg ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.1868E+03 calorie th per gram degree Celsius[cal th/(g ∙ ºC)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram kelvin [J/(kg ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+03 calorie IT per gram kelvin [cal IT/(g ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram kelvin [J/(kg ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.1868E+03 calorie th per gram kelvin [cal th/(g ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .joule per kilogram kelvin [J/(kg ∙ K)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+03 calorie th per minute (cal th/min) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt (W) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .6 .973 333 E–02 calorie th per second (cal th/s) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt (W) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+00 calorie th per square centimeter (cal th/cm2) . . . . . . . . . . .joule per square meter (J/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+04 calorie th per square centimeter minute[cal th/(cm2∙ min)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter (W/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .6 .973 333 E+02 calorie th per square centimeter second[cal th/(cm2∙ s)] . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .watt per square meter (W/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .4.184E+04 candela per square inch (cd/in2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .candela per square meter (cd/m2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .550 003 E+03 carat, metric . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .kilogram (kg) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2.0E–04 carat, metric . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .gram (g) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .2.0E–01 centimeter of mercury (0 ºC)13 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .pascal (Pa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .333 22 E+03 centimeter of mercury (0 ºC)13 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .kilopascal (kPa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .333 22 E+00 centimeter of mercury, conventional (cmHg)13 . .pascal (Pa) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1 .333 224 E+0312 The kilogram calorie or “large calorie” is an obsolete term used for the kilocalorie, which is the calorie used to express the energy content of foods . However, in practice, the prefix “kilo” is usually omitted .13 Conversion factors for mercury manometer pressure units are calculated using the standard value for the acceleration of gravity and the density of mercury at the stated temperature . Additional digits are not justified because the definitions of the units do not take into account the compressibility of mercury or the change in density caused by the revised practical temperature scale, ITS-90 . Similar comments also apply to water manometer pressure units . Conversion factors for conventional mercury and water manometer pressure units are based on ISO 31-3 .。

CFA考试二级模拟试题精选0401-18(附详解)

CFA考试二级模拟试题精选0401-18(附详解）1、The bond that would most likely protect investors against a significant increase in interest rates is:【单选题】A.Bond #1.B.Bond #2.C.Bond #3.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The bond that would most likely protect investors against a significant increase in interest rates is the putable bond, i.e., Bond #3. When interest rates have risen and higher-yield bonds are available, a put option allows the bondholders to put back the bonds to the issuer prior to maturity and to reinvest the proceeds of the retired bonds in higher-yielding bonds.2、At a significance level of 1%, which of the following is the best interpretation of the regression coefficients with regard to explaining ROE?【单选题】A.ESG is significant, but tenure is not.B.Tenure is significant, but ESG is not.C.Neither ESG nor tenure is significant.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The t-statistic for tenure is 2.308, indicating significance at the 0.027 level but not the 0.01 level. The t-statistic for ESG is 1.201, with a p-value of 0.238, which means we fail to reject the null hypothesis for ESG at the 0.01 significance level.3、Violation of which BSM assumption is most likely to lead to gamma risk?【单选题】A.The volatility of the returns on the underlying asset is constant and known.B.Markets are frictionless; there are no transaction costs.C.The price of the underlying changes smoothly.正确答案:C答案解析:Gamma risk arises when the price of the underlying jumps abruptly (as opposed to smoothly).4、Using information in Exhibit 1, the portfolio's sensitivity to inflation is closest to:【单选题】A.-1.1.B.- 1.7.C.-2.2.正确答案:B答案解析:β=0.6(-2.2) + 0.4(-1.0) = -1.725、Cannan’s preference to use the P/E ratio over the P/S ratio is best supported by:【单选题】A.Reason 1B.Reason 2C.Reason 3正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The price to sales (P/S) ratio fails to consider differences in cost structures. Also, while share price reflects the effect of debt financing on profitability and risk, sales is a pre-financing income measure and does not incorporate the impact of debt in the firm’s capital structure. Earnings reflect operating and financial leverage, and thus the price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio incorporates the impact of debt in the firm’s capital structure.6、Based on each firm's forecasts of the estimated NPV of synergies from a merger between Alertron and Carideo, what payment method is each firm likely to prefer in the deal?【单选题】A.Both firms prefer a cash deal.B.Only Alertron prefers a cash deal.C.Only Carideo prefers a cash deal.正确答案:A答案解析:7、Based on Exhibit 4 and Gillette’s forecast regarding Raffarin’s share price, the return on the RI bond over the next year is most likely to be:【单选题】A.lower than the return on Raffarin’s common shares.B.the same as the return on Raffarin’s common shares.C.higher than the return on Raffarin’s common shares.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Over the next year, Gillette believes that Raffarin’s share price will continue to increase towards the conver sion price but not exceed it. If Gillette’s forecast becomes true, the return on the RI bond will increase but at a lower rate than the increase in Raffarin’s share price because theconversion price is not expected to be reached.8、For the interest rate scenario presented by Muniz, the most appropriate duration measure is:【单选题】A.key rate duration.B.one-sided up duration.C.effective duration.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. A bond’s sensitivity to changes in the shape of the yield curve, steepening or flattening, is captured by key rate duration. One-sided duration (up or down) is better than effective or two-sided duration at capturing the interest rate sensitivity of a callable or putable bond but only for a parallel shift in the yield curve, not for changes in the shape of the yield curve.9、【单选题】A.Price of third bond: Less than 100%; OAS of callable bond: Zero.B.Price of third bond: Equal to 100%; OAS of callable bond: Positive.C.正确答案:B答案解析:In this case, the bond is callable and puttable at the same price (100). Because Walters states that the embedded options (the issuer's call option and the holder's put option) will be exercised if the option has value (i.e., is in-the-money), the value of the bond must be 100 (plus the interest) at all times. Why? If rates fall and the computed value goes above 100, the company will call the issue at 100. Conversely, if rates increase and the computed value goes below 100, the bondholder will "put" the bond back to the issuer for 100.10、Koning realizes that an increase in the recovery rate would lead to an increase in the bond’s fair value, whereas an increase in the probability of defaultwould lead to a decrease in the bond’s fair value. He is not sure which effect would be greater, however. So, he increases bo th the recovery rate and the probability of default by 25% of their e xisting estimates and recomputes the bond’s fair value. The recomputed fair value is closest to:【单选题】A.€843.14.B.€848.00.C.€855.91.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The recovery rate to be used now in the computation of fair value is 30% × 1.25 = 37.5%, whereas the hazard rate to be used is 1.50% × 1.25 = 1.875%.。

CFA二级练习题精选及答案0516-7

CFA二级练习题精选及答案0516-7 StudySession 3 –Quantitative Methods (7-12) Q=6JorgeReyes Case ScenarioJorge Reyes is a financial analyst withValores de Playa SA de CV, located in a suburb of Mexico City, Mexico. Twonights a week, he works as an adjunct professor at a local technical institute,lecturing in investments and serving as a consultant in statistics and relatedfields.During a lecture on modern portfolio theory(MPT), Reyes points out the role that reqression plays in estimating theparameters of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), As an exercise, Reyespresents the results of a regression of retums (R) on the company that owns theMercican stock exchange (ticker symbal BOLSAA.MX) against the U.S.dallar-Mexican peso exchange rate （Er）.The data cover the period from late 2011 through early 2012.Thereare 64daily observations in the study. Exhibit l reports the results of theregression.One of the students asks Reyes about the"Adjusted R2" reported in Exhibit l. Reyes explains thatthe adjusted R2 removes the effects cf serial correlation in thedata.A second student recalls that the presenceof heteroskedasticity affects interpretation of the test statistics computed bya regression. Reyes confirms that that is true and suggests the studentsexamine a plot of the predicted BOLSAA return values versus their actualvalues.Exihibit 2 provides such a graph,Interpreting the graph, Reyes states:"Thepresence of heteroskedasticity is indicated when there is a systematic relationshipbetween the values of residuals and the independent variable. It is difficultto see such a systematic relationship in Exhibit 2.Thereforeheteroskedasticitydoes not appear to be a problem in this regression. "In a ater exercise, Reyes asks his studentsto consider a time series of 622 weekly prices of Maya 22 crude oil. Asubstantial proportion of Mexico's oil production is Mziya 22 heavy crude.Theperiod of the study is from January 1997 through Dtcember 2008.Reyes starts the analysis by looking at achart of the time series (not shown). Reyes points out several key features ofthe chart.u First, the prices exhibit an exponentialtrend in the price increasesleading up to 2008.u Second,price behavior in the last few months of 2008 is significantlydifferent from price behavior leading to the market top.Reyes asks the students to model the timeseries for the period January 3, 1997, through July 18, 2008, when prices hitthehigh value of USD126.58. At Reyes' suggestion, the students first model theprices as an exponential trend (long-Iinear model). They test for correlatederrors from the model using the Durbin-Watson statistic. The results arereported in Exhibit 3.Reyes next suggests they use a first-orderautoregressive model {AR(l)}. To reduce the impact of the exponential trend,the students continue to use the natural logarithms of the prices, but now theyalso take the first differences of these logarithms of the prices (xt)They fit a first-order autoregressiv model (AR(l)) to the differences of logs.The results of the regression are reported in Exhibit 4.As nonstationarity or heteroskedasticitywould negatively impact use of the AR(1) model, Reyes asks the students to testfor the presence of each. Results of the unit root test of nonstationarity andof a test for the presece of heteroskedasticity are reported in Exhibit 5.Question7theregression of the retuns of BOLSAA.MX on the USD:MXN exchange rate (Exhibit l),the coefficient of the USD:MXN exchange rate is most occurotely described as:A. signifiontly different fromzero.B. not significantly differentfrom zero.C. indeterminate, asinsufficient informatian is provided in Exhibitl.Question8Reyes'explanation regarding Adjusted R2 is best characttrized as:A. correctB. incorrect because Adjuted R2is a means of compensating for heteroskedasticity in the independent variables.C. incorrect because Adjusted R2reflects the loss of degrees of freedom when additionali ndependentvariables are added to a regression.Question9Reyes'interpretation of the graph in Exhibrt 2 is best described as:A. correctB. incorrect because theeffects of heteroskedasticity are, in a regressian such as this one, hidden bythe negative slope of the regressian line.C. incorrect becauseheteroskedasticity is indicated when there is not a systematic relationshipbetween the residuals and the independent variable.Question10TheDurb-Watson testreported in Exihit 3 is must acurately interpreted asindicating that the correlation in the errors is:A. insignificant.B. significantly positive.C. significantly negative.Question11Based onthe regression results reported in Exhibit 4,the mean-reverting level of thedifferences of logarithms of the Maya 22 prices(i.e,the time series as modeledin the AR(1) model)is closest：A. 0.00239.B. 0.00311.C. 0.30812.Question12Bared onthe results reported in Exhibit 5,the AR(1) model is best described as havingA. a unit root.B. reliable standard errors.C. heteroslcedasticity in theerror term variance答案解析：7. Correct answer：A"Correlation and Regression,"Richard A. DeFusco, CFA, Dennis W. McLeavey. CFA. Jerald E. Pinto, CFA, andDavid E. Runkle. CFA 2013 Modular Level ll. Vol.1. Reading 11, Section 3.5.Equation 10Study Sessian 3-11-gFormulate a null and alternative hypothesisabout a populatian value of a regression caefficenL and determine theappropriate test statistic and whether the null hypothesis is rejected at agiven level of significance.A is correct. A two-tailed t-test isappropriate to test if the coefficient differs signiflcantly from zero. Thetest statistic is the estimate of the coefficient (-0.5789) divided by itsstandard error (0.2221))-0.5789/0.2221 =- 2.61. Because -2.61 lies below -2.00(the negative critical value for the two-tailed test), the coefficient differssignifIcantly from zero at the 5% level ofsignificance.8. Correct answer:C"Multiple Regression and Issues inRegression Analysis." Richard A. DeFusco. CFA, Dennis W. McLeavey. CFAJerald E Pinto. CFA and David E. Runkle. CFA2013 Modular Level II Vol. 1. Reading 12.Section 2.4Study Sesiion 3-12-fDistinguish between and interpret R2 andadjusted R2 in multipleregression.C is correct. The acljusted R2reflects the loss of degrees of freedom when additianal independent variablesare added to a regression.lt does not remove the effects of serial correlatianin the data.9. Correct answer:A"Multiple Regression and Issues inRegression Analysis," Richard A. DeFusco. CFA, Dennis W. McLeavey, CFAJerald E.Pinto. CFA. and Davicl E. Runkle.CFA2013 Modular Level II, Vol. 1. Reading12 Section 4.1Study Sessian 3-12-iExplain the types of heteroskedastiaty andthe effects of heteroskedasticity and serial correlation on statisticalinference.A is correct. The presence ofheteroskedasticity is indicated when a systematic relationship exists betweenthe residuals and the independent variable.lt is difflcult to see such asystematic relatronship in Exhibit 2. Therefore. heteroskedasticity does notappear to be a problem in this regression.10. Correct answer：C"Multiple Regression and Issues inRegression Anatysis," Richard A. DeFusco. CFA, Dennis W. McLeavey, CFAJerald E Pinto. CFA. and David E Runkle. CFA2013 Modular Level II, Vol.1. Reading12 Section 4.2.2,Fig. 3 "Time-Series Analysis,H Richard A, DeFusco,CFA Dennis VV. McLeavey, CFA, Jerald E, Pinta. CFA, and David E. Runkle, CFA2013 Modular Level II. Vol. 1, Reading 13,Section 3.2Study Sessions 3-12-i. 3-13-bExplain the types of heteroskedasticity andthe effects of heteraskedasticity and serial correlation on statisticalinference.Describe factors that determine whether alinear or a log-linear trend should be used with a particular time series. andevaluate the limitations of trend models.C is correct. Significantly large values ofthe Durbin-Watson statistic point to nagative serial correlation (see Footnote49. Sedion 4 2.2). Specifically. if the DW statistic exceeds 4 - dl.where dl is the lower critical value of the DW test. there issignificant negative serial correlation.ln this case. DW = 3.97 and dI= 1.65. Because 3.97 > [4 - 1.65] the test inclicates significant negativeserial correlation.11. Correct answer:B12.Correct answer:C"Time-Series Analysis.' Richard A. DeFusca, CFA, Dennis W.McLeavey, CFA, Jerald E. Pinto, CFA, and David E. Runkle.CFA2013Modular Level II, Vol. 1. Reading 13, Sections 5.2.9 Study SessIion 3-13-m, nExplainautoregressive conditional heteroskedasticity (ARCH), and describe how ARCHmodels can be applied to predict the variance of a time series.Explain how timeseries variables should be analyzed for nonstationarity and/or caintegrationbefore use in a linear regression.C is correct. theAR(1) model passes tha unit root test (does not exhibit a unit root). The testfor heteroskedasticity. however suggests that the error term variances areheteroskedastic. A more sophisticated。

东北师范大学奥鹏英语语言学复习资料

英语语言学、单选题（共 20 道试题，共 60 分。

）得分：31. Human languages can be used to describe themselves. The language used to talk about language is called .A. special languageB. local languageC. metalanguageD. human language正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：32. The features which are found over a segment or a sequence of two or more segments are called ________.A. distinctive featuresB. non-distinctive featuresC. suprasegmental featuresD. free variation正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：03. The questions of “How is language acquired? How do people learn a foreign language?” are explored in __________.A. applied linguisticsB. sociolinguiticsC. psycholinguisticsD. general linguistics正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：04. impossible （为下列单词选择相对应的构词法）A. DerivationB. ConversionC. BackformationD. Blending正确答案：A 满分：3 分得分：05. The following are all suprasegmental features except ____.A. stressB. toneC. voicingD. intonation正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：06. This （vet ）is very famous in the town. （为括号部分的单词选择相对应的构词法）A. CoinageB. Sound ReduplicationD. Eponym正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：07. to machinegun （为下列单词选择相对应的构词法）A. DerivationB. ConversionC. BackformationD. Blending正确答案：B 满分：3 分得分：08. In the phrases a herd of cattle, a flock of sheep, both cattle and sheep contain _____ morphemes.A. oneB. twoC. threeD. four正确答案：B 满分：3 分得分：09. ____ is defined as the study of the internal structure and the formation of words.A. MorphologyB. SyntaxC. LexiconD. Morpheme正确答案：A 满分：3 分得分：010. If segments appear in the same position but the mutual substitution does not change the meaning, they are said to be in ____.A. contrastive distributionB. free variationC. complementary distributionD. distinctive features正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：011. The syllabic unit made up by the ____ is called a rhyme.A. onset + nucleusB. nucleus + codaC. onset + codaD. coda + onset正确答案：B 满分：3 分得分：012. A(n)________ is the minimal or the smallest distinctive linguistic unit in a language.A. phonetic symbolB. alphabetD. allophone正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：013. The widely used symbols for phonetic transcription of speech sounds is __________.A. International Phonetic SymbolB. International Phonetic AlphabetC. Narrow TranscriptionD. Wide Transcription正确答案：B 满分：3 分得分：014. Acronyms and abbreviations are formed by putting together the ____ letters of some or all words in a phrase or title.A. InimicalB. initiativeC. suffixingD. initial正确答案：D 满分：3 分得分：015. NATO（为下列单词选择相对应的构词法）A. AcronymB. Sound ReduplicationC. CoinageD. Eponym正确答案：A 满分：3 分得分：016. The road was （enlarged ）the year before the last. （为括号部分的单词选择相对应的构词法）A. DerivationB. ConversionC. BackformationD. Blending正确答案：A 满分：3 分得分：017. peddle （为下列单词选择相对应的构词法）A. ConversionB. BackformationC. BlendingD. Compounding正确答案：B 满分：3 分得分：018. Clipping is a process that ____ a polysyllabic word by deleting one or more syllables.A. LengthensB. widensD. strengthens正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：019. [u:] possesses the features _____________.A. [+high][+back][+round][-tense]B. [+high][-back][+round][+tense]C. [+high][+back][+round][+tense]D. [-high][+back][+round][+tense]正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：020. The word “multinationality” has ______ morphemes.A. 2B. 3C. 4D. 5正确答案：C 满分：3 分得分：0、判断题（共 20 道试题，共 40 分。

CFA二级练习题精选及答案0601-5

CFA二级练习题精选及答案0601-51、In regard to calculating Wadgett's FCFF, the comment that is most appropriate is the one dealing with:【单选题】A.working capital adjustments.B.treatment of all non-cash charges.C.treatment of net borrowing.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Cash flow from operations (CFO) already reflects changes in working capital items, therefore Paschel's first comment is correct. EBITDA has the non-cash charges of depreciation and amortization added back, so Covey's statement is incorrect, not all non-cash charges will need to beadded back. Net borrowing is added back for FCFE not FCFF, so Paschel's second statement is incorrect.B is incorrect. Depreciation has already been added back to EBITDA, though there may be other items that still need to be added back.C is incorrect. Adjusting for net borrowing is not necessary for FCFF (just FCFE).2、Honorédescribes three potential consequences of multicollinearity. Are all three consequences correct?【单选题】A.Yes.B.No, 1 is incorrectC.No, 2 is incorrect正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The R2 is expected to increase, not decline, with a new independent variable. The other twopotential consequences Honorédescribes are correct.3、Ibarra wants to know the credit spread of bond B2 over a theoretical comparable-maturity government bond with the same coupon rate as this bond. The foregoing credit spread is closest to:【单选题】A.108 bps.B.101 bps.C.225 bps.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The corporate bond’s fair value is computed in the solution to Question 8 as €1,101.24The YTM can be obtained by solving the following equation for IRR:The solution to this equation is 3.26%.Valuation of a four-year, 6% coupon bond under no default (VND) is computed in thesolution to Question 8 as 1,144.63. So, the YTM of a theoretical comparable-maturity government bond with the same coupon rate as the corporate bond B2 can be obtained by solving the following equation for IRR:The solution to this equation is 2.18%. So, the credit spread that the analyst wants to compute is3.26% – 2.18% = 1.08%, or 108 bps.B is incorrect, because that is the spread over the four-year government par bond that has a YTM of 2.25% in Exhibit 2: 3.26% – 2.25% = 1.01%, or 101 bps. Although this spread is commonly used in practice, the analyst is interested in finding the spread over a theoretical 6% coupon government bond.C is incorrect, because that is the YTM of the coupon four-year government bond in Exhibit 2.4、Based on Exhibit 1, which independent variables in Varden’s model are significant at the 0.05 level?【单选题】A.ESG onlyB.10.957%.C.Tenure onlyD.Neither ESG nor tenure正确答案:C答案解析:B is correct. The t-statistic for tenure is 2.308, which is significant at the 0.027 level. The t-statistic for ESG is 1.201, with a p-value of 0.238. This result is not significant at the 0.05 level.5、Based on Exhibit 1 and Tyo’s expectations, which country’s term structure is currently best for traders seeking to ride the yield curve?【单选题】A.Country AB.Country BC.Country C正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Country A’s yield curve is upward sloping—a condition for the strategy—and more so than Country B’s.6、To correct the problem Hake encounters when using a Monte Carlo simulation, he would most likely:【单选题】A.adjust the volatility assumption.B.increase the number of simulations.C.add a constant to all interest rates on all paths.正确答案:C答案解析:Using a Monte Carlo simulation, the model will produce benchmark bond values equal to the market pricesonly by chance. A constant is added to all interest rates on all paths such that the average present value for each benchmark bond equals its market value.A is incorrect because adjusting the volatility assumption will generate another random value not equal to the benchmark bond value. The benchmark bond is option-free, so its value should not be affected by interest rate volatility.B is incorrect because increasing the model beyond 2000 paths will not lead to a different average value for the benchmark bond.7、Which forward rate cannot be computed from the one-, two-, three-, and four-year spot rates? The rate for a:【单选题】A.one-year loan beginning in two years.B.two-year loan beginning in two years.C.three-year loan beginning in two years.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. There is no spot rate information to provide rates for a loan that terminates in five years. That is f(2,3) is calculated as follows: The equation above indicates that in order to calculate the rate for a three-year loan beginning at the end of two years you need the five year spot rate r(5) and the two-year spot rate r(2). However r(5) is not provided.8、Cannan has been working from home on weekends and occasionally saves correspondence with clients and completed work on her home computer. Because of worsening market conditions, Cannan is one of several employees released by her firm. While Cannan is looking for a new job, she uses the files she saved at home to request letters of recommendation from former clients. She also provides to prospective clients some of the reports as examples of her abilities.【单选题】A.Cannan violated the Code and Standards because she did not receive permission from her former employer to keep or use the files after her employment ended.B.Cannan did not violate the Code and Standards because the files were created and saved on her own time and computer.C.Cannan violated the Code and Standards because she is prohibited from saving files on her home computer.正确答案:A答案解析:Answer A is correct. According to Standard V(C)–Record Retention, Cannan needed the permission of her employer to maintain the files at home after her employment ended. Without that permission, she should have deleted the files. All files created as p art of a member’s or candidate’s professional activity are the property of the firm, even those created outside normal work hours. Thus, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the Code and Standards do not prohibit using one’s personal computer to complete work for one’s employer.9、Based on the data in Exhibit 1, current real short-term interest rates would most likely be highest in:【单选题】A.Country #1.B.Country #2.C.Country #3.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Real short-term interest rates are positively related to both real GDP growth and the volatility of real GDP growth. Country #1 and Country #2 have the highest real GDP growth, as estimated by the difference between nominal GDP growth and average inflation (6.5% – 4.0% = 2.5% and 5.0% – 2.5% = 2.5%, respectively), while Country #3 has the lowest real GDP growth (3.5% –2.0% = 1.5%). Looking at the volatility of real GDP growth, Country #2 has high real GDP growth volatility, whereas Country #1 and Country #3 have low real GDP growth volatility. Therefore, Country #2 would most likely have the highest real short-term interest rates.10、Which approach would an appraiser most likely use for valuing Property #2?【单选题】A.Cost approach.B.Income approach.C.Sales comparison approach.正确答案:B答案解析:Property #2 is an older office building with unique characteristics that could not be easily reproduced using current architectural designs and materials. Therefore, the cost approach would be less appropriate than the income approach as a basis for appraisal. The sales comparison approach would also be less suitable as the property is relatively unique.11。

商业银行管理彼得S.罗斯英文原书第8版英语试题库Chap002

Chapter 2The Impact of Government Policy and Regulation on the Financial-Services IndustryFill in the Blank Questions1.The _____________________ was created as part of the Glass Steagall Act. In the beginning it insured depositsup to $2,500.Answer: FDIC2.The________________________ is the law that states that a bank must get approved from their regulatory body inorder to combine with another bank.Answer: Bank Merger Act3.One tool that the Federal Reserve uses to control the money supply is _________________ . The Federal Reservewill buy and sell T-bills when they are using this tool of monetary policy.Answer: open market operations4.The__________________________ was created in 1913 in response to a series of economic depressions and failures.Its principal role is to serve as the lender of last resort and to stabilize the financial markets.Answer: Federal Reserve5.The __________________________ prevented banks from crossing state lines and made national banks subject tothe branching laws of their state. This act was later repealed by the Riegle Neal Interstate Banking law.Answer: McFadden-Pepper Act6.Because the FDIC levies fixed insurance premiums regardless of risk, this leads to a problem called the____________________ among banks. The fixed premiums encourage all banks to accept greater risk.Answer: moral hazard7.In 1980, __________________________ was passed and lifted government ceilings on deposit interest rates in favorof free market interest rates.Answer: DIDMCA8.One tool that the Federal Reserve uses to control the money supply is _________________. The Federal Reservewill change the interest rate they charge for short term loans when they are using this tool of monetary policy.Answer: changing the discount rate9.The first major federal banking law in the U.S. was the __________________________. This law was passed duringthe Civil War and set up a system for chartering national banks and created the OCC.Answer: National Banking Act10.The_________________________ was passed during the Great Depression. It separated investment and commercialbanks and created the FDIC.Answer: Glass-Steagall Act11.The__________________________ brought bank holding companies under the jurisdiction of the Federal Reserve.Answer: Bank Holding Company Act12.The__________________________ allows bank holding companies to acquire banks anywhere in the United States.However, no one bank can control more than 30 percent of the deposits in any one state or more than 10 percent of the deposits across the country.Answer: Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking Act13.The allows banks to affiliate with insurance companies and securities firms eitherthrough a holding company or as a subsidiary.Answer: Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Financial Services Modernization Act)14.Customers of financial-service companies may _____________________ of having their private information sharedwith a third party such as a telemarketer. However, in order to do this they must tell the financial-services company in writing that they do not want their personal information shared with outside parties.Answer: opt out15.The federal bank regulatory agency which examines the most banks is the ______________.Answer: FDIC16.The _________________ requires financial service companies to report suspicious activity in customer accounts tothe Treasury Department.Answer: U.S. Patriot Act17.The central bank of the new European Union is known as the _______________________.Answer: European Central Bank or ECB18.The _____________________ Act prohibits banks and other publicly owned firms from publishing false ormisleading financial performance information.Answer: Sarbanes-Oxley19.One of the main roles of the Federal Reserve today is . They have three tools that they use todayto carry out this role; open market operations, the discount rate and legal reserve requirements.Answer: monetary policy20.The is the center of authority and decision making within the Federal Reserve. Itconsists of seven members appointed by the president for terms not exceeding 14 years.Answer: Board of Governors21.The main regulators of insurance companies are .Answer: state insurance commissions22.Federal Credit Unions are regulated and examined by .Answer: the National Credit Union Administration.23.The makes it easier for victims of identity theft to file fraud alerts and allows thepublic to apply for a free credit report once a year.Answer: Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act (FACT Act)24.The makes it faster and less costly for banks to clear checks. It allows for banksto electronically send check images instead of shipping paper checks across the country.Answer: Check 21 Act25.The was created by the National Banking Act and is part of the TreasuryDepartment. It is the primary regulator of National Banks.Answer: Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC)26.The _________________________ proposes various regulations applying to the financial markets to combat therecent credit crisis. This “bail-out” bill granted the US Treasury the means to purchase troubled loans, allowed the FDIC to temporarily increase deposit insurance, and permitted the government to inject additional capital into the banking system.Answer: The Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008True/False QuestionsT F27.Federal Reserve Act authorized the creation of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.Answer: FalseT F28.In the United States, fixed fees charged for deposit insurance, regardless of how risky a bank is, led to a problem known as moral hazard.Answer: TrueT ernment-sponsored deposit insurance typically encourages individual depositors to monitor their banks' behavior in accepting risk.Answer: FalseT F29.The Federal Reserve changes reserve requirements frequently because the affect of these changes is so small.Answer: FalseT F30.The Bank Merger Act and its amendments requires that Bank Holding Companies be under the jurisdiction of the Federal Reserve.Answer: FalseT F31.National banks cannot merge without the prior approval of the Comptroller of the Currency.Answer: TrueT F32.The Truth in Lending (or Consumer Credit Protection) Act was passed by the U.S. Congress to outlaw discrimination in providing bank services to the public.Answer: FalseT F33.The federal law that states individuals and families cannot be denied a loan merely because of their age, sex, race, national origin or religious affiliation is known as the Competitive Equality in Banking Act.Answer: FalseT F34.Under the terms of the 1994 Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking law bank holding companies can acquire a bank anywhere inside the United States, subject to Federal Reserve Board approval.Answer: TrueT F35.The 1994 federal interstate banking bill does not limit the percentage of statewide or nationwide deposits that an interstate banking firm is allowed to control.Answer: FalseT F36.The term "regulatory dialectic" refers to the dual system of banking regulation in the United States and selected other countries where both the federal or central government and local governments regulate banks.Answer: FalseT F37.The moral hazard problem of banks is caused by the fixed insurance premiums paid by banks and causes banks to accept greater risk.Answer: TrueT F38.When the Federal Reserve buys T-bills through its open market operations, it causes the growth of bank deposits and loans to decrease.Answer: FalseT F39.When the Federal Reserve increases the discount rate it generally causes other interest rates to decrease.Answer: FalseT F40.The National Bank Act (1863) created the Federal Reserve which acts as the lender of last resort.Answer: FalseT F41.FIRREA (1989) allowed bank holding companies to acquire nonblank depository institutions and, if desired, convert them into branch offices.Answer: TrueT F42.The Sarbanes-Oxley Act allows banks, insurance companies, and securities firms to form Financial Holding Companies (FHCs).Answer: FalseT F43.The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999 essentially repeals the Glass-Steagall Act passed in the 1930s.Answer: TrueT F44.Passed in 1977, the Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits banks from discriminating against customers merely on the basis of the neighborhood in which they live.Answer: FalseT F45.The tool used by the Federal Reserve System to influence the economy and behavior of banks is known as moral hazard.Answer: FalseT F46.One of the principal reasons for government regulation of financial firms is to protect the safety and soundness of the financial system.Answer: TrueMultiple Choice Questions47.Banks are regulated for which of the reasons listed below?A)Banks are leading repositories of the public's savings.B)Banks have the power to create money.C)Banks provide businesses and individuals with loans that support consumption and investment spending.D)Banks assist governments in conducting economic policy, collecting taxes and dispensing government payments.E)All of the above.Answer: E48.An institutional arrangement in which federal and state authorities both have significant bank regulatory powers isreferred to as:A)Balance of PowerB)FederalismC)Dual Banking SystemD)Cooperative RegulationE)Coordinated ControlAnswer: C49.The law that set up the federal banking system and provided for the chartering of national bankswas the:A)National Bank ActB)McFadden-Pepper ActC)Glass-Steagall ActD)Bank Merger ActE)Federal Reserve ActAnswer: A50.The federal law that prohibited federally supervised commercial banks from offering investmentbanking services on privately issued securities is known as:A)The Glass-Steagall ActB)The Bank Merger ActC)The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control ActD)The Federal Reserve ActE)None of the AboveAnswer: A51.The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Financial Services Modernization Act) calls for linking government supervision ofthe financial-services firm to the types of activities that the firm undertakes. For example the insurance portion of the firm would be regulated by state insurance commissions and the banking portion of the firm would be regulated by banking regulators. This approach to government supervision of financial services is known as:A)Consolidated regulation and supervision.B)Functional regulation.C)Services oversight.D)Umbrella supervision and regulation.E)None of the above.Answer: B52.The Federal Reserve policy tool under which the Fed attempts to bring psychological pressure to bear on individualsand institutions to conform to the Fed's policies, using letters, phone calls, and speeches, is known as:A)Margin requirementsB)Moral suasionC)Discount window supervisionD)Conference and compromiseE)None of the above.Answer: B53.The 1994 law that allowed bank holding companies to acquire banks anywhere in the U.S. is:A)The Glass-Steagall ActB)The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement ActC)The National Bank ActD)The Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act.E)None of the above.Answer: D54.The federal law that allowed the Federal Reserve to set margin requirements is:A)The National Banking Act.B)The McFadden-Pepper Act.C)The Glass Steagall Act.D)The Federal Reserve Act.E)None of the above.Answer: C55.Of the principal reasons for regulating banks, what was the primary purpose of the National Banking Act (1863)?A)Protection of the public's savingsB)Control of the money supplyC)Providing support for government activitiesD)Maintaining confidence in the banking systemE)Preventing banks from realizing monopoly powersAnswer: C56.Of the principal reasons for regulating banks, what was the primary purpose of the Federal Reserve Act of 1913?A)Protection of the public's savingsB)Control of the money supplyC)Preventing banks from realizing monopoly powersD)Ensuring an adequate and fair supply of loansE)None of the above.Answer: B57.The law that allows lifted government deposit interest ceilings and allowed them to pay a competitive interest rate is:A)The National Banking Act.B)The Glass Steagall Act.C)The Bank Merger Act.D)DIDMCAE)None of the above.Answer: D58.The law that allows banks to affiliate with insurance companies and security brokerage firms to form financialservices conglomerates isA)The National Banking ActB)The Glass Steagall ActC)The Garn St. Germain ActD)The Riegle Neal Interstate Banking ActE)The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Financial Services Modernization Act)Answer: E59.Of the principal reasons for regulating banks, what was the primary purpose of the Truth in Lending Law?A)Protection of the public's savingsB)Control of the money supplyC)Preventing banks from realizing monopoly powersD)Ensuring an adequate and fair supply of loansE)None of the above.Answer: D60.Which of the following is an unresolved issue in the new century?A) What should be done about the regulatory safety net set up to protect small depositors?B)If financial institutions are allowed to take on more risk, how can taxpayers be protected from paying the billwhen more institutions fail?C)Does functional regulation actually work?D)Should regulators allow the mixing of banking and commerce?E)All of the above are unresolved issuesAnswer: E61.The law that made bank and nonbank depository institutions more alike in the services they could offer and allowedbanks and thrifts to more fully compete with other financial institutions is:A)The National Banking ActB)The Federal Reserve ActC)The Garn-St. Germain ActD)The Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency ActE)The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Financial Services Modernization Act)Answer: C62.The law that allowed bank holding companies to acquire nonbank depository institutions and convert them tobranches is:A)The National Banking ActB)The Garn-St. Germain ActC)FIRREAD)The Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency ActE)None of the AboveAnswer: C63.The equivalent of the Federal Reserve System in Europe is known as the:A)European UnionB)Bank of LondonC)Basle GroupD)European Central BankE)Swiss Bank CorporationAnswer: D64.The new financial organization created by Gramm-Leach-Bliley is theA)Financial Holding CompanyB)Bank Holding CompanyC)European Central BankD)Financial Service CorporationE)Financial Modernization OrganizationAnswer: A65.The act which requires financial institutions to share information about customer identities with government agenciesis:A)The Sarbanes-Oxley ActB)The U.S. Treasury Department ActC)The 9/11 ActD)The USA Patriot ActE)The Gramm-Leach-Bliley ActAnswer: D66.The 1977 law that prevents banks from “redlining” certain neighborhoods, refusing to serve those areas is:A)The National Banking ActB)The Garn-St. Germain ActC)FIRREAD)The Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency ActE)Community Reinvestment Act (CRA)Answer: Emon minimum capital requirements on banks in leading industrialized nations that are based on the riskiness oftheir assets is imposed by:A)The National Banking ActB)FIRREAC)The International Banking ActD)The Basel AgreementE)None of the AboveAnswer: D68.The fastest growing crime in the U.S. is:A)Financial statement misrepresentationB)Bank robberiesC)Individual privacy violationsD)Credit card fraudE)Identity theftAnswer: E69.The oldest federal bank agency is the:A)OCCB)FDICC)FRSD)FHCE)BHCAnswer: A70.The federal agency that regulates the most banks is the:A) OCCB) FDICC) FRSD) FHCE) BHCAnswer: B71.Which federal banking act requires that financial service providers establish the identity of any customers openingnew accounts?A) Sarbanes-Oxley ActB) USA Patriot ActC) Check 21 ActD) The FACT ActE) Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection ActAnswer: B72.Which federal banking act prohibits publishing false or misleading information about the financial performance of apublic company and requires top corporate officers to vouch for the accuracy of their company’s financialstatements?A) Sarbanes-Oxley ActB) USA Patriot ActC) Check 21 ActD) The FACT ActE) Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection ActAnswer: A73.Which federal banking act reduces the need for banks to transport paper checks across the country?A) Sarbanes-Oxley ActB) USA Patriot ActC) Check 21 ActD) The FACT ActE) Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection ActAnswer: C74.Which federal banking act forces more individuals to repay at least part of what they owe and will push higher-income borrowers into more costly forms of bankruptcy?A) Sarbanes-Oxley ActB) USA Patriot ActC) Check 21 ActD) The FACT ActE) Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection ActAnswer: E75.Which federal banking act requires the Federal Trade Commission to make it easier for victims of identity theft tomake theft reports and requires credit bureaus to help victims resolve the problem?A) Sarbanes-Oxley ActB) USA Patriot ActC) Check 21 ActD) The FACT ActE) Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection ActAnswer: D76.The _________ allows adequately capitalized bank holding companies to acquire banks in any state.A)Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency ActB)Competitive Equality Banking ActC)Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement ActD)Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement ActE)Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control ActAnswer: A77.One of the earliest theories regarding the impact of regulation on banks was developed by George Stigler. Hecontends that:A) Firms in regulated industries actually seek out regulations because they bring monopolistic rents.B) Regulations shelter firms from changes in demand and cost, lowering its risk.C) Regulations can increase consumer confidence which increases customer loyalty to regulated firms.D) Depository institutions should be regulated no differently than any other corporation with no subsidies or specialprivileges.E) None of the aboveAnswer: A78.Samual Peltzman had an opposing view to George Stigler on the impact of regulation on banks. He contends that:A) Firms in regulated industries actually seek out regulations because they bring monopolistic rents.B) Regulations shelter firms from changes in demand and cost, lowering its risk.C) Regulations can increase consumer confidence which increases customer loyalty to regulated firms.D) Depository institutions should be regulated no differently than any other corporation with no subsidies or specialprivileges.E) None of the aboveAnswer: B79.There is an important debate raging today regarding whether banks should be regulated at all. George Benstoncontends that:A) Firms in regulated industries actually seek out regulations because they bring monopolistic rents.B) Regulations shelter firms from changes in demand and cost, lowering its risk.C) Regulations can increase consumer confidence which increases customer loyalty to regulated firms.D) Depository institutions should be regulated no differently than any other corporation with no subsidies or specialprivileges.E) None of the aboveAnswer: D80.The European Central Bank has the main goal of:A) Ensuring the economy grows at an adequate rate.B) Keeping unemployment low.C) Ensuring price stability.D) Ensuring an adequate and fair supply of loans.E) All of the aboveAnswer: C81.Which of the following has become the principal tool of central bank monetary policy today?A) Open market operationsB) Changing the discount rateC) Changing reserve requirementsD) Using moral suasionE) None of the above25Answer: A82.The Federal Reserve buys Treasury Bills in the open market. This will tend to:A) Cause interest rates in the market to riseB) Cause interest rates in the market to fallC) Cause reserves held at the Federal Reserve to decreaseD) Cause a decrease in the growth of deposits and loansE) All of the aboveAnswer: B83.Which federal banking act extends deposit insurance coverage on qualified retirement accounts from $100,000 to$250,000 and authorizes the FDIC to periodically increase deposit insurance coverage to keep up with inflation?A) Sarbanes-Oxley ActB) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley ActC) Check 21 ActD) The FACT ActE) Federal Deposit Insurance Reform ActAnswer: E84.The Financial Services Regulatory Relief Act of 2006 does the following:A) Adds selected new service powers to depository institutionsB) Loosens regulations on depository institutionsC) Grants the Federal Reserve authority to pay interest on depository institutions’ legal reservesD) All of the aboveE) None of the aboveAnswer: D85.The Emergency Economic Stabilization Act passed in 2008 during the global credit crisis allowed the following:A) An emergency sale of “bad assets”B) Temporary increase of FDIC deposit insurance to $250,000 for all depositsC) Injections of capital by the government into banks and other qualified lendersD) Closer surveillance of the mortgage market participants, such as brokers and lendersE) All of the aboveAnswer: E谢谢大家下载,本文档下载后可根据实际情况进行编辑修改.再次谢谢大家下载.翱翔在知识的海洋吧.Test Bank, Chapter 226。

英语课堂游戏

Improved student teacher interaction
Games can facilitate better communication and interaction between teachers and students, strengthening the teacher student relationship
Story Telling
Provide a series of pictures or proposals, and ask students to create a story using the provided materials
Reading games
Provide a topic or prompt, and ask students to write a short paragraph or essay on it. The best written submission wins
Game purposeClear Nhomakorabeaules
01
The rules of the game should be clear and easy to understand, ensuring that the game is fair and even contested
Equal opportunities
Games can provide opportunities for students to practice their English language skills, such as speaking, listening, reading, and writing
Enhanced retention

管理英语二试题及答案

管理英语二试题及答案一、选择题（每题2分，共20分）1. The project is expected to be completed by the end of next month, which will ________.A) accelerate the company's growthB) decelerate the company's progressC) have no impact on the company's performanceD) delay the company's expansion答案：A2. The company's new strategy focuses on ________.A) reducing costsB) increasing revenueC) diversifying the product lineD) all of the above答案：D3. The term "synergy" in management refers to the conceptthat ________.A) the whole is greater than the sum of its partsB) each part works independentlyC) the whole is less than the sum of its partsD) the parts have no effect on each other答案：A4. A SWOT analysis is used to identify ________.A) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threatsB) sales, weaknesses, opportunities, and threatsC) strengths, weaknesses, objectives, and threatsD) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and targets答案：A5. In a matrix organizational structure, employees typically report to ________.A) one managerB) two or more managersC) a team leaderD) a project coordinator答案：B6. The process of defining the problem, setting objectives, developing alternatives, and selecting the best option is known as ________.A) decision-makingB) problem-solvingC) strategic planningD) risk assessment答案：A7. Which of the following is not a component of the marketing mix?A) ProductB) PriceC) PlaceD) Process答案：D8. A company's competitive advantage is often based on its ability to ________.A) lower pricesB) innovateC) increase advertisingD) outsource production答案：B9. The Balanced Scorecard is a strategic management tool that helps organizations to ________.A) reduce costsB) measure performanceC) increase market shareD) improve employee morale答案：B10. In the context of business, "stakeholders" refers to________.A) the company's shareholdersB) anyone with an interest in the activities of the organizationC) the company's employeesD) the company's management team答案：B二、填空题（每题1分，共10分）11. The process of identifying, analyzing, and mitigating risk is known as ________.答案：risk management12. A ________ chart is a type of bar chart that shows data over time.答案：line13. The ________ of a product refers to the features that make it unique and desirable to consumers.答案：differentiation14. In management, the term "empowerment" means giving employees the authority to make decisions within their area of responsibility without constant supervision.答案：autonomy15. A ________ is a formal document that outlines the goals, strategies, and tactics to achieve those goals.答案：business plan16. The ________ approach to management involves setting clear goals and providing employees with the resources and freedom to achieve them.答案：results-oriented17. A ________ is a type of organizational culture that emphasizes collaboration, innovation, and flexibility.答案：learning organization18. The ________ is the process of identifying the most effective means of using limited resources to achieve thebest outcome.答案：planning19. The ________ of a company refers to its overallreputation and public image.答案：brand20. The ________ is the process of identifying, attracting, selecting, and appointing suitable candidates for jobs within an organization.答案：recruitment三、简答题（每题5分，共20分）21. What are the four main functions of management?答案：The four main functions of management are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.22. Explain the concept of "corporate social responsibility" (CSR).答案：Corporate social responsibility (CSR) refers to a company's commitment to conducting its business in an ethical, sustainable, and socially responsible manner. It involves considering the impact of business operations on the community, the environment, and stakeholders, and taking actions that benefit society at large.23. What is meant by "dual pricing" in the context ofinternational trade?答案：Dual pricing refers to the practice of charging different prices for the same product or service in different markets, often。

会计英语笔试题目及答案

会计英语笔试题目及答案一、选择题（每题2分，共20分）1. What does the term "Double Entry Accounting" refer to?A. A method of recording financial transactionsB. A type of accounting softwareC. An accounting qualificationD. A bookkeeping systemAnswer: A2. Which of the following is not a financial statement?A. Balance SheetB. Income StatementC. Cash Flow StatementD. Budget ReportAnswer: D3. What is the purpose of an "Adjusting Entry"?A. To correct errors in the booksB. To update the financial recordsC. To prepare for the next accounting periodD. To summarize the transactions of the periodAnswer: C4. The term "Accrual Accounting" is used to describe:A. Cash basis accountingB. Recording transactions when cash is received or paidC. Recording transactions when they are earned or incurredD. None of the aboveAnswer: C5. What is the primary purpose of a "Trial Balance"?A. To calculate the net income of a companyB. To ensure that the total debits equal the total creditsC. To determine the company's cash flowD. To prepare the final accountsAnswer: B6. "Depreciation" refers to the:A. Increase in the value of an asset over timeB. Allocation of the cost of a tangible asset over its useful lifeC. Sale of a company's assetsD. Reduction in the value of an asset due to obsolescence Answer: B7. Which of the following is a non-current asset?A. InventoryB. Prepaid expensesC. LandD. Accounts payableAnswer: C8. What does "GAAP" stand for?A. Generally Accepted Accounting PrinciplesB. Government Accounting and Auditing PrinciplesC. Global Accounting and Auditing PracticesD. Good Accounting and Auditing PrinciplesAnswer: A9. "Revenue recognition" is the process of:A. Recording revenue when it is earnedB. Recording revenue when it is receivedC. Recording revenue when it is expectedD. Recording revenue when it is paidAnswer: A10. The "Matching Principle" requires that expenses be:A. Recognized in the period they are incurredB. Recognized in the period they are paidC. Recognized in the period they are earnedD. Recognized in the period they are receivedAnswer: A二、填空题（每题1分，共10分）11. The ________ is a statement that shows a company's financial position at a specific point in time.Answer: Balance Sheet12. The ________ is the difference between the revenues and expenses of a company over a period of time.Answer: Net Income13. An asset is something that is expected to provide________ to the entity in the future.Answer: Economic Benefits14. The ________ is the process of allocating the cost of an asset over its useful life.Answer: Depreciation15. The ________ is the systematic and periodic recording of financial transactions.Answer: Accounting Cycle16. A ________ is a liability that is due within one year. Answer: Current Liability17. The ________ is a statement that shows the changes in a company's financial position over a period of time.Answer: Statement of Changes in Equity18. The ________ is the process of estimating the cost of goods sold and the ending inventory.Answer: Cost Flow Assumption19. The ________ is the difference between the list price and the actual amount paid for goods or services.Answer: Trade Discount20. The ________ is the process of adjusting the accounts to reflect the true financial position of the company at the endof the accounting period.Answer: Closing the Books三、简答题（每题5分，共30分）21. Explain the concept of "Going Concern" in accounting.Answer: The concept of "Going Concern" assumes that a business will continue to operate for the foreseeable future. It is a fundamental assumption in accounting that allows for the use of historical cost and the accrual basis of accounting.22. What is the purpose of a "Retained Earnings Statement"?Answer: A Retained Earnings Statement shows the changes in the retained earnings account over a period of time. Itstarts with the beginning balance of retained earnings, adjusts for net income or losses, and then subtracts dividends declared to arrive at the ending balance of retained earnings.23. Describe the "Cash Flow Statement" and its importance.Answer: The Cash Flow Statement is a financial statement that provides information about the cash inflows and outflows of a company during a period. It is important because it shows the liquidity of the company and its ability to generate cash, which is crucial。

三级公立医院科级绩效考核指标体系的构建

【关键词】绩效考核；指标；绩效管理；德尔菲法中图分类号：R197.32 文献标志码： B doi：10.3969/j.issn. 1671 -332X. 2020.01.017
Construction of a Hospital - level Performance Appraisal Indicator System Based on Performance Appraisal Framework of Tertiary Public Hospitals WU Shilling*， RONG Limin， WU Yuarvying， ZHANG Su， LIU Xuanfei， LI Mingxuan
r5表2科级绩效考核指标体系最终版一级指标二级指标功能定位医疗质量质量安全合理用药资源效率序号三级指标指标说明2345678910111213141516出院患者手术占比日间手术占择期手术比例出院患者微创手术占比出院患者四级手术比例门诊pccl病例组合指数cmi手术患者并发症发生率1类切口手术部位感染率单病种质量控制大型医用设备检查阳性率低风险组病例死亡率临床路径入组率优质护理评分抗菌药物使用强度ds辅助用药收入占比门诊住院患者基本药物使用率科室出院患者手术台次数科室同期出院患者总人次数x100日间手术台次数同期出院患者择期手术总台次数x100科室出院患者微创手术台次数科室同期出院患者手术台次数x100科室出院患者四级手术台次数科室同期出院患者手术台次数x100门诊病情复杂程度指数治疗病例技术难度科室手术患者并发症发生例数科室同期出院的手术患者人数x100i类切口手术部位感染人次数同期i类切口手术台次数x100符合单病种质量控制标准大型医用设备检查阳性数同期大型医用设备检查人次数x100低风险组死亡例数低风险组病例数x100入组率进人临床路径管理的病例数相应病种收治病例总数x100优质护理服务评价调査得分本年度住院患者抗菌药物消耗量累计ddd数同期收治患者人天数x1

双开同步作文模板英语

双开同步作文模板英语英文回答：What are the advantages and disadvantages of dual-opening policies?Dual-opening policies refer to the simultaneous opening of a country's economy to both foreign trade and domestic investment. This approach seeks to attract foreign capital, technology, and expertise while promoting domestic economic growth and development.Advantages of Dual-Opening Policies:Increased trade and investment: Dual-opening policies facilitate increased trade and investment, which can boost economic growth, create jobs, and improve living standards. Foreign direct investment (FDI) can provide access to new markets, technologies, and management practices, contributing to the overall competitiveness of the economy.Technology transfer: Dual-opening policies allow for the transfer of technology and expertise from foreign investors to domestic enterprises. This can enhance theskills and capabilities of the domestic workforce, foster innovation, and accelerate technological progress.Access to global markets: By opening up to foreign trade, countries gain access to wider markets for their products and services. This can expand export opportunities, increase foreign exchange earnings, and promote economic diversification.Job creation: Dual-opening policies can create newjobs in export-oriented industries and support industries that facilitate trade and investment. Foreign companies investing in a country may create employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers.Improved competitiveness: Dual-opening policies expose domestic businesses to global competition, which can drive them to become more efficient, innovative, and customer-focused. This can enhance the overall competitiveness of the economy and increase its resilience to external shocks.Disadvantages of Dual-Opening Policies:Increased foreign debt: Dual-opening policies can lead to increased foreign borrowing to finance imports and foreign investment. Excessive debt levels can strain the economy's financial stability and reduce its ability to respond to economic crises.Loss of domestic control: Some critics argue thatdual-opening policies can lead to a loss of domesticcontrol over economic decision-making. Foreign investors and multinational corporations may have significant influence on the direction of economic development, potentially compromising domestic priorities and values.Uneven distribution of benefits: Dual-opening policies can exacerbate income inequality, as foreign investment and trade may disproportionately benefit certain sectors and regions of the economy. This can create social tensions andundermine the overall effectiveness of the policies.Environmental degradation: The pursuit of economic growth through dual-opening policies can sometimes lead to environmental degradation, as industries may prioritize production over environmental sustainability. This can have long-term negative consequences for human health and the economy.Cultural erosion: Dual-opening policies can facilitate the influx of foreign ideas, values, and lifestyles, which may challenge or erode traditional cultures. This can create social and cultural tensions, especially insocieties with strong cultural identities.In conclusion, dual-opening policies offer both advantages and disadvantages. It is crucial for policymakers to carefully consider the potential benefits and risks before implementing such policies. By striking the right balance between openness and domestic autonomy, countries can harness the opportunities for economic growth and development while minimizing the potential negativeconsequences.中文回答：双开政策的优势与劣势。

判断错

7) Under the terms of Bretton Woods countries tried to maintain the value of their currencies to within 1% of a hybrid security made up of the U.S. dollar, British pound, and Japanese yen.Answer: FALSE9) Today, the United States has been ejected from the International Monetary Fundfor refusal to pay annual dues.Answer: FALSE6) Based on the premise that, other things equal, countries would prefer a fixed exchange rate: Variable rates provide stability in international prices for the conductof trade.Answer: FALSE13) The euro is a somewhat unique currency in that it is a floating currency within the member nations but it is rigidly fixed relative to other international currencies. Answer: FALSE14) Almost every nation today (over 90%) has a floating or perhaps a managed floating currency for the purposes of international currency exchange.Answer: FALSE15) The global recession of 2009/2010 saw the major global economic players (USA,, China, and Europe) each choose the same international currency goals from the "impossible trinity". Meaning each felt an independent monetary policy was the most important goal followed by free movement of capital, and third, a policy of free floating currencies.Answer: FALSE1) The Euro currency is fixed against other currencies on the international currency exchange markets, but allows member country currencies to float against each other. Answer: FALSE7) Because there is now a European Central Bank (ECB), the members of the European Monetary Union have done away with their individual central banks. Answer: FALSE8) Since the launch of the euro in January of 1999, one nation has joined the original 11 members and three nations have dropped the euro as their official currency. Answer: FALSE10) Since adopting the euro, all member nations have realized a significant reduction in unemployment rates.Answer: FALSE3) The authors state that the current international monetary system is characterized by strict rules and high degrees of cooperation.Answer: FALSE3) The time from 1971 to today has predominately used a regime of variable exchange rates. It has also seen a decrease in capital mobility.Answer: FALSE10) China's "double surplus" in the current account and the financial account is typicalfor large economies in the modern era.Answer: FALSE12) Because current and financial/capital account balances use double-entry book keeping it is unusual to find serious discrepancies in the debits and credits. Answer: FALSE3) The passage of the Financial Reform Law of 2010 changed The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) protection of bank deposit accounts from the previous $250,000 to $100,000 per account. This was seen as an attempt to instill market discipline on depositors.Answer: FALSE7) Mortgage debt as a percentage of household disposable income continued to climb in the United States rapidly in the post-2000 business environment, and was a uniquely American, not global, issue.Answer: FALSE3) Following World War II, the United States has been one of the first major industrial countries to use securitization in its savings and loan and commercial banking systems.Answer: FALSE8) In general, securitization tends to improve credit quality because loans are moved away from the original lenders.Answer: FALSE10) Securitization tends to strengthen the link between borrower and lender by encouraging continuous monitoring behavior by the lender.Answer: FALSE13) Portfolio Theory has proven to be remarkably accurate in the idea that, whereas a single large subprimeborrower constituted significant risk, a portfolio of subprime borrowers which was securitized did not.Answer: FALSE7) The European and American terms for foreign currency exchange are square roots of one another.Answer: FALSE4) Swap and forward transactions account for an insignificant portion of the foreign exchange market.Answer: FALSE4) New York City has the greatest volume of foreign exchange activity in the world. Answer: FALSE2) Daily trading volume of foreign exchange had actually decreased in 2010 from the levels reported in 2007.Answer: FALSE10) The primary motive of foreign exchange activities by most central banks is profit. Answer: FALSE4) Currency trading lacks profitability for large commercial and investment banks butis maintained as a service for corporate and institutional customers.Answer: FALSE8) If a market basket of goods cost $100 is the US and 70 euros in France, then the PPP exchange rate would be $.70/euro.Answer: FALSE25) Consider the price elasticity of demand. If a product has price elasticity less than one it is considered to have relatively elastic demand.Answer: FALSE3) The final component of the equation for the Fisher Effect, (r)(π), where r = the real rate of return and π = the expecte d rate of inflation, is often dropped from the equation because the number is simply too large for most Western economies.Answer: FALSE11) The current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is 85¥/$. If the 90-day forward exchange rate is 88 ¥/$ then the yen is at a forward premium.Answer: FALSE17) Both covered and uncovered interest arbitrage are risky operations in the sense that even without default in the securities, the returns are unknown until all transactions are complete.Answer: FALSE5) If the forward exchange rate is an unbiased predictor of future spot rates, then future spot rates will always be equal to current forward rates.Answer: FALSE6) Other things equal, the price of an option goes up as the volatility of the option decreases.Answer: FALSE5) The time value is asymmetric in value as you move away from the strike price. (i.e., the time value at two cents above the strike price is not necessarily the same as the time value two cents below the strike price.)Answer: FALSE3) The more INEFFICIENT the market is, the more likely it is that exchange rates are "random walks," with past price behavior providing no clues to the future.Answer: FALSE4) The authors claim that the theories of international currency values hold better for less liquid and poorly capitalized markets.Answer: FALSE14) It is safe to say that the Russian transition from a communist economy to a capitalist economy has been smooth for the Russian peopleAnswer: FALSE5) There is a long-standing saying that "what worries bankers is unemployment, but what worries elected officials is inflation."Answer: FALSE17) The current rate method of foreign currency translation gains or losses resulting from remeasurement are carried directly to current consolidated income and thus introduces volatility to consolidated earnings.7) The key arguments in opposition to currency hedging such as market efficiency, agency theory, and diversification do not have financial theory at their core. Answer: FALSE11) Refer to Instruction 10.1. Money market hedges almost always return more than forward hedges because of the greater risk involved.Answer: FALSE16) Refer to Instruction 10.1. If Plains States purchases the put option, and the option expires in six months on the same day that Plains States receives the euro 1,250,000, the firm will exercise the put at that time if the spot rate is $1.43/euro.Answer: FALSE9) Exchange rate imbalances that are passed through the balance sheet affect a firm's reported income, but imbalances transferred to the income statement do not. Answer: FALSE11) The temporal rate method is the most prevalent method today for the translation of financial statements.Answer: FALSE14) Under the current rate method, specific assets and liabilities are translated at exchange rates consistent with the timing of the item's creation.Answer: FALSE2) Hedging, or reducing risk, is the same as adding value or return to the firm. Answer: FALSE10) The longer the time horizon of the technical analyst the more accurate the prediction of foreign exchange rates is likely to be.Answer: FALSE17) Most swap dealers arrange swaps so that each firm that is a party to the transaction knows who the counterparty is.Answer: FALSE19) Swap agreements are treated as line items on the balance sheet via U.S. accounting methods.Answer: FALSE20) After being introduced in the 1980s, currency swaps have remained a relatively insignificant financial derivative instrument.Answer: FALSE14) Currency swaps are exclusively for periods of time under one year.Answer: FALSE5) Operating cash flows may occur in different currencies and at different times, but financing cash flows may occur only in a single currency.Answer: FALSE3) Management must be able to predict disequilibria in international markets to take advantage of diversification strategies.Answer: FALSE5) The opportunity set of projects is typically smaller for MNEs than for purely domestic firms because international markets are typically specialized niches.3) Because of the international diversification of cash flows, the risk of bankruptcy for MNEs is significantly lower than that for purely domestic firms.Answer: FALSE14) One of the distinct features of international equity markets is that over the last 100 or so years, the average market risk premium is almost identical across major industrial countries.Answer: FALSE9) If a firm's expected returns are more volatile than the expected return for the market portfolio, it will have a beta less than 1.0.Answer: FALSE4) Other things equal, an increase in the firm's tax rate will increase the WACC for a firm that has both debt and equity financing.Answer: FALSE17) Internal sources of funds for a foreign subsidiary of a MNE may come from the parent company but not from a sister subsidiary. Funding from sister subsidiaries are considered external funding.Answer: FALSE10) An unsponsored ADR may be initiated without the approval of the foreign firm with the underlying stock.Answer: FALSE4) ADRs cannot be exchanged for the underlying shares of the foreign stock, therefore, arbitrage cannot keep the prices in line with the foreign price of the stock.Answer: FALSE14) The domestic theory of optimal capital structure does not need to be modified for MNEs.Answer: FALSE6) Financial theory has at last provided us with a single optimal capital structure for domestic firms.Answer: FALSE14) Inter-country correlations among the worlds largest capitalistic economies over the last century illustrate that the correlation results for the first 50 years were good predictors for correlations for the next 50 years.Answer: FALSE15) It is safe to say that because stock market correlations across countries has increased since 1986, that there are no longer diversification benefits to be found from international portfolio diversification.Answer: FALSE8) Capital markets around the world are on average less integrated today than they were 20 years ago.Answer: FALS20) The standard deviation of a portfolio is the weighted average standard deviations of the individual assets.Answer: FALSE13) The optimal domestic portfolio of risky securities is the portfolio of minimum risk.Answer: FALSE9) The graph for the efficient frontier has beta on the vertical axis and standard deviation of the horizontal axis.Answer: FALSE1) Portfolio diversification can eliminate 100% of risk.Answer: FALSE。

草原两轮补奖政策生态效益评价——以甘南州美仁草原为例

基金项目甘肃省林业和草原局甘肃省草原监测评价科技支撑项目（GSZYTC-ZCJC-21009）。

第一作者边金霞（1981—），女，助理研究员，从事水土保持、荒漠化防治和节水农业研究工作。

E-mail ：450243490@ *通信作者收稿日期2023-05-10草原两轮补奖政策生态效益评价——以甘南州美仁草原为例边金霞牛小霞*陈娟（甘肃省农业科学院经济作物与啤酒原料研究所，甘肃兰州730070）摘要本文以甘南州美仁草原为例，通过甘南州草原监测数据及牧户调查问卷资料，对两轮草原生态补奖政策实施效果进行了分析。

结果表明，随着草原补奖政策的实施，甘南州草原年均降水量、年最低气温、年最高气温、年平均气温均呈升高趋势，草原植被盖度、草群平均高度和鲜草产量也呈增长趋势，草原可利用面积和草原理论载畜量均增加。

甘南州两轮草原生态保护补助奖励政策的实施对改善草原气候、提高草原产草量、增加草原可利用面积和提升草原理论载畜量有明显的促进作用，取得了显著的生态效益、经济效益和社会效益。

关键词生态补奖政策；效益评价；美仁草原；甘肃甘南中图分类号F323.21文献标识码A文章编号1007-5739（2024）02-0094-04DOI ：10.3969/j.issn.1007-5739.2024.02.024开放科学（资源服务）标识码（OSID ）：Evaluation of Grassland Ecological Benefits for Two Rounds of Subsidy and RewardPolicy:Taking Meiren Grassland in Gannan Prefecture as an ExampleBIAN JinxiaNIU Xiaoxia *CHEN Juan(Institute of Economic Crops and Malting Barley Material,Gansu Academy of Agricultural Sciences,Lanzhou Gansu 730070)AbstractThis paper took Meiren Grassland in Gannan Prefecture as an example and analyzed the implementationeffect of two rounds of grassland ecological subsidy and reward policy through grassland monitoring data and survey questionnaire data for herdsmen in Gannan Prefecture.The results showed that,with the implementation of the grassland subsidy and reward policy,the annual average precipitation,annual minimum temperature,annual maximumtemperature,and annual average temperature of the grassland in Gannan Prefecture all showed an upward trend.Thecoverage of grassland vegetation,average height of grass groups,and fresh grass yield all showed an increasing trend,and the available area and theoretical livestock carrying capacity of the grassland all increased.The implementation of the two rounds of grassland ecological protection subsidy and reward policy in Gannan Prefecture has a significant promoting effect on improving grassland climate,increasing grassland yield,increasing grassland usable area,and increasing theoretical livestock carrying capacity,achieving significant ecological,economic and social benefits.Keywordsecological subsidy and reward policy;benefit evaluation;Meiren Grassland;Gannan Gansu甘南州美仁草原位于东经100°46′~104°44′、北纬33°06′~36°10′，海拔3516m ，属典型的高寒草原，年降水量633~782mm ，平均气温2.3℃，无绝对无霜期，年总日照时数2357.8h ，太阳总辐射量51983.9J/cm 2。

数量准则的例子英语

数量准则的例子英语
数量准则 (quantity principle) 是指在决策过程中，综合考虑数量因素的重要性，以做出更明智的决策。

下面是一些数量准则的例子:
1. 成本效益分析 (cost-effectiveness analysis):在做出决
策时，考虑决策所带来的成本和收益，并评估该决策是否在经济上可行。

2. 最小化最大准则 (minimax principle):在做出决策时，考虑两种可能的结果，并选择那种可能导致最小损失的结果。

3. 效用准则 (utility principle):在做出决策时，考虑决策者对不同结果的满意度和效用值，并选择那种会导致最大效用的结果。

4. 最大化最小准则 (maximin principle):在做出决策时，考虑两种可能的结果，并选择那种可能导致最大值最小值的结果。

5. 比例准则 (ratio principle):在做出决策时，考虑不同数量因素的比例，并选择那种最符合比例的决策。

数量准则可以帮助决策者在复杂的情况下做出更明智的决策。

通过考虑数量因素的重要性，决策者可以更好地理解问题，并做出更明智的决策。

附录一综合训练试题及答案

一、判断题（正确的在括号内划√号，错误的划×）（√）1.砂轮的旋转方向应使磨屑向下方飞离砂轮。

（√）2.锯削加工时，当工件快要锯断时，锯削速度要慢，压力要轻，行程要短。

（×）3.铰削操作时，为保证孔的光洁，应正反向旋转铰刀。

（√）4.安装手锯锯条时锯齿应向前。

（√）5.把锯齿做成几个向左或向右，形成波浪形的锯齿排列的原因是增加锯缝宽度。

（√）6.锉削后工件表面的粗糙度，主要决定于锉齿的粗细。

（×）7.锉削平面时主要是使锉刀保持直线运动。

（×）8.锉削时，根据加工余量的大小，选择锉刀的长度。

（×）9.当孔快要钻通时，必须减小进给量，目的是不使最后一段孔壁粗糙。

（×）10.工件上的孔一般都是由钳工加工出来的。

（√）11.合理选择划线基准，是提高划线质量和效率的关键。

（×）12.划线时，一般不应选择设计基准为划线基准。

（√）13.划线时，借料是避开毛坯缺陷、重新分配加工余量的一种方法。

（√）14.用划针划线时，针尖要紧靠在导向工具的边沿。

（×）15.铰孔时，铰刀可以正转也可以反转。

（×）16.铰孔一般是扩孔的前道工序。

（√）17.锯割速度过快，锯齿易磨损，这是因为同时参加切削的齿数少，使每齿负担的锯削量过大。

（√）18.锯深缝时，当锯到锯弓架将要碰到工件时，应将锯条转过90°重新安装，使锯弓架转到工件的旁边，继续锯削。

（×）19.锯ф30的铜管应选用粗齿锯条。

（×）20.锯条长度是指锯条两端之间的距离。

（√）21.开始推锉时，左手压力要大，右手压力要小，锉刀保持水平。

（√）22.可以用锉刀的边齿，锉去毛坯件表面的氧化皮。

（√）23.麻花钻的刀柄是用来传递钻头动力的。

（√）24.麻花钻的刀体包括切削部分和导向部分。

（√）25.麻花钻的导向部分有两条对称的螺旋槽。

（√）26.钳工是一种手持工具对金属材料进行切削加工的方法。

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Certification of Substances DivisionAddress: 7 Allée Kastner, CS 30026F-67081 Strasbourg (France)Tel: +33 (0) 3 88 41 30 30 –Fax: +33 (0) 3 88 41 27 71-e-mail: cep@edqm.euF M L /C BPUBLIC DOCUMENT(L E V E L 1)English onlyPA/PH/CEP (13) 110Strasbourg, March 2014Certification of suitability to the Monographs of the European Pharmacopoeia The Policy of Two Rounds of Evaluation for Applications for Certificates ofSuitability and Requests for Revision1.IntroductionAs has been previously mentioned on the EDQM web pages, to optimise the process for evaluating applications and to ensure the official timelines are met, the EDQM applies strictly the procedure described in the Resolution AP CSP (07) 1.The assessment of new applications is handled in two phases:the evaluation of the original application, and,if necessary, the evaluation of additional information upon request from the EDQM.Applications lacking sufficient information after evaluation of the applicant's response to the deficiency letter are definitively closed. A second request for additional information will be issued in exceptional cases only.A similar policy is applied to the assessment of request for revisions of certificates as described in PA/PH/Exp. CEP /T (04)18, “Procedures for management of revisions/renewals of certificates of suitability to the European Pharmacopoeia monographs”.This document is intended to clarify the process of assessment for new applications and requests for revision of a certificate where a letter is sent by EDQM to the applicant to request additional information.2.Outcome of the assessment of the initial submission for a new applicationfor a certificate or a request for revisionWhen the initial assessment of the application is complete there are four possible conclusions as described in points 2.1 to 2.4. This is applicable to all types of requests except notifications. The four potential conclusions described in points 2.1 to 2.4 are not applicable to notifications which are either accepted or rejected. If a notification is accepted then either a revisedcertificate will be granted or a letter will be sent from EDQM to the applicant advising that the request has been accepted. If a notification is rejected a letter will be sent from EDQM to the applicant advising that the request has not been accepted.2.1.The information provided is complete and the certificate can be grantedor the request for revision of the certificate is accepted.For an application for a new certificate, a certificate will be granted.For requests for revision, either a revised certificate will be granted or a letter will be sent from EDQM to the applicant advising that the request for revision has been accepted.2.2.The information provided is unsatisfactory and the certificate cannot begranted or the request for revision of the certificate accepted until theissues identified are resolved.After the assessment of the initial submission for a new application for a certificate or a request for revision, if there are outstanding issues then the EDQM will communicate these issues to the applicant.For an application for a new certificate, the EDQM sends a letter entitled “REQUEST FOR ADDITIONAL INFORMATION “ which lists the questions relating to the issues outstanding with the submission which prevent the granting of a certificate of suitability to the applicant/holder.The applicant/holder has 6 months to reply to this request and provide the information required.The applicant/holder should reply to this request and provide full information required by the deadline or the assessment may be stopped due to this failure to respond (see section 5).On reception of the response by EDQM, an acknowledgement of receipt is sent to the applicant. The submitted information requires assessment and the deadline for the assessment of the response and the provision of a response to the applicant is 4 months from the issue of the acknowledgment of receipt.For requests for revision, the EDQM sends a letter entitled “REQUEST FOR ADDITIONAL INFORMATION “ which lists the questions relating to the issues outstanding with the submission which prevent the granting of a certificate of suitability/approval of the request to the applicant/holder.The applicant/holder has 1 month to reply to this request and provide the information required.The applicant/holder should reply to this request and provide full information required by the deadline or the assessment may be stopped due to this failure to respond (see section 5).On reception of the response by EDQM, an acknowledgement of receipt is sent to the applicant. The submitted information requires assessment and the deadline for the assessment of the response and the provision of a response to the applicant is as described in the acknowledgment of receipt.2.3.The information provided is in general satisfactory but furtherinformation is required before the certificate can be granted or therequest for revision approved.This refers to the situation when there are some minor remaining point(s)/needs for clarification which have to be addressed after the assessment of the response and where the subsequent information provided by the applicant/holder does not require to be fully assessed.Following this conclusion, the EDQM sends a letter to the applicant entitled “REQUEST FOR CLARIFICATION” which lists the points in the submission which require clarification and which prevent the granting of a certificate.For an application for a new certificate, the applicant/holder has 1 month to reply to this letter and provide the information required.For requests for revision of a certificate, the applicant/holder has 1 month to reply to this letter and provide the information required.The applicant/holder should reply to this request and provide full information required by the deadline or the assessment may be stopped due to a failure to respond (see section 5).On reception of the response by EDQM, an acknowledgement of receipt is sent to the applicant. The submitted information will require to be checked and the deadline for the checking of the response and the provision of a response to the applicant is 1 month from the issue of the acknowledgment of receipt.2.4.The information provided is in general satisfactory but sections ofmodule 3 require to be updated to reflect the approved dossier beforethe certificate can be granted or the request for revision approved.This refers to the situation when there must be an update of the information provided in module 3 to reflect the approved data.For example:Where information provided in the module 1 response has not been incorporated into the appropriate section of module 3.To update section 3.2.S.2.1 Manufacturers to include all the sites involved in themanufacturing process from the introduction of the starting materials onwards.To remove the information included in module 3 in the event that not all the changes described in a request for revision are accepted.Following this conclusion, the EDQM sends a letter entitled “REQUEST FOR DOSSIER UPDATE” to the applicant requesting update of the sections of module 3 to reflect the approved dossier.For an application for a new certificate, the applicant has 1 month to provide the appropriately updated module 3.For requests for revision of a certificate, the applicant has 1 month to provide the appropriately updated module 3.The applicant/holder should reply to this request and provide full information required by the deadline or the assessment may be stopped due to a failure to respond (see section 5). There is no assessment of the response received for a request to update a dossier. There is no acknowledgement of receipt issued. The module 3 is reviewed to ensure it has been updated as required and if so, then the process to prepare the issue of the certificate or to confirm approval of a request for revision begins. It is anticipated that the certificate ofsuitability/letter of approval will be granted within 1 month of the receipt of the updated dossier.3.Outcome of the assessment of the response to the request for additionalinformation.When the assessment of the response provided by the applicant to the request for additional information is complete there are four possible conclusions:3.1.The information provided is complete and the certificate can be grantedor the request for revision of the certificate is accepted.For an application for a new certificate, a certificate will be granted.For requests for revision, either a revised certificate will be granted or a letter will be sent from EDQM to the applicant advising that the request for revision has been accepted.3.2.The information provided is complete and the conclusion is that nocertificate can be granted or the request for revision is rejected.For an application for a new certificate, the outstanding points are identified and the EDQM sends a letter, entitled “CLOSURE OF CEP APPLICATION AFTER EVALUATION” to the applicant informing them of all the outstanding issues which prevent the granting of a certificate.The applicant may submit a new application for the same substance. It is expected that the outstanding issues from the assessment of the original closed dossier will be addressed in the new submission.For requests for revision, the outstanding points are identified and the EDQM sends a letter to the applicant informing them of all the issues outstanding which prevent the approval of the request for revision* described in this document.*Occasionally, where multiple changes are described in the same request for revision, it is possible that some changes may be approved and others rejected as describedabove. This will be made clear in the letter sent to the holder and may result in arequest to update the dossier as described later in this document (see section 3.4). The applicant may submit another revision request for the certificate for the same changes. It is expected that the outstanding issues from the assessment of the original request for revision will be addressed in the new request.3.3.The information provided is in general satisfactory but furtherinformation is required before the certificate can be granted or therequest for revision approved.This refers to the situation when there are some minor remaining point(s)/needs for clarification which have to be addressed after the assessment of the response and where the subsequent information provided by the applicant/holder does not require to be fully assessed.Following this conclusion, the EDQM sends a letter to the applicant entitled “REQUEST FOR CLARIFICATION” which lists the points in the submission which require clarification and which prevent the issue of a certificate.For an application for a new certificate, the applicant/holder has 1month to reply to this letter and provide the information required.For requests for revision of a certificate, the applicant/holder has 1month to reply to this letter and provide the information required.The applicant/holder should reply to this request and provide full information required by the deadline or the assessment may be stopped due to a failure to respond (see section 5).On reception of the response by EDQM, an acknowledgement of receipt is sent to the applicant. The submitted information will require to be checked and the deadline for the checking of the information provided and the provision of a response to the applicant is 1 month from the issue of the acknowledgment of receipt.3.4.The information provided is in general satisfactory but sections ofmodule 3 require to be updated to reflect the approved dossier beforethe certificate can be granted or the request for revision approved.This refers to the situation when there must be an update of the information provided in module 3 to reflect the approved data.For example:Where information provided in the module 1 response has not been incorporated into the appropriate section of module 3.To update section 3.2.S.2.1 Manufacturers to include all the sites involved in themanufacturing process from the introduction of the starting materials onwards.To remove the information included in module 3 in the event that not all the changes described in a request for revision are accepted.Following this conclusion, the EDQM sends a letter entitled “REQUEST FOR DOSSIER UPDATE” to the applicant requesting update of the sections of module 3 to reflect the approved dossier.For an application for a new certificate, the applicant has 1month to provide the appropriately updated module 3.For requests for revision of a certificate, the applicant has 1month to provide the appropriately updated module 3.The applicant/holder should reply to this request and provide full information required by the deadline or the assessment may be stopped due to a failure to respond (see section 5). There is no assessment of the response received for a request to update a dossier. There is no acknowledgement of receipt issued. The module 3 is reviewed to ensure it has been updated as required and if so, then the process to prepare the issue of the certificate or to confirm approval of a request for revision begins.It is anticipated that the certificate ofsuitability/letter of approval will be granted within 1 month of the receipt of the updated dossier.4.Sending a subsequent request for additional information.Exceptionally, after assessment of the response to the request for information foreseen by the procedure, there may be a second request for additional information sent to the applicant.For an application for a new certificate, the EDQM sends a letter entitled “REQUEST FOR ADDITIONAL INFORMATION“ which lists the questions relating to the issues outstanding with the submission which prevent the granting of a certificate of suitability to the applicant/holder.The applicant/holder has 3 months to reply to this request and provide the information required.The applicant/holder should reply to this request and provide full information required by the deadline or the assessment may be stopped due to this failure to respond (see section 5).On reception of the response by EDQM, an acknowledgement of receipt is sent to the applicant. The submitted information requires assessment and the deadline for the assessment of the response and the provision of a response to the applicant is 4 months from the issue of the acknowledgment of receipt.For requests for revision, the EDQM sends a letter entitled “REQUEST FOR ADDITIONAL INFORMATION“ which lists the questions relating to the issues outstanding with the submission which prevent the granting of a certificate of suitability/approval of the request to the applicant/holder.The applicant/holder has 1 month to reply to this request and provide the information required.The applicant/holder should reply to this request and provide full information required by the deadline or the assessment may be stopped due to this failure to respond (see section 5).On reception of the response by EDQM, an acknowledgement of receipt is sent to the applicant. The submitted information requires assessment and the deadline for the assessment of the response and the provision of a response to the applicant is as described in the acknowledgment of receipt.5.Administrative closure of an application due to lack of response inrequired time.At each point in the assessment process, where a letter of request for information is sent to the applicant/holder, the time by which the response should be received is clearly indicated in the letter.For an application for a new certificate, if no response is provided by the applicant within the time allocated then the dossier will be closed.The applicant may submit a new application for the same substance. It is expected that the outstanding issues from the assessment of the original closed dossier will be addressed in the new submission.For requests for revision, the EDQM sends a letter to the applicant informing them that the lack of response has prevented the approval of the request for revision, which is therefore closed.The applicant may submit another revision request for the certificate for the same changes. It is expected that the outstanding issues from the assessment of the original request for revision will be addressed in the new request.。