博迪投资学第九版英文答案
博迪的投资学第一章练习题(英)
11.Financial assets represent _____ of total assets of U.S. households.A. over 60%B. over 90%C. under 10%D. about 30%2.Real assets in the economy include all but which one of the following?A. LandB. BuildingsC. Consumer durablesD. Common stock worth represents _____ of the liabilities and net worth of commercial banks.A. about 50%B. about 90%C. about 10%D. about 30%4.According to the Flow of Funds Accounts of the United States, the largest single asset of U.S. householdsis ___.A. mutual fund sharesB. real estateC. pension reservesD. corporate equity5.According to the Flow of Funds Accounts of the United States, the largest liability of U.S. households is________.A. mortgagesB. consumer creditC. bank loansD. gambling debts6.____ is not a derivative security.A. A share of common stockB. A call optionC. A futures contractD. All of the above are derivative securities.7.According to the Flow of Funds Accounts of the United States, the largest financial asset of U.S.households is ____.A. mutual fund sharesB. corporate equityC. pension reservesD. personal trusts8.Active trading in markets and competition among securities analysts helps ensure that __________.I. security prices approach informational efficiencyII. riskier securities are priced to offer higher potential returnsIII. investors are unlikely to be able to consistently find under- or overvalued securitiesA. I onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II and III9.The material wealth of society is determined by the economy's _________, which is a function of theeconomy's _________.A. investment bankers, financial assetsB. investment bankers, real assetsC. productive capacity, financial assetsD. productive capacity, real assets10.Which of the following is not a money market security?A. U.S. Treasury billB. Six month maturity certificate of depositC. Common stockD. Banker's acceptance11.__________ assets generate net income to the economy and __________ assets define allocation of incomeamong investors.A. Financial, financialB. Financial, realC. Real, financialD. Real, real12.Which of the following are financial assets?I. Debt securitiesII. Equity securitiesIII. Derivative securitiesA. I onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II and III13.__________ are examples of financial intermediaries.A. Commercial banksB. Insurance companiesC. Investment companiesD. All of the above are financial intermediaries14.Asset allocation refers to the _________.A. allocation of the investment portfolio across broad asset classesB. analysis of the value of securitiesC. choice of specific assets within each asset classD. none of the answers define asset allocation15.Which one of the following best describes the purpose of derivatives markets?A. Transferring risk from one party to anotherB. Investing for a short time period to earn a small rate of returnC. Investing for retirementD. Earning interest income16.__________ was the first to introduce mortgage pass-through securities.A. Chase ManhattanB. CiticorpC. FNMAD. GNMA17.Security selection refers to the ________.A. allocation of the investment portfolio across broad asset classesB. analysis of the value of securitiesC. choice of specific securities within each asset classD. top down method of investing18._____ is an example of an agency problem.A. Managers engage in empire buildingB. Managers protect their jobs by avoiding risky projectsC. Managers over consume luxuries such as corporate jetsD. All of the answers provide examples of agency problems19._____ is a mechanism to mitigate potential agency problems.A. Tying income of managers to success of the firmB. Directors defending top managementC. Anti takeover strategiesD. Straight voting method of electing the board of directors20.__________ are real assets.A. BondsB. Production equipmentC. StocksD. Commercial paper21.__________ portfolio construction starts with selecting attractively priced securities.A. Bottom-upB. Top-downC. Upside-downD. Side-to-side22.In a capitalist system capital resources are primarily allocated by ____________.A. governmentsB. the SECC. financial marketsD. investment bankers23. A __________ represents an ownership share in a corporation.A. call optionB. common stockC. fixed-income securityD. preferred stock24.The value of a derivative security _________.A. depends on the value of other related securityB. affects the value of a related securityC. is unrelated to the value of a related securityD. can only be integrated by calculus professors25. A bond issue is broken up so that some investors will receive interest payments while others will receiveprincipal payments. This is an example of _________.A. bundlingB. credit enhancementC. securitizationD. unbundling26.__________ portfolio management calls for holding diversified portfolios without spending effort orresources attempting to improve investment performance through security analysis.A. ActiveB. MomentumC. PassiveD. Market timing27.Financial markets allow for all but which one of the following?A. Shift consumption through time from higher income periods to lowerB. Price securities according to their riskinessC. Channel funds from lenders of funds to borrowers of fundsD. Allow most participants to routinely earn high returns with low risk28.Financial intermediaries exist because small investors cannot efficiently _________.A. diversify their portfoliosB. gather informationC. monitor their portfoliosD. all of the answers provide reasons why29.Methods to encourage managers to act in shareholders' best interest includeI. Threat of takeoverII. Proxy fights for control of the Board of DirectorsIII. Tying managers' compensation to stock price performanceA. I onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II and III30.Firms that specialize in helping companies raise capital by selling securities to the public are called_________.A. pension fundsB. investment banksC. savings banksD. REITs31.In securities markets, there should be a risk-return trade-off with higher-risk assets having _________expected returns than lower-risk assets.A. higherB. lowerC. the sameD. Can't tell from the information given32.__________ are an indirect way U.S. investors can invest in foreign companies.A. ADRsB. IRAsC. SDRsD. CPCs33.Security selection refers to _________.A. choosing specific securities within each asset-classB. deciding how much to invest in each asset-classC. deciding how much to invest in the market portfolio versus the riskless assetD. deciding how much to hedge34.An example of a derivative security is _________.A. a common share of General MotorsB. a call option on Intel stockC. a Ford bondD. a U.S. Treasury bond35.__________ portfolio construction starts with asset allocation.A. Bottom-upB. Top-downC. Upside-downD. Side-to-side36.Which one of the following firms falsely claimed to have a $4.8 billion bank account at Bank of Americaand vastly understated its debts, eventually resulting in the firm's bankruptcy?A. WorldComB. EnronC. ParmalatD. Global Crossing37.Debt securities promise _________.I. a fixed stream of incomeII. a stream of income that is determined according to a specific formulaIII. a share in the profits of the issuing entityA. I onlyB. I or II onlyC. I and III onlyD. II or III only38.The Sarbanes-Oxley Act tightened corporate governance rules by requiring all but which one of thefollowing?A. Required corporations to have more independent directorsB. Required the CFO to personally vouch for the corporation's financial statementsC. Required that firms could no longer employ investment bankers to sell securities to the publicD. The creation of a new board to oversee the auditing of public companies39.The success of common stock investments depends on the success of _________.A. derivative securitiesB. fixed income securitiesC. the firm and its real assetsD. government methods of allocating capital40.The historical average rate of return on the large company stocks since 1926 has beenA. 5%B. 8%C. 12%D. 20%41.The average rate of return on U.S. Treasury bills since 1926 was _________.A. 0.5%B. 2.4%C. 3.8%D. 6.0%42.An example of a real asset is _________.I. a college educationII. customer goodwillIII. a patentA. I onlyB. II onlyC. I and III onlyD. I, II and III43.The 2002 law designed to improve corporate governance is titled theA. Pension Reform ActB. ERISAC. Financial Services Modernization ActD. Sarbanes-Oxley Act44.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary?A. a mutual fundB. an insurance companyC. a real estate brokerage firmD. a savings and loan company45.The combined liabilities of American households represent approximately __________ percent ofcombined assets.A. 11%B. 21%C. 25%D. 33%46.In 2008 real assets represented approximately __________ percent of the total asset holdings of Americanhouseholds.A. 37%B. 42%C. 48%D. 55%47.In 2008 mortgages represented approximately __________ percent of total liabilities and net worth ofAmerican households.A. 12%B. 15%C. 28%D. 42%48.Liabilities equal approximately _____ of total assets for nonfinancial U.S. businesses.A. 10%B. 25%C. 44%D. 75%49.Which of the following is not an example of a financial intermediary?A. Goldman SachsB. Allstate InsuranceC. First Interstate BankD. IBM50.Real assets represent about ____ of total assets for financial institutions.A. 1%B. 15%C. 25%D. 40%51.Money Market securities are characterized by ________.I. maturity less than one yearII. safety of the principal investmentIII. low rates of returnA. I onlyB. I and II onlyC. I and III onlyD. I, II and III52.After much investigation an investor finds that Intel stock is currently under priced. This is an example of______.A. asset allocationB. security analysisC. top down portfolio managementD. passive management53.After considering current market conditions an investor decides to place 60% of their funds in equities andthe rest in bonds. This is an example ofA. asset allocationB. security analysisC. top down portfolio managementD. passive management54.Suppose an investor is considering one of two investments which are identical in all respects except forrisk. If the investor anticipates a fair return for the risk of the security they invest in they can expect toA. earn no more than the Treasury bill rate on either securityB. pay less for the security that has higher riskC. pay less for the security that has lower riskD. earn more if interest rates are lower55.The efficient markets hypothesis suggests that _______.A. active portfolio management strategies are the most appropriate investment strategiesB. passive portfolio management strategies are the most appropriate investment strategiesC. either active or passive strategies may be appropriate, depending on the expected direction of the marketD. a bottom up approach is the most appropriate investment strategy56.In a perfectly efficient market the best investment strategy is probably a/anA. active strategyB. passive strategyC. asset allocationD. market timing57.An important trend that has changed the contemporary investment market is _________.A. financial engineeringB. globalizationC. securitizationD. all three of the other answers58.Securitization refers to the creation of new securities by _________.A. selling individual cash flows of a security or loanB. repackaging individual cash flows of a security or loan into a new payment patternC. taking an illiquid asset and converting it into a marketable securityD. selling financial services overseas as well as in the U.S.59.Brady bonds were an example of _________.A. securitizationB. mortgagizationC. bundlingD. pass through securities60.Individuals may find it more advantageous to purchase claims from a financial intermediary rather thandirectly purchasing claims in capital markets becauseI. intermediaries are better diversified than most individualsII. intermediaries can exploit economies of scale in investing that individual investors cannotIII. intermediated investments usually offer higher rates of return than direct capital market claimsA. I onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II and III61.Surf City Software Company develops new surf forecasting software. It sells the software to Microsoft inexchange for 1000 shares of Microsoft common stock. Surf City Software has exchanged a _____ asset fora _____ asset in this transaction.A. real, realB. financial, financialC. real, financialD. financial, real62.Stone Harbor Products takes out a bank loan. It receives $100,000 and signs a promissory note to pay backthe loan over 5 years.A. A new financial asset was created in this transaction.B. A financial asset was traded for a real asset in this transaction.C. A financial asset was destroyed in this transaction.D. A real asset was created in this transaction.63.Which of the following firms was not engaged in a major accounting scandal between 2000 and 2005?A. General ElectricB. ParmalatC. EnronD. WorldCom64.Accounting scandals can often be attributed to a particular concept in the study of finance known as theA. agency problemB. risk - return trade - offC. allocation of riskD. securitization65.An intermediary that pools and manage funds for many investors is called a/an ______.A. investment companyB. savings and loanC. investment bankerD. ADR66.Financial institutions that specialize in assisting corporations in primary market transactions are called_______.A. mutual fundsB. investment bankersC. pension fundsD. globalization specialists67.WEBS allow investors to _______.A. invest in U.S. mortgage backed securitiesB. invest in an individual foreign stockC. invest in a portfolio of foreign stocksD. avoid any exposure to foreign exchange risk68.In 2008 the largest corporate bankruptcy in the U.S. history involved the investment banking firm of______.A. Goldman SachsB. Lehman BrothersC. Morgan StanleyD. Merrill Lynch69.The inability of shareholders to influence the decisions of managers, despite overwhelming shareholdersupport, is a breakdown in what process or mechanism?A. AuditingB. Public financeC. Corporate governanceD. Public reporting70.Real assets are ______.A. are assets used to produce goods and servicesB. always the same as financial assetsC. always equal to liabilitiesD. claims on company's income71. A major cause of mortgage market meltdown in 2007 and 2008 was linked to ________.A. globalizationB. securitizationC. negative analyst recommendationsD. online trading72.In recent years the greatest dollar amount of securitization occurred for which type loan?A. Home mortgagesB. Credit card debtC. Automobile loansD. Equipment leasing73.The process of securitizing poor quality bank loans made to developing nations resulted in the creation of__________.A. Pass-throughsB. Brady bondsC. WEBSD. FHLMC participation certificates74.U.S. Treasury bonds pay interest every six months and repay the principal at maturity. The U.S.Treasury routinely sells individual interest payments on these bonds to investors. This is an example of ___________.A. unbundlingB. bundlingC. securitizationD. security selection75.An investment advisor has decided to purchase gold, real estate, stocks, and bonds in equal amounts. Thisdecision reflects which part of the investment process?A. Asset allocationB. Investment analysisC. Portfolio analysisD. Security selection1 Key1.Financial assets represent _____ of total assets of U.S. households.A. over 60%B. over 90%C. under 10%D. about 30%Bodie - Chapter 01 #1Difficulty: Easy2.Real assets in the economy include all but which one of the following?A. LandB. BuildingsC. Consumer durablesD. Common stockBodie - Chapter 01 #2Difficulty: Easy worth represents _____ of the liabilities and net worth of commercial banks.A. about 50%B. about 90%C. about 10%D. about 30%Bodie - Chapter 01 #3Difficulty: Medium 4.According to the Flow of Funds Accounts of the United States, the largest single asset of U.S.households is ___.A. mutual fund sharesB. real estateC. pension reservesD. corporate equityBodie - Chapter 01 #4Difficulty: Medium 5.According to the Flow of Funds Accounts of the United States, the largest liability of U.S. households is________.A. mortgagesB. consumer creditC. bank loansD. gambling debtsBodie - Chapter 01 #5Difficulty: Medium6.____ is not a derivative security.A. A share of common stockB. A call optionC. A futures contractD. All of the above are derivative securities.Bodie - Chapter 01 #6Difficulty: Easy 7.According to the Flow of Funds Accounts of the United States, the largest financial asset of U.S.households is ____.A. mutual fund sharesB. corporate equityC. pension reservesD. personal trustsBodie - Chapter 01 #7Difficulty: Medium8.Active trading in markets and competition among securities analysts helps ensure that __________.I. security prices approach informational efficiencyII. riskier securities are priced to offer higher potential returnsIII. investors are unlikely to be able to consistently find under- or overvalued securitiesA. I onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II and IIIBodie - Chapter 01 #8Difficulty: Hard 9.The material wealth of society is determined by the economy's _________, which is a function of theeconomy's _________.A. investment bankers, financial assetsB. investment bankers, real assetsC. productive capacity, financial assetsD. productive capacity, real assetsBodie - Chapter 01 #9Difficulty: Medium10.Which of the following is not a money market security?A. U.S. Treasury billB. Six month maturity certificate of depositC. Common stockD. Banker's acceptanceBodie - Chapter 01 #10Difficulty: Medium11.__________ assets generate net income to the economy and __________ assets define allocation ofincome among investors.A. Financial, financialB. Financial, realC. Real, financialD. Real, realBodie - Chapter 01 #11Difficulty: Medium12.Which of the following are financial assets?I. Debt securitiesII. Equity securitiesIII. Derivative securitiesA. I onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD.I, II and IIIBodie - Chapter 01 #12Difficulty: Hard13.__________ are examples of financial intermediaries.A. Commercial banksB. Insurance companiesC. Investment companiesD. All of the above are financial intermediariesBodie - Chapter 01 #13Difficulty: Easy14.Asset allocation refers to the _________.A.allocation of the investment portfolio across broad asset classesB. analysis of the value of securitiesC. choice of specific assets within each asset classD. none of the answers define asset allocationBodie - Chapter 01 #14Difficulty: Easy15.Which one of the following best describes the purpose of derivatives markets?A.Transferring risk from one party to anotherB. Investing for a short time period to earn a small rate of returnC. Investing for retirementD. Earning interest incomeBodie - Chapter 01 #15Difficulty: Medium16.__________ was the first to introduce mortgage pass-through securities.A. Chase ManhattanB. CiticorpC. FNMAD. GNMABodie - Chapter 01 #16Difficulty: Easy17.Security selection refers to the ________.A. allocation of the investment portfolio across broad asset classesB. analysis of the value of securitiesC.choice of specific securities within each asset classD. top down method of investingBodie - Chapter 01 #17Difficulty: Medium18._____ is an example of an agency problem.A. Managers engage in empire buildingB. Managers protect their jobs by avoiding risky projectsC. Managers over consume luxuries such as corporate jetsD. All of the answers provide examples of agency problemsBodie - Chapter 01 #18Difficulty: Easy19._____ is a mechanism to mitigate potential agency problems.A. Tying income of managers to success of the firmB. Directors defending top managementC. Anti takeover strategiesD. Straight voting method of electing the board of directorsBodie - Chapter 01 #19Difficulty: Hard20.__________ are real assets.A. BondsB. Production equipmentC. StocksD. Commercial paperBodie - Chapter 01 #20Difficulty: Easy21.__________ portfolio construction starts with selecting attractively priced securities.A. Bottom-upB. Top-downC. Upside-downD. Side-to-sideBodie - Chapter 01 #21Difficulty: Easy22.In a capitalist system capital resources are primarily allocated by ____________.A. governmentsB. the SECC. financial marketsD. investment bankersBodie - Chapter 01 #22Difficulty: Easy23. A __________ represents an ownership share in a corporation.A. call optionmon stockC. fixed-income securityD. preferred stockBodie - Chapter 01 #23Difficulty: Easy24.The value of a derivative security _________.A.depends on the value of other related securityB. affects the value of a related securityC. is unrelated to the value of a related securityD. can only be integrated by calculus professorsBodie - Chapter 01 #24Difficulty: Easy 25. A bond issue is broken up so that some investors will receive interest payments while others willreceive principal payments. This is an example of _________.A. bundlingB. credit enhancementC. securitizationD.unbundlingBodie - Chapter 01 #25Difficulty: Easy 26.__________ portfolio management calls for holding diversified portfolios without spending effort orresources attempting to improve investment performance through security analysis.A. ActiveB. MomentumC.PassiveD. Market timingBodie - Chapter 01 #26Difficulty: Easy27.Financial markets allow for all but which one of the following?A. Shift consumption through time from higher income periods to lowerB. Price securities according to their riskinessC. Channel funds from lenders of funds to borrowers of fundsD. Allow most participants to routinely earn high returns with low riskBodie - Chapter 01 #27Difficulty: Moderate28.Financial intermediaries exist because small investors cannot efficiently _________.A. diversify their portfoliosB. gather informationC. monitor their portfoliosD. all of the answers provide reasons whyBodie - Chapter 01 #28Difficulty: Easy29.Methods to encourage managers to act in shareholders' best interest includeI. Threat of takeoverII. Proxy fights for control of the Board of DirectorsIII. Tying managers' compensation to stock price performanceA. I onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II and IIIBodie - Chapter 01 #29Difficulty: Easy 30.Firms that specialize in helping companies raise capital by selling securities to the public are called_________.A. pension fundsB.investment banksC. savings banksD. REITsBodie - Chapter 01 #30Difficulty: Easy 31.In securities markets, there should be a risk-return trade-off with higher-risk assets having _________expected returns than lower-risk assets.A. higherB. lowerC. the sameD. Can't tell from the information givenBodie - Chapter 01 #31Difficulty: Easy32.__________ are an indirect way U.S. investors can invest in foreign companies.A. ADRsB. IRAsC. SDRsD. CPCsBodie - Chapter 01 #32Difficulty: Easy33.Security selection refers to _________.A. choosing specific securities within each asset-classB. deciding how much to invest in each asset-classC. deciding how much to invest in the market portfolio versus the riskless assetD. deciding how much to hedgeBodie - Chapter 01 #33Difficulty: Easy34.An example of a derivative security is _________.A. a common share of General MotorsB. a call option on Intel stockC. a Ford bondD. a U.S. Treasury bondBodie - Chapter 01 #34Difficulty: Easy35.__________ portfolio construction starts with asset allocation.A. Bottom-upB. Top-downC. Upside-downD. Side-to-sideBodie - Chapter 01 #35Difficulty: Easy 36.Which one of the following firms falsely claimed to have a $4.8 billion bank account at Bank ofAmerica and vastly understated its debts, eventually resulting in the firm's bankruptcy?A. WorldComB. EnronC. ParmalatD. Global CrossingBodie - Chapter 01 #36Difficulty: Medium37.Debt securities promise _________.I. a fixed stream of incomeII. a stream of income that is determined according to a specific formulaIII. a share in the profits of the issuing entityA. I onlyB.I or II onlyC. I and III onlyD. II or III onlyBodie - Chapter 01 #37Difficulty: Medium 38.The Sarbanes-Oxley Act tightened corporate governance rules by requiring all but which one of thefollowing?A. Required corporations to have more independent directorsB. Required the CFO to personally vouch for the corporation's financial statementsC. Required that firms could no longer employ investment bankers to sell securities to the publicD. The creation of a new board to oversee the auditing of public companiesBodie - Chapter 01 #38Difficulty: Medium39.The success of common stock investments depends on the success of _________.A. derivative securitiesB. fixed income securitiesC. the firm and its real assetsD. government methods of allocating capitalBodie - Chapter 01 #39Difficulty: Easy40.The historical average rate of return on the large company stocks since 1926 has beenA. 5%B. 8%C.12%D. 20%Bodie - Chapter 01 #40Difficulty: Medium41.The average rate of return on U.S. Treasury bills since 1926 was _________.A. 0.5%B. 2.4%C. 3.8%D. 6.0%Bodie - Chapter 01 #41Difficulty: Medium42.An example of a real asset is _________.I. a college educationII. customer goodwillIII. a patentA. I onlyB. II onlyC. I and III onlyD. I, II and IIIBodie - Chapter 01 #42Difficulty: Medium43.The 2002 law designed to improve corporate governance is titled theA. Pension Reform ActB. ERISAC. Financial Services Modernization ActD. Sarbanes-Oxley ActBodie - Chapter 01 #43Difficulty: Easy44.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary?A. a mutual fundB. an insurance companyC. a real estate brokerage firmD. a savings and loan companyBodie - Chapter 01 #44Difficulty: Medium 45.The combined liabilities of American households represent approximately __________ percent ofcombined assets.A. 11%B.21%C. 25%D. 33%Bodie - Chapter 01 #45Difficulty: Medium 46.In 2008 real assets represented approximately __________ percent of the total asset holdings ofAmerican households.A. 37%B. 42%C. 48%D. 55%Bodie - Chapter 01 #46Difficulty: Medium。
博迪《投资学》(第9版)课后习题-风险厌恶与风险资产配置(圣才出品)
第6章风险厌恶与风险资产配置一、习题1.风险厌恶程度高的投资者会偏好哪种投资组合?a.更高风险溢价b.风险更高c.夏普比率更低d.夏普比率更高e.以上各项均不是答:e。
2.以下哪几个表述是正确的?a.风险组合的配置减少,夏普比率会降低b.借入利率越高,有杠杆时夏普比率越低c.无风险利率固定时,如果风险组合的期望收益率和标准差都翻倍,夏普比率也会翻倍d.风险组合风险溢价不变,无风险利率越高,夏普比率越高答:b项正确。
较高的借入利率是对借款人违约风险的补偿。
在没有额外的违约成本的完美市场中,这个增量值将与借款人违约选择权的价值相等。
然而,在现实中违约是有成本的,因此这部分的增量值会使夏普比率降低。
c项是不正确的,因为一个固定的无风险利率的预期回报增加一倍,风险溢价和夏普比率将增加一倍以上。
3.如果投资者预测股票市场波动性增大,股票期望收益如何变化?参考教材式(6-7)。
答:假设风险容忍度不变,即有一个不变的风险厌恶系数(A),则观察到的更大的波动会增加风险投资组合的最优投资方程(教材式6-7)的分母。
因此,投资于风险投资组合的比例将会下降。
4.考虑一个风险组合,年末现金流为70000美元或200000美元,两者概率相等。
短期国债利率为6%。
a.如果追求风险溢价为8%,你愿意投资多少钱?b.期望收益率是多少?c.追求风险溢价为12%呢?d.比较a和c的答案,关于投资所要求的风险溢价与售价之间的关系,投资者有什么结论?答:a.预期现金流入为(0.5×70000)+(0.5×200000)=135000(美元)。
风险溢价为8%,无风险利率为6%,则必要回报率为14%。
因此资产组合的现值为:135000/1.14=118421(美元)。
b.如果资产组合以118421美元买入,给定预期的收入为135000美元,则期望收益率E(r)满足:118421×[1+E(r)]=135000(美元)。
博迪投资学第九版 Investment Chap015 习题答案
CHAPTER 15: THE TERM STRUCTURE OF INTEREST RATES PROBLEM SETS.1. In general, the forward rate can be viewed as the sum of the market‟s expectation ofthe future short rate plus a potential risk (or …liquidity‟) premium. According to the expectations theory of the term structure of interest rates, the liquidity premium is zero so that the forward rate is equal to the market‟s expectation of the future short rate. Therefore, the market‟s expectation of future short rates (i.e., forward rates) can be derived from the yield curve, and there is no risk premium for longermaturities.The liquidity preference theory, on the other hand, specifies that the liquiditypremium is positive so that the forward rate is greater than the market‟s expectation of the future short rate. This could result in an upward sloping term structure even if the market does not anticipate an increase in interest rates. The liquiditypreference theory is based on the assumption that the financial markets aredominated by short-term investors who demand a premium in order to be induced to invest in long maturity securities.2. True. Under the expectations hypothesis, there are no risk premia built into bondprices. The only reason for long-term yields to exceed short-term yields is anexpectation of higher short-term rates in the future.3. Uncertain. Expectations of lower inflation will usually lead to lower nominalinterest rates. Nevertheless, if the liquidity premium is sufficiently great, long-term yields may exceed short-term yields despite expectations of falling short rates.4. The liquidity theory holds that investors demand a premium to compensate them forinterest rate exposure and the premium increases with maturity. Add this premium to a flat curve and the result is an upward sloping yield curve.5. The pure expectations theory, also referred to as the unbiased expectations theory,purports that forward rates are solely a function of expected future spot rates.Under the pure expectations theory, a yield curve that is upward (downward)sloping, means that short-term rates are expected to rise (fall). A flat yield curveimplies that the market expects short-term rates to remain constant.6. The yield curve slopes upward because short-term rates are lower than long-term rates. Since market rates are determined by supply and demand, it follows thatinvestors (demand side) expect rates to be higher in the future than in the near-term. 7. Maturity Price YTM Forward Rate1 $943.40 6.00%2 $898.47 5.50% (1.0552/1.06) – 1 = 5.0% 3 $847.62 5.67% (1.05673/1.0552) – 1 = 6.0% 4$792.166.00%(1.064/1.05673) – 1 = 7.0%8.The expected price path of the 4-year zero coupon bond is shown below. (Note that we discount the face value by the appropriate sequence of forward rates implied by this year‟s yield curve.) Beginning of YearExpected PriceExpected Rate of Return 1 $792.16($839.69/$792.16) – 1 = 6.00% 2 69.839$07.106.105.1000,1$=⨯⨯($881.68/$839.69) – 1 = 5.00% 3 68.881$07.106.1000,1$=⨯($934.58/$881.68) – 1 = 6.00%458.934$07.1000,1$= ($1,000.00/$934.58) – 1 = 7.00% 9.If expectations theory holds, then the forward rate equals the short rate, and the one year interest rate three years from now would be43(1.07)1.08518.51%(1.065)-==10. a.A 3-year zero coupon bond with face value $100 will sell today at a yield of 6% and a price of:$100/1.063 =$83.96Next year, the bond will have a two-year maturity, and therefore a yield of 6% (from next year‟s forecasted yield curve). The price will be $89.00, resulting in a holding period return of 6%.b. The forward rates based on today‟s yield curve are as follows: Year Forward Rate2 (1.052/1.04) – 1 = 6.01% 3(1.063/1.052) – 1 = 8.03%Using the forward rates, the forecast for the yield curve next year is: Maturity YTM 1 6.01% 2 (1.0601 × 1.0803)1/2 – 1 = 7.02%The market forecast is for a higher YTM on 2–year bonds than your forecast. Thus, the market predicts a lower price and higher rate of return.11. a. 86.101$08.1109$07.19$P 2=+=b.The yield to maturity is the solution for y in the following equation:86.101$)y 1(109$y 19$2=+++ [Using a financial calculator, enter n = 2; FV = 100; PMT = 9; PV = –101.86; Compute i] YTM = 7.958%c.The forward rate for next year, derived from the zero-coupon yield curve, is the solution for f 2 in the following equation:0901.107.1)08.1(f 122==+ ⇒ f 2 = 0.0901 = 9.01%.Therefore, using an expected rate for next year of r 2 = 9.01%, we find that the forecast bond price is:99.99$0901.1109$P ==d.If the liquidity premium is 1% then the forecast interest rate is:E(r 2) = f 2 – liquidity premium = 9.01% – 1.00% = 8.01% The forecast of the bond price is:92.100$0801.1109$=12. a.The current bond price is:($85 × 0.94340) + ($85 × 0.87352) + ($1,085 × 0.81637) = $1,040.20 This price implies a yield to maturity of 6.97%, as shown by the following: [$85 × Annuity factor (6.97%, 3)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (6.97%, 3)] = $1,040.17b.If one year from now y = 8%, then the bond price will be:[$85 × Annuity factor (8%, 2)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (8%, 2)] = $1,008.92 The holding period rate of return is:[$85 + ($1,008.92 – $1,040.20)]/$1,040.20 = 0.0516 = 5.16%13. Year Forward Rate PV of $1 received at period end 1 5% $1/1.05 = $0.95242 7% $1/(1.05⨯1.07) = $0.890138%$1/(1.05⨯1.07⨯1.08) = $0.8241a. Price = ($60 × 0.9524) + ($60 × 0.8901) + ($1,060 × 0.8241) = $984.14b.To find the yield to maturity, solve for y in the following equation: $984.10 = [$60 × Annuity factor (y, 3)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (y, 3)] This can be solved using a financial calculator to show that y = 6.60%c.Period Payment received at end of period:Will grow by a factor of: To a future value of: 1 $60.00 1.07 ⨯ 1.08 $69.34 2 $60.00 1.08 $64.80 3 $1,060.00 1.00 $1,060.00$1,194.14$984.10 ⨯ (1 + y realized )3 = $1,194.141 + y realized = 0666.110.984$14.194,1$3/1=⎪⎭⎫⎝⎛ ⇒ y realized = 6.66%d.Next year, the price of the bond will be:[$60 × Annuity factor (7%, 2)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (7%, 2)] = $981.92 Therefore, there will be a capital loss equal to: $984.10 – $981.92 = $2.18 The holding period return is:%88.50588.010.984$)18.2$(60$==-+14. a.The return on the one-year zero-coupon bond will be 6.1%. The price of the 4-year zero today is:$1,000/1.0644 = $780.25Next year, i f the yield curve is unchanged, today‟s 4-year zero coupon bond will have a 3-year maturity, a YTM of 6.3%, and therefore the price will be:$1,000/1.0633 = $832.53The resulting one-year rate of return will be: 6.70%Therefore, in this case, the longer-term bond is expected to provide the higher return because its YTM is expected to decline during the holding period. b.If you believe in the expectations hypothesis, you would not expect that the yield curve next year will be the same as today‟s curve. The u pward slope in today's curve would be evidence that expected short rates are rising and that the yield curve will shift upward, reducing the holding period return on the four-year bond. Under the expectations hypothesis, all bonds have equal expected holding period returns. Therefore, you would predict that the HPR for the 4-year bond would be 6.1%, the same as for the 1-year bond.15. The price of the coupon bond, based on its yield to maturity, is:[$120 × Annuity factor (5.8%, 2)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (5.8%, 2)] = $1,113.99 If the coupons were stripped and sold separately as zeros, then, based on the yield to maturity of zeros with maturities of one and two years, respectively, the coupon payments could be sold separately for:08.111,1$06.1120,1$05.1120$2=+ The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $120 and $1,120, and respective maturities of one year and two years, and simultaneously sell the coupon bond. The profit equals $2.91 on each bond.16. a.The one-year zero-coupon bond has a yield to maturity of 6%, as shown below:1y 1100$34.94$+=⇒y 1 = 0.06000 = 6.000% The yield on the two-year zero is 8.472%, as shown below:22)y 1(100$99.84$+=⇒y 2 = 0.08472 = 8.472% The price of the coupon bond is:51.106$)08472.1(112$06.112$2=+Therefore: yield to maturity for the coupon bond = 8.333%[On a financial calculator, enter: n = 2; PV = –106.51; FV = 100; PMT = 12]b. %00.111100.0106.1)08472.1(1y 1)y 1(f 21222==-=-++=c.Expected price 90.100$11.1112$==(Note that next year, the coupon bond will have one payment left.) Expected holding period return =%00.60600.051.106$)51.106$90.100($12$==-+This holding period return is the same as the return on the one-year zero.d.If there is a liquidity premium, then: E(r 2) < f 2 E(Price) =90.100$)r (E 1112$2>+E(HPR) > 6%17. a.We obtain forward rates from the following table: Maturity YTM Forward Rate Price (for parts c, d) 1 year 10%$1,000/1.10 = $909.09 2 years 11% (1.112/1.10) – 1 = 12.01% $1,000/1.112 = $811.62 3 years 12% (1.123/1.112) – 1 = 14.03%$1,000/1.123 = $711.78b.We obtain next year‟s prices and yields by discounting each zero‟s face value at the forward rates for next year that we derived in part (a): Maturity PriceYTM1 year $1,000/1.1201 = $892.78 12.01%2 years$1,000/(1.1201 × 1.1403) = $782.9313.02%Note that this year‟s upward sloping yield curve implies, according t o the expectations hypothesis, a shift upward in next year‟s curve.c.Next year, the 2-year zero will be a 1-year zero, and will therefore sell at a price of: $1,000/1.1201 = $892.78Similarly, the current 3-year zero will be a 2-year zero and will sell for: $782.93 Expected total rate of return:2-year bond: %00.1011000.1162.811$78.892$=-=-3-year bond:%00.1011000.1178.711$93.782$=-=-d.The current price of the bond should equal the value of each payment times the present value of $1 to be received at the “maturity” of th at payment. The present value schedule can be taken directly from the prices of zero-coupon bonds calculated above.Current price = ($120 × 0.90909) + ($120 × 0.81162) + ($1,120 × 0.71178)= $109.0908 + $97.3944 + $797.1936 = $1,003.68Similarly, the expected prices of zeros one year from now can be used to calculate the expected bond value at that time:Expected price 1 year from now = ($120 × 0.89278) + ($1,120 × 0.78293)= $107.1336 + $876.8816 = $984.02Total expected rate of return =%00.101000.068.003,1$)68.003,1$02.984($120$==-+18. a.Maturity (years) Price YTM Forward rate 1 $925.93 8.00% 2 $853.39 8.25% 8.50% 3 $782.92 8.50% 9.00% 4 $715.00 8.75% 9.50% 5$650.009.00%10.00%b.For each 3-year zero issued today, use the proceeds to buy:$782.92/$715.00 = 1.095 four-year zerosYour cash flows are thus as follows:Time Cash Flow0 $ 03 -$1,000 The 3-year zero issued at time 0 matures;the issuer pays out $1,000 face value4 +$1,095 The 4-year zeros purchased at time 0 mature;receive face valueThis is a synthetic one-year loan originating at time 3. The rate on thesynthetic loan is 0.095 = 9.5%, precisely the forward rate for year 4.c. For each 4-year zero issued today, use the proceeds to buy:$715.00/$650.00 = 1.100 five-year zerosYour cash flows are thus as follows:Time Cash Flow0 $ 04 -$1,000 The 4-year zero issued at time 0 matures;the issuer pays out $1,000 face value5 +$1,100 The 5-year zeros purchased at time 0 mature;receive face valueThis is a synthetic one-year loan originating at time 4. The rate on thesynthetic loan is 0.100 = 10.0%, precisely the forward rate for year 5.19. a. For each three-year zero you buy today, issue:$782.92/$650.00 = 1.2045 five-year zerosThe time-0 cash flow equals zero.b. Your cash flows are thus as follows:Time Cash Flow0 $ 03 +$1,000.00 The 3-year zero purchased at time 0 matures;receive $1,000 face value5 -$1,204.50 The 5-year zeros issued at time 0 mature;issuer pays face valueThis is a synthetic two-year loan originating at time 3.c.The effective two-year interest rate on the forward loan is:$1,204.50/$1,000 1 = 0.2045 = 20.45%d.The one-year forward rates for years 4 and 5 are 9.5% and 10%, respectively. Notice that:1.095 × 1.10 = 1.2045 =1 + (two-year forward rate on the 3-year ahead forward loan)The 5-year YTM is 9.0%. The 3-year YTM is 8.5%. Therefore, another way to derive the 2-year forward rate for a loan starting at time 3 is:%46.202046.01085.109.11)y 1()y 1()2(f 3533553==-=-++= [Note: slight discrepancies here from rounding errors in YTM calculations]CFA PROBLEMS1. Expectations hypothesis: The yields on long-term bonds are geometric averages ofpresent and expected future short rates. An upward sloping curve is explained by expected future short rates being higher than the current short rate. A downward-sloping yield curve implies expected future short rates are lower than the current short rate. Thus bonds of different maturities have different yields if expectations of future short rates are different from the current short rate.Liquidity preference hypothesis: Yields on long-term bonds are greater than the expected return from rolling-over short-term bonds in order to compensate investors in long-term bonds for bearing interest rate risk. Thus bonds of different maturities can have different yields even if expected future short rates are all equal to the current short rate. An upward sloping yield curve can be consistent even with expectations of falling short rates if liquidity premiums are high enough. If,however, the yield curve is downward sloping and liquidity premiums are assumed to be positive, then we can conclude that future short rates are expected to be lower than the current short rate. 2. d. 3.a.(1+y 4 )4 = (1+ y 3 )3 (1 + f 4 ) (1.055)4 = (1.05)3 (1 + f 4 )1.2388 = 1.1576 (1 + f 4 ) ⇒ f 4 = 0.0701 = 7.01%b.The conditions would be those that underlie the expectations theory of the term structure: risk neutral market participants who are willing to substitute among maturities solely on the basis of yield differentials. This behavior would rule out liquidity or term premia relating to risk.c.Under the expectations hypothesis, lower implied forward rates wouldindicate lower expected future spot rates for the corresponding period. Since the lower expected future rates embodied in the term structure are nominal rates, either lower expected future real rates or lower expected future inflation rates would be consistent with the specified change in the observed (implied) forward rate.4.The given rates are annual rates, but each period is a half-year. Therefore, the per period spot rates are 2.5% on one-year bonds and 2% on six-month bonds. The semiannual forward rate is obtained by solving for f in the following equation:030.102.1025.1f 12==+This means that the forward rate is 0.030 = 3.0% semiannually, or 6.0% annually. 5.The present value of each bond‟s payments can be derived by discounting each cash flow by the appropriate rate from the spot interest rate (i.e., the pure yield) curve:Bond A: 53.98$11.1110$08.110$05.110$PV 32=++= Bond B:36.88$11.1106$08.16$05.16$PV 32=++=Bond A sells for $0.13 (i.e., 0.13% of par value) less than the present value of itsstripped payments. Bond B sells for $0.02 less than the present value of its stripped payments. Bond A is more attractively priced. 6. a.Based on the pure expectations theory, VanHusen‟s conclusion is incorrect. According to this theory, the expected return over any time horizon would be the same, regardless of the maturity strategy employed.b. According to the liquidity preference theory, the shape of the yield curveimplies that short-term interest rates are expected to rise in the future. Thistheory asserts that forward rates reflect expectations about future interest ratesplus a liquidity premium that increases with maturity. Given the shape of theyield curve and the liquidity premium data provided, the yield curve would stillbe positively sloped (at least through maturity of eight years) after subtractingthe respective liquidity premiums:2.90% – 0.55% = 2.35%3.50% – 0.55% = 2.95%3.80% – 0.65% = 3.15%4.00% – 0.75% = 3.25%4.15% – 0.90% = 3.25%4.30% – 1.10% = 3.20%4.45% – 1.20% = 3.25%4.60% – 1.50% = 3.10%4.70% – 1.60% = 3.10%7. The coupon bonds can be viewed as portfolios of stripped zeros: each coupon canstand alone as an independent zero-coupon bond. Therefore, yields on couponbonds reflect yields on payments with dates corresponding to each coupon. When the yield curve is upward sloping, coupon bonds have lower yields than zeroswith the same maturity because the yields to maturity on coupon bonds reflect the yields on the earlier interim coupon payments.8. The following table shows the expected short-term interest rate based on theprojections of Federal Reserve rate cuts, the term premium (which increases at arate of 0.10% per 12 months), the forward rate (which is the sum of the expectedrate and term premium), and the YTM, which is the geometric average of theforward rates.Time Expectedshort rateTermpremiumForwardrate (annual)Forward rate(semi-annual)YTM(semi-annual)0 5.00% 0.00% 5.00% 2.500% 2.500% 6 months 4.50 0.05 4.55 2.275 2.387 12 months 4.00 0.10 4.10 2.050 2.275 18 months 4.00 0.15 4.15 2.075 2.225 24 months 4.00 0.20 4.20 2.100 2.200 30 months 5.00 0.25 5.25 2.625 2.271 36 months 5.00 0.30 5.30 2.650 2.334 This analysis is predicated on the liquidity preference theory of the term structure, which asserts that the forward rate in any period is the sum of the expected short rate plus the liquidity premium.9. a. Five-year Spot Rate:5544332211)y 1(070,1$)y 1(70$)y 1(70$)y 1(70$)y 1(70$000,1$+++++++++= 55432)y 1(070,1$)0716.1(70$)0605.1(70$)0521.1(70$)05.1(70$000,1$+++++= 55)y 1(070,1$08.53$69.58$24.63$67.66$000,1$+++++= 55)y 1(070,1$32.758$+= 32.758$070,1$)y 1(55=+⇒%13.71411.1y 55=-= Five-year Forward Rate:%01.710701.11)0716.1()0713.1(45=-=-b. The yield to maturity is the single discount rate that equates the present valueof a series of cash flows to a current price. It is the internal rate of return. The short rate for a given interval is the interest rate for that interval available at different points in time.The spot rate for a given period is the yield to maturity on a zero-coupon bond that matures at the end of the period. A spot rate is the discount rate for each period. Spot rates are used to discount each cash flow of a coupon bond in order to calculate a current price. Spot rates are the rates appropriate fordiscounting future cash flows of different maturities.A forward rate is the implicit rate that links any two spot rates. Forward rates are directly related to spot rates, and therefore to yield to maturity. Some would argue (as in the expectations hypothesis) that forward rates are the market expectations of future interest rates. A forward rate represents abreak-even rate that links two spot rates. It is important to note that forward rates link spot rates, not yields to maturity.Yield to maturity is not unique for any particular maturity. In other words, two bonds with the same maturity but different coupon rates may havedifferent yields to maturity. In contrast, spot rates and forward rates for each date are unique.c.The 4-year spot rate is 7.16%. Therefore, 7.16% is the theoretical yield to maturity for the zero-coupon U.S. Treasury note. The price of the zero-coupon note discounted at 7.16% is the present value of $1,000 to be received in 4 years. Using annual compounding: 35.758$)0716.1(000,1$PV 4==10. a.The two-year implied annually compounded forward rate for a deferred loan beginning in 3 years is calculated as follows: %07.60607.0111.109.11)y 1()y 1()2(f 2/1352/133553==-⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡=-⎥⎦⎤⎢⎣⎡++=b. Assuming a par value of $1,000, the bond price is calculated as follows: 10.987$)09.1(090,1$)10.1(90$)11.1(90$)12.1(90$)13.1(90$)y 1(090,1$)y 1(90$)y 1(90$)y 1(90$)y 1(90$P 543215544332211=++++=+++++++++=。
博迪《投资学》(第9版)课后习题-资本资产定价模型(圣才出品)
第9章 资本资产定价模型一、习题1.如果()()1814P f M E r r E r =%, =6%, =%,那么该资产组合的β值等于多少?答:()()P f P M f E r r E r r β⎡⎤=+⨯−⎣⎦0.18=0.06+p β×(0.14-0.06)解得p β=0.12/0.08=1.5。
2.某证券的市场价格是50美元,期望收益率是14%,无风险利率为6%,市场风险溢价为8.5%。
如果该证券与市场投资组合的相关系数加倍(其他保持不变),该证券的市场价格是多少?假设该股票永远支付固定数额的股利。
答:如果该证券与市场投资组合的相关系数加倍(其他所有变量如方差保持不变),那么β和风险溢价也将加倍。
当前风险溢价为:14%-6%=8%。
因此新的风险溢价将变为16%,新的证券贴现率将变为:16%+6%=22%。
如果股票支付某一水平的永久红利,那么,从原始的数据中可以知道,红利必须满足永续年金的现值公式:价格=股利/贴现率即:50=D/0.14,解得,D =50×0.14=7(美元)。
在新的贴现率22%的情况下,股票价格为:7/0.22=31.82(美元)。
股票风险的增加使它的价值降低了36.36%。
3.下列选项是否正确?并给出解释。
a .β为零的股票提供的期望收益率为零。
b .资本资产定价模型认为投资者对持有高波动性证券要求更高的收益率。
c .你可以通过将75%的资金投资于短期国债,其余的资金投资于市场投资组合的方式来构建一个β为0.75的资产组合。
答:a .错误。
β=0意味着E (r )=r f ,不等于零。
b .错误。
只有承担了较高的系统风险(不可分散的风险或市场风险),投资者才要求较高期望收益;如果高风险债券的β较小,即使总风险较大,投资者要求的收益率也不会太高。
c .错误。
投资组合应当是75%的市场组合和25%的短期国债,此时β为:()()0.7510.2500.75p β=⨯+⨯=4.下表给出两个公司的数据。
博迪《投资学》(第9版)课后习题-宏观经济分析与行业分析(圣才出品)
第17章宏观经济分析与行业分析一、习题1.经济急剧衰退时,应该采取什么样的货币政策和财政政策?答:降低利率的扩张性(放松)货币政策将有助于刺激投资和对耐用消费品的支出。
扩张性财政政策(即降低税收,增加政府支出和福利转移支付)将直接刺激总需求。
2.如果你比其他投资者更相信美元会大幅贬值,那么你对美国汽车产业有何投资建议?答:美元的急剧贬值会使进口汽车变得更昂贵,美国的汽车对外国的消费者则变得更便宜了。
这将使得美国的汽车行业获益。
3.选择一个行业,列举决定其未来3年业绩的因素并预期其未来业绩。
答:答案不惟一。
4.证券评估“自下而上”和“自上而下”方法的差异是什么?“自上而下”方法的优势在哪里?答:证券评估“自上而下”的方法开始于全球和国内的经济分析。
在给定宏观经济的预期表现的情况下,遵循“自上而下”方法的分析家将会试图寻找一个可能表现良好的行业或部门。
最后,分析会集中于行业或部门内可能表现良好的特定企业。
“自下向上”的方法通常强调个别公司股票的基本面分析,它主要是基于这样一种信念,即无论行业或宏观经济的前景好坏,被低估的股票都将表现良好。
“自上而下”方法的主要优势是它提供了一种在每一水平下,将经济和金融变量的影响纳入到公司股票分析中的结构性方法。
特定行业的前景高度依赖于宏观经济变量。
同样,个别公司的股票表现可能受该公司经营的行业前景的影响很大。
5.公司的哪些特征会使其对经济周期更敏感?答:对经济周期有较大敏感性的公司一般属于生产耐用消费品或资本货物的行业。
耐用品(如汽车,大家电)的消费者更倾向于在经济扩张时购买这些东西,而在经济衰退时往往会推迟购买。
公司的资本货物(如购买生产产品的设备)的购买在经济衰退时会降低,因为在经济衰退时对公司最终产品的需求会下降。
6.与其他投资者不同,你认为美联储将实施宽松的货币政策。
那么你对下列行业有何投资建议?a.金矿开采b.建筑业答:a.金矿开采:传统上认为黄金可以对冲通胀风险。
博迪投资学第九版-Investment-Chap013-习题答案
CHAPTER 13: EMPIRICAL EVIDENCE ON SECURITY RETURNS PROBLEM SETS1. Even if the single-factor CCAPM (with a consumption-trackingportfolio used as the index) performs better than the CAPM, it is still quite possible that the consumption portfolio does notcapture the size and growth characteristics captured by the SMB(i.e., small minus big capitalization) and HML (i.e., high minuslow book-to-market ratio) factors of the Fama-French three-factor model. Therefore, it is expected that the Fama-French model with consumption provides a better explanation of returns than does the model with consumption alone.2. Wealth and consumption should be positively correlated and,therefore, market volatility and consumption volatility should also be positively correlated. Periods of high market volatility might coincide with periods of high consumption volatility. The‘conventional’ CAPM focuses on the covariance of security returns with returns for the market portfolio (which in turn tracksaggregate wealth) while the consumption-based CAPM focuses on the covariance of security returns with returns for a portfolio thattracks consumption growth. However, to the extent that wealth and consumption are correlated, both versions of the CAPM mightrepresent patterns in actual returns reasonably well.To see this formally, suppose that the CAPM and the consumption-based model are approximately true. According to the conventional CAPM, the market price of risk equals expected excess market return divided by the variance of that excess return. According to theconsumption-beta model, the price of risk equals expected excessmarket return divided by the covariance of R M with g, where g is the rate of consumption growth. This covariance equals the correlation of R M with g times the product of the standard deviations of thevariables. Combining the two models, the correlation between R M andg equals the standard deviation of R M divided by the standarddeviation of g. Accordingly, if the correlation between R M and g is relatively stable, then an increase in market volatility will beaccompanied by an increase in the volatility of consumption growth.Note: For the following problems, the focus is on the estimation procedure. To keep the exercise feasible, the sample was limited to returns on nine stocks plus a market index and a second factor over a period of 12 years. The data were generated to conform to a two-factor CAPM so that actual rates of return equal CAPMexpectations plus random noise, and the true intercept of the SCL is zero for all stocks. The exercise will provide a feel for the pitfalls of verifying social-science models. However, due to the small size of the sample, results are not always consistent withthe findings of other studies as reported in the chapter.3. Using the regression feature of Excel with the data presented inthe text, the first-pass (SCL) estimation results are:Stock:A B C D E F G H I R Square0.060.060.060.370.170.590.060.670.70ObservationBeta-0.470.590.42 1.380.90 1.780.66 1.91 2.08t-Alpha0.73-0.04-0.06-0.410.05-0.450.33-0.270.64t-Beta-0.810.780.78 2.42 1.42 3.830.78 4.51 4.814. The hypotheses for the second-pass regression for the SML are:•The intercept is zero; and,•The slope is equal to the average return on the index portfolio.5. The second-pass data from first-pass (SCL) estimates are:AverageBetaExcessReturnA 5.18-0.47B 4.190.59C 2.750.42D 6.15 1.38E8.050.90F9.90 1.78G11.320.66H13.11 1.91I22.83 2.08M8.12S The second-pass regression yields:Regression StatisticsMultiple R 0.7074R Square0.5004Adjusted RSquare0.4291Standard Error 4.6234 Observations9Coefficients StandardErrortStatisticfor β=0tStatisticforIntercept 3.92 2.54 1.54Slope 5.21 1.97 2.65-1.486. As we saw in the chapter, the intercept is too high (3.92% per yearinstead of 0) and the slope is too flat (5.21% instead of apredicted value equal to the sample-average risk premium: r M r f =8.12%). The intercept is not significantly greater than zero (thet-statistic is less than 2) and the slope is not significantlydifferent from its theoretical value (the t-statistic for thishypothesis is 1.48). This lack of statistical significance isprobably due to the small size of the sample.7. Arranging the securities in three portfolios based on betas fromthe SCL estimates, the first pass input data are:Year ABC DEG FHI115.0525.8656.692-16.76-29.74-50.85319.67-5.688.984-15.83-2.5835.41547.1837.70-3.256-2.2653.8675.447-18.6715.3212.508-6.3536.3332.1297.8514.0850.421021.4112.6652.1411-2.53-50.71-66.1212-0.30-4.99-20.10 Average 4.048.5115.28Std.Dev.19.3029.4743.96(continued on next page)The first-pass (SCL) estimates are:ABC DEG FHIR Square0.040.480.82Observation121212Alpha 2.580.54-0.34Beta0.180.98 1.92t-Alpha0.420.08-0.06t-Beta0.62 3.02 6.83Grouping into portfolios has improved the SCL estimates as is evident from the higher R-square for Portfolio DEG and Portfolio FHI. This means that the beta (slope) is measured with greater precision, reducing the error-in-measurement problem at the expense of leaving fewer observations for the second pass.The inputs for the second pass regression are:AverageExcessReturnBetaABC 4.040.18DEH8.510.98FGI15.28 1.92M8.12The second-pass estimates are:RegressionMultiple R0.9975R Square0.9949Adjusted RSquare0.9899Standard Error0.5693Observations3Coefficients StandardErrortStatisticfor β =0tStatisticfor βIntercept 2.620.58 4.55Slope 6.470.4614.03-3.58Despite the decrease in the intercept and the increase in slope, the intercept is now significantly positive, and the slope is significantly less than the hypothesized value by more than three times the standard error.8. Roll’s critique suggests that the problem b egins with the marketindex, which is not the theoretical portfolio against which thesecond pass regression should hold. Hence, even if therelationship is valid with respect to the true (unknown) index, we may not find it. As a result, the second pass relationship may be meaningless.9.Except for Stock I, which realized an extremely positive surprise, the CML shows that the index dominates all other securities, and the three portfolios dominate all individual stocks. The power of diversification is evident despite the very small sample size.10. The first-pass (SCL) regression results are summarized below:A B C D E F G H IR-Square0.070.360.110.440.240.840.120.680.71Observatio121212121212121212 nsIntercept9.19-1.89-1.00-4.480.17-3.47 5.32-2.64 5.66Beta M-0.470.580.41 1.390.89 1.790.65 1.91 2.08Beta F-0.35 2.330.67-1.05 1.03-1.95 1.150.430.48 t-Intercept0.71-0.13-0.08-0.370.01-0.520.29-0.280.59t-Beta M-0.770.870.75 2.46 1.40 5.800.75 4.35 4.65 t-Beta F-0.34 2.060.71-1.080.94-3.690.770.570.6311. The hypotheses for the second-pass regression for the two-factorSML are:•The intercept is zero;•The market-index slope coefficient equals the market-index average return; and,•The factor slope coefficient equals the average return on thefactor.(Note that the first two hypotheses are the same as those for the single factor model.)12. The inputs for the second pass regression are:AverageExcessReturnBeta M Beta FA 5.18-0.47-0.35B 4.190.58 2.33C 2.750.410.67D 6.15 1.39-1.05E8.050.89 1.03F9.90 1.79-1.95G11.320.65 1.15H13.11 1.910.43I22.83 2.080.48M8.12F0.60The second-pass regression yields:Regression StatisticsMultiple R0.7234R Square0.5233Adjusted RSquare0.3644Standard Error 4.8786Observations9Coefficients StandardErrortStatisticfor β =0tStatisticfor βtStatisticfor βIntercept 3.35 2.88 1.16Beta M 5.53 2.16 2.56-1.20Beta F0.80 1.420.560.14These results are slightly better than those for the single factor test; that is, the intercept is smaller and the slope on M is slightly greater. We cannot expect a great improvement since the factor we added does not appear to carry a large risk premium (average excess return is less than 1%), and its effect on mean returns is therefore small. The data do not reject the second factor because the slope is close to the average excess return and the difference is less than one standard error. However, with this sample size, the power of this test is extremely low.13. When we use the actual factor, we implicitly assume that investorscan perfectly replicate it, that is, they can invest in a portfolio that is perfectly correlated with the factor. When this is notpossible, one cannot expect the CAPM equation (the second passregression) to hold. Investors can use a replicating portfolio (aproxy for the factor) that maximizes the correlation with thefactor. The CAPM equation is then expected to hold with respect to the proxy portfolio.Using the bordered covariance matrix of the nine stocks and theExcel Solver we produce a proxy portfolio for factor F, denoted PF.To preserve the scale, we include constraints that require the nine weights to be in the range of [-1,1] and that the mean equal thefactor mean of 0.60%. The resultant weights for the proxy andperiod returns are:Proxy Portfolio for Factor F(PF)Weightson Universe YearPF HoldingPeriodReturnsA-0.141-33.51B 1.00262.78C0.9539.87D-0.354-153.56E0.165200.76F-1.006-36.62G0.137-74.34H0.198-10.84I0.06928.111059.5111-59.151214.22Average0.60This proxy (PF) has an R-square with the actual factor of 0.80.We next perform the first pass regressions for the two factor model using PF instead of P:A B C D E F G H I R-square0.080.550.200.430.330.880.160.710.72 Observations121212121212121212Intercept9.28-2.53-1.35-4.45-0.23-3.20 4.99-2.92 5.54 Beta M-0.500.800.49 1.32 1.00 1.640.76 1.97 2.12 Beta PF-0.060.420.16-0.130.21-0.290.210.110.08 t- 0.72-0.21-0.12-0.36-0.02-0.550.27-0.330.58 t-Beta M-0.83 1.430.94 2.29 1.66 6.000.90 4.67 4.77t-Beta PF-0.44 3.16 1.25-0.97 1.47-4.52 1.03 1.130.78Note that the betas of the nine stocks on M and the proxy (PF) are different from those in the first pass when we use the actual proxy.The first-pass regression for the two-factor model with the proxy yields:AverageExcessReturnBeta M Beta PFA 5.18-0.50-0.06B 4.190.800.42C 2.750.490.16D 6.15 1.32-0.13E8.05 1.000.21F9.90 1.64-0.29G11.320.760.21H13.11 1.970.11I22.83 2.120.08M8.12PF0.6The second-pass regression yields:Regression StatisticsMultiple R0.71R Square0.51Adjusted RSquare0.35Standard Error 4.95Observations9Coefficien ts StandardErrortStatisticfor β =0tStatisticfor βtStatisticfor βIntercept 3.50 2.99 1.17Beta M 5.39 2.18 2.48-1.25Beta PF0.268.360.03-0.04We can see that the results are similar to, but slightly inferior to, those with the actual factor, since the intercept is larger and the slope coefficient smaller. Note also that we use here an in-sample test rather than tests with future returns, which is more forgiving than an out-of-sample test.14. We assume that the value of your labor is incorporated in thecalculation of the rate of return for your business. It wouldlikely make sense to commission a valuation of your business atleast once each year. The resultant sequence of figures forpercentage change in the value of the business (including net cash withdrawals from the business in the calculations) will allow you to derive a reasonable estimate of the correlation between the rate of return for your business and returns for other assets. Youwould then search for industries having the lowest correlationswith your portfolio, and identify exchange traded funds (ETFs) for these industries. Your asset allocation would then be comprised of your business, a market portfolio ETF, and the low-correlation(hedge) industry ETFs. Assess the standard deviation of such aportfolio with reasonable proportions of the portfolio invested in the market and in the hedge industries. Now determine where youwant to be on the resultant CAL. If you wish to hold a less risky overall portfolio and to mix it with the risk-free asset, reducethe portfolio weights for the market and for the hedge industries in an efficient way.CFA PROBLEMS1. (i) Betas are estimated with respect to market indexes that areproxies for the true market portfolio, which is inherentlyunobservable.(ii) Empirical tests of the CAPM show that average returns are not related to beta in the manner predicted by the theory. Theempirical SML is flatter than the theoretical one.(iii) Multi-factor models of security returns show that beta, which is a one-dimensional measure of risk, may not capture the true risk of the stock of portfolio.2. a. The basic procedure in portfolio evaluation is to compare thereturns on a managed portfolio to the return expected on anunmanaged portfolio having the same risk, using the SML. Thatis, expected return is calculated from:E(r P ) = r f + βP [E(r M ) – r f ]where r f is the risk-free rate, E(r M ) is the expected return for the unmanaged portfolio (or the market portfolio), and βP is the beta coefficient (or systematic risk) of the managed portfolio. The performance benchmark then is the unmanaged portfolio. The typical proxy for this unmanaged portfolio is an aggregate stock market index such as the S&P 500.b. The benchmark error might occur when the unmanaged portfolioused in the evaluation process is not “optimized.” That is, market indices, such as the S&P 500, chosen as benchmarks are not on the manager’s ex ante mean/variance efficient frontier.c. Your graph should show an efficient frontier obtained fromactual returns, and a different one that represents (unobserved) ex-ante expectations. The CML and SML generated from actualreturns do not conform to the CAPM predictions, while thehypothesized lines do conform to the CAPM.d. The answer to this question depends on one’s prior beliefs.Given a consistent track record, an agnostic observer mightconclude that the data support the claim of superiority. Otherobservers might start with a strong prior that, since so manymanagers are attempting to beat a passive portfolio, a smallnumber are bound to produce seemingly convincing track records.e. The question is really whether the CAPM is at all testable.The problem is that even a slight inefficiency in the benchmarkportfolio may completely invalidate any test of the expectedreturn-beta relationship. It appears from Roll’s argumentthat the best guide to the question of the validity of the CAPMis the difficulty of beating a passive strategy.3. The effect of an incorrectly specified market proxy is that thebeta of Black’s portfolio is likely to be underestimated (i.e., too low) rel ative to the beta calculated based on the “true”market portfolio. This is because the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) and other market proxies are likely to have lessdiversification and therefore a higher variance of returns than the “true” market p ortfolio as specified by the capital asset pricing model. Consequently, beta computed using an overstated variance will be underestimated. This result is clear from the following formula:2Proxy Mark et Proxy Mark et Portfolio Portfolio )r ,r (Cov σ=βAn incorrectly specified market proxy is likely to produce a slope for the security market line (i.e., the market risk premium) that is underestimated relative to the “true” market portfolio. This results from the fact that the “true” market portfolio is likely to be more efficient (plotting on a higher return point for thesame risk) than the DJIA and similarly misspecified market proxies.Consequently, the proxy-based SML would offer less expected return per unit of risk..。
博迪《投资学》(第9版)课后习题-最优风险资产组合(圣才出品)
第7章最优风险资产组合一、习题1.以下哪些因素反映了单纯市场风险?a.短期利率上升b.公司仓库失火c.保险成本增加d.首席执行官死亡e.劳动力成本上升答:ae。
2.当增加房地产到一个股票、债券和货币的资产组合中,房地产收益的哪些因素影响组合风险?a.标准差b.期望收益c.和其他资产的相关性答:ac。
房地产被添加到组合中后,在投资组合中有四个资产类别:股票、债券、现金和房地产。
现在投资组合的方差包括房地产收益的方差项和房地产收益与其他三个资产类别之间的协方差项。
因此,房地产收益的方差(或标准差)和房地产收益与其他资产类别收益之间的相关性影响着投资组合的风险。
(注意房地产收益和现金收益之间的相关性很有可能为零。
)3.以下关于最小方差组合的陈述哪些是正确的? a .它的方差小于其他证券或组合 b .它的期望收益比无风险利率低 c .它可能是最优风险组合 d .它包含所有证券 答:a 。
4.用以下数据回答习题4~10:一个养老金经理考虑3个共同基金。
第一个是股票基金,第二个是长期政府和公司债基金,第三个是短期国债货币基金,收益率为8%。
风险组合的概率分布如表7-1所示。
表7-1基金的收益率之间的相关系数为0.1。
两种风险基金的最小方差投资组合的投资比例是多少?这种投资组合收益率的期望值与标准差各是多少?答:机会集的参数为:E (r S )=20%,E (r B )=12%,σS =30%,σB =15%,ρ=0.10。
根据标准差和相关系数,可以推出协方差矩阵(注意()ov ,S B S B C r r ρσσ=⨯⨯):债券 股票 债券 225 45 股票45900最小方差组合可由下列公式推出:w Min(S)=()()()222,225459002252452,B S BS B S BCov r rCov r rσσσ−−=+−⨯+−=0.1739w Min(B)=1-0.1739=0.8261最小方差组合的均值和标准差为:E(r Min)=(0.1739×0.20)+(0.8261×0.12)=0.1339=13.39%σMin=()122222w w2w w ov,S S B B S B S BC r rσσ/⎡⎤++⎣⎦=[(0.17392×900)+(0.82612×225)+(2×0.1739×0.8261×45)]1/2=13.92%5.制表并画出这两种风险基金的投资可行集,股票基金的投资比率从0~100%按照20%的幅度增长。
投资学第九版课后答案,博迪投资学第九版课后答案
投资学第九版课后答案,博迪投资学第九版课后答案CHAPTER1:THEINVESTMENTENVIRONMENTPROBLEMSETS1.Ultimately,itistruethatrealassetsdeterminethematerialwellbeingofaneconomy.Nevertheless,inpidualscanbenefitwhenfinancialengineeringcreatesnewproductsthatallowt hemtomanagetheirportfoliosoffinancialassetsmoreefficiently.Becausebundlingandunbundlingcreat esfinancialproductswithnewpropertiesandsensitivitiestovarioussourcesofrisk,itallowsinvestorstohe dgeparticularsourcesofriskmoreefficiently.2.Securitizationrequiresaccesstoalargenumberofpotentialinvestors.Toattracttheseinvestors,thecapitalmarketneeds:1.asafesystemofbusinesslawsandlowprobabilityofconfiscatorytaxation/regulation;2.awell-developedinvestmentbankingindustry;3.awell-developedsystemofbrokerageandfinancialtransactions,and;4.well-developedmedia,particularlyfinancialreporting.Thesecharacteristicsarefoundin(indeedmakefor)awell-developedfinancialmarket.3.Securitizationleadstodisintermediation;thatis,securitizationprovidesameansformarketparticipantstobypassintermediaries.Forexample,mortgage-backedsecuritieschannelfundstothehousingmarketwithoutrequiringthatbanksorthriftinstitutionsmakeloansfromtheirownportfolios. Assecuritizationprogresses,financialintermediariesmustincreaseotheractivitiessuchasprovidingshort-termliquiditytoconsumersandsmallbusiness,andfinancialservices.Financialassetsmakeiteasyforlargefirmstoraisethecapitalneededtofinancetheirinvestmentsinrealasse ts.IfFord,forexample,couldnotissuestocksorbondstothegeneralpublic,itwouldhaveafarmoredifficultt imeraisingcapital.Contractionofthesupplyoffinancialassetswouldmakefinancingmoredifficult,there byincreasingthecostofcapital.Ahighercostofcapitalresultsinlessinvestmentandlowerrealgrowth.4. 1-15.Evenifthefirmdoesnotneedtoissuestockinanyparticularyear,thestockmarketisstillimportanttothefinancialmanager.Thestockpriceprovidesimportantinformationabouthowthemarketvaluesthefirmsinvestmentprojects.Forexample,ifthestockpricerises considerably,managersmightconcludethatthemarketbelievesthefirmsfutureprospectsarebright.Thismightbeausefulsignaltothefirmtoproceedwithaninves tmentsuchasanexpansionofthefirmsbusiness.Inaddition,sharesthatcanbetradedinthesecondarymarke taremoreattractivetoinitialinvestorssincetheyknowthattheywillbeabletoselltheirshares.Thisinturnma kesinvestorsmorewillingtobuysharesinaprimaryoffering,andthusimprovesthetermsonwhichfirmsca nraisemoneyintheequitymarket.6.a.No.Theincreaseinpricedidnotaddtotheproductivecapacityoftheeconomy.b.Yes,thevalueoftheequit yheldintheseassetshasincreased.c.Futurehomeownersasawholeareworseoff,sincemortgageliabilitieshavealsoincreased.Inaddition,thishousingpricebubblewilleventuallyburstandsocietyasawhole(andmostlikelytaxpayers)willendurethedamage.7.a.ThebankloanisafinancialliabilityforLanni.(LannisIOUisthebanksfinancialasset.)ThecashLannirec eivesisafinancialasset.ThenewfinancialassetcreatedisLannispromissorynote(thatis,Lanni’sIOUtothebank).nnitransfersfinancialassets(cash)tothesoftwaredevelopers.Inreturn,Lannigetsarealasset,thecompletedsoftware.Nofinancialassetsarecreatedordestroyed;cashissimplytra nsferredfromonepartytoanother.nnigivestherealasset(thesoftware)toMicrosoftinexchangeforafinancialasset,1,500sharesofMicr osoftstock.IfMicrosoftissuesnewsharesinordertopayLanni,thenthiswouldrepresentthecreationofnew financialassets.nniexchangesonefinancialasset(1,500sharesofstock)foranother($120,000).Lannigivesafinancialasset($50,000cash)tothebankandgetsbackanotherfinancialasset(itsIOU).Theloanisdestroyedinthetransaction,sinceitisretiredwhenpaidoffandnolongerexists.1-28.a.LiabilitiesShareholders’equityCash$70,000Bankloan$50,000computersShareholders’equityTotal$100,000Total$100,000Ratioofrealassetstototalassets=$30,000/$100,000=0.30Assetsb.AssetsSoftwareproduct*computersTotal*ValuedatcostRatioofrealassetstototalassets=$100,000/$100,000=1.0c.AssetsMicrosoftsharescomputersTotalLiabilitiesShareholders’equity$120,000Bankloan$50,000Shareholders’equity$150,000Total$150,000LiabilitiesShareholders’equity$70,000Bankloan$50,000Shareholders’equity$100,000Total$100,000Ratioofrealassetstototalassets=$30,000/$150,000=0.20Conclusion:whenthefirmstartsupandraisesworkingcapital,itischaracterizedbyalowratioofrealassetst ototalassets.Whenitisinfullproduction,ithasahighratioofrealassetstototalassets.Whentheprojectshuts downandthefirmsellsitoffforcash,financialassetsonceagainreplacerealassets.9.Forcommercialbanks,theratiois:$140.1/$11,895.1=0.0118Fornon-financialfirms,theratiois:$12,538/$26,572=0.4719Thedifferenceshouldbeexpectedprimarilybecausethebulkofthebusinessoffinancialinstitutionsistomakeloans;whicharefinancialassetsforfinancialinstitutions.10.a.Primary-markettransactionb.Derivativeassetsc.Investorswhowishtoholdgoldwithoutthecomplicationandcostofphysicalstorage.1-311.a.Afixedsalarymeansthatcompensationis(atleastintheshortrun)independentofthefirmssuccess.Thissalarystructuredoesnottiethemanager’simmediatecompensationtothesuccessofthefirm.However,themanagermightviewthisasthesafestcom pensationstructureandthereforevalueitmorehighly.b.Asalarythatispaidintheformofstockinthefirmmeansthatthemanagerearnsthemostwhenthesharehol ders’wealthismaximized.Fiveyearsofvestinghelpsaligntheinterestsoftheemployeewiththelong-termperformanceofthefirm.Thisstructureisthereforemostlikelytoaligntheinterestsofmanagersandshareholders. Ifstockcompensationisoverdone,however,themanagermightviewitasoverlyriskysincethemanager’scareerisalreadylinkedtothefirm,andthisunpersifiedexposurewouldbeexacerbatedwithalargestockpo sitioninthefirm.c.Aprofit-linkedsalarycreatesgreatincentivesformanagerstocontributetothefirm’ssuccess.However,amanagerwhosesalaryistiedtoshort-termprofitswillberiskseeking,especiallyifthe seshort-termprofitsdeterminesalaryorifthecompensationstructuredoesnotbearthefullcostoftheproject’srisks.Shareholders,incontrast,bearthelossesaswellasthegainsontheproject,andmightbelesswillingtoassumethatrisk.12.Evenifaninpidualshareholdercouldmonitorandimprovemanagers’performance,andtherebyincreasethevalueofthefirm,thepayoffwouldbesmall,sincetheownershipshareinalargecorporationwouldbeverysmall.Forexample,ifyouown$10,000ofFordstocka ndcanincreasethevalueofthefirmby5%,averyambitiousgoal,youbenefitbyonly:0.05×$10,000=$500Incontrast,abankthathasamultimillion-dollarloanoutstandingtothefirmhasabigstakeinmakingsuretha tthefirmcanrepaytheloan.Itisclearlyworthwhileforthebanktospendconsiderableresourcestomonitort hefirm.13.Mutualfundsacceptfundsfromsmallinvestorsandinvest,onbehalfoftheseinvestors,inthenationalandinternationalsecuritiesmarkets.Pensionfundsacceptfundsandtheninvest,onbehalfofcurrentandfutureretirees,therebychannelingfund sfromonesectoroftheeconomytoanother.Venturecapitalfirmspoolthefundsofprivateinvestorsandinvestinstart-upfirms.Banksacceptdepositsfr omcustomersandloanthosefundstobusinesses,orusethefundstobuysecuritiesoflargecorporations.Treasurybillsserveapurposeforinvestorswhopreferalow-riskinvestment.Theloweraveragerateofreturncomparedtostocksisthepriceinvestorspayforpredictabilityofinvestmentperformanceandportfoliovalue.14.1-415.Witha“top-down”investingstyle,youfocusonassetallocationorthebroadcompositionoftheentireportfolio,whichisthemajordeterminantofoverallperformance.Moreover,top-downmanagementisthenaturalwaytoestablishaportfoliowithalevelofriskconsistentwithyourrisktoler ance.Thedisadvantageofanexclusiveemphasisontop-downissuesisthatyoumayforfeitthepotentialhig hreturnsthatcouldresultfromidentifyingandconcentratinginundervaluedsecuritiesorsectorsofthemar ket.Witha“bottom-up”investingstyle,youtrytobenefitfromidentifyingundervaluedsecurities.Thedisadva ntageisthatyoutendtooverlooktheoverallcompositionofyourportfolio,whichmayresultinanon-persifi edportfoliooraportfoliowitharisklevelinconsistentwithyourlevelofrisktolerance.Inaddition,thistechn iquetendstorequiremoreactivemanagement,thusgeneratingmoretransactioncosts.Finally,youranalysi smaybeincorrect,inwhichcaseyouwillhavefruitlesslyexpendedeffortandmoneyattemptingtobeatasimplebuy-and-holdstrategy.Youshouldbeskeptical.Iftheauthoractuallyknowshowtoachievesuchreturns,onemustquestionwhythe authorwouldthenbesoreadytosellthesecrettoothers.Financialmarketsareverycompetitive;oneoftheim plicationsofthisfactisthatrichesdonotcomeeasily.Highexpectedreturnsrequirebearingsomerisk,ando bviousbargainsarefewandfarbetween.Oddsarethattheonlyonegettingrichfromthebookisitsauthor.16.。
博迪投资学第九版InvestmentChap015习题答案
博迪投资学第九版InvestmentChap015习题答案CHAPTER 15: THE TERM STRUCTURE OF INTEREST RATES PROBLEM SETS.1. In general, the forward rate can be viewed as the sum of the market?s expectation ofthe future short rate plus a potential risk (or …liquidity?) premium. According to the expectations theory of the term structure of interest rates, the liquidity premium is zero so that the forward rate is equal to the market?s expectation of the future short rate. Therefore, the market?s expectation of future short rates (i.e., forward rates) can be derived from the yield curve, and there is no risk premium for longermaturities.The liquidity preference theory, on the other hand, specifies that the liquiditypremium is positive so that the forward rate is greater than the market?s expectation of the future short rate. This could result in an upward sloping term structure even if the market does not anticipate an increase in interest rates. The liquidity preference theory is based on the assumption that the financial markets aredominated by short-term investors who demand a premium in order to be induced to invest in long maturity securities.2. True. Under the expectations hypothesis, there are no risk premia built into bondprices. The only reason for long-term yields to exceed short-term yields is anexpectation of higher short-term rates in the future.3. Uncertain. Expectations of lower inflation will usually leadto lower nominalinterest rates. Nevertheless, if the liquidity premium is sufficiently great, long-term yields may exceed short-term yields despite expectations of falling short rates.4. The liquidity theory holds that investors demand a premium to compensate them forinterest rate exposure and the premium increases with maturity. Add this premium to a flat curve and the result is an upward sloping yield curve.5. The pure expectations theory, also referred to as the unbiased expectations theory,purports that forward rates are solely a function of expected future spot rates.Under the pure expectations theory, a yield curve that is upward (downward)sloping, means that short-term rates are expected to rise (fall). A flat yield curveimplies that the market expects short-term rates to remain constant.6. The yield curve slopes upward because short-term rates are lower than long-term rates. Since market rates are determined by supply and demand, it follows thatinvestors (demand side) expect rates to be higher in the future than in the near-term. 7. Maturity Price YTM Forward Rate1 $943.40 6.00%2 $898.47 5.50% (1.0552/1.06) – 1 = 5.0% 3 $847.62 5.67% (1.05673/1.0552) – 1 = 6.0% 4$792.166.00%(1.064/1.05673) – 1 = 7.0%8.The expected price path of the 4-year zero coupon bond is shown below. (Note that we discount the face value by the appropriate sequence of forward rates implied by this year?s yield curve.) Beginning of YearExpected PriceExpected Rate of Return 1 $792.16($839.69/$792.16) – 1 = 6.00% 2 69.839$07.106.105.1000,1$=??($881.68/$839.69) – 1 = 5.00% 3 68.881$07.106.1000,1$=?($934.58/$881.68) – 1 = 6.00%458.934$07.1000,1$= ($1,000.00/$934.58) – 1 = 7.00% 9.If expectations theory holds, then the forward rate equals the short rate, and the one year interest rate three years from now would be43(1.07)1.08518.51%(1.065)-==10. a.A 3-year zero coupon bond with face value $100 will sell today at a yield of 6% and a price of:$100/1.063 =$83.96Next year, the bond will have a two-year maturity, and therefore a yield of 6% (from next year?s forecasted yield curve). The price will be $89.00, resulting in a holding period return of 6%.b. The forward rates based on today?s yield curve are as follows: Year Forward Rate2 (1.052/1.04) – 1 = 6.01% 3(1.063/1.052) – 1 = 8.03%Using the forward rates, the forecast for the yield curve next year is: Maturity YTM 1 6.01% 2 (1.0601 × 1.0803)1/2 – 1 = 7.02% The market forecast is for a higher YTM on 2–year bonds than your forecast. Thus, the market predicts a lower price and higher rate of return.11. a. 86.101$08.1109$07.19$P 2=+=b.The yield to maturity is the solution for y in the following equation:86.101$)y 1(109$y 19$2=+++ [Using a financial calculator, enter n = 2; FV = 100; PMT = 9; PV = –101.86; Compute i] YTM = 7.958%c.The forward rate for next year, derived from the zero-coupon yield curve, is the solution for f 2 in the following equation: 0901.107.1)08.1(f 122==+ ? f 2 = 0.0901 = 9.01%.Therefore, using an expected rate for next year of r 2 = 9.01%,we find that the forecast bond price is:99.99$0901.1109$P ==d.If the liquidity premium is 1% then the forecast interest rate is:E(r 2) = f 2 – liquidity premium = 9.01% – 1.00% = 8.01% The forecast of the bond price is:92.100$0801.1109$=12. a.The current bond price is:($85 × 0.94340) + ($85 × 0.87352) + ($1,085 × 0.81637) = $1,040.20 This price implies a yield to maturity of 6.97%, as shown by the following: [$85 × Annuity factor (6.97%, 3)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (6.97%, 3)] = $1,040.17b.If one year from now y = 8%, then the bond price will be:[$85 × Annuity factor (8%, 2)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (8%, 2)] = $1,008.92 The holding period rate of return is:[$85 + ($1,008.92 – $1,040.20)]/$1,040.20 = 0.0516 = 5.16%13. Year Forward Rate PV of $1 received at period end 1 5% $1/1.05 = $0.95242 7% $1/(1.05?1.07) = $0.890138%$1/(1.05?1.07?1.08) = $0.8241a. Price = ($60 × 0.9524) + ($60 × 0.8901) + ($1,060 × 0.8241)= $984.14b.To find the yield to maturity, solve for y in the following equation: $984.10 = [$60 × Annuity factor (y, 3)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (y, 3)] This can be solved using a financial calculator to show that y = 6.60%c.Period Payment received at end of period:Will grow by a factor of: To a future value of: 1 $60.00 1.07 ?1.08 $69.34 2 $60.00 1.08 $64.80 3 $1,060.00 1.00 $1,060.00$1,194.14$984.10 ? (1 + y realized )3 = $1,194.141 + y realized = 0666.110.984$14.194,1$3/1=?y realized = 6.66%d.Next year, the price of the bond will be:[$60 × Annuity factor (7%, 2)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (7%, 2)] = $981.92 Therefore, there will be a capital loss equal to: $984.10 – $981.92 = $2.18 The holding period return is:%88.50588.010.984$)18.2$(60$==-+14. a.The return on the one-year zero-coupon bond will be 6.1%. The price of the 4-year zero today is:$1,000/1.0644 = $780.25Next year, i f the yield curve is unchanged, today?s 4-yearzero coupon bond will have a 3-year maturity, a YTM of 6.3%, and therefore the price will be:$1,000/1.0633 = $832.53The resulting one-year rate of return will be: 6.70%Therefore, in this case, the longer-term bond is expected to provide the higher return because its YTM is expected to decline during the holding period. b.If you believe in the expectations hypothesis, you would not expect that the yield curve next year will be the same as today?s curve. The u pward slope in today's curve would be evidence that expected short rates are rising and that the yield curve will shift upward, reducing the holding period return on the four-year bond. Under the expectations hypothesis, all bonds have equal expected holding period returns. Therefore, you would predict that the HPR for the 4-year bond would be 6.1%, the same as for the 1-year bond.15. The price of the coupon bond, based on its yield to maturity, is:[$120 × Annuity factor (5.8%, 2)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (5.8%, 2)] = $1,113.99 If the coupons were stripped and sold separately as zeros, then, based on the yield to maturity of zeros with maturities of one and two years, respectively, the coupon payments could be sold separately for:08.111,1$06.1120,1$05.1120$2=+ The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $120 and $1,120, and respective maturities of one year and two years, and simultaneously sell the coupon bond. The profit equals $2.91 on each bond.16. a.The one-year zero-coupon bond has a yield to maturity of 6%, as shown below:1y 1100$34.94$+=y 1 = 0.06000 = 6.000% The yield on the two-year zero is 8.472%, as shown below:22)y 1(100$99.84$+=y 2 = 0.08472 = 8.472% The price of the coupon bond is:51.106$)08472.1(112$06.112$2=+Therefore: yield to maturity for the coupon bond = 8.333% [On a financial calculator, enter: n = 2; PV = –106.51; FV = 100; PMT = 12]b. %00.111100.0106.1)08472.1(1y 1)y 1(f 21222==-=-++=c.Expected price 90.100$11.1112$==(Note that next year, the coupon bond will have one payment left.) Expected holding period return =%00.60600.051.106$)51.106$90.100($12$==-+This holding period return is the same as the return on the one-year zero.d.If there is a liquidity premium, then: E(r 2) < f 2 E(Price) =90.100$)r (E 1112$2>+E(HPR) > 6%17. a.We obtain forward rates from the following table: Maturity YTM Forward Rate Price (for parts c, d) 1 year 10%$1,000/1.10 = $909.09 2 years 11% (1.112/1.10) – 1 = 12.01% $1,000/1.112 = $811.62 3 years 12% (1.123/1.112) – 1 = 14.03% $1,000/1.123 = $711.78b.We obtain next year?s prices and yields by discounting each zero?s face value at the forward rates for next year that we derived in part (a): Maturity PriceYTM1 year $1,000/1.1201 = $892.78 12.01%2 years$1,000/(1.1201 × 1.1403) = $782.9313.02%Note that this year?s upward sloping yield curve implies, according t o the expectations hypothesis, a shift upward in next year?s curve.c.Next year, the 2-year zero will be a 1-year zero, and will therefore sell at a price of: $1,000/1.1201 = $892.78Similarly, the current 3-year zero will be a 2-year zero and will sell for: $782.93 Expected total rate of return:2-year bond: %00.1011000.1162.811$78.892$=-=-3-year bond:%00.1011000.1178.711$93.782$=-=-d.The current price of the bond should equal the value of each payment times the present value of $1 to be received at the “maturity” of th at payment. The present value schedule can be taken directly from the prices of zero-coupon bonds calculated above.Current price = ($120 × 0.90909) + ($120 × 0.81162) + ($1,120 × 0.71178)= $109.0908 + $97.3944 + $797.1936 = $1,003.68Similarly, the expected prices of zeros one year from now can be used to calculate the expected bond value at that time: Expected price 1 year from now = ($120 × 0.89278) + ($1,120 × 0.78293)= $107.1336 + $876.8816 = $984.02Total expected rate of return =%00.101000.068.003,1$)68.003,1$02.984($120$==-+18. a.Maturity (years) Price YTM Forward rate 1 $925.93 8.00% 2 $853.39 8.25% 8.50% 3 $782.92 8.50% 9.00% 4 $715.00 8.75%$650.009.00%10.00%b.For each 3-year zero issued today, use the proceeds to buy:$782.92/$715.00 = 1.095 four-year zerosYour cash flows are thus as follows:Time Cash Flow0 $ 03 -$1,000 The 3-year zero issued at time 0 matures;the issuer pays out $1,000 face value4 +$1,095 The 4-year zeros purchased at time 0 mature;receive face valueThis is a synthetic one-year loan originating at time 3. The rate on thesynthetic loan is 0.095 = 9.5%, precisely the forward rate for year 4.c. For each 4-year zero issued today, use the proceeds to buy:$715.00/$650.00 = 1.100 five-year zerosYour cash flows are thus as follows:Time Cash Flow0 $ 04 -$1,000 The 4-year zero issued at time 0 matures;the issuer pays out $1,000 face value5 +$1,100 The 5-year zeros purchased at time 0 mature;receive face valueThis is a synthetic one-year loan originating at time 4. The rate on thesynthetic loan is 0.100 = 10.0%, precisely the forward rate for19. a. For each three-year zero you buy today, issue:$782.92/$650.00 = 1.2045 five-year zerosThe time-0 cash flow equals zero.b. Your cash flows are thus as follows:Time Cash Flow0 $ 03 +$1,000.00 The 3-year zero purchased at time 0 matures;receive $1,000 face value5 -$1,204.50 The 5-year zeros issued at time 0 mature;issuer pays face valueThis is a synthetic two-year loan originating at time 3.c.The effective two-year interest rate on the forward loan is:$1,204.50/$1,000 1 = 0.2045 = 20.45%d.The one-year forward rates for years 4 and 5 are 9.5% and 10%, respectively. Notice that:1.095 × 1.10 = 1.2045 =1 + (two-year forward rate on the 3-year ahead forward loan)The 5-year YTM is 9.0%. The 3-year YTM is 8.5%. Therefore, another way to derive the 2-year forward rate for a loan starting at time 3 is:%46.202046.01085.109.11)y 1()y 1()2(f 3533553==-=-++= [Note: slight discrepancies here from rounding errors in YTM calculations]CFA PROBLEMS1. Expectations hypothesis: The yields on long-term bonds are geometric averages ofpresent and expected future short rates. An upward sloping curve is explained by expected future short rates being higher than the current short rate. A downward-sloping yield curve implies expected future short rates are lower than the current short rate. Thus bonds of different maturities have different yields if expectations of future short rates are different from the current short rate.Liquidity preference hypothesis: Yields on long-term bonds are greater than the expected return from rolling-over short-term bonds in order to compensate investors in long-term bonds for bearing interest rate risk. Thus bonds of different maturities can have different yields even if expected future short rates are all equal to the current short rate. An upward sloping yield curve can be consistent even with expectations of falling short rates if liquidity premiums are high enough. If,however, the yield curve is downward sloping and liquidity premiums are assumed to be positive, then we can conclude that future short rates are expected to be lower than the current short rate. 2. d. 3.a.(1+y 4 )4 = (1+ y 3 )3 (1 + f 4 ) (1.055)4 = (1.05)3 (1 + f 4 )1.2388 = 1.1576 (1 + f 4 ) ? f 4 = 0.0701 = 7.01%b.The conditions would be those that underlie the expectations theory of the term structure: risk neutral market participants who are willing to substitute among maturities solely on the basis of yield differentials. This behavior would rule out liquidity or term premia relating to risk.c.Under the expectations hypothesis, lower implied forwardrates wouldindicate lower expected future spot rates for the corresponding period. Since the lower expected future rates embodied in the term structure are nominal rates, either lower expected future real rates or lower expected future inflation rates would be consistent with the specified change in the observed (implied) forward rate.4.The given rates are annual rates, but each period is a half-year. Therefore, the per period spot rates are 2.5% on one-year bonds and 2% on six-month bonds. The semiannual forward rate is obtained by solving for f in the following equation: 030.102.1025.1f 12==+This means that the forward rate is 0.030 = 3.0% semiannually, or 6.0% annually. 5.The present value of each bond?s payments can be derived by discounting each cash flow by the appropriate rate from the spot interest rate (i.e., the pure yield) curve:Bond A: 53.98$11.1110$08.110$05.110$PV 32=++= Bond B:36.88$11.1106$08.16$05.16$PV 32=++=Bond A sells for $0.13 (i.e., 0.13% of par value) less than the present value of itsstripped payments. Bond B sells for $0.02 less than thepresent value of its stripped payments. Bond A is more attractively priced. 6. a.Based on the pure expectations theory, VanHusen?s conclusion is incorrect. According to this theory, the expected return over any time horizon would be the same, regardless of the maturity strategy employed.b. According to the liquidity preference theory, the shape of the yield curveimplies that short-term interest rates are expected to rise in the future. Thistheory asserts that forward rates reflect expectations about future interest ratesplus a liquidity premium that increases with maturity. Given the shape of theyield curve and the liquidity premium data provided, the yield curve would stillbe positively sloped (at least through maturity of eight years) after subtractingthe respective liquidity premiums:2.90% – 0.55% = 2.35%3.50% – 0.55% = 2.95%3.80% – 0.65% = 3.15%4.00% – 0.75% = 3.25%4.15% – 0.90% = 3.25%4.30% – 1.10% = 3.20%4.45% – 1.20% = 3.25%4.60% – 1.50% = 3.10%4.70% – 1.60% = 3.10%7. The coupon bonds can be viewed as portfolios of stripped zeros: each coupon canstand alone as an independent zero-coupon bond. Therefore, yields on couponbonds reflect yields on payments with dates corresponding to each coupon. When the yield curve is upward sloping, coupon bonds have lower yields than zeroswith the same maturity because the yields to maturity on coupon bonds reflect the yields on the earlier interim coupon payments.8. The following table shows the expected short-term interest rate based on theprojections of Federal Reserve rate cuts, the term premium (which increases at arate of 0.10% per 12 months), the forward rate (which is the sum of the expectedrate and term premium), and the YTM, which is the geometric average of theforward rates.Time Expectedshort rateTermpremiumForwardrate (annual)Forward rate(semi-annual)YTM(semi-annual)0 5.00% 0.00% 5.00% 2.500% 2.500% 6 months 4.50 0.05 4.55 2.275 2.387 12 months 4.00 0.10 4.10 2.050 2.275 18 months 4.00 0.15 4.15 2.075 2.225 24 months 4.00 0.20 4.20 2.100 2.200 30months 5.00 0.25 5.25 2.625 2.271 36 months 5.00 0.30 5.30 2.650 2.334 This analysis is predicated on the liquidity preference theory of the term structure, which asserts that the forward rate in any period is the sum of the expected short rate plus the liquidity premium.9. a. Five-year Spot Rate:5544332211)y 1(070,1$)y 1(70$)y 1(70$)y 1(70$)y 1(70$000,1$+++++++++=55432)y 1(070,1$)0716.1(70$)0605.1(70$)0521.1(70$)05.1(70$000,1$+++++=55)y 1(070,1$08.53$69.58$24.63$67.66$000,1$+++++=55)y 1(070,1$32.758$+=32.758$070,1$)y 1(55=+?%13.71411.1y 55=-=Five-year Forward Rate:%01.710701.11)0716.1()0713.1(45=-=-b.The yield to maturity is the single discount rate that equates the present value of a series of cash flows to a current price. It is the internal rate of return. The short rate for a given interval is the interest rate for that interval available at different points in time.The spot rate for a given period is the yield to maturity on a zero-coupon bond that matures at the end of the period. A spot rate is the discount rate for each period. Spot rates are used to discount each cash flow of a coupon bond in order to calculate a current price. Spot rates are the rates appropriate for discounting future cash flows of different maturities.A forward rate is the implicit rate that links any two spot rates. Forward rates are directly related to spot rates, and therefore to yield to maturity. Some would argue (as in the expectations hypothesis) that forward rates are the market expectations of future interest rates. A forward rate represents a break-even rate that links two spot rates. It is important to note that forward rates link spot rates, not yields to maturity.Yield to maturity is not unique for any particular maturity. In other words, two bonds with the same maturity but different coupon rates may havedifferent yields to maturity. In contrast, spot rates and forward rates for each date are unique.c.The 4-year spot rate is 7.16%. Therefore, 7.16% is the theoretical yield to maturity for the zero-coupon U.S. Treasury note. The price of the zero-coupon note discounted at 7.16% is the present value of $1,000 to be received in 4 years. Using annual compounding:35.758$)0716.1(000,1$PV 4==10. a.The two-year implied annually compounded forward rate for a deferred loan beginning in 3 years is calculated as follows:%07.60607.0111.109.11)y 1()y 1()2(f 2/1352/133553==-?=-?++=b.Assuming a par value of $1,000, the bond price is calculated as follows:10.987$)09.1(090,1$)10.1(90$)11.1(90$)12.1(90$)13.1(90$)y 1(090,1$)y 1(90$)y 1(90$)y 1(90$)y 1(90$P 543215544332211=++++=+++++++++=。
博迪《投资学》(第9版)课后习题-指数模型(圣才出品)
第8章指数模型一、习题1.获得有效分散化组合,指数模型相对于马科维茨模型的优缺点?答:相比马科维茨模型,指数模型的优点是大量地减少了所需的估计数。
此外,马科维茨模型所需要的大量的估计数,这可能会导致在实施过程时出现大量的估计错误。
指数模型的缺点来自模型的收益残差不相关的假设。
如果使用的指数忽略了一个重要的风险因素,那么这种假设便是不正确的。
2.管理组合时从单纯跟踪指数到积极管理转变的优缺点是什么?答:从单纯跟踪指数到积极管理组合的转变是基于减少额外管理费用的确定性和有优异表现的可能性的权衡。
3.公司特定风险达到什么样的程度会影响积极型投资者持有指数组合的意愿?答:由w o和w*的计算公式可得出:在其他条件不变的情况下,包含在资产组合中候选资产的剩余方差越大,w 0越小。
此外,忽略β,当w 0减小时,w*也减小。
因此,其他条件不变,资产的剩余方差越大,它在最优风险资产组合中的头寸就越小。
换句话说,企业特定风险的增加降低了一个积极的投资者愿意放弃持有指数组合的程度。
4.我们为什么称α为非市场收益溢价?为何对于积极投资经理高α值的股票更有吸引力?其他参数不变,组合成分股的α值上升,组合的夏普比率如何变化?答:总风险溢价等于:α+(β×市场风险溢价)。
α被称为“非市场”收益溢价,因为它是收益溢价中独立于市场表现的一部分。
夏普比率表明,具有较高α的证券更吸引人。
α是夏普比率的分子,是一个固定的数,不会受到夏普比率的分母即收益的标准差影响。
因此在α增加时,夏普比率同比增长。
由于投资组合的α是证券α的组合加权平均,则在其他所有参数不变的前提下,一种证券的α值增加将会导致资产组合的夏普比率同比增加。
5.一个投资组合管理组织分析了60只股票并用这60只股票构造了均值—方差有效组合:a .要构造最优组合,需要估计多少期望收益率、方差、协方差?b .如果可以合理假设股票市场的收益结构与单指数模型非常相似,则估计量为多少? 答:a .要构造最优投资组合,需要: n =60个均值估计值; n =60个方差估计值;2/2n n −()=1770个协方差估计值。
博迪投资学答案chap009-7thed
博迪投资学答案chap009-7thed9-2CHAPTER 9: THE CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODEL1. c.2. d. From CAPM, the fair expected return = 8 + 1.25(15 - 8) = 16.75%Actually expected return = 17%α = 17 - 16.75 = 0.25%3. Since the stock’s beta is equal to 1.2, its expected rate of return is:6 + [1.2 ⨯ (16 – 6)] = 18%011P P P D )r (E -+= 53$P 5050P 618.011=⇒+=-4. The series of $1,000 payments is a perpetuity. If beta is 0.5, the cash flowshould be discounted at the rate:6 + [0.5 ⨯ (16 – 6)] = 11%PV = $1,000/0.11 = $9,090.91If, however, beta is equal to 1, then the investment should yield 16%, and the price paid for the firm should be:PV = $1,000/0.16 = $6,250The difference, $2,840.91, is the amount you will overpay if you erroneouslyassume that beta is 0.5 rather than 1.5. Using the SML: 4 = 6 + β(16 – 6) ⇒ β = –2/10 = –0.26. a.7.E(r P ) = r f + β P [E(r M ) – r f ]18 = 6 + β P (14 – 6) ⇒ β P = 12/8 = 1.59-38.a. False. β = 0 implies E(r) = r f , not zero.b. False. Investors require a risk premium only for bearing systematic(undiversifiable or market) risk. Total volatility includes diversifiablerisk.c. False. Your portfolio should be invested 75% in the market portfolioand 25% in T-bills. Then:βP = (0.75 ⨯ 1) + (0.25 ⨯ 0) = 0.759. Not possible. Portfolio A has a higher beta than Portfolio B, but the expectedreturn for Portfolio A is lower than the expected return for Portfolio B. Thus, these two portfolios cannot exist in equilibrium.10. Possible. If the CAPM is valid, the expected rate of return compensates onlyfor systematic (market) risk, represented by beta, rather than for the standard deviation, which includes nonsystematic risk. Thus, Portfolio A’s lower rate of return can be paired with a higher standard deviation, as long as A’s bet a is less than B’s.11. Not possible. The reward-to-variability ratio for Portfolio A is better than thatof the market. This scenario is impossible according to the CAPM because the CAPM predicts that the market is the most efficient portfolio. Using the numbers supplied:5.0121016S A =-= 33.0241018S M =-= Portfolio A provides a better risk-reward tradeoff than the market portfolio.12. Not possible. Portfolio A clearly dominates the market portfolio. Portfolio Ahas both a lower standard deviation and a higher expected return.13. Not possible. The SML for this scenario is: E(r) = 10 + β(18 – 10)Portfolios with beta equal to 1.5 have an expected return equal to:E(r) = 10 + [1.5 ⨯ (18 – 10)] = 22%The expected return for Portfolio A is 16%; that is, Portfolio A plots belowthe SML ( A = –6%), and hence, is an overpriced portfolio. This is inconsistent with the CAPM.9-414. Not possible. The SML is the same as in Problem 13. Here, Portfolio A’srequired return is: 10 + (0.9 ⨯8) = 17.2%This is greater than 16%. Portfolio A is overpriced with a negative alpha:α A = –1.2%15. Possible. The CML is the same as in Problem 11. Portfolio A plots below theCML, as any asset is expected to. This scenario is not inconsistent with theCAPM.16. If the security’s correlation coefficient with the market portfolio doubles (withall other variables such as variances unchanged), then beta, and therefore the risk premium, will also double. The current risk premium is: 14 – 6 = 8%The new risk premium would be 16%, and the new discount rate for thesecurity would be: 16 + 6 = 22%If the stock pays a constant perpetual dividend, then we know from the original data that the dividend (D) must satisfy the equation for the present value of a perpetuity:Price = Dividend/Discount rate50 = D/0.14 ⇒ D = 50 ⨯ 0.14 = $7.00At the new discount rate of 22%, the stock would be worth: $7/0.22 = $31.82 The increase in stock risk has lowered its value by 36.36%.17. d.18. a. Since the market portfolio, by definition, has a beta of 1, its expected rateof return is 12%.b.β = 0 means no systematic risk. Hence, the stock’s expected rate of return inmarket equilibrium is the risk-free rate, 5%.ing the SML, the fair expected rate of return for a stock with β = –0.5 is:E(r) = 5 + [(–0.5)(12 – 5)] = 1.5%The actually expected rate of return, using the expected price and dividendfor next year is:E(r) = [($41 + $1)/40] – 1 = 0.10 = 10%Because the actually expected return exceeds the fair return, the stock isunderpriced.9-519. a. E(r P) = r f + β P [E(r M ) – r f ] = 5% + 0.8 (15% − 5%) = 13%α = 14% - 13% = 1%You should invest in this fund because alpha is positive.b. The passive portfolio with the same beta as the fund should be invested80% in the market-index portfolio and 20% in the money market account.For this portfolio:E(r P) = (0.8 × 15%) + (0.2 × 5%) = 13%14% − 13% = 1% = α20. d. [You need to know the risk-free rate]21. d. [You need to know the risk-free rate]22. a.Expected Return AlphaStock X 5% + 0.8(14% - 5%) =12.2% 14.0% - 12.2% = 1.8%Stock Y 5% + 1.5(14% - 5%) =18.5%17.0% - 18.5% = -1.5%b.i. Kay should recommend Stock X because of its positive alpha, compared toStock Y, which has a negative alpha. In graphical terms, the expectedreturn/risk profile for Stock X plots above the security market line (SML), while the profile for Stock Y plots below the SML. Also, depending onthe individual risk preferences of Kay’s clients, the lower beta for Stock X may have a beneficial effect on overall portfolio risk.ii. Kay should recommend Stock Y because it has higher forecasted return and lower standard deviation than Stock X. The respective Sharpe ratios for Stocks X and Y and the market index are:Stock X: (14% - 5%)/36% = 0.25Stock Y: (17% - 5%)/25% = 0.48Market index: (14% - 5%)/15% = 0.60The market index has an even more attractive Sharpe ratio than either of the individual stocks, but, given the choice between Stock X and Stock Y, Stock Y is the superior alternative.When a stock is held as a single stock portfolio, standard deviation is therelevant risk measure. For such a portfolio, beta as a risk measure isirrelevant. Although holding a single asset is not a typically recommended investment strategy, some investors may hold what is essentially asingle-asset portfolio when they hold the stock of their employer company.For such investors, the relevance of standard deviation versus beta is an9-6important issue.9-79-823. The appropriate discount rate for the project is:r f + β[E(r M ) – r f ] = 8 + [1.8 ⨯ (16 – 8)] = 22.4% Using this discount rate:∑=+-=101t t 1.224150400NPV = −400 pesos + [150 pesos × Annuity factor (22.4%, 10 years) = 180.92 pesos The internal rate of return (IRR) for the project is 35.73%. Recall from your introductory finance class that NPV is positive if IRR > discount rate (or,equivalently, hurdle rate). The highest value that beta can take before the hurdle rate exceeds the IRR is determined by:35.73 = 8 + β(16 – 8) ⇒ β = 27.73/8 = 3.4724. a. McKay should borrow funds and invest those funds proportionately inMurray’s existing portfolio (i.e., buy more risky assets on margin). Inaddition to increased expected return, the alternative portfolio on thecapital market line will also have increased risk, which is caused by thehigher proportion of risky assets in the total portfolio.b. McKay should substitute low beta stocks for high beta stocks in order toreduce the overall beta of York’s portfolio. By reducing the overallportfolio beta, McKay will reduce the systematic risk of the portfolio, andtherefore reduce its volatility relative to the market. The security marketline (SML) suggests such action (i.e., moving down the SML), even thoughreducing beta may result in a slight loss of portfolio efficiency unless fulldiversification is maintained. York’s primary objective, however, is notto maintain efficiency, but to reduce risk exposure; reducing portfolio betameets that objective. Because York does not want to engage in borrowingor lending, McKay cannot reduce risk by selling equities and using theproceeds to buy risk-free assets (i.e., lending part of the portfolio). 25. d.26. r 1 = 19%; r 2 = 16%; β1 = 1.5; β2 = 1a. To determine which investor was a better selector of individual stocks welook at abnormal return, which is the ex-post alpha; that is, the abnormalreturn is the difference between the actual return and that predicted bythe SML. Without information about the parameters of this equation(risk-free rate and market rate of return) we cannot determine whichinvestor was more accurate.9-9b. If r f = 6% and r M = 14%, then (using the notation alpha for the abnormalreturn):α 1 = 19 – [6 + 1.5(14 – 6)] = 19 – 18 = 1%α 2 = 16 – [6 + 1(14 – 6)] =16 – 14 = 2%Here, the second investor has the larger abnormal return and thusappears to be the superior stock selector. By making better predictions,the second investor appears to have tilted his portfolio towardunderpriced stocks.c. If r f = 3% and r M = 15%, then:α 1 =19 – [3 + 1.5(15 – 3)] = 19 – 21 = –2%α 2 = 16 – [3+ 1(15 – 3)] = 16 – 15 = 1%Here, not only does the second investor appear to be the superior stockselector, but the first investor’s predictions appear valueless (or worse).27. In the zero-beta CAPM the zero-beta portfolio replaces the risk-free rate, andthus:E(r) = 8 + 0.6(17 – 8) = 13.4%28. a. Call the aggressive stock A and the defensive stock D. Beta is thesensitivity of the stock’s return to the market return, i.e., the change in thestock return per unit change in the market return. Therefore, wecompute each stock’s beta by calculating the difference in its return across the two scenarios divided by the difference in the market return:00.2255382A =---=β 30.0255126D =--=βb. With the two scenarios equally likely, the expected return is an average ofthe two possible outcomes:E(r A ) = 0.5 ⨯ (–2 + 38) = 18%E(r D ) = 0.5 ⨯ (6 + 12) = 9%c. The SML is determined by the market expected return of [0.5(25 + 5)] =15%, with a beta of 1, and the T-bill return of 6% with a beta of zero. Seethe following graph.The equation for the security market line is:E(r) = 6 + β(15 – 6)d.Based on its risk, the aggressive stock has a required expected return of:E(r A ) = 6 + 2.0(15 – 6) = 24%The analyst’s forecast of expected return is only 18%. Thus the stock’s alpha is:α A = actually expected return – required return (given risk)= 18% – 24% = –6%Similarly, the required return for the defensive stock is:E(r D) = 6 + 0.3(15 – 6) = 8.7%The analyst’s forecast of expected return for D is 9%, and hence, the stock has a positive alpha:α D = actually expected return – required return (given risk)= 9 – 8.7 = +0.3%The points for each stock plot on the graph as indicated above.e. The hurd le rate is determined by the project beta (0.3), not the firm’s beta.The correct discount rate is 8.7%, the fair rate of return for stock D.9-1029. a. Agree; Regan’s conclusion is correct. By definition, the market portfolio lieson the capital market line (CML). Under the assumptions of capital markettheory, all portfolios on the CML dominate, in a risk-return sense, portfoliosthat lie on the Markowitz efficient frontier because, given that leverage isallowed, the CML creates a portfolio possibility line that is higher than allpoints on the efficient frontier except for the market portfolio, which isRainbow’s portfolio. Because Eagle’s portfolio lies on the Markowitzefficient frontier at a point other than the market portfolio, Rainbow’sportfoli o dominates Eagle’s portfolio.b. Unsystematic risk is the unique risk of individual stocks in a portfolio that isdiversified away by holding a well-diversified portfolio. Total risk iscomposed of systematic (market) risk and unsystematic (firm-specific) risk.Disagree; Wilson’s remark is incorrect. Because both portfolios lie on theMarkowitz efficient frontier, neither Eagle nor Rainbow has any unsystematicrisk. Therefore, unsystematic risk does not explain the different expectedreturns. The determining factor is that Rainbow lies on the (straight) line(the CML) connecting the risk-free asset and the market portfolio (Rainbow),at the point of tangency to the Markowitz efficient frontier having the highestreturn per unit of risk. Wilson’s remar k is also countered by the fact that,since unsystematic risk can be eliminated by diversification, the expectedreturn for bearing unsystematic is zero. This is a result of the fact thatwell-diversified investors bid up the price of every asset to the point whereonly systematic risk earns a positive return (unsystematic risk earns noreturn).30. E(r) = r f+ β × [E(r M) − r f]Fuhrman Labs: E(r) = 5 + 1.5 × [11.5 − 5.0] = 14.75%Garten Testing: E(r) = 5 + 0.8 × [11.5 − 5.0] = 10.20%If the forecast rate of return is less than (greater than) the required rate ofreturn, then the security is overvalued (undervalued).Fuhrman Labs: Forecast return –Required return = 13.25% − 14.75% =−1.50%Garten Testing: Forecast return –Required return = 11.25% − 10.20% =1.05%Therefore, Fuhrman Labs is overvalued and Garten Testing is undervalued.31. Under the CAPM, the only risk that investors are compensated for bearing isthe risk that cannot be diversified away (systematic risk). Because systematicrisk (measured by beta) is equal to 1.0 for both portfolios, an investor wouldexpect the same rate of return from both portfolios A and B. Moreover, sinceboth portfolios are well diversified, it doesn’t matter if the specific risk of the individual securities is high or low. The firm-specific risk has been diversified away for both portfolios.。
博迪投资学答案chap010-7thed
10-1CHAPTER 10: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORY AND MULTIFACTOR MODELS OF RISK AND RETURN1 a. )e (22M 22σ+σβ=σ88125)208.0(2222A =+⨯=σ 50010)200.1(2222B =+⨯=σ97620)202.1(2222C =+⨯=σb. If there are an infinite number of assets with identical characteristics, then awell-diversified portfolio of each type will have only systematic risk since the non-systematic risk will approach zero with large n. The mean will equal that of the individual (identical) stocks.c.There is no arbitrage opportunity because the well-diversified portfolios allplot on the security market line (SML). Because they are fairly priced, there is no arbitrage.2. The expected return for Portfolio F equals the risk-free rate since its beta equals 0.For Portfolio A, the ratio of risk premium to beta is: (12 - 6)/1.2 = 5For Portfolio E, the ratio is lower at: (8 – 6)/0.6 = 3.33This implies that an arbitrage opportunity exists. For instance, you can create a Portfolio G with beta equal to 0.6 (the same as E’s) by combining Portfolio A and Portfolio F in equal weights. The expected return and beta for Portfolio G are then:E(r G ) = (0.5 ⨯ 12%) + (0.5 ⨯ 6%) = 9%βG = (0.5 ⨯ 1.2) + (0.5 ⨯ 0) = 0.6Comparing Portfolio G to Portfolio E, G has the same beta and higher return. Therefore, an arbitrage opportunity exists by buying Portfolio G and selling an equal amount of Portfolio E. The profit for this arbitrage will be:r G – r E =[9% + (0.6 ⨯ F)] - [8% + (0.6 ⨯ F)] = 1%That is, 1% of the funds (long or short) in each portfolio.3. Substituting the portfolio returns and betas in the expected return-beta relationship,we obtain two equations with two unknowns, the risk-free rate (r f ) and the factorrisk premium (RP):12 = r f + (1.2 ⨯ RP)9 = r f + (0.8 ⨯ RP)Solving these equations, we obtain:r f = 3% and RP = 7.5%4. Equation 10.9 applies here:E(r p ) = r f + βP1 [E(r1 ) - r f ] + βP2 [E(r2 ) – r f ]We need to find the risk premium (RP) for each of the two factors:RP1 = [E(r1 ) - r f ] and RP2 = [E(r2 ) - r f ]In order to do so, we solve the following system of two equations with two unknowns:31 = 6 + (1.5 ⨯ RP1 ) + (2.0 ⨯ RP2 )27 = 6 + (2.2 ⨯ RP1 ) + [(–0.2) ⨯ RP2 ]The solution to this set of equations is:RP1 = 10% and RP2 = 5%Thus, the expected return-beta relationship is:E(r P ) = 6% + (βP1⨯ 10%) + (βP2⨯ 5%)5. a. A long position in a portfolio (P) comprised of Portfolios A and B will offeran expected return-beta tradeoff lying on a straight line between points A andB. Therefore, we can choose weights such that βP = βC but with expectedreturn higher than that of Portfolio C. Hence, combining P with a shortposition in C will create an arbitrage portfolio with zero investment, zero beta,and positive rate of return.b. The argument in part (a) leads to the proposition that the coefficient of β2must be zero in order to preclude arbitrage opportunities.6. The revised estimate of the expected rate of return on the stock would be the oldestimate plus the sum of the products of the unexpected change in each factor times the respective sensitivity coefficient:revised estimate = 12% + [(1 ⨯ 2%) + (0.5 ⨯ 3%)] = 15.5%10-27. a. Shorting an equally-weighted portfolio of the ten negative-alpha stocks andinvesting the proceeds in an equally-weighted portfolio of the ten positive-alpha stocks eliminates the market exposure and creates a zero-investmentportfolio. Denoting the systematic market factor as R M , the expected dollarreturn is (noting that the expectation of non-systematic risk, e, is zero):$1,000,000 ⨯ [0.02 + (1.0 ⨯ R M )] - $1,000,000 ⨯ [(–0.02) + (1.0 ⨯ R M )]= $1,000,000 ⨯ 0.04 = $40,000The sensitivity of the payoff of this portfolio to the market factor is zerobecause the exposures of the positive alpha and negative alpha stocks cancelout. (Notice that the terms involving R M sum to zero.) Thus, the systematiccomponent of tota l risk is also zero. The variance of the analyst’s profit is notzero, however, since this portfolio is not well diversified.For n = 20 stocks (i.e., long 10 stocks and short 10 stocks) the investor willhave a $100,000 position (either long or short) in each stock. Net marketexposure is zero, but firm-specific risk has not been fully diversified. Thevariance of dollar returns from the positions in the 20 stocks is:20 ⨯ [(100,000 ⨯ 0.30)2 ] = 18,000,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $134,164.b. If n = 50 stocks (25 stocks long and 25 stocks short), the investor will have a$40,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is:50 ⨯ [(40,000 ⨯ 0.30)2 ] = 7,200,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $84,853.Similarly, if n = 100 stocks (50 stocks long and 50 stocks short), the investorwill have a $20,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is: 100 ⨯ [(20,000 ⨯ 0.30)2 ] = 3,600,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $60,000.Notice that, when the number of stocks increases by a factor of 5 (i.e., from 20to 100), standard deviation decreases by a factor of 5= 2.23607 (from$134,164 to $60,000).8. a. This statement is incorrect. The CAPM requires a mean-variance efficientmarket portfolio, but APT does not.b.This statement is incorrect. The CAPM assumes normally distributed securityreturns, but APT does not.c. This statement is correct.10-39. b. Since Portfolio X has β = 1.0, then X is the market portfolio and E(R M) =16%.Using E(R M ) = 16% and r f = 8%, the expected return for portfolio Y is notconsistent.10. a. E(r) = 6 + (1.2 ⨯ 6) + (0.5 ⨯ 8) + (0.3 ⨯ 3) = 18.1%b.Surprises in the macroeconomic factors will result in surprises in the return ofthe stock:Unexpected return from macro factors =[1.2(4 – 5)] + [0.5(6 – 3)] + [0.3(0 – 2)] = –0.3%E(r) =18.1% − 0.3% = 17.8%11. d.12. The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty, i.e., sources ofuncertainty that are of concern to many investors. Researchers should investigatefactors that correlate with uncertainty in consumption and investment opportunities.GDP, the inflation rate, and interest rates are among the factors that can be expected to determine risk premiums. In particular, industrial production (IP) is a goodindicator of changes in the business cycle. Thus, IP is a candidate for a factor that is highly correlated with uncertainties that have to do with investment andconsumption opportunities in the economy.13. The first two factors seem promising with respect to the likely impact on the firm’scost of capital. Both are macro factors that would elicit hedging demands acrossbroad sectors of investors. The third factor, while important to Pork Products, is apoor choice for a multifactor SML because the price of hogs is of minor importance to most investors and is therefore highly unlikely to be a priced risk factor. Betterchoices would focus on variables that investors in aggregate might find moreimportant to their welfare. Examples include: inflation uncertainty, short-terminterest-rate risk, energy price risk, or exchange rate risk. The important point here is that, in specifying a multifactor SML, we not confuse risk factors that are important toa particular investor with factors that are important to investors in general; only thelatter are likely to command a risk premium in the capital markets.14. c. Investors will take on as large a position as possible only if the mispricingopportunity is an arbitrage. Otherwise, considerations of risk anddiversification will limit the position they attempt to take in the mispricedsecurity.10-415. d.16. d.17. The APT required (i.e., equilibrium) rate of return on the stock based on r f and thefactor betas is:required E(r) = 6 + (1 ⨯ 6) + (0.5 ⨯ 2) + (0.75 ⨯ 4) = 16%According to the equation for the return on the stock, the actually expected return on the stock is 15% (because the expected surprises on all factors are zero bydefinition). Because the actually expected return based on risk is less than theequilibrium return, we conclude that the stock is overpriced.18. Any pattern of returns can be “explained” if we are free to choose an indefinitelylarge number of explanatory factors. If a theory of asset pricing is to have value, it must explain returns using a reasonably limited number of explanatory variables(i.e., systematic factors).19. d.20. c.10-5。
【2024版】《投资学》博迪第九版课件Chap010
(F could be positive or negative but has expected value of zero) ei = Firm specific events (zero expected value)
• Rests on mean-variance efficiency. The actions of many small investors restore CAPM equilibrium.
• CAPM describes equilibrium for all assets.
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
Rate ei = Firm specific events
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
10-6
Multifactor SML Models
E ri rf iGDPRPGDP iIR RPIR
i GDP = Factor sensitivity for GDP
INVESTMENTS | BODIE, KANE, MARCUS
10-5
Multifactor Model Equation
ri E ri iGDPGDP iIRIR ei
ri = Return for security i βGDP = Factor sensitivity for GDP βIR = Factor sensitivity for Interest
10-17
Multifactor APT
• Use of more than a single systematic factor
博迪《投资学》(第9版)课后习题-风险与收益入门及历史回顾(圣才出品)
博迪《投资学》(第9版)课后习题-风险与收益⼊门及历史回顾(圣才出品)第5章风险与收益⼊门及历史回顾⼀、习题1.费雪⽅程式说明实际利率约等于名义利率与通货膨胀率的差。
假设通货膨胀率从3%涨到5%,是否意味着实际利率的下降呢?答:费雪⽅程式是指名义利率等于均衡时的实际利率加上预期通货膨胀率。
因此,如果通货膨胀率从3%涨到5%,实际利率不变,名义利率将上升2%。
另外,与预期通货膨胀率的上升相伴的可能还有实际利率的上升。
如果名义利率不变⽽通货膨胀率上升,则意味着实际利率下降。
2.假设有⼀组数据集使你可以计算美国股票的历史收益率,并可追溯到1880年。
那么这些数据对于预测未来⼀年的股票收益率有哪些优缺点?答:如果假设股票历史收益率的分布保持稳定,则样本周期越长(即样本越⼤),预期收益率越精确。
这是因为当样本容量增⼤时标准差下降了。
然⽽,如果假设收益率分布的均值随时间⽽变化且⽆法⼈为地控制,那么预期收益率必须基于更近的历史周期来估计。
在⼀系列数据中,需要决定回溯到多久以前来选取样本。
本题如果选⽤从1880年到现在的所有数据可能不太精确。
3.你有两个2年期投资可以选择:①投资于有正风险溢价的风险资产,这两年的收益分布不变且不相关,②投资该风险资产⼀年,第⼆年投资⽆风脸资产。
以下陈述哪些是正确的?a.第⼀种投资2年的风险溢价和第⼆种投资相同b .两种投资两年收益的标准差相同c .第⼀种投资年化标准差更低d .第⼀种投资的夏普⽐率更⾼e .对风险厌恶的投资者来说第⼀种投资更有吸引⼒答:c 项和e 项正确。
解释如下:c 项:令σ=风险投资的标准差(年),1σ=第⼀种投资2年中的标准差(年),可得σσ?=21。
因此,第⼀种投资的年化标准差为:σσσ<=221。
e 项:第⼀种投资更吸引风险厌恶程度低的投资者。
第⼀种投资(将会导致⼀系列的两个同分布但不相关的风险投资)⽐第⼆种投资(风险投资后跟着⼀个⽆风险投资)风险更⼤。
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C H A P T E R1:T H E I N V E S T M E N T E N V I R O N M E N TPROBLEM SETS1.Ultimately, it is true that real assets determine the materialwell being of an economy. Nevertheless, individuals canbenefit when financial engineering creates new products thatallow them to manage their portfolios of financial assetsmore efficiently. Because bundling and unbundling createsfinancial products with new properties and sensitivities tovarious sources of risk, it allows investors to hedgeparticular sources of risk more efficiently.2.Securitization requires access to a large number of potentialinvestors. To attract these investors, the capital marketneeds:1. a safe system of business laws and low probability ofconfiscatory taxation/regulation;2. a well-developed investment banking industry;3. a well-developed system of brokerage and financialtransactions, and;4.well-developed media, particularly financial reporting.These characteristics are found in (indeed make for) a well-developed financial market.3.Securitization leads to disintermediation; that is,securitization provides a means for market participants tobypass intermediaries. For example, mortgage-backedsecurities channel funds to the housing market withoutrequiring that banks or thrift institutions make loans fromtheir own portfolios. As securitization progresses,financial intermediaries must increase other activities suchas providing short-term liquidity to consumers and smallbusiness, and financial services.4.Financial assets make it easy for large firms to raise thecapital needed to finance their investments in real assets.If Ford, for example, could not issue stocks or bonds to thegeneral public, it would have a far more difficult timeraising capital. Contraction of the supply of financialassets would make financing more difficult, therebyincreasing the cost of capital. A higher cost of capitalresults in less investment and lower real growth.5.Even if the firm does not need to issue stock in any particularyear, the stock market is still important to the financialmanager. The stock price provides important informationabout how the market values the firm's investment projects.For example, if the stock price rises considerably, managers might conclude that the market believes the firm's futureprospects are bright. This might be a useful signal to thefirm to proceed with an investment such as an expansion ofthe firm's business.In addition, shares that can be traded in the secondarymarket are more attractive to initial investors since theyknow that they will be able to sell their shares. This inturn makes investors more willing to buy shares in a primary offering, and thus improves the terms on which firms canraise money in the equity market.6. a. No. The increase in price did not add to the productivecapacity of the economy.b.Yes, the value of the equity held in these assets hasincreased.c.Future homeowners as a whole are worse off, since mortgageliabilities have also increased. In addition, this housingprice bubble will eventually burst and society as a whole(and most likely taxpayers) will endure the damage.7. a. The bank loan is a financial liability for Lanni. (Lanni'sIOU is the bank's financial asset.) The cash Lanni receives is a financial asset. The new financial asset created isLa nni's promissory note (that is, Lanni’s IOU to the bank).nni transfers financial assets (cash) to the softwaredevelopers. In return, Lanni gets a real asset, thecompleted software. No financial assets are created ordestroyed; cash is simply transferred from one party toanother.nni gives the real asset (the software) to Microsoft inexchange for a financial asset, 1,500 shares of Microsoftstock. If Microsoft issues new shares in order to payLanni, then this would represent the creation of newfinancial assets.nni exchanges one financial asset (1,500 shares of stock)for another ($120,000). Lanni gives a financial asset($50,000 cash) to the bank and gets back another financialasset (its IOU). The loan is "destroyed" in thetransaction, since it is retired when paid off and nolonger exists.8. a.Assets Shareholders’ equityLiabilities &Cash $ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity 50,000Total $100,000 Total $100,000 Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$100,000 =0.30b.Assets Shareholders’ equityLiabilities & Software product* $ 70,000 Bankloan $ 50,000 Computers 30,000 Shareholders’equity 50,000Total $100,000 Total $100,000 *Valued at costRatio of real assets to total assets = $100,000/$100,000 =1.0c.Assets Shareholders’ equity Liabilities &Microsoft shares $120,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers30,000 Shareholders’ equity 100,000Total $150,000 Total $150,000Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$150,000 =0.20Conclusion: when the firm starts up and raises working capital, it is characterized by a low ratio of real assets to totalassets. When it is in full production, it has a high ratio ofreal assets to total assets. When the project "shuts down"and the firm sells it off for cash, financial assets onceagain replace real assets.9.For commercial banks, the ratio is: $140.1/$11,895.1 = 0.0118For non-financial firms, the ratio is: $12,538/$26,572 =0.4719 The difference should be expected primarily becausethe bulk of the business of financial institutions is to makeloans; which are financial assets for financial institutions.10.a. Primary-market transactionb.Derivative assetsc.Investors who wish to hold gold without the complicationand cost of physical storage.11.a. A fixed salary means that compensation is (at least in theshort run) independent of the firm's success. This salarystructure does not tie the manager’s immediate compensationto the success of the firm. However, the manager might viewthis as the safest compensation structure and therefore valueit more highly.b.A salary that is paid in the form of stock in the firmmeans that the manager earns the most when theshareholders’ wealth is maxi mized. Five years of vestinghelps align the interests of the employee with the long-term performance of the firm. This structure is thereforemost likely to align the interests of managers andshareholders. If stock compensation is overdone, however,the manager might view it as overly risky since themanager’s career is already linked to the firm, and thisundiversified exposure would be exacerbated with a largestock position in the firm.c.A profit-linked salary creates great incentives formanagers to contribute to the firm’s success. However, amanager whose salary is tied to short-term profits will berisk seeking, especially if these short-term profitsdetermine salary or if the compensation structure does notbear the full cost of the project’s ri sks. Shareholders,in contrast, bear the losses as well as the gains on theproject, and might be less willing to assume that risk. 12.Even if an individual shareholder could monitor and improvemanagers’ performance, and thereby increase the value of thefirm, the payoff would be small, since the ownership share ina large corporation would be very small. For example, if youown $10,000 of Ford stock and can increase the value of thefirm by 5%, a very ambitious goal, you benefit by only: 0.05× $10,000 = $500In contrast, a bank that has a multimillion-dollar loanoutstanding to the firm has a big stake in making sure that the firm can repay the loan. It is clearly worthwhile for the bank to spend considerable resources to monitor the firm.13.Mutual funds accept funds from small investors and invest, onbehalf of these investors, in the national and internationalsecurities markets.Pension funds accept funds and then invest, on behalf ofcurrent and future retirees, thereby channeling funds fromone sector of the economy to another.Venture capital firms pool the funds of private investors andinvest in start-up firms. Banks accept deposits fromcustomers and loan those funds to businesses, or use thefunds to buy securities of large corporations.14.Treasury bills serve a purpose for investors who prefer a low-risk investment. The lower average rate of return comparedto stocks is the price investors pay for predictability ofinvestment performance and portfolio value.15.With a “top-down” investing style, you focus on assetallocation or the broad composition of the entire portfolio,which is the major determinant of overall performance.Moreover, top-down management is the natural way to establisha portfolio with a level of risk consistent with your risktolerance. The disadvantage of an exclusive emphasis on top-down issues is that you may forfeit the potential highreturns that could result from identifying and concentratingin undervalued securities or sectors of the market.With a “bottom-up” invest ing style, you try to benefit fromidentifying undervalued securities. The disadvantage is thatyou tend to overlook the overall composition of your portfolio, which may result in a non-diversified portfolio or a portfolio with a risk level inconsistent with your level of risktolerance. In addition, this technique tends to require moreactive management, thus generating more transaction costs.Finally, your analysis may be incorrect, in which case you will have fruitlessly expended effort and money attempting to beat a simple buy-and-hold strategy.16.You should be skeptical. If the author actually knows how toachieve such returns, one must question why the author wouldthen be so ready to sell the secret to others. Financialmarkets are very competitive; one of the implications of thisfact is that riches do not come easily. High expectedreturns require bearing some risk, and obvious bargains arefew and far between. Odds are that the only one getting richfrom the book is its author.17.Financial assets provide for a means to acquire real assets aswell as an expansion of these real assets. Financial assetsprovide a measure of liquidity to real assets and allow forinvestors to more effectively reduce risk throughdiversification.18.Allowing traders to share in the profits increases thetraders’ willingness to assume risk. Traders will share inthe upside potential directly but only in the downsideindirectly (poor performance = potential job loss).Shareholders, by contrast, are affected directly by both theupside and downside potential of risk.19.Answers may vary, however, students should touch on thefollowing: increased transparency, regulations to promotecapital adequacy by increasing the frequency of gain or losssettlement, incentives to discourage excessive risk taking,and the promotion of more accurate and unbiased riskassessment.CHAPTER 2: ASSET CLASSES AND FINANCIALINSTRUMENTSPROBLEM SETS1.Preferred stock is like long-term debt in that it typicallypromises a fixed payment each year. In this way, it is aperpetuity. Preferred stock is also like long-term debtin that it does not give the holder voting rights in thefirm.Preferred stock is like equity in that the firm is under no contractual obligation to make the preferred stock dividend payments. Failure to make payments does not set offcorporate bankruptcy. With respect to the priority ofclaims to the assets of the firm in the event of corporatebankruptcy, preferred stock has a higher priority thancommon equity but a lower priority than bonds.2.Money market securities are called “cash equivalents”because of their great liquidity. The prices of moneymarket securities are very stable, and they can beconverted to cash (i.e., sold) on very short notice andwith very low transaction costs.3.(a) A repurchase agreement is an agreement whereby theseller of a security agrees to “repurchase” it from thebuyer on an agreed upon date at an agreed upon price.Repos are typically used by securities dealers as a meansfor obtaining funds to purchase securities.4.The spread will widen. Deterioration of the economyincreases credit risk, that is, the likelihood of default.Investors will demand a greater premium on debt securitiessubject to default risk.5.marginal tax rates, a high-income investor would be moreinclined to pick tax-exempt securities.7. a. You would have to pay the asked price of:86:14 = 86.43750% of par = $864.375b.The coupon rate is 3.5% implying coupon payments of$35.00 annually or, more precisely, $17.50semiannually.c.Current yield = Annual coupon income/price= $35.00/$864.375 = 0.0405 = 4.05%8.P = $10,000/1.02 = $9,803.929.The total before-tax income is $4. After the 70% exclusionfor preferred stock dividends, the taxable income is: 0.30 ×$4 = $1.20Therefore, taxes are: 0.30 × $1.20 = $0.36After-tax income is: $4.00 – $0.36 = $3.64Rate of return is: $3.64/$40.00 = 9.10%10.a. You could buy: $5,000/$67.32 = 74.27 sharesb.Your annual dividend income would be: 74.27 × $1.52 =$112.89c.The price-to-earnings ratio is 11 and the price is$67.32. Therefore:$67.32/Earnings per share = 11 ⇒ Earnings per share =$6.12d.General Dynamics closed today at $67.32, which was $0.47higher tha n yesterday’s price. Yesterday’s closingprice was: $66.8511.a. At t = 0, the value of the index is: (90 + 50 + 100)/3 = 80At t = 1, the value of the index is: (95 + 45 + 110)/3= 83.333The rate of return is: (83.333/80) − 1 = 4.17%b.In the absence of a split, Stock C would sell for 110,so the value of the index would be: 250/3 = 83.333After the split, Stock C sells for 55. Therefore, weneed to find the divisor (d) such that: 83.333 = (95+ 45 + 55)/d ⇒ d = 2.340c.The return is zero. The index remains unchanged becausethe return for each stock separately equals zero.12.a. Total market value at t = 0 is: ($9,000 + $10,000 + $20,000)= $39,000Total market value at t = 1 is: ($9,500 + $9,000 + $22,000) = $40,500Rate of return = ($40,500/$39,000) – 1 = 3.85%b.The return on each stock is as follows:r A = (95/90) – 1 =0.0556 r B = (45/50)– 1 = –0.10 r C =(110/100) – 1 =0.10The equally-weighted average is:[0.0556 + (-0.10) + 0.10]/3 = 0.0185 = 1.85%13.The after-tax yield on the corporate bonds is: 0.09 × (1 –0.30) = 0.0630 = 6.30% Therefore, municipals must offer atleast 6.30% yields.14.Equation (2.2) shows that the equivalent taxable yield is: r =r m /(1 – t)a. 4.00%b. 4.44%c. 5.00%d. 5.71%15.In an equally-weighted index fund, each stock is given equalweight regardless of its market capitalization. Smaller capstocks will have the same weight as larger cap stocks. Thechallenges are as follows:•Given equal weights placed to smaller cap andlarger cap, equalweighted indices (EWI) will tendto be more volatile than their market-capitalization counterparts;•It follows that EWIs are not good reflectors ofthe broad market which they represent; EWIsunderplay the economic importance of largercompanies;•Turnover rates will tend to be higher, as an EWImust be rebalanced back to its original target.By design, many of the transactions would beamong the smaller, less-liquid stocks.16.a. The higher coupon bond.b.The call with the lower exercise price.c.The put on the lower priced stock.17.a. You bought the contract when the futures price was $3.835(see Figure2.10). The contract closes at a price of $3.875, whichis $0.04 more than the original futures price. Thecontract multiplier is 5000. Therefore, the gain willbe: $0.04 × 5000 = $200.00b.Open interest is 177,561 contracts.18.a. Since the stock price exceeds the exercise price, youexercise the call.The payoff on the option will be: $21.75 − $21 = $0.75The cost was originally $0.64, so the profit is: $0.75− $0.64 = $0.11b.If the call has an exercise price of $22, you would notexercise for any stock price of $22 or less. The losson the call would be the initial cost: $0.30c.Since the stock price is less than the exercise price,you will exercise the put.The payoff on the option will be: $22 − $21.75 = $0.25The option originally cost $1.63 so the profit is:$0.25 − $1.63 = −$1.3819.There is always a possibility that the option will be in-the-money at some time prior to expiration. Investors will paysomething for this possibility of a positive payoff.20.Value of call at expiration Initial Cost Profita.0 4 -4b.0 4 -4c.0 4 -4d.5 4 1e.10 4 6Value of put at expiration Initial Cost Profita.10 6 4b.5 6 -1c.0 6 -6d.0 6 -6e.0 6 -621.A put option conveys the right to sell the underlying assetat the exercise price. A short position in a futurescontract carries an obligation to sell the underlyingasset at the futures price.22.A call option conveys the right to buy the underlying assetat the exercise price. A long position in a futurescontract carries an obligation to buy the underlying assetat the futures price.CFA PROBLEMS1.(d)2.The equivalent taxable yield is: 6.75%/(1 − 0.34) = 10.23%3.(a) Writing a call entails unlimited potential losses as thestock price rises.4. a. The taxable bond. With a zero tax bracket, the after-taxyield for the taxable bond is the same as the before-taxyield (5%), which is greater than the yield on the municipalbond.b. The taxable bond. The after-tax yield for thetaxable bond is:0.05 × (1 – 0.10) = 4.5%c. You are indifferent. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:0.05 × (1 – 0.20) = 4.0%The after-tax yield is the same as that of themunicipal bond.d. The municipal bond offers the higher after-tax yieldfor investors in tax brackets above 20%.5.If the after-tax yields are equal, then: 0.056 = 0.08 × (1 – t)This implies that t = 0.30 =30%.CHAPTER 3: HOW SECURITIES ARE TRADEDPROBLEM SETS1.Answers to this problem will vary.2.The dealer sets the bid and asked price. Spreads should behigher on inactively traded stocks and lower on actively traded stocks.3. a. In principle, potential losses are unbounded, growingdirectly with increases in the price of IBM.b.If the stop-buy order can be filled at $128, the maximumpossible loss per share is $8, or $800 total. If theprice of IBM shares goes above $128, then the stop-buyorder would be executed, limiting the losses from theshort sale.4.(a) A market order is an order to execute the tradeimmediately at the best possible price. The emphasis in amarket order is the speed of execution (the reduction ofexecution uncertainty). The disadvantage of a market order is that the price it will be executed at is not known ahead oftime; it thus has price uncertainty.5.(a) The advantage of an Electronic Crossing Network (ECN) isthat it can execute large block orders without affecting thepublic quote. Since this security is illiquid, large blockorders are less likely to occur and thus it would not likelytrade through an ECN.Electronic Limit-Order Markets (ELOM) transact securitieswith high trading volume. This illiquid security isunlikely to be traded on an ELOM.6. a. The stock is purchased for: 300 × $40 = $12,000The amount borrowed is $4,000. Therefore, the investor putup equity, or margin, of $8,000.b.If the share price falls to $30, then the value of the stockfalls to $9,000. By the end of the year, the amount ofthe loan owed to the broker grows to: $4,000 × 1.08 =$4,320Therefore, the remaining margin in the investor’saccount is: $9,000 − $4,320 = $4,680The percentage margin is now: $4,680/$9,000 = 0.52 =52% Therefore, the investor will not receive amargin call.c.The rate of return on the investment over the year is:(Ending equity in the account − Initial equity)/Initialequity= ($4,680 − $8,000)/$8,000 = −0.415 = −41.5%7. a. The initial margin was: 0.50 × 1,000 × $40 = $20,000As a result of the increase in the stock price Old EconomyTraders loses:$10 × 1,000 = $10,000Therefore, margin decreases by $10,000. Moreover, OldEconomy Traders must pay the dividend of $2 per shareto the lender of the shares, so that the margin in theaccount decreases by an additional $2,000. Therefore,the remaining margin is:$20,000 – $10,000 – $2,000 = $8,000b.The percentage margin is: $8,000/$50,000 = 0.16 = 16% Sothere will be a margin call.c.The equity in the account decreased from $20,000 to $8,000in one year, for a rate of return of: (−$12,000/$20,000) =−0.60 = −60%8. a. The buy order will be filled at the best limit-sell orderprice: $50.25b.The next market buy order will be filled at the next-bestlimit-sell order price: $51.50c.You would want to increase your inventory. There isconsiderable buying demand at prices just below $50,indicating that downside risk is limited. In contrast,limit sell orders are sparse, indicating that a moderatebuy order could result in a substantial price increase. 9. a. You buy 200 shares of Telecom for $10,000. These sharesincrease in value by10%, or $1,000. You pay interest of: 0.08 × $5,000 = $400The rate of return will be: $1,000 −$400 = 0.12 12%=$5,000b.The value of the 200 shares is 200P. Equity is (200P –$5,000). You will receive a margin call when:= 0.30 ⇒ when P = $35.71 or lower10.a. Initial margin is 50% of $5,000 or $2,500.b.Total assets are $7,500 ($5,000 from the sale of the stockand $2,500 put up for margin). Liabilities are 100P.Therefore, equity is ($7,500 – 100P). A margin call willbe issued when:$7,500 −100P= 0.30 ⇒ when P = $57.69 or higher100P11.The total cost of the purchase is: $40 × 500 = $20,000You borrow $5,000 from your broker, and invest $15,000 ofyour own funds. Your margin account starts out with equityof $15,000.a. (i) Equity increases to: ($44 × 500) – $5,000= $17,000 Percentage gain = $2,000/$15,000 =0.1333 = 13.33% (ii) With price unchanged,equity is unchanged.Percentage gain = zero(iii) Equity falls to ($36 × 500) – $5,000 = $13,000Percentage gain = (–$2,000/$15,000) = –0.1333 = –13.33%The relationship between the percentage return and the percentage change in the price of the stock is given by:% return = % change in price ×Total investment= %change in price × 1.333Investor's initial equityFor example, when the stock price rises from $40 to $44, thepercentage change in price is 10%, while the percentage gainfor the investor is:% return = 10% ×$20,000= 13.33%$15,000b.The value of the 500 shares is 500P. Equity is (500P –$5,000). You will receive a margin call when:= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $13.33 or lowerc.The value of the 500 shares is 500P. But now you haveborrowed $10,000 instead of $5,000. Therefore, equity is (500P – $10,000). You will receive a margin call when:= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $26.67 or lower With less equity in the account, you are far morevulnerable to a margin call.d.By the end of the year, the amount of the loan owed to thebroker grows to:$5,000 × 1.08 = $5,400The equity in your account is (500P – $5,400). Initial equity was $15,000. Therefore, your rate of return after one year is as follows:(i) = 0.1067 = 10.67%(ii) = –0.0267 = –2.67%(iii) = –0.1600 = –16.00%The relationship between the percentage return and thepercentage change in the price of Intel is given by:% return = % change in price× Investor'Total investments initial equity−8%×Investor'Fundss borrowedinitial equityFor example, when the stock price rises from $40 to $44,the percentage change in price is 10%, while the percentagegain for the investor is:10%× $20,000−8%× $5,000 =10.67%$15,000$15,000e.The value of the 500 shares is 500P. Equity is (500P –$5,400). You will receive a margin call when:= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $14.40 or lower12.a. The gain or loss on the short position is: (–500 ×ΔP)Invested funds = $15,000Therefore: rate of return = (–500 ×ΔP)/15,000 T he rate of return ineach of the three scenarios is:(i)rate of return = (–500 × $4)/$15,000 = –0.1333 = –13.33%(ii)rate of return = (–500 × $0)/$15,000 = 0%(iii)rate of return = [–500 × (–$4)]/$15,000 = +0.1333 = +13.33%b.Total assets in the margin account equal:$20,000 (from the sale of the stock) + $15,000 (the initialmargin) = $35,000 Liabilities are 500P. You will receive amargin call when:$35,000 −500P= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $56 or higher500Pc.With a $1 dividend, the short position must now pay on theborrowed shares: ($1/share × 500 shares) = $500. Rate ofreturn is now:[(–500 ×ΔP) – 500]/15,000(i)rate of return = [(–500 × $4) – $500]/$15,000 = –0.1667 = –16.67%(ii)rate of return = [(–500 × $0) – $500]/$15,000 = –0.0333 = –3.33%(iii)rate of return = [(–500) × (–$4) – $500]/$15,000 = +0.1000 = +10.00% Total assets are $35,000, andliabilities are (500P + 500). A margin call will beissued when:= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $55.20 or higher 13.The broker is instructed to attempt to sell your Marriott stockas soon as the Marriott stock trades at a bid price of $20 or less. Here, the broker will attempt to execute, but may not be able to sell at $20, since the bid price is now $19.95. Theprice at which you sell may be more or less than $20 becausethe stop-loss becomes a market order to sell at current market prices.14.a. $55.50b.$55.25c.The trade will not be executed because the bid price islower than the price specified in the limit sell order.d.The trade will not be executed because the asked price isgreater than the price specified in the limit buy order. 15.a. In an exchange market, there can be price improvement in thetwo market orders. Brokers for each of the market orders (i.e., the buy order and the sell order) can agree to execute a trade inside the quoted spread. For example, they can trade at$55.37, thus improving the price for both customers by $0.12 or $0.13 relative to the quoted bid and asked prices. The buyergets the stock for $0.13 less than the quoted asked price, and the seller receives $0.12 more for the stock than the quotedbid price.b.Whereas the limit order to buy at $55.37 would not beexecuted in a dealer market (since the asked price is$55.50), it could be executed in an exchange market. Abroker for another customer with an order to sell atmarket would view the limit buy order as the best bidprice; the two brokers could agree to the trade and bringit to the specialist, who would then execute the trade. 16.a. You will not receive a margin call. You borrowed $20,000and with another $20,000 of your own equity you bought 1,000shares of Disney at $40 per share. At $35 per share, themarket value of the stock is $35,000, your equity is $15,000,and the percentage margin is: $15,000/$35,000 = 42.9% Yourpercentage margin exceeds the required maintenance margin.b.You will receive a margin call when:= 0.35 ⇒ when P = $30.77 or lower17.The proceeds from the short sale (net of commission) were: ($21× 100) – $50 = $2,050 A dividend payment of $200 was withdrawn from the account.Covering the short sale at $15 per share costs (withcommission): $1,500 + $50 = $1,550Therefore, the value of your account is equal to the net profit on the transaction: $2,050 – $200 – $1,550 = $300。