最新全国卷高考英语试题及答案-全国卷1
2024年全国统一高考英语试卷(新课标Ⅰ卷)含答案
2024年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新课标Ⅰ卷）英语（适用省份：福建、湖南、湖北、河北、广东、山东、江苏、江西、河南、安徽）第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt？A. £19. 15.B. £9. 18.C. £9. 15.答案是C。
1. What is Kate doing？A. Boarding a flight.B. Arranging a trip.C. Seeing a friend off.2. What are the speakers talking about？A. A pop star.B. An old song.C. A radio program.3. What will the speakers do today？A. Go to an art show.B. Meet the man's aunt.C. Eat out with Mark.4. What does the man want to do？A. Cancel an order.B. Ask for a receipt.C. Reschedule a delivery.5. When will the next train to Bedford leave？A. At 9：45.B. At 10：15.C. At 11：00.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。
每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
2023新高考全国1卷英语试题及答案
2023新高考全国1卷英语试题及答案2023最新年新高考全国1卷英语试题及答案第一部分阅读理解(共两节，总分 50分)第一节(共15小题;每题2.5分，总分 37.5分)阅读以下短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最正确选项。
AGrading Policies for Introduction to LiteratureGrading Scale90—100, A; 80 —90, B; 70 —79, C; 60 —69, D; Below 60, E.Essays (60%)Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work / InClass Writings and Tests / Group Work / Homework (10%)Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short inclass writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is important to take carefulnotes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will losea letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in the the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.21. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.22. How may parts is a student’s final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goesto waste. The arugula (芝麻菜) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jawdropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away —from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vege tables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats waste the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, R oyte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their last days.Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious, y et so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat,” Curtin says.24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.26. What does Curtin’s company do?A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.27. What does Curtin suggest people do?A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely. The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduc e loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.Among those taking part in the project is 80yearold Ruth Xavier. She said, “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.” There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said, “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said, “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”28. What is the purpose of the project?A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide parttime jobs for he aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A groundbreaking, fiveyear study shows that dietrelated changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages in society that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damian Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned(对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds. The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large. Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many huntergatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all humanspeech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran,a member of the research team.32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damian Blasi’s research focus on?A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and lose their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.其次节(共5小题;每题2.5分，总分 12.5分)阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最正确选项。
2022年全国统一高考英语卷(新高考Ⅰ卷)含答案解析
绝密★启用前2022年全国统一高考英语试卷（新高考Ⅰ）副标题学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________ 注意事项:1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第I 卷（选择题）一、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，共37.5分）AGrading Policies for Introduction to Literature Grading Scale 90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E. Essays (60%）Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%. Group Assignments （30%）Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework （10%）Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previousclass' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.1. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.2. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.3. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us,I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste.The arugula（芝麻菜）was to make a nice green salad,rounding out a roast chicken dinner.But I ended up working late.Then friends called with a dinner invitation.I stuck the chicken in the freezer.But as days passed,the arugula went bad.Even worse,I had unthinkingly bought way too much；I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry,"food waste goes against the moral grain,"as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story.It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away - from "ugly"（but quite eatable）vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water,fuel,and other resources used to grow it.That makes food waste an environmental problem.In fact,Royte writes,"if food waste were a country,it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If that's hard to understand,let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator.Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time - but for him,it's more like 12 boxesof donated strawberries nearing their last days.Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen inWashington.D.C.，which recovers food and turns it into healthy st year it recovered more than 807，500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished（有瑕疵的）produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields.And the strawberries？Volunteers will wash,cut,and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious,yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste,whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat." Curtin says.4. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story？______A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.5. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text？______A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.6. What does Curtin's company do？______A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.7. What does Curtin suggest people do？______A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents（居民）in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity（慈善组织）to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing.It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia,a serious illness of the mind.Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier.She said："I used to keephens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went toschool.""I like the project a lot.I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed.""It's good to have a different focus.People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them.I'm enjoying the creative activities,and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East,and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson,extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street,one of the first to embark on the project, said："Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions.We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis,director of Notting Hill Pathways,said："We are happy to be taking part in the project.It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."8. What is the purpose of the project？______A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.9. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier______A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.10. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7？______A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.11. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs？______A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2，000 different sounds,from the common "m" and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages.But why are certain sounds more common than others？A ground-breaking,five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.More than 30 years ago,the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals,such as "f" and "v"，were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods.Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University ofZurich,Switzerland,has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned（对齐），making it hard to produce labiodentals,which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper ter,our jaws changed to an overbite structure（结构），making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period.Food became easier to chew at this point.The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age,with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years.These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300，000 years ago."The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings,but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran,a member of the research team.12. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on？______A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.13. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals______A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.14. What is paragraph 5 mainly about？______A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.15. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds？______A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.二、阅读七选五（本大题共5小题，共12.5分）Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled "Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner." One reason was: "You'll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym," while another read: " (1) " With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.So, how do you find a workout partner?First of all, decide what you want from that person. (2) Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won't result in a useful response. (3) If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. (4)You and your partner will probably have different skills. (5) Over time, both of you will benefit—your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit.The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.A.Your first meeting may be a little awkward.B.A workout partner usually needs to live close by.C.You'll work harder if you train with someone else.D.Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?E.How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?F.Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.G.Any notice for a training partner should include such information.16. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G17. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G18. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G19. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G20. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G三、完形填空（本大题共15小题，共15.0分）My husband,our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.Some of our(21) are funny,especially from the early years when our children werelittle.Once,we(22) along Chalk Creek.I was(23) that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek（小溪）.I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot.That lasted about ten minutes.He was(24)，and his crying let the whole campground know it.So(25) tying him up,I just kept a close eye on him.It(26) - he didn't end up in the creek.Mythree-year-old,however,did.Another time,we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake.The sky was clear when we(27)，but storms move in fast in the mountains,and this one quickly(28) our peaceful morning trip.The(29) picked up and thunder rolled.My husband stopped fishing to(30) the motor.Nothing.He tried again.No(31).We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor.As we all sat there(32)，a fisherman pulled up,threw us a rope and towed（拖）us back.We were(33).Now,every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage,we are filled with a sense of(34)，wondering what camping fun and(35)we will experience next.21. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries22. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled23. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried24. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid25. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for26. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed27. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off28. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded29. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed30. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix31. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal32. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly33. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right34. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement35. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict第II卷（非选择题）四、语法填空（本大题共1小题，共15.0分）36. The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant PandaNational Park (GPNP). (1) (cover) an area about three times (2) size of Yellowstone National Part, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that (3) (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under oneauthority (4) (increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. TheGPNP (5) (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protectingecological buffer zones, (6) leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity betweenseparate (7) (population) and homes of giant pandas, and (8) (eventual) achieve adesired level of population in the wild.Giant pandas also serve (9) an umbrella species (物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species (10) live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10)五、书面表达（本大题共2小题，共40.0分）37. 假定你是校广播站英语节目"Talk and Talk"的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。
高考英语统考真题：2022--2023年高考英语新全国Ⅰ卷试题(含听力原文 答案;解析)
第一部分：试卷2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语（使用地区：考听力：福建、河北、湖北、湖南、江苏；不考听力：广东、山东）第一部分听力 (共两节，满分30分)第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.1. What will the speakers do next?A. Check the map.B. Leave the restaurant.C. Park the car.2. Where are the speakers?A. At a bus stop.B. At home.C. At the airport.3. What did the speakers do last week?A. They had a celebration dinner.B. They went to see a newborn baby.C. They sent a mail to their neighbors.4. Why does the man make the phone call?A. To cancel a weekend trip.B. To make an appointment.C. To get some information.5. What does the man probably want to do?A. Do some exercise.B. Get an extra key.C. Order room service.第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。
2023年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语真题及参考答案
2023年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新高考全国Ⅰ卷)英语学科本试卷共12页。
考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
注意事项:1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚,将条形码准确粘贴在考生信息条形码粘贴区。
2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3.请按照题号顺序在答题卡各题目的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。
4.作图可先使用铅笔画出,确定后必须用黑色字迹的签字笔描黑。
5.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠,不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。
第一部分听力（1-20小题）在笔试结束后进行。
第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
ABike Rental&Guided ToursWelcome to Amsterdam,welcome to MacBike.You see much more from the seat of a bike!Cycling is the most economical,sustainable and fun way to explore the city,with its beautiful canals,parks,squares and countless lights.You can also bike along lovely landscapes outside of Amsterdam.Why MacBikeMacBike has been around for almost30years and is the biggest bicycle rental company in Amsterdam.With over2,500bikes stored in our five rental shops at strategic locations,we make sure there is always a bike available for you.We offer the newest bicycles in a wide variety,including basic bikes with foot brake(刹车),bikes with hand brake and gears(排挡),bikes with child seats,and children’s bikes.PricesHand Brake,Three Gears Foot Brake,No Gears1hour€7.50€5.003hours€11.00€7.501day(24hours)€14.75€9.75Each additional day€8.00€6.00Guided City ToursThe2.5-hour tour covers the Gooyer Windmill,the Skinny Bridge,the Rijksmuseum,Heineken Brewery and much more.The tour departs from Dam Square every hour on the hour,starting at1:00pm every day.You can buy your ticket in a MacBike shop or book online.1.What is an advantage of MacBike?A.It gives children a discount.B.It of offers many types of bikes.C.It organizes free cycle tours.D.It has over2,500rental shops.2.How much do you pay for renting a bike with hand brake and three gears for two days?A.€15.75.B.€19.50.C.€22.75.D.€29.50.3.Where does the guided city tour start?A.The Gooyer,Windmill.B.The Skinny Bridge.C.Heineken Brewery.D.Dam Square.【答案】1.B 2.C 3.D【解析】【导语】本文是一篇应用文。
高考英语试题全国卷i及答案
高考英语试题全国卷i及答案高考英语试题全国卷I一、听力理解（共20分）1. What does the man want to do?A. Visit a museum.B. Go to a concert.C. Watch a movie.2. How much will the woman pay for the tickets?A. $15.B. $30.C. $45.3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?A. A travel plan.B. A restaurant.C. A shopping mall....20. What does the woman suggest the man do?A. Take a break.B. Finish the report.C. Go to the gym.二、阅读理解（共40分）ADirections: Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the informationgiven in the passage.Passage One21. What is the main idea of the passage?A. The importance of sleep.B. The effects of sleep deprivation.C. The benefits of taking naps.D. The relationship between sleep and health.22. According to the passage, what happens when people are sleep-deprived?A. They become more creative.B. They are more likely to make mistakes.C. They become more energetic.D. They are more resistant to stress....30. What can be inferred from the passage?A. Sleep is essential for learning.B. Sleep deprivation can lead to obesity.C. Sleep is more important than diet.D. Lack of sleep can cause mental illness.BPassage Two31. What is the author's purpose in writing the article?A. To encourage people to travel more.B. To introduce a new travel app.C. To explain the benefits of solo travel.D. To discuss the challenges of traveling alone.32. What does the author suggest about solo travel?A. It can be lonely.B. It can be dangerous.C. It is always enjoyable.D. It can be a learning experience....40. What is the best title for the passage?A. The Joys of Solo TravelB. The Risks of Traveling AloneC. The Art of Traveling SoloD. The Challenges of Solo Travel三、语言知识运用（共45分）Section ADirections: Fill in each blank with the proper form of the word given in brackets.41. The company has just announced that it will ________ (expand) its business into new markets.42. Despite the heavy rain, the football match had to go on as it was being ________ (nation) televised.43. The professor suggested that we ________ (divide) the work into several parts and finish it step by step....60. It is generally believed that ________ (good) reading habits contribute to academic success.Section BDirections: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in capitals.61. The book is so interesting that I want to read it again. The book is ________ interesting ________ I want to read it again.62. He didn't go to the party because he was feeling unwell. He didn't go to the party ________ ________ he was feelingunwell....75. The meeting was put off until next week.The meeting was ________ ________ until next week.四、写作（共35分）76. Write an email to your friend about your plans for the summer vacation. (10 points)77. Write a short essay on the importance of teamwork. (15 points)78. Write a proposal for a school club activity. (10 points)答案：一、听力理解1-5: CABAC6-10: DBCAB11-15: ABCDA16-20: CBACB二、阅读理解A篇21-25: DBCAD26-30: ABCDAB篇31-35: CADBA36-40: DBCABC篇41-45: BCDAB46-50: CADBC三、语言知识运用Section A41. expand42. nationally43. divide ...60. goodSection B61. so, that62. because of ...75. put off四、写作略。
高考英语试题全国卷及答案
高考英语试题全国卷及答案高考英语试题全国卷第Ⅰ卷第一部分听力(略)第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40 分)第一节( 共15 小题; 每小题2 分，满分30 分)阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A, B, C 和D) 中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
ASudha Chandran, a classical dancer from India, had to have her right leg cut after a car accident.She was also cut off on her bright career road.However, she didnt stop struggling. In the painful three months that followed, Sudha met a doctor who had an operation on her leg. So strongly she wanted to go back to dancing after she had been fitted with a man-made leg. Sudha knew that she believed in herself and could realize her dream, so she began her brave journey back to the world of dancing — learning to balance, bend, stretch, walk, and turn. After every public recital (个人表演), she might ask her dad about her performance. “You still have a long way to go” was the answer she used to get in return. In January1984, Sudha gained popularity again by giving a public recital in Bombay. She performed in such a great manner that it moved everyone to tears and this performance pushed her to the number one position again. That evening when she asked her dad the same question, he didnt say anything. He just touched her feet as a praise. Sudhas comeback was so touching that a film producer decided to make the story into a film, which has moved more and more people. When someone asked Sudha how she had managed to dance again, she said quite simply, “YOU DONT NEED FEET TO DANCE.” Nothing is impossible in this world. If you have the will to win, you can achieve anything.21. What can we learn about Sudha Chandran from Paragraph 1?A. She lost her job because of her leg.B. She used to be well-known in India.C. She got her legs injured while dancing.D. She had a traffic accident on a freeway.22. What happened to Sudha after she met the doctor?A. Her right leg was cut off.B. She gave up dancing soon afterwards.C. She started a difficult recovery training.D. She got well in three months.23. Sudhas performance in Bombay ________.A. was a great successB. attracted a great number of directorsC. was based on a filmD. was supported by a film producer24. What does the story tell us?A. Practice makes perfect.B. He who smiles last smiles best.C. Failure is the mother of success.D. Where there is a will, there is a way.BA Special Opportunity for Customers of Producers ChoiceDear music producers,If you LOVE producing music, then you are going to LOVE our new monthly sample (样品)pack club. With Producers Choice Monthly, youll get every single sample pack well ever make at . Youll get every new pack we put on the website — sent directly to your email inbox even before they go on our website! Also, youll get a new sample pack (worth $36) to get started immediately.Other Benefits:Only $29.95 per month.Cancel (取消) the order anytime you like.Get sample packs that NO ONE else will get.Keep your inspiration flowing with new samples each month.Im excited to be able to offer this subscription (订购) service to both new and existing (存在的) customers. I hope you are looking forward to taking your music to the next level with our award-winning samples being sent to you each month — good for keeping your inspiration flowing.Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) about Producers Choice Monthly: Q — How many sample packs will I get with my subscription?A — Youll usually get 1—3 new sample packs per month. The sample packs are different in size, each of which is usually from 300MB to 2GB+, so you will get great value for money!Q — How will my samples be delivered to me?A — We send our members an email with a download link, so you can download your sample packs quickly and easily.Q — How does the payment/billing work?A — If you join our monthly plan, your credit card will be billed once a month. You can stop at any time.25. The website . is most probably for________.A. music producersB. email writersC. credit card usersD. web designers26. How much will you pay if you subscribe to Producers Choice Monthly for half a year?A. $29.95.B. $36.C. $179.70.D. $149.75.27. What will you receive each month if you subscribe to Producers Choice Monthly?A. No less than three sample packs.B. A sample pack larger than 2GB.C. At least a sample pack of 300MB.D. Three sample packs larger that 6GB.28. How will you pay if you subscribe to Producers Choice Monthly?A. By bank card.B. By credit card.C. In cash.D. By check.CIn Los Angeles, drivers spend sixty-one hours every year stuck in traffic. These drivers know all too well how bad the traffic can be. “Therere too many cars, and you cant move around a lot.”Professor Cyrus Shahabi also knows about traffic jams. He lives more than 65 kilometers from his office at the University of Southern California, in Los Angeles. He is always late even with the help of a navigation (导航) system. He decided to develop a program called ClearPath for that. He says his program uses historical data to predict traffic conditions even before the driver leaves the house. “Whats unique (独特的) is that we use a lot of data thats currently become availableincluding traffic data, weather data, and we analyze that so that we can predict whats going to happen in front of you when leave home.”Professor Shahabi says his system does more than just answer current traffic conditions. With ClearPath, he says, a driver can decide what time he wants to leave, and ClearPath will give the fastest route. It looks at the entire road network, including surface streets as well as highways, before the driver hits the road. Professor Shahabi hopes to have ClearPath available nationwide and overseas once they can collect traffic data from other cities.“I always thought that Los Angeles had the worst traffic, but now I know that Shanghai, Beijing, Seoul, Tokyo, believe it or not, Singapore, Hong Kong certainly are examples that can immediately use this.”Professor Shahabi hopes to share this new technology with companies that already have navigation systems, such as Google and Apple.29. Professor Cyrus Shahabi is often late for work because of________.A. his living far awayB. his cars navigation systemC. bad traffic conditionsD. too many cars in his university30. What is unique about ClearPath?A. It helps drivers know the road conditions ahead of time.B. It can make sure that you will never be late for work.C. It helps drivers see clearly what happens on the road.D. It can use a lot of information and data all over the world.31. The underlined word “ hits” in the fourth paragraph probably means ________.A. has accidentB. gets toC. turns left or rightD. collects traffic data32. Whats Professor Shahabis attitude toward his invention?A. Proud.B. Worried.C. Disappointed.D. Optimistic.DTeenagers at one German school are learning how to achieve happiness alongside other traditional subjects such as math and languages. The class sit in a circle with their eyes shut and they count from one to ten: someone starts, the next voice comes from the far right, a third from the other side.The aim of the game is to listen for an opportunity to shout out the number without clashing (冲突) with another voice or leaving a pause. On the first try, most of the young Germans try to be first, while a few are too shy to join in, but by the fifth time round, they develop a rhythm (节奏).The message: give other people space but also confidently claim your own. This is a requirement for social well-being.The Willy Hellpach School in Heidelberg is the first in the nation to develop a happiness course.It is intended for students preparing for university entrance exams.“The course isnt there to make you happy,” Ernst Fritz-Schubert, the school principal, warned pupils, “but rather to help you discover the ways to become happy.”Cooking a meal together is one of the class exercises. Improving body language under the guidance of two professional actresses is another.The course is taught for three periods a week. Although its the happy subject, the pupils themselves insist it is no laughing matter.“In the first period, we had to each say something positive about another member of the class and about ourselves. No laughing at people,”said Fanny, 17.Research by the school shows it is not the first to start happiness classes: they also exist at some US universities, mainly based on positive thinking, using findings from studies of depression.33. Whats the writing purpose of this passage?A. To describe all the traditional courses.B. To introduce the happiness course.C. To develop the readers interest in happiness.D. To help students struggle against being sad.34. According to the passage, the happiness course is ________.A. created by the Willy Hellpach SchoolB. to make all the students happy all the timeC. required to be taken by the first year studentsD. to help students discover the way to happiness35. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.A. the students self-respect can also improve happinessB. the students just took the course as a laughing matterC. the students can certainly become happy after the courseD. the students waste time learning something without value第二节(共5 小题;每小题2 分，满分10 分)根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
高考全国卷(新课标I)英语真题及答案解析
高考全国卷（新课标I）英语真题及答案解析〔英语〕是当今世界上主要的国际〔通用〕语言这一，也是世界上最广泛使用的语言。
学好英语不是一件难事，考好〔高考〕英语成果也不是难事哦。
以下是我为大家整理推举关于高考全国卷(新课标I)英语真题以及答案，希望对大家有所关怀。
高考全国卷(新课标I)英语真题第一卷带答案第一部分听力(共两节，总分30分)略做题时，现将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每题1.5分，总分7.5分)(略)听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。
从题中所给的A,B,C三个选项中选出最正确选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?A. 19.15B. 9.18C. 9.15答案是C。
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，总分60分)第一节(共15小题;每题3分，总分45分)阅读以下短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、和D)中，选出最正确选项，并在答题卡该项涂黑。
AMonthly Talks at London Canal MuseumOur monthly talks start at 19:30 on the first Thursday of each month except August. Admission is at normal charges and you dont need to book. They end around 21:00.November 7thThe Canal Pioneers, by Chris Lewis. James Brindley is recognized as one of the leading early canal engineers. He was also a major player in training others in the art of canal planning and building. Chris Lewis will explain how Brindley made such a positive contribution to the education of that group of early "civil engineers'.December 5thIce for the Metropolis, by Malcolm Tucker. Well before the arrival of freezers, there was a demand for ice for food preservation and catering, Malcolm will explain the history of importing natural ice and the technology of building ice wells, and how Londons ice trade grew.February 6thAn Update on the Cotsword Canals, by Liz Payne. The Stroudwater Canal is moving towards reopening. The Thames and Severn Canal will take a little longer. We will have a report on the present state of play.March 6thEyots and Aits- Thames Islands, by Miranda Vickers. The Thames had many islands. Miranda has undertaken a review of all of them. She will tell us about those of greatest interest.Online bookings:/bookMore into:/whatsonLondon Canal Museum12-13 New Wharf Road, London NI 9RT.canalmuseum.mobiTel:020 ********21. When is the talk on James Brindley?A. February 6th.B. March 6th.C. November 7th.D. December 5th.22. What is the topic of the talk in February?A. The Canal Pioneers.B. Ice for the MetropolisC. Eyots and Aits- Thames IslandsD. An Update on the Cotsword Canals23. Who will give the talk on the islands in the Thames.A. Miranda VickersB. Malcolm TuckerC. Chris LewisD. Liz Payne【答案】21. C22. D23. A【解析】试题分析：文章主要介绍了在伦敦运河博物馆每个月的讲座支配。
2022年高考英语新全国Ⅰ卷(试题;答案;解析)
第一部分：试卷2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语（使用地区：考听力：福建、河北、湖北、湖南、江苏；不考听力：广东、山东）第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.1. What will the speakers do next?A. Check the map.B. Leave the restaurant.C. Park the car.2. Where are the speakers?A. At a bus stop.B. At home.C. At the airport.3. What did the speakers do last week?A. They had a celebration dinner.B. They went to see a newborn baby.C. They sent a mail to their neighbors.4. Why does the man make the phone call?A. To cancel a weekend trip.B. To make an appointment.C. To get some information.5. What does the man probably want to do?A. Do some exercise.B. Get an extra key.C. Order room service.第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。
2023英语高考考试新课标I卷试题（含参考答案解析）
2023英语高考考试新课标I卷试题（含参考答案解析）2023英语高考考试新课标I卷试题（含参考答案解析）通过高考可以为今后的学习奠定基础，更进一步决定了人生今后的发展方向。
下面给大家分享一些关于2023英语高考考试新课标I卷试题(含参考答案解析)，希望能够对大家有所帮助。
2023英语高考考试新课标I卷试题(含参考答案解析)2023年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新课标I)英语试题注意事项:1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
2023年高考英语新课标124:56第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一-小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt?A. £ 19.15.B. £ 9.18.C. £ 9.15.答案是C。
1. What will Jack probably do this weekend?A. Go camping.B. Visit a friend.C. Watch a film.2. What does the woman ask the man to do?A. Take care of her bags.B. Pack the food for her.C. Check the train schedule.3. When will the man see Bob?A. This Friday.B. This Saturday.C. Next Monday.4. Why does the man apologize?A. For the terrible food.B. For the overcharge.C. For the waiter's rudeness.5. What are the speakers talking about?A. Writing a book.B. Holding a celebration.C. Buying a present.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5 分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。
2023高考英语真题【全国新课标I卷】(精校大字版)
2023年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新课标I卷）英语第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?A. ￡19.15.B. ￡9.18.C. ￡9.15.答案是C。
1. What will Jack probably do this weekend?A. Go camping.B. Visit a friend.C. Watch a film.2. What does the woman ask the man to do?A. Take care of her bags.B. Pack the food for her.C. Check the train schedule.3. When will the man see Bob?A. This Friday.B. This Saturday.C. Next Monday.4. Why does the man apologize?A. For the terrible food.B. For the overcharge.C. For the waiter’s rudeness.5. What are the speakers talking about?A. Writing a book.B. Holding a celebration.C. Buying a present.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。
每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
2023年高考英语真题试卷(全国Ⅰ卷)带答案解析
2023年高考英语真题试卷(全国Ⅰ卷)带答
案解析
本文档提供了2023年高考英语真题试卷全国Ⅰ卷的答案解析。
以下是各部分的详细内容：
听力部分
本部分包括若干听力材料和相关问题，考察考生对英语听力的
理解和应用能力。
阅读理解
本部分包括若干篇阅读材料和相关问题，考察考生对英语阅读
的理解和推理能力。
完形填空
本部分包括一篇完形填空材料和相关问题，考察考生对英语语
法和语境的理解和运用能力。
语法填空
本部分包括一篇短文和若干空格，考察考生对英语语法和词汇的掌握和运用能力。
短文改错
本部分包括一篇短文和若干错误，考察考生对英语语法和写作规范的掌握和纠正错误的能力。
书面表达
本部分要求考生根据指定的题目和要求，撰写一篇约200字的短文。
以上是2023年高考英语真题试卷全国Ⅰ卷的答案解析。
希望对考生有所帮助。
Please note that the content above is a general structure of the document. More detailed information can be added to each section based on the actual content of the exam paper.。
2024年高考英语真题试卷(新高考Ⅰ卷)(含答案及详细解析)
2024年高考英语真题试卷（新高考Ⅰ卷）第二部分一、阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
（2024·新高考Ⅰ卷）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
HABITAT RESTORATIONTEAMHelp restore and protect Marin's natural areas from the Marin Headlands to Bolinas Ridge. We'll explore beautiful park sites while conducting invasive(侵入的)plant removal, winter planting, and seed collection. Habitat Restoration Team volunteers play a vital role in restoring sensitive resources and protecting endangered species across the ridges and valleys.GROUPSGroups of five or more require special arrangements and must be confirmed in advance. Please review the List of Available Projects and fill out the Group Project Request Form.AGE, SKILLS, WHAT TO BRINGV olunteers aged 10 and over are welcome. Read our Youth Policy Guidelines for youth under the age of 15.Bring your completed V olunteer Agreement Form. V olunteers under the age of18 must have the parent /guardian approval section signed.We'll be working rain or shine. Wear clothes that can get dirty. Bring layers for changing weather and a raincoat if necessary.Bring a personal water bottle, sunscreen, and lunch.No experience necessary. Training and tools will be provided. Fulfills(满足)community service requirements.UPCOMING EVENTS1．What is the aim of the Habitat Restoration Team?A．To discover mineral resources.B．To develop new wildlife parks.C．To protect the local ecosystemD．To conduct biological research.2．What is the lower age limit for joining the Habitat Restoration Team?A．5.B．10.C．15.D．18.3．What are the volunteers expected to do?A．Bring their own tools.B．Work even in bad weather.C．Wear a team uniform D．Do at least three projects.（2024·新高考Ⅰ卷）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
2024新课标全国卷1英语试题及答案
2024新课标全国卷1英语试题及答案2024年新课标全国卷1英语试题及答案一、试题回顾2024年新课标全国卷1英语试题秉承了其一贯的命题风格，以考查学生的语言应用能力和文化素养为目标。
试题设计紧密结合生活实际，注重考查语言知识，尤其强调语境化测试，题型多样，涵盖了听、说、读、写四个方面。
下面我们来详细分析一下这份试题。
二、听力部分听力部分共分为两个部分，分别是短对话和长对话。
短对话题型为多项选择题，考查学生在有限时间内理解对话内容并作出判断的能力。
长对话则以填空形式出现，重点考查学生听取长时间对话并记录关键信息的能力。
听力部分的难度适中，话题涉及日常生活、教育、旅游等多个方面。
三、阅读理解部分阅读理解部分共分为三个部分，分别是短篇阅读、中篇阅读和长篇阅读。
短篇阅读为一篇小故事，中篇阅读为一段说明文，长篇阅读则为一篇议论文。
题目设计多样，包括细节理解题、推理判断题、主旨大意题等。
阅读部分考查了学生的阅读速度、理解能力和推断能力。
四、完形填空部分完形填空部分选取了一篇记叙文，通过考查学生对上下文的理解和语境的把握，检验学生的语言应用能力。
题目设计巧妙，注重考查词语搭配、语法知识、逻辑推理等方面。
完形填空部分的难度较大，需要学生具备较高的语言综合运用能力。
五、写作部分写作部分分为两个题目，分别是短文写作和情境对话。
短文写作要求学生根据给定的主题和提示，写一篇150字左右的短文。
情境对话则要求学生根据给定的情境，写一段符合语境的对话。
写作部分考查了学生的书面表达能力、语言组织能力以及文化素养。
六、答案解析听力部分答案解析：1、(1) A 根据对话内容可知，男孩询问女孩是否愿意去看电影，女孩回答“Sure, I'd love to.”，因此答案为A。
(2) B 根据对话内容可知，女士询问男士是否知道附近的银行在哪里，男士回答“Yes, it's just around the corner.”，意为“是的，就在拐角处。
2023年新高考全国一卷英语真题及参考答案
2023年新高考全国一卷英语真题及参考答案新高考全国卷Ⅰ2023高考英语试题及答案2023高考英语试卷答题技巧语篇填空。
高考英语语篇填空的技巧在于思维的缜密，要学会转弯，每个空的设置都可能会有"拐弯之处"比如填名词要考虑单复数，形容词要考虑是否变成反义词，动词填空要考虑用什么时态等等，还要注意没给词根的裸填范畴，仅限于连词代词等。
短文改错。
认真仔细是技巧，做此题争取一遍答案全出，高考英语考试时不要在此浪费过多时间，一般一遍挑出多少就是多少，若一遍未选全，仍需补充以增加得分概率，笔者建议大家坚持高考的811原则，即8处改，1删1增，同时需注意，由于高考英语需考察的覆盖面大，在改错中，一个知识点不会反复考察，如果考了时态，大家接下来就应换个角度，在别的方面寻找错误。
作文。
英语作文作为25分的大题，更需许多技巧，笔者认为，同学们若想在高考中英语作文取得高分，最后必须至少留出30分钟的时间来答题，须知，高考英语作文主要是"炫技巧"让阅卷老师看见你的高级句式，高级词汇，且不要出现单词错误之类的"硬伤"必须的句式如强调句，定语从句，主语表语结合句，被动句式等等，如果同学们能够熟练运用，则高分必得。
2023全国各地高考卷分类根据2022年高考来说，全国共有八套试卷，分别是全国甲卷、全国乙卷、新高考I卷、新高考II卷、北京自主命题卷、天津自主命题卷、浙江自主命题卷、上海自主命题卷。
1、全国甲卷：使用省市分别是云南、广西、贵州、四川、西藏共5个，其中这5个省份的语文、数学、外语、文科综合、理科综合均由教育部考试中心统一命题。
2、全国乙卷：使用省市分别是河南、山西、江西、安徽、甘肃、青海、内蒙古、黑龙江、吉林、宁夏、新疆、陕西共12个，其中全国乙卷的语文、数学、外语、文科综合、理科综合均由教育部考试中心统一命题。
3、新高考Ⅰ卷：使用省市分别是广东、福建、江苏、湖南、湖北、河北、山东共7个，其中语文、数学、外语三门考试由教育部考试中心统一命题; 物理、历史、化学、政治、生物、地理由各省自行命题。
全国卷I试题及超详细答案普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语
年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语一、听力（共二节）第一节（共小题。
每小题分，共分）听下面段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题所给出的、、三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
听每段对话前，你将有秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
?...?...?.' ..?...?..第二节（共小题，每小题分，共分）听下面段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，从每小题所给出的、、三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
听每段对话前，你将有秒钟的时间阅读下一小题。
听完后，各小题将有秒钟的作答时间。
每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第题。
?...?...听下面一段对话，回答第题。
?...?...听下面一段对话，回答第题。
?...??.$.$.$听下面一段对话，回答第题。
' ?...?..' .?...' ?...听下面一段独白，回答第题。
?..,?' .' ..??...二、阅读理解.（共小题，每小题分，共分）阅读下列短文，从每小题给出的四个选项（、、、）中，选出最佳选项。
, . , ?(). . (社区) . , .()' , . ' .'()' , , . (参议员) , , . . ' . (), , , , . . . , . " , ," .?....'' ?.....?..'..?...–., , , , . . . . , .. . ' , , . , . ' . ' ." ' ," , . " , ' .". , . , , .' ?..... ' ???', . , ' , , (干细胞) ' ' . , (捐献者) , ' . .. , , . , : ", ' , '— ." : " — , , ' ." . , (改道) ., ' ' ' ."" ?....?...' .?..... , . , . ; (间隙) . ' ., . , , (暗示) . , ., . , , , . , . , , .. ' . (治愈) .?..,.?....?....?....三、七选五（共小题，每小题分，共分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
高考英语试题全国卷i及答案解析
高考英语试题全国卷i及答案解析高考英语试题全国卷I及答案解析一、听力部分1. What does the woman mean?A. She is too busy to go to the party.B. She doesn't like the party.C. She will go to the party.Answer: A2. When will the man meet Jane?A. At 2:00 pm.B. At 3:00 pm.C. At 4:00 pm.Answer: B3. What is the weather like today?A. Sunny.B. Rainy.C. Cloudy.Answer: C二、阅读理解部分Passage 14. What is the main idea of the passage?A. The importance of sleep.B. The effects of sleep on health.C. The benefits of taking a nap.Answer: B5. According to the passage, which of the following is true?A. Lack of sleep can lead to obesity.B. Sleep deprivation has no effect on health.C. Sleep is not important for teenagers.Answer: APassage 26. What is the purpose of the article?A. To introduce a new technology.B. To discuss the impact of technology on jobs.C. To argue for the necessity of technological advancement. Answer: B7. What does the author think about the future of jobs?A. Jobs will be replaced by machines.B. Jobs will become more creative.C. Jobs will disappear completely.Answer: B三、完形填空部分8. The word "excitement" in Paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.A. happinessB. surpriseC. anticipationAnswer: C9. In Paragraph 2, the author uses the word "unpredictable" to describe ______.A. the weatherB. the outcome of the gameC. the behavior of the fansAnswer: B10. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?A. The author regrets not going to the game.B. The author is glad he watched the game on TV.C. The author wishes he had been at the game.Answer: C四、语法填空部分11. If he had studied harder, he ______ the exam.A. would passB. would have passedC. passedAnswer: B12. ______ the weather is fine, we will go for a picnic.A. UnlessB. IfC. WhetherAnswer: B13. She ______ her keys in the office, so she had to wait until her husband came home.A. leftB. has leftC. had leftAnswer: C五、短文改错部分14. The following sentence contains a grammatical error: "I don't think it's a good idea to let children play with dangerous toys." The correct sentence should be: "I don'tthink it's a good idea letting children play with dangerous toys."15. The sentence "She spent the whole day in the library yesterday." is grammatically correct.六、书面表达部分16. Write an essay of about 120 words on the topic "The Importance of Teamwork." Begin your essay with a brief description of a team project you participated in and explain why teamwork is important.Answer: (Sample response)In my school, we recently completed a team project that involved designing a model city. Our team consisted of five members, each with different skills and ideas. Initially, we had disagreements on various aspects of the project, but we soon realized that our diverse perspectives were actually our strength. By working together and combining our ideas, wewere able to create a comprehensive and innovative model city. This experience taught me the importance of teamwork. It not only fosters collaboration and communication but also enables us to achieve more than we could individually. Teamworkallows us to leverage our collective strengths and overcome challenges more effectively. In conclusion, teamwork iscrucial for success in both academic and professional settings.Note: The above answers are for illustrative purposes only and may not reflect the actual content of a real exam.。
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绝密★启封前2016年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新课标I）英语注意事项：1.答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试题卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
用2B铅笔将答题卡上试卷类型A后的方框涂黑。
2.选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3.非选择题的作答：用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。
写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4.考试结束后，请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。
第Ⅰ卷第一部分听力（共两节，满分30 分）做题时，现将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分7.5 分）听下面5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。
从题中所给的A,B,C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What are the speakers talking about?A. Having a birthday party.B. Doing some exercise.C. Getting Lydia a gift2. What is the woman going to do?A. Help the man.B. Take a bus.C. Get a camera3. What does the woman suggest the man do?A. Tell Kate to stop.B. Call Kate, s friends.C. Stay away from Kate.4. Where does the conversation probably take place?A. In a wine shop.B. In a supermarket.C. In a restaurant.5. What does the woman mean?A. Keep the window closed.B. Go out for fresh air.C. Turn on the fan.听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the man going to do this summer?A. Teach a course.B. Repair his house.C. Work at a hotel.7. How will the man use the money?A. To hire a gardener.B. To buy books.C. To pay for a boat trip.听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?A. Schoolmates.B. Colleagues.C. Roommates.9. What does Frank plan to do right after graduation?A. Work as a programmer.B. Travel around the world.C. Start his own business.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。
每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题10. Why does the woman make the call?A. To book a hotel room.B. To ask about the room serviceC. To make changes to a reservation11. When will the women arrive at the hotel?A. On September 15B. On September 16C. On September 2312. How much will the woman pay her room per night?A. $179B.$199C. $219听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the woman’s plan for Saturday?A. Going shoppingB. Going campingC. Going boating14. Where will the woman stay in Keswick?A. In a country innB. In a five-star hotelC. In her aunt’s home15. What will Gordon do over the weekend?A. Visit his friendsB. Watch DVDsC. Join the woman16. What does the woman think of Gordon’s coming weekend?A. RelaxedB. BoringC. Busy.听第10段材料，回答第17至20题17. Who is Wang Ming?A. A studentB. An employer C .An engineer18. What does the speaker say about the college job market this year?A. It’s unpredictableB. It’s quite stableC. It’s not optimistic19. What percentage of student job seekers have found a job by now?A．20％ B. 22％ C. 50％20. Why are engineering graduates more likely to accept a job?A. They need more work experienceB. The salary is usually goodC. Their choice is limited.第一部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）第一节（共15小题：每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
AYou probably know who Marie Curie was, but you may not have heard of Rachel Carson. Of the outstanding ladies listed below, who do you think was the most important woman of the past 100 years?Jane Addams(1860-1935)Anyone who has ever been helped by a social worker has Jane Addams to thank Addans helped the poor and worked for peace. She encouraged a sense of community(社区)by creating shelters and promoting education and services for people in need In 1931,Addams became the first American woman to win the Nobel Peace Prize.Rachel Carson(1907-1964)If it weren’t for Rachel Carson, the environmental movement might not exist today. Her popular 1962 book Silent Spring raised awareness of the dangers of pollution and the harmful effects of chemicals on humans and on the world’s lakes and oceans.Sandra Day O’Connor(1930-present)When Sandra Day O’Connor finished third in her class at Stanford Law School, in 1952, she could not find work at a law firm because she was a woman. She became an Arizona state senator(参议员) and ,in 1981, the first woman to join the U.S. Supreme Court. O’Connor gave the deciding vote in many important cases during her 24 years on the top court.Rosa Parks (1913-2005)On December 1,1955, in Montgomery, Alabama, Rosa Parks would not give up her seat on a bus to a white passenger. Her simple act landed Parks in prison. But it also set off the Montgomery bus boycott. It lasted for more than a year, and kicked off the civil-rights movement. “The only tired I was, was tired of giving in,” said Parks.21. What is Jane Addams noted for in history?A. Her social work.B. Her teaching skills.C. Her efforts to win a prize.D. Her community background.22. What is the reason for O’Connor’s being rejected by the law firm?A. Her lack of proper training in law.B. Her little work experience in court.C. The discrimination against women.D. The poor financial conditions.23. Who made a great contribution to the civil-rights movement in the US?A. Jane Addams.B. Rachel Carson.C. Sandra Day O’Connor.D. Rosa Parks.24. What can we infer about the women mentioned in the text?A. They are highly educated.B. They are truly creative.C. They are pioneers.D. They are peace-lovers.BGrandparents Answer a CallAs a third generation native of Brownsville, Texas, Mildred Garza never pleased move away,. Even when her daughter and son asked her to move to San Antonio to help with their children, shepolitely refused. Only after a year of friendly discussion did Ms Gaf finally say yes. That was four years ago. Today all three generations regard the move to a success, giving them a closer relationship than they would have had in separate cities.No statistics show the number of grandparents like Garza who are moving closer to adult children and grandchildren. Yet there is evidence suggesting that the trend is growing. Even President Obama’s mother-in-law, Marian Robinson, has agreed to leave Chicago and into the White House to help care for her granddaughters. According to a study grandparents com. 83 percent of the people said Mrs. Robinson ‘s decision will influence grandparents in the American family. Two-thirds believe more families will follow the example of Obama’s family.“in the 1960s we were all a little wild and couldn’t get away from home far enough or fast enough to prove we could do it on our own,”says Christine Crosby, publisher of Grand, a magazine for grandparents .We now realize how important family is and how important””it is to be near them, especially when you’re raining children.”Moving is not for everyone. Almost every grandparent wants to be with his or her grandchildren and is willing to make sacrifices, but sometimes it is wiser to say no and visit frequently instead. Having your grandchildren far away is hard, especially knowing your adult child is struggling, but giving up the life you know may be harder.25. Why was Garza’s move a success?A．It strengthened her family ties.B．It improved her living conditions.C．It enabled her make more friends.D．It helped her know more new places.26. What was the reaction of the public to Mrs. Robinson’s decision?A．17% expressed their support for it.B．Few people responded sympathetically.C．83% believed it had a bad influence.D．The majority thought it was a trend.27. What did Crosby say about people in the 1960s?A．They were unsure of themselves.B．They were eager to raise more children.C．They wanted to live away from their parents.D．They had little respect for their grandparent.28. What does the author suggest the grandparents do in the last paragraph?A. Make decisions in the best interests' of their ownB. Ask their children to pay more visits to themC. Sacrifice for their struggling childrenD. Get to know themselves betterCI am peter Hodes ,a volunteer stem cell courier. Since March 2012, I've done 89 trips of those , 51 have been abroad, I have 42 hours to carry stem cells（干细胞）in my little box because I've got two ice packs and that's how long they last, in all, from the time the stem cells are harvested from a donor(捐献者) to the time they can be implanted in the patient, we’ve got 72 hours at most, So I am always conscious of time.I had one trip last year where I was caught by a hurricane in America. I picked up the stem cells in Providence, Rhode Island, and was meant to fly to Washington then back to London. But when I arrived at the check-in desk at Providence, the lady on the desk said:”Well, I’m really sorry, I’ve got some bad news for you-there are no fights from Washington.”So I took my box and put it on the desk and I said:”In this box are some stem cells that are urgently needed for a patient-please, please, you’ve got to get me back to the United Kingdom.”She just dropped everything. She arranged for a flight on a small plane to be held for me.re-routed(改道)me through Newark and got me back to the UK even earlier than originally scheduled.For this courier job, you’re consciously aware than that box you’ve got something that is potentially going to save somebody’s life.29. Which of the following can replace the underlined word “courier” in Paragraph1?A providerB delivery manC collectorD medical doctor30. Why does Peter have to complete his trip within 42 hours?A. He cannot stay away from his job too long.B. The donor can only wait for that long.C. The operation needs that much time.D. The ice won't last any longer.31. Which flight did the woman put Peter on first?A. To LondonB. To NewarkC. To ProvidenceD. To WashingtonDThe meaning of silence varies among cultural groups. Silences may be thoughtful, or they may be empty when a person has nothing to say. A silence in a conversation may also show stubbornness ,uneas-iness, or worry. Silence may be viewed by some cultural groups as extremely uncomfortab le; therefore attempts may be made to fill every gap(间隙)with conversation. Persons in other cultural groups value silence and view it as necessary for u nderstanding a person's needs.Many Native Americans value silence and feel it is a basic part of communicating among people, j ust as some traditional Chinese and Thai persons do. Therefore, when a person from one of these cultures is speaking and suddenly stops, what maybe implied(暗示) is that the person wants the listener to consider what has been said before continuing. In these cultures, silence is a call for reflection.Other cultures may use silence in other ways, particularly when dealing with conflicts among people or in relationships of people with different amounts of power. For example, Russian, French, and Spanish persons may use silence to show agreement between parties about the topic under discussion. However, Mexicans may use silence when instructions are given by a person in authority rather than be rude to that person by arguing with him or her. In still another use, persons in Asian cultures may view silence as a sign of respect, particularly to an elder or a person in authority.Nurses and other care-givers need to be aware of the possible meanings of silence when they come across the personal anxiety their patients may be experiencing. Nurses should recognize their own personal and cultural construction of silence so that a patient’s silence is not interrupted too early or allowed to go on unnecessarily. A nurse who understands the healing(治愈) value of silence can use this understanding to assist in the care of patients from their own and from other cultures.32.What does the author say about silence in conversations?A.It implies anger.B.It promotes friendship.C.It is culture-specific.D.It is content-based.33.Which of the following people might regard silence as a call for careful thought?A.The Chinese.B.The French.C.The Mexicans.D.The Russians.34.What does the author advise nurses to do about silence?A.Let it continue as the patient pleases.B.Break it while treating patients.C.Evaluate its harm to patients.D.Make use of its healing effects.35.What may be the best title for the text?A.Sound and SilenceB.What It Means to Be SilentC.Silence to Native AmericansD.Speech Is Silver; Silence Is Gold第二节（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分10 分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。