2021年11月四川省宜宾市普通高中2022届高三毕业班上学期第一次高考诊断性测试英语试题及答案

绝密★启用前
四川省宜宾市普通高中
2022届高三毕业班上学期第一次高考诊断性测试
英语试题
2021年11月
（考试时间：120分钟满分：150分）
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

A. It’s too far.
B. It’s too expensive.
C. It’s too noisy.
2. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. A competition.
B. A friend.
C. A toy.
3. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a supermarket.
B. In a school.
C. At home.
4. What does the man suggest the woman do with the old clothes?
A. Throw them away.
B. Sell them to a store.
C. Give them to someone.
5. What is the man probably doing?
A. Handling a complaint.
B. Offering a suggestion.
C. Making an apology.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What will be on in Hall One?
A. An animated fairytale.
B.A science documentary.
C. An action film.
7. How many times will Happy Ending be shown on Saturday?
A. Once.
B. Twice.
C. Three times.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

8.Which activity makes the most money?
A.Hiring out bikes.
B. Selling bike parts.
C. Repairing bikes.
9. Where is the man working now?
A. In Oxford.
B. In France.
C. In America.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. When does the program Barnes & Noble Summer Reading for Kids end?
A. In August.
B. In September.
C. In October.
11. What can children do after reading eight books during the program?
A. Download free journals.
B. Join the program free.
C. Get a free book.
12.Which grade is Jim studying in?
A. Grade 1.
B. Grade 6.
C. Grade 7.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. How long has the woman lived in a town near Toronto?
A. We don’t know.
B. For ages.
C. For two months.
14. What is the woman doing in Canada?
A. Helping in a research programme.
B. Staying in Canada for Christmas.
C. Staying in Canada for Thanksgiving Day.
15. What does the woman think of the people in Canada?
A. They like travelling a lot.
B. They are very friendly and helpful.
C. They like to have big meals on Thanksgiving Day.
16. When is Boxing Day according to the dialogue?
A. It is on the day after Christmas Day.
B. It is on the day before Christmas Day.
C. It is on the day after Thanksgiving Day.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. What does the speaker like to read best?
A. Classic fiction.
B. Science fiction.
C. Adventure novels.
18. Who suggested the speaker try Wii Fit?
A. His colleague.
B. His flatmate.
C. His mother.
19. What did the speaker do first on Wii Fit?
A. He played tennis.
B. He played baseball.
C. He played boxing.
20.
How did Leo feel about the speaker playing games on Wii Fit ?
A. Embarrassed.
B. Surprised.
C. Confused.
第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A
Matt Haig， the best-selling author of the novel “The Midnight”，recommends some books that offer wisdom or comfort in difficult times.
Letters to a Young Poet by Rainer Rilke (1929). This is the ultimate comfort read. The book is what the title suggests: letters from an older poet to a younger one. The great thing about Rilke’s advice is that it acknowledges the darkness and suffering of existence， yet manages despite that—or maybe even because of that—to inspire.
When Things Fall Apart by Pema Chödrön(1996). I read this book during the first lockdown， and it was the perfect read for uncertain times. Chödrön is a Buddhist， but the advice and philosophy in these relatively few pages speaks universally. It’s a great book about embracing life in its totality， about seeing hope and suffering as part of a whole.
The House at Pooh Corner by A.A. Milne(1928). The Winnie-the-Pooh stories really speak to people going through tough times. In many ways，each of the characters reflects a different mental state: Eeyore is depressed， Tigger is hyper-active， Piglet is anxious， and Pooh reflects a hope and optimism much needed in recovery. I reread this book when I was ill with a panic disorder， and it soothed me.
Bird by Bird by Anne Lamott (1994). In my opinion， this is the greatest book about writing ever written. But like Rilke， Lamott is offering far more than writing advice. She is offering wisdom on life and how to embrace its imperfect nature.
21. Which book came out first?
A. Bird by Bird.
B. The Midnight.
C. Letters to a Young Poet.
D. The House at Pooh Corner.
22. What can readers learn from When Things Fall Apart?
A. The tough times are everywhere.
B. Life consists of hope and suffering.
C. People have a variety of mental states.
D. The undesirable things of life can be ignored.
23. What do the four books have in common?
A. All contain inspiring advice.
B. They are based on true facts.
C. Matt Haig instructed their novelists.
D. Writing will be improved by reading them.
B
JANE GOODALL has achieved an incredible amount in her life. At the age of 26， she began to watch chimps(黑猩猩) in the wild. Years of much patience has paid off. As a researcher， she has changed our understanding of chimps—highly intelligent animals with unique cultures and tight family bonds. As a conservationist， she has encouraged generations of activists.
A new documentary，Jane Goodall: The Hope， features footage spanning more than seven decades， including her early chimp work. The film picks up where the 2017 documentary Jane ended， focusing more on Goodall’s shift to environmental activism.
“We’ve stopped actually following the chimps in our studies， and just have one person a day to monitor them .” She says in the film. She thinks this pandemic is waking people up. The impact of environmental destruction
has been brought into focus by the covid-19 outbreak， she says， as a result of practices that bring different species into closer proximity with each other， creating opportunities for viruses to jump from animals to humans.
Before the covid-19 pandemic shut borders， Goodall was travelling 300 days of the year， giving talks to packed theaters and meeting thousands of school children through her youth programme， Roots & Shoots， which runs in more than 60 countries.
“Wherever I go there are young people with shining eyes wanting to tell Dr Jane what they’re doing to make this a better world.” she says.“They’re influencing their parents and grandparents. Some of their parents may be in government; some of them may be in big corporations.”
Her message， one The Hope conveys clearly， is of the promise of collective action.“Hope depends on our taking action together soon. All of us， every single one of us， we’ve all got to do our bit.”
24.Which of the following may agree with what Jane understands?
A.Humans have family ties with chimps.
B.Viruses spread from humans to animals.
C.Chimps have the culture of their own.
D.Species are easily separated by the covid-19.
25.What is Jane’s attitude towards the youth’s action?
A.Uncaring.
B. Appreciative.
C. Serious.
D. Disappointed.
26.What can be inferred from Jane’s message?
A.She will quit researching on chimps.
B.The young people will achieve her hope.
C.She plans to film the next documentary.
D.More people will join in environmental action.
27.What’s probably the best title for the passage?
A.The Youth Programme
B. Remaining Hopeful
B.Shifting Roles D. A New Documentary
C
After his father was rushed to the hospital， Yanatha Desouvre began to panic. So he did the one thing he knew would calm himself: He wrote. Over the next few weeks， Desouvre filled several notebooks， writing about his worry as well as his happy memories with his dad. “Writing allowed me to face my fear，” says Desouvre，“My pen was a tool to process the pain.”
He is in good company. An extensive body of research shows benefits to writing about a traumatic (创伤) experience in a manner that psychologists refer to as “expressive writing.”James Pennebaker， a psychology professor， says that studies have looked at the potential benefits of expressive writing and found that it can strengthen the immune system， including for people with illnesses such as cancer， depression，and PTSD(创伤后应激障碍). It can also help reduce chronic pain(慢性痛)，and improve mood， sleep， and memory. And it may even help reduce symptoms of depression and PTSD.
Expressive writing works because it allows you to make meaning out of a painful experience， experts say. It can be a powerful coping tool for many， in large part because it helps reduce the secrecy people often feel about a trauma， as well as their reluctance to face emotions. The mere act of labeling a feeling—of putting words to an emotion—can hold back the neural activity in the threat area of the brain. Writing can increase someone’s acceptance of their experience， and acceptance is calming.
Recognizing that something is bothering you is an important first step. Translating that experience into language forces you to organize your thoughts. And creating a narrative gives you a sense of control.
28. Why is Desouvre’s story mentioned in Paragraph 1?
A. To bring up the topic.
B. To make a comparison.
C. To tell readers a real story.
D. To explore the key to writing.
29. What does Paragraph 2 mainly talk about?
A. The results traumatic experience causes.
B. The benefits that expressive writing brings.
C. The symptoms traumatic experience shows.
D. The ways expressive writing strengthens immunity.
30. What can we conclude about expressive writing?
A. It contributes to better writing.
B. It lets us know how people obtain pain.
C. It can help face miserable experience.
D. It has been used widely in the daily life.
31. Where is the passage probably taken from?
A. A text book.
B. A news report.
C. A writing guide.
D. A medical magazine.
D
out of the atmosphere has started
A major new facility to pull CO
2
operating in Iceland, which is a boost to an emerging technology that experts say could eventually play an important role in reducing greenhouse gases.
The plant in southwest Iceland is the biggest of its kind, its builder says. It is able to capture 900 tons of CO
every year but it needs heat
2
and electricity to work. It is using energy produced from waste and is built
on the roof of a waste incineration plant, and through the burning of rubbish, energy is generated.
out Human-sized fans are built into a series of boxes. They take CO
2
of the air, catching it in sponge like filters(过滤器). The filters are blasted with heat freeing the gas, which is then mixed with water and pumped deep into deep underground basalt caves, where over time it turns into
into the ground is just one way to deal with dark-gray stone. Pumping CO
2
can be it. The makers are also selling the gas to be used again. The CO
2 captured just a few 100 miles away. It is pumped through an underground pipe line directly into a greenhouse. Vegetables and plants love CO
and
2 higher concentrations of the gas within the greenhouse improve the growth of plants.
By 2050, humanity will need to pull nearly a billion metric tons of from the atmosphere every year through direct air capture technology CO
2
to achieve carbon neutral(碳中和) goals, according to International Energy Agency recommendations. The plant in Iceland will be able to capture 4,000 metric tons annually—just a small amount of what will be necessary, but one that Clime works, the company that built it, says can grow rapidly as efficiency improves and costs decrease.
32. What does the underlined word “boost” mean in Paragraph 1?
A.Promotion.
B. Advertisement.
C. Decrease.
D. Innovation.
33. What do we know about the new facility ?
A.It uses waste to get power.
B.It is built at high water level.
C.It makes Iceland free of air pollution.
D.It produces lots of heat during operation.
34. What is the main idea of Paragraph 3?
A. The ways of breaking down CO
.
2
B. The approaches to reusing waste gas.
C. The necessity of building greenhouses.
D. The workings of the carbon-catching plant.
35. What can be expected from the direct air capture technology?
A. Decreasing the cost of energy production.
B. The rapid reduction of CO
levels in the air.
2
C. The early realization of the carbon neutral goals.
D. The disappearance of the traditional carbon treatment.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。

选项中有
两项为多余选项。

Some believe dreams may reflect who we actually are, what we often do and what we believe or need. 36
Teeth falling out
37 They can reflect your anxieties about your appearance and how others perceive you. Besides, as teeth are used to bite, tear and chew, dreams about losing your teeth can result from a sense of powerlessness which means you may be experiencing self-confidence issues.
Unable to find a toilet
Having trouble finding a toilet means you may be finding it difficult to express your needs in a certain situation. It can represent feelings of your personal needs not being met by always putting others first. 38 So you want to need more privacy, self-care or self-expression.
Unprepared for an exam
Exam dreams can be so real that we actually wake up convinced we just failed an important test. At least 1 in every 5 people will experience an exam dream in their lives. Exam dreams are a reflection of your lack of
confidence in the future. 39
Being late
Dreaming that you are late represents your worry and anxiety about taking a different direction in your life, or that you are trying to get things done. 40 Your unconscious might be telling you that it is never too late to do things you want in your life.
A.But you feel that you are running out of time.
B.It means insecurity and anxiety about a position.
C.You are unable to advance to the next stage in life.
D.It’s true that dreams can mirror patterns of human behavior.
E.Dreams about this are associated with health problems.
F.Such dreams may stem from a fear of feeling unattractive.
G.You may feel that you’re lacking something for personal issues.
第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填
入空白处的最佳选项。

I was born with no arms. I won’t pretend my life is 41 but through the love of my parents, I have overcome adversity(逆境)and my life is now filled with 42 and purpose. I love seeing people’s 43 changed for the better. It is my hope that your life is 44 affected by my story.
I wasn’t 45 during my entire childhood, but I did have ups and downs. When I was thirteen, I 46 my foot, which I use to do many things like typing, 47 and washing. The injury made me realize that I need to be more
48 for my abilities and less concentrated upon my 49 .
A teacher encouraged me to start 50 about my faith and overcoming
adversity when I was 17. The first time I made a speech, I was very 51 . Within the first three minutes of my talk, half of the girls on the spot were 52 , while most boys were struggling to control their 53 . One girl in particular was sobbing hard. Suddenly she put her 54 up, saying, “I was so sorry to 55 , but can I come up and hug you?”
She came and 56 me before everyone, and 57 in my ear, “Thank you. No one has ever told me that they loved me and that I am beautiful the way I am.”
Her gratitude 58 me to go across 44 countries and speak 2,000 times.
I realized that we all need love and hope. Then, I was in a unique position to 59 this view with people around the world.
Whoever you are, I hope you will be inspired by my story and my 60 : Dream big, my friend, and never give up!
41. A. hard B. tiring C. easy D. important
42. A. love B. challenge C. energy D. hardship
43. A. quality B. life C. experience D. activity
44. A. differently B. positively C. generally D. hardly
45.A. depressed B. impressed C. excited D. lonely
46. A. witnessed B. destroyed C. weakened D. hurt
47. A. sleeping B. sailing C. writing D. climbing
48. A. responsible B. ready C. thankful D. suitable
49. A. disabilities B. hobbies C. difficulties D. features
50. A. complaining B. worrying C. memorizing D. speaking
51. A. wild B. sensitive C. exhausted D. nervous
52. A. smiling B. crying C. sighing D. shouting
53. A. sadness B. thought C. emotion D. passion
54. A. face B. hand C. book D. note
55. A. interrupt B. conclude C. explain D. entertain
56. A. followed B. seized C. hugged D. pushed
57. A. screamed B. informed C. slapped D. whispered
58. A. expected B. inspired C. intended D. allowed
59. A. relate B. connect C. debate D. share
60. A. message B. role C. report D. ability
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

A giant panda-themed museum offering visitors a 61 (true) interactive experience opened to the public in Chengdu, the capital city of Sichuan Province on March 3rd, 2021.
62 (surround) by huge touch screens and well-designed setting, the Chengdu Giant Panda Museum provides an immersive experience. Meanwhile, it 63 (present) various interesting facts about the precious species of giant pandas. Those include their history, habits, and the measures China has taken to protect 64 (they).
The museum covers 65 area of 7,179 square meters with seven exhibit s e c t i o n s. It is several years since the museum 66 (build). Visitors can access various information about giant pandas by 67 (press) on the screen and being guided by an animated panda. Scenarios (情境) reproducing pre-historic environments explain the reasons 68 giant pandas first emerged in the place.
The museum aims to increase the general public’s understanding of giant p a n d a s69o t h e r wild animals. Moreover, it raises public 70 (aware) of the ecological environment animal protection.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。

文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。

每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Our school is organizing an English essay competition, which theme is “Good habits and success”. The essay must be focused in good habits and where they lead to our success. We are expected to support our views with detailed experiences or story. Those will make our essay very more readable and convincing. However, the essay (500 words at the most) should sent to essaycontest@ before November 13, 2021. The top three winners will s e p a r a t e r e c e i v e a 500 yuan, 750 yuan or 1,000 yuan scholarship. Why not to pick up a pen and share our most touched moment with others?
第二节书面表达（满分25分）
第31届世界大学生夏季运动会将于2022年6月在成都举办，组委会将向全国招募懂英语的志愿者。

假定你是新华中学的学生李华，根据以下要点，用英文写一封信，申请做志愿者：
1. 写信目的；
2. 个人优势；
3. 表达期望。

注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

3. 参考词汇：第31届世界大学生运动会：The 31st Summer Universiade Dear Sir/Madam,
Yours,
Li Hua
绝密★启用前
四川省宜宾市普通高中
2022届高三毕业班上学期第一次高考诊断性测试
英语试题参考答案
2021年11月第一部分（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5CAACB
6-10 ABCAB
11-15CCCAB
16-20 ABCAB
第二部分（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
21-25 DBACB
26-30 DBABC
31-35 DAADC
36-40 DFGCA
第三部分（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
41-45. CABBA
46-50. DCCAD
51-55. DBCBA
56-60. CDBDA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
61. truly62. Surrounded 63. presents64. them65. an
66. was built67. pressing68. why69. and70. awareness
第四部分
第一节短文改错（共10小题; 每小题1分，满分10分）
Our school is organizing an English essay competition, which theme is “Good h a b i t s a n d
whose
success”. The essay must be focused in good habits and where they lead to our success. W e a r e
on/upon how
expected to support our views with detailed experiences or story. Those will make our e s s a y v e r y
stories
much/still或very
more readable and convincing. However, the essay (500 words at the most) should ∧s e n t t o
Besides
be
essaycontest@ before November 13, 2021. The top three winners will separate r e c e i v e
separately
o u r m o s t
touched moment with others?
touching
第二节书面表达（满分25分）
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按5档次给分。

2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。

3. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法的准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。

4. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考试。

5. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。

二、内容要点：
1.写信的目的；
2.个人优势；
3.表达期盼。

三、要点认定：
1. 考生必须有较完整的句子表达出要点。

如只有关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为要点写出。

2. 围绕要点的发挥，如有语言错误，则扣语言分。

四、为了操作方便，按表达要点的多少和使用语言的情况，划分为五个档次，列表说明如下：
1. 原则上应按照考生所表达的要点数归档。

如语言错误多，可降一档，如语
言表达较好，可打该档最高分或上升一档。

2. 在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定五个分值。

1—2个错误，取该档次分值的高线（如一档中的24-25分）；3个错误，取该档次分值的中线（如一档中的23分）；4个错误，取该档次分值的低线（如一档中的21-22）；5个错误降一档（如二档中的20分）。

以此类推。

录音原文
(Text 1)
M: I don’t think we can find a better hotel around here at this time.
W: Let’s walk a little further to see if there is another one. It’s too noisy here.
(Text 2)
M: Did you win the tennis competition last weekend?
W: I didn’t win，because I missed a lot of balls. I should have hit the ball harder. My friend Ruth played better than me.
(Text 3)
W: Oh，there are long queues at the checkouts. What is in your shopping basket，Chris?
M: Um … a loaf of bread and two packets of crisps. I’m always hungry after school，so I get some snacks on my way home.
(Text 4)
W: There are Hannah’s old baby clothes. I haven’t got the heart to put them in the bin，and I can’t imagine anyone wanting to buy them. Can you?
M: Why don’t you take them round to Marina’s? She knows lots of young mothers. (Text 5)
M: Hello，it’s about the book I bought in your shop last week. There were one or two pages missing.
W: Sorry!
M: There’s no need to apologize. I just thought you ought to know so you can check the rest of your stock，or talk to the publisher or something. That’s OK.
(Text 6)
W: Family Cinema. How can I help you?
M: Well，I’d like some information about the new film Shark 2.
W: OK. It’ll be shown at 11:15 am this Saturday in Hall One. It is an animated fairytale.
M: Anything else on that day?
W: In Hall Two，we have an award-winning science documentary named The Long Journey. It’ll start at 6:15 pm. In Hall Three，by popular demand，Jack Smith’s Happy Ending starts at 5:30 pm with a repeat performance at 9:15 pm. This is Jack Smith at his best in a classic action film.
(Text 7)
W: Can you just explain what Broken Spoke does?
M: Well，we do three things: we run a training course on how to ride bikes. We also sell bicycle parts and we have drop-in workshops where we help people repair their own bikes with our tools. We get about 80% income from the last activity.
W: Is this a model that you can repeat?
M: Yes. There are some similar projects in France，the USA and around the world. The problem for us here in Oxford is that renting a workshop is so expensive. (Text 8)
W: The summer is getting close. I want to encourage my son Jim to read more this summer. Jack，do you know any good summer reading programs for children? M: Yes. The program Barnes & Noble Summer Reading for Kids is very good. This program begins at the beginning of May and runs for four and a half months.
W: How does it encourage children to read?
M: Well，children can earn a free book after they read eight books and log them on the downloadable reading journal. But the choice must be made from the selected books available at the store.
W: Can any children join in the reading program?
M: No. It is only available to students in grades 1 to 6.
W: That’s bad. Jim is already in the seventh grade.
M: Then try the Books-A-Million summer reading program. Children in middle school can also join in this reading program.
(Text 9)
W: Hello，Richard. Nice to meet you.
M: Hi，Barbara. Haven’t seen you for ages.
W: I’ve just come back from Canada. I was helping in a research programme. I stayed in a town near Toronto for two months.
M: Oh，how nice! Did your programme go smoothly?
W: Yes. And I’m going back in March to continue.
M: Did you enjoy your stay in Canada?
W: Oh，yes. They were very nice people. I mean，the people I worked with are very friendly and very helpful!
M: Did you travel a lot there?
W: No，we were very busy，trying to finish the first part before Christmas. But my friends took me to quite a few parties，and I will never forget the big meal on Thanksgiving Day and the fun we had on Boxing Day.
M: What?
W: Boxing Day，the day following Christmas Day.
M: You certainly learned a lot there.
(Text 10) My office is full of fit，slim people. When my colleagues worked out at the gym，I stayed in and read. Instead of reading adventure novels，I would go for science fiction. Nowadays，I also pretend to like classic fiction.
Last month，my mum came into my room with a Nintendo box under one arm and a hopeful smile on her face. She asked me to play sports on Wii Fit. Two days later，I found myself in my living room，trying to decide which sport to play--virtual tennis，boxing or baseball--all sports I've never played in real life.
Finally，I selected tennis--after all，my mum plays it on her own Wii Fit，so how hard can it be? My flatmate refused to play with me，so I played on my own. Twenty minutes later，I was tired. As I slowly regained my strength，I found that I wanted to play again! I've now had Wii Fit for three months，and I play at least five times a week. My friend Leo was so amazed that he almost fell off the sofa when I told him I was playing games on Wii Fit. Now I'm fitter and healthier.
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