四级预测试卷(第一套)试题及答案解析

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四级预测试卷(第⼀套)试题及答案解析
四级预测试卷(第⼀套)
Part I Writing (30 minutes) Directions: For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to write a short essay based on the picture below. You should start your essay with a brief account of parents’ trying to meet all the
demands from their children and then explain the harm by doing so. You should write at
least 120 words but no more than 180 words.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________
Part II Listening Comprehension (30 minutes) Section A
Directions: In this section, you will hear 8 short conversations and 2 long conversations. At the end of each conversation, one or more questions will be asked about what was said. Both the conversation and
the questions will be spoken only once. After each question there will be a pause. During the pause,
you must read the four choices marked A), B), C) and D), and decide which is the best answer. Then
mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.
1. A) It’s tedious. C) It’s justifiable.
B) It’s absurd. D) It’s understandable.
2. A) Jazz. C) Classical music.
B) Rock and roll. D) Country music.
3. A) She was afraid of the professor.
B) She lost her key and couldn’t enter her house.
C) She didn’t make full preparations for her lessons.
D) She was blamed by the professor for her carelessness.
4. A) She is a little tired. C) She wants to listen to the music.
B) She is going to study in the library. D) She is going to make a reservation.
5. A) Not to wait for him. C) To get her report back.
B) To clean up her room. D) Not to fetch the raincoat.
6. A) Two. B) Four. C) Eight. D) Twelve.
7. A) He is a rather tedious person. C) He doesn’t have a healthy diet.
B) He has just left the hospital. D) He is a better cook than the woman.
8. A) The train is late. C) The train is crowded.
B) The train is empty. D) The train is on time.
Questions 9 to 12 are based on the conversation you have just heard.
9. A) Get a traveler’s check. C) Ask the man for financial advice.
B) Draw a large amount of money. D) Open some bank accounts.
10. A) Daily expenses. C) Holidays and travel expenses.
B) Big expenses. D) Education fee.
11. A) Her ID card and passport. C) Her social security number.
B) Her personal references. D) Her cover letter.
12. A) A salesman. C) A bank clerk.
B) A real estate agent. D) A consultant.
Questions 13 to 15 are based on the conversation you have just heard.
13. A) A recording artist. C) A student.
B) A French teacher. D) A teaching assistant.
14. A) It needs more French lesson tapes.
B) It needs to have its controls repaired.
C) It is different from all the other laboratories.
D) It can be operated rather easily.
15. A) Change her class schedule. C) Organise tapes on the shelves.
B) Fill out a job application form. D) Work on the French lessons.
Section B
Directions: In this section, you will hear 3 short passages. At the end of each passage, you will hear some questions. Both the passage and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must
choose the best answer from the four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Then mark the corresponding
letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.
Passage One
Questions 16 to 19 are based on the passage you have just heard.
16. A) She had run a long way. C) She had done a lot of work.
B) She felt hot in the subway. D) She had donated blood the night before.
17. A) By lifting her to the platform. C) By pulling her along the ground.
B) By helping her rise to her feet. D) By dragging her away from the edge.
18. A) When the train was leaving.
B) After she was back on the platform.
C) After the police and fire officials came.
D) When a man was cleaning the blood from her head.
19. A) They would miss their train. C) She was sure Lisa was hard to lift.
B) He didn’t see the train coming.D) She was afraid the train would kill him.
Passage Two
Questions 20 to 22 are based on the passage you have just heard.
20. A) In Suva. C) On the island of Vatoa.
B) In Sydney. D) On the island of Viti Levu.
21. A) Its comfortable hotels. C) Its exciting football matches.
B) Its good weather all year round. D) Its religious beliefs.
22. A) They invented “Fiji time” for visitors.
B) They stick to a traditional way of life.
C) They like to travel from place to place.
D) They love taking adventures abroad.
Passage Three
Questions 23 to 25 are based on the passage you have just heard.
23. A) Staying on the farm. C) Moving to the countryside.
B) Leaving home for the city. D) Running away from the school.
24. A) He is very old now. C) He lives in the city now.
B) He is in good health. D) He prefers driving a car.
25. A) Describe his life in the countryside. C) Show an interest in the outside world.
B) Persuade people to live in the city. D) Express his opinions about way of life.
Section C
Directions: In this section, you will hear a passage three times. When the passage is read for the first time, you should listen carefully for its general idea. When the passage is read for the second time, you are
required to fill in the blanks with the exact words you have just heard. Finally, when the passage is read
for the third time, you should check what you have written.
Thirty years ago, anyone blaming loneliness for physical illness would have been laughed at. But as scientists
studied different populations, loneliness kept emerging as a risk factor. In one study, California researchers 26. ________ 4, 700 residents of Alameda County for ten years, starting in 1965. At first, the participants reported their key sources of companionship and estimated the time they 27. ________ each other. During the study, the people who reported the least social 28. ________ died at nearly three times the rate of those reporting the most. The source of companionship didn’t matter, but time spent with others was 29. ________. Since then, researchers have studied men, women, soldiers, and students from countries all over the world. And the same pattern keeps 30. ________. Women who say they feel isolated go on to die of cancer at several times the 31. ________ rate. College students who report “strained and cold” relationships with their parents suffer 32. ________ rates of hypertension (⾼⾎压) and heart disease decades later. Heart-attack survivors who happen to live by themselves die at twice the rate of those who live with others. For those of us who are still healthy, the lesson should be obvious. It’s clear that 33. ________ others can help our bodies thrive. It’s equally clear that we’re growing more isolated. In 1900, only 5% of US households 34. ________ one person living alone. The 35. ________ reached 13% in 1960, and it stands at 25% today.
Part III Reading Comprehension (40 minutes) Section A
Directions: In this section, there is a passage with ten blanks. You are required to select one word for each blank from a list of choices given in a word bank following the passage. Read the passage through carefully
before making your choices. Each choice in the bank is identified by a letter. Please mark the
corresponding letter for each item on Answer Sheet 2 with a single line through the centre. You may
not use any of the words in the bank more than once.
Questions 36 to 45 are based on the following passage.
Managers need to find ways to give their employees a lift to improve their morale(⼠⽓). That’s where team-building exercises and other spiritual encouragement can come into 36 . The theory is that a trust-building game, a wilderness adventure, a cooking class or even full-contact chocolate bingo (宾果游戏) — yes, it exists —will help 37 teamwork, bring cheer and thus encourage everyone to work harder and better together.
Yes, promoting teamwork is 38 . Getting everyone together for a shared activity can improve team spirit. But, too often, formal team-building programs 39 only minor, short-lived improvements in encouragement or performance.
Still, employers do need to support teamwork, 40 in bad climate. The 41 news is that what works is often fairly simple and inexpensive. The key to improving morale, several experts said, is understanding what 42 to your workers.
Curbing executive perks(津贴) and salaries can also go a long way toward building morale, according to Professor Kets de Vries. It is 43 unlikely that workers of car factories got much of a lift watching their industry’s top executives take private jets to Washington in November to ask for financial aid. “If you get paid 500 times what the 44 worker is paid, that is ridiculous,”Professor Kets de Vries said. “Don’t be 45 . Great organizations are team-based.”
Section B
Directions: In this section, you are going to read a passage with ten statements attached to it. Each statement contains information given in one of the paragraphs. Identify the paragraph from which the information
is derived. You may choose a paragraph more than once. Each paragraph is marked with a letter.
Answer the questions by marking the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 2.
Shirley Temple: A walk on the bright side
A) There had to be a dark side to Shir ley Temple’s life. Biographers and interviewers scrabbled around to find it. The
adorable dancing, singing, curly-haired moppet (⼩⼥孩), the world’s top-earning star from 1935 to 1938, surely shed tears once the cameras were off. Her little feet surely ached. Perhaps, like the heroine of “Curly Top”, she was marched upstairs to bed afterwards by some thin-lipped harridan (恶妇), and the lights turned resolutely off.
B) Not a bit of it. She loved it all, both then and years later, when the cuteness had gone but the dimples (酒窝)
remained. Hadn’t her mother pushed her into it? No, just encouraged her, and wrapped her round with affection, including fixing her 56 ringlets every night and gently making her repeat her next day’s lines until sleep crept up on her. Hadn’t she been punished cruelly while making her “Baby Burlesks”, when she was three? Well, she had been sent several times to the punishment box, which was dark and had only a block of ice to sit on. But that taught her discipline so that, by the age of four, she would “always hit the mark”— and, by the age of six, be able to match the great Bill “Bojangles” Robinson tap-for-tap down the grand staircase in “The Little Colonel”. C) To some it seemed a stolen childhood, with eight feature films to her name in 1934, her breakthrough year, alone.
Not to her, when Twentieth-Century Fox (born out of struggling Fox Studios that year on her glittering name alone) built her a little bungalow (平房) on the lot, with a rabbit pen and a swing in a tree. She had a bodyguard and a secretary, who by 1934 had to answer 4,000 fan-letters a week. But whenever she wanted to be a tomboy, she was. In the presidential garden at Hyde Park she hit Eleanor Roosevelt on the bottom with her catapult (弹⼸), for which her father spanked her.
D) The studios were full of friends: Orson Welles, with whom she played croquet, Gary Cooper, who did colouring
with her, and the kind camera crews. She loved the strong hands that passed her round like a mascot (吉祥物), and the soft laps on which she was p lumped down (J. Edgar Hoover’s being the softest). The miniature (微型) costumes thrilled her, especially her sailor outfit in “Captain January”, in which she could sashay (神⽓活现地⾛) and jump even better; as did her miniature Oscar in 1935, the only one ever awarded to somebody so young.
Grouchy Graham Greene mocked her as “a complete totsy”, but no one watching her five different expressions while eating a forkful of spinach in “Poor Little Rich Girl” doubted that she could act. She did pathos and fierce determination (jutting out that
little chin!), just as well as she did smiles.
E) Her face was on the Wheaties box. It was also on the special Wheaties blue bowl and pitcher, greeting people at
breakfast like a ray of morning sunshine. Advertisers adored her, from General Electric to Lux soap to Packard cars. After “Stand up and Cheer!” in 1934 dolls appeared wearing her polka-dot dress, and after “Bright Eyes”
the music for “The Good Ship Lollipop” was on every piano, as well as everyone’s brains: “Where bon-bons play/ On the sunny beach of Peppermint Bay.”
F) Her parents did not tell her there was a Depression on. They mentioned only good things to her. Franklin
Roosevelt declared more than once that “America’s Little Darling” made the country feel better, and that pleased her, because she loved to make people happy. She had no idea why they should be otherwise. Her films were all about the sweet child bringing grown-ups back together, emptying misers’ pockets and melting frozen hearts.
Like the dog star Rin Tin Tin, to whom she cheerfully compared herself, she was the bounding, unwitting antidote (抵消不愉快事物的事物) to the bleakness of the times.
A toss of curls
G) She was as vague about money as any child would, and should, be. Her earnings by 1935 were more than $1,000
(now $17,000) a week—from which she was allowed about $13 a month in pocket money—and by the end of her career had sailed past $3m (now $29m). But when she found out later that her father had taken bad financial advice, and that only $44,000 was left in the trusts, she did not blame him. She remembered the motto about spilt milk, and got on with her life.
H) Things appeared to dive sharply after 1939, when her teenage face—the darker, straighter hair, the troubled
look—failed to be a box-office draw. She missed the lead in “The Wizard of Oz”, too. She shrugged it off; it meant she could go to a proper school for the first time, at Westlake, which was just as exciting as making movies. By 1950 she had stopped making films altogether; well, it was time. She couldn’t do innocence any more, and that was what the world still wanted. Her first husband was a drunk and a disaster, but the marriage brought her “something beautiful”, her daughter Susan. The second marriage, anyway, lasted 55 years. She lost a race for Congress in 1967: but when that door closed another opened, as an ambassador to Ghana and Czechoslovakia. Breast cancer was a low point, but she learned to cope with it, and helped others to cope. “I don’t like to do negatives,” she told Michael Parkinson. “There are always pluses to things.”
I) In the films, her sparkling eyes and chubby (胖乎乎的) open arms included everyone; one toss of her shiny curls
was an invitation to fun. Her trademark was, it turned out, that rare thing in the world, and rarer still in Hollywood: a genuine smile of delight.
46. Making movies didn’t deprive Shirley Tem ple of a happy childhood.
47. Shirley Temple didn’t blame her father for the huge loss of money she earned.
48. Franklin Roosevelt said Shirley Temple helped the US through the Depression.
49. After a failed marriage, Shirley Temple had a successful second marriage that lasted 55 years.
50. Many companies chose young Shirley Temple as their advertising spokesperson.
51. From 1935 to 1938, Shirley Temple was the highest-earning movie star in the world.
52. A genuine smile of light is a distinctive characteristic of Shirley Temple.
53. Shirley Temple was the only child star who was given a miniature Oscar.
54. Three-year-old Shirley Temple learned to control her behaviour after being punished several times.
55. Shirley Temple tried to stay positive while overcoming breast cancer.
Section C
Directions: There are 2 passages in this section. Each passage is followed by some questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A), B), C) and D). You should decide on the
best choice and mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 2 with a single line through the centre.
Passage One
Questions 56 to 60 are based on the following passage.
We know that some people are dealt a genetically more difficult hand when it comes to obesity, as studies have shown that genes play a role in how we process high-fat and high-sugar diets. Now it’s time to cross fried foods off that list, if you haven’t already.
Of course, fried food isn’t good for anyone’s health. But a new study published in the journal BMJ found that eating fried food interacts with genes associated with obesity and can double one’s risk for becoming obese.
The researchers studied 37,000 men and women, and had them fill out questionnaires that asked how often they consumed fr ied food. They also assessed the participants’ genetic risk based on 32 different gene variants known to be related to body mass index (BMI) and obesity. Participants who had the highest genetic score for obesity and ate fried foods four or more times a week had a BMI around two pounds greater than those who ate fried foods once a week. But for people with the lowest genetic scores, the differences were closer to one pound. Eating fried food more than four times a week had twice the effect on the body for people at the greatest genetic risk for obesity.
But not being genetically predisposed (预先有倾向的) to obesity hardly makes one immune. Another recent study published in BMJ reports that people who are exposed to a lot of takeaway restaurants around their homes or work are more likely to consume those foods, and subsequently more likely to be obese. Other research has shown that food deserts — places where fresh food is hard to come by — contribute to the obesity epidemic as well.
“This work provides formal proof of interaction between a combined genetic risk score and environment in obesity,” Ale xandra Blakemore and Dr. Jessica Buxton, professors at Imperial College London wrote in a corresponding editorial. But they’re not exactly hopeful that this knowledge will made a difference. The results “are unlikely to influence public health advice,” they write, “since most of us should be eating fried food more sparingly anyway.”
56. What does the author mean by saying “some people are dealt a genetically more difficult hand when it comes to obesity”?
A) Some people genetically like high-fat diets.
B) Genes play a role in obesity.
C) Genes affect the digestive system.
D) Some people feel difficult to become obese.
57. What do we know about the study published in the journal BMJ?
A) It discovered 32 different gene variants related to body mass index.
B) The participants studied by the researchers have high genetic risk for obesity.
C) It showed the higher genetic risk for obesity people have, the more fried food they consume.
D) It studied the relationship between fried food and people’s genetic risk for obesity.
58. Which of the following statement is true according to the passage?
A) It is much more harmful for people at the greatest genetic risk for obesity to eat fried foods than others.
B) Those who are not genetically predisposed to obesity would have no harm to eat fried foods.
C) The purpose of the study published in the journal BMJ is to find out how often people consume fried foods.
D) People in draught and desert areas are more likely to consume fried foods.
59. Which of the following is the factor that would lead to obesity?
A) A lack of fried foods. C) Availability of fresh food.
B) Genetic risk for obesity. D) Body mass index.
60. What do Alexandra Blakemore and Dr. Jessica Buxton think about the studies’ findings?
A) They are ridiculous. C) They have little influence.
B) They are subjective. D) They are big breakthroughs.
Passage Two
Questions 61 to 65 are based on the following passage.
Wild elephants can distinguish between human languages, and they can tell whether a voice comes from a man, woman or boy, a new study says. That’s what researchers found when they played recordings of people for elephants in Kenya. Scientists say this is an advanced thinking skill that other animals haven’t shown. It lets elephants figure out who is a threat and who isn’t.
The result shows that while humans are studying elephants, the clever animals are also studying people and drawing on their famed powers of memory, said study author Karen McComb.
“Basically they have developed this very rich knowledge of the humans that they share their habitat with,” said McComb, a professor of animal behaviour and cognition at the University of Sussex in England. “Memory is key. They must build up that knowledge s omehow.”
The study was released Monday in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences.
It’s close but not quite like the Dr. Seuss book, where the empathetic elephant Horton hears so mething that others can’t hear.
McComb and colleagues went to Amboseli National Park in Kenya, where hundreds of wild elephants live among humans, sometimes coming in conflict over scarce water. The scientists used voice recordings of Maasai men, who on occasion kill elephants in confrontations over grazing for cattle, and Kamba men, who are less of a threat to the elephants.
By about a two-to-one margin, the elephants reacted defensively — retreating and gathering in a bunch — more to the Maasai language recording because it was associated with the more threatening human tribe, said study co-author Graeme Shannon of Colour ado State University. “They are making such a fine-level discrimination using
human language skills,” Shannon said. “They’re able to acquire quite detailed knowledge. The only way of doing this is with an exceptionally large brain.”
They repeated the experiment with recordings of Maasai men and women. Since women almost never spear elephants, the animals reacted less to the women’s voices. The same thing happened when they substituted young boys’ voices.“Making this kind of fine distinctions in human voice patterns is quite remarkable,” said Emory University animal cognition expert Frans de Waal, who was not part of the study.
61. What can we know about the ability to distinguish between human languages?
A) Scientists believe it is unique to humans.
B) Animals have learnt such ability from humans.
C) No animal except wild elephants have developed it.
D) Studies show that wild animals are born with such ability.
62. Which of the following is not true about the study mentioned in the passage?
A) It shows wild elephants can hear something that others can’t hear.
B) It was conducted in Amboseli National Park in Kenya.
C) It involved playing recordings of people for wild elephants.
D) It was made public in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences.
63. Who were the people taking part in the study?
A) Frans de Waal and Karen McComb. C) Dr. Seuss and Graeme Shannon.
B) Graeme Shannon and Frans de Waal. D) Karen McComb and Graeme Shannon.
64. How did the elephants feel of young boys’ voices?
A) They are extremely exciting. C) They are less threatening.
B) They are very depressing. D) They are gentle and kind.
65. What can wild elephants benefit from their special ability?
A) Identifying and avoiding possible danger.
B) Evolving much faster than any other animals.
C) Having a better understanding of humans.
D) Developing their language skills.
Part IV Translation (30 minutes)
Directions: For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to translate a passage from Chinese into English. You should write your answer on Answer Sheet 2.
莫⾔是第⼀位获得诺贝尔⽂学奖的中国籍作家。

他⽣于1955年2⽉17⽇,在改⾰开放时期开始⼩说写作⽣涯,出版了许多短篇故事和长篇⼩说。

他因⼩说《红⾼粱家族》(Red Sorghum Clan)为西⽅读者所熟知,该书已被译成20多种⽂字。

莫⾔在国际社会获得了⼴泛的赞誉。

美国的《时代》(Time)杂志这样评价莫⾔:中国最著名的作家之⼀,他的作品经常被禁⽌出版,但⼜被⼴泛地盗印(pirate)。

四级预测试卷(第⼀套)
答案解析
Part I Writing
Part II Listening Comprehension
Section A ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4.【预测】选项中重复出现的she is going to以及C)中的she wants表明,本题考查⼥⼠将要做的事,⼥⼠的话为听⾳重点。

5.【预测】选项均以“not to / to + do”开头并且动作的施动者为her表明,本题可能考查男⼠对⼥⼠的建议,
6.【预测】选项均为数字信息,录⾳中⼀般听到⼀个以上的数字,做笔记并听到的数字简单加减乘除是解题
8.【预测】选项均以the train开头及其中的late,empty和crowded表明,本题考查⽕车的情况。

Now you will hear the two long conversations.
Conversation One
Conversation Two
Section B ……………………………………………………………………………………………….. Passage One
Passage Two
Passage Three。

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