CFA一级内容_CFA历年考试模拟题(一)

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cfa一级考试模拟试题及答案

cfa一级考试模拟试题及答案

cfa一级考试模拟试题及答案CFA一级考试模拟试题及答案1. 以下哪项不是金融市场的基本功能?A. 资源配置B. 风险管理C. 价格发现D. 娱乐消遣答案:D2. 在CFA考试中,以下哪项不属于投资组合管理的三个主要步骤?A. 资产配置B. 证券选择C. 风险管理D. 市场预测答案:D3. 根据现代投资组合理论,以下哪项是影响投资组合预期收益的唯一因素?A. 无风险利率B. 市场风险溢价C. 投资组合的贝塔系数D. 投资组合的波动性答案:C4. 在评估固定收益证券时,以下哪项不是影响债券价格的主要因素?A. 利率水平B. 信用评级C. 债券的到期时间D. 股票市场的波动性答案:D5. 以下哪项不是有效市场假说(EMH)的三种形式之一?A. 弱式有效市场B. 半强式有效市场C. 强式有效市场D. 超级有效市场答案:D6. 在计算股票的自由现金流至企业(FCFF)时,以下哪项不应从营业利润中扣除?A. 折旧和摊销B. 营运资本的变动C. 资本支出D. 净债务的变动答案:C7. 下列关于财务报表分析的说法中,哪项是不正确的?A. 横向分析可以帮助识别趋势B. 纵向分析可以揭示财务比率的变化C. 比率分析可以用于评估公司的财务状况D. 现金流量表是评估公司盈利质量的唯一工具答案:D8. 在评估一个公司的财务健康状况时,以下哪项财务比率不是流动性比率?A. 流动比率B. 速动比率C. 利息保障倍数D. 现金比率答案:C9. 在国际投资中,以下哪项不是影响汇率变动的主要因素?A. 贸易平衡B. 利率差异C. 政治稳定性D. 黄金价格答案:D10. 在CFA考试中,以下哪项不是宏观经济分析的组成部分?A. 经济增长B. 通货膨胀C. 货币政策D. 公司治理答案:D请注意,以上提供的模拟试题及答案仅供参考,实际CFA一级考试的题目和内容可能会有所不同。

考生应以官方提供的教材和学习资料为准备考试的主要依据。

(完整版)CFA一级模考试题及答案.doc

(完整版)CFA一级模考试题及答案.doc

ANSWERS FOR MOCK EXAM 1 (MORNING SESSION)1. D.Although Terence has passed Level III, he has not yet received his charter andcannot use the CFA designation. The description provided in the cover letterproperly describes his situation.2. C.Amy must take both actions-notifying her immediate supervisor and delivering acopy of the Code and Standards.3. D.4. C.Members may undertake an independent practice that could result in compensationor other benefit in competition with their employer provided they obtain writtenconsent from both their employer and the party for whom they undertakeindependent practice.5. C.To maintain his objectivity, Keith should pay his own hotel bill. Because the itineraryrequired charter flights due to a lack of commercial transportation, A& K Limited can appropriately provide them.6. C. Under ERISA, fiduciaries must act solely in the interest of, and for the exclusivepurpose of benefiting, the plan participants and beneficiaries.7. B. Daniel must give priority to transactions for clients and employers over transactionsfor his children.8. A.To avoid violating the standards, members cannot trade until the member's clients andemployers have had an adequate opportunity to act on the recommendation.9. C.The requirements of Standard IV (B.5) are not intended to prevent Lambert fromcooperating with an investigation by AIMR's Professional Conduct Program.10. B.Vivian should disclose to her clients and prospects her husband's holdings in DoubleLimited because this matter could be expected to impair her ability to makeunbiased and objective recommendations.11. B.12. B.Accruals accounting is required.13. C.Standard I(B) Fundamental Responsibilities. Prohibition against participating orassisting in illegal and ethical violations. If Roberts suspects someone isplanning or engaging in illegal activities, he should: (1) determine the legalityof the activities, (2) disassociate himself from the illegal or unethical activity, and(3) urge his firm to attempt to persuade the perpetrator to stop. The AIMRStandards of Professional Conduct do not require that Roberts report suchactivities to the authorities, but the law might.14. C.Standard III(C) Disclosure of Conflicts to Employer. Gloria should disclose to heremployer all matters that could reasonably be expected to interfere with herability to make unbiased and objective recommendations. Her service as atrustee of the Well Limited Foundation for Heart Research is most likely to beconsidered a conflict of interest with her responsibility to her employer.15. C.Standard III (E) Responsibilities of Supervisors. Paul may delegate supervisory duties,but such delegation does not relieve him of his supervisory responsibility.16. A.Standard IV (B.3) Fair Dealing. Johnson violated the standard on fair dealingbecause he did not deal fairly and objectively with all clients and prospectswhen disseminating investment recommendations. Instead, he showedfavoritism to his best clients. In disseminating investment recommendations,Johnson should consider making the information available to clients based ontheir interest and suitability. A change of recommendation from buy to sell or sellto buy is generally material.17. D.Standard IV(B.5) Preservation of Confidentiality. Choice B is false because thisAnswers for Mock Exam 1 (Morning Session) (Rev. 1) 1standard prohibits members from executing settlement agreements that preventmembers from providing information in an investigation by AIMR's ProfessionalConduct Program (PCP). Choice C is false because a person cannot withholdinformation during PCP investigations. Choice A is false because if a memberreceives information due to his or her special relationship with the clientindicating illegal behavior on the past of the client, the member may not have anobligation to inform the appropriate authorities.18. A.Standard IV(B.6) Prohibition against Misrepresentation. Members are not permitted tomake any assurances or guarantees about any investment, except tocommunicate accurate information. The statement that investment grade bondshave less default risk than junk bonds is an accurate statement.19. e BGN node: n = 10; i = 12 PMT = 1,000, compute FV = 19.654.5820. B.The present value of a perpetuity is PV = A/r = 500/0.1 = $5,000.21. B.i = 6/12 = 0.5; n = 10x12 = 120; PV = 40,000 Compute PMT22. A.23. A.A binomial random variable has an expected value or mean equal to np andvariance equal to np(1-p).Mean = 12(0.5) = 6; variance (12)(0.5)(1-0.5) = 324. D.25. B.Rbt-1 = In St+1 /St = (1+RL1-1) = In (40/25) = 0.47. Thus, 47% is thecontinuously computed return for the one-year holding period.26. B.Choice A describes cross-sectional data.Choice B describes time-series data.27. D.The dependent variable, Y, is equal to the intercept, b0, plus a slope coefficient, b1,times the independent, X, plus an error term, ε.28. C.I N FV Compute PV10 1 100 90.9110 2 150 123.9710 3 200 150.2610 4 250 170.75Total 535.8929. B.Step 1: Solve for the PV of the 5 payments of 3,000 to be received in years 3through 7.n = 5; i = 10; PMT = 3,000; compute PV =11,372.3611,372.36 falls one year before the first payment, or in year 2.Step 2: Find the present value of 11,372.36 that is two years in the future. n= 2; i = 10; FV =11,372.36; compute PV =9,398.64 or 9,399(rounded).30. D.From weakest to strongest, the ordering of measurements scales is nominal, ordinal,interval, and ratio.31. B.An interval is a set of return values within which an observation not falls.32. C.Step 1. Calculate the mean monthly return = 2% + (- 4%) + 1% + 5% = 4%M = 1%Step 2.Calculate the population standard deviation:([(2% - 1%) 2 + (-4% -1%) 2 +(1% - 1%) 2 +(5% -1%)2 ]N)1/ 2=3.24%Step 3. Calculate the sample standard deviation: ([(2% - 1%)2 + (-4% -1%) 2+ (1% - 1%) 2+ (5% - l%) 2 ])/n - 1) 1/ 2 = 3. 74%33. B.According to Chebyshev's inequality, the proportion of the observations within 2,which is k, standard deviations of the mean is at least 1 -(l/k) 2 = 1-(1/2 2) =0.75 or 75%.34. A.The probability is 30/200 = 0.15.35. ing the addition rule for probabilities, P (analyst or positive) =P(analyst) +Answers for Mock Exam 1 (Morning Session) (Rev. 1) 2P(positive) - P(analyst and positive)P (A or positive) = 130/200 + 140/200 - (100/130) = 0.58 or 58%36. B.Savings increases to hold interest rates constant. This means aggregate demandchanges little.37. C.The empirical evidence on the relationship between budget deficits and interest ratesis mixed.Few studies show a significant positive short-term link between budgetdeficits and real interest rates.38. B.Expansion = 1 / reserve requirement = 1/0.25 = 4(4)(150) = 60039. C.People realize this leads to inflation in the long run, so they reduce their moneyholdings. Output rises because the increase is unexpected.40. C.In purely competitive markets, there are a large number of dependent firms.41. D.42. D.43. C.44. C.45. D.Choice A: Accrual accounting does not require the receipt of cash for assurance ofpayment to exist.Choice C and D: These relate only to the condition of completion of theearnings process.46. D.47.ADemand for currency decreases when real interest rates decrease because ofdecreased capital flows.48.CForeign exchange quotations can be expressed on a direct basis -the home currencyprice of another currency — or an indirect basis-- the foreign currency price ofthe home currency.49.C F/S= (1 + r D )/(l + r F) where rates are listed as DC/FCF = (1.3/1.25)(0.4) = 0.41650. C.Direct method:Net income 1000Depreciation 70Goodwill 30Change in accounts receivable 25Change in inventory (35)Change in accounts payable 30Change in wages payable 15Operating cash flows 113551. B. Purchase equipment (200)Sell truck 25Investing cash flows (175)52. D. Sale of common stock 100Issuance of bonds 20Financing cash flows 12053. D.A common size balance sheet expresses all balance sheet accounts as apercentage of total assets.54. C. Original shares of common stock = 1,000,000(12) = 12,000,000Stock dividend = 200,000(12) = 2,400,000New shares of common stock = 200,000(3) = 600,000Total shares of common stock = 15,000,000/12= 1,250,000 Stock dividends are assumed to have been outstanding since the beginningof the year.55. D.Inventory turnover, defined as COGS/Average inventory, if often meaningless forLIFO companies due to the mismatching of costs. The numerator representscurrent costs, whereas the denominator reports outdated historical costs. Thus,the turnover ratio under LIFO will, when prices decrease, trend lower becauseof small COGS and larger inventory. Net profit margin, defined as EA T/Sales,is higher during periods of decreasing profits for LIFO companies. LIFO leadsto a smaller COGS, which reduces EAT, without affecting sales.56. A.In this situation, LIFO results in lower cost of goods sold because it uses the morerecent and lower costs than LIFO. LIFO results in lower cash flows becausethe cash on income taxes is a percentage(the marginal tax rate) of thedifference in inventory values. Thus, with LIFO:Sales-COGS(smaller)EBT (larger)-Taxes (larger) Because taxes paid out are a cash outflow.EAT (larger) If taxes are larger, then cash flow ill be smaller.57. D.COGSFIFO = COGSLIFO - (Ending LIFO Reserve - Beginning LIFO Reserve)COGSFIFO = $250,000 - ($8,000-$5,000) = $247,00058. pared to expensing, capitalizing results in higher profitability in early yearsand lower profitability in later years.59. C.60. D.The present value of the minimum lease payments equals or exceeds 90 percent ofthe value of the fair value of the leased property.61. B.Capital lease affects on the income statement:Step1: Calculate the depreciation charge: ($3,500,000-$450,000)/10 = $305,000Step2: Calculate the interest expense: $3,500,000(0.15) = $525,000Total expense: $305,000+$525,000 = $830,00062. A.63. C.64. A.65. B.66. D.67. B.Dealer-markets are price-driven markets.68. D.69. C.70. C.P/E = Dividend payout ratio/(k-g)Dividend payout ratio = 1 - retention ratio = 1-0.2 = 0.8P/E = 0.8(0.15-0.08) =5.671. B.k = D1/P0+g = $4/$25+0.09 = 0.2572. A.Step1: Calculate the ending index value = ($100)(5) = $500Step2: Calculate the expected return.E(R1) = [Dividends + (Ending value - Beginning value)]/(Beginning value)=[40+(500-490)]/$490 = 0.1 or 10%73. D.The critical factors determining the franchise P/E are the difference between theexpected return on the new opportunities (R) and the current cost of capital (k)and the size of these growth opportunities relative to the firm's current size.74. A.75. C.76. D The completed contract method less net income in the periods beforeconstruction is completed, but not at the end of the contract, than using thepercentage-of-completion method. This is because the completed contractmethod recognizes revenue and expense only when the contract has beencompleted.77. A. Net income 1,000Adjustment for non-cash andnon-operating itemsDepreciation 100Deferred taxes (increase) 40Profit from sale ofequipment (10)Adjustment for workingcapital items:Accounts receivable (decrease) (120)Inventory (increase) (40)Accounts payable (increase) (20)Wages payable (decrease) (10)Cash flow from operations 94078. D79.A When inventory and accounts receivable increase, this is a use of cash (cashoutflow); when assets decrease, this is a source (cash inflow). When accountspayable increase, this is a source of cash (cash inflow); when liabilities decrease,this is a use (cash outflow).80.BCash conversion cycle = receivables days + inventory processing days -payables payment period.Receivables days = 365/receivabies turnover = 365/30 = 12.17 days.Inventory processing days = 365/inventory turnover = 365/15 = 24.33 days.Payables payment period = 365/payabIes turnover = 365/20 = 18.25days.Cash collection cycle = 12.17 + 24.33 –18.25 = 18.25 days.81.BChoice A: Buying fixed assets on credit does not affect current assets butincreases current liabilities. Therefore, the current ratio falls.Choice B: Buying inventory on account increases both inventory and accountspayable. Because the current ratio started off below I, the ratio will increase.Choice C: Selling marketable securities for cash does not affect the amount ofcurrent assets and leaves the current ratio unaffected,Choice D : Paying off accounts payable from cash lowers current assetsand current liabilities by the same amount. Because the current ratio startedoff below 1, the ratio will fall.82.D ROE = Profit margin x Total asset turnover x financial leverageROE = (0.3)(2.1)(0.5)= 0.315 or 31.5%83.AROE = [(S/A)(EBIT/S) - (I/A)](A/EQ)(I - t)ROE = [(2.5)(0.2) - (0.08)](1.2)(0.6) = 0.30 or 30%84. A85.B EPS = ($180,000 - $4,000) / 50,000 = $3.52 per share86. B87. D88.CThese relationships are reversed in the latter years of the asset's life if the firm'scapital expenditures decline.89. D90. C.91. C.92. D.93. D.Absolute yield spread = Yield on Bond A - Yield on Bond B = 10%-7% = 3%94. B.Relative yield spread = (Yield on Bond A - Yield on Bond B)/(Yield on BondB)=(10%-7%)/7% = 0.43 = 43%95. B.Yield ratio = (Yield on Bond A)/(Yield on Bond B) = 6%/7% = 1.4396. B.Current yield = (Annual dollar coupon interest)/(Price of the bond) = 8/130 =0.0625 or 6.25%97. A.When the stock's price (S) - the strike price (X) is positive, a call option isin-the-money. 25-X = 8 so X = 17.98. A.99. A.The writer of put loss = $60-premiun$5 = $55 Thewriter of call gets a maximum gain of $8100. A.101. C.102. D.103. A.104. D.105. B.106. D.107. C.108. A.Securities that fall on the SML are properly valued.109. A.110. A.If a stock's beta were equal to 1, an investor would be expected to get the marketrate of return from buying the stock. E(R) = 5%+1(10%-5%) = 10% 111. D112. D113. C114.BPerfect positive correlation (r = + 1) of the returns of two assets offers no risk reduction, whereas perfect negative correlation (r = -1) offers the greatestrisk reduction.115.BPortfolio A does not lie on the efficient frontier because it has a lower return than Portfolio B but has greater risk. Portfolio D does not lie on the efficient frontier because it has higher risk than Portfolio C but has the same return. 116. C.117.DChoice A: Unsystematic risk is diversifiable risk.Choice B: Systematic risk is undiversifiable risk.Choice C: Total risk= Systematic risk+ Unsystematic risk.118. C119.DCAPM specifies the factor (market risk) but APT does not.120. A。

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考CFA一级模考题1 .The formative stage of venture capital investing when capital is furnished for market researchand product development is best characterized as the:A) seed stage.B) early stage.C) angel investing stage.A was correct!In the seed stage of venture capital investing, capital is furnished for product development, marketing, and market research. The angel investing stage is when investment funds are used for business plans and assessing market potential. The early stage refers to investments made to fund initial commercial production and sales.2.For which of the following investments is an investor most likely to require the greatest liquiditypremium?A) Real estate investment trusts.B) Private equity funds.C) Commodity futures.B was correct!Private equity funds tend to have lockup periods; investors will require liquidity premiums as compensation. REITs and commodity futures are exchange-traded instruments and much more liquid than private equity funds.3.An additional risk of direct investment in real estate, which is not typically a significant risk in aportfolio of traditional investments, is:A) market risk.B) liquidity risk.C) counterparty risk.B was correct!Direct investment in real estate involves liquidity risk because large sums may be invested for long periods before a sale of the property can take place. Market risk exists for both traditional portfolio and real estate investments. Counterparty risk applies mainly to derivative contracts that require a payment from a counterparty, such as swaps and forwards.4.A private equity provision that requires managers to return any periodic incentive fees resulting ininvestors receiving less than 80% of profits is a:A) clawback.B) drawdown.C) high water mark.A was correct!A clawback provision requires the manager to return any periodic incentive fees to investors thatwould result in investors receiving less than 80% of the profits generated by portfolio investments as a whole.5.Bulldog Fund is a hedge fund with a value of £100 million at the beginning of the year. BulldogFund charges 1.5% management fee based on assets under management at the end of the year anda 25% incentive fee with no hurdle rate. Incentive fees are calculated independent ofmanagement fees. The fund’s value at the end of year before fees is £120 million. Compared to a2 and 20 fee structure, Bulldog Fund’s total fees for the yearare:A) higher.B) lower.C) the same.A was correct!。

CFA考试《CFA一级》历年真题精选01(附详解)

CFA考试《CFA一级》历年真题精选01(附详解)

CFA考试《CFA一级》历年真题精选01(附详解)1、Ian O’Sullivan, CFA, is the owner and sole employee of two companies, a public relations firm and a financial research firm. The public relations firm entered into a contract with Mallory Enterprises to provide public relations services, with O’Sullivan receiving 40,000 shares of Mallory stock in payment for his services. Over the next 10 days, the public relations firm issued several press releases that discussed Mallory’s excellent growth prospects. O’Sullivan, through his financial research firm, also published a research report recommending Mallory stock as a “buy.”According to the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, O’Sullivan is most likely required to disclose his ownership of Mallory stock in the:【单选题】A.press releases only.B.research report only.C.both the press release and the research report.正确答案:C答案解析:“Guidance for Standards I-VII”, CFA InstituteC is correct because members should disclose all matters that reasonably could be expected to impair the member’s objectivity. Standard I (B), Standard VI (A).2、Other factors held constant, the reduction of a company’s average accounts payables due to suppliers offering less trade credit will most likely:【单选题】A.reduce the operating cycle.B.increase the operating cycle.C.not affect the operating cycle.正确答案:C答案解析:"Financial Analysis Techniques," Thomas R. Robinson, CFA, Jan Hendrik van Greuning, CFA, Elaine Henry, CFA, and Michael A. Broihahn, CFAPayables are not part of the operating cycle calculation. Operating cash cycle includes inventory and accounts receivable.3、In a sales-driven pro forma analysis, net income grows from $1.2 million to $1.26 million. Assuming a dividend payout ratio of 40%, the increase in retained earnings is closest to (in $ millions):【单选题】A.0.720.B.0.756.C.1.260.正确答案:B答案解析:“Financial Statement Analysis,”Pamela Peterson Drake4、The slope of the security market line (SML) represents the portion of an asset’s expected return attributable to:【单选题】A.total risk.B.market risk.C.diversifiable risk.正确答案:B答案解析:“Portfolio Risk and Return Part II,”Vijay SingalB is correct. The slope of the SML is the market risk premium, E(Rm) –Rf. It represents the return of the market less the return of a risk-free asset. Thus, the slope represents the portion of expected return that reflects compensation for market or systematic risk.5、Jenny Hein, CFA, is a research analyst covering a mining industry.Hein hasprepared a research report on one mining company based on research from a varietyof sources and other analysts.Hein combines these materials to form her ownopinion and completes the report without acknowledge her sources in her report.Then Hein distributes the report to her clients.Has Jenny most likely violated theStandards of Professional Conduct?【单选题】A.No.B.Yes, by failing to cite the work of others in her report.C.Yes, by failing to have reasonable basis for her opinion.正确答案:B答案解析:因为Hein在研究报告中引用了别人的研究成果,对此必须注明出处,题目中并没有说她没有合理的证据,把其他分析师的研究加入其自己的研究报告,只要指明出处并不违反专业行为标准。

最新CFA一级模考试题及答案

最新CFA一级模考试题及答案

ANSWERS FOR MOCK EXAM 1 (MORNING SESSION)1. D. Although Terence has passed Level III, he has not yet received his charter andcannot use the CFA designation. The description provided in the cover letterproperly describes his situation.2. C. Amy must take both actions-notifying her immediate supervisor and deliveringa copy of the Code and Standards.3. D.4. C. Members may undertake an independent practice that could result incompensation or other benefit in competition with their employer provided theyobtain written consent from both their employer and the party for whom theyundertake independent practice.5. C. To maintain his objectivity, Keith should pay his own hotel bill. Because theitinerary required charter flights due to a lack of commercial transportation, A& K Limited can appropriately provide them.6. C. Under ERISA, fiduciaries must act solely in the interest of, and for theexclusive purpose of benefiting, the plan participants and beneficiaries.7. B. Daniel must give priority to transactions for clients and employers overtransactions for his children.8. A. To avoid violating the standards, members cannot trade until the member'sclients and employers have had an adequate opportunity to act on therecommendation.9. C. The requirements of Standard IV (B.5) are not intended to prevent Lambertfrom cooperating with an investigation by AIMR's Professional ConductProgram.10. B. Vivian should disclose to her clients and prospects her husband's holdings inDouble Limited because this matter could be expected to impair her ability tomake unbiased and objective recommendations.11. B.12. B. Accruals accounting is required.13. C. S tandard I(B) Fundamental Responsibilities. Prohibition against participating orassisting in illegal and ethical violations. If Roberts suspects someone isplanning or engaging in illegal activities, he should: (1) determine the legalityof the activities, (2) disassociate himself from the illegal or unethical activity,and (3) urge his firm to attempt to persuade the perpetrator to stop. The AIMRStandards of Professional Conduct do not require that Roberts report suchactivities to the authorities, but the law might.14. C. Standard III(C) Disclosure of Conflicts to Employer. Gloria should disclose toher employer all matters that could reasonably be expected to interfere with herability to make unbiased and objective recommendations. Her service as atrustee of the Well Limited Foundation for Heart Research is most likely to beconsidered a conflict of interest with her responsibility to her employer.15. C. Standard III (E) Responsibilities of Supervisors. Paul may delegate supervisoryduties, but such delegation does not relieve him of his supervisoryresponsibility.16. A. Standard IV (B.3) Fair Dealing. Johnson violated the standard on fair dealingbecause he did not deal fairly and objectively with all clients and prospectswhen disseminating investment recommendations. Instead, he showedfavoritism to his best clients. In disseminating investment recommendations,Johnson should consider making the information available to clients based ontheir interest and suitability. A change of recommendation from buy to sell orsell to buy is generally material.17. D. Standard IV(B.5) Preservation of Confidentiality. Choice B is false because thisstandard prohibits members from executing settlement agreements that preventmembers from providing information in an investigation by AIMR'sProfessional Conduct Program (PCP). Choice C is false because a personcannot withhold information during PCP investigations. Choice A is falsebecause if a member receives information due to his or her special relationshipwith the client indicating illegal behavior on the past of the client, the membermay not have an obligation to inform the appropriate authorities.18. A. Standard IV(B.6) Prohibition against Misrepresentation. Members are notpermitted to make any assurances or guarantees about any investment, except tocommunicate accurate information. The statement that investment grade bondshave less default risk than junk bonds is an accurate statement.19. C. Use BGN node: n = 10; i = 12 PMT = 1,000, compute FV = 19.654.5820. B. The present value of a perpetuity is PV = A/r = 500/0.1 = $5,000.21. B. i = 6/12 = 0.5; n = 10x12 = 120; PV = 40,000 Compute PMT22. A.23. A. A binomial random variable has an expected value or mean equal to np andvariance equal to np(1-p).Mean = 12(0.5) = 6; variance (12)(0.5)(1-0.5) = 324. D.25. B. Rbt-1 = In St+1 /St = (1+RL1-1) = In (40/25) = 0.47. Thus, 47% is thecontinuously computed return for the one-year holding period.26. B. Choice A describes cross-sectional data.Choice B describes time-series data.27. D. The dependent variable, Y, is equal to the intercept, b0, plus a slope coefficient,b1, times the independent, X, plus an error term, ε.35. B. Using the addition rule for probabilities, P (analyst or positive) =P(analyst) +P(positive) - P(analyst and positive)P (A or positive) = 130/200 + 140/200 - (100/130) = 0.58 or 58%36. B. Savings increases to hold interest rates constant. This means aggregate demandchanges little.37. C. The empirical evidence on the relationship between budget deficits and interestrates is mixed.Few studies show a significant positive short-term link between budget deficitsand real interest rates.38. B. Expansion = 1 / reserve requirement = 1/0.25 = 4(4)(150) = 60039. C. People realize this leads to inflation in the long run, so they reduce their moneyholdings. Output rises because the increase is unexpected.40. C. In purely competitive markets, there are a large number of dependent firms.41. D.42. D.43. C.44. C.45. D. Choice A: Accrual accounting does not require the receipt of cash for assuranceof payment to exist.Choice C and D: These relate only to the condition of completion of theearnings process.46. D.47. A Demand for currency decreases when real interest rates decrease because ofdecreased capital flows.48. C Foreign exchange quotations can be expressed on a direct basis - the homecurrency price of another currency—or an indirect basis-- the foreign currencyprice of the home currency.49. C F/S= (1 + r D)/(l + r F) where rates are listed as DC/FCF = (1.3/1.25)(0.4) = 0.41650. C. Direct method:Net income 1000Depreciation 70Goodwill 30Change in accounts receivable 25Change in inventory (35)Change in accounts payable 30Change in wages payable 15Operating cash flows 113551. B. Purchase equipment (200)Sell truck 25Investing cash flows (175)52. D. Sale of common stock 100Issuance of bonds 20Financing cash flows 12053. D. A common size balance sheet expresses all balance sheet accounts as apercentage of total assets.54. C. Original shares of common stock = 1,000,000(12) = 12,000,000Stock dividend = 200,000(12) = 2,400,000New shares of common stock = 200,000(3) = 600,000Total shares of common stock = 15,000,000/12= 1,250,000 Stock dividends are assumed to have been outstanding since the beginning ofthe year.55. D. Inventory turnover, defined as COGS/Average inventory, if often meaningless。

cfa一级考试模拟试题及答案

cfa一级考试模拟试题及答案

cfa一级考试模拟试题及答案1. 以下哪项不是CFA一级考试中伦理与职业标准科目的主要内容?A. 专业行为准则B. 全球投资绩效标准C. 投资组合管理D. 职业行为标准答案:C2. 在CFA一级考试中,关于货币的时间价值,以下哪个公式是不正确的?A. 未来价值(FV)= 现值(PV)× (1 + r)^nB. 现值(PV)= 未来价值(FV)/ (1 + r)^nC. 未来价值(FV)= 现值(PV)× (1 - r)^nD. 现值(PV)= 未来价值(FV) × (1 - r)^n答案:C3. CFA一级考试中,关于投资组合理论,以下哪项是正确的?A. 投资组合的风险随着组合中资产数量的增加而增加B. 投资组合的风险随着组合中资产数量的增加而减少C. 投资组合的风险与组合中资产数量无关D. 投资组合的风险总是高于组合中任一资产的风险答案:B4. 在CFA一级考试中,关于固定收益证券,以下哪项说法是错误的?A. 债券的收益率与价格呈反比关系B. 长期债券对利率变化的敏感性高于短期债券C. 债券的票息率越高,其价格对利率变化的敏感性越高D. 债券的到期时间越长,其价格对利率变化的敏感性越高答案:C5. CFA一级考试中,关于衍生品,以下哪项是正确的?A. 期权的时间价值随着到期时间的增加而减少B. 期权的内在价值等于执行价格与标的资产价格之差C. 期权的执行价格与标的资产价格之差称为期权的时间价值D. 期权的时间价值随着到期时间的减少而增加答案:D结束语:以上是CFA一级考试的部分模拟试题及答案,希望对您的备考有所帮助。

请继续努力学习,祝您在考试中取得优异成绩。

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考CFA一级模考题1. Effective duration is more appropriate than modified duration as a measure of a bond's pricesensitivity to yield changes when:A) the bond has a low coupon rate and a long maturity.B) the bond contains embedded options.C) yield curve changes are not parallel.B was correct!Effective duration takes into consideration embedded options in the bond. Modified duration does not consider the effect of embedded options. For option-free bonds, modified duration will be similar to effective duration. Both duration measures are based on the value impact of a parallel shift in a flat yield curve.2. If a put feature expires on a bond so that it becomes option-free, then the curve depicting theprice and yield relationship of the bond will become:A) more convex.B) less convex.C) inversely convex.B was correct!When the option expires, the prices at the lower end of the curve will become lower. This will make the curve less convex.3. A non-callable bond has a modified duration of 7.26. Which of the following is the closest tothe approximate price change of the bond with a 25 basis point increase in rates?A) -0.018%.B) 1.820%.C) -1.820%.C was correct!The formula for the percentage price change is: –(duration)(ΔYTM). Therefore, the estimated percentage price change using duration is: –(7.26)(0.25%) = –1.82%.4. Negative convexity is most likely to be observed in:A) zero coupon bonds.B) government bonds.C) callable bonds.C was correct!All noncallable bonds exhibit the trait of being positively convex. Callable bonds have negative convexity because once the yield falls below a certain point prices will rise at a decreasing rate, thus giving the price-yield relationship a negative convex shape.5. An investor buys a bond that has a Macaulay duration of 3.0 and a yield to maturity of 4.5%.The investor plans to sell the bond after three years. If the yield curve has a parallel downward shift of 100 basis points immediately after the investor buys the bond, her annualized horizon return is most likely to be:A) approximately 4.5%.B) less than 4.5%.C) greater than 4.5%.A was correct!With Macaulay duration equal to the investment horizon, market price risk and reinvestment risk approximately offset and the annualized horizon return should be close to the yield to maturity at purchase.。

CFA Level1经典模拟试题1200道

CFA Level1经典模拟试题1200道

CFA Level1经典模拟试题1200道【一份十分经典的专业资料,打灯笼都找不到的好资料】8Schweser Printable Tests - Level 1 - EXAM 1 Morning - 180Schweser Printable Tests - Level 1 - EXAM 1 Morning - 180SScchhwweesseerrPPrriinnttaabblleeTTeessttss--LLeevveell11--EEXXA AMM11MMoorrnniinngg--118800minutes - Level 1 - EXAM 1 Morningminutes - Level 1 - EXAM 1 Morningmmiinnuutteess--LLeevveell11--EEXXAAMM11MMoorrnniinnggYoucanprint thispagebygoing tofile- printinyourinternetbrowser Ethics - 18 Questions - 27 minutesEthics - 18 Questions - 27 minutesEEtthhiiccss--1188uueessttiioonnss--2277mmiinnuutteessQuestion1 - 23379Based on AIMRs Standards of Professional Conduct which of the following statements are aviolation of Standard IV B6 Prohibition against MisrepresentationA young trainee bond trader tells a prospective client that she can assist the clientin all the clients investment needs equity fixed income and derivatives and basedAon her years of experience as an analyst in the business that an investment lookslikeit has lots of potentialB Allof theseAn investment manager recommends to a prospective client an investment inC mortgage IO strips because they are guaranteed by an agency of the federalgovernmentA broker says XYZ stock is 100 guaranteed to double in value over the next sixDmonthsQuestion2 - 28161According to AIMRs Standards of Professional Conduct Standard I B FundamentalResponsibilities members shall not knowingly participate or assist in legal and ethicalviolations An analystmust report all legal violations to the proper regulatory commission and is heldA responsible for participating in illegal acts when the law is evident to anyoneknowing the lawis held responsible for violations by others when the analyst is unaware of the factsBgiving rise to the violationis held responsible for participating in illegal acts when the law is evident to anyoneC knowing the law and can participate in a violation by having knowledge of theviolation and taking no action to stop it or disassociate from itis held responsible for participating in illegal acts when the law is evident to anyoneD knowing the law and is held responsible for violations by others when the analyst isunaware of the facts giving rise to the violationQuestion3 - 28162Which of the following is a violation based on AIMRs Standards of Professional ConductA portfolio manager accepts free trades from XYZ for her personal account forAdirecting the portfolios trades to XYZ She does not inform her manager sincethere is no cashinvolvedAfter informing his manager a portfolio manager accepts money for giving a brokerBinformation relating toa clients financial standingA portfolio manager is offered a free vacation to increase performance At the endC of the year performance is up and the manager accepts the vacation after informinghis manager of the factA portfolio manager is unexpectedly offered a vacation at year-end from a clientD who was pleased with their portfolios performance The manager accepts thevacation after informing her manager of the factQuestion4 - 28165Based on AIMRs Standards of Professional Conduct which of the following statements are aviolation of Standard IV B6 Prohibition against MisrepresentationA young trainee bond trader tells a prospective client that she can assist the clientin all the clients investment needs equity fixed income and derivatives and basedAon her years of experience as an analyst in the business that an investment lookslikeit has lots of potentialAn investment manager recommends to a prospective client an investment inB mortgage IO strips because they are guaranteed by an agency of the federalgovernmentA broker says XYZ stock is 100 guaranteed to double in value over the next sixCmonthsD Allof theseQuestion5 - 28167NOTNOTWhich one of the following is NNOOTT consistent with AIMRs Performance PresentationStandardsA Cash and cash equivalents must be included in composite returnsAll actual fee paying discretionary portfolios should be included in at least oneBcompositeInvestment performance is the record of the manager not the firm all changes inC personnel should be accounted for by adjusting the composites performancehistoryPresentation of performance may be either gross or net of investment managementDfees as long as the method and the fee schedule are disclosedQuestion6 - 28168Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act ERISA a person is a fiduciary if he orshehas discretionary authority in the administration ofthe pension plan rendersAinvestment advice for a fee with respect to a pension plans assets exercises anydiscretionary authority with the management of the pension plan or its assetsB has an executive position in the firm sponsoring the pension planhas an executive position in the firm sponsoring the pension plan has discretionaryCauthority in the administration of the pension planexercises any discretionary authority with the management of the pension plan orDits assetsQuestion7 - 29219There are four components of the AIMRCode of Ethics All of the following are part of theEXCEPTEXCEPTCode of Ethics EEXXCCEEPPTTPracticeand encourage others to practicein a professional and ethical manner thatAwill reflect credit on members and their professionStrive to maintain and improve the competence of regulatory bodies such as theBSecurities and Exchange Commission SECC Strive to maintain and improve the competence of others in the professionD Use reasonable care and exercise independent professional judgmentQuestion8 - 29220AIMRbelievesthat a imum level of professional responsibility and conduct dictates thatA members be aware of and comply with laws rules and regulations governing theirconductcompanies should set standards based on the ethics of upper management andBthe board of directorsthat firms should comply with all domestic laws and regulations and that these lawsC also govern behavior in foreign markets regardless of foreign laws andrequirementsthat a minimum level of professional responsibility and conduct dictates thatD members be aware of and comply with laws rules and regulations governing theirconductQuestion9 - 29221TRUETRUEWhich of the following statements about the AIMRCode and Standards is TTRRUUEE The Codeand Standardsrequire that members report legal violations to the appropriate governmental orAregulatory organizationdo not require that members report legal violations to the appropriate governmentalBor regulatory organizationexpect members to resign from their jobs to disassociate themselves from clientsCengaging in illegal activitiesD expect members to persuade the perpetrator to cease illegal activitiesQuestion10- 29222EXCEPTEXCEPTAllof the following are appropriate uses of the CFA designation EEXXCCEEPPTTA Jeremy Salyers CFAB Joanne Silbourne is a CFAcharterholderI as a CFA charterholder expect to outperform the market because CFAC charterholders have on average outperformed the SP in 95 percent of the last 50yearsI have earned the CFA designation by passing three exams having sufficient workDexperience and becoming a member of AIMRQuestion11- 29223NOTNOTWhich of the following would NNOOTT violate AIMR 畳 s rules regarding personal integrity andbehaviorA driving under the influence DUI conviction that results in the loss of onesAdrivers license for six monthsB Stealing a car and going to prison for 18 monthsA misdemeanor conviction that results from lying about your income on your taxCreturnD Cheating on an MBA preliminary exam and being expelled from the UniversityQuestion12- 29224When must an analyst give credit to the firm抯 own research staff for research analysisA When sending printed materials toclientsB When discussing research with a clientC In a professional witness situationD In inter-office communicationsQuestion13- 29225NOTNOTAn AIMR member is NNOOTT required to notify her supervisor in writing of the AIMR Code andStandards under which of the following circumstancesThe employer has indicated a willingness to adopt AIMRs Code and StandardsAand the supervisor is an AIMR memberThe employer has a high ethical standard much of which is reflected in writing inBthe firms Mission StatementC The supervisor is an AIMR memberThe employer has publicly acknowledged in writing that they have adopted theDAIMR Code and StandardsQuestion14- 29226When an AIMRmember who is presently employed by a firm undertakes any independentEXCEPTEXCEPTpractice he must do all of the following EEXXCCEEPPTTA secure written permission from the employerremand a percentage to be determined by the employee and employer of theBincome earned back to the employerC secure written permission from the outside firmdisclosethe identity of their employer to clients and prospective clients and the factDthat they are performing independently of the employerQuestion15- 29227FALSEFALSEWhich of the following statements regarding employeeemployerrelationships is FFAALLSSEEA A written contract may or may not exist between employer and employeeThe employer has the power to control and direct the details of how work is to beBperformedThere must be monetary compensation for an employeremployee relationship toCexistD An employee is someone in the service of anotherQuestion16- 29228Withrespect toStandard III E Responsibilities of Supervisors compliance supervisors andEXCEPTEXCEPTcompliance officers should do all of the following EEXXCCEEPPTTA disseminate the compliance proceduresincorporate a professional conduct evaluation into the employees performanceBreviewhold hearings with representatives from the firm to decide whether violations haveCoccurred and the level of severity of the violationsD review employee actions to ensure compliance and identify violatorsQuestion17- 29229Brett Germaine is an AIMRmember who manages client portfolios He has the power to buyand sellsecurities on behalf of his clients His mother is a client and Brett manages her trustWithrespect tohis mother 抯 account he musttreat her account with a bit more care and concern giving her advance notice ofAinformation like recommendation changestreat her account with less care and concern than his other accounts soas to avoidBthe appearance of favoritism and comply with the Code and Standardsnot takehis mothers account because it is a violation of the Code and Standards toCmanage a family members account or trusttreat her account like any other firm account and should not give her accountDspecial treatment or disadvantageQuestion18- 29230In a tough decision to leave Greenberg and Associates Jillian Cross CFA decides to seekemployment with a competing firm She decides that her current management team isessential to her ability to do her job and plans to convince the others to come with her whenshe leaves She also plans to take her client list with her because she has tostart somewherein building a book of business Jillian isA out of compliance only in taking the client listB out of compliance only in trying to get her employees tocome with herout of compliance with Standard III B Duty to Employer on bothC counts-attempting to take her management team with her and misappropriating theclient listD in complianceQuantitative Analysis - 18 Questions - 27 minutesQuantitative Analysis - 18 Questions - 27 minutesuuaannttiittaattiivveeAAnnaallyyssiiss--1188uueessttiioonnss--227 7mmiinnuutteessQuestion19- 18868There are 35 observations arrayed in a stem and leaf display What is the mode and median ofthis data5 01135666896 002222355678897 00223456678A 62 and 65B 60 and 63C 65 and 62D 625 and 625Question20- 18871Use the following data to evaluate an investment portfolio that holdsone share of each of threefirms A B and C that do not pay dividendsBeginningEndingStocksYearPriceYearPriceA 1020B 5060C 100 110What is the average rate return of the portfolioA 625B 1225C 1875D 4333Question21- 18872FALSEFALSEWhich of the following statements is FFAALLSSEEA The interquartile range contains half the data points in the data setThe interquartile range is set at half the distance between the largest and smallestBnumber in the data setIf the median is on the left side of the interquartile range the data is skewed to theCleftDownside outliers are those observations below the first quartile less 15 times theDinterquartile rangeQuestion22- 18873Use the following data tocalculate the standard deviation about the expected return50 chance of a 12 return30 chance of a 10 return20 chance of a 15 returnA 25B 30C 17D 33Question23- 18874Based on the following data what is ABC Cos projected growth rateBear NormalBullBear NormalBullBBeeaarrNNoorrmmaall BBuullllProbability 30 40 30ROE 10 15 30b 60 4030A 50B 70C 75D 69Question24- 29390Justin Banks just won the lottery and is trying to decide between the annual cash flow paymentoption or the lump sum option Justin can earn 8 at the bank and the annual cashflow optionbeginningtodaybeginningtodayis 100000year bbeeggiinnnniinnggttooddaayy for 15 years What is theannual cash flow option worth toJustin todayA 85594787B 150000000C 108000000D 92442370Question25- 29391Given the following sample data find the standard deviation of thereturns to stockA and stockBStockA StockBYear 1 1620Year 2 20 24Year 3 12 10A Std Dev A 33 Std DevB 59B Std Dev A 40 Std Dev B 72C Std Dev A 57 Std Dev B 102D Std Dev A 63 Std Dev B 112Question26- 29394An investor is considering two investments Stock A has a mean annualreturn of 16 percentand a standard deviation of 14 percent Stock B has a mean annual returnof 20 percent and astandard deviation of 30 percent Calculate the coefficient ofvariation CV of each stockTRUETRUEWhich of the following statements is TTRRUUEEA StockA CV 0875 has more dispersion relative to the mean than stock BB StockA CV 0875 has less dispersion relative to the mean than stock BC StockA CV 114 has more dispersion relative to the mean than stock BD StockA CV 114 has less dispersion relative to the mean than stock BQuestion27- 29395The probability of a boom economy is 40 percent The probability of Yacht Co having a 50percent return given a boom economy is 80 percent Find the joint probability of a boomeconomy and a 50 percent return for Yacht CoA 020B 032C 040D 050Question28- 29397Janet Jacobs intends to start saving for retirement today in an IRA If she invests 3000yeareach year starting at the end of year 1 how much will she accumulated after 40 years if sheexpects to earn 12 percent over the periodA 230127426B 257742717C 27915291D 12000000Question29- 29398Johnson Inc manages a growth portfolio of equity securities that has amean monthly return of145 and a standard deviation of 108 The SP 500 has a mean monthly return of 12and a standard deviation of 68 The mean monthly return on T-bills is 030 CalculateSharpe 抯 reward-to-variability ratio for the growth portfolio and for the SP 500 Whichof theTRUETRUEfollowing statements is TTRRUUEEBased on a reward-to-variability ratio the growth portfolio is preferable to the SPA500B The growth portfolio has more excess return per unit of risk than the SP 500C An investor would always prefer the SP 500 to the growth portfolioBased on a reward-to-variability ratio the SP 500 is preferable to the growthDportfolioQuestion30- 29399Sarah Parker is buying a new 25000 car Her trade-in is worth 5000 soshe needs toborrow 20000 The loan will be paid in 48 monthly installments and the annual interest rateon the loan is 75 If the first payment is due at the end of the first month what is Sarah 抯monthly car paymentA 48057B 48358C 41667D 42763Question31- 18557TRUETRUEWhich of the following statements are TTRRUUEEI The mean of a sample of five numbers 5 2 4 5 4 is ∑X n-1 5II The standard error of the sample means of the numbers above is s n-1 752III The variance of a sample of five numbers 5 2 4 5 4 is ∑ X - X n-1 15IV The sampling error is the difference between a sample statistic and its correspondingpopulation parameterA III and IV onlyB III onlyC I II and III onlyD I II III and IVQuestion32- 28156An analyst conducts a two-tailed z-test to determine if small cap returns are significantlydifferent from 10 percent The sample sizewas 200 The computed z-statistic is 23 Using a 5TRUETRUEpercent confidence level which statement is TTRRUUEEA You cannot determine what to do with the information givenB A sample size of 200 indicates that the null should be acceptedAccept the null hypothesis and reject the alternative hypothesis That is small capCreturns are not significantly different from 10Reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis That is small capDreturns are significantly different from 10Question33- 28158TRUETRUEWhich of the following statements are TTRRUUEEI A two-tailed test on a large sample with a significance level of 01 has confidenceintervals of 196 s nII A hypothesized mean of 3 a sample mean of 6 and a standard error of the samplingmeans of 2 give a sample Z-statistic of 15III A Type I error is rejecting the null hypothesis when it was true and a Type II error isaccepting the alternative hypothesis when it is falseIV When the sample Z-statistic is greater than the critical Z-statistic in a two-tailed testyou should reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesisA I and III onlyB II and IV onlyC II III and IV onlyD I II III and IVQuestion34- 29392EXCEPTEXCEPTAllof the following are properties of the student 抯 t-distribution EEXXCCEEPPTT itA is symmetricalB has "fatter tails" than a normal distributionC is defined by a single parameter the degrees of freedom dfD is a normal distributionQuestion35- 29393The mean return of Bartlett Co is 3 percent and the standard deviation is 6 percent based on20 monthly returns What is the standard error of the sampleA 200B 067C 050D 134Question36- 29396FALSEFALSEWhich of the following statements is FFAALLSSEE regarding hypothesis testingA An analyst can perform a one-tailed or a two-tailed testB A type I error is acceptance of a hypothesis that is actually falseC A type II error is the acceptance of a hypothesis that is actually falseD The significance level is the risk of making a type I errorEconomics - 14 Questions - 21 minutesEconomics - 14 Questions - 21 minutesEEccoonnoommiiccss--1144uueessttiioonnss--2211mmiinnuutteessQuestion37- 28109Under rational expectations a shift to a more expansionary economic policy wouldA fail to reduce the unemployment rate in either the short or long termB reduce the short run unemployment rate but not the long term rateC reduce the long and short term unemployment rateD reduce the long run unemployment rate but not the short term rateQuestion38- 29047TRUETRUEWhich of the following statements about the basic functions of money is TTRRUUEEWhen money is defined as a medium of exchange it means that money enablesAvalue to be stored and transportedB Moneys value is directly related to the level of pricesPaper money allows consumers to defer consumption encourages division ofClabor and is the best store of valueD Moneys function as a unit of account allows individuals to account for debtsQuestion39- 29283You are expecting an additional payment of 2000 of income this year You intend to save500 of the 2000 According to the multiplier effect total spending will increase by a totalamount ofA 1500B 4000C 6000D 2500Question40- 29284Changes in the budget deficit due to government actions are calledA mandatory fiscal policyB Keynesian policyC monetary policyD discretionary fiscal policyQuestion41- 29286FALSEFALSEWhich of the following statements is FFAALLSSEE regarding the process by which fiscal policyaffects aggregate demand and aggregate supply The results of restrictive fiscal policy areA lower prices and reduced outputB impossible to predict with respect toprices and outputC a shift downward and to the right in the aggregate demandcurveD higher prices and higher outputQuestion42- 29287Which of the following statements regarding budget deficits inflation and interest rates isFALSEFALSEFFAALLSSEEThe crowding out model implies budget deficits will decrease the demand forAloanable funds and put downward pressure on the real rate of interestThe crowding out model implies budget deficits will increase demand for loanableBfunds and put upward pressure on the real rate of interestC Empirical studies show a weak relationship between deficits and real interest ratesThe new classical model implies that higher expected future taxes will stimulateD additional savings and thereby permit the government to expand borrowing at anunchanged interest rateQuestion43- 29288Bank required reserves are theimum reserves required by law earn interest and may not be loaned toA。

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考

4 . A firm has an expected dividend payout ratio of 50%, a required rate of return of 12% and a constant growth rate of 6%. If earnings for the next year are expected to be $4.50, the value of the stock today is closest to: A)$39.75. B)$33.50. C)$37.50.
The correct answer was C A basket of listed depository receipts (BLDR) is an exchange traded fund that represents a portfolio of depository receipts.
3 . Given the following information, compute price/book value. A)2.0X. Book value of assets = $550,000 Total sales = $200,000 Net income = $20,000 Dividend payout ratio = 30% Operating cash flow = $40,000 Price per share = $100 Shares outstanding = 1000 Book value of liabilitie. C)2.5X.
Book value of equity = $550,000 - $500,000 = $50,000 Market value of equity = ($100)(1000) = $100,000 Price/Book = $100,000/$50,000 = 2.0X

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考CFA一级模考题1 . Justin Lopez, CFA, is the Chief Financial Officer of Waterbury Corporation. Lopez has justbeen informed that the U.S. Internal Revenue Code may be revised such that the maximum marginal corporate tax rate will be increased. Since Waterbury’s taxable income is routinely in the highest marginal tax bracket, Lopez is concerned about the potential impact of theproposed change. Assuming that Waterbury maintains its target capital structure, which of the following is least likely to be affected by the proposed tax change?A) Waterbury’s after-tax cost of noncallable, nonconvertible preferred stock.B) Waterbury’s return on equity (ROE).C) Waterbury’s after-tax cost of corporate debt.A was correct!Corporate taxes do not affect the cost of preferred stock to the issuing firm. Waterbury’s after tax cost of debt, and consequently, its weighted average cost of capital will decrease because the tax savings on interest will increase. Also, since taxes impact net income, Waterbury’s ROE will be affected by the change.2. In calculating the weighted average cost of capital (WACC), which of the followingstatements is least accurate?A) Different methods for estimating the cost of common equity might produce differentresults.B) The cost of preferred equity capital is the preferred dividend divided by the price ofpreferred shares.C) The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the coupon rateon outstanding debt.C was correct!After-tax cost of debt = bond yield ? tax savings = k d? k dt = k d(1 ? t)3. Which of the following would NOT be a good source fo r information about a company’sproxy voting rules?A) Company’s articles of organization and by-laws.B) Firm’s annual report.C) Firm’s corporate governance statement.B was correct!The annual report would typically not contain this detailed information.4. Which of the following sources of liquidity is the most reliable?A) Revolving line of credit.B) Committed line of credit.C) Uncommitted line of credit.A was correct!A revolving line of credit is typically for a longer term than an uncommitted or committed lineof credit and thus is considered a more reliable source of liquidity. With an uncommitted line of credit, the issuing bank may refuse to lend if conditions of the firm change. An overdraft line of credit is similar to a committed line of credit agreementbetween banks and firmsoutside of the U.S. Both committed and revolving lines of credit can be verified and can be listed in the footnotes to a firm’s financial statements as sources of liquidity.5. Which of the following is least likely to be useful to an analyst when estimating the cost ofraising capital through the issuance of non-callable, nonconvertible preferred stock?A) The firm’s corporate tax rate.B) The stated par value of the preferred issue.C) The preferred stock’s dividend rate.A was correct!The corporate tax rate is not a relevant factor when calculating the cost of preferred stock.The cost of preferred stock, k ps is expressed as:k ps = D ps / Pwhere:D ps = divided per share = dividend rate × stated par valueP = market price。

CFALevel1经典模拟试题1200道(可编辑修改word版)

CFALevel1经典模拟试题1200道(可编辑修改word版)

C F A L e v e l1经典模拟试题1200道【一份十分经典的专业资料,打灯笼都找不到的好资料】8Schweser Printable Tests - Level 1 - EXAM 1 Morning - 180Schweser Printable Tests - Level 1 - EXAM 1 Morning - 180SScchhwweesseerrPPrriinnttaabblleeTTeessttss--LLeevveell11-- EEXXAAMM11MMoorrnniinngg--118800minutes - Level 1 - EXAM 1 Morningminutes - Level 1 - EXAM 1 Morningmmiinnuutteess--LLeevveell11--EEXXAAMM11MMoorrnniinnggYoucanprint thispagebygoing tofile- printinyourinternetbrowserEthics - 18 Questions - 27 minutesEthics - 18 Questions - 27 minutesEEtthhiiccss--1188uueessttiioonnss--2277mmiinnuutteessQuestion1 - 23379Based on AIMRs Standards of Professional Conduct which of the following statements are aviolation of Standard IV B6 Prohibition against MisrepresentationA young trainee bond trader tells a prospective client that she can assist the clientin all the clients investment needs equity fixed income and derivatives and basedAon her years of experience as an analyst in the business that an investment lookslikeit has lots of potentialB Allof theseAn investment manager recommends to a prospective client an investment inC mortgage IO strips because they are guaranteed by an agency of the federalgovernmentA broker says XYZ stock is 100 guaranteed to double in value over the next sixDmonthsQuestion2 - 28161According to AIMRs Standards of Professional Conduct Standard I B FundamentalResponsibilities members shall not knowingly participate or assist in legal and ethicalviolations An analystmust report all legal violations to the proper regulatory commission and is heldA responsible for participating in illegal acts when the law is evident to anyoneknowing the lawis held responsible for violations by others when the analyst is unaware of the factsBgiving rise to the violationis held responsible for participating in illegal acts when the law is evident to anyoneC knowing the law and can participate in a violation by having knowledge of theviolation and taking no action to stop it or disassociate from itis held responsible for participating in illegal acts when the law is evident to anyoneD knowing the law and is held responsible for violations by others when the analyst isunaware of the facts giving rise to the violationQuestion3 - 28162Which of the following is a violation based on AIMRs Standards of Professional ConductA portfolio manager accepts free trades from XYZ for her personal account forAdirecting the portfolios trades to XYZ She does not inform her manager sincethere is no cashinvolvedAfter informing his manager a portfolio manager accepts money for giving a brokerBinformation relating toa clients financial standingA portfolio manager is offered a free vacation to increase performance At the endC of the year performance is up and the manager accepts the vacation after informinghis manager of the factA portfolio manager is unexpectedly offered a vacation at year-end from a clientD who was pleased with their portfolios performance The manager accepts thevacation after informing her manager of the factQuestion4 - 28165Based on AIMRs Standards of Professional Conduct which of the following statements are aviolation of Standard IV B6 Prohibition against MisrepresentationA young trainee bond trader tells a prospective client that she can assist the clientin all the clients investment needs equity fixed income and derivatives and basedAon her years of experience as an analyst in the business that an investment lookslikeit has lots of potentialAn investment manager recommends to a prospective client an investment inB mortgage IO strips because they are guaranteed by an agency of the federalgovernmentA broker says XYZ stock is 100 guaranteed to double in value over the next sixCmonthsD Allof theseQuestion5 - 28167NOTNOTWhich one of the following is NNOOTT consistent with AIMRs Performance PresentationStandardsA Cash and cash equivalents must be included in composite returnsAll actual fee paying discretionary portfolios should be included in at least oneBcompositeInvestment performance is the record of the manager not the firm all changes inC personnel should be accounted for by adjusting the composites performancehistoryPresentation of performance may be either gross or net of investment managementDfees as long as the method and the fee schedule are disclosedQuestion6 - 28168Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act ERISA a person is a fiduciary if he orshehas discretionary authority in the administration ofthe pension plan rendersAinvestment advice for a fee with respect to a pension plans assets exercises anydiscretionary authority with the management of the pension plan or its assetsB has an executive position in the firm sponsoring the pension planhas an executive position in the firm sponsoring the pension plan has discretionaryCauthority in the administration of the pension planexercises any discretionary authority with the management of the pension plan orDits assetsQuestion7 - 29219There are four components of the AIMRCode of Ethics All of the following are part of theEXCEPTEXCEPTCode of Ethics EEXXCCEEPPTTPracticeand encourage others to practicein a professional and ethical manner thatAwill reflect credit on members and their professionStrive to maintain and improve the competence of regulatory bodies such as theBSecurities and Exchange Commission SECC Strive to maintain and improve the competence of others in the professionD Use reasonable care and exercise independent professional judgmentQuestion8 - 29220AIMRbelievesthat a imum level of professional responsibility and conduct dictates thatA members be aware of and comply with laws rules and regulations governing theirconductcompanies should set standards based on the ethics of upper management andBthe board of directorsthat firms should comply with all domestic laws and regulations and that these lawsC also govern behavior in foreign markets regardless of foreign laws andrequirementsthat a minimum level of professional responsibility and conduct dictates thatD members be aware of and comply with laws rules and regulations governing theirconductQuestion9 - 29221TRUETRUEWhich of the following statements about the AIMRCode and Standards is TTRRUUEE The Codeand Standardsrequire that members report legal violations to the appropriate governmental orAregulatory organizationdo not require that members report legal violations to the appropriate governmentalBor regulatory organizationexpect members to resign from their jobs to disassociate themselves from clientsCengaging in illegal activitiesD expect members to persuade the perpetrator to cease illegal activitiesQuestion10- 29222EXCEPTEXCEPTAllof the following are appropriate uses of the CFA designation EEXXCCEEPPTTA Jeremy Salyers CFAB Joanne Silbourne is a CFAcharterholderI as a CFA charterholder expect to outperform the market because CFAC charterholders have on average outperformed the SP in 95 percent of the last 50yearsI have earned the CFA designation by passing three exams having sufficient workDexperience and becoming a member of AIMRQuestion11- 29223NOTNOTWhich of the following would NNOOTT violate AIMR 畳 s rules regarding personal integrity andbehaviorA driving under the influence DUI conviction that results in the loss of onesAdrivers license for six monthsB Stealing a car and going to prison for 18 monthsA misdemeanor conviction that results from lying about your income on your taxCreturnD Cheating on an MBA preliminary exam and being expelled from the UniversityQuestion12- 29224When must an analyst give credit to the firm 抯own research staff for research analysisA When sending printed materials toclientsB When discussing research with a clientC In a professional witness situationD In inter-office communicationsQuestion13- 29225NOTNOTAn AIMR member is NNOOTT required to notify her supervisor in writing of the AIMR Code andStandards under which of the following circumstancesThe employer has indicated a willingness to adopt AIMRs Code and StandardsAand the supervisor is an AIMR memberThe employer has a high ethical standard much of which is reflected in writing inBthe firms Mission StatementC The supervisor is an AIMR memberThe employer has publicly acknowledged in writing that they have adopted theDAIMR Code and StandardsQuestion14- 29226When an AIMRmember who is presently employed by a firm undertakes any independentEXCEPTEXCEPTpractice he must do all of the following EEXXCCEEPPTTA secure written permission from the employerremand a percentage to be determined by the employee and employer of theBincome earned back to the employerC secure written permission from the outside firmdisclosethe identity of their employer to clients and prospective clients and the factDthat they are performing independently of the employerQuestion15- 29227FALSEFALSEWhich of the following statements regarding employeeemployerrelationships is FFAALLSSEEA A written contract may or may not exist between employer and employeeThe employer has the power to control and direct the details of how work is to beBperformedThere must be monetary compensation for an employeremployee relationship toCexistD An employee is someone in the service of anotherQuestion16- 29228Withrespect toStandard III E Responsibilities of Supervisors compliance supervisors andEXCEPTEXCEPTcompliance officers should do all of the following EEXXCCEEPPTTA disseminate the compliance proceduresincorporate a professional conduct evaluation into the employees performanceBreviewhold hearings with representatives from the firm to decide whether violations haveCoccurred and the level of severity of the violationsD review employee actions to ensure compliance and identify violatorsQuestion17- 29229Brett Germaine is an AIMRmember who manages client portfolios He has the power to buyand sellsecurities on behalf of his clients His mother is a client and Brett manages her trustWithrespect tohis mother 抯 account he musttreat her account with a bit more care and concern giving her advance notice ofAinformation like recommendation changestreat her account with less care and concern than his other accounts soas to avoidBthe appearance of favoritism and comply with the Code and Standardsnot takehis mothers account because it is a violation of the Code and Standards toCmanage a family members account or trusttreat her account like any other firm account and should not give her accountDspecial treatment or disadvantageQuestion18- 29230In a tough decision to leave Greenberg and Associates Jillian Cross CFA decides to seekemployment with a competing firm She decides that her current management team isessential to her ability to do her job and plans to convince the others to come with her whenshe leaves She also plans to take her client list with her because she has tostart somewherein building a book of business Jillian isA out of compliance only in taking the client listB out of compliance only in trying to get her employees tocome with herout of compliance with Standard III B Duty to Employer on bothC counts-attempting to take her management team with her and misappropriating theclient listD in complianceQuantitative Analysis - 18 Questions - 27 minutesQuantitative Analysis - 18 Questions - 27 minutesuuaannttiittaattiivveeAAnnaallyyssiiss--1188uueessttiioonnss-- 2277mmiinnuutteessQuestion19- 18868There are 35 observations arrayed in a stem and leaf display What is the mode and median ofthis data5 01135666896 002222355678897 00223456678A62 and 65B60 and 63C65 and 62D 625 and 625Question20- 18871Use the following data to evaluate an investment portfolio that holds one share of each of threefirms A B and C that do not pay dividendsBeginningEndingStocksYearPriceYearPriceA 1020B 5060C 100 110What is the average rate return of the portfolioA 625B 1225C 1875D 4333Question21- 18872FALSEFALSEWhich of the following statements is FFAALLSSEEA The interquartile range contains half the data points in the data setThe interquartile range is set at half the distance between the largest and smallestBnumber in the data setIf the median is on the left side of the interquartile range the data is skewed to theCleftDownside outliers are those observations below the first quartile less 15 times theDinterquartile rangeQuestion22- 18873Use the following data tocalculate the standard deviation about the expected return50 chance of a 12 return30 chance of a 10 return20 chance of a 15 returnBull A25 B30 C17 D33Question23- 18874Based on the following data what is ABC Cos projected growth rateBear NormalBear Normal BullBBeeaarr NNoorrmmaall BBuullllProbability 30 40 30ROE 10 15 30b 60 4030A50B70C75D69Question24- 29390Justin Banks just won the lottery and is trying to decide between the annual cash flow paymentoption or the lump sum option Justin can earn 8 at the bank and the annual cashflow optionbeginningtodaybeginningtodayis 100000year bbeeggiinnnniinnggttooddaayy for 15 years What is the annual cash flow option worth toJustin todayA 85594787B 150000000C 108000000D 92442370Question25- 29391Given the following sample data find the standard deviation of the returns to stockA and stockBStockAStockBYear 1 1620Year 2 20 24Year 3 12 10A Std Dev A 33 Std DevB 59B Std Dev A 40 Std Dev B 72C Std Dev A 57 Std Dev B 102D Std Dev A 63 Std Dev B 112Question26- 29394An investor is considering two investments Stock A has a mean annual return of 16 percentand a standard deviation of 14 percent Stock B has a mean annual return of 20 percent and astandard deviation of 30 percent Calculate the coefficient ofvariation CV of each stockTRUETRUEWhich of the following statements is TTRRUUEEA StockA CV 0875 has more dispersion relative to the mean than stock BB StockA CV 0875 has less dispersion relative to the mean than stock BC StockA CV 114 has more dispersion relative to the mean than stock BD StockA CV 114 has less dispersion relative to the mean than stock BQuestion27- 29395The probability of a boom economy is 40 percent The probability of Yacht Co having a 50percent return given a boom economy is 80 percent Find the joint probability of a boomeconomy and a 50 percent return for Yacht CoA 020B 032C 040D 050Question28- 29397Janet Jacobs intends to start saving for retirement today in an IRA If she invests 3000yeareach year starting at the end of year 1 how much will she accumulated after 40 years if sheexpects to earn 12 percent over the periodA 230127426B 257742717C 27915291D 12000000Question29- 29398Johnson Inc manages a growth portfolio of equity securities that has amean monthly return of145 and a standard deviation of 108 The SP 500 has a mean monthly return of 12and a standard deviation of 68 The mean monthly return on T-bills is 030 CalculateSharpe 抯 reward-to-variability ratio for the growth portfolio and for the SP 500 Whichof theTRUETRUEfollowing statements is TTRRUUEEBased on a reward-to-variability ratio the growth portfolio is preferable to the SPA500B The growth portfolio has more excess return per unit of risk than the SP 500C An investor would always prefer the SP 500 to the growth portfolioBased on a reward-to-variability ratio the SP 500 is preferable to the growthDportfolioQuestion30- 29399Sarah Parker is buying a new 25000 car Her trade-in is worth 5000 soshe needs toborrow 20000 The loan will be paid in 48 monthly installments and the annual interest rateon the loan is 75 If the first payment is due at the end of the first month what is Sarah 抯monthly car paymentA 48057B 48358C 41667D 42763Question31- 18557TRUETRUEWhich of the following statements are TTRRUUEEI The mean of a sample of five numbers 5 2 4 5 4 is ∑X n-1 5II The standard error of the sample means of the numbers above is s n-1 752III The variance of a sample of five numbers 5 2 4 5 4 is ∑ X - X n-1 15IV The sampling error is the difference between a sample statistic and its correspondingpopulation parameterA III and IV onlyB III onlyC I II and III onlyD I II III and IVQuestion32- 28156An analyst conducts a two-tailed z-test to determine if small cap returns are significantlydifferent from 10 percent The sample sizewas 200 The computed z- statistic is 23 Using a 5TRUETRUEpercent confidence level which statement is TTRRUUEEA You cannot determine what to do with the information givenB A sample size of 200 indicates that the null should be acceptedAccept the null hypothesis and reject the alternative hypothesis That is small capCreturns are not significantly different from 10Reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis That is small capDreturns are significantly different from 10Question33- 28158TRUETRUEWhich of the following statements are TTRRUUEEI A two-tailed test on a large sample with a significance level of 01 has confidenceintervals of 196 s nII A hypothesized mean of 3 a sample mean of 6 and a standard error of the samplingmeans of 2 give a sample Z-statistic of 15III A Type I error is rejecting the null hypothesis when it was true and a Type II error isaccepting the alternative hypothesis when it is falseIV When the sample Z-statistic is greater than the critical Z- statistic in a two-tailed testyou should reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesisA I and III onlyB II and IV onlyC II III and IV onlyD I II III and IVQuestion34- 29392EXCEPTEXCEPTAllof the following are properties of the student 抯 t-distribution EEXXCCEEPPTT itA is symmetricalB has "fatter tails" than a normal distributionC is defined by a single parameter the degrees of freedom dfD is a normal distributionQuestion35- 29393The mean return of Bartlett Co is 3 percent and the standard deviation is 6 percent based on20 monthly returns What is the standard error of the sampleA 200B 067C 050D 134Question36- 29396FALSEFALSEWhich of the following statements is FFAALLSSEE regarding hypothesis testingA An analyst can perform a one-tailed or a two-tailed testB A type I error is acceptance of a hypothesis that is actually falseC A type II error is the acceptance of a hypothesis that is actually falseD The significance level is the risk of making a type I errorEconomics - 14 Questions - 21 minutesEconomics - 14 Questions - 21 minutesEEccoonnoommiiccss--1144uueessttiioonnss--2211mmiinnuutteessQuestion37- 28109Under rational expectations a shift to a more expansionary economic policy wouldA fail to reduce the unemployment rate in either the short or long termB reduce the short run unemployment rate but not the long term rateC reduce the long and short term unemployment rateD reduce the long run unemployment rate but not the short term rateQuestion38- 29047TRUETRUEWhich of the following statements about the basic functions of money is TTRRUUEEWhen money is defined as a medium of exchange it means that money enablesAvalue to be stored and transportedB Moneys value is directly related to the level of pricesPaper money allows consumers to defer consumption encourages division ofClabor and is the best store of valueD Moneys function as a unit of account allows individuals to account for debtsQuestion39- 29283You are expecting an additional payment of 2000 of income this year You intend to save500 of the 2000 According to the multiplier effect total spending will increase by a totalamount ofA 1500B 4000C 6000D 2500Question40- 29284Changes in the budget deficit due to government actions are calledA mandatory fiscal policyB Keynesian policyC monetary policyD discretionary fiscal policyQuestion41- 29286FALSEFALSEWhich of the following statements is FFAALLSSEE regarding the process by which fiscal policyaffects aggregate demand and aggregate supply The results of restrictive fiscal policy areA lower prices and reduced outputB impossible to predict with respect toprices and outputC a shift downward and to the right in the aggregate demandcurveD higher prices and higher outputQuestion42- 29287Which of the following statements regarding budget deficits inflation and interest rates isFALSEFALSEFFAALLSSEEThe crowding out model implies budget deficits will decrease the demand forAloanable funds and put downward pressure on the real rate of interestThe crowding out model implies budget deficits will increase demand for loanableBfunds and put upward pressure on the real rate of interestC Empirical studies show a weak relationship between deficits and real interest ratesThe new classical model implies that higher expected future taxes will stimulateD additional savings and thereby permit the government to expand borrowing at anunchanged interest rateQuestion43- 29288Bank required reserves are theimum reserves required by law earn interest and may not be loaned toA。

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考题1 .An equity valuation model that values a firm based on the market value of its outstanding debt and equity securities, relative to a firm fundamental, is a(n):A)asset-based model.B)enterprise value model.C)market multiple model.The correct answer was BAn enterprise value model relates a firm’s enterprise value (the market value of its outstanding equity and debt securities minus its cash and marketable securities holdings) to its EBITDA, operating earnings, or revenue.2 . Dividends on non-participating preference shares are typically:A)a fixed percentage of par value.B)a contractual obligation of the company.C)lower than the dividends on common shares.The correct answer was ASimilar to the interest payments on a debt security, dividends on non-participating preference shares (preferred stock) are typically fixed. Unlike the interest payments on a debt security, the company is not contractually obligated to pay preferred dividends. Preferred dividends are typically higher than a firm’s common dividends.3 . A firm has a profit margin of 10%, an asset turnover of 1.2, an equity multiplier of 1.3, and an earnings retention ratio of 0.5. What is the firm's internal growth rate?A)7.8%.B)6.7%.C)4.5%.The correct answer was AROE = (Net Income / Sales)(Sales / Total Assets)(Total Assets / Total Equity)ROE = (0.1)(1.2)(1.3) = 0.156g = (retention ratio)(ROE) = 0.5(0.156) = 0.078 or 7.8%4 . Liquidity of private equity is most likely:A)greater than liquidity of public equity.B)less than liquidity of public equity.C)about equal to liquidity of public equity.The correct answer was BPrivate equity securities are not registered to be traded in a public market, and therefore are less liquid that public equity.5 . In its latest annual report, a company reported the following:Net income = $1,000,000Total equity = $5,000,000Total assets = $10,000,000Dividend payout ratio = 40%Based on the sustainable growth model, the most likely forecast of the company’s future earnings growth rate is:A)6%.B)12%.C)8%.The correct answer was Bg = (RR)(ROE)RR = 1 − dividend payout ratio = 1 − 0.4 = 0.6ROE = NI / Total Equity = 1,000,000 / 5,000,000 = 1 / 5 = 0.2Note: This is the "simple" calculation of ROE. Since we are only given these inputs, these are what you should use. Also, if given beginning and ending equity balances, use the average in the denominator.g = (0.6)(0.2) = 0.12 or 12%。

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考题1 . A 2-year option-free bond (par value of $1,000) has an annual coupon of 6%. An investor determines that the spot rate of year 1 is 5% and the year2 spot rate is 8%. Using the arbitrage-free valuation approach, the bond price is closest to:A) $992.B) $966.C) $1,039.The correct answer was BThe arbitrage free valuation approach is the process of valuing a fixed income instrument as a portfolio of zero coupon bonds. We can calculate the price of the bond by discounting each of the annual payments by the appropriate spot rate and finding the sum of the present values. Bond price = [60 / (1.05)] + [1,060 / (1.08)2] = $966. Or, in keeping with the notion that each cash flow is a separate bond, sum the following transactions on your financial calculator:N = 1; I/Y = 5.0; PMT = 0; FV = 60; CPT → PV = 57.14N = 2; I/Y = 8.0; PMT = 0; FV = 1,060; CPT → PV = 908.78Price = 57.14 + 908.78 = $966.2 . A 6-year annual interest coupon bond was purchased one year ago. The coupon rate is 10% and par value is $1,000. At the time the bond was bought, the yield to maturity (YTM) was 8%. If the bond is sold after receiving the first interest payment and the bond's yield to maturity had changed to 7%, the annual total rate of return on holding the bond for that year would have been:A) 7.00%.B) 11.95%.C) 8.00%.The correct answer was BPrice 1 year ago N = 6, PMT = 100, FV = 1,000, I = 8, Compute PV = 1,092Price now N = 5, PMT = 100, FV = 1,000, I = 7, Compute PV = 1,123% Return = (1,123.00 + 100 − 1,092.46)/1,092.46 x 100 = 11.95%3 . A structured security is a combination of:A) a medium-term note and a derivative.B) a corporate bond and a syndicated loan.C) commercial paper and a backup line of credit.The correct answer was: AMedium-term notes (MTNs) that are combined with derivatives to create features desired by an investor are known as structured securities.4 . On November 15, 20X1, Grinell Construction Company decided to issue bonds to help finance the acquisition of new construction equipment. They issued bonds totaling $10,000,000 with a 6% coupon rate due June 15, 20X9. Grinell has agreed to pay the entire amount borrowed in one lump sum payment at the maturity date. Grinell is not required to make any principal payments prior to maturity. What type of bond structure has Grinell issued?A) Serial maturity structure.B) Term maturity structure.C) Amortizing maturity structure.The correct answer was BThese bonds have a term maturity structure because the issuer has agreed to pay the entire amount borrowed in one lump-sum payment at maturity.5 . The current yield on a bond is equal to:A) the internal rate of returnB) annual interest divided by the current market price.C) the yield to maturity.The correct answer was BThe formula for current yield is the annual cash coupon payment divided by the bond price.。

(完整版)CFA一级模考试题及答案

(完整版)CFA一级模考试题及答案

ANSWERS FOR MOCK EXAM 1 (MORNING SESSION)1。

D. Although Terence has passed Level III, he has not yet received his charter and cannot use the CFA designation。

The description provided in the cover letter properlydescribes his situation.2。

C。

Amy must take both actions-notifying her immediate supervisor and delivering a copy of the Code and Standards.3。

D。

4。

C. Members may undertake an independent practice that could result in compensation or other benefit in competition with their employer provided they obtain writtenconsent from both their employer and the party for whom they undertake independentpractice。

5. C。

To maintain his objectivity, Keith should pay his own hotel bill。

Because theitinerary required charter flights due to a lack of commercial transportation,A & K Limited can appropriately provide them。

(完整版)CFA一级模考试题及答案

(完整版)CFA一级模考试题及答案

ANSWERS FOR MOCK EXAM 1 (MORNING SESSION)1. D. Although Terence has passed Level III, he has not yet received his charter andcannot use the CFA designation. The description provided in the cover letterproperly describes his situation.2. C. Amy must take both actions-notifying her immediate supervisor and deliveringa copy of the Code and Standards.3. D.4. C. Members may undertake an independent practice that could result incompensation or other benefit in competition with their employer provided theyobtain written consent from both their employer and the party for whom theyundertake independent practice.5. C. To maintain his objectivity, Keith should pay his own hotel bill. Because theitinerary required charter flights due to a lack of commercial transportation, A& K Limited can appropriately provide them.6. C. Under ERISA, fiduciaries must act solely in the interest of, and for theexclusive purpose of benefiting, the plan participants and beneficiaries.7. B. Daniel must give priority to transactions for clients and employers overtransactions for his children.8. A. To avoid violating the standards, members cannot trade until the member'sclients and employers have had an adequate opportunity to act on therecommendation.9. C. The requirements of Standard IV (B.5) are not intended to prevent Lambertfrom cooperating with an investigation by AIMR's Professional ConductProgram.10. B. Vivian should disclose to her clients and prospects her husband's holdings inDouble Limited because this matter could be expected to impair her ability tomake unbiased and objective recommendations.11. B.12. B. Accruals accounting is required.13. C. S tandard I(B) Fundamental Responsibilities. Prohibition against participating orassisting in illegal and ethical violations. If Roberts suspects someone isplanning or engaging in illegal activities, he should: (1) determine the legalityof the activities, (2) disassociate himself from the illegal or unethical activity,and (3) urge his firm to attempt to persuade the perpetrator to stop. The AIMRStandards of Professional Conduct do not require that Roberts report suchactivities to the authorities, but the law might.14. C. Standard III(C) Disclosure of Conflicts to Employer. Gloria should disclose toher employer all matters that could reasonably be expected to interfere with herability to make unbiased and objective recommendations. Her service as atrustee of the Well Limited Foundation for Heart Research is most likely to beconsidered a conflict of interest with her responsibility to her employer.15. C. Standard III (E) Responsibilities of Supervisors. Paul may delegate supervisoryduties, but such delegation does not relieve him of his supervisoryresponsibility.16. A. Standard IV (B.3) Fair Dealing. Johnson violated the standard on fair dealingbecause he did not deal fairly and objectively with all clients and prospectswhen disseminating investment recommendations. Instead, he showedfavoritism to his best clients. In disseminating investment recommendations,Johnson should consider making the information available to clients based ontheir interest and suitability. A change of recommendation from buy to sell orsell to buy is generally material.17. D. Standard IV(B.5) Preservation of Confidentiality. Choice B is false because thisstandard prohibits members from executing settlement agreements that preventmembers from providing information in an investigation by AIMR'sProfessional Conduct Program (PCP). Choice C is false because a personcannot withhold information during PCP investigations. Choice A is falsebecause if a member receives information due to his or her special relationshipwith the client indicating illegal behavior on the past of the client, the membermay not have an obligation to inform the appropriate authorities.18. A. Standard IV(B.6) Prohibition against Misrepresentation. Members are notpermitted to make any assurances or guarantees about any investment, except tocommunicate accurate information. The statement that investment grade bondshave less default risk than junk bonds is an accurate statement.19. C. Use BGN node: n = 10; i = 12 PMT = 1,000, compute FV = 19.654.5820. B. The present value of a perpetuity is PV = A/r = 500/0.1 = $5,000.21. B. i = 6/12 = 0.5; n = 10x12 = 120; PV = 40,000 Compute PMT22. A.23. A. A binomial random variable has an expected value or mean equal to np andvariance equal to np(1-p).Mean = 12(0.5) = 6; variance (12)(0.5)(1-0.5) = 324. D.25. B. Rbt-1 = In St+1 /St = (1+RL1-1) = In (40/25) = 0.47. Thus, 47% is thecontinuously computed return for the one-year holding period.26. B. Choice A describes cross-sectional data.Choice B describes time-series data.27. D. The dependent variable, Y, is equal to the intercept, b0, plus a slope coefficient,P(positive) - P(analyst and positive)P (A or positive) = 130/200 + 140/200 - (100/130) = 0.58 or 58%36. B. Savings increases to hold interest rates constant. This means aggregate demandchanges little.37. C. The empirical evidence on the relationship between budget deficits and interestrates is mixed.Few studies show a significant positive short-term link between budget deficitsand real interest rates.38. B. Expansion = 1 / reserve requirement = 1/0.25 = 4(4)(150) = 60039. C. People realize this leads to inflation in the long run, so they reduce their moneyholdings. Output rises because the increase is unexpected.40. C. In purely competitive markets, there are a large number of dependent firms.41. D.42. D.43. C.44. C.45. D. Choice A: Accrual accounting does not require the receipt of cash for assuranceof payment to exist.Choice C and D: These relate only to the condition of completion of theearnings process.46. D.47. A Demand for currency decreases when real interest rates decrease because ofdecreased capital flows.48. C Foreign exchange quotations can be expressed on a direct basis - the homecurrency price of another currency—or an indirect basis-- the foreign currencyprice of the home currency.49. C F/S= (1 + r D)/(l + r F) where rates are listed as DC/FCF = (1.3/1.25)(0.4) = 0.41650. C. Direct method:Net income 1000Depreciation 70Goodwill 30Change in accounts receivable 25Change in inventory (35)Change in accounts payable 30Change in wages payable 15Operating cash flows 113551. B. Purchase equipment (200)Sell truck 25Investing cash flows (175)52. D. Sale of common stock 100Issuance of bonds 20Financing cash flows 12053. D. A common size balance sheet expresses all balance sheet accounts as apercentage of total assets.54. C. Original shares of common stock = 1,000,000(12) = 12,000,000Stock dividend = 200,000(12) = 2,400,000New shares of common stock = 200,000(3) = 600,000Total shares of common stock = 15,000,000/12= 1,250,000 Stock dividends are assumed to have been outstanding since the beginning ofthe year.55. D. Inventory turnover, defined as COGS/Average inventory, if often meaninglessfor LIFO companies due to the mismatching of costs. The numerator representscurrent costs, whereas the denominator reports outdated historical costs. Thus,the turnover ratio under LIFO will, when prices decrease, trend lower becauseof small COGS and larger inventory. Net profit margin, defined as EA T/Sales,is higher during periods of decreasing profits for LIFO companies. LIFO leadsto a smaller COGS, which reduces EAT, without affecting sales.56. A. In this situation, LIFO results in lower cost of goods sold because it uses themore recent and lower costs than LIFO. LIFO results in lower cash flowsbecause the cash on income taxes is a percentage(the marginal tax rate) of thedifference in inventory values. Thus, with LIFO:Sales-COGS (smaller)EBT (larger)-Taxes (larger) Because taxes paid out are a cash outflow.EAT (larger) If taxes are larger, then cash flow ill be smaller.57. D. COGSFIFO = COGSLIFO - (Ending LIFO Reserve - Beginning LIFO Reserve)COGSFIFO = $250,000 - ($8,000-$5,000) = $247,00058. D. Compared to expensing, capitalizing results in higher profitability in earlyyears and lower profitability in later years.59. C.60. D. The present value of the minimum lease payments equals or exceeds 90 percentof the value of the fair value of the leased property.61. B. Capital lease affects on the income statement:Step1: Calculate the depreciation charge: ($3,500,000-$450,000)/10 = $305,000Step2: Calculate the interest expense: $3,500,000(0.15) = $525,000Total expense: $305,000+$525,000 = $830,00062. A.63. C.64. A.65. B.66. D.67. B. Dealer-markets are price-driven markets.68. D.69. C.70. C. P/E = Dividend payout ratio/(k-g)Dividend payout ratio = 1 - retention ratio = 1-0.2 = 0.8P/E = 0.8(0.15-0.08) =5.671. B. k = D1/P0+g = $4/$25+0.09 = 0.2572. A. Step1: Calculate the ending index value = ($100)(5) = $500Step2: Calculate the expected return.E(R1) = [Dividends + (Ending value - Beginning value)]/(Beginning value)= [40+(500-490)]/$490 = 0.1 or 10%73. D. The critical factors determining the franchise P/E are the difference between theexpected return on the new opportunities (R) and the current cost of capital (k)and the size of these growth opportunities relative to the firm's current size.74. A.75. C.76. D The completed contract method less net income in the periods beforeconstruction is completed, but not at the end of the contract, than using thepercentage-of-completion method. This is because the completed contractmethod recognizes revenue and expense only when the contract has beencompleted.77. A. N et income 1,000Adjustment for non-cash andnon-operating itemsDepreciation 100Deferred taxes (increase) 40Profit from sale ofequipment (10)Adjustment for workingcapital items:Accounts receivable (decrease) (120)Inventory (increase) (40)Accounts payable (increase) (20)Wages payable (decrease) (10)Cash flow from operations 94078. D79. A When inventory and accounts receivable increase, this is a use of cash (cashoutflow); when assets decrease, this is a source (cash inflow). When accountspayable increase, this is a source of cash (cash inflow); when liabilitiesdecrease, this is a use (cash outflow).80. B Cash conversion cycle = receivables days + inventory processing days -payables payment period.Receivables days = 365/receivabies turnover = 365/30 = 12.17 days.Inventory processing days = 365/inventory turnover = 365/15 = 24.33 days.Payables payment period = 365/payabIes turnover = 365/20 = 18.25days.Cash collection cycle = 12.17 + 24.33 – 18.25 = 18.25 days.81. B Choice A: Buying fixed assets on credit does not affect current assets butincreases current liabilities. Therefore, the current ratio falls.Choice B: Buying inventory on account increases both inventory and accountspayable. Because the current ratio started off below I, the ratio will increase.Choice C: Selling marketable securities for cash does not affect the amount ofcurrent assets and leaves the current ratio unaffected,Choice D: Paying off accounts payable from cash lowers current assets andcurrent liabilities by the same amount. Because the current ratio started offbelow 1, the ratio will fall.82. D ROE = Profit margin x Total asset turnover x financial leverageROE = (0.3)(2.1)(0.5)= 0.315 or 31.5%83. A ROE = [(S/A)(EBIT/S) - (I/A)](A/EQ)(I - t)ROE = [(2.5)(0.2) - (0.08)](1.2)(0.6) = 0.30 or 30%84. A85. B EPS = ($180,000 - $4,000) / 50,000 = $3.52 per share86. B87. D88. C These relationships are reversed in the latter years of the asset's life if the firm'scapital expenditures decline.89. D90. C.91. C.92. D.93. D. Absolute yield spread = Yield on Bond A - Yield on Bond B = 10%-7% = 3%94. B. Relative yield spread = (Yield on Bond A - Yield on Bond B)/(Yield on BondB)= (10%-7%)/7% = 0.43 = 43%95. B. Yield ratio = (Yield on Bond A)/(Yield on Bond B) = 6%/7% = 1.4396. B. Current yield = (Annual dollar coupon interest)/(Price of the bond) = 8/130 =0.0625 or 6.25%97. A. When the stock's price (S) - the strike price (X) is positive, a call option isin-the-money. 25-X = 8 so X = 17.98. A.99. A. The writer of put loss = $60-premiun$5 = $55The writer of call gets a maximum gain of $8100. A.101. C.102. D.103. A.104. D.105. B.106. D.107. C.108. A. Securities that fall on the SML are properly valued.109. A.110. A. If a stock's beta were equal to 1, an investor would be expected to get the market rate of return from buying the stock. E(R) = 5%+1(10%-5%) = 10% 111. D112. D113. C114. B Perfect positive correlation (r = + 1) of the returns of two assets offers no risk reduction, whereas perfect negative correlation (r = -1) offers the greatest riskreduction.115. B Portfolio A does not lie on the efficient frontier because it has a lower return than Portfolio B but has greater risk. Portfolio D does not lie on the efficientfrontier because it has higher risk than Portfolio C but has the same return. 116. C.117. D Choice A: Unsystematic risk is diversifiable risk.Choice B: Systematic risk is undiversifiable risk.Choice C: Total risk= Systematic risk+ Unsystematic risk.118. C119. D CAPM specifies the factor (market risk) but APT does not.120. A。

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考

CFA一级模考题1 . In a demand function for Good M, if the price of a substitute for Good M decreases, the quantity demanded of Good M:A)increases.B)may increase or decrease.C)decreases.The correct answer was CThe price coefficient of a substitute in a demand function is positive. This means a decrease in the price of a substitute for a good will decrease the quantity demanded of that good.2 . The law of diminishing returns states that at some point as:A)less of a resource are devoted to production, holding the quantity of other inputs constant, the output will decrease, but at an increasing rate.B)more of a resource is devoted to production, holding the quantity of other inputs constant, the output will increase, but at a decreasing rate.C)more of a resource is devoted to production, holding the quantity of other inputs constant, at some point output will begin to decrease.The correct answer was: BAt low levels of output, increasing marginal returns will exist corresponding to the downward sloping portion of the marginal cost curve. As marginal costs begin to increase diminishing marginal returns will occur.3 . A consumer’s income is €1,000. If the price of Good M is €25 and the price of Good N is €30, this consumer’s budget line most likely includes a bundle of:A)24 units of Good M and 13 units of Good N.B)22 units of Good M and 15 units of Good N.C)26 units of Good M and 12 units of Good N.The correct answer was: BThe budget line includes bundles of two goods th at just exhaust a consumer’s income. For a bundle of 22 units of Good M and 15 units of Good N, €25 × 22 + €30 × 15 = €1,000, which is this consumer’sincome. A bundle of 24 units of Good M and 13 units of Good N does not exhaust this consumer’s income and lies below the budget line: €25 × 24 + €30 × 13 = €990. A bundle of 26 units of Good M and 12 units of Good N is unaffordable to this consumer and lies above the consumer’s budget line: €25 × 26 + €30 × 12 = €1,010.4 . With respect to utility theory, the substitution effect for a decrease in the price of a good:A)will increase consumption of the good.B)will decrease consumption of the good.C)may increase or decrease consumption of the good.The correct answer was AIn utility theory, if the price of one good decreases, the substitution effect causes consumption of that good to increase.5 . A good is considered an inferior good if it exhibits a negative:A) income effect.B) substitution effect.C) elasticity of demand.The correct answer was AThe income effect is negative for an inferior good. An increase in income results in a decrease in the quantity demanded.。

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CFA一级内容:CFA历年考试模拟题(一)一、Ethical and Professional Standards1.: Code of EthicsA.: State the four components of the Code of Ethics.Members of AIMR shall:1. Act with integrity, competence, dignity, and in an ethical manner when dealing with the public, clients, prospects, employers, employees, and fellow members.2. Practice and encourage others to practice in a professional and ethical manner that will reflect credit on members and their profession.3. Strive to maintain and improve their competence and the competence of others in the profession.4. Use reasonable care and exercise independent professional judgment.to launch Standards of Practice2-I.: Standards of Professional Conduct: I. Fundamental ResponsibilitiesA.: Know the laws and rules.Standard: Maintain knowledge of and comply with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations (including AIMR’s Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct) of any government, government agency, regulatory organization, licensing agency, or profes sional association governing the members’ professional activities.Compliance: Members can acquire and maintain knowledge about applicable laws, rules, and regulations by:· Maintaining current files on applicable statutes, rules, and regulations.· Keeping informed.· Reviewing written compliance procedures on a regular basis.B.: Don't break or help others break the law.Standard: Not knowingly participate or assist in any violation of such laws, rules, or regulations.Compliance: When members suspect a client or a colleague of planning or engaging in ongoing illegal activities, members should take the following actions:· Consult counsel to determine if the conduct is, in fact, illegal.· Disassociate from any illegal o r unethical activity. When members have reasonable grounds to believe that a client’s or employee’s activities are illegal or unethical, the members should dissociate from these activities and urge their firm to attempt to persuade the perpetrator to cease such activity.2-II.: Standards of Professional Conduct: II. Relationships with and Responsibilities to the ProfessionA.: Use of Professional DesignationII(A.1)AIMR members may reference their membership only in a dignified and judicious manner. The use of the reference may be accompanied by an accurate explanation of the requirements that have been met to obtain membership in these organizations.II(A.2)Those who have earned the right to use the Chartered Financial Analyst designation may use the marks “Chartered Financial Analyst” or “CFA” and are encouraged to do so, but only in a proper, dignified, andjudicious manner. The use of the designation may be accompanied by an accurate explanation of the requirements that have been met to obtain the right to use the designation.II(A.3)Candidates in the CFA Program, as defined in the AIMR Bylaws, may reference their participation in the CFA Program, but the reference must clearly state that an individual is a candidate in the CFA Program and cannot imply that the candidate has achieved any type of partial designation.B.: Professional MisconductII(B.1)Members shall not engage in any professional conduct involving dishonesty, fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation or commit any act that reflects adversely on their honesty, trustworthiness, or professional competence.II(B.2)Members and candidates shall not engage in any conduct or commit any act that compromises the integrity of the CFA designation or the integrity or validity of the examinations leading to the award of the right to use the CFA designation.Compliance:1. Make clear that dishonest personal behavior reflects poorly on the profession.2. Adopt a code of ethics to which every employee must subscribe.3. Conduct background checks on potential employees to ensure that they are of good character and eligible to work in the investment industry.C.: Prohibition against PlagiarismStandard: Members shall not copy or use, in substantially the same form as the original, material prepared by another without acknowledging and identifying the name of the author, publisher, or source of such material. Members may use, without acknowledgment, factual information published by recognized financial and statistical reporting services or similar sources.Compliance:1. Maintain copies of materials that were relied on in preparing the research report.2. Attribute quotations (and projections, tables, statistics, models, and methodologies) used other than recognized financial and statistical reporting services.3. Attribute paraphrases and summaries of material prepared by others.2-III.: Standards of Professional Conduct: III. Relationships and Responsibilities to the EmployerA.: Inform your Employer of the Code and StandardsIII(A.1)Members shall inform their employer in writing, through their direct supervisor, that they are obligated to comply with the Code and Standards and are subject to disciplinary sanctions for violations thereof.III(A.2)Members shall deliver a copy of the Code and Standards to their employer if the employer does not have a copy.Compliance: Members should notify their supervisor in writing of the Code and Standards and the member’s responsibility to follow them. The member should also suggest that the employers adopt the Code and Standards and disseminate it throughout the firm. If the employer has publicly acknowledged, in writing, that they have adopted AIMR’s Code and Standards as part of the firm’s policies then the member need not give the formal written notification as required by III(A).B.: Duty to EmployerStandard: Members shall not undertake any independent practice that could result in compensation or other benefit in competition with their employer unless they obtain written consent from both their employer and the persons or entities for whom they undertake independent practice.Compliance:1. Members who plan to engage in independent practice for compensation should provide written statements to their employer describing the types of services they will perform, the expected duration of the services, and the compensation they will receive.2. Members should also disclose to their prospective clients the identity of their employer, the fact that they are performing independently of the employer, and what their employer would charge for similar services.3. Members seeking new employment should not contact existing clients or potential clients prior to leaving their employer or take records/files to their new employer without the written permission of the previous employer.C.: Disclose Conflicts between you and your EmployerIII(C.1):Members shall disclose to their employer all matters, including beneficial ownership of securities or other investments, that reasonably could be expected to interfere with their duty to their employer or ability to make unbiased and objective recommendations.III(C.2):Members shall comply with any prohibitions on activities imposed by their employer if a conflict of interest exists.Compliance: Members should report to their employers any beneficial interest and any special relationships, like corporate directorships, that may reasonably be considered a conflict of interest with their responsibilities. Members should also discuss the situation with their firm’s compliance officer before taking any action that could lead to a conflict of interest.D.: Disclose Additional Compensation from Outside the Firm to your EmployerStandard: Members shall disclose to their employer in writing all monetary compensation or other benefits that they receive for their services that are in addition to compensation or benefits conferred by a member’s employer.Compliance: Members should make an immediate written report to their employer specifying any compensation or benefits they receive or propose to receive for services in addition to what their employer isto give them. This written report should state the terms of any oral or written agreement, the amount of compensation, and the duration of the agreement.E.: Responsibilities of SupervisorsStandard: Members with supervisory responsibilities, authority, or the ability to influence the conduct of others shall exercise reasonable supervision over those subject to their supervision or authority to prevent any violation of applicable statutes, regulation, or provisions of the Code and Standards. In so doing, members are entitled to rely on reasonable procedures designed to detect and prevent such violations.Compliance: The supervisor and the compliance officer should:1. Disseminate the compliance procedures.2. Update the procedures as necessary.3. Educate the staff and issue periodic reminders.4. Incorporate a professional conduct evaluation into the employee’s performance review.5. Review employee actions to ensure compliance and identify violators, initiating procedures once a violation has occurred. A supervisor should respond promptly to the violation by conducting a thorough investigation, and placing limitations on the wrongdoer until the investigation is complete.2-IV.: Standards of Professional Conduct: IV. Relationships with and Responsibilities to Clients and ProspectsA.: The Investment ProcessIV(A.1) Reasonable Basis and Representations. Members shall:a. Exercise diligence and thoroughness in making investment recommendations or in taking investment actions.b. Have a reasonable and adequate basis, supported by appropriate research and investigation, for such recommendations or actions.c. Make reasonable and diligent efforts to avoid any material misrepresentation in any research report or investment recommendation.d. Maintain appropriate records to support the reasonableness of such recommendations or actions.Compliance:1. Analyze the investment’s basic characteristics (records must show the characteristics of the investment and the basis for the recommendation).2. Analyze the needs of the portfolio (includes the client’s needs, as well as the needs of the total portfolio).3. Maintain files to support investment recommendations.IV(A.2) Research Reports. Members shall:a. Use reasonable judgment regarding the inclusion or exclusion of relevant factors in research reports.b. Distinguish between facts and opinions in research reports.c. Indicate the basic characteristics of the investment involved when preparing for public distribution a research report that is not directly related to a specific portfolio or client.Compliance: Members should consider including the following information in research reports:1. Expected annual rates of return, calculated on a total return basis.2. Annual income expectations.3. Current rate of return or yield.4. The degree of uncertainty associated with the cash flows, and other risk factors.5. The investment’s marketability or liquidity.IV(A.3) Independence and Objectivity. Members shall use reasonable care and judgment to achieve and maintain independence and objectivity in making investment recommendations or taking investment actions.Compliance:1. Protect integrity of opini ons. Reports should reflect the analyst’s unbiased opinion.2. Disclose all corporate relationships (i.e., directorships, underwriting arrangements or acting as a market maker).3. Disclose personal holdings and beneficial ownerships.4. Create a restricted list.5. Restrict special cost arrangements. Members should pay for their commercial transportation and hotel charges.6. Limit gifts (US$100 is the maximum acceptable value for a gift or gratuity).7. Restrict investments (strict limits should be imposed on private placements).8. Review procedures (supervise the personal investment activities of the employees).B.: Interactions with Clients and ProspectsIV(B.1) Fiduciary Duties: In relationships with clients, members shall use particular care in determining applicable fiduciary duty and shall comply with such duty as to those persons and interests to whom the duty is owed. Members must act for the benefit of their clients and place their clients' interests before their own.Compliance:1. Follow all applicable rules and laws.2. Establish the investment objectives of the client.3. Diversify.4. Deal fairly with all clients with respect to investment actions.5. Disclose all possible conflicts of interest.6. Disclose compensation arrangements.7. Preserve the confidentiality of client information.8. Maintain loyalty to the plan beneficiaries.IV(B.2) Portfolio Investment Recommendations and Actions: Members shall:a. Make a reasonable inquiry into a client's financial situation, investment experience, and investment objectives prior to making any investment recommendations and shall update this information as necessary, but no less frequently than annually, to allow the members to adjust their investment recommendations to reflect changed circumstances.b. Consider the appropriateness and suitability of investment recommendations or actions for each portfolio or client (including the needs and circumstances of the portfolio or client, the basic characteristics of the investment involved, and the basic characteristics of the total portfolio).c. Distinguish between facts and opinions in presenting recommendations.d. Disclose to clients and prospects the basic format and general principles of the investment processes by which securities are selected and portfolios are constructed and shall promptly disclose to clients and prospects any changes that might significantly affect those processes.Compliance: Know basic nature of your client; know objectives and constraints.IV(B.3) Fair Dealing: Members shall deal fairly and objectively with all clients and prospects when disseminating investment recommendations, disseminating material changes in prior investment recommendations, and taking investment action.Compliance:1. Limit the number of people privy to recommendations and changes.2. Shorten the time frame between initiation and dissemination.3. Publish personnel guidelines for pre-dissemination.4. Simultaneous dissemination.5. Establish rules about employee trading activities.6. Establish procedures for determining material changes.7. Maintain a list of clients and their holdings.8. Develop trade allocation procedures.9. Make sure one account is not being used to bail out other accounts.10.If the firm offers differing levels of service, this fact should be disclosed to all clients.IV(B.4) Priority of Transactions: Clients and employers shall have priority over transactions in securities or other investments of which a member is the beneficial owner so that such personal transactions do not operate adversely to their clients' or employer's interests. If members make a recommendation regarding the purchase or sale of a security or other investment, they shall give their clients and employer adequate opportunity to act on the recommendation before acting on their own behalf.Compliance:1. Define personal transactions.2. Define covered investments.3. Limit the number of access persons. “Fire Walls” should be built to prevent the flow of information from one group or department to other groups within the firm.4. Define prohibited transactions. The text specifically mentions equity based IPOs.5. Establish reporting procedures and prior-clearance requirements.6. Ensure that procedures will be enforced and establish disciplinary procedures.IV(B.5) Preservation of Confidentiality: Members shall preserve the confidentiality of information communicated by clients, prospects, or employers concerning matters within the scope of the client-member, prospect-member, or employer-member relationship unless the member receives information concerning illegal activities on the part of the client, prospect, or employer.Compliance: The simplest and most effective way to comply is to avoid discussing any information received from a client except to colleagues working on the same project.IV(B.6) Prohibition against Misrepresentation: Members shall not make any statements, orally or in writing that misrepresent:a. the services that they or their firms are capable of performing.b. their qualifications or the qualifications of their firm.c. the member's academic or professional credentials.Members shall not make or imply, orally or in writing, any assurances or guarantees regarding any investment except to communicate accurate information regarding the terms of the investment instrument and the issuer's obligations under the instrument.Compliance: Firms can provide guidance to employees who make written or oral presentations to clients or prospects by providing a w ritten list of the firm’s available services and a description of the firm’s qualifications.IV(B.7) Disclosure of Conflicts to Clients and Prospects: Members shall disclose to their clients and prospects all matters, including beneficial ownership of securities or other investments, that reasonably could be expected to impair the member's ability to make unbiased and objective recommendations.Compliance: Members should report to their employers, clients, and prospects any material beneficial interest they may have in securities, corporate directorships, or other special relationships they may have with the companies they are recommending. Members should make the disclosures before they make any recommendations or take any investment actions regarding these investments.IV(B.8) Disclosure of Referral Fees: Members shall disclose to clients and prospects any consideration or benefit received by the member or delivered to others for the recommendation of any services to the client or prospect.Compliance:1. Disclose all agreements in writing to any client or prospect who has been referred.2. Describe in the disclosure the nature of the consideration and the estimated dollar value of the consideration.3. Consult a supervisor and legal counsel concerning any prospective arrangement regarding referral fees.2-V.: Standards of Professional Conduct: V. Relationships with and Responsibilities to the Investing PublicA.: Prohibition against Use of Material Nonpublic InformationStandard: Members who possess material nonpublic information related to the value of a security shall not trade or cause others to trade in that security if such trading would breach a duty or if the information was misappropriated or relates to a tender offer. If members receive material nonpublic information in confidence, they shall not breach that confidence by trading or causing others to trade in securities to which such information relates. Members shall make reasonable efforts to achieve public dissemination of material nonpublic information disclosed in breach of a duty.Compliance: Fire walls, minimum elements are:1. Control over interdepartmental communications.2. Review employee trading against restricted lists.3. Restrict proprietary trading while the firm is in possession of material nonpublic information.Additional procedures:1. Restrict personal and proprietary employee trading.2. Place securities on a restricted list when the firm has material nonpublic information.3. Disseminate material nonpublic information only to those with a need to know.4. Designate a supervisor who decides when trading is appropriate.B.: Performance presentationStandard:1. Members shall not make any statements, orally or in writing, that misrepresent the investment performance that they or their firms have accomplished or can reasonably be expected to achieve.2. If members communicate individual or firm performance information directly or indirectly to clients or prospective clients, or in a manner intended to be received by clients or prospective clients, members shall make every reasonable effort to assure that such performance information is a fair, accurate, and complete presentation of such performance.Compliance: Misrepresentation about the investment performance of the firm can be avoided if the member maintains data about the firm’s investment per formance in written form. Investment accounts should be combined into composites by investment class and risk groups.3: Standards of Practice Handbooka: Demonstrate a thorough knowledge of the Standards of Professional Conduct by recognizing and applying the Standards to specific situations.This is an application of many different ethics concepts to different scenarios. After having learned the ethics material in earlier learning outcomes you will be able to apply these concepts to various scenarios as you take the quizzes.b: Distinguish between conduct that conforms to the Code and the Standards and conduct that violates the Code and the Standards.This requires looking at different scenarios and possibly applying several ethics concepts to each scenario. After you learn and understand the ethics concepts you will be able to apply them to specific situations through the quizzes.4: AIMR Performance Presentation Standards Handbooka: Explain the goals of the AIMR-PPS Standards.The Standards have been designed to meet the following goals:· To achieve greater uniformity and comparability among performance presentations.· To improve the service offered to investment management clients.· To enhance the profession alism of the industry.· To bolster the notion of self-regulation.Note: The Presentation Standards are intended primarily to be performance presentation standards,not performance measurement standards. Portions of the AIMR-PPS are required while some are recommended. AIMR strongly encourages the adoption of both required and recommended components of the Standards. Also, performance presentations may have to provide more than the minimum requirements of the AIMR-PPS to meet the full intent of the Standards.b: Identify the parties affected by the AIMR-PPS standards.· Firms. The PPS Standards are voluntary. The PPS are widely recognized as fair and accurate reporting guidelines for investment performance.· AIMR Members, CFA Charterholders, and CFA Candidates. The PPS are not explicitly incorporated into the AIMR Code and Standards of Professional Conduct. The PPS does, however, help insure that members, charterholders and candidates are in compliance with Standard V(B), Performance Presentation, so that they will make no material misrepresentation of their performance results.· Prospective and Current Clients. The PPS helps clients compare investment performance across firms. The PPS helps clients evaluate their investment manager’s performance.c: Identify the four main topics of the AIMR-PPS standards (i.e., creation and maintenance of composites, calculation of returns, presentation of results, and disclosures).· Creation and maintenance of composites. A composite is a set of portfolios that follow the same investment style.· Calculation o f returns.· Presentation of results.· Disclosures.d: Identify what constitutes a valid claim of compliance with the AIMR-PPS standards.To claim compliance, firms must meet all composite, calculation, presentation, and disclosure requirements. Adherence to the basic requirements, however, does not guarantee fair and adequate performance reporting. Compliance with the standards also requires adherence to all applicable laws and regulations.If the firm has made every reasonable effort to ensure that their performance presentation is in compliance with the PPS, the firm can use the following legend:?XYZ Firm has prepared and presented this report in compliance with the Performance Presentation Standards of the Association for Investment Management and Research. AIMR has not been involved with the preparation or review of this report.· Any use of the mark “AIMR” except as shown above is prohibited.· If results are not in full compliance, performance cannot be presented as: Being in compliance with the AIMR-PPS except for …· Statements referring to the calculation methodolog y used in a presentation as being in accordance or compliance with AIMR-PPS standards are prohibited.· AIMR members who misuse the term AIMR, AIMR-PPS standards, or the Compliance Statement are subject to disciplinary sanctions under Standard V(B).各位考生,2015年CFA备考已经开始,为了方便各位考生能更加系统地掌握考试大纲的重点知识,帮助大家充分备考,体验实战,高顿网校开通了全免费的CFA题库(包括精题真题和全真模考系统),题库里附有详细的答案解析,学员可以通过多种题型加强练习,通过针对性地训练与模考,对学习过程进行全面总结。

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