罗斯公司理财Chap002全英文试题库及答案
公司理财 习题库 Chap002
Multiple Choice Questions1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a money market instrument?A) liquidityB) marketabilityC) long maturityD) liquidity premiumE) C and DAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Money market instruments are short-term instruments with high liquidityand marketability; they do not have long maturities nor pay liquidity premiums.2. Which one of the following is not a money market instrument?A) a Treasury billB) a negotiable certificate of depositC) commercial paperD) a Treasury bondE) a Eurodollar accountAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Money market instruments are instruments with maturities of one year or less, which applies to all of the above except Treasury bonds. See Table 2.1, page 33.3. T-bills are financial instruments initially sold by ________ to raise funds.A) commercial banksB) the U. S. governmentC) state and local governmentsD) agencies of the federal governmentE) B and DAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Only the U. S. government sells T-bills in the primary market.4. The bid price of a T-bill in the secondary market isA) the price at which the dealer in T-bills is willing to sell the bill.B) the price at which the dealer in T-bills is willing to buy the bill.C) greater than the asked price of the T-bill.D) the price at which the investor can buy the T-bill.E) never quoted in the financial press.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: T-bills are sold in the secondary market via dealers; the bid price quoted in the financial press is the price at which the dealer is willing to buy the bill.5. Commercial paper is a short-term security issued by ________ to raise funds.A) the Federal Reserve BankB) commercial banksC) large, well-known companiesD) the New York Stock ExchangeE) state and local governmentsAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: Commercial paper is short-term unsecured financing issued directly by large, presumably safe corporations.6. Which one of the following terms best describes Eurodollars:A) dollar-denominated deposits in European banks.B) dollar-denominated deposits at branches of foreign banks in the U. S.C) dollar-denominated deposits at foreign banks and branches of American banksoutside the U. S.D) dollar-denominated deposits at American banks in the U. S.E) dollars that have been exchanged for European currency.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Although originally Eurodollars were used to describe dollar-denominated deposits in European banks, today the term has been extended to apply to anydollar-denominated deposit outside the U. S.7. Deposits of commercial banks at the Federal Reserve Bank are called __________.A) bankers' acceptancesB) repurchase agreementsC) time depositsD) federal fundsE) reserve requirementsAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: The federal funds are required for the bank to meet reserve requirements, which is a way of influencing the money supply. No substitutes for fed funds arepermitted.8. The interest rate charged by banks with excess reserves at a Federal Reserve Bank tobanks needing overnight loans to meet reserve requirements is called the_________.A) prime rateB) discount rateC) federal funds rateD) call money rateE) money market rateAnswer: C Difficulty: Easy9. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding municipal bonds?I) A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by state or local governments.II) A municipal bond is a debt obligation issued by the federal government.III)The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from federal income taxation.IV)The interest income from a municipal bond is exempt from state and local taxation in the issuing state.A) I and II onlyB) I and III onlyC) I, II, and III onlyD) I, III, and IV onlyE) I and IV onlyAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: State and local governments and agencies thereof issue municipal bonds on which the interest income is free from all federal taxes and is exempt from state and local taxation in the issuing state.10. Which of the following statements is true regarding a corporate bond?A) A corporate callable bond gives the holder the right to exchange it for a specifiednumber of the company's common shares.B) A corporate debenture is a secured bond.C) A corporate indenture is a secured bond.D) A corporate convertible bond gives the holder the right to exchange the bond for aspecified number of the company's common shares.E) Holders of corporate bonds have voting rights in the company.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Statement D is the only true statement; all other statements describesomething other than the term specified.11. In the event of the firm's bankruptcyA) the most shareholders can lose is their original investment in the firm's stock.B) common shareholders are the first in line to receive their claims on the firm's assets.C) bondholders have claim to what is left from the liquidation of the firm's assets afterpaying the shareholders.D) the claims of preferred shareholders are honored before those of the commonshareholders.E) A and D.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Shareholders have limited liability and have residual claims on assets.Bondholders have a priority claim on assets, and preferred shareholders have priority over common shareholders.12. Which of the following is true regarding a firm's securities?A) Common dividends are paid before preferred dividends.B) Preferred stockholders have voting rights.C) Preferred dividends are usually cumulative.D) Preferred dividends are contractual obligations.E) Common dividends usually can be paid if preferred dividends have been skipped.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The only advantages of preferred dividends over common dividends are that preferred dividends must be paid first and any skipped preferred dividends must be paid before common dividends may be paid.13. Which of the following is true of the Dow Jones Industrial Average?A) It is a value-weighted average of 30 large industrial stocks.B) It is a price-weighted average of 30 large industrial stocks.C) The divisor must be adjusted for stock splits.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: The Dow Jones Industrial Average is a price-weighted index of 30 large industrial firms and the divisor must be adjusted when any of the stocks on the index split.14. Which of the following indices is (are) market-value weighted?I)The New York Stock Exchange Composite IndexII)The Standard and Poor's 500 Stock IndexIII)The Dow Jones Industrial AverageA) I onlyB) I and II onlyC) I and III onlyD) I, II, and IIIE) II and III onlyAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The Dow Jones Industrial Average is a price-weighted index.15. The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) is computed by:A) adding the prices of 30 large "blue-chip" stocks and dividing by 30.B) calculating the total market value of the 30 firms in the index and dividing by 30.C) adding the prices of the 30 stocks in the index and dividing by a divisor.D) adding the prices of the 500 stocks in the index and dividing by a divisor.E) adding the prices of the 30 stocks in the index and dividing by the value of thesestocks as of some base date period.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: When the DJIA became a 30-stock index, response A was true; however, as stocks on the index have split and been replaced, the divisor has been adjusted. InJanuary 2003 the divisor was 0.146.Use the following to answer questions 16-18:Consider the following three stocks:Stock Price N um ber of shares outstandingStock A$40 200Stock B$70 500Stock C$10 60016. The price-weighted index constructed with the three stocks isA) 30B) 40C) 50D) 60E) 70Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: ($40 + $70 + $10)/3 = $40.17. The value-weighted index constructed with the three stocks using a divisor of 100 isA) 1.2B) 1200C) 490D) 4900E) 49Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The sum of the value of the three stocks divided by 100 is 490: [($40 x 200) + ($70 x 500) + ($10 x 600)] /100 = 490.18. Assume at these prices the value-weighted index constructed with the three stocks is490. What would the index be if stock B is split 2 for 1 and stock C 4 for 1?A) 265B) 430C) 355D) 490E) 1000Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Value-weighted indexes are not affected by stock splits.19. The price quotations of Treasury bonds in the Wall Street Journal show an ask price of104:08 and a bid price of 104:04. As a buyer of the bond what is the dollar price you expect to pay?A) $10,480.00B) $10,425.00C) $10,440.00D) $10,412.50E) $10,404.00Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: You pay the asking price of the dealer, 104 8/32, or 104.25% of $10,000, or $10,425.00.20. An investor purchases one municipal and one corporate bond that pay rates of return of8% and 10%, respectively. If the investor is in the 20% marginal tax bracket, his or her after tax rates of return on the municipal and corporate bonds would be ________ and ______, respectively.A) 8% and 10%B) 8% and 8%C) 6.4% and 8%D) 6.4% and 10%E) 10% and 10%Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: r c = 0.10(1 - 0.20) = 0.08, or 8%; r m = 0.08(1 - 0) = 8%.21. If a Treasury note has a bid price of $975, the quoted bid price in the Wall Street Journalwould beA) 97:50.B) 97:16.C) 97:80.D) 94:24.E) 97:75.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Treasuries are quoted as a percent of $1,000 and in 1/32s.22. In calculating the Standard and Poor's stock price indices, the adjustment for stock splitoccurs:A) by adjusting the divisor.B) automatically.C) by adjusting the numerator.D) quarterly, on the last trading day of each quarter.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The calculation of the value-weighted S&P indices includes both price and number of shares of each of the stocks in the index. Thus, the effects of stock splits are automatically incorporated into the calculation.23. Which of the following statements regarding the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA)is false?A) The DJIA is not very representative of the market as a whole.B) The DJIA consists of 30 blue chip stocks.C) The DJIA is affected equally by changes in low and high priced stocks.D) The DJIA divisor needs to be adjusted for stock splits.E) The value of the DJIA is much higher than individual stock prices.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The high priced stocks have much more impact on the DJIA than do the lower priced stocks.24. The index that includes the largest number of actively traded stock is:A) the NASDAQ Composite Index.B) the NYSE Composite Index.C) the Wilshire 5000 Index.D) the Value Line Composite Index.E) the Russell Index.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The Wilshire 5000 is the largest readily available stock index, consisting of the stocks traded on the organized exchanges and the OTC stocks.25. A 5.5% 20-year municipal bond is currently priced to yield 7.2%. For a taxpayer in the33% marginal tax bracket, this bond would offer an equivalent taxable yield of:A) 8.20%.B) 10.75%.C) 11.40%.D) 4.82%.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 0.072 = r m (1-t); 0.072 = r m / (0.67); r m = 0.1075 = 10.75%.26. If the market prices of each of the 30 stocks in the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA)all change by the same percentage amount during a given day, which stock will have the greatest impact on the DJIA?A) The stock trading at the highest dollar price per share.B) The stock with total equity has the higher market value.C) The stock having the greatest amount of equity in its capital structure.D) The stock having the lowest volatility.E) All will have an equal impact.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Higher priced stocks affect the DJIA more than lower priced stocks; other choices are not relevant.27. The Value Line Index is an equally weighted geometric average of the return of about1,700 firms. What is the value of an index based on the geometric average returns of three stocks, where the returns on the three stocks during a given period were 20%, -10%, and 5%?A) 4.3%B) 5.0%C) 11.7%D) 13.4%E) 12.2%Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: [(1.2)(0.9)(1.05)]1/3 - 1 = 4.28%.28. The stocks on the Dow Jones Industrial AverageA) have remained unchanged since the creation of the index.B) include most of the stocks traded on the NYSE.C) are changed occasionally as circumstances dictate.D) consist of stocks on which the investor cannot lose money.E) B and C.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The stocks on the DJIA are only a small sample of the entire market, have been changed occasionally since the creation of the index, and one can lose money on any stock. See text box on page 50 for a list of DJIA stock changes.29. Federally sponsored agency debtA) is legally insured by the U. S. Treasury.B) would probably be backed by the U. S. Treasury in the event of a near-default.C) has a small positive yield spread relative to U. S. Treasuries.D) B and C.E) A and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Federally sponsored agencies, such as the FHLB, are not government owned.These agencies' debt is not insured by the U.S. Treasury, but probably would be backed by the Treasury in the event of an agency near-default. As a result, the issues are very safe and carry a yield only slightly higher than that of U. S. Treasuries.30. Brokers' callsA) are funds used by individuals who wish to buy stocks on margin.B) are funds borrowed by the broker from the bank, with the agreement to repay thebank immediately if requested to do so.C) carry a rate that is usually about one percentage point lower than the rate on U.S.T-bills.D) A and B.E) A and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Brokers' calls are funds borrowed from banks by brokers and loaned toinvestors in margin accounts.31. A form of short-term borrowing by dealers in government securities isA) reserve requirements.B) repurchase agreements.C) banker's acceptances.D) commercial paper.E) brokers' calls.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Repurchase agreements are a form of short-term borrowing where a dealer sells government securities to an investor with an agreement to buy back those same securities at a slightly higher price.32. Which of the following securities is a money market instrument?A) Treasury noteB) Treasury bond.C) municipal bond.D) commercial paper.E) mortgage security.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Only commercial paper is a money market security. The others are capital market instruments.33. The call provision in Treasury securitiesI)is used with Treasury Notes.II)is used with Treasury Bonds.III)gives the Treasury the right to repurchase the security at par.IV)gives the Treasury the right to repurchase the security at a premium over par.A) II and III are correct.B) II and IV are correct.C) I, II and III are correct.D) I, II and IV are correct.E) Only II is correct.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Call provisions, giving the Treasury the right to repurchase the security at par, are included in some Treasury Bonds. No callable bonds have been issued since 1984.34. The yield to maturity reported in the financial pages for Treasury securitiesA) is calculated by compounding the semiannual yield.B) is calculated by doubling the semiannual yield.C) is also called the bond equivalent yield.D) is calculated as the yield-to-call for premium bonds.E) Both B and C are true.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: The yield to maturity shown in the financial pages is an APR calculated by doubling the semi-annual yield.35. Which of the following is not a mortgage-related government or government sponsoredagency?A) The Federal Home Loan BankB) The Federal National Mortgage AssociationC) The U.S. TreasuryD) Freddie MacE) Ginnie MaeAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: Only the U.S. Treasury issues securities that are not mortgage-backed. 36. The Tax Reform Act of 1986 limited the issue of mortgage revenue and tax-exemptbondsA) to $150 billion per state.B) to the larger of $50 per capita or $150 million per state.C) to the amount outstanding in 1980.D) to maturities of 20 years or less.E) None of the above statements are correct.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The Tax Reform Act of 1986 limited the issue of mortgage revenue and tax exempt bonds for each state to $50 per capita or $150 million in order to limit the drain of potential tax revenue from the Federal Government.37. In order for you to be indifferent between the after tax returns on a corporate bondpaying 8.5% and a tax-exempt municipal bond paying 6.12%, what would your taxbracket need to be?A) 33%B) 72%C) 15%D) 28%E) Cannot tell from the information givenAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .0612 = .085(1-t); (1-t) = 0.72; t = .2838. Which of the following are true about Treasury Bills?A) T-Bills are capital market instruments.B) T-Bills yields are quoted in the financial pages as effective annual rates of return.C At the T-Bill's maturity, the holder receives the face value of the Bill.C) Both A and C are correct.D) All of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate39. What does the term, “negotiable” mean with regard to negotiable certificates of deposit?A) The CD can be sold to another investor if the owner needs to cash it in before itsmaturity date.B) The rate of interest on the CD is subject to negotiation.C) The CD is automatically reinvested at its maturity date.D) The CD has staggered maturity dates built in.E) The interest rate paid on the CD will vary with a designated market rate.Answer: A Difficulty: Easy40. Freddie Mac and Ginnie Mae were organized to provideA) a primary market for mortgage transactions.B) liquidity for the mortgage market.C) a primary market for farm loan transactions.D) liquidity for the farm loan market.E) a source of funds for government agencies.Answer: B Difficulty: Easy41. The type of municipal bond that is used to finance commercial enterprises such as theconstruction of a new building for a corporation is calledA) a corporate courtesy bond.B) a revenue bond.C) a general obligation bond.D) a tax anticipation note.E) an industrial development bond.Answer: E Difficulty: Easy42. Suppose an investor is considering a corporate bond with a 7.17% before-tax yield and amunicipal bond with a 5.93% before-tax yield. At what marginal tax rate would the investor be indifferent between investing in the corporate and investing in the muni?A) 15.4%B) 23.7%C) 39.5%D) 17.3%E) 12.4%Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: t m = 1-(5.93%/7.17%) = 17.29%43. An individual can invest in student loan securities by buyingA) Sallie MaesB) Ginnie MaesC) Fanny MaesD) Freddie MacsE) Stacey JoesAnswer: A Difficulty: Easy44. Which of the following are characteristics of preferred stock?I)It pays its holder a fixed amount of income each year, at the discretion of itsmanagers.II)It gives its holder voting power in the firm.III)Its dividends are usually cumulative.IV)Failure to pay dividends may result in bankruptcy proceedings.A) I, III, and IVB) I, II, and IIIC) I and IIID) I, II, and IVE) I, II, III, and IVAnswer: C Difficulty: Moderate45. Bond market indexes can be difficult to construct becauseA) they cannot be based on firms' market values.B) bonds tend to trade infrequently, making price information difficult to obtain.C) there are so many different kinds of bonds.D) prices cannot be obtained for companies that operate in emerging markets.E) corporations are not required to disclose the details of their bond issues.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate46. With regard to a futures contract, the long position is held byA) the trader who bought the contract at the largest discount.B) the trader who has to travel the farthest distance to deliver the commodity.C) the trader who plans to hold the contract open for the lengthiest time period.D) the trader who commits to purchasing the commodity on the delivery date.E) the trader who commits to delivering the commodity on the delivery date.Answer: D Difficulty: Easy47. In order for you to be indifferent between the after tax returns on a corporate bondpaying 9% and a tax-exempt municipal bond paying 7%, what would your tax bracket need to be?A) 17.6%B) 27%C) 22.2%D) 19.8%E) Cannot tell from the information givenAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .07 = .09(1-t); (1-t) = 0.777; t = .22248. In order for you to be indifferent between the after tax returns on a corporate bondpaying 7% and a tax-exempt municipal bond paying 5.5%, what would your tax bracket need to be?A) 22.6%B) 21.4%C) 26.2%D) 19.8%E) Cannot tell from the information givenAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .055 = .07(1-t); (1-t) = 0.786; t = .21449. An investor purchases one municipal and one corporate bond that pay rates of return of6% and 8%, respectively. If the investor is in the 25% marginal tax bracket, his or her after tax rates of return on the municipal and corporate bonds would be ________ and ______, respectively.A) 6% and 8%B) 4.5% and 6%C) 4.5% and 8%D) 6% and 6%E) None of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: r c = 0.08(1 - 0.25) = 0.06, or 6%; r m = 0.06(1 - 0) = 6%.50. An investor purchases one municipal and one corporate bond that pay rates of return of7.2% and 9.1%, respectively. If the investor is in the 15% marginal tax bracket, his orher after tax rates of return on the municipal and corporate bonds would be ________ and ______, respectively.A) 7.2% and 9.1%B) 7.2% and 7.735%C) 6.12% and 7.735%D) 8.471% and 9.1%E) None of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: r c = 0.091(1 - 0.15) = 0.07735, or 7.735%; r m = 0.072(1 - 0) = 7.2%.51. For a taxpayer in the 25% marginal tax bracket, a 20-year municipal bond currentlyyielding 5.5% would offer an equivalent taxable yield of:A) 7.33%.B) 10.75%.C) 5.5%.D) 4.125%.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 0.055= r m(1-t); 0.0733 = r m / 0.75).52. For a taxpayer in the 15% marginal tax bracket, a 15-year municipal bond currentlyyielding 6.2% would offer an equivalent taxable yield of:A) 6.2%.B) 5.27%.C) 8.32%.D) 7.29%.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 0.062= r m(1-t); 0.062 = r m / (0.85); r m = 0.0729 = 7.29%.53. With regard to a futures contract, the short position is held byA) the trader who bought the contract at the largest discount.B) the trader who has to travel the farthest distance to deliver the commodity.C) the trader who plans to hold the contract open for the lengthiest time period.D) the trader who commits to purchasing the commodity on the delivery date.E) the trader who commits to delivering the commodity on the delivery date.Answer: E Difficulty: Easy54. A call option allows the buyer toA) sell the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date.B) buy the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date.C) sell the option in the open market prior to expiration.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: A call option may be exercised (allowing the holder to buy the underlying asset) on or before expiration; the option contract also may be sold prior to expiration.55. A put option allows the holder toA) buy the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date.B) sell the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date.C) sell the option in the open market prior to expiration.D) B and C.E) A and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: A put option allows the buyer to sell the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date; the option contract also may be sold prior to expiration.56. The ____ index represents the performance of the German stock market.A) DAXB) FTSEC) NikkeiD) Hang SengE) None of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: Easy57. The ____ index represents the performance of the Japanese stock market.A) DAXB) FTSEC) NikkeiD) Hang SengE) None of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: Easy58. The ____ index represents the performance of the U.K. stock market.A) DAXB) FTSEC) NikkeiD) Hang SengE) None of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: Easy59. The ____ index represents the performance of the Hong Kong stock market.A) DAXB) FTSEC) NikkeiD) Hang SengE) None of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: Easy60. The ultimate small stock index in the U.S. is theA) Wilshire 5000.B) DJIA.C) S&P 500.D) Russell 2000.E) None of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: Easy61. The ____ is an example of a U.S. index of large firms.A) Wilshire 5000B) DJIAC) DAXD) Russell 2000E) All of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: Easy62. The ____ is an example of a U.S. index of small firms.A) S&P 500B) DJIAC) DAXD) Russell 2000E) All of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyShort Answer QuestionsUse the following to answer questions 63-64:P Q P Q P QStock AStock BStock C63. Based on the information given, for a price-weighted index of the three stocks calculate:a.the rate of return for the first period (t=0 to t=1).b.the value of the divisor in the second period (t=2). Assume that Stock A had a 2-1split during this period.c.the rate of return for the second period (t=1 to t=2).Difficulty: DifficultAnswer:A.The price-weighted index at time 0 is (70+85+105)/3 = 86.67. The price-weightedindex at time 1 is (72+81+98)/3 = 83.67. The return on the index is 83.67/86.67 – 1 = -3.46%.B.The divisor must change to reflect the stock split. Because nothing elsefundamentally changed, the value of the index should remain 83.67. So the newdivisor is (36+81+98)/83.67 = 2.57. The index value is (36+81+98)/2.57 = 83.67.C.The rate of return for the second period is 83.67/83.67-1 = 0.00%64. Based on the information given for the three stocks, calculate the first-period rates ofreturn (from t=0 to t=1) ona. a market-value-weighted index.b.an equally-weighted index.c. a geometric index.Difficulty: DifficultAnswer:A.The total market value at time 0 is $70*200 + $85*500 + $105*300 = $88,000. Thetotal market value at time 1 is $72*200 + $81*500 + $98*300 = $84,300. The return is $84,300/$88,000 – 1 = -4.20%.B.The return on Stock A for the first period is $72/$70-1 = 2.86%. The return onStock B for the first period is $81/$85-1 = -4.71%. The return on Stock C for thefirst period is $98/$105-1 = -6.67%. The return on an equally weighted index of the three stocks is (2.86%-4.71%-6.67%)/3 = -2.84%.C.The geometric average return is [(1+.0286)(1-.0471)(1-.0667)](1/3)-1 =[(1.0286)(0.9529)(0.9333)]0.3333 -1 = -2.92%。
罗斯公司理财chap001全英文题库及答案
Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate FinanceChapter 01 Introduction to Corporate Finance Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. The person generally directly responsible for overseeing the tax management, cost accounting, financial accounting, and information system functions is the:A. treasurer.B. director.C. controller.D. chairman of the board.E. chief executive officer.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CONTROLLERType: DEFINITIONS2. The person generally directly responsible for overseeing the cash and credit functions,financial planning, and capital expenditures is the:A. treasurer.B. director.C. controller.D. chairman of the board.E. chief operations officer.1-1Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance3. The process of planning and managing a firm's long-term investments is called:A. working capital management.B. financial depreciation.C. agency cost analysis.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CAPITAL BUDGETINGType: DEFINITIONS4. The mixture of debt and equity used by a firm to finance its operations is called:A. working capital management.B. financial depreciation.C. cost analysis.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.5. The management of a firm's short-term assets and liabilities is called:A. working capital management.B. debt management.C. equity management.D. capital budgeting.E. capital structure.1-2Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance6. A business owned by a single individual is called a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. limited liability company.7. A business formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for businessdebts is called a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. limited liability company.8. The division of profits and losses among the members of a partnership is formalized in the:A. indemnity clause.B. indenture contract.C. statement of purpose.D. partnership agreement.E. group charter.9. A business created as a distinct legal entity composed of one or more individuals or entities iscalled a:A. corporation.B. sole proprietorship.C. general partnership.D. limited partnership.E. unlimited liability company.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: DEFINITIONS1-3Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance10. The corporate document that sets forth the business purpose of a firm is the:A. indenture contract.B. state tax agreement.C. corporate bylaws.D. debt charter.E. articles of incorporation.11. The rules by which corporations govern themselves are called:A. indenture provisions.B. indemnity provisions.C. charter agreements.D. bylaws.E. articles of incorporation.12. A business entity operated and taxed like a partnership, but with limited liability for theowners, is called a:A. limited liability company.B. general partnership.C. limited proprietorship.D. sole proprietorship.E. corporation.13. The primary goal of financial management is to:A. maximize current dividends per share of the existing stock.B. maximize the current value per share of the existing stock.C. avoid financial distress.D. minimize operational costs and maximize firm efficiency.E. maintain steady growth in both sales and net earnings.14. A conflict of interest between the stockholders and management of a firm is called:A. stockholders' liability.B. corporate breakdown.C. the agency problem.D. corporate activism.E. legal liability.1-4Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance15. Agency costs refer to:A. the total dividends paid to stockholders over the lifetime of a firm.B. the costs that result from default and bankruptcy of a firm.C. corporate income subject to double taxation.D. the costs of any conflicts of interest between stockholders and management.E. the total interest paid to creditors over the lifetime of the firm.16. A stakeholder is:A. any person or entity that owns shares of stock of a corporation.B. any person or entity that has voting rights based on stock ownership of a corporation.C. a person who initially started a firm and currently has management control over the cashflows of the firm due to his/her current ownership of company stock.D. a creditor to whom the firm currently owes money and who consequently has a claim on thecash flows of the firm.E. any person or entity other than a stockholder or creditor who potentially has a claim on thecash flows of the firm.17. The Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 is intended to:A. protect financial managers from investors.B. not have any effect on foreign companies.C. reduce corporate revenues.D. protect investors from corporate abuses.E. decrease audit costs for U.S. firms.18. The treasurer and the controller of a corporation generally report to the:A. board of directors.B. chairman of the board.C. chief executive officer.D. president.E. chief financial officer.19. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the organizational structure ofa corporation?A. The vice president of finance reports to the chairman of the board.B. The chief executive officer reports to the board of directors.C. The controller reports to the president.D. The treasurer reports to the chief executive officer.E. The chief operations officer reports to the vice president of production.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTUREType: CONCEPTS1-5Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance20. Which one of the following is a capital budgeting decision?A. determining how much debt should be borrowed from a particular lenderB. deciding whether or not to open a new storeC. deciding when to repay a long-term debtD. determining how much inventory to keep on handE. determining how much money should be kept in the checking account21. The Sarbanes Oxley Act was enacted in:A. 1952.B. 1967.C. 1998.D. 2002.E. 2006.22. Since the implementation of Sarbanes-Oxley, the cost of going public in the United Stateshas:A. increased.B. decreased.C. remained about the same.D. been erratic, but over time has decreased.E. It is impossible to tell since Sarbanes-Oxley compliance does not involve direct cost to thefirm.23. Working capital management includes decisions concerning which of the following?I. accounts payableII. long-term debtIII. accounts receivableIV. inventoryA. I and II onlyB. I and III onlyC. II and IV onlyD. I, II, and III onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS1-6Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance24. Working capital management:A. ensures that sufficient equipment is available to produce the amount of product desired on adaily basis.B. ensures that long-term debt is acquired at the lowest possible cost.C. ensures that dividends are paid to all stockholders on an annual basis.D. balances the amount of company debt to the amount of available equity.E. is concerned with the upper portion of the balance sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS25. Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A. A sole proprietorship is the least common form of business ownership.B. The profits of a sole proprietorship are taxed twice.C. The owners of a sole proprietorship share profits as established by the partnership agreement.D. The owner of a sole proprietorship may be forced to sell his/her personal assets to paycompany debts.E. A sole proprietorship is often structured as a limited liability company.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPType: CONCEPTS26. Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?A. The life of the firm is limited to the life span of the owner.B. The owner can generally raise large sums of capital quite easily.C. The ownership of the firm is easy to transfer to another individual.D. The company must pay separate taxes from those paid by the owner.E. The legal costs to form a sole proprietorship are quite substantial.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-7Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance27. Which one of the following best describes the primary advantage of being a limited partnerrather than a general partner?A. entitlement to a larger portion of the partnership's incomeB. ability to manage the day-to-day affairs of the businessC. no potential financial lossD. greater management responsibilityE. liability for firm debts limited to the capital investedDifficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS28. A general partner:A. has less legal liability than a limited partner.B. has more management responsibility than a limited partner.C. faces double taxation whereas a limited partner does not.D. cannot lose more than the amount of his/her equity investment.E. is the term applied only to corporations which invest in partnerships.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS29. A partnership:A. is taxed the same as a corporation.B. agreement defines whether the business income will be taxed like a partnership or acorporation.C. terminates at the death of any general partner.D. has less of an ability to raise capital than a proprietorship.E. allows for easy transfer of interest from one general partner to another.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-8Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance30. Which of the following are disadvantages of a partnership?I. limited life of the firmII. personal liability for firm debtIII. greater ability to raise capital than a sole proprietorshipIV. lack of ability to transfer partnership interestA. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, II, and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS31. Which of the following are advantages of the corporate form of business ownership?I. limited liability for firm debtII. double taxationIII. ability to raise capitalIV. unlimited firm lifeA. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. I, II, and III onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS32. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning corporations?A. The largest firms are usually corporations.B. The majority of firms are corporations.C. The stockholders are usually the managers of a corporation.D. The ability of a corporation to raise capital is quite limited.E. The income of a corporation is taxed as personal income of the stockholders.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS1-9Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance33. Which one of the following statements is correct?A. Both partnerships and corporations incur double taxation.B. Both sole proprietorships and partnerships are taxed in a similar fashion.C. Partnerships are the most complicated type of business to form.D. Both partnerships and corporations have limited liability for general partners and shareholders.E. All types of business formations have limited lives.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BUSINESS TYPESType: CONCEPTS34. The articles of incorporation:A. can be used to remove company management.B. are amended annually by the company stockholders.C. set forth the number of shares of stock that can be issued.D. set forth the rules by which the corporation regulates its existence.E. can set forth the conditions under which the firm can avoid double taxation.35. The bylaws:A. establish the name of the corporation.B. are rules which apply only to limited liability companies.C. set forth the purpose of the firm.D. mandate the procedure for electing corporate directors.E. set forth the procedure by which the stockholders elect the senior managers of the firm.36. The owners of a limited liability company prefer:A. being taxed like a corporation.B. having liability exposure similar to that of a sole proprietor.C. being taxed personally on all business income.D. having liability exposure similar to that of a general partner.E. being taxed like a corporation with liability like a partnership.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIMITED LIABILITY COMPANYType: CONCEPTS1-10Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance37. Which one of the following business types is best suited to raising large amounts ofcapital?A. sole proprietorshipB. limited liability companyC. corporationD. general partnershipE. limited partnershipDifficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS38. Which type of business organization has all the respective rights and privileges ofa legalperson?A. sole proprietorshipB. general partnershipC. limited partnershipD. corporationE. limited liability companyDifficulty level: EasyTopic: CORPORATIONType: CONCEPTS39. Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existingstock because:A. doing so guarantees the company will grow in size at the maximum possible rate.B. doing so increases the salaries of all the employees.C. the current stockholders are the owners of the corporation.D. doing so means the firm is growing in size faster than its competitors.E. the managers often receive shares of stock as part of their compensation.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: GOAL OF FINANC IAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS1-11Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance40. The decisions made by financial managers should all be ones which increase the:A. size of the firm.B. growth rate of the firm.C. marketability of the managers.D. market value of the existing owners' equity.E. financial distress of the firm.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: GOAL OF FINANCIAL MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS41. Which one of the following actions by a financial manager creates an agency problem?A. refusing to borrow money when doing so will create losses for the firmB. refusing to lower selling prices if doing so will reduce the net profitsC. agreeing to expand the company at the expense of stockholders' valueD. agreeing to pay bonuses based on the book value of the company stockE. increasing current costs in order to increase the market value of the stockholders' equity42. Which of the following help convince managers to work in the best interest of the stockholders?I. compensation based on the value of the stockII. stock option plansIII. threat of a proxy fightIV. threat of conversion to a partnershipA. I and II onlyB. II and III onlyC. I, II and III onlyD. I and III onlyE. I, II, III, and IVDifficulty level: MediumTopic: AGENCY PROBLEMType: CONCEPTS1-12Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance43. Which form of business structure faces the greatest agency problems?A. sole proprietorshipB. general partnershipC. limited partnershipD. corporationE. limited liability company44. A proxy fight occurs when:A. the board solicits renewal of current members.B. a group solicits proxies to replace the board of directors.C. a competitor offers to sell their ownership in the firm.D. the firm files for bankruptcy.E. the firm is declared insolvent.45. Which one of the following parties is considered a stakeholder of a firm?A. employeeB. short-term creditorC. long-term creditorD. preferred stockholderE. common stockholderDifficulty level: EasyTopic: STAKEHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS46. Which of the following are key requirements of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?I. Officers of the corporation must review and sign annual reports.II. Officers of the corporation must now own more than 5% of the firm's stock. III. Annual reports must list deficiencies in internal controlsIV. Annual reports must be filed with the SEC within 30 days of year end.A. I onlyB. II onlyC. I and III onlyD. II and III onlyE. II and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: SARBANES-OXLEYType: CONCEPTS1-13Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance47. Insider trading is:A. legal.B. illegal.C. impossible to have in our efficient market.D. discouraged, but legal.E. list only the securities of the largest firms.48. Sole proprietorships are predominantly started because:A. they are easily and cheaply setup.B. the proprietorship life is limited to the business owner's life.C. all business taxes are paid as individual tax.D. All of the above.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: SOLE PROPRIETORSHIPSType: CONCEPTS49. Managers are encouraged to act in shareholders' interests by:A. shareholder election of a board of directors who select management.B. the threat of a takeover by another firm.C. compensation contracts that tie compensation to corporate success.D. Both A and B.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GOVERNANCEType: CONCEPTS50. The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 focuses on:A. all stock transactions.B. sales of existing securities.C. issuance of new securities.D. insider trading.E. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) insurance.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS1-14Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance51. The basic regulatory framework in the United States was provided by:A. the Securities Act of 1933.B. the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.C. the monetary system.D. A and B.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS52. The Securities Act of 1933 focuses on:A. all stock transactions.B. sales of existing securities.C. issuance of new securities.D. insider trading.E. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) insurance.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: REGULATIONType: CONCEPTS53. In a limited partnership:A. each limited partner's liability is limited to his net worth.B. each limited partner's liability is limited to the amount he put into the partnership.C. each limited partner's liability is limited to his annual salary.D. there is no limitation on liability; only a limitation on what the partner can earn.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: LIMITED PARTNERSHIPType: CONCEPTS1-15Chapter 01 - Introduction to Corporate Finance54. Accounting profits and cash flows are:A. generally the same since they reflect current laws and accounting standards.B. generally the same since accounting profits reflect when the cash flows are received.C. generally not the same since GAAP allows for revenue recognition separate from the receiptof cash flows.D. generally not the same because cash inflows occur before revenue recognition.E. Both c and d.1-16。
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案ChapWord版
CHAPTER 8MAKING CAPITAL INVESTMENT DECISIONSAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.In this context, an opportunity cost refers to the value of an asset or other input that will be used in aproject. The relevant cost is what the asset or input is actually worth today, not, for example, what it cost to acquire.2. a.Yes, the reduction in the sales of the company’s other products, referred to as erosion, andshould be treated as an incremental cash flow. These lost sales are included because they are a cost (a revenue reduction) that the firm must bear if it chooses to produce the new product.b. Yes, expenditures on plant and equipment should be treated as incremental cash flows. Theseare costs of the new product line. However, if these expenditures have already occurred, they are sunk costs and are not included as incremental cash flows.c. No, the research and development costs should not be treated as incremental cash flows. Thecosts of research and development undertaken on the product during the past 3 years are sunk costs and should not be included in the evaluation of the project. Decisions made and costs incurred in the past cannot be changed. They should not affect the decision to accept or reject the project.d. Yes, the annual depreciation expense should be treated as an incremental cash flow.Depreciation expense must be taken into account when calculating the cash flows related to a given project. While depreciation is not a cash expense that directly affects cash flow, it decreases a firm’s net income and hence, lowers its tax bill for the year. Because of this depreciation tax shield, the firm has more cash on hand at the end of the year than it would have had without expensing depreciation.e.No, dividend payments should not be treated as incremental cash flows. A firm’s decision topay or not pay dividends is independent of the decision to accept or reject any given investment project. For this reason, it is not an incremental cash flow to a given project. Dividend policy is discussed in more detail in later chapters.f.Yes, the resale value of plant and equipment at the end of a project’s life should be treated as anincremental cash flow. The price at which the firm sells the equipment is a cash inflow, and any difference between the book value of the equipment and its sale price will create gains or lossesthat result in either a tax credit or liability.g.Yes, salary and medical costs for production employees hired for a project should be treated asincremental cash flows. The salaries of all personnel connected to the project must be included as costs of that project.3.Item I is a relevant cost because the opportunity to sell the land is lost if the new golf club is produced. Item II is also relevant because the firm must take into account the erosion of sales of existing products when a new product is introduced. If the firm produces the new club, the earnings from the existing clubs will decrease, effectively creating a cost that must be included in the decision.Item III is not relevant because the costs of Research and Development are sunk costs. Decisions made in the past cannot be changed. They are not relevant to the production of the new clubs.4.For tax purposes, a firm would choose MACRS because it provides for larger depreciationdeductions earlier. These larger deductions reduce taxes, but have no other cash consequences.Notice that the choice between MACRS and straight-line is purely a time value issue; the total depreciation is the same; only the timing differs.5.It’s probably only a mild over-simplification. Current liabilities will all be paid, presumably. Thecash portion of current assets will be retrieved. Some receivables won’t be collected, and some inventory will not be sold, of course. Counterbalancing these losses is the fact that inventory sold above cost (and not replaced at the end of the project’s life) acts to increase working capital. These effects tend to offset one another.6.Management’s discretion to set the firm’s capital structure is applicable at the firm level. Since anyone particular project could be financed entirely with equity, another project could be financed with debt, and the firm’s overall capital structure remains unchanged, financing cost s are not relevant in the analysis of a project’s incremental cash flows according to the stand-alone principle.7.The EAC approach is appropriate when comparing mutually exclusive projects with different livesthat will be replaced when they wear out. This type of analysis is necessary so that the projects havea common life span over which they can be compared; in effect, each project is assumed to existover an infinite horizon of N-year repeating projects. Assuming that this type of analysis is valid implies that the project cash flows remain the same forever, thus ignoring the possible effects of, among other things: (1) inflation, (2) changing economic conditions, (3) the increasing unreliability of cash flow estimates that occur far into the future, and (4) the possible effects of future technology improvement that could alter the project cash flows.8.Depreciation is a non-cash expense, but it is tax-deductible on the income statement. Thusdepreciation causes taxes paid, an actual cash outflow, to be reduced by an amount equal to the depreciation tax shield, t c D. A reduction in taxes that would otherwise be paid is the same thing as a cash inflow, so the effects of the depreciation tax shield must be added in to get the total incremental aftertax cash flows.9.There are two particularly important considerations. The first is erosion. Will the “essentialized”book simply displace copies of the existing book that would have otherwise been sold? This is of special concern given the lower price. The second consideration is competition. Will other publishers step in and produce such a product? If so, then any erosion is much less relevant. A particular concern to book publishers (and producers of a variety of other product types) is that the publisher only makes money from the sale of new books. Thus, it is important to examine whether the new book would displace sales of used books (good from the publisher’s perspective) or new books (not good). The concern arises any time there is an active market for used product.10.Definitely. The damage to Porsche’s reputation is definitely a factor the company needed to consider.If the reputation was damaged, the company would have lost sales of its existing car lines.11.One company may be able to produce at lower incremental cost or market better. Also, of course,one of the two may have made a mistake!12.Porsche would recognize that the outsized profits would dwindle as more products come to marketand competition becomes more intense.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = [($5 × 2,000 – ($2 × 2,000)](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($10,000/5)OCF = $4,600So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –$10,000 + $4,600(PVIFA17%,5)NPV = $4,7172.We will use the bottom-up approach to calculate the operating cash flow for each year. We also mustbe sure to include the net working capital cash flows each year. So, the total cash flow each year will be:Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Sales Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000Costs 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000Depreciation 2,500 2,500 2,500 2,500EBT Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500Tax 850 850 850 850Net income Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650OCF 0 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150Capital spending –Rs.10,000 0 0 0 0NWC –200 –250 –300 –200 950Incremental cashflow –Rs.10,200 Rs.3,900 Rs.3,850 Rs.3,950 Rs.5,100The NPV for the project is:NPV = –Rs.10,200 + Rs.3,900 / 1.10 + Rs.3,850 / 1.102 + Rs.3,950 / 1.103 + Rs.5,100 / 1.104NPV = Rs.2,978.333. Using the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = (R2,400,000 – 960,000)(1 – 0.30) + 0.30(R2,700,000/3)OCF = R1,278,000So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R2,700,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,3)NPV = R217,961.704.The cash outflow at the beginning of the project will increase because of the spending on NWC. Atthe end of the project, the company will recover the NWC, so it will be a cash inflow. The sale of the equipment will result in a cash inflow, but we also must account for the taxes which will be paid on this sale. So, the cash flows for each year of the project will be:Year Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,278,0002 1,278,0003 1,725,000 = R1,278,000 + 300,000 + 210,000 + (0 – 210,000)(.30)And the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R3,000,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,2) + (R1,725,000 / 1.153)NPV = R211,871.465. First we will calculate the annual depreciation for the equipment necessary for the project. Thedepreciation amount each year will be:Year 1 depreciation = R2.7M(0.3330) = R899,100Year 2 depreciation = R2.7M(0.4440) = R1,198,800Year 3 depreciation = R2.7M(0.1480) = R399,600So, the book value of the equipment at the end of three years, which will be the initial investment minus the accumulated depreciation, is:Book value in 3 years = R2.7M – (R899,100 + 1,198,800 + 399,600)Book value in 3 years = R202,500The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = R202,500 + (R202,500 – 210,000)(0.30)Aftertax salvage value = R207,750To calculate the OCF, we will use the tax shield approach, so the cash flow each year is:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationYear Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,277,730.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R899,100)2 1,367,640.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R1,198,800)3 1,635,630.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R399,600) + R207,750 + 300,000Remember to include the NWC cost in Year 0, and the recovery of the NWC at the end of the project.The NPV of the project with these assumptions is:NPV = – R3.0M + (R1,277,730/1.15) + (R1,367,640/1.152) + (R1,635,630/1.153)NPV = R220,655.206. First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = €925,000/5Annual depreciation charge = €185,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = €90,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = €58,500Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = €360,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(€185,000)OCF = €298,750Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project. Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –€925,000 + 125,000 + €298,750(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [(€58,500 – 125,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 23.85%7.First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = £390,000/5Annual depreciation = £78,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often, the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero. So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = £60,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = £39,600Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = £120,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(£78,000)OCF = £105,720Now we can find the project NPV. Notice that we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –£390,000 – 28,000 + £105,720(PVIFA10%,5) + [(£39,600 + 28,000) / 1.15]NPV = £24,736.268.To find the BV at the end of four years, we need to find the accumulated depreciation for the firstfour years. We could calculate a table with the depreciation each year, but an easier way is to add the MACRS depreciation amounts for each of the first four years and multiply this percentage times the cost of the asset. We can then subtract this from the asset cost. Doing so, we get:BV4 = $9,300,000 – 9,300,000(0.2000 + 0.3200 + 0.1920 + 0.1150)BV4 = $1,608,900The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = $2,100,000 + ($1,608,900 – 2,100,000)(.40)Aftertax salvage value = $1,903,5609. We will begin by calculating the initial cash outlay, that is, the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake theproject, we will have to purchase the equipment and increase net working capital. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment –€2,000,000NWC –100,000Total –€2,100,000Using the bottom-up approach to calculating the operating cash flow, we find the operating cash flow each year will be:Sales €1,200,000Costs 300,000Depreciation 500,000EBT €400,000Tax 140,000Net income €260,000The operating cash flow is:OCF = Net income + DepreciationOCF = €260,000 + 500,000OCF = €760,000To find the NPV of the project, we add the present value of the project cash flows. We must be sure to add back the net working capital at the end of the project life, since we are assuming the net working capital will be recovered. So, the project NPV is:NPV = –€2,100,000 + €760,000(PVIFA14%,4) + €100,000 / 1.144NPV = €173,629.3810.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $20,000(1 – 0.35) = $13,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = – $34,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($210,000/3) = $2,400NPV = –$210,000 + $2,400(PVIFA14%,3) + ($13,000/1.143) = –$195,653.45EAC = –$195,653.45 / (PVIFA14%,3) = –$84,274.10And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = – $23,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($320,000/5) = $7,450NPV = –$320,000 + $7,450(PVIFA14%,5) + ($13,000/1.145) = –$287,671.75EAC = –$287,671.75 / (PVIFA14%,5) = –$83,794.05The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.。
(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C
CHAPTER 20INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. a.The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than inthe spot market (SFr 1.53 versus SFr 1.50).b.The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buyone dollar in the future than it does today.c.Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates.2.The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar. This isthe relative PPP relationship.3. a.The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take moreA$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today.b.The inflation rate in Australia is higher.c.Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are thesame.4. A Yankee bond is most accurately described by d.5. No. For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exportsbecome more expensive for others to buy (bad). The reverse is true for currency depreciation.6.Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving ontransportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk. Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations.7.One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency. Moregenerally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified.8. a.False. If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the sameamount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar.b.False. The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relativeto the dollar. Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines.c.True. The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time.9. a.American exporters: their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods fora fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars.American importers: their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars.b.American exporters: they would generally be better off if the British government’s intentionsresult in a strengthened pound.American importers: they would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens.c.American exporters: they would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscalexpansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in cruzeiros, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars.American importers: they would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars.10.IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit anyarbitrage opportunities. Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly.11.It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period andwhether the expectation is accurate. Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders do not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure.12.One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investmentprovides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own. Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country. Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment. Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk. If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk. As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment.13.Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment. If, after taking into consideration all risks, aproject in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it. Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task. But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic.14.If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S. parent will experience an exchange rate loss when theforeign cash flow is remitted to the U.S. This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts. Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located.15.False. If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rateand the U.S. rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation. Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial.16.The difference between a Eurobond and a foreign bond is that the foreign bond is denominated in thecurrency of the country of origin of the issuing company. Eurobonds are more popular than foreign bonds because of registration differences. Eurobonds are unregistered securities.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the quotes from the table, we get:a.$50(€0.7870/$1) = €39.35b.$1.2706c.€5M($1.2706/€) = $6,353,240d.New Zealand dollare.Mexican pesof.(P11.0023/$1)($1.2186/€1) = P13.9801/€This is a cross rate.g.The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar. The least valuable is the Indonesian rupiah.2. a.You would prefer £100, since:(£100)($.5359/£1) = $53.59b.You would still prefer £100. Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/£ exchange rate to find theamount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get:(£100)($1.8660/£1)(SF .8233) = SF 226.6489ing the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find:(SF 1.2146/$1)($0.5359/£1) = SF 2.2665/£1The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so:£1/SF .4412 = £0.4412/SF 13. a.F180= ¥104.93 (per $). The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in theforward market than in the spot market ($0.0093659 versus $0.009530).b.F90 = $1.8587/£. The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forwardmarket than in the spot market ($0.5380 versus $0.5359).c.The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen inthe future than it does today. The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take fewer dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today.4. a.The U.S. dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy:(Can$1)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $0.7937b.The cost in U.S. dollars is:(Can$2.19)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $1.74Among the reasons that absolute PPP doe sn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes.c.The U.S. dollar is selling at a discount, because it is less expensive in the forward market thanin the spot market (Can$1.22 versus Can$1.26).d.The Canadian dollar is expected to appreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takesfewer Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar in the future than it does today.e.Interest rates in the United States are probably higher than they are in Canada.5. a.The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is:(¥115/$1)($1.70/£1) = ¥195.5/£1b.The yen is quoted too low relative to the pound. Take out a loan for $1 and buy ¥115. Use the¥115 to purchase pounds at the cross-rate, which will give you:¥115(£1/¥185) = £0.6216Use the pounds to buy back dollars and repay the loan. The cost to repay the loan will be:£0.6216($1.70/£1) = $1.0568You arbitrage profit is $0.0568 per dollar used.6.We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question. The equation we will useis:R FC = (F T– S0)/S0 + R USUsing this relationship, we find:Great Britain: R FC = (£0.5394 – £0.5359)/£0.5359 + .038 = 4.45%Japan: R FC = (¥104.93 – ¥106.77)/¥106.77 + .038 = 2.08%Switzerland: R FC = (SFr 1.1980 – SFr 1.2146)/SFr 1.2146 + .038 = 2.43%7.If we invest in the U.S. for the next three months, we will have:$30M(1.0045)3 = $30,406,825.23If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months. After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be:($30M)(£0.56/$1)(1.0060)3/(£0.59/$1) = $28,990,200.05We should invest in U.S.ing the relative purchasing power parity equation:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]tWe find:Z3.92 = Z3.84[1 + (h FC– h US)]3h FC– h US = (Z3.92/Z3.84)1/3– 1h FC– h US = .0069Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S. by 0.69% over this period.9.The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production. Theproduction cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S. dollars. Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,295,250.18If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/1.1(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,572,954.71If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/0.9(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $955,833.53To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that make the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S. dollars, so:$145 = S$168.50/S TS T = S$1.1621/$1S T = –.2978 or –29.78% decline10. a.If IRP holds, then:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.5257Since given F180 is Kr6.56, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high.Borrow Kr1 today at 8% interest. Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 6.56. Convert the loan proceeds into dollars:Kr 1 ($1/Kr 6.43) = $0.15552Invest these dollars at 5%, ending up with $0.15931. Convert the dollars back into krone as$0.15931(Kr 6.56/$1) = Kr 1.04506Repay the Kr 1 loan, ending with a profit of:Kr1.04506 – Kr1.03868 = Kr 0.00638b.To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.525711.The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal. We canrearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question:R US– h US = R FC– h FCh FC = R FC + h US– R USa.h AUS = .05 + .035 – .039h AUS = .046 or 4.6%b.h CAN = .07 + .035 – .039h CAN = .066 or 6.6%c.h TAI = .10 + .035 – .039h TAI = .096 or 9.6%12. a.The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the futurethan it does today.b.h US– h JAP (¥129.76 – ¥131.30)/¥131.30h US– h JAP = – .0117 or –1.17%(1 – .0117)4– 1 = –.0461 or –4.61%The approximate inflation differential between the U.S. and Japan is – 4.61% annually.13. We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasingpower parity relationship:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]TUsing this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be:F1 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]1F1 = HUF 225.97The exchange rate in two years should be:F2 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]2F2 = HUF 237.49And the exchange rate in five years should be:F5 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]5F5 = HUF 275.71ing the interest-rate parity theorem:(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC) = F(0,1) / S0We can find the forward rate as:F(0,1) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)] S0F(0,1) = (1.13 / 1.08)$1.50/£F(0,1) = $1.57/£Intermediate15.First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years. From interest rate andpurchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is:E(S T) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)]T S0So:E(S1) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)1 $1.22/€ = $1.2282/€E(S2) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)2 $1.22/€ = $1.2365/€E(S3) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)3 $1.22/€ = $1.2448/€Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows. The dollar cash flow each year will be:Year 0 cash flow = –€$12,000,000($1.22/€) = –$14,640,000.00Year 1 cash flow = €$2,700,000($1.2282/€) = $3,316,149.86Year 2 cash flow = €$3,500,000($1.2365/€) = $4,327,618.63Year 3 cash flow = (€3,300,000 + 7,400,000)($1.2448/€) = $13,319,111.90And the NPV of the project will be:NPV = –$14,640,000 + $3,316,149.86/1.13 + $4,4327,618.63/1.132 + $13,319,111.90/1.133NPV = $914,618.7316. a.Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but theexchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate.b.We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time. Theequation is:E[S T] = (SFr 1.72)[1 + (.07 – .08)]TE[S T] = 1.72(.99)TSo, the cash flows each year in U.S. dollar terms will be:t SFr E[S T] US$0 –27.0M –$15,697,674.421 +7.5M 1.7028 $4,404,510.222 +7.5M 1.6858 $4,449,000.223 +7.5M 1.6689 $4,493,939.624 +7.5M 1.6522 $4,539,332.955 +7.5M 1.6357 $4,585,184.79And the NPV is:NPV = –$15,697,674.42 + $4,404,510.22/1.13 + $4,449,000.22/1.132 + $4,493,939.62/1.133 + $4,539,332.95/1.134 + $4,585,184.79/1.135NPV = $71,580.10c.Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swissfrancs, we get:R SFr = 1.13[1 + (.07 – .08)] – 1R SFr = 11.87%So, the NPV in Swiss francs is:NPV = –SFr 27.0M + SFr 7.5M(PVIFA11.87%,5)NPV = SFr 123,117.76Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S. dollars as:NPV = (SFr 123,117.76)($1/SFr 1.72)NPV = $71,580.10Challenge17. a.The domestic Fisher effect is:1 + R US = (1 + r US)(1 + h US)1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US)This relationship must hold for any country, that is:1 + r FC = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC)The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so:1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US) = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC) = 1 + r FCb.The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is:E[S t] = F t = S0 [(1 + R FC)/(1 + R US)]tc.The exact form for relative PPP is:E[S t] = S0 [(1 + h FC)/(1 + h US)]td.For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at time t as:E[S t] = (€0.5)[1.07/1.05]t= (€0.5)(1.019)tWe then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value. Doing so, we find:NPV = –[€2M/(€0.5)] + {€0.9M/[1.019(€0.5)]}/1.1 + {€0.9M/[1.0192(€0.5)]}/1.12 + {€0.9M/[1.0193(€0.5/$1)]}/1.13NPV = $316,230.72For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in the euros as:R FC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – 1 = 0.121Next, we find the NPV in euros as:NPV = –€2M + (€0.9M)/1.121 + (€0.9M)/1.1212+ (€0.9M)/1.1213= €158,115.36And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is:NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /(€0.5/$1) = $316,230.72。
CGA罗斯公司理财第二章作业.
题目内容:Cusic Industries had the following operating results for 2006: sales =$12,800; cost of goods sold =$10,400; depreciation expense= $1,900; interest expense =$450; dividends paid=$500. At the beginning of the year, net fixed assets were $9,100, current assets were $3,200, and current liabilities were $1,800. At the end of the year, net fixed assets were $9,700, current assets were $3,850, and current liabilities were $2,100. The tax rate for 2006 was 34 percent.a. What is net income for 2006?1.5002.1503.504.335.1900b. What is the operating cash flow for 2006?1.5002.19003.174.23835.2400c. What is the cash flow from assets for 2006?1.3502.25003.-4674.+4675.1900d. If no new debt was issued during the year, (awhat is the cash flow to creditors?1.4502.03.-4504.4675.-467(bWhat is the cash flow to stockholders?1.9172.4673.-9174.4505.1417题目内容:During the year, the Senbet Discount Tire Company had gross sales of $1 million. The fi rm’s cost of goods sold and selling expenses wer e $300,000 and $200,000, respectively. Senbet also had notes payable of $1 million. These notes carried an interest rate of 10 percent. Depreciation was $100,000. Senbet’s tax rate was 35 percent.a. What w as Senbet’s net income?1.4000002.3000003.5000004.3950005.195000b. What was Senbet’s operating cash flow?1.4000002.3000003.5000004.3950005.195000题目内容:Ranney, Inc., has sales of $13,500, costs of $5,400, depreciation expense of $1,200, and interest expense of $680. If the tax rate is 35 percent,a.what is the operating cash flow, or OCF?1.69002.59233.62204.40435.8100题目内容:Use the following information for Ingersoll, Inc., for Problems as following(assume the tax rate is 34 percent:2005 2006Sales 4,0184,312Depreciation 577 578Cost of goods sold 1,382 1,569Other expenses 328 274Interest 269 309Cash 2,107 2,155 Accounts receivable 2,789 3,142 Short-term notes payable 407 382Long-term debt 7,056 8,232Net fixed assets 17,669 18,091Accounts payable 2,213 2,146Inventory 4,959 5,096Dividends 490 539 For 2006,calculate:a. the operating cash flow is.1.18912.537.883.1931.124.6305.1000b. the capital spending is1.18912.537.883.1931.124.6305.1000c. the additions to net working capital is.1.18912.537.883.1931.124.6305.1000d. the cash flow from assets is.1.18912.301.123.1931.124.6305.1000e. cash flow to creditors is;1.-8672.537.883.-629.124.1168.125.301.12f. cash flow to stockholders is.1.-8672.537.883.-629.124.1168.125.301.12。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap
30.1 The new corporation issues $300,000 in new debt. The merger creates $100,000 ofgoodwill because the merger is a purchase.Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 580 Equity 700Goodwill 100Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.2 If the balance sheet for Philadelphia Pretzel shows assets at book value instead of marketvalue, the goodwill will be only $60,000 (=$300,000 - $240,000). Thus, the net fixed assetsare $620,000 (=$1,300,000 - $480,000 - $140,000 - $60,000).Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 620 Equity 700Goodwill 60Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.3Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $280Other assets 140 Long-term debt 100Net fixed assets 580 Equity 820Total assets $1,200 Total liabilities $1,200 30.4 a. False. Although the reasoning seems correct, the Stillman-Eckbo data do not supportthe monopoly power theory.b. True. When managers act in their own interest, acquisitions are an important controldevice for shareholders. It appears that some acquisitions and takeovers are theconsequence of underlying conflicts between managers and shareholders.c. False. Even if markets are efficient, the presence of synergy will make the value ofthe combined firm different from the sum of the values of the separate firms.Incremental cash flows provide the positive NPV of the transaction.d. False. In an efficient market, traders will value takeovers based on “Fundamentalfactors” regardless of the time horizon. Recall that the evidence as a whole suggestsefficiency in the markets. Mergers should be no different.e. False. The tax effect of an acquisition depends on whether the merger is taxable ornon-taxable. In a taxable merger, there are two opposing factors to consider, thecapital gains effect and the write-up effect. The net effect is the sum of these twoeffects.f. True. Because of the coinsurance effect, wealth might be transferred from thestockholders to the bondholders. Acquisition analysis usually disregards this effectand considers only the total value.30.530.6 a. The weather conditions are independent. Thus, the joint probabilities are theproducts of the individual probabilities.Possible states Joint probabilityRain Rain 0.1 x 0.1=0.01Rain Warm 0.1 x 0.4=0.04Rain Hot 0.1 x 0.5=0.05Warm Rain 0.4 x 0.1=0.04Warm Warm 0.4 x 0.4=0.16Warm Hot 0.4 x 0.5=0.20Hot Rain 0.5 x 0.1=0.05Hot Warm 0.5 x 0.4=0.20Hot Hot 0.5 x 0.5=0.25Since the state Rain Warm has the same outcome (revenue) as Warm Rain, theirprobabilities can be added. The same is true of Rain Hot, Hot Rain and Warm Hot,Hot Warm. Thus the joint probabilities arePossibleJoint probabilitystatesRain Rain 0.01Rain Warm 0.08Rain Hot 0.10Warm Warm 0.16Warm Hot 0.40Hot Hot 0.25The joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particularstate.Possible states Joint valueRain Rain $200,000Rain Warm 300,000Warm Warm 400,000Rain Hot 500,000Warm Hot 600,000Hot Hot 800,000b. Recall, if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of the assets.Thus, the value of the debt is the value of the company if the face value of the debt isgreater than the value of the company. If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value. Here the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt.Joint Prob. Joint Value Debt Value Stock Value0.01 $200,000 $200,000 $00.08 300,000 300,000 00.16 400,000 400,000 00.10 500,000 400,000 100,0000.40 600,000 400,000 200,0000.25 800,000 400,000 400,000c. To show that the value of the combined firm is the sum of the individual values, youmust show that the expected joint value is equal to the sum of the separate expected values.Expected joint value= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($500,000) +0.40($600,000) + 0.25($800,000)= $580,000Since the firms are identical, the sum of the expected values is twice the expectedvalue of either.Expected individual value = 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($400,000) = $290,000 Expected combined value = 2($290,000) = $580,000d. The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater thanthe value of the debt before the merger.Value of the debt before the merger:The value of debt for either company= 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($200,000) = $190,000Total value of debt before the merger = 2($190,000) = $380,000Value of debt after the merger= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($400,000) +0.40($400,000) +0.25($400,000)= $390,000The bondholders are $10,000 better off after the merger.30.7 The decision hinges upon the risk of surviving. The final decision should hinge on thewealth transfer from bondholders to stockholders when risky projects are undertaken.High-risk projects will reduce the expected value of the bondholders’ claims on the firm.The telecommunications business is riskier than the utilities business. If the total value of the firm does not change, the increase in risk should favor the stockholder. Hence,management should approve this transaction. Note, if the total value of the firm dropsbecause of the transaction and the wealth effect is lower than the reduction in total value, management should reject the project.30.8 If the market is “smart,” the P/E ratio will not be constant.a. Value = $2,500 + $1,000 = $3,500b. EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=($100 + $100)/200 =$1c. Price per share = Value/Total number of shares=$3,500/200 =$17.50d. If the market is “fooled,” the P/E ratio will be constant at $25.Value = P/E * Total number of shares= 25 * 200 = $5,000EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=$5,000/200 = $25.0030.9 a. After the merger, Arcadia Financial will have 130,000 [=10,000 + (50,000)(6/10)]shares outstanding. The earnings of the combined firm will be $325,000. The earningsper share of the combined firm will be $2.50 (=$325,000/130,000). The acquisition will increase the EPS for the stockholders from $2.25 to $2.50.b. There will be no effect on the original Arcadia stockholders. No synergies exist in thismerger since Arcadia is buying Coldran at its market price. Examining the relativevalues of the two firms sees the latter point.Share price of Arcadia = (16 * $225,000) / 100,000=$36Share price of Coldran = (10.8 * $100,000) / 50,000=$21.60The relative value of these prices is $21.6/$36 = 0.6. Since Coldran’s shareholdersreceive 0.6 shares of Arcadia for every share of Coldran, no synergies exist.30.10 a. The synergy will be the discounted incremental cash flows. Since the cash flows areperpetual, this amount isb. The value of Flash-in-the-Pan to Fly-by-Night is the synergy plus the current marketvalue of Flash-in-the-Pan.V = $7,500,000 + $20,000,000= $27,500,000c. Cash alternative = $15,000,000Stock alternative = 0.25($27,500,000 + $35,000,000)= $15,625,000d. NPV of cash alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,000,000=$12,500,000NPV of stock alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,625,000=$11,875,000e. Use the cash alternative, its NPV is greater.30.11 a. The value of Portland Industries before the merger is $9,000,000 (=750,000x12). Thisvalue is also the discounted value of the expected future dividends.$9,000,000 =r = 0.1025 = 10.25%r is the risk-adjusted discount rate for Portland’s expected future dividends.the value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.b. NPV = Gain - Cost= $14,815,385 - ($40x250, 000)= $4,815,385c. If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but thecost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $14,815,385= $29,815,385Cost = 0.375x$29,815,385= $11,180,769NPV= $14,815,385 - $11,180,769=$3,634,616d. The acquisition should be attempted with a cash offer since it provides a higher NPV.e. The value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.NPV = Gain-Cost=$11,223,529 - ($40x250,000)=$1,223,529If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but the cost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $11,223,529= $26,223,529Cost = 0.375 * $26,223,529=$9,833,823NPV = $11,223,529 - $9,833,823=$1,389,706The acquisition should be attempted with a stock offer since it provides a higher NPV.30.12 a. Number of shares after acquisition=30 + 15 = 45 milStock price of Harrods after acquisition = 1,000/45=22.22 poundsb. Value of Selfridge stockholders after merger:α * 1,000 = 300α = 30%New shares issued = 12.86 mil12.86:20 = 0.643:1The proper exchange ratio should be 0.643 to make the stock offer’s value to Selfridgeequivalent to the cash offer.30.13 To evaluate this proposal, look at the present value of the incremental cash flows.Cash Flows to Company A(in $ million)Year 0 1 2 3 4 5Acquisition of B -550Dividends from B 150 32 5 20 30 45Tax-loss carryforwards 25 25Terminal value 600Total -400 32 30 45 30 645 The additional cash flows from the tax-loss carry forwards and the proposed level of debt should be discounted at the cost of debt because they are determined with very littleuncertainty.The after-tax cash flows are subject to normal business risk and must be discounted at anormal rate.Beta coefficient for the bond = 0.25 = [(8%-6%)/8%].Beta coefficient for the company = 1 = [(0.25)2 + (1.25)(0.75)]Discount rate for normal operations:r = 6% + 8% (1) = 14%Discount rate for dividends:The new beta coefficient for the company, 1, must be the weighted average of the debtbeta and the stock beta.1 = 0.5(0.25) + 0.5(βs)βs = 1.75r = 6% + 8%(1.75) = 20%Because the NPV of the acquisition is negative, Company A should not acquireCompany B.30.14 The commonly used defensive tactics by target-firm managers include:i. corporate charter amendments like super-majority amendment or staggering theelection of board members.ii. repurchase standstill agreements.iii. exclusionary self-tenders.iv. going private and leveraged buyouts.v. other devices like golden parachutes, scorched earth strategy, poison pill, ..., etc.Mini Case: U.S.Steel’s case.You have 3 choices: tender, or do not tender or sell in the market. If you do sell your shares in the market, at some point, somebody else would need to make a decision in “tender” or “not tender” as well.It is important to recognize that the firm has about 60 million shares outstanding (since 30 million shares will give US Steel 50.1% of Marathon shares). Let’s consider the possible sellingthe market price.If you choose not to tender, and 30 million shares were tendered US Steel succeeds to gain50.1% control, you will only receive $85 a share. If you do tender, the price you will receive will be no worse than $85 a share and can be as high as $125 a share. Depending on the number of shares tendered, you will receive one of the following prices.If only 50.1% tendered, you will get $125 per share.If the shares tendered exceed 50.1% but less than 100%, you will get more than $105 ashare.If all 60 million shares were tendered, you will get $105 per share. (which is )It is clear that, in the above 3 cases, when you are not sure about whether US Steel will succeed or not, you will be better off to tender your shares than not tender. This is because at best, you will only receive $85 per share if you choose not to tender.版权申明本文部分内容,包括文字、图片、以及设计等在网上搜集整理。
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案
CHAPTER 7NET PRESENT VALUE AND OTHER INVESTMENT CRITERIAAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. A payback period less than the project’s life means that the NPV is positive for a zero discount rate,but nothing more definitive can be said. For discount rates greater than zero, the payback period will still be less than the project’s life, but the NPV may be positive, zero, or negative, depending on whether the discount rate is less than, equal to, or greater than the IRR. The discounted payback includes the effect of the relevant discount rate. If a project’s discounted payback period is less than the project’s life, it must be the case that NPV is positive.2.If a project has a positive NPV for a certain discount rate, then it will also have a positive NPV for azero discount rate; thus, the payback period must be less than the project life. Since discounted payback is calculated at the same discount rate as is NPV, if NPV is positive, the discounted payback period must be less than the project’s life. If NPV is positive, then the present value of future cash inflows is greater than the initial investment cost; thus PI must be greater than 1. If NPV is positive for a certain discount rate R, then it will be zero for some larger discount rate R*; thus, the IRR must be greater than the required return.3. a.Payback period is simply the accounting break-even point of a series of cash flows. To actuallycompute the payback period, it is assumed that any cash flow occurring during a given period isrealized continuously throughout the period, and not at a single point in time. The payback isthen the point in time for the series of cash flows when the initial cash outlays are fullyrecovered. Given some predetermined cutoff for the payback period, the decision rule is toaccept projects that payback before this cutoff, and reject projects that take longer to payback.The worst problem associated with payback period is that it ignores the time value of money. Inaddition, the selection of a hurdle point for payback period is an arbitrary exercise that lacksany steadfast rule or method. The payback period is biased towards short-term projects; it fullyignores any cash flows that occur after the cutoff point.b.The average accounting return is interpreted as an average measure of the accountingperformance of a project over time, computed as some average profit measure attributable tothe project divided by some average balance sheet value for the project. This text computesAAR as average net income with respect to average (total) book value. Given somepredetermined cutoff for AAR, the decision rule is to accept projects with an AAR in excess ofthe target measure, and reject all other projects. AAR is not a measure of cash flows and marketvalue, but a measure of financial statement accounts that often bear little resemblance to therelevant value of a project. In addition, the selection of a cutoff is arbitrary, and the time valueof money is ignored. For a financial manager, both the reliance on accounting numbers ratherthan relevant market data and the exclusion of time value of money considerations are troubling.Despite these problems, AAR continues to be used in practice because (1) the accountinginformation is usually available, (2) analysts often use accounting ratios to analyze firmperformance, and (3) managerial compensation is often tied to the attainment of targetaccounting ratio goals.c.The IRR is the discount rate that causes the NPV of a series of cash flows to be identically zero.IRR can thus be interpreted as a financial break-even rate of return; at the IRR discount rate,the net value of the project is zero. The acceptance and rejection criteria are:If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, accept the project if the internal rate ofreturn is greater than or equal to the discount rate.If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, reject the project if the internal rate ofreturn is less than the discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, accept the project if the internal rate ofreturn is less than or equal to the discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, reject the project if the internal rate ofreturn is greater than the discount rate.IRR is the interest rate that causes NPV for a series of cash flows to be zero. NPV is preferred in all situations to IRR; IRR can lead to ambiguous results if there are non-conventional cash flows, and it also ambiguously ranks some mutually exclusive projects. However, for stand-alone projects with conventional cash flows, IRR and NPV are interchangeable techniques. The IRR decision rule for projectsd.The profitability index is the present value of cash inflows relative to the project cost. As such,it is a benefit/cost ratio, providing a measure of the relative profitability of a project. The profitability index decision rule is to accept projects with a PI greater than one, and to reject projects with a PI less than one. The profitability index can be expressed as: PI = (NPV + cost)/cost = 1 + (NPV/cost). If a firm has a basket of positive NPV projects and is subject to capital rationing, PI may provide a good ranking measure of the projects, indicating the “bang for the buck” of each particu lar project.e.NPV is simply the present value of a project’s cash flows. NPV specifically measures, afterconsidering the time value of money, the net increase or decrease in firm wealth due to the project. The decision rule is to accept projects that have a positive NPV, and reject projects with a negative NPV. NPV is superior to the other methods of analysis presented in the text because it has no serious flaws. The method unambiguously ranks mutually exclusive projects, and can differentiate between projects of different scale and time horizon. The only drawback to NPV is that it relies on cash flow and discount rate values that are often estimates and not certain, but this is a problem shared by the other performance criteria as well. A project with NPV = $2,500 implies that the total shareholder wealth of the firm will increase by $2,500 if the project is accepted.4.For a project with future cash flows that are an annuity:Payback = I / CAnd the IRR is:0 = – I + C / IRRSolving the IRR equation for IRR, we get:IRR = C / INotice this is just the reciprocal of the payback. So:IRR = 1 / PBFor long-lived projects with relatively constant cash flows, the sooner the project pays back, the greater is the IRR.5.There are a number of reasons. Two of the most important have to do with transportation costs andexchange rates. Manufacturing in the U.S. places the finished product much closer to the point of sale, resulting in significant savings in transportation costs. It also reduces inventories because goods spend less time in transit. Higher labor costs tend to offset these savings to some degree, at least compared to other possible manufacturing locations. Of great importance is the fact that manufacturing in the U.S. means that a much higher proportion of the costs are paid in dollars. Since sales are in dollars, the net effect is to immunize profits to a large extent against fluctuations in exchange rates. This issue is discussed in greater detail in the chapter on international finance.6.The single biggest difficulty, by far, is coming up with reliable cash flow estimates. Determining anappropriate discount rate is also not a simple task. These issues are discussed in greater depth in the next several chapters. The payback approach is probably the simplest, followed by the AAR, but even these require revenue and cost projections. The discounted cash flow measures (discounted payback, NPV, IRR, and profitability index) are really only slightly more difficult in practice.7.Yes, they are. Such entities generally need to allocate available capital efficiently, just as for-profitsdo. However, it is frequently the case that the “revenues” from not-for-profit ventures are not tangible. For example, charitable giving has real opportunity costs, but the benefits are generally hard to measure. To the extent that benefits are measurable, the question of an appropriate required return remains. Payback rules are commonly used in such cases. Finally, realistic cost/benefit analysis along the lines indicated should definitely be used by the U.S. government and would go a long way toward balancing the budget!8.The statement is false. If the cash flows of Project B occur early and the cash flows of Project Aoccur late, then for a low discount rate the NPV of A can exceed the NPV of B. Observe the following example.C0C1C2IRR NPV @ 0% Project A –$1,000,000 $0 $1,440,000 20% $440,000 Project B –$2,000,000 $2,400,000 $0 20% 400,000However, in one particular case, the statement is true for equally risky Projects. If the lives of the two Projects are equal and the cash flows of Project B are twice the cash flows of Project A in every time period, the NPV of Project B will be twice the NPV of Project A.9. Although the profitability index (PI) is higher for Project B than for Project A, Project A should bechosen because it has the greater NPV. Confusion arises because Project B requires a smaller investment than Project A requires. Since the denominator of the PI ratio is lower for Project B than for Project A, B can have a higher PI yet have a lower NPV. Only in the case of capital rationing could the company’s decision have been incorrect.10. a.Project A would have a higher IRR since initial investment for Project A is less than that ofProject B, if the cash flows for the two projects are identical.b.Yes, since both the cash flows as well as the initial investment are twice that of Project B.11.Project B would have a more sensitive NPV to changes in the discount rate. The reason is the timevalue of money. Cash flows that occur further out in the future are always more sensitive to changes in the interest rate. This is similar to the interest rate risk of a bond.12.The MIRR is calculated by finding the present value of all cash outflows, the future value of all cashinflows to the end of the project, and then calculating the IRR of the two cash flows. As a result, the cash flows have been discounted or compounded by one interest rate (the required return), and then the interest rate between the two remaining cash flows is calculated. As such, the MIRR is not a true interest rate. In contrast, consider the IRR. If you take the initial investment, and calculate the future value at the IRR, you can replicate the future cash flows of the project exactly.13.The criticism is incorrect. It is true that if you calculate the future value of all intermediate cashflows to the end of the project at the required return, then calculate the NPV of this future value and the initial investment, you will get the same NPV. However, NPV says nothing about reinvestment of intermediate cash flows. The NPV is the present value of the project cash flows. The fact that the reinvestment works is an artifact of the time value of money.14.The criticism is incorrect for several reasons. It is true that if you calculate the future value of allintermediate cash flows to the end of the project at the IRR, then calculate the IRR of this future value and the initial investment, you will get the same IRR. This only occurs if the intermediate cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. However, similar to the previous question, IRR deals with the present value of the cash flows, not the future value. There is also another important point. This criticism deals with the reinvestment of the intermediate cash flows. As we will see in the next chapter, any reinvestment assumption concerning the intermediate cash flows is incorrect. The reason is that when we are calculating the cash flows for a project, we are concerned with the incremental cash flows from the project, that is, the cash flows the project creates. Reinvestment violates this principal. Consider the following example:C0C1C2IRR Project A –$100 $10 $110 10% Suppose this is a deposit into a bank account. The IRR of the cash flows is 10 percent. Does it the IRR change if the Year 1 cash flow is reinvested in the account, or if it is withdrawn and spent on pizza? No. Finally, think back to the yield to maturity calculation on a bond. The YTM is the IRR of the bond investment, but no mention of a reinvestment assumption of the bond coupons is inferred.The reason is that the reinvestment assumption is irrelevant to calculating the YTM on a bond; in the same way, the reinvestment assumption is irrelevant in the IRR calculation.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1. a.The payback period is the time that it takes for the cumulative undiscounted cash inflows toequal the initial investment.Project A:Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = €4,000 = €4,000Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = €4,000 +3,500 = €7,500 Payback period = 2 yearsProject B:Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = €2,500 = €2,500Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = €2,500 + 1,200 = €3,700Cumulative cash flows Year 3 = €2,500 + 1,200 + 3,000 = €6,700 Companies can calculate a more precise value using fractional years. To calculate the fractionalpayba ck period, find the fraction of year 3’s cash flows that is needed for the company to have cumulative undiscounted cash flows of €5,000. Divide the difference between the initial investment and the cumulative undiscounted cash flows as of year 2 by the undiscounted cashflow of year 3.Payback period = 2 + (€5,000 –€3,700) / €3,000Payback period = 2.43Since project A has a shorter payback period than project B has, the company should chooseproject A.b.Discount each project’s cash flows at 15 percent. Choose the project with the highest NPV.Project A:NPV = –€7,500 + €4,000 / 1.15 + €3,500 / 1.152 + €1,500 / 1.153NPV = –€388.96Project B:NPV = –€5,000 + €2,500 / 1.15 + €1,200 / 1.152 + €3,000 / 1.153NPV = €53.83The firm should choose Project B since it has a higher NPV than Project A has.2.To calculate the payback period, we need to find the time that the project has recovered its initialinvestment. The cash flows in this problem are an annuity, so the calculation is simpler. If the initial cost is £3,000, the payback period is:Payback = 3 + (£300 / £900) = 3.33 yearsThere is a shortcut to calculate the payback period if the future cash flows are an annuity. Just divide the initial cost by the annual cash flow. For the £3,000 cost, the payback period is:Payback = £3,000 / £900 = 3.33 yearsFor an initial cost of £5,000, the payback period is:Payback = 5 + (£500 / £900) = 5.55 yearsThe payback period for an initial cost of £10,000 is a little trickier. Notice that the total cash inflows after nine years will be:Total cash inflows = 8(£900) = £7,200If the initial cost is £10,000, the project never pays back. Notice that if you use the shortcut forannuity cash flows, you get:Payback = £10,000 / £900 = 11.11 years.This answer does not make sense since the cash flows stop after nine years, so the payback period is never.3.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value todayof the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $7,000/1.14 = $6,140.35Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $7,500/1.142 = $5,771.01Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $8,000/1.143 = $5,399.77Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $8,500/1.144 = $5,032.68To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $6,140.35, so the discounted payback for an $8,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($8,000 – 6,140.35)/$5,771.01 = 1.32 yearsFor an initial cost of $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($13,000 – 6,140.35 – 5,771.01)/$5,399.77 = 2.20 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost.This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $18,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($18,000 – 6,140.35 – 5,771.01 – 5,399.77) / $5,032.68 = 3.14 years4.To calculate the discounted payback, discount all future cash flows back to the present, and use thesediscounted cash flows to calculate the payback period. Doing so, we find:R = 0%: 4 + (£1,100 / £2,100) = 4.52 yearsDiscounted payback = Regular payback = 4.52 yearsR = 5%: £2,100/1.05 + £2,100/1.052 + £2,100/1.053 + £2,100/1.054 + £2,100/1.055 = £9,091.90 £2,100/1.056 = £1,567.05Discounted payback = 5 + (£9,500 – 9,091.90) / £1,567.05 = 5.26 years R = 15%: £2,100/1.15 + £2,100/1.152 + £2,100/1.153 + £2,100/1.154 + £2,100/1.155 + £2,100/1.156 = £7,947.41; The project never pays back.5. a.The average accounting return is the average project earnings after taxes, divided by theaverage book value, or average net investment, of the machine during its life. The book value of the machine is the gross investment minus the accumulated depreciation.Average book value = (Book Value0 + Book Value1 + Book Value2 + Book Value3 +Book Value4 + Book Value5) / (Economic Life)Average book value = ($16,000 + 12,000 + 8,000 + 4,000 + 0) / (5 years)Average book value = $8,000Average Project Earnings = $4,500To find the average accounting return, we divide the average project earnings by the average book value of the machine to calculate the average accounting return. Doing so, we find:Average Accounting Return = Average Project Earnings / Average Book ValueAverage Accounting Return = $4,500 / $8,000Average Accounting Return = 0.5625 or 56.25%6.First, we need to determine the average book value of the project. The book value is the grossinvestment minus accumulated depreciation.Purchase Date Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Gross Investment €8,000 €8,000 €8,000 €8,000Less: Accumulated Depreciation 0 4,000 6,500 8,000Net Investment €8,000 €4,000 €1,500 €0 Now, we can calculate the average book value as:Average book value = (€8,000 + 4,000 + 1,500 + 0) / (4 years)Average book value = €3,375To calculate the average accounting return, we must remember to use the aftertax average netincome when calculating the average accounting return. So, the average aftertax net income is:Average aftertax net income = (1 – t c) Annual pretax net incomeAverage aftertax net income = (1 – 0.25) €2,000Average aftertax net income = €1,500The average accounting return is the average after-tax net income divided by the average book value, which is:Average accounting return = €1,500 / €3,375Average accounting return = 0.4444 or 44.44%7.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that definesthe IRR for this project is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –¥8,000,000 + ¥4,000,000/(1 + IRR) + ¥3,000,000/(1 + IRR)2 + ¥2,000,000/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 6.93%Since the IRR is less than the required return we would reject the project.8.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that definesthe IRR for this Project A is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = – £2,000 + £1,000/(1 + IRR) + £1,500/(1 + IRR)2 + £2,000/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 47.15%And the IRR for Project B is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = – £1,500 + £500/(1 + IRR) + £1,000/(1 + IRR)2 + £1,500/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 36.19%9.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The cash flows from this project are an annuity, so the equation for the profitability index is:PI = C(PVIFA R,t) / C0PI = €41,000(PVIFA15%,7) / €160,000PI = 1.066110. a.The profitability index is the present value of the future cash flows divided by the initial cost.So, for Project Alpha, the profitability index is:PI Alpha = [$300 / 1.10 + $700 / 1.102 + $600 / 1.103] / $500 = 2.604And for Project Beta the profitability index is:PI Beta = [$300 / 1.10 + $1,800 / 1.102 + $1,700 / 1.103] / $2,000 = 1.519b.According to the profitability index, you would accept Project Alpha. However, remember theprofitability index rule can lead to incorrect decision when ranking mutually exclusive projects.Intermediate11. a.To have a payback equal to the project’s life, given C is a constant cash flow for N years:C = I/Nb.To have a positive NPV, I < C (PVIFA R%, N). Thus, C > I / (PVIFA R%, N).c.Benefits = C (PVIFA R%, N) = 2 × costs = 2IC = 2I / (PVIFA R%, N)12. a.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equationthat defines the IRR for this project is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3 + C4 / (1 + IRR)40 = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / (1 + IRR) –₩2,000 / (1 + IRR)2–₩1,000 / (1 + IRR)3–₩1,000 / (1 +IRR)4Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 13.99%b.This problem differs from previous ones because the initial cash flow is positive and all futurecash flows are negative. In other words, this is a financing-type project, while previous projects were investing-type projects. For financing situations, accept the project when the IRR is less than the discount rate. Reject the project when the IRR is greater than the discount rate.IRR = 13.99%Discount Rate = 12%IRR > Discount RateReject the offer when the discount rate is less than the IRR.ing the same reason as part b., we would accept the project if the discount rate is 20 percent.IRR = 13.99%Discount Rate = 19%IRR < Discount RateAccept the offer when the discount rate is greater than the IRR.d.The NPV is the sum of the present value of all cash flows, so the NPV of the project if thediscount rate is 10 percent will be:NPV = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / 1.12 –₩2,000 / 1.122–₩1,000 / 1.123–₩1,000 / 1.124NPV = –₩173.83When the discount rate is 12 percent, the NPV of the offer is –₩359.95. Reject the offer.And the NPV of the project is the discount rate is 19 percent will be:NPV = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / 1.19 –₩2,000 / 1.192–₩1,000 / 1.193–₩1,000 / 1.194NPV = ₩394.75When the discount rate is 19 percent, the NPV of the offer is ₩466.82. Accept the offer.e.Yes, the decisions under the NPV rule are consistent with the choices made under the IRR rulesince the signs of the cash flows change only once.13. a.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the IRR foreach project is:Deepwater Fishing IRR:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$600,000 + $270,000 / (1 + IRR) + $350,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $300,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 24.30%Submarine Ride IRR:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / (1 + IRR) + $700,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $900,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 21.46%Based on the IRR rule, the deepwater fishing project should be chosen because it has the higher IRR.b.To calculate the incremental IRR, we s ubtract the smaller project’s cash flows from the largerproject’s cash flows. In this case, we subtract the deepwater fishing cash flows from the submarine ride cash flows. The incremental IRR is the IRR of these incremental cash flows. So, the incremental cash flows of the submarine ride are:Year 0Year 1Year 2 Year 3 Submarine Ride –$1,800,000 $1,000,000 $700,000 $900,000Deepwater Fishing –600,000 270,000 350,000 300,000Submarine – Fishing –$1,200,000 $730,000 $350,000 $600,000 Setting the present value of these incremental cash flows equal to zero, we find the incremental IRR is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$1,200,000 + $730,000 / (1 + IRR) + $350,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $600,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:Incremental IRR = 19.92%For investing-type projects, accept the larger project when the incremental IRR is greater than the discount rate. Since the incremental IRR, 19.92%, is greater than the required rate of return of 15 percent, choose the submarine ride project. Note that this is the choice when evaluating only the IRR of each project. The IRR decision rule is flawed because there is a scale problem.That is, the submarine ride has a greater initial investment than does the deepwater fishing project. This problem is corrected by calculating the IRR of the incremental cash flows, or by evaluating the NPV of each project.c.The NPV is the sum of the present value of the cash flows from the project, so the NPV of eachproject will be:Deepwater fishing:NPV = –$600,000 + $270,000 / 1.15 + $350,000 / 1.152 + $300,000 / 1.153NPV = $96,687.76Submarine ride:NPV = –$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / 1.15 + $700,000 / 1.152 + $900,000 / 1.153NPV = $190,630.39Since the NPV of the submarine ride project is greater than the NPV of the deepwater fishingproject, choose the submarine ride project. The incremental IRR rule is always consistent withthe NPV rule.14. a.The profitability index is the PV of the future cash flows divided by the initial investment. Thecash flows for both projects are an annuity, so:PI I = 元15,000(PVIFA10%,3 ) / 元30,000 = 1.243PI II = 元2,800(PVIFA10%,3) / 元5,000 = 1.393The profitability index decision rule implies that we accept project II, since PI II is greater thanthe PI I.b.The NPV of each project is:NPV I = –元30,000 + 元15,000(PVIFA10%,3) = 元7,302.78NPV II = –元5,000 + 元2,800(PVIFA10%,3) = 元1,963.19The NPV decision rule implies accepting Project I, since the NPV I is greater than the NPV II.ing the profitability index to compare mutually exclusive projects can be ambiguous whenthe magnitudes of the cash flows for the two projects are of different scale. In this problem,project I is roughly 3 times as large as project II and produces a larger NPV, yet the profit-ability index criterion implies that project II is more acceptable.15. a.The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = –₦28,000,000 + ₦53,000,000/1.11 –₦8,000,000/1.112 = ₦13,254,768.28The NPV is greater than 0, so we would accept the project.b.The equation for the IRR of the project is:0 = –₦28,000,000 + ₦53,000,000/(1+IRR) –₦8,000,000/(1+IRR)2From Descartes rule of signs, we know there are two IRRs since the cash flows change signstwice. From trial and error, the two IRRs are:IRR = 72.75%, –83.46%。
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案-CAL-FENGHAI-(2020YEAR-YICAI)_JINGBIAN第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值,当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平,包括避免不道德或非法的行为,股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润,使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
Cha02 罗斯公司理财第九版原版书课后习题
reported in the financing activity section of the accounting statement of cash flows. When Tyco received payments from customers, the cash inflows were reported as operating cash flows. Another method used by Tyco was to have acquired companies prepay operating expenses. In other words, the company acquired by Tyco would pay vendors for items not yet received. In one case, the payments totaled more than $50 million. When the acquired company was consolidated with Tyco, the prepayments reduced Tyco’s cash outflows, thus increasing the operating cash flows.Dynegy, the energy giant, was accused of engaging in a number of complex “round-trip trades.” The round-trip trades essentially involved the sale of natural resources to a counterparty, with the repurchase of the resources from the same party at the same price. In essence, Dynegy would sell an asset for $100, and immediately repurchase it from the buyer for $100. The problem arose with the treatment of the cash flows from the sale. Dynegy treated the cash from the sale of the asset as an operating cash flow, but classified the repurchase as an investing cash outflow. The total cash flows of the contracts traded by Dynegy in these round-trip trades totaled $300 million.Adelphia Communications was another company that apparently manipulated cash flows. In Adelphia’s case, the company capitalized the labor required to install cable. In other words, the company classified this labor expense as a fixed asset. While this practice is fairly common in the telecommunications industry, Adelphia capitalized a higher percentage of labor than is common. The effect of this classification was that the labor was treated as an investment cash flow, which increased the operating cash flow.In each of these examples, the companies were trying to boost operating cash flows by shifting cash flows to a different heading. The important thing to notice is that these movements don’t affect the total cash flow of the firm, which is why we recommend focusing on this number, not just operating cash flow.Summary and ConclusionsBesides introducing you to corporate accounting, the purpose of this chapter has been to teach you how to determine cash flow from the accounting statements of a typical company.1. Cash flow is generated by the firm and paid to creditors and shareholders. It can be classifiedas:1. Cash flow from operations.2. Cash flow from changes in fixed assets.3. Cash flow from changes in working capital.2. Calculations of cash flow are not difficult, but they require care and particular attention to detailin properly accounting for noncash expenses such as depreciation and deferred taxes. It is especially important that you do not confuse cash flow with changes in net working capital and net income.Concept Questions1. Liquidity True or false: All assets are liquid at some price. Explain.2. Accounting and Cash Flows Why might the revenue and cost figures shown on a standardincome statement not represent the actual cash inflows and outflows that occurred during a period?3. Accounting Statement of Cash Flows Looking at the accounting statement of cash flows,what does the bottom line number mean? How useful is this number for analyzing a company? 4. Cash Flows How do financial cash flows and the accounting statement of cash flows differ?Which is more useful for analyzing a company?5. Book Values versus Market Values Under standard accounting rules, it is possible for astockholders’ equity of Information Control Corp. one year ago:During the past year, Information Control issued 10 million shares of new stock at a total price of $43 million, and issued $10 million in new long-term debt. The company generated $9 million in net income and paid $2 million in dividends. Construct the current balance sheet reflecting the changes that occurred at Information Control Corp. during the year.8. Cash Flow to Creditors The 2009 balance sheet of Anna’s Tennis Shop, Inc., showed long-term debt of $1.34 million, and the 2010 balance sheet showed long-term debt of $1.39 million.The 2010 income statement showed an interest expense of $118,000. What was the firm’s cash flow to creditors during 2010?9. Cash Flow to Stockholders The 2009 balance sheet of Anna’s Tennis Shop, Inc., showed$430,000 in the common stock account and $2.6 million in the additional paid-in surplus account.The 2010 balance sheet showed $450,000 and $3.05 million in the same two accounts, respectively. If the company paid out $385,000 in cash dividends during 2010, what was the cash flow to stockholders for the year?10. Calculating Cash Flows Given the information for Anna’s Tennis Shop, Inc., in the previoustwo problems, suppose you also know that the firm’s net capital spending for 2010 was $875,000 and that the firm reduced its net working capital investment by $69,000. What was the firm’s 2010 operating cash flow, or OCF?INTERMEDIATE (Questions 11–24)11. Cash Flows Ritter Corporation’s accountants prepared the following financial statements foryear-end 2010:1. Explain the change in cash during 2010.2. Determine the change in net working capital in 2010.3. Determine the cash flow generated by the firm’s assets during 2010.12. Financial Cash Flows The Stancil Corporation provided the following current information:Determine the cash flows from the firm and the cash flows to investors of the firm.13. Building an Income Statement During the year, the Senbet Discount Tire Company hadgross sales of $1.2 million. The firm’s cost of goods sold and selling expenses were $450,000 and $225,000, respectively. Senbet also had notes payable of $900,000. These notes carried an interest rate of 9 percent. Depreciation was $110,000. Senbet’s tax rate was 35 percent.1. What was Senbet’s net income?2. What was Senbet’s operating cash flow?14. Calculating Total Cash Flows Schwert Corp. shows the following information on its 2010income statement: sales = $167,000; costs = $91,000; other expenses = $5,400; depreciation expense = $8,000; interest expense = $11,000; taxes = $18,060; dividends = $9,500. In addition, you’re told that the firm issued $7,250 in new equity during 2010 and redeemed $7,100 in outstanding long-term debt.1. What is the 2010 operating cash flow?2. What is the 2010 cash flow to creditors?3. What is the 2010 cash flow to stockholders?4. If net fixed assets increased by $22,400 during the year, what was the addition to networking capital (NWC)?15. Using Income Statements Given the following information for O’Hara Marine Co., calculatethe depreciation expense: sales = $43,000; costs = $27,500; addition to retained earnings = $5,300; dividends paid = $1,530; interest expense = $1,900; tax rate = 35 percent.1. What is owners’ equity for 2009 and 2010?2. What is the change in net working capital for 2010?3. In 2010, Weston Enterprises purchased $1,800 in new fixed assets. How much in fixedassets did Weston Enterprises sell? What is the cash flow from assets for the year? (The tax rate is 35 percent.)4. During 2010, Weston Enterprises raised $360 in new long-term debt. How much long-termdebt must Weston Enterprises have paid off during the year? What is the cash flow to creditors?Use the following information for Ingersoll, Inc., for Problems 23 and 24 (assume the tax rate is34 percent):23. Financial Statements Draw up an income statement and balance sheet for this company for2009 and 2010.24. Calculating Cash Flow For 2010, calculate the cash flow from assets, cash flow to creditors,and cash flow to stockholders.CHALLENGE (Questions 25–27)25. Cash Flows You are researching Time Manufacturing and have found the following accountingstatement of cash flows for the most recent year. You also know that the company paid $82 million in current taxes and had an interest expense of $43 million. Use the accounting statement of cash flows to construct the financial statement of cash flows.Nick has also provided the following information: During the year the company raised $118,000 in new long-term debt and retired $98,000 in long-term debt. The company also sold $11,000 in new stock and repurchased $40,000 in stock. The company purchased $786,000 in fixed assets and sold $139,000 in fixed assets.Angus has asked you to prepare the financial statement of cash flows and the accounting statement of cash flows. He has also asked you to answer the following questions:1. How would you describe Warf Computers’ cash flows?2. Which cash flow statement more accurately describes the cash flows at the company?3. In light of your previous answers, comment on Nick’s expansion plans.。
罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案
CH5 11,13,18,19,2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. Fro m now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16,24,27,42,5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3,18,21,22,313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4,18,20,22,24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3,4,6,9,153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48%9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9,13,14,17,18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1,4,12,14,171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checksreceived per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minusthe transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.。
13738-罗斯-公司理财-复习资料-Topic-02-E2
Topic 2, Exercise 2Examining Differences between Cash Flow and EarningsIf you have experienced a ride on the tube (the subway system) in London you were probably surprised by the kind reminder when the train arrives at the station. As the train stops you are reminded to "Mind the Gap," the gap being the distance between the train and the station platform. A gentle reminder issued by polite voice than warns you to be careful and watch your step when leaving the train.A recent article in CFO Magazine issues a similar warning to Mind the Gap between earnings and cash flows. The article warns of a potential disconnect between earnings and cash flow that is important when analyzing a company's performance.After reading the article, answer the following questions:1.Do companies have some flexibility in recognizing gains from sales of assets?Give an example of how that could affect growth.The article points out several examples of flexibility in recognizing gains or losses on sales used by companies that allow them to manage reported income and operational cash flow growth. Companies can, within limits, report some items that may benonrecurring as operational items rather than extraordinary items. For example, Texas Instruments used a gain on a sale to reduce its sales and general administrationexpense. This boosted operating income.2.How could outsourcing impact growth in cash flow? Give an example of howoutsourcing affected growth in cash flow.Companies that do all or most of their own manufacturing require higher levels of investments in assets. If you compare their results to companies that outsourcemanufacturing, firms that do their own manufacturing chew up more cash flows. The level of cash flows will be higher for an outsourcing firm. While level of cash flows will be higher for the outsourcing firm, potential issues of risk such as quality control could be different.。
公司理财罗斯第九版课后习题答案
罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11,13,18,19,20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16,24,27,42,58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3,18,21,22,31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present Value Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is: Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t 2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA 3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4,18,20,22,24 4. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The priceof a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P 0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be: 6 / 17 P 3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3,4,6,9,15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback= 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap002
CHAPTER 2ACCOUNTING STATEMENTS, TAXES AND CASH FLOWAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.Liquidity measures how quickly and easily an asset can be converted to cash without significant lossin value. It’s desirable for firms to have high liquidity so that they have a large factor of safety in meeting short-term creditor demands. However, since liquidity also has an opportunity cost associated with it - namely that higher returns can generally be found by investing the cash into productive assets - low liquidity levels are also desirable to the firm. It’s up to the firm’s financial management staff to find a reasonable compromise between these opposing needs2.The recognition and matching principles in financial accounting call for revenues, and the costsassociated with producing those revenues, to be “booked” when the revenue process is essentially complete, not necessarily when the cash is collected or bills are paid. Note that this way is not necessarily correct; it’s the way accountants have chosen to do it.3.The bottom line number shows the change in the cash balance on the balance sheet. As such, it is nota useful number for analyzing a company.4. The major difference is the treatment of interest expense. The accounting statement of cash flowstreats interest as an operating cash flow, while the financial cash flows treat interest as a financing cash flow. The logic of the accounting statement of cash flows is that since interest appears on the income statement, which shows the operations for the period, it is an operating cash flow. In reality, interest is a financing expense, which results from the company’s choice of debt/equity. We will have more to say about this in a later chapter. When comparing the two cash flow statements, the financial statement of cash flows is a more appropriate measure of the company’s performance because of its treatment of interest.5.Market values can never be negative. Imagine a share of stock selling for –$20. This would meanthat if you placed an order for 100 shares, you would get the stock along with a check for $2,000.How many shares do you want to buy? More generally, because of corporate and individual bankruptcy laws, net worth for a person or a corporation cannot be negative, implying that liabilities cannot exceed assets in market value.6.For a successful company that is rapidly expanding, for example, capital outlays will be large,possibly leading to negative cash flow from assets. In general, what matters is whether the money is spent wisely, not whether cash flow from assets is positive or negative.7.It’s probably not a good sign for an established company, but it would be fairly ordinary for a start-up, so it depends.8.For example, if a company were to become more efficient in inventory management, the amount ofinventory needed would decline. The same might be true if it becomes better at collecting its receivables. In general, anything that leads to a decline in ending NWC relative to beginning would have this effect. Negative net capital spending would mean more long-lived assets were liquidated than purchased.9.If a company raises more money from selling stock than it pays in dividends in a particular period,its cash flow to stockholders will be negative. If a company borrows more than it pays in interest and principal, its cash flow to creditors will be negative.10.The adjustments discussed were purely accounting changes; they had no cash flow or market valueconsequences unless the new accounting information caused stockholders to revalue the derivatives. Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1.To find owner’s equity, we must construct a balance sheet as follows:Balance SheetCA $5,000 CL $4,500NFA 23,000 LTD 13,000OE ??TA $28,000 TL & OE $28,000We know that total liabilities and owner’s equity (TL & OE) must equal total assets of $28,000. We also know that TL & OE is equal to current liabilities plus long-term debt plus owner’s equity, so owner’s equity is:O E = $28,000 –13,000 – 4,500 = $10,500N WC = CA – CL = $5,000 – 4,500 = $5002. The income statement for the company is:Income StatementSales S/.527,000Costs 280,000Depreciation 38,000EBIT S/.209,000Interest 15,000EBT S/.194,000Taxes (35%) 67,900Net income S/.126,100One equation for net income is:Net income = Dividends + Addition to retained earningsRearranging, we get:Addition to retained earnings = Net income – DividendsAddition to retained earnings = S/.126,100 – 48,000Addition to retained earnings = S/.78,1003.To find the book value of current assets, we use: NWC = CA – CL. Rearranging to solve for currentassets, we get:CA = NWC + CL = $900K + 2.2M = $3.1MThe market value of current assets and fixed assets is given, so:Book value CA = $3.1M Market value CA = $2.8MBook value NFA = $4.0M Market value NFA = $3.2MBook value assets = $3.1M + 4.0M = $7.1M Market value assets = $2.8M + 3.2M = $6.0M 4.Taxes = 0.15(€50K) + 0.25(€25K) + 0.34(€25K) + 0.39(€273K – 100K)Taxes = €89,720The average tax rate is the total tax paid divided by net income, so:Average tax rate = €89,720 / €273,000Average tax rate = 32.86%.The marginal tax rate is the tax rate on the next €1 of earnings, so the marginal tax rate = 39%.5.To calculate OCF, we first need the income statement:Income StatementSales 元13,500Costs 5,400Depreciation 1,200EBIT 元6,900Interest 680Taxable income 元6,220Taxes (35%) 2,177Net income 元4,043OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = 元6,900 + 1,200 – 2,177OCF = 元5,923 capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + DepreciationNet capital spending = £4,700,000 – 4,200,000 + 925,000 Net capital spending = £1,425,0007.The long-term debt account will increase by $8 million, the amount of the new long-term debt issue.Since the company sold 10 million new shares of stock with a $1 par value, the common stock account will increase by $10 million. The capital surplus account will increase by $16 million, the value of the new stock sold above its par value. Since the company had a net income of $7 million, and paid $4 million in dividends, the addition to retained earnings was $3 million, which will increase the accumulated retained earnings account. So, the new long-term debt and stockholders’ equity portion of the balance sheet will be:Long-term debt $ 68,000,000Total long-term debt $ 68,000,000Shareholders equityPreferred stock $ 18,000,000Common stock ($1 par value) 35,000,000Accumulated retained earnings 92,000,000Capital surplus 65,000,000Total equity $ 210,000,000Total Liabilities & Equity $ 278,000,0008.Cash flow to creditors = Interest paid – Net new borrowingCash flow to creditors = €340,000 – (LTD end– LTD beg)Cash flow to creditors = €340,000 – (€3,100,000 – 2,800,000)Cash flow to creditors = €340,000 – 300,000Cash flow to creditors = €40,0009. Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends paid – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = €600,000 – [(Common end + APIS end) – (Common beg + APIS beg)]Cash flow to stockholders = €600,000 – [(€855,000 + 7,600,000) – (€820,000 + 6,800,000)]Cash flow to stockholders = €600,000 – (€7,620,000 – 8,455,000)Cash flow to stockholders = –€235,000Note, APIS is the additional paid-in surplus.10. Cash flow from assets = Cash flow to creditors + Cash flow to stockholders= €40,000 – 235,000= –€195,000Cash flow from assets = –€195,000 = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending= OCF – (–€165,000) – 760,000= –€195,000Operating cash flow = –€195,000 – 165,000 + 760,000= €400,000Intermediate11. a.The accounting statement of cash flows explains the change in cash during the year. Theaccounting statement of cash flows will be:Statement of cash flowsOperationsNet income ZW$125Depreciation 75Changes in other current assets (25)Total cash flow from operations ZW$175Investing activitiesAcquisition of fixed assets ZW$(175)Total cash flow from investing activities ZW$(175)Financing activitiesProceeds of long-term debt ZW$90Current liabilities 10Dividends (65)Total cash flow from financing activities ZW$35Change in cash (on balance sheet) ZW$35b.Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg= (CA end– CL end) – (CA beg– CL beg)= [(ZW$45 + 145) – 70] – [(ZW$10 + 120) – 60)= ZW$120 – 70= ZW$50c.To find the cash flow generated by the firm’s assets, we need the operating cash flow, and thecapital spending. So, calculating each of these, we find:Operating cash flowNet income ZW$125Depreciation 75Operating cash flow ZW$200Note that we can calculate OCF in this manner since there are no taxes.Capital spendingEnding fixed assets ZW$250Beginning fixed assets (150)Depreciation 75Capital spending ZW$175Now we can calculate the cash flow generated by the firm’s assets, which is:Cash flow from assetsOperating cash flow ZW$200Capital spending (175)Change in NWC (50)Cash flow from assets ZW$(25)Notice that the accounting statement of cash flows shows a positive cash flow, but the financial cash flows show a negative cash flow. The cash flow generated by the firm’s assets is a better number for analyzing the firm’s performance.12.With the information provided, the cash flows from the firm are the capital spending and the changein net working capital, so:Cash flows from the firmCapital spending $(3,000)Additions to NWC (1,000)Cash flows from the firm $(4,000)And the cash flows to the investors of the firm are:Cash flows to investors of the firmSale of short-term debt $(7,000)Sale of long-term debt (18,000)Sale of common stock (2,000)Dividends paid 23,000Cash flows to investors of the firm $(4,000)13. a. The interest expense for the company is the amount of debt times the interest rate on the debt.So, the income statement for the company is:Income StatementSales £1,000,000Cost of goods sold 300,000Selling costs 200,000Depreciation 100,000EBIT £400,000Interest 100,000Taxable income £300,000Taxes (35%) 105,000Net income £195,000b. And the operating cash flow is:OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = £400,000 + 100,000 – 105,000OCF = £395,00014.To find the OCF, we first calculate net income.Income StatementSales Au$145,000Costs 86,000Depreciation 7,000Other expenses 4,900EBIT Au$47,100Interest 15,000Taxable income Au$32,100Taxes 12,840Net income Au$19,260Dividends Au$8,700Additions to RE Au$10,560a.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = Au$47,100 + 7,000 – 12,840OCF = Au$41,260b.CFC = Interest – Net new LTDCFC = Au$15,000 – (–Au$6,500)CFC = Au$21,500Note that the net new long-term debt is negative because the company repaid part of its long-term debt.c.CFS = Dividends – Net new equityCFS = Au$8,700 – 6,450CFS = Au$2,250d.We know that CFA = CFC + CFS, so:CFA = Au$21,500 + 2,250 = Au$23,750CFA is also equal to OCF – Net capital spending – Change in NWC. We already know OCF.Net capital spending is equal to:Net capital spending = Increase in NFA + DepreciationNet capital spending = Au$5,000 + 7,000Net capital spending = Au$12,000Now we can use:CFA = OCF – Net capital spending – Change in NWCAu$23,750 = Au$41,260 – 12,000 – Change in NWC.Solving for the change in NWC gives Au$5,510, meaning the company increased its NWC by Au$5,510.15.The solution to this question works the income statement backwards. Starting at the bottom:Net income = Dividends + Addition to ret. earningsNet income = $900 + 4,500Net income = $5,400Now, looking at the income statement:EBT –EBT × Tax rate = Net incomeRecognize that EBT × tax rate is simply the calculation for taxes. Solving this for EBT yields: EBT = NI / (1– tax rate)EBT = $5,400 / 0.65EBT = $8,308Now we can calculate:EBIT = EBT + interestEBIT = $8,308 + 1,600EBIT = $9,908The last step is to use:EBIT = Sales – Costs – DepreciationEBIT = $29,000 – 13,000 – DepreciationEBIT = $9,908Solving for depreciation, we find that depreciation = $6,092.16.The balance sheet for the company looks like this:Balance SheetCash ¥175,000 Accounts payable ¥430,000 Accounts receivable 140,000 Notes payable 180,000 Inventory 265,000 Current liabilities ¥610,000 Current assets ¥580,000 Long-term debt 1,430,000Total liabilities ¥2,040,000 Tangible net fixed assets 2,900,000Intangible net fixed assets 720,000 Common stock ??Accumulated ret. earnings 1,240,000 Total assets ¥4,200,000 Total liab. & owners’ equity¥4,200,000Total liabilities and owners’ equity is:TL & OE = CL + LTD + Common stockSolving for this equation for equity gives us:Common stock = ¥4,200,000 – 1,240,000 – 2,040,000Common stock = ¥920,00017.The market value of shareholders’ equity cannot be zero. A negative market va lue in this case wouldimply that the company would pay you to own the stock. The market value of shareholders’ equity can be stated as: Shareholders’ equity = Max [(TA – TL), 0]. So, if TA is 元4,000,000 equity is equal to 元1,000,000 and if TA is 元2,500,000 equity is equal to 元0. We should note here that the book value of shareholders’ equity can be negative.18. a. Taxes Growth = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($10K) = $17,150Taxes Income = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($25K) + 0.39($235K) + 0.34($8.165M)= $2,890,000b. Each firm has a marginal tax rate of 34% on the next $10,000 of taxable income, despite theirdifferent average tax rates, so both firms will pay an additional $3,400 in taxes.19.Income StatementSales ₦850,000COGS 630,000A&S expenses 120,000Depreciation 130,000EBIT (₦30,000)Interest 85,000Taxable income (₦115,000)Taxes (30%) 0 income (₦115,000)b.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = (₦30,000) + 130,000 – 0OCF = ₦100,000 income was negative because of the tax deductibility of depreciation and interest expense.However, the actual cash flow from operations was positive because depreciation is a non-cash expense and interest is a financing expense, not an operating expense.20. A firm can still pay out dividends if net income is negative; it just has to be sure there is sufficientcash flow to make the dividend payments.Change in NWC = Net capital spending = Net new equity = 0. (Given)Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spendingCash flow from assets = ₦100,000 – 0 – 0 = ₦100,000Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = ₦30,000 – 0 = ₦30,000Cash flow to creditors = Cash flow from assets – Cash flow to stockholdersCash flow to creditors = ₦100,000 – 30,000Cash flow to creditors = ₦70,000Cash flow to creditors is also:Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDSo:Net new LTD = Interest – Cash flow to creditorsNet new LTD = ₦85,000 – 70,000Net new LTD = ₦15,00021. a.The income statement is:Income StatementSales $12,800Cost of good sold 10,400Depreciation 1,900EBIT $ 500Interest 450Taxable income $ 50Taxes (34%) 17Net income $33b.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = $500 + 1,900 – 17OCF = $2,383c.Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg= (CA end– CL end) – (CA beg– CL beg)= ($3,850 – 2,100) – ($3,200 – 1,800)= $1,750 – 1,400 = $350Net capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + Depreciation= $9,700 – 9,100 + 1,900= $2,500CFA = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending= $2,383 – 350 – 2,500= –$467The cash flow from assets can be positive or negative, since it represents whether the firm raised funds or distributed funds on a net basis. In this problem, even though net income and OCF are positive, the firm invested heavily in both fixed assets and net working capital; it had to raise a net $467 in funds from its stockholders and creditors to make these investments.d.Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTD= $450 – 0= $450Cash flow to stockholders = Cash flow from assets – Cash flow to creditors= –$467 – 450= –$917We can also calculate the cash flow to stockholders as:Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equitySolving for net new equity, we get:Net new equity = $500 – (–917)= $1,417The firm had positive earnings in an accounting sense (NI > 0) and had positive cash flow from operations. The firm invested $350 in new net working capital and $2,500 in new fixed assets. The firm had to raise $467 from its stakeholders to support this new investment. It accomplished this by raising $1,417 in the form of new equity. After paying out $500 of this in the form of dividends to shareholders and $450 in the form of interest to creditors, $467 was left to meet the firm’s cash flow needs for investment.22. a.Total assets 2005 = ¥650,000 + 2,900,000 = ¥3,550,000Total liabilities 2005 = ¥265,000 + 1,500,000 = ¥1,765,000Owners’ equity 2005 = ¥3,550,000 – 1,765,000 = ¥1,785,000Total assets 2006 = ¥705,000 + 3,400,000 = ¥4,105,000Total liabilities 2006 = ¥290,000 + 1,720,000 = ¥2,010,000Owners’ equity 2006 = ¥4,105,000 – 2,010,000 = ¥2,095,000b.NWC 2005 = CA05 – CL05 = ¥650,000 – 265,000 = ¥385,000NWC 2006 = CA06 – CL06 = ¥705,000 – 290,000 = ¥415,000Change in NWC = NWC06 – NWC05 = ¥415,000 – 385,000 = ¥30,000c.We can calculate net capital spending as:Net capital spending = Net fixed assets 2006 – Net fixed assets 2005 + DepreciationNet capital spending = ¥3,400,000 – 2,900,000 + 800,000Net capital spending = ¥1,300,000So, the company had a net capital spending cash flow of ¥1,300,000. We also know that net capital spending is:Net capital spending = Fixed assets bought – Fixed assets sold¥1,300,000 = ¥1,500,000 – Fixed assets soldFixed assets sold = ¥1,500,000 – 1,300,000 = ¥200,000To calculate the cash flow from assets, we must first calculate the operating cash flow. The operating cash flow is calculated as follows (you can also prepare a traditional income statement):EBIT = Sales – Costs – DepreciationEBIT = ¥8,600,000 – 4,150,000 – 800,000EBIT = ¥3,650,000EBT = EBIT – InterestEBT = ¥3,650,000 – 216,000EBT = ¥3,434,000Taxes = EBT ⨯ .35Taxes = ¥3,434,000 ⨯ .35Taxes = ¥1,202,000OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = ¥3,650,000 + 800,000 – 1,202,000OCF = ¥3,248,000Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending.Cash flow from assets = ¥3,248,000 – 30,000 – 1,300,000Cash flow from assets = ¥1,918,000 new borrowing = LTD06 – LTD05Net new borrowing = ¥1,720,000 – 1,500,000Net new borrowing = ¥220,000Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDCash flow to creditors = ¥216,000 – 220,000Cash flow to creditors = –¥4,000Net new borrowing = ¥220,000 = Debt issued – Debt retiredDebt retired = ¥300,000 – 220,000 = ¥80,00023.Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2005Cash €2,107 Accounts payable €2,213Accounts receivable 2,789 Notes payable 407Inventory 4,959 Current liabilities €2,620Current assets €9,855Long-term debt €7,056 Net fixed assets €17,669 Owners' equity €17,848Total assets €27,524 Total liab. & equity €27,524Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2006Cash €2,155 Accounts payable €2,146Accounts receivable 3,142 Notes payable 382Inventory 5,096 Current liabilities €2,528Current assets €10,393Long-term debt €8,232 Net fixed assets €18,091 Owners' equity €17,724Total assets €28,484 Total liab. & equity €28,4842005 Income Statement 2006 Income Statement Sales €4,018.00 Sales €4,312.00 COGS 1,382.00 COGS 1,569.00 Other expenses 328.00 Other expenses 274.00 Depreciation 577.00 Depreciation 578.00 EBIT €1,731.00 EBIT €1,891.00 Interest 269.00 Interest 309.00 EBT €1,462.00 EBT €1,582.00 Taxes (34%) 497.08 Taxes (34%) 537.88 Net income € 964.92 Net income €1,044.12 Dividends €490.00 Dividends €539.00 Additions to RE €474.92 Additions to RE €505.12 24.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = €1,891 + 578 – 537.88OCF = €1,931.12Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg = (CA – CL) end– (CA – CL) begChange in NWC = (€10,393 – 2,528) – (€9,855 – 2,620)Change in NWC = €7,865 – 7,235 = €630Net capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg+ DepreciationNet capital spending = €18,091 – 17,669 + 578Net capital spending = €1,000Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spendingCash flow from assets = €1,931.12 – 630 – 1,000Cash flow from assets = €301.12Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDNet new LTD = LTD end– LTD begCash flow to creditors = €309 – (€8,232 – 7,056)Cash flow to creditors = –€867Net new equity = Common stock end– Common stock begCommon stock + Retained earnings = T otal owners’ equityNet new equity = (OE – RE) end– (OE – RE) begNet new equity = OE end– OE beg + RE beg– RE endRE end= RE beg+ Additions to RE04Net new equity = OE end– OE beg+ RE beg– (RE beg + Additions to RE06)= OE end– OE beg– Additions to RENet new equity = €17,724 – 17,848 – 505.12 = –€629.12Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = €539 – (–€629.12)Cash flow to stockholders = €1,168.12As a check, cash flow from assets is €301.12.Cash flow from assets = Cash flow from creditors + Cash flow to stockholdersCash flow from assets = –€867 + 1,168.12Cash flow from assets = €301.12Challenge25.We will begin by calculating the operating cash flow. First, we need the EBIT, which can becalculated as:EBIT = Net income + Current taxes + Deferred taxes + InterestEBIT = £192 + 110 + 21 + 57EBIT = £380Now we can calculate the operating cash flow as:Operating cash flowEarnings before interest and taxes £380Depreciation 105Current taxes (110)Operating cash flow £375The cash flow from assets is found in the investing activities portion of the accounting statement of cash flows, so:Cash flow from assetsAcquisition of fixed assets £198Sale of fixed assets (25)Capital spending £173The net working capital cash flows are all found in the operations cash flow section of the accounting statement of cash flows. However, instead of calculating the net working capital cash flows as the change in net working capital, we must calculate each item individually. Doing so, we find:Net working capital cash flowCash £140Accounts receivable 31Inventories (24)Accounts payable (19)Accrued expenses 10Notes payable (6)Other (2)NWC cash flow £130Except for the interest expense and notes payable, the cash flow to creditors is found in the financing activities of the accounting statement of cash flows. The interest expense from the income statement is given, so:Cash flow to creditorsInterest £57Retirement of debt 84Debt service £141Proceeds from sale of long-term debt (129)Total £12And we can find the cash flow to stockholders in the financing section of the accounting statement of cash flows. The cash flow to stockholders was:Cash flow to stockholdersDividends £94Repurchase of stock 15Cash to stockholders £109Proceeds from new stock issue (49)Total £60 capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + Depreciation= (NFA end– NFA beg) + (Depreciation + AD beg) – AD beg= (NFA end– NFA beg)+ AD end– AD beg= (NFA end + AD end) – (NFA beg + AD beg) = FA end– FA beg27. a.The tax bubble causes average tax rates to catch up to marginal tax rates, thus eliminating thetax advantage of low marginal rates for high income corporations.b.Assuming a taxable income of $100,000, the taxes will be:Taxes = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($25K) + 0.39($235K) = $113.9KAverage tax rate = $113.9K / $335K = 34%The marginal tax rate on the next dollar of income is 34 percent.For corporate taxable income levels of $335K to $10M, average tax rates are equal to marginal tax rates.Taxes = 0.34($10M) + 0.35($5M) + 0.38($3.333M) = $6,416,667Average tax rate = $6,416,667 / $18,333,334 = 35%The marginal tax rate on the next dollar of income is 35 percent. For corporate taxable income levels over $18,333,334, average tax rates are again equal to marginal tax rates.c.Taxes = 0.34($200K) = $68K = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($25K) + X($100K);X($100K) = $68K – 22.25K = $45.75KX = $45.75K / $100KX = 45.75%。
《公司理财》课后答案(英文版,第六版).doc
Chapter 2: Accounting Statements and Cash Flow2.10AssetsCurrent assetsCash $ 4,000Accounts receivable 8,000Total current assets $ 12,000Fixed assetsMachinery $ 34,000Patents 82,000Total fixed assets $116,000Total assets $128,000Liabilities and equityCurrent liabilitiesAccounts payable $ 6,000Taxes payable 2,000Total current liabilities $ 8,000Long-term liabilitiesBonds payable $7,000Stockholders equityCommon stock ($100 par) $ 88,000Capital surplus 19,000Retained earnings 6,000Total stockholders equity $113,000Total liabilities and equity $128,0002.11One year ago TodayLong-term debt $50,000,000 $50,000,000Preferred stock 30,000,000 30,000,000Common stock 100,000,000 110,000,000Retained earnings 20,000,000 22,000,000Total $200,000,000 $212,000,0002.12Total Cash Flow ofthe Stancil CompanyCash flows from the firmCapital spending $(1,000)Additions to working capital (4,000)Total $(5,000)Cash flows to investors of the firmShort-term debt $(6,000)Long-term debt (20,000)Equity (Dividend - Financing) 21,000Total $(5,000)[Note: This table isn’t the Statement of Cash Flows, which is only covered in Appendix 2B, since the latter has th e change in cash (on the balance sheet) as a final entry.]2.13 a. The changes in net working capital can be computed from:Sources of net working capitalNet income $100Depreciation 50Increases in long-term debt 75Total sources $225Uses of net working capitalDividends $50Increases in fixed assets* 150Total uses $200Additions to net working capital $25*Includes $50 of depreciation.b.Cash flow from the firmOperating cash flow $150Capital spending (150)Additions to net working capital (25)Total $(25)Cash flow to the investorsDebt $(75)Equity 50Total $(25)Chapter 3: Financial Markets and Net Present Value: First Principles of Finance (Advanced)3.14 $120,000 - ($150,000 - $100,000) (1.1) = $65,0003.15 $40,000 + ($50,000 - $20,000) (1.12) = $73,6003.16 a. ($7 million + $3 million) (1.10) = $11.0 millionb.i. They could spend $10 million by borrowing $5 million today.ii. They will have to spend $5.5 million [= $11 million - ($5 million x 1.1)] at t=1.Chapter 4: Net Present Valuea. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the interest already earned. Therefore, the interest earned inSince this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the present value of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.30PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.23a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same. Remember, FV =PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV. Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. You should choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. You know that rate mustfall between 10% and 20% because the option you would choose differs at these rates. Let r be thediscount rate that makes you indifferent between the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for six years. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earn interest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.61PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.18a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earning interest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at the e nd of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earns interest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balance that earns interest is rising faster.The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply the perpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $800a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of theperpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.pply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present value of an annuity factor.ANPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 81.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments. Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments.A= $2,000 (9.8181)Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20.008= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.88The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must be equal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A T r. The annuity factors are in the appendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the row labeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.[ 10% ⎤[6.1446 ⎤a ⎡r ⎥bc ⎡6.4 ⎪ d⎣9%⎦⎣6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate. Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.[Note: A standard financial calculator’s TVM keys can solve for this rate. With annuity flows, the IRR key on “advanced” financial c alculators is unnecessary.]a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000 which youThat amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075]. Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.A$17,824.65 = C 507.0$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 five years from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 / 1.075 =$17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (see footnote 11 of the text).Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-tax amounts. Theafter-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of $115,200 to obtain the value of this option.AValue = $115,200 + $115,200 30.010= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-tax payment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].AValue = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.et r be the rate of interest you must earn.$10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000(1 + r)12= 8r = 0.18921 = 18.921%First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s educati on. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education isA= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955.$21,000 415.0This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these isPV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516= $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44.A= $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.80Payment = $14,880.44 / 15.015This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is$50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60.PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is$21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46se the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV of the project. NoticeYou can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV0.9091 $636.371$70020.8264 743.769003 1,000 ⎤4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.805 1,000 ⎥6 1,000 ⎦7 1,250 0.5132 641.508 1,375 0.4665 641.44Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87= $282.87Purchase the machine.Chapter 5: How to Value Bonds and StocksThe amount of the semi-annual interest payment is $40 (=$1,000 ⨯ 0.08 / 2). There are a total of 40 periods;i.e., two half years in each of the twenty years in the term to maturity. The annuity factor tables can be usedto price these bonds. The appropriate discount rate to use is the semi-annual rate. That rate is simply the annual rate divided by two. Thus, for part b the rate to be used is 5% and for part c is it 3%.A+F/(1+r)40PV=C Tra. $40 (19.7928) + $1,000 / 1.0440 = $1,000Notice that whenever the coupon rate and the market rate are the same, the bond is priced at par.b. $40 (17.1591) + $1,000 / 1.0540 = $828.41Notice that whenever the coupon rate is below the market rate, the bond is priced below par.c. $40 (23.1148) + $1,000 / 1.0340 = $1,231.15Notice that whenever the coupon rate is above the market rate, the bond is priced above par.a. The semi-annual interest rate is $60 / $1,000 = 0.06. Thus, the effective annual rate is 1.062 - 1 =0.1236 = 12.36%.A+ $1,000 / 1.0612b. Price = $30 12.006= $748.48A+ $1,000 / 1.0412c. Price = $30 1204.0= $906.15Note: In parts b and c we are implicitly assuming that the yield curve is flat. That is, the yield in year 5applies for year 6 as well.rice = $2 (0.72) / 1.15 + $4 (0.72) / 1.152 + $50 / 1.153= $36.31The number of shares you own = $100,000 / $36.31 = 2,754 sharesPrice = $1.15 (1.18) / 1.12 + $1.15 (1.182) / 1.122 + $1.152 (1.182) / 1.123+ {$1.152 (1.182)(1.06) / (0.12 - 0.06)} / 1.123= $26.95[Insert before last sentence of question: Assume that dividends are a fixed proportion of earnings.] Dividend one year from now = $5 (1 - 0.10) = $4.50Price = $5 + $4.50 / {0.14 - (-0.10)}= $23.75Since the current $5 dividend has not yet been paid, it is still included in the stock price.Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment Rulesa. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 yearsPayback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. NPV A = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96NPV B = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83Project B should be chosen.a. Average Investment:($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000Average accounting return:$4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25%b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does not consider the timevalue of money.2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule.3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows.aAverage Investment = (8000 + 4000 + 1500 + 0)/4 = 3375.00Average Net Income = 2000(1-0.75) = 1500=> AAR = 1500/3375=44.44%a. Solve x by trial and error:-$8,000 + $4,000 / (1 + x) + $3000 / (1 + x)2 + $2,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0x = 6.93%b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discount rate of 8%.Alternatively, the NPV @ a discount rate of 0.08 = -$136.62.a. Solve r in the equation:$5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3- $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0By trial and error,IRR = r = 13.99%b. Since this problem is the case of financing, accept the project if the IRR is less than the required rate of return.IRR = 13.99% > 10%Reject the offer.c. IRR = 13.99% < 20%Accept the offer.d. When r = 10%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14When r = 20%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24= $466.82Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cash flows change only once.A/ $160,000 = 1.04PI = $40,000 715.0Since the PI exceeds one accept the project.Chapter 7: Net Present Value and Capital BudgetingSince there is uncertainty surrounding the bonus payments, which McRae might receive, you must use the expected value of McRae’s bonuses in the computation of the PV of his contract. McRae’s salary plus the expected value of his bonuses in years one through three is$250,000 + 0.6 ⨯ $75,000 + 0.4 ⨯ $0 = $295,000.Thus the total PV of his three-year contract isPV = $400,000 + $295,000 [(1 - 1 / 1.12363) / 0.1236]+ {$125,000 / 1.12363} [(1 - 1 / 1.123610 / 0.1236]= $1,594,825.68EPS = $800,000 / 200,000 = $4NPVGO = (-$400,000 + $1,000,000) / 200,000 = $3Price = EPS / r + NPVGO= $4 / 0.12 + $3=$36.33Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 51. Annual Salary$120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 Savings2. Depreciation 100,000 160,000 96,000 57,600 57,6003. Taxable Income 20,000 -40,000 24,000 62,400 62,4004. Taxes 6,800 -13,600 8,160 21,216 21,2165. Operating Cash Flow113,200 133,600 111,840 98,784 98,784 (line 1-4)$100,000 -100,0006. ∆ Net workingcapital7. Investment $500,000 75,792*8. Total Cash Flow -$400,000 $113,200 $133,600 $111,840 $98,784 $74,576*75,792 = $100,000 - 0.34 ($100,000 - $28,800)NPV = -$400,000+ $113,200 / 1.12 + $133,600 / 1.122 + $111,840 / 1.123+ $98,784 / 1.124 + $74,576 / 1.125= -$7,722.52Real interest rate = (1.15 / 1.04) - 1 = 10.58%NPV A = -$40,000+ $20,000 / 1.1058 + $15,000 / 1.10582 + $15,000 / 1.10583= $1,446.76NPV B = -$50,000+ $10,000 / 1.15 + $20,000 / 1.152 + $40,000 / 1.153= $119.17Choose project A.PV = $120,000 / {0.11 - (-0.06)}t = 0 t = 1 t = 2 t = 3 t = 4 t = 5 t = 6 ...$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 $6,000$4,000$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 ...The present value of one cycle is:A+ $4,000 / 1.064PV = $12,000 + $6,000 306.0= $12,000 + $6,000 (2.6730) + $4,000 / 1.064= $31,206.37The cycle is four years long, so use a four year annuity factor to compute the equivalent annual cost (EAC).AEAC = $31,206.37 / 406.0= $31,206.37 / 3.4651= $9,006The present value of such a stream in perpetuity is$9,006 / 0.06 = $150,100o evaluate the word processors, compute their equivalent annual costs (EAC).BangAPV(costs) = (10 ⨯ $8,000) + (10 ⨯ $2,000) 414.0= $80,000 + $20,000 (2.9137)= $138,274EAC = $138,274 / 2.9137= $47,456IOUAPV(costs) = (11 ⨯ $5,000) + (11 ⨯ $2,500) 3.014- (11 ⨯ $500) / 1.143= $55,000 + $27,500 (2.3216) - $5,500 / 1.143= $115,132EAC = $115,132 / 2.3216= $49,592BYO should purchase the Bang word processors.Chapter 8: Strategy and Analysis in Using Net Present ValueThe accounting break-even= (120,000 + 20,000) / (1,500 - 1,100)= 350 units. The accounting break-even= 340,000 / (2.00 - 0.72)= 265,625 abalonesb. [($2.00 ⨯ 300,000) - (340,000 + 0.72 ⨯ 300,000)] (0.65)= $28,600This is the after tax profit.Chapter 9: Capital Market Theory: An Overviewa. Capital gains = $38 - $37 = $1 per shareb. Total dollar returns = Dividends + Capital Gains = $1,000 + ($1*500) = $1,500 On a per share basis, this calculation is $2 + $1 = $3 per sharec. On a per share basis, $3/$37 = 0.0811 = 8.11% On a total dollar basis, $1,500/(500*$37) = 0.0811 = 8.11%d. No, you do not need to sell the shares to include the capital gains in the computation of the returns. The capital gain is included whether or not you realize the gain. Since you could realize the gain if you choose, you should include it.The expected holding period return is:()[]%865.1515865.052$/52$75.54$50.5$==-+There appears to be a lack of clarity about the meaning of holding period returns. The method used in the answer to this question is the one used in Section 9.1. However, the correspondence is not exact, because in this question, unlike Section 9.1, there are cash flows within the holding period. The answer above ignores the dividend paid in the first year. Although the answer above technically conforms to the eqn at the bottom of Fig. 9.2, the presence of intermediate cash flows that aren’t accounted for renders th is measure questionable, at best. There is no similar example in the body of the text, and I have never seen holding period returns calculated in this way before.Although not discussed in this book, there are two generally accepted methods of computing holding period returns in the presence of intermediate cash flows. First, the time weighted return calculates averages (geometric or arithmetic) of returns between cash flows. Unfortunately, that method can’t be used here, because we are not given the va lue of the stock at the end of year one. Second, the dollar weighted measure calculates the internal rate of return over the entire holding period. Theoretically, that method can be applied here, as follows: 0 = -52 + 5.50/(1+r) + 60.25/(1+r)2 => r = 0.1306.This produces a two year holding period return of (1.1306)2 – 1 = 0.2782. Unfortunately, this book does not teach the dollar weighted method.In order to salvage this question in a financially meaningful way, you would need the value of the stock at the end of one year. Then an illustration of the correct use of the time-weighted return would be appropriate. A complicating factor is that, while Section 9.2 illustrates the holding period return using the geometric return for historical data, the arithmetic return is more appropriate for expected future returns.E(R) = T-Bill rate + Average Excess Return = 6.2% + (13.0% -3.8%) = 15.4%. Common Treasury Realized Stocks Bills Risk Premium -7 32.4% 11.2% 21.2%-6 -4.9 14.7 -19.6-5 21.4 10.5 10.9 -4 22.5 8.8 13.7 -3 6.3 9.9 -3.6 -2 32.2 7.7 24.5 Last 18.5 6.2 12.3 b. The average risk premium is 8.49%.49.873.125.246.37.139.106.192.21=++-++- c. Yes, it is possible for the observed risk premium to be negative. This can happen in any single year. The.b.Standard deviation = 03311.0001096.0=.b.Standard deviation = = 0.03137 = 3.137%.b.Chapter 10: Return and Risk: The Capital-Asset-Pricing Model (CAPM)a. = 0.1 (– 4.5%) + 0.2 (4.4%) + 0.5 (12.0%) + 0.2 (20.7%) = 10.57%b.σ2 = 0.1 (–0.045 – 0.1057)2 + 0.2 (0.044 – 0.1057)2 + 0.5 (0.12 – 0.1057)2+ 0.2 (0.207 – 0.1057)2 = 0.0052σ = (0.0052)1/2 = 0.072 = 7.20%Holdings of Atlas stock = 120 ⨯ $50 = $6,000 ⨯ $20 = $3,000Weight of Atlas stock = $6,000 / $9,000 = 2 / 3Weight of Babcock stock = $3,000 / $9,000 = 1 / 3a. = 0.3 (0.12) + 0.7 (0.18) = 0.162 = 16.2%σP 2= 0.32 (0.09)2 + 0.72 (0.25)2 + 2 (0.3) (0.7) (0.09) (0.25) (0.2)= 0.033244σP= (0.033244)1/2 = 0.1823 = 18.23%a.State Return on A Return on B Probability1 15% 35% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.22 15% -5% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.23 10% 35% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.34 10% -5% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.3b. = 0.2 [0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.2[0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (-0.05)]+ 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (-0.05)]= 0.135= 13.5%Note: The solution to this problem requires calculus.Specifically, the solution is found by minimizing a function subject to a constraint. Calculus ability is not necessary to understand the principles behind a minimum variance portfolio.Min { X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)}subject to X A + X B = 1Let X A = 1 - X B. Then,Min {(1 - X B)2σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2(1 - X B) X B Cov (R A, R B)}Take a derivative with respect to X B.d{∙} / dX B = (2 X B - 2) σA2+ 2 X B σB2 + 2 Cov(R A, R B) - 4 X B Cov(R A, R B)Set the derivative equal to zero, cancel the common 2 and solve for X B.X BσA2- σA2+ X B σB2 + Cov(R A, R B) - 2 X B Cov(R A, R B) = 0X B = {σA2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}andX A = {σB2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}Using the data from the problem yields,X A = 0.8125 andX B = 0.1875.a. Using the weights calculated above, the expected return on the minimum variance portfolio isE(R P) = 0.8125 E(R A) + 0.1875 E(R B)= 0.8125 (5%) + 0.1875 (10%)= 5.9375%b. Using the formula derived above, the weights areX A = 2 / 3 andX B = 1 / 3c. The variance of this portfolio is zero.σP 2= X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)= (4 / 9) (0.01) + (1 / 9) (0.04) + 2 (2 / 3) (1 / 3) (-0.02)= 0This demonstrates that assets can be combined to form a risk-free portfolio.14.2%= 3.7%+β(7.5%) ⇒β = 1.40.25 = R f + 1.4 [R M– R f] (I)0.14 = R f + 0.7 [R M– R f] (II)(I) – (II)=0.11 = 0.7 [R M– R f] (III)[R M– R f ]= 0.1571Put (III) into (I) 0.25 = R f + 1.4[0.1571]R f = 3%[R M– R f ]= 0.1571R M = 0.1571 + 0.03= 18.71%a. = 4.9% + βi (9.4%)βD= Cov(R D, R M) / σM 2 = 0.0635 / 0.04326 = 1.468= 4.9 + 1.468 (9.4) = 18.70%Weights:X A = 5 / 30 = 0.1667X B = 10 / 30 = 0.3333X C = 8 / 30 = 0.2667X D = 1 - X A - X B - X C = 0.2333Beta of portfolio= 0.1667 (0.75) + 0.3333 (1.10) + 0.2667 (1.36) + 0.2333 (1.88)= 1.293= 4 + 1.293 (15 - 4) = 18.22%a. (i) βA= ρA,MσA / σMρA,M= βA σM / σA= (0.9) (0.10) / 0.12= 0.75(ii) σB= βB σM / ρB,M= (1.10) (0.10) / 0.40= 0.275(iii) βC= ρC,MσC / σM= (0.75) (0.24) / 0.10= 1.80(iv) ρM,M= 1(v) βM= 1(vi) σf= 0(vii) ρf,M= 0(viii) βf= 0b. SML:E(R i) = R f + βi {E(R M) - R f}= 0.05 + (0.10) βiSecurity βi E(R i)A 0.13 0.90 0.14B 0.16 1.10 0.16C 0.25 1.80 0.23Security A performed worse than the market, while security C performed better than the market.Security B is fairly priced.c. According to the SML, security A is overpriced while security C is under-priced. Thus, you could invest in security C while sell security A (if you currently hold it).a. The typical risk-averse investor seeks high returns and low risks. To assess thetwo stocks, find theReturns:State of economy ProbabilityReturn on A*Recession 0.1 -0.20 Normal 0.8 0.10 Expansion0.10.20* Since security A pays no dividend, the return on A is simply (P 1 / P 0) - 1. = 0.1 (-0.20) + 0.8 (0.10) + 0.1 (0.20) = 0.08 = 0.09 This was given in the problem.Risk:R A - (R A -)2 P ⨯ (R A -)2 -0.28 0.0784 0.00784 0.02 0.0004 0.00032 0.12 0.0144 0.00144 Variance 0.00960Standard deviation (R A ) = 0.0980βA = {Corr(R A , R M ) σ(R A )} / σ(R M ) = 0.8 (0.0980) / 0.10= 0.784βB = {Corr(R B , R M ) σ(R B )} / σ(R M ) = 0.2 (0.12) / 0.10= 0.24The return on stock B is higher than the return on stock A. The risk of stock B, as measured by itsbeta, is lower than the risk of A. Thus, a typical risk-averse investor will prefer stock B.b. = (0.7) + (0.3) = (0.7) (0.8) + (0.3) (0.09) = 0.083σP 2= 0.72 σA 2 + 0.32 σB 2 + 2 (0.7) (0.3) Corr (R A , R B ) σA σB = (0.49) (0.0096) + (0.09) (0.0144) + (0.42) (0.6) (0.0980) (0.12) = 0.0089635 σP = = 0.0947 c. The beta of a portfolio is the weighted average of the betas of the components of the portfolio. βP = (0.7) βA + (0.3) βB = (0.7) (0.784) + (0.3) (0.240) = 0.621Chapter 11:An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing Theorya. Stock A:()()R R R R R A A A m m Am A=+-+=+-+βεε105%12142%...Stock B:()()R R R R R B B m m Bm B=+-+=+-+βεε130%098142%...Stock C:()R R R R R C C C m m Cm C=+-+=+-+βεε157%137142%)..(.b.()[]()[]()[]()()()()()()[]()()CB A m cB A m c m B m A m CB A P 25.045.030.0%2.14R 1435.1%925.1225.045.030.0%2.14R 37.125.098.045.02.130.0%7.1525.0%1345.0%5.1030.0%2.14R 37.1%7.1525.0%2.14R 98.0%0.1345.0%2.14R 2.1%5.1030.0R 25.0R 45.0R 30.0R ε+ε+ε+-+=ε+ε+ε+-+++++=ε+-++ε+-++ε+-+=++= c.i.()R R R A B C =+-==+-==+-=105%1215%142%)1113%09815%142%)137%157%13715%142%168%..(..46%.(......ii.R P =+-=12925%1143515%142%)138398%..(..To determine which investment investor would prefer, you must compute the variance of portfolios created bymany stocks from either market. Note, because you know that diversification is good, it is reasonable to assume that once an investor chose the market in which he or she will invest, he or she will buy many stocks in that market.Known:E EF ====001002 and and for all i.i σσεε..Assume: The weight of each stock is 1/N; that is, X N i =1/for all i.If a portfolio is composed of N stocks each forming 1/N proportion of the portfolio, the return on the portfolio is 1/N times the sum of the returns on the N stocks. Recall that the return on each stock is 0.1+βF+ε.()()()()()()[]()()()()()()()[]()[]()[]()()[]()()()()()j i 2j i 22j i i 2222222222P P P P iP ,0.04Corr 0.01,Cov s =isvariance the ,N as limit In the ,Cov 1/N 1s 1/N s )(1/N 1/N F 2F E 1/N F E 0.10.1/N F 0.1E R E R E R Var 0.101/N 00.1E 1/N F E 0.11/N F 0.1E R E 1/N F 0.1F 0.1(1/N)R 1/N R εε+β=εε+β∞⇒εε-+ε+β=ε∑+εβ+β=ε+β=-ε+β+=-==+β+=ε+β+=ε∑+β+=ε+β+=ε+β+==∑∑∑∑∑∑∑∑()()()()()()Thus,F R f E R E R Var R Corr Var R Corr ii ip P p i j PijR 1i =++=++===+=+010*********002250040002500412212111222.........,,εεεεεεa.()()()()Corr Corr Var R Var R i j i j p pεεεε112212000225000225,,..====Since Var ()()R p 1 Var R 2p 〉, a risk averse investor will prefer to invest in the second market.b. Corr ()()εεεε112090i j j ,.,== and Corr 2i()()Var R Var R pp120058500025==..。
罗斯公司理财Chap002全英文题库及答案
罗斯公司理财Chap002全英⽂题库及答案Chapter 02 Financial Statements and Cash Flow Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. The financial statement showing a firm's accounting value on a particular date is the:A. income statement.B. balance sheet.C. statement of cash flows.D. tax reconciliation statement.E. shareholders' equity sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: DEFINITIONS2. A current asset is:A. an item currently owned by the firm.B. an item that the firm expects to own within the next year.C. an item currently owned by the firm that will convert to cash within the next 12 months.D. the amount of cash on hand the firm currently shows on its balance sheet.E. the market value of all items currently owned by the firm.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: DEFINITIONS3. The long-term debts of a firm are liabilities:A. that come due within the next 12 months.B. that do not come due for at least 12 months.C. owed to the firm's suppliers.D. owed to the firm's shareholders.E. the firm expects to incur within the next 12 months.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: LONG-TERM DEBTType: DEFINITIONS4. Net working capital is defined as:A. total liabilities minus shareholders' equity.B. current liabilities minus shareholders' equity.C. fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.D. total assets minus total liabilities.E. current assets minus current liabilities.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: DEFINITIONS5. A(n) ____ asset is one which can be quickly converted into cash without significant loss in value.A. currentB. fixedC. intangibleD. liquidE. long-termDifficulty level: EasyTopic: LIQUID ASSETSType: DEFINITIONS6. The financial statement summarizing a firm's accounting performance over a period of time is the:A. income statement.B. balance sheet.C. statement of cash flows.D. tax reconciliation statement.E. shareholders' equity sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: DEFINITIONS7. Noncash items refer to:A. the credit sales of a firm.B. the accounts payable of a firm.C. the costs incurred for the purchase of intangible fixed assets.D. expenses charged against revenues that do not directly affect cash flow.E. all accounts on the balance sheet other than cash on hand.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: NONCASH ITEMSType: DEFINITIONS8. Your _____ tax rate is the amount of tax payable on the next taxable dollar you earn.A. deductibleB. residualC. totalD. averageE. marginalDifficulty level: EasyTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATESType: DEFINITIONS9. Your _____ tax rate is the total taxes you pay divided by your taxable income.A. deductibleB. residualC. totalD. averageE. marginalDifficulty level: EasyTopic: AVERAGE TAX RATESType: DEFINITIONS10. _____ refers to the cash flow that results from the firm's ongoing, normal business activities.A. Cash flow from operating activitiesB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIESType: DEFINITIONS11. _____ refers to the changes in net capital assets.A. Operating cash flowB. Cash flow from investingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM INVESTINGType: DEFINITIONS12. _____ refers to the difference between a firm's current assets and its current liabilities.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: EasyTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: DEFINITIONS13. _____ is calculated by adding back noncash expenses to net income and adjusting for changes in current assets and liabilities.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from operationsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM OPERATIONSType: DEFINITIONS14. _____ refers to the firm's interest payments less any net new borrowing.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from shareholdersE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: DEFINITIONS15. _____ refers to the firm's dividend payments less any net new equity raised.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from creditorsE. Cash flow to stockholdersDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: DEFINITIONS16. Earnings per share is equal to:A. net income divided by the total number of shares outstanding.B. net income divided by the par value of the common stock.C. gross income multiplied by the par value of the common stock.D. operating income divided by the par value of the common stock.E. net income divided by total shareholders' equity.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: DEFINITIONS17. Dividends per share is equal to dividends paid:A. divided by the par value of common stock.B. divided by the total number of shares outstanding.C. divided by total shareholders' equity.D. multiplied by the par value of the common stock.E. multiplied by the total number of shares outstanding. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DIVIDENDS PER SHAREType: DEFINITIONS18. Which of the following are included in current assets?I. equipmentII. inventoryIII. accounts payableIV. cashA. II and IV onlyB. I and III onlyC. I, II, and IV onlyD. III and IV onlyE. II, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: CONCEPTS19. Which of the following are included in current liabilities?I. note payable to a supplier in eighteen monthsII. debt payable to a mortgage company in nine monthsIII. accounts payable to suppliersIV. loan payable to the bank in fourteen monthsA. I and III onlyB. II and III onlyC. III and IV onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, II, and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT LIABILITIESType: CONCEPTS20. An increase in total assets:A. means that net working capital is also increasing.B. requires an investment in fixed assets.C. means that shareholders' equity must also increase.D. must be offset by an equal increase in liabilities and shareholders' equity.E. can only occur when a firm has positive net income.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS21. Which one of the following assets is generally the most liquid?A. inventoryB. buildingsC. accounts receivableD. equipmentE. patentsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS22. Which one of the following statements concerning liquidity is correct?A. If you sold an asset today, it was a liquid asset.B. If you can sell an asset next year at a price equal to its actual value, the asset is highly liquid.C. Trademarks and patents are highly liquid.D. The less liquidity a firm has, the lower the probability the firm will encounter financial difficulties.E. Balance sheet accounts are listed in order of decreasing liquidity.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS23. Liquidity is:A. a measure of the use of debt in a firm's capital structure.B. equal to current assets minus current liabilities.C. equal to the market value of a firm's total assets minus its current liabilities.D. valuable to a firm even though liquid assets tend to be less profitable to own.E. generally associated with intangible assets.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS24. Which of the following accounts are included in shareholders' equity?I. interest paidII. retained earningsIII. capital surplusIV. long-term debtA. I and II onlyB. II and IV onlyC. I and IV onlyD. II and III onlyE. I and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: SHAREHOLDERS' EQUITYType: CONCEPTS25. Book value:A. is equivalent to market value for firms with fixed assets.B. is based on historical cost.C. generally tends to exceed market value when fixed assets are included.D. is more of a financial than an accounting valuation.E. is adjusted to market value whenever the market value exceeds the stated book value. Difficulty level: Medium Topic: BOOK VALUEType: CONCEPTS26. When making financial decisions related to assets, you should:A. always consider market values.B. place more emphasis on book values than on market values.C. rely primarily on the value of assets as shown on the balance sheet.D. place primary emphasis on historical costs.E. only consider market values if they are less than book values.Topic: MARKET VALUEType: CONCEPTS27. As seen on an income statement:A. interest is deducted from income and increases the total taxes incurred.B. the tax rate is applied to the earnings before interest and taxes when the firm has both depreciation and interest expenses.C. depreciation is shown as an expense but does not affect the taxes payable.D. depreciation reduces both the pretax income and the net income.E. interest expense is added to earnings before interest and taxes to get pretax income. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: CONCEPTS28. The earnings per share will:A. increase as net income increases.B. increase as the number of shares outstanding increase.C. decrease as the total revenue of the firm increases.D. increase as the tax rate increases.E. decrease as the costs decrease.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS29. Dividends per share:A. increase as the net income increases as long as the number of shares outstanding remains constant.B. decrease as the number of shares outstanding decrease, all else constant.C. are inversely related to the earnings per share.D. are based upon the dividend requirements established by Generally Accepted Accounting Procedures.E. are equal to the amount of net income distributed to shareholders divided by the number of shares outstanding. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DIVIDENDS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS30. Earnings per shareA. will increase if net income increases and number of shares remains constant.B. will increase if net income decreases and number of shares remains constant.C. is number of shares divided by net income.D. is the amount of money that goes into retained earnings on a per share basis.E. None of the above.Topic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS31. According to Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, costs are:A. recorded as incurred.B. recorded when paid.C. matched with revenues.D. matched with production levels.E. expensed as management desires.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: MATCHING PRINCIPLEType: CONCEPTS32. Depreciation:A. is a noncash expense that is recorded on the income statement.B. increases the net fixed assets as shown on the balance sheet.C. reduces both the net fixed assets and the costs of a firm.D. is a non-cash expense which increases the net operating income.E. decreases net fixed assets, net income, and operating cash flows.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NONCASH ITEMSType: CONCEPTS33. When you are making a financial decision, the most relevant tax rate is the _____ rate.A. averageB. fixedC. marginalD. totalE. variableDifficulty level: MediumTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATEType: CONCEPTS34. An increase in which one of the following will cause the operating cash flow to increase?A. depreciationB. changes in the amount of net fixed capitalC. net working capitalD. taxesE. costsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS35. A firm starts its year with a positive net working capital. During the year, the firm acquires more short-term debt than it does short-term assets. This means that:A. the ending net working capital will be negative.B. both accounts receivable and inventory decreased during the year.C. the beginning current assets were less than the beginning current liabilities.D. accounts payable increased and inventory decreased during the year.E. the ending net working capital can be positive, negative, or equal to zero.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CHANGE IN NET WORKING CAPITALType: CONCEPTS36. The cash flow to creditors includes the cash:A. received by the firm when payments are paid to suppliers.B. outflow of the firm when new debt is acquired.C. outflow when interest is paid on outstanding debt.D. inflow when accounts payable decreases.E. received when long-term debt is paid off.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: CONCEPTS37. Cash flow to stockholders must be positive when:A. the dividends paid exceed the net new equity raised.B. the net sale of common stock exceeds the amount of dividends paid.C. no income is distributed but new shares of stock are sold.D. both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors are negative.E. both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors are positive. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS38. Which equality is the basis for the balance sheet?A. Fixed Assets = Stockholder's Equity + Current AssetsB. Assets = Liabilities + Stockholder's EquityC. Assets = Current Long-Term Debt + Retained EarningsD. Fixed Assets = Liabilities + Stockholder's EquityE. None of the aboveDifficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS39. Assets are listed on the balance sheet in order of:A. decreasing liquidity.B. decreasing size.C. increasing size.D. relative life.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS40. Debt is a contractual obligation that:A. requires the payout of residual flows to the holders of these instruments.B. requires a repayment of a stated amount and interest over the period.C. allows the bondholders to sue the firm if it defaults.D. Both A and B.E. Both B and C.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DEBTType: CONCEPTS41. The carrying value or book value of assets:A. is determined under GAAP and is based on the cost of the asset.B. represents the true market value according to GAAP.C. is always the best measure of the company's value to an investor.D. is always higher than the replacement cost of the assets.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CARRYING VALUEType: CONCEPTS42. Under GAAP, a firm's assets are reported at:A. market value.B. liquidation value.C. intrinsic value.D. cost.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GAAPType: CONCEPTS43. Which of the following statements concerning the income statement is true?A. It measures performance over a specific period of time.B. It determines after-tax income of the firm.C. It includes deferred taxes.D. It treats interest as an expense.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: CONCEPTS44. According to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), revenue is recognized as income when:A. a contract is signed to perform a service or deliver a good.B. the transaction is complete and the goods or services are delivered.C. payment is requested.D. income taxes are paid.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GAAP INCOME RECOGNITIONType: CONCEPTS45. Which of the following is not included in the computation of operating cash flow?A. Earnings before interest and taxesB. Interest paidC. DepreciationD. Current taxesE. All of the above are includedDifficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS46. Net capital spending is equal to:A. net additions to net working capital.B. the net change in fixed assets.C. net income plus depreciation.D. total cash flow to stockholders less interest and dividends paid.E. the change in total assets.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET CAPITAL SPENDINGType: CONCEPTS47. Cash flow to stockholders is defined as:A. interest payments.B. repurchases of equity less cash dividends paid plus new equity sold.C. cash flow from financing less cash flow to creditors.D. cash dividends plus repurchases of equity minus new equity financing.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS48. Free cash flow is:A. without cost to the firm.B. net income plus taxes.C. an increase in net working capital.D. cash that the firm is free to distribute to creditors and stockholders.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: FREE CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS49. The cash flow of the firm must be equal to:A. cash flow to stockholders minus cash flow to debtholders.B. cash flow to debtholders minus cash flow to stockholders.C. cash flow to governments plus cash flow to stockholders.D. cash flow to stockholders plus cash flow to debtholders.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS50. Which of the following are all components of the statement of cash flows?A. Cash flow from operating activities, cash flow from investing activities, and cash flow from financing activitiesB. Cash flow from operating activities, cash flow from investing activities, and cash flow from divesting activitiesC. Cash flow from internal activities, cash flow from external activities, and cash flow from financing activitiesD. Cash flow from brokering activities, cash flow from profitable activities, and cash flow from non-profitable activitiesE. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWSType: CONCEPTS51. One of the reasons why cash flow analysis is popular is because:A. cash flows are more subjective than net income.B. cash flows are hard to understand.C. it is easy to manipulate, or spin the cash flows.D. it is difficult to manipulate, or spin the cash flows.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS52. A firm has $300 in inventory, $600 in fixed assets, $200 in accounts receivable, $100 in accounts payable, and $50 in cash. What is the amount of the current assets?A. $500B. $550C. $600D. $1,150E. $1,200Current assets = $300 + $200 + $50 = $550Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: PROBLEMS53. Total assets are $900, fixed assets are $600, long-term debt is $500, and short-term debt is $200. What is the amount of net working capital?A. $0B. $100C. $200D. $300E. $400Net working capital = $900 - $600 - $200 = $100Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: PROBLEMS54. Brad's Company has equipment with a book value of $500 that could be sold today at a 50% discount. Its inventory is valued at $400 and could be sold to a competitor for that amount. The firm has $50 in cash and customers owe it $300. What is the accounting value of its liquid assets?A. $50B. $350C. $700D. $750E. $1,000Liquid assets = $400 + $50 + $300 = $750Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: PROBLEMS55. Martha's Enterprises spent $2,400 to purchase equipment three years ago. This equipment is currently valued at $1,800 on today's balance sheet but could actually be sold for $2,000. Net working capital is $200 and long-term debt is $800. Assuming the equipment is the firm's only fixed asset, what is the book value of shareholders' equity?A. $200B. $800C. $1,200D. $1,400E. The answer cannot be determined from the information providedBook value of shareholders' equity = $1,800 + $200 - $800 = $1,200Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BOOK VALUEType: PROBLEMS。
罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案
CH5 11,13,18,19,2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. Fro m now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16,24,27,42,5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3,18,21,22,313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4,18,20,22,24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3,4,6,9,153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48%9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9,13,14,17,18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1,4,12,14,171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checksreceived per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minusthe transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap022
罗斯《公司理财》英⽂习题答案DOCchap022公司理财习题答案第⼆⼗⼆章Chapter 22: Options and Corporate Finance22.1 a. An option is a contract which gives its owner the right to buy or sell an underlyingasset at a fixed price on or before a given date.b. Exercise is the act of buying or selling the underlying asset under the terms of theoption contract.c. The strike price is the fixed price at which the option holder can buy or sell theunderlying asset. The strike price is also called the exercise price.d. The expiration date is the maturity date of the option. It is the last date on which anAmerican option can be exercised. It is the only date on which a European optioncan be exercised.e. A call is an option contract, which gives its owner the right to buy an underlyingasset at a fixed price on or before a given date.f. A put is an option contract, which gives its owner the right to sell an underlyingasset at a fixed price on or before a given date.22.2 American options can be exercised on any date up to and including the exercise date. A European option can be exercised only on the expiration date.22.3 The lower bound of the value of the put is Max {E - S, 0} = $40 - $35 = $5. Since theoption is selling for $4.5, the best strategy is (1) buy more put options at $4.5 and (2)exercise them to get arbitrage.22.4 a. It can be exercised on any date up to and including the expiration date.b. It can be exercised only on February 18 of next year.c. The option is not worthless.22.5 PayoffS < $80 S = $80 S > $80 Short 10 puts -10 ($80 - S) $0 0Long 5 calls $0 $0 5 (S - $80)Total payoff -10 ($80 - S) $0 5 (S - $80)22.6 a. Payoff = $55 - $50 = $5b. Payoff = max {$45 - $50, $0} = $0c.22.7 a. Payoff = $0b. Payoff = $50 - $45 = $5c22.8a. S = $65 S = $72 S = $80 Long 2 calls $0 200($72-$70)=$400 200($80-$70)=$2,000 Long 1 put 100($75-$65)=$1,000 100($75-$72)=$300 $0Total payoff$1,000 $700 $2,000b.PayoffValue of stock at expiration$50$0公司理财习题答案第⼆⼗⼆章S < $70 $70 < S < $75 S $75 Long 2 calls $0 200(S-$70) 200(S-$70)Long 1 put 100($75-S) 100($75-S) $0Total payoff 100($75-S) 100(S-$65) 200(S-$70)22.9 a. You would exercise the call option contract by paying the strike price of $100/share and receiving stock worth $130 / share. The total profit from the contract is ($130 - 100) x 100 = $3,000.b. If the stock price is lower than the strike price, the option will be expired unexercised.22.10 Assume the options will expire in one year, apply the put-call parity formula.S + P - C = PV(E)S = -$2 + $8 + $40 / 1.1= $42.3622.11 a. To eliminate the risk of the put, sell a call and buy stock. Buying stock makes stock available to you in the event that its price falls. If the price falls below the exercise price, the put will be exercised against you. The call provides additional income if the price of the stock rises above the exercise price. The combination,buy stock, buy a put and sell a call, ensures that the net payoff is the samewhether the stock price rises to $172 or falls to $138.b. Payoffs at expirationS = $172 S = $138 Buy stock $172 $138Buy put expires give up stock worth $138,receive $160 Sell call give up stock worth $172,receive $160Net payoff $160 $16022.12 a. You should buy the call and exercise it immediately.b.Profit = ($60 - $50) - $8 = $2c. The lower bound on the price of American calls is[Stock price - Exercise price].d. Upper bound = stock price because no one would be willing to pay more than the stock price for the right to receive the stock.21.13Factors determining the value of an American call:1.Strike price: The value of an American call must be at least the difference between the stock price and the exercise price [S - E]. For a given stock price, a higher exercise price will reduce the value of the call.2.Expiration date: The time to expiration of a call affects the price of the option. Compare two calls, which are identical except for the time to expiration. The longer-term option has all the rights and benefits of the shorter-term option, plus more. It has all of those benefits and rights for a longer period of time. Thus, asthe time to expiration increases, the value of the call increases.3.Stock price: The value of an American call must be at least the difference between the stock price and the exercise price [S - E]. For a given exercise price, a higher stock price will increase the value of the call.4.Variability of the price of the underlying asset: The higher the variability of the price of the underlying asset is, the higher is the probability that the call will be in the money at the expiration date. Thus, higher variability of the asset’s price will enhance the option’s value.5.Interest rate: If you buy a call, you do not have to pay the strike price until the expiration date. The delay in the payment has value. As interest rates rise, the delayed payment has more value. To convince yourself, consider what else you can do with the strike price until the expiration date (your opportunity cost). You can put that money in an account and earn interest on the amount until the expiration date. If the interest rate increases, you will earn more interest.21.14Factors determining the value of an American put:1.Strike price: The value of an American put must be at least the difference betweenthe exercise price and the stock price [E - S]. For a given stock price, a higherexercise price will increase the value of the put.公司理财习题答案第⼆⼗⼆章2.Expiration date: The time to expiration of a put affects the price of the option.Compare two puts which are identical except for the time to expiration. Thelonger-term option has all the rights and benefits of the shorter-term option, plusmore. It has all of those benefits and rights for a longer period of time. Thus, asthe time to expiration increases, the value of the put increases.3.Stock price: The value of an American put must be at least the difference betweenthe exercise price and the stock price [E - S]. For a given exercise price, a higherstock price will reduce the value of the put.4. Variability of the price of the underlying asset: The higher the variability of theprice of the underlying asset is, the higher is the probability that the put will be int he money at the expiration date. Thus, higher variability of the asset’s price willenhance the option’s value.5. Interest rate: If you buy a put, you have the right to sell the stock for a fixed pricein the future. The present value of the delayed receipt decreases as the interest raterises. Thus, if the interest rate rises, the value of the put will fall.22.15 a. An increase in the risk of the stock implies an increase in the volatility of the stockprice. As the volatility of the stock price rises, the value of a call increases. Callholders gain only if the stock price is greater than the exercise price. Call holdersdo not lose if the stock price is less than the exercise price. The volatility increasesthe probability that the call will be in the money.b.An increase in the risk of the stock implies an increase in the volatility of the stockprice. As the volatility of the stock price rises, the value of a put increases. Putholders gain only if the stock price is less than the exercise price. Put holders donot lose if the stock price is greater than the exercise price. The volatility increasesthe probability that the put will be in the money.22.16 Value the call by examining the value of the investment combination, which duplicates thepayoffs of the call. The investment strategy, which duplicates the payoffs of the call, is buy stock and borrow money. Payoffs of buying a call: S T = $120 S T = $95Call (A contract covers 100 shares) 100 ($120 - $112) ExpiresPayoff = $800 = $0Payoffs of the strategy:Buy 32 shares of the stock 32 ? $120 32 ? $95= $3,840 = $3,040 Borrow $3,012.26* -$3,040 -$3,040Net payoff $800 $0* The net payoffs of the duplicating strategy must be the same as the payoffs of the call.To have the payoff be $800 when the stock price is $120, the repayment of the loan and its interest must be $3,040. If the annual interest rate is 10%, then the interest rate applicable for the five week life of the call is (1.10)5/52 - 1 = 0.00921. Thus, the amount which youmust borrow to be sure you repay $3,040 is $3,012.26 [= $3,040 / 1.00921].To prevent arbitrage, the value of the call must be equal to the value of setting up thisstrategy. The cost today of purchasing 32 shares of stock is 32 ? $96 = $3,072. In addition you will borrow $3,012.26. The borrowing generates a cash inflow. The cost ofestablishing this strategy is $3,072 - $3,012.26 = $59.74. $59.74 is the cost of setting up a strategy, which duplicates the contract. Since the contract covers 100 shares, each call is worth $0.5974 [= $59.74 / 100].22.17Payoff at expiration S = $25 S = $351. Call $0 $3 ? 100 = $3002. Stock (N shares)Borrow ($25N/1.05) 25 N-25 N$35N-$25NNet payoff $0 $10NDuplicating amount = $25 N / 1.05where $10 N = $300N = 30 sharesBorrow $25 ? 30 shares / 1.05 = $714.29.Thus, buying one call contract= (1) buy 30 shares of stock $900(2) borrow $714.29 -$714.29$185.71Call option value = $185.71Call price per share = $1.857From put-call parity,P = C + PV(E) - S= $1.857 + $32 / 1.05 - $30 = $2.33322.18Payoff at expiration S T = $40 S T = $601. Call $0 100 ($60 - $50)= $1,0002. Buy N shares Borrow $40N-$40N$60N-$40NNet payoff $0 $20N To equate, $20N = $1,000N = 50 sharesThus, borrowing amount = $40 ? 50 / 1.09 = $1,834.86Call value = Value of 50 shares + Borrowing $1,834.86= 50 ? $55 - $1,834.86= $915.14Each call is worth $9.1514.公司理财习题答案第⼆⼗⼆章22.19 d1= [ ln ($62 / $70) + (0.05 + 0.35 / 2) ? (4 / 52)] / [0.35 ? (4 / 52)]0.5 = -0.6342d2= -0.6342 - [0.35 ? (4 / 52)]0.5= -0.7982N(d1) = 0.2643N(d2) = 0.2119C = [$62 ? N(d1)] - [$70 e-(0.05)(4/52)? N(d2)]= [$62 (0.2643)] - [$70 e-(0.05)(4/52) (0.2119)]= $1.6122.20 d1= [ ln ($52 / $48) + (0.05 + 0.02) ? (1 / 3)] / [0.04 ? (1 / 3)]0.5= 0.8953d2= 0.8953 - [0.04 ? (1 / 3)]0.5= 0.7798N(d1) = 0.8147N(d2) = 0.7822C = [$52 ? 0.8147] - [$48 e-(0.05)(1/3)? 0.7822] = $5.439422.21 a. d1= [ ln ($45 / $52) + (0.065 + 0.4 / 2) ? 0.5] / [0.4 ? 0.5]0.5= -0.0270d2= -0.0270 - [0.4 ? 0.5]0.5= -0.4742N(d1) = 0.4880N(d2) = 0.3192C = $45 ? 0.4880- $52 e-(0.065)(0.5)? 0.3192= $5.89b. Since the time period is only six months, the exponent used in the calculation of the PV of the exercise price is 0.5.P = C + PV(E) - S= $5.89 + $52 / (1 + 0.065)0.5 - $45= $11.2822.22 a. d1= [ ln ($70 / $90) + (0.06 + 0.25 / 2) ? 0.5] / [0.25 ? 0.5]0.5= -0.4492d2= -0.4492 - [0.25 ? 0.5]0.5= -0.8028N(d1) = 0.3267N(d2) = 0.2111C = $70 ? 0.3267 - $90 e-(0.06)(0.5)? 0.2111= $4.4315b. P = C + PV(E) - S= $4.4315 + $90 / (1 + 0.06)0.5 - $70= $21.847222.23 a. d1= [ ln ($37 / $35) + (0.07 + 0.004 / 2)] / 0.0632= 2.0185d2= 2.0185 - 0.0632= 1.9553N(d1) = 0.9782N(d2) = 0.9747C = $37 ? 0.9782 - $35 e-0.07? 0.9747= $4.3853b. d1= [ ln ($37 / $35) + (0.07 + 0.0064 / 2)] / 0.08= 1.6096d2= 1.6096 - 0.08= 1.5296N(d1) = 0.9463N(d2) = 0.9369C = $37 ? 0.9463 - $35 e-0.07? 0.9369c. d1= [$0 + (0.07 + 0.0064 / 2)] / 0.08= 0.915d2= 0.915 - 0.08= 0.835N(d1) = 0.8199N(d2) = 0.7981C = $35 ? 0.8199 - $35 e-0.07? 0.7981= $2.651522.24 S = $27E = $25t = 120 / 365σ2= 0.0576r f= 0.07d1= [ ln ($27 / $25) + (0.07 + 0.0576 / 2) ? (120 / 365)] / [0.0576 ? (120 / 365)]0.5 = 0.7953d2= 0.7953 - [0.0576 ? (120 / 365)]]0.5= 0.6577N(d1) = 0.7867N(d2) = 0.7447C = $27 ? 0.7867 - $25 e-(0.07)(120/365)? 0.7447= $3.047022.25 For a firm with debt, shares of stock can be thought of as call options on the assets of thefirm due to the limited liability of stock. If the value of the assets exceeds the value of the debt, the stockholders will pay the debt-holders and enjoy the benefits of ownership of the remaining assets. The stockholders have the property rights over the assets in excess of the debt.If the value of the assets of the firm is less than the value of the debt, the stockholders will simply give the bondholders the assets of the firm. The shareholders will walk awayowning nothing.Thus, the return to the shareholders at the end of a period is the maximum between zeroand the excess of assets over debt, [V - B] where V is the value of the assets of the firmand B is the value of the debt. This payoff is exactly the payoffs of a call where V isanalogous to the stock price and B is analogous to the exercise price.22.26 The equity of the firm is regarded as a call option.公司理财习题答案第⼆⼗⼆章Payoff at expiration (million) $250 $650 1. Call $0 $3502. Buy N shares Borrow $250N$650N-$250NNet payoff $0 $400N To equate, $400N = $350N = 0.875 shares of assets.Thus, borrowing amount = $250 ? 0.875 / 1.07 = $204.44 millionCall value = Value of 0.875 shares of the asset + Borrowing $204.44 million = $350 million - $204.44 million = $145.56 millionThe value of the equity= $145.56 millionThe value of the debt= $400 - $145.56= $254.44 million22.27Payoff at expiration (million) $100 $8001. Call $0 $5002. Buy N shares Borrow $100N-$100N$800N-$100NNet payoff $0 $700N To equate, $700N = $550N = (5 / 7) shares of assets.Thus, borrowing amount = $100 ? (5 / 7) / 1.07 = $66.76 millionCall value = Value of (5 / 7) shares of the asset + Borrowing $66.76 million = $285.71 million - $66.76 million = $218.95 millionThe value of the equity= $218.95 millionThe value of the debt= $400 - $218.95= $181.05 millionThus, bondholders prefer the less risky project.。
公司理财(罗斯)第2章(英文)
2-2
Sources of Information
Annual reports Wall Street Journal Internet
2.1 The Balance Sheet 2.2 The Income Statement 2.3 Net Working Capital 2.4 Financial Cash Flow 2.5 The Statement of Cash Flows 2.6 Financial Statement Analysis 2.7 Summary and Conclusions
McGraw-Hill/Irwin Corporate Finance, 7/e 2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
2-6
Debt versus Equity
Generally, when a firm borrows it gives the bondholders first claim on the firm’s cash flow. Thus shareholder’s equity is the residual difference between assets and liabilities.
Total assets
McGraw-Hill/Irwin Corporate Finance, 7/e
$1,879
$1,742
2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
CGA罗斯公司理财第二章作业.
题目内容:Cusic Industries had the following operating results for 2006: sales =$12,800; cost of goods sold =$10,400; depreciation expense= $1,900; interest expense =$450; dividends paid=$500. At the beginning of the year, net fixed assets were $9,100, current assets were $3,200, and current liabilities were $1,800. At the end of the year, net fixed assets were $9,700, current assets were $3,850, and current liabilities were $2,100. The tax rate for 2006 was 34 percent.a. What is net income for 2006?1.5002.1503.504.335.1900b. What is the operating cash flow for 2006?1.5002.19003.174.23835.2400c. What is the cash flow from assets for 2006?1.3502.25003.-4674.+4675.1900d. If no new debt was issued during the year, (awhat is the cash flow to creditors?1.4502.03.-4504.4675.-467(bWhat is the cash flow to stockholders?1.9172.4673.-9174.4505.1417题目内容:During the year, the Senbet Discount Tire Company had gross sales of $1 million. The fi rm’s cost of goods sold and selling expenses were $300,000 and $200,000, respectively. Senbet also had notes payable of $1 million. These notes carried an interest rate of 10 percent. Depreciation was $100,000. Senbet’s tax rate was 35 percent.a. What w as Senbet’s net income?1.4000002.3000003.5000004.3950005.195000b. What was Senbet’s operating cash flow?1.4000002.3000003.5000004.3950005.195000题目内容:Ranney, Inc., has sales of $13,500, costs of $5,400, depreciation expense of $1,200, and interest expense of $680. If the tax rate is 35 percent,a.what is the operating cash flow, or OCF?1.69002.59233.62204.40435.8100题目内容:Use the following information for Ingersoll, Inc., for Problems as following(assume the tax rate is 34 percent:2005 2006Sales 4,0184,312Depreciation 577 578Cost of goods sold 1,382 1,569Other expenses 328 274Interest 269 309Cash 2,107 2,155 Accounts receivable 2,789 3,142 Short-term notes payable 407 382Long-term debt 7,056 8,232Net fixed assets 17,669 18,091Accounts payable 2,213 2,146Inventory 4,959 5,096Dividends 490 539 For 2006,calculate:a. the operating cash flow is.1.18912.537.883.1931.124.6305.1000b. the capital spending is1.18912.537.883.1931.124.6305.1000c. the additions to net working capital is.1.18912.537.883.1931.124.6305.1000d. the cash flow from assets is.1.18912.301.123.1931.124.6305.1000e. cash flow to creditors is;1.-8672.537.883.-629.124.1168.125.301.12f. cash flow to stockholders is.1.-8672.537.883.-629.124.1168.125.301.12。
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Chapter 02 Financial Statements and Cash Flow Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1.The financial statement showing a firm's accounting value on a particular date is the:A.income statement.B.balance sheet.C.statement of cash flows.D.tax reconciliation statement.E.shareholders' equity sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: DEFINITIONS2.A current asset is:A.an item currently owned by the firm.B.an item that the firm expects to own within the next year.C.an item currently owned by the firm that will convert to cash within the next 12 months.D.the amount of cash on hand the firm currently shows on its balance sheet.E.the market value of all items currently owned by the firm.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: DEFINITIONS3.The long-term debts of a firm are liabilities:A.that come due within the next 12 months.B.that do not come due for at least 12 months.C.owed to the firm's suppliers.D.owed to the firm's shareholders.E.the firm expects to incur within the next 12 months. Difficulty level: EasyTopic: LONG-TERM DEBTType: DEFINITIONS working capital is defined as:A.total liabilities minus shareholders' equity.B.current liabilities minus shareholders' equity.C.fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.D.total assets minus total liabilities.E.current assets minus current liabilities.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: DEFINITIONS5.A(n) ____ asset is one which can be quickly converted into cash without significant loss in value.A.currentB.fixedC.intangibleD.liquidE.long-termDifficulty level: EasyTopic: LIQUID ASSETSType: DEFINITIONS6.The financial statement summarizing a firm's accounting performance over a period of time is the:A.income statement.B.balance sheet.C.statement of cash flows.D.tax reconciliation statement.E.shareholders' equity sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: DEFINITIONS7.Noncash items refer to:A.the credit sales of a firm.B.the accounts payable of a firm.C.the costs incurred for the purchase of intangible fixed assets.D.expenses charged against revenues that do not directly affect cash flow.E.all accounts on the balance sheet other than cash on hand.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: NONCASH ITEMSType: DEFINITIONS8.Your _____ tax rate is the amount of tax payable on the next taxable dollar you earn.A.deductibleB.residualC.totalD.averageE.marginalDifficulty level: EasyTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATESType: DEFINITIONS9.Your _____ tax rate is the total taxes you pay divided by your taxable income.A.deductibleB.residualC.totalD.averageE.marginalDifficulty level: EasyTopic: AVERAGE TAX RATESType: DEFINITIONS10._____ refers to the cash flow that results from the firm's ongoing, normal business activities.A.Cash flow from operating activitiesB.Capital spending working capitalD.Cash flow from assetsE.Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIESType: DEFINITIONS11._____ refers to the changes in net capital assets.A.Operating cash flowB.Cash flow from investing working capitalD.Cash flow from assetsE.Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM INVESTINGType: DEFINITIONS12._____ refers to the difference between a firm's current assets and its current liabilities.A.Operating cash flowB.Capital spending working capitalD.Cash flow from assetsE.Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: EasyTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: DEFINITIONS13._____ is calculated by adding back noncash expenses to net income and adjusting for changes in current assets and liabilities.A.Operating cash flowB.Capital spending working capitalD.Cash flow from operationsE.Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM OPERATIONSType: DEFINITIONS14._____ refers to the firm's interest payments less any net new borrowing.A.Operating cash flowB.Capital spending working capitalD.Cash flow from shareholdersE.Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: DEFINITIONS15._____ refers to the firm's dividend payments less any net new equity raised.A.Operating cash flowB.Capital spending working capitalD.Cash flow from creditorsE.Cash flow to stockholdersDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: DEFINITIONS16.Earnings per share is equal to: income divided by the total number of shares outstanding. income divided by the par value of the common stock.C.gross income multiplied by the par value of the common stock.D.operating income divided by the par value of the common stock. income divided by total shareholders' equity.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: DEFINITIONS17.Dividends per share is equal to dividends paid:A.divided by the par value of common stock.B.divided by the total number of shares outstanding.C.divided by total shareholders' equity.D.multiplied by the par value of the common stock.E.multiplied by the total number of shares outstanding.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DIVIDENDS PER SHAREType: DEFINITIONS18.Which of the following are included in current assets?I. equipmentII. inventoryIII. accounts payableIV. cashA.II and IV onlyB.I and III onlyC.I, II, and IV onlyD.III and IV onlyE.II, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: CONCEPTS19.Which of the following are included in current liabilities?I. note payable to a supplier in eighteen monthsII. debt payable to a mortgage company in nine monthsIII. accounts payable to suppliersIV. loan payable to the bank in fourteen monthsA.I and III onlyB.II and III onlyC.III and IV onlyD.II, III, and IV onlyE.I, II, and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT LIABILITIESType: CONCEPTS20.An increase in total assets:A.means that net working capital is also increasing.B.requires an investment in fixed assets.C.means that shareholders' equity must also increase.D.must be offset by an equal increase in liabilities and shareholders' equity.E.can only occur when a firm has positive net income.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS21.Which one of the following assets is generally the most liquid?A.inventoryB.buildingsC.accounts receivableD.equipmentE.patentsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS22.Which one of the following statements concerning liquidity is correct?A.If you sold an asset today, it was a liquid asset.B.If you can sell an asset next year at a price equal to its actual value, the asset is highly liquid.C.Trademarks and patents are highly liquid.D.The less liquidity a firm has, the lower the probability the firm will encounter financial difficulties.E.Balance sheet accounts are listed in order of decreasing liquidity.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS23.Liquidity is:A.a measure of the use of debt in a firm's capital structure.B.equal to current assets minus current liabilities.C.equal to the market value of a firm's total assets minus its current liabilities.D.valuable to a firm even though liquid assets tend to be less profitable to own.E.generally associated with intangible assets.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS24.Which of the following accounts are included in shareholders' equity?I. interest paidII. retained earningsIII. capital surplusIV. long-term debtA.I and II onlyB.II and IV onlyC.I and IV onlyD.II and III onlyE.I and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: SHAREHOLDERS' EQUITYType: CONCEPTS25.Book value:A.is equivalent to market value for firms with fixed assets.B.is based on historical cost.C.generally tends to exceed market value when fixed assets are included.D.is more of a financial than an accounting valuation.E.is adjusted to market value whenever the market value exceeds the stated book value. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BOOK VALUEType: CONCEPTS26.When making financial decisions related to assets, you should:A.always consider market values.B.place more emphasis on book values than on market values.C.rely primarily on the value of assets as shown on the balance sheet.D.place primary emphasis on historical costs.E.only consider market values if they are less than book values.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: MARKET VALUEType: CONCEPTS27.As seen on an income statement:A.interest is deducted from income and increases the total taxes incurred.B.the tax rate is applied to the earnings before interest and taxes when the firm has both depreciation and interest expenses.C.depreciation is shown as an expense but does not affect the taxes payable.D.depreciation reduces both the pretax income and the net income.E.interest expense is added to earnings before interest and taxes to get pretax income. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: CONCEPTS28.The earnings per share will:A.increase as net income increases.B.increase as the number of shares outstanding increase.C.decrease as the total revenue of the firm increases.D.increase as the tax rate increases.E.decrease as the costs decrease.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS29.Dividends per share:A.increase as the net income increases as long as the number of shares outstanding remains constant.B.decrease as the number of shares outstanding decrease, all else constant.C.are inversely related to the earnings per share.D.are based upon the dividend requirements established by Generally Accepted Accounting Procedures.E.are equal to the amount of net income distributed to shareholders divided by the number of shares outstanding.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DIVIDENDS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS30.Earnings per shareA.will increase if net income increases and number of shares remains constant.B.will increase if net income decreases and number of shares remains constant.C.is number of shares divided by net income.D.is the amount of money that goes into retained earnings on a per share basis.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS31.According to Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, costs are:A.recorded as incurred.B.recorded when paid.C.matched with revenues.D.matched with production levels.E.expensed as management desires.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: MATCHING PRINCIPLEType: CONCEPTS32.Depreciation:A.is a noncash expense that is recorded on the income statement.B.increases the net fixed assets as shown on the balance sheet.C.reduces both the net fixed assets and the costs of a firm.D.is a non-cash expense which increases the net operating income.E.decreases net fixed assets, net income, and operating cash flows.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NONCASH ITEMSType: CONCEPTS33.When you are making a financial decision, the most relevant tax rate is the _____ rate.A.averageB.fixedC.marginalD.totalE.variableDifficulty level: MediumTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATEType: CONCEPTS34.An increase in which one of the following will cause the operating cash flow to increase?A.depreciationB.changes in the amount of net fixed capital working capitalD.taxesE.costsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS35.A firm starts its year with a positive net working capital. During the year, the firm acquires more short-term debt than it does short-term assets. This means that:A.the ending net working capital will be negative.B.both accounts receivable and inventory decreased during the year.C.the beginning current assets were less than the beginning current liabilities.D.accounts payable increased and inventory decreased during the year.E.the ending net working capital can be positive, negative, or equal to zero.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CHANGE IN NET WORKING CAPITALType: CONCEPTS36.The cash flow to creditors includes the cash:A.received by the firm when payments are paid to suppliers.B.outflow of the firm when new debt is acquired.C.outflow when interest is paid on outstanding debt.D.inflow when accounts payable decreases.E.received when long-term debt is paid off.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: CONCEPTS37.Cash flow to stockholders must be positive when:A.the dividends paid exceed the net new equity raised.B.the net sale of common stock exceeds the amount of dividends paid.C.no income is distributed but new shares of stock are sold.D.both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors are negative.E.both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors are positive. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS38.Which equality is the basis for the balance sheet?A.Fixed Assets = Stockholder's Equity + Current AssetsB.Assets = Liabilities + Stockholder's EquityC.Assets = Current Long-Term Debt + Retained EarningsD.Fixed Assets = Liabilities + Stockholder's EquityE.None of the aboveDifficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS39.Assets are listed on the balance sheet in order of:A.decreasing liquidity.B.decreasing size.C.increasing size.D.relative life.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS40.Debt is a contractual obligation that:A.requires the payout of residual flows to the holders of these instruments.B.requires a repayment of a stated amount and interest over the period.C.allows the bondholders to sue the firm if it defaults.D.Both A and B.E.Both B and C.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DEBTType: CONCEPTS41.The carrying value or book value of assets:A.is determined under GAAP and is based on the cost of the asset.B.represents the true market value according to GAAP.C.is always the best measure of the company's value to an investor.D.is always higher than the replacement cost of the assets.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CARRYING VALUEType: CONCEPTS42.Under GAAP, a firm's assets are reported at:A.market value.B.liquidation value.C.intrinsic value.D.cost.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GAAPType: CONCEPTS43.Which of the following statements concerning the income statement is true?A.It measures performance over a specific period of time.B.It determines after-tax income of the firm.C.It includes deferred taxes.D.It treats interest as an expense.E.All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: CONCEPTS44.According to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), revenue is recognized as income when:A.a contract is signed to perform a service or deliver a good.B.the transaction is complete and the goods or services are delivered.C.payment is requested.D.income taxes are paid.E.All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GAAP INCOME RECOGNITIONType: CONCEPTS45.Which of the following is not included in the computation of operating cash flow?A.Earnings before interest and taxesB.Interest paidC.DepreciationD.Current taxesE.All of the above are includedDifficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS capital spending is equal to: additions to net working capital.B.the net change in fixed assets. income plus depreciation.D.total cash flow to stockholders less interest and dividends paid.E.the change in total assets.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET CAPITAL SPENDINGType: CONCEPTS47.Cash flow to stockholders is defined as:A.interest payments.B.repurchases of equity less cash dividends paid plus new equity sold.C.cash flow from financing less cash flow to creditors.D.cash dividends plus repurchases of equity minus new equity financing.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS48.Free cash flow is:A.without cost to the firm. income plus taxes.C.an increase in net working capital.D.cash that the firm is free to distribute to creditors and stockholders.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: FREE CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS49.The cash flow of the firm must be equal to:A.cash flow to stockholders minus cash flow to debtholders.B.cash flow to debtholders minus cash flow to stockholders.C.cash flow to governments plus cash flow to stockholders.D.cash flow to stockholders plus cash flow to debtholders.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS50.Which of the following are all components of the statement of cash flows?A.Cash flow from operating activities, cash flow from investing activities, and cash flow from financing activitiesB.Cash flow from operating activities, cash flow from investing activities, and cash flow from divesting activitiesC.Cash flow from internal activities, cash flow from external activities, and cash flow from financing activitiesD.Cash flow from brokering activities, cash flow from profitable activities, and cash flow from non-profitable activitiesE.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWSType: CONCEPTS51.One of the reasons why cash flow analysis is popular is because:A.cash flows are more subjective than net income.B.cash flows are hard to understand.C.it is easy to manipulate, or spin the cash flows.D.it is difficult to manipulate, or spin the cash flows.E.None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS52.A firm has $300 in inventory, $600 in fixed assets, $200 in accounts receivable, $100 in accounts payable, and $50 in cash. What is the amount of the current assets?A.$500B.$550C.$600D.$1,150E.$1,200Current assets = $300 + $200 + $50 = $550Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: PROBLEMS53.Total assets are $900, fixed assets are $600, long-term debt is $500, and short-term debt is $200. What is the amount of net working capital?A.$0B.$100C.$200D.$300E.$400Net working capital = $900 - $600 - $200 = $100Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: PROBLEMS54.Brad's Company has equipment with a book value of $500 that could be sold today at a 50% discount. Its inventory is valued at $400 and could be sold to a competitor for that amount. The firm has $50 in cash and customers owe it $300. What is the accounting value of its liquid assets?A.$50B.$350C.$700D.$750E.$1,000Liquid assets = $400 + $50 + $300 = $750Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: PROBLEMS55.Martha's Enterprises spent $2,400 to purchase equipment three years ago. This equipment is currently valued at $1,800 on today's balance sheet but could actually be sold for $2,000. Net working capital is $200 and long-term debt is $800. Assuming the equipment is the firm's only fixed asset, what is the book value of shareholders' equity?A.$200B.$800C.$1,200D.$1,400E.The answer cannot be determined from the information providedBook value of shareholders' equity = $1,800 + $200 - $800 = $1,200Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BOOK VALUEType: PROBLEMS56.Art's Boutique has sales of $640,000 and costs of $480,000. Interest expense is $40,000 and depreciation is $60,000. The tax rate is 34%. What is the net income?A.$20,400B.$39,600C.$50,400D.$79,600E.$99,600Taxable income = $640,000 - $480,000 - $40,000 - $60,000 = $60,000; Tax= .34($60,000) = $20,400; Net income = $60,000 - $20,400 = $39,600Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET INCOMEType: PROBLEMS57.Given the tax rates as shown, what is the average tax rate for a firm with taxable income of $126,500?A.21.38%B.23.88%C.25.76%D.34.64%E.39.00%Tax = .15($50,000) + .25($25,000) + .34($25,000) + .39($126,500 - $100,000) = $32,585; Average tax rate = $32,585 $126,500 = .2576 = 25.76%Difficulty level: MediumTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATEType: PROBLEMS58.The tax rates are as shown. Your firm currently has taxable income of $79,400. How much additional tax will you owe if you increase your taxable income by $21,000?A.$7,004B.$7,014C.$7,140D.$7,160E.$7,174Additional tax = .34($100,000 - $79,400) + .39($79,400 + $21,000 - $100,000) = $7,160 Difficulty level: MediumTopic: TAXESType: PROBLEMS59.Your firm has net income of $198 on total sales of $1,200. Costs are $715 and depreciation is $145. The tax rate is 34%. The firm does not have interest expenses. What is the operating cash flow?A.$93B.$241C.$340D.$383E.$485Earnings before interest and taxes = $1,200 - $715 - $145 = $340; Tax = [$198 (1- .34)] - $198 = $102; Operating cash flow = $340 + $145 - $102 = $383Difficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: PROBLEMS60.Teddy's Pillows has beginning net fixed assets of $480 and ending net fixed assets of $530. Assets valued at $300 were sold during the year. Depreciation was $40. What is the amount of capital spending?A.$10B.$50C.$90D.$260E.$390Net capital spending = $530 - $480 + $40 = $90Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET CAPITAL SPENDINGType: PROBLEMS61.At the beginning of the year, a firm has current assets of $380 and current liabilities of $210. At the end of the year, the current assets are $410 and the current liabilities are $250. What is the change in net working capital?A.-$30B.-$10C.$0D.$10E.$30Change in net working capital = ($410 - $250) - ($380 - $210) = -$10Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CHANGE IN NET WORKING CAPITALType: PROBLEMS62.At the beginning of the year, long-term debt of a firm is $280 and total debt is $340. At the end of the year, long-term debt is $260 and total debt is $350. The interest paid is $30. What is the amount of the cash flow to creditors?A.-$50B.-$20C.$20D.$30E.$50Cash flow to creditors = $30 - ($260 - $280) = $50Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: PROBLEMS63.Pete's Boats has beginning long-term debt of $ and ending long-term debt of $210. The beginning and ending total debt balances are $340 and $360, respectively. The interest paid is $20. What is the amount of the cash flow to creditors?A.-$10B.$0C.$10D.$40E.$50Cash flow to creditors = $20 - ($210 - $) = -$10Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: PROBLEMS64.Peggy Grey's Cookies has net income of $360. The firm pays out 40% of the net income to its shareholders as dividends. During the year, the company sold $80 worth of common stock. What is the cash flow to stockholders?A.$64B.$136C.$144D.$224E.$296Cash flow to stockholders = .40($360) - $80 = $64Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: PROBLEMS65.Thompson's Jet Skis has operating cash flow of $218. Depreciation is $45 and interest paid is $35. A net total of $69 was paid on long-term debt. The firm spent $ on fixed assets and increased net working capital by $38. What is the amount of the cash flow to stockholders?A.-$104B.-$28C.$28D.$114E.$142Cash flow of the firm = $218 - $38 - $ = $0; Cash flow to creditors = $35 - (-$69) = $104; Cash flow to stockholders = $0 - $104 = -$104Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: PROBLEMS66. What is the change in the net working capital from 2007 to 2008?A. $1,235B. $1,C. $1,335D. $3,405E. $4,740Change in net working capital = ($7,310 - $2,570) - ($6,225 - $2,820) = $1,335Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CHANGE IN NET WORKING CAPITALType: PROBLEMS67.What is the amount of the non-cash expenses for 2008?A.$570B.$630C.$845D.$1,370E.$2,000The non-cash expense is depreciation in the amount of $1,370. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NONCASH EXPENSESType: PROBLEMS68.What is the amount of the net capital spending for 2008?A.-$290B.$795C.$1,080D.$1,660E.$2,165Net capital spending = $10,670 - $10,960 + $1,370 = $1,080 Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET CAPITAL SPENDINGType: PROBLEMS69.What is the operating cash flow for 2008?A.$845B.$1,930C.$2,215D.$2,845E.$3,060Operating cash flow = $1,930 + $1,370 - $455 = $2,845 Difficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: PROBLEMS70.What is the cash flow of the firm for 2008?A.$430B.$485C.$1,340D.$2,590E.$3,100Operating cash flow = $1,930 + $1,370 - $455 = $2,845; Change in net working capital = ($7,310 - $2,570) - ($6,225 - $2,820) = $1,335; Net capital spending = $10,670 - $10,960 + $1,370 = $1,080; Cash flow of the firm = $2,845 - $1,335 - $1,080 = $430Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW OF THE FIRMType: PROBLEMS71.What is the amount of net new borrowing for 2008?A.-$225B.-$25C.$0D.$25E.$225Net new borrowing = $8,100 - $7,875 = $225Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET NEW BORROWINGType: PROBLEMS72.What is the cash flow to creditors for 2008?A.-$405B.-$225C.$225D.$405E.$630Cash flow to creditors = $630 - ($8,100 - $7,875) = $405 Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: PROBLEMS73.What is the net working capital for 2008?A.$345B.$405C.$805D.$812E.$1,005Net working capital = $75 + $502 + $640 - $405 = $812Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: PROBLEMS74.What is the change in net working capital from 2007 to 2008?A.-$93B.-$7C.$7D.$85E.$97Change in net working capital = ($75 + $502 + $640 - $405) - ($70 + $563 + $662 - $390) = -$93Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CHANGE IN NET WORKING CAPITALType: PROBLEMS75.What is net capital spending for 2008?A.-$250B.-$57C.$0D.$57E.$477Net capital spending = $1,413 - $1,680 + $210 = -$57Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET CAPITAL SPENDINGType: PROBLEMS76.What is the operating cash flow for 2008?A.$143B.$297C.$325D.$353E.$367Earnings before interest and taxes = $785 - $460 - $210 = $115; Taxable income = $115 - $35 = $80; Taxes = .35($80) = $28; Operating cash flow = $115 + $210 - $28 = $297Difficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: PROBLEMS。