公司理财精要

合集下载

罗斯《公司理财》笔记整理

罗斯《公司理财》笔记整理

第一章导论1. 公司目标:为所有者创建价值,公司价值在于其产生现金流能力。

2. 财务管理的目标:最大化现有股票的每股现值。

3. 公司理财能够看做对一下几个问题进行研究:1. 资本估量:公司应当投资什么样的长久财富。

2. 资本构造:公司怎样筹集所需要的资本。

3. 净营运资本管理:怎样管理短期经营活动产生的现金流。

4. 公司制度的长处:有限责任,易于转让所有权,永续经营。

弊端:公司税对股东的两重课税。

第二章会计报表与现金流量财富= 欠债+ 所有者权益(非现金项目有折旧、递延税款)EBIT(经营性净利润)= 净销售额-产品成本-折旧EBITDA = EBIT + 折旧及摊销现金流量总数CF(A) = 经营性现金流量-资天性支出-净营运资本增添额= CF(B) + CF(S)经营性现金流量OCF = 息税前利润+ 折旧-税资天性输出= 固定财富增添额+ 折旧净营运资本= 流动财富-流动欠债第三章财务报表剖析与财务模型1. 短期偿债能力指标(流动性指标)流动比率= 流动财富/流动欠债(一般状况大于一)速动比率= (流动财富-存货)/流动欠债(酸性实验比率)现金比率= 现金/流动欠债流动性比率是短期债权人关怀的,越高越好;但对公司而言,高流动性比率意味着流动性好,或许现金等短期财富运用效率低下。

关于一家拥有强盛借钱能力的公司,看似较低的流动性比率可能并不是坏的信号2. 长久偿债能力指标(财务杠杆指标)欠债比率= (总财富-总权益)/总财富or (长久欠债+ 流动欠债)/总财富权益乘数= 总财富/总权益= 1 + 欠债权益比利息倍数= EBIT/利息现金对利息的保障倍数(Cash coverage radio) = EBITDA/利息3. 财富管理或资本周转指标存货周转率= 产品销售成本/存货存货周转天数= 365天/存货周转率应收账款周转率= (赊)销售额/应收账款总财富周转率= 销售额/总财富= 1/资本密集度4. 盈余性指标销售利润率= 净利润/销售额财富利润率ROA = 净利润/总财富权益利润率ROE = 净利润/总权益5. 市场价值胸怀指标市盈率= 每股价钱/每股利润EPS此中EPS = 净利润/刊行股票数市值面值比= 每股市场价值/每股账面价值公司价值EV = 公司市值+ 有息欠债市值-现金EV乘数= EV/EBITDA6. 杜邦恒等式ROE = 销售利润率(经营效率)x总财富周转率(财富运用效率)x权益乘数(财杠)ROA = 销售利润率x总财富周转率7. 销售百分比法假定项目随销售额改动而成比率改动,目的在于提出一个生成展望财务报表的迅速适用方法。

(公司理财)公司理财(精要版)知识点归纳

(公司理财)公司理财(精要版)知识点归纳

第一章.公司理财导论1.企业组织形态:单一业主制、合伙制、股份公司(所有权和管理相分离、相对容易转让所有权、对企业债务负有限责任,使企业融资更加容易。

企业寿命不受限制,但双重课税)2.财务管理的目标:为了使现有股票的每股当前价值最大化。

或使现有所有者权益的市场价值最大化。

3.股东与管理层之间的关系成为代理关系。

代理成本是股东与管理层之间的利益冲突的成本。

分直接和间接。

4.公司理财包括三个领域:资本预算、资本结构、营运资本管理第二章.1.在企业资本结构中利用负债成为“财务杠杆”。

2.净利润与现金股利的差额就是新增的留存收益。

3.来自资产的现金流量=经营现金流量(OCF)-净营运资本变动-资本性支出4.OCF=EBIT+折旧-税5.净资本性支出=期末固定资产净值-期初固定资产净值+折旧6.流向债权人的现金流量=利息支出-新的借款净额7.流向股东的现金流量=派发的股利-新筹集的净权益第三章1.现金来源:应付账款的增加、普通股本的增加、留存收益增加现金运用:应收账款增加、存货增加、应付票据的减少、长期负债的减少2.报表的标准化:同比报表、同基年度财报3.ROE=边际利润(经营效率)X总资产周转率(资产使用效率)X权益乘数(财务杠杆)4.为何评价财务报表:内部:业绩评价。

外部:评价供应商、短期和长期债权人和潜在投资者、信用评级机构。

第四章.1.制定财务计划的过程的两个维度:计划跨度和汇总。

2.一个财务计划制定的要件:销售预测、预计报表、资产需求、筹资需求、调剂、经济假设。

3.销售收入百分比法:提纯率=再投资率=留存收益增加额/净利润=1-股利支付率资本密集率=资产总额/销售收入4.内部增长率=(ROAXb)/(1-ROAXb)可持续增长率=ROE/(1-ROEXb):企业在保持固定的债务权益率同时没有任何外部权益筹资的情况下所能达到的最大的增长率。

是企业在不增加财务杠杆时所能保持的最大的增长率。

(如果实际增长率超过可持续增长率,管理层要考虑的问题就是从哪里筹集资金来支持增长。

公司理财精要

公司理财精要

公司理财精要
公司理财精要:
1、积极管理财务:以投资为基础,合理安排财务收支,有效降低财务支出,节约成本,提高公司的收益。

2、定期报表:财务部应定期准备和报送财务报表,并结合财务报表及时进行财务分析,指导公司的财务决策。

3、关注市场:注重财务管理,积极跟踪最新的市场信息,预判市场变化,把握机遇,避免风险。

4、投资分析:充分了解市场现状,完善投资分析体系,采取科学合理的投资决策,以最优化的收益及最低的风险进行风险投资。

5、财务控制:财务部应统筹制定合理的财务政策和完善的财务控制系统,在合理的财务管理下,力争使公司财务尽快达到完美的健康状态。

公司理财(精要版·原书第12版)PPT中文Ch07 利率和债券估值

公司理财(精要版·原书第12版)PPT中文Ch07 利率和债券估值
▪ 使用计算器:
• 年数= 5; 收益率= 11; 年金 = 100; 终值 = 1,000 • 债券价值= -963.04
7-6
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
▪ 使用计算器:
• 年数= 20;收益率= 8;年金= 100;终值 = 1000 • 债券价值= -1,196.36
7-7
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
普通债券收益率
• 假设有一种年利率为10%、期限为15年、票面价值为1,000 美元的债券。目前的价格是928.09美元。
▪ 收益率会高于还是低于10%?
▪ N = 15; PV = -928.09; FV = 1,000; PMT = 100; CPT I/Y = 11%
7-16
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
7-12

公司理财知识点总结大全

公司理财知识点总结大全

公司理财知识点总结大全一、公司理财的基本概念与原则1. 简介公司理财是指公司运用资金和资源,以最优化的方式进行投资和资金管理,以达到降低风险、提高投资收益、增强经营活力和提高企业价值的目的。

公司理财是企业财务管理的重要组成部分,对于企业的发展和经营至关重要。

2. 基本概念(1)投资理念:公司理财的核心是投资,即公司运用自有资金进行投资和资金管理,以获取最大的利润和价值增值。

(2)风险管理:公司理财需要关注投资的风险,并且采取相应的风险管理措施,降低风险,保障资金的安全和稳健。

(3)流动性管理:公司理财需要合理安排资金的流动性,保证企业正常的营运活动,避免出现资金短缺和错失投资机会。

(4)财务规划:公司理财需要进行科学的财务规划,确定资金的投资方向和渠道,并结合企业的发展战略,优化资金配置,有序开展资金运作。

3. 基本原则(1)风险与收益之间的平衡原则:公司理财需要根据投资项目的风险水平,合理配置投资组合,以达到风险和收益的最佳平衡。

(2)流动性与盈利性的统一原则:公司理财需要同时关注资金流动性和盈利性,保证企业的正常经营和投资回报的最大化。

(3)多元化投资原则:公司理财需要进行多元化的投资,避免过于集中于某一种投资方式或领域,降低风险,提高收益。

二、公司理财的主要内容与方法1. 资金管理(1)资金计划:制定企业短期和长期的资金计划,合理安排资金的使用和募集,确保企业资金的充裕和有效运作。

(2)资金筹措:选择合适的资金来源,可通过发行债券、股权融资、银行贷款等方式筹措资金。

(3)资金运作:对企业现金流进行监控和分析,合理运用现金流,实现最大的盈利和效益。

2. 投资管理(1)投资评估:对投资项目进行分析评估,包括财务分析、风险评估、市场分析等,确定投资的可行性和前景。

(2)投资组合:根据企业的财务状况和风险承受能力,进行投资组合的选择和配置,实现最佳的风险和收益平衡。

(3)资产配置:合理配置资产,包括股票、债券、金融衍生品等,优化资产组合,提高投资回报率。

公司理财(精要版·原书第12版)PPT中文Ch16财务杠杆和资本结构政策

公司理财(精要版·原书第12版)PPT中文Ch16财务杠杆和资本结构政策
试图得出如下第四个结论:
4. 由于财务杠杆对股东的预期收益和股票风险都具有影响,因此资 本结构是重要的考虑因素。
• 令人惊讶的是,这第四个结论是不正确的。
▪ 原因是股东可以通过自己借贷来调整财务杠杆的数量。 ▪ 这种利用个人借贷来改变财务杠杆程度的方法称为自制杠杆。
16-12
示例:自制杠杆
• 下面的示例说明,公司是否采用计划的资本结构实际上没有任 何区别,因为任何希望采用计划的资本结构的股东都可以使用 自制杠杆来简单地创建它。
• 在计划的资本结构内购买100股股份可获得与在原始资本结构 内购买200股股份相同的结果。
▪ 买额外的100股将需要投资者借贷2,000美元。 ▪ 假设投资者可以以与公司相同的利率借款。
1613下面的示例说明公司是否采用计划的资本结构实际上没有任何区别因为任何希望采用计划的资本结构的股东都可以使用自制杠杆来简单地创建它
第16章
财务杠杆和资本结构政策
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
16-8
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
16-6
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

公司理财精要版原书第12版英文版最新精品课件Ross_12e_PPT_Ch21

公司理财精要版原书第12版英文版最新精品课件Ross_12e_PPT_Ch21
21-6
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
EXCHANGE RATES
• The price of one country’s currency in terms of another country’s currency
• Most currency is quoted in terms of dollars.
• Consider the following quote:
▪ Euro
1.1836
0.8449
▪ The first number (1.1836) is how many U.S. dollars it takes to buy 1 Euro.
▪ The second number (0.8449) is how many Euros it takes to buy $1.
批注本地保存成功开通会员云端永久保存去开通
CHAPTER 21
INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCE
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
• Illustrate the different types of exchange rate risk and ways firms manage exchange rate risk

罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案

罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案

CH5 11,13,18,19,2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. Fro m now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16,24,27,42,5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3,18,21,22,313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4,18,20,22,24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3,4,6,9,153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48%9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9,13,14,17,18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1,4,12,14,171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checksreceived per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minusthe transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.。

公司理财管理制度

公司理财管理制度

公司理财管理制度第一章总则第一条为规范公司财务管理行为,确保公司资金的安全和合理利用,维护公司资产的稳健增值,提高公司整体经营效益,特制定本制度。

第二条公司理财管理制度是公司财务管理工作的基本准则,是公司财务管理活动的纲领性文件。

公司各级领导及全体员工均应严格遵守本制度的规定,加强公司资金管理,做到用钱合理、用钱规范。

第三条公司的理财管理应遵循的原则是经济效益为导向,安全保障为基础,风险控制为核心,合法合规为前提,绩效考核为目标。

第四条公司通过加强资金管理,提高资金使用的效益,不断改进财务管理制度和工作方法,维护公司资金的安全,促进公司财务管理水平的提高和发展。

第二章财务管理第五条公司应当建立健全公正、透明的财务管理体系,确保公司业务活动的合法性、合规性和准确性。

财务管理工作要严格按照国家相关财务管理规定和公司的财务管理制度执行。

第六条公司应当建立财务管理岗位责任制度,明确各财务管理人员的权限和责任。

对财务人员的职责分工、权限设置、授权程序等都应明确规定,做到责任到人,权责一致。

第七条公司应当建立规范的财务管理流程,包括账务处理、报销管理、资金管理等各项工作的流程,确保资金的合理使用和安全流转。

第八条公司应当定期进行内部审计,对公司财务管理情况进行监督检查和评估,及时发现问题并采取相应的整改措施,确保财务管理工作的正常运行。

第九条公司应当建立健全风险管理体系,建立预警机制,定期进行资金风险评估,制定相应的风险管理策略,确保公司资金的安全性和稳定性。

第十条公司应当建立合理的财务预算制度,制定年度财务预算和月度财务预测,结合实际情况进行调整和控制,确保公司运营活动的顺利进行。

第三章资金管理第十一条公司应当建立规范的资金管理制度,确保资金使用的规范和安全。

第十二条公司应当建立资金监管制度,加强对公司资金的监管和控制,保障公司资金的安全和合理利用。

第十三条公司应当建立现金管理制度,对公司的现金流动情况进行监控和管理,做到合理使用和安全保障。

公司理财(精要版·原书第12版)PPT中文Ch07 利率和债券估值

公司理财(精要版·原书第12版)PPT中文Ch07 利率和债券估值
7-9
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
7-13
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
债券价格:息票率与收益率的关系
• 如果到期收益率=票面利率,则票面价值= 债券价格
• 如果到期收益率>票面利率,则票面价值>债券价格
▪ 为什么?贴现率提供高于票面利率的收益率。 ▪ 低于面值的价格,称为折价债券
• 如果到期收益率<票面利率,则票面价值<债券价格
▪ 为什么?较高的票面利率导致价值高于票面价值。 ▪ 高于票面价值的价格,称为溢价债券
章节纲要
• 债券及债券估值 • 债券特性 • 债券评级 • 不同类型的债券 • 债券市场 • 通货膨胀和利率 • 债券收益率的决定因素
7-3
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
示例7.1
▪ 有多少票息支付? ▪ 什么是半年一次的息票支付? ▪ 半年收益率是多少? ▪ 债券价格是多少?

公司理财(罗斯光盘)

公司理财(罗斯光盘)

公司理财(精要版)(原书第6版)Fundamentals of Corporate Finance(6th edition)斯蒂芬A. 罗斯(Stephen A. Ross )(麻省理工学院)伦道夫W. 威斯特菲尔德(Randolph W. Westerfield )(南加利福尼亚大学)布拉德福德D. 乔丹(Bradford D. Jordan )(肯塔基大学)方红星译(美)著斯蒂芬A. 罗斯(Stephen A. Ross )现任麻省理工学院(MIT )斯隆管理学院(Sloan School ofManagement )弗朗科·莫迪格利安尼(Franco Modigliani )财务与经济学教授,在此之前任耶鲁大学商学院经济学与财务学教授,是世界上著述最丰的财务学家和经济学家之一。

罗斯教授以其在“套利定价理论”(APT )方面的杰出成果而闻名于世,并且在信号理论、代理理论、期权定价以及利率的期间结构理论等领域有深厚造诣。

他曾任美国财务学会会长,现任多家学术和实践类杂志副主编,加州教师退休基金会(CalTech )托管人,大学退休权益基金会(CREF )及Freddie Mac 公司董事,罗尔-罗斯资产管理公司董事会主席。

伦道夫W. 威斯特菲尔德(Randolph W. Westerfield )南加利福尼亚大学(USC )马歇尔商学院(Marshall School ofBusiness )院长,罗伯特R. 朵克森(Robert R. Dockson )工商管理教席教授。

1988~1993年任该院财务与企业经济学系主任,财务学教授。

此前曾在宾夕法尼亚大学(UPenn )沃顿(Wharton )商学院任教长达20年,并担任财务学系主任,怀特(Rodney L. White )财务学研究中心高级副主任。

他的学术专长包括公司财务政策、投资管理与分析、兼并与收购以及股票市场价格行为等。

他还兼任健康管理协会(NYSE :HMA )、William Lyon 住宅公司(NYSE :WLS )、Lord 基金会、AACSB 国际等公司董事,曾任美国电报电话(AT&T )、美孚(Mobil )石油、太平洋企业等著名公司以及美国联邦政府、司法部、劳工部和加利福尼亚州顾问。

公司理财(精要版·原书第12版)PPT中文Ch08 股票估价

公司理财(精要版·原书第12版)PPT中文Ch08 股票估价

学习目标
• 解释如何根据未来的股利及其增长率计算股票价 格
• 展示如何通过相对倍数来对股票进行估值 • 展示公司总监通常选择使用的不同估值方法 • 解释股票市场的运作机制
8-2
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
预测股利:特殊情况
• 股息零增长 ▪ 公司将永远支付固定股息 ▪ 像优先股一样 ▪ 价格是用永续公式计算的
• 股息固定增长 ▪ 公司将每段时期以固定的百分比增加股息 ▪ 价格是使用增长永续模型计算的
• 股息超常增长 ▪ 股利增长最初并不稳定,但最终会趋于稳定增长 ▪ 价格是用多级模型计算的
8-9
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
你预期它会在一年后支付2美元的股利并且你相信你可以在支付股利之后马上以14美元的价格出售如果你针对股票的风险所要求的回报率为20你愿意为一股股票支付的最高价格是多少
第8章
股票估价
Copyright © 2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

公司理财的管理制度

公司理财的管理制度

公司理财的管理制度一、总则为规范公司财务管理,加强对公司资金的监管,保障公司财务安全,提高资金利用效率,特制定本管理制度。

二、管理范围本管理制度适用于公司内部各级财务管理部门及所有相关员工,在公司的财务管理活动中必须严格遵守。

三、管理原则1. 政策与规定:公司财务管理应遵循国家财政政策与法律法规,并按公司制定的各项财务管理规章制度执行。

2. 规范与严谨:执行资金管理应规范、准确、严密,实行“收支两条线”制度。

3. 安全与透明:财务管理应保证资金的安全,避免资金挪用与浪费,确保财务数据的真实、准确和透明。

4. 高效与理性:资金管理应根据公司实际情况,提高资金使用效率,实现资金最大化利用。

四、财务监管部门公司设立财务监管部门,负责公司财务管理,由财务总监直接领导,具体包括以下职责:1. 制定公司财务管理制度及规章制度;2. 监督公司各部门执行财务管理制度;3. 确保公司财务运作的正常开展;4. 提供财务决策的依据与建议;5. 审核公司各项财务报表。

五、日常财务管理1. 财务预算:管理部门应根据公司经营计划,制定年度财务预算,并分解到各部门,控制预算执行进度,及时调整预算方案。

2. 收支管理:设立专门负责资金管理的收付中心,实行专人专岗,管理实现收支两条线制度,保证每一笔资金的全程监控。

3. 财务核算:建立健全财务核算制度,对公司各项业务开展财务核算工作,及时准确地做好会计账务处理,形成财务报表。

4. 资金管理:对公司各项资金进行统筹、安排,合理配置资金,增加资金使用效率,做好资金监控。

5. 税务管理:遵守国家税法,严格按规定缴纳税收,定期进行税务核算,并及时、正确地报送各项税费申报表。

六、风险管理1. 资金风险:公司应建立完善的资金管理风险管理体系,控制公司资金流动风险,降低财务风险。

2. 政策风险:公司应密切关注国家政策变化,及时调整公司财务管理措施,确保公司财务管理合法合规。

3. 投资风险:公司应谨慎选择投资项目,规避潜在风险,确保公司的资金安全运作。

公司理财要点整理

公司理财要点整理

第一章导论1. 公司目标:为所有者创造价值公司价值在于其产生现金流能力。

2. 财务管理的目标:最大化现有股票的每股现值。

3. 公司理财可以看做对一下几个问题进行研究:1. 资本预算:公司应该投资什么样的长期资产。

2. 资本结构:公司如何筹集所需要的资金。

3. 净运营资本管理:如何管理短期经营活动产生的现金流。

4. 公司制度的优点:有限责任,易于转让所有权,永续经营。

缺点:公司税对股东的双重课税。

第二章会计报表与现金流量资产 = 负债 + 所有者权益(非现金项目有折旧、递延税款)EBIT(经营性净利润) = 净销售额 - 产品成本 - 折旧EBITDA = EBIT + 折旧及摊销现金流量总额CF(A) = 经营性现金流量 - 资本性支出 - 净运营资本增加额 = CF(B) + CF(S)经营性现金流量OCF = 息税前利润 + 折旧 - 税资本性输出 = 固定资产增加额 + 折旧净运营资本 = 流动资产 - 流动负债第三章财务报表分析与财务模型1. 短期偿债能力指标(流动性指标)流动比率 = 流动资产/流动负债(一般情况大于一)速动比率 = (流动资产 - 存货)/流动负债(酸性实验比率)现金比率 = 现金/流动负债流动性比率是短期债权人关心的,越高越好;但对公司而言,高流动性比率意味着流动性好,或者现金等短期资产运用效率低下。

对于一家拥有强大借款能力的公司,看似较低的流动性比率可能并非坏的信号2. 长期偿债能力指标(财务杠杆指标)负债比率 = (总资产 - 总权益)/总资产 or (长期负债 + 流动负债)/总资产权益乘数 = 总资产/总权益 = 1 + 负债权益比利息倍数 = EBIT/利息现金对利息的保障倍数(Cash coverage radio) = EBITDA/利息3. 资产管理或资金周转指标存货周转率 = 产品销售成本/存货存货周转天数 = 365天/存货周转率应收账款周转率 = (赊)销售额/应收账款总资产周转率 = 销售额/总资产 = 1/资本密集度4. 盈利性指标销售利润率 = 净利润/销售额资产收益率ROA = 净利润/总资产权益收益率ROE = 净利润/总权益5. 市场价值度量指标市盈率 = 每股价格/每股收益EPS 其中EPS = 净利润/发行股票数市值面值比 = 每股市场价值/每股账面价值企业价值EV = 公司市值 + 有息负债市值 - 现金EV乘数 = EV/EBITDA6. 杜邦恒等式ROE = 销售利润率(经营效率)x总资产周转率(资产运用效率)x权益乘数(财杠)ROA = 销售利润率x总资产周转率7. 销售百分比法假设项目随销售额变动而成比例变动,目的在于提出一个生成预测财务报表的快速实用方法。

公司理财的原则与职能_公司理财_[共3页]

公司理财的原则与职能_公司理财_[共3页]

公司理财资还是向外界筹资,以开始新的投资活动。

这样,公司理财的四项内容就构成了一个周而复始的有机循环。

第四节 公司理财的原则与职能本节主要介绍公司理财的原则与职能。

公司理财的原则涉及合理配置原则、财务收支平衡原则、成本效益原则、风险与收益均衡原则以及利益关系协调原则等方面。

这些原则是公司开展理财活动时必须遵守的准则。

公司理财职能主要有财务分析、财务预测、财务决策、财务预算以及财务控制等。

一、公司理财的原则(一)资金合理配置原则资源总是有限的,公司开展各项活动所能动用的资源也是有限的。

公司开展理财活动的主要对象是公司的资金,作为一种资源也是有限的。

因此,在公司进行理财活动时,要遵守资金合理配置的原则。

对资金合理配置可以从资金的来源与用途两个方面理解。

资金的来源主要有债权融资和股权融资。

公司利用债权融资需要承担定期还本付息的压力,如果无法支付利息或者偿还本金,会给企业带来破产的风险。

但是,债权融资却不会导致决策权的稀释。

公司利用股权融资虽然不必定期支付利息,并且股权融资无需偿还,但是股权融资却会稀释现有股东的决策权,甚至导致现有股东的决策权旁落。

资金的用途主要是指资金对于各类资产的投资,这些资产既包括变现能力较强的现金、交易性金融资产、存货等流动资产,也包括变现能力较弱的长期股权投资、固定资产、无形资产等非流动资产。

通常流动性强的资产获利性会较弱,反之亦然。

公司需要在对流动性与获利性权衡的基础上,合理安排资金的投向。

从以上分析可以看出,无论是公司资本结构决策还是各类投资决策都应该遵守资金合理配置这条原则。

(二)财务收支平衡原则公司对资金进行管理是一个动态的过程,财务收支平衡原则贯穿始终。

财务收支平衡既有金额的平衡,又有时间的平衡。

出于公司持续经营的假设,通常我们要求公司投资项目的收入要大于公司对其投资金额,这样才能从中获取利益。

同时,公司保持的资金持有也应该高于预期范围内的现金支出,只有保持一定的财务柔性才能够维持公司的正常经营。

  1. 1、下载文档前请自行甄别文档内容的完整性,平台不提供额外的编辑、内容补充、找答案等附加服务。
  2. 2、"仅部分预览"的文档,不可在线预览部分如存在完整性等问题,可反馈申请退款(可完整预览的文档不适用该条件!)。
  3. 3、如文档侵犯您的权益,请联系客服反馈,我们会尽快为您处理(人工客服工作时间:9:00-18:30)。

– 由于折旧是一项非现金支出,因此企业在计算经营现金流 由于折旧是一项非现金支出, 须将折旧加回净利润里,以反映当年现金的实际流量。 时,须将折旧加回净利润里,以反映当年现金的实际流量。 企业有可能虚增或少报折旧,以此来改变净利润, 企业有可能虚增或少报折旧,以此来改变净利润,但在计 算经营现金流时,折旧加回到净利润里, 算经营现金流时,折旧加回到净利润里,反映了经营现金 的实际流动情况。 的实际流动情况。
U.S. Corporation 2003 Cash flow from assets Operating cash flow(经营性现金流) - Net capital spending(净资本性支出) - Change in NWC(净营运资本变化) cash flow from assets(源自资产的现金流) $547 130 330 $87
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 例题:现金流 例题: ——例题总结 ——例题总结
• 源自资产的现金流
– 经营性现金流 息税前收益 折旧 税收 经营性现金流=息税前收益 折旧-税收 息税前收益+折旧 – 净资本性支出=期末固定资产净值 期初固定资产净值 折 净资本性支出 期末固定资产净值-期初固定资产净值 期末固定资产净值 期初固定资产净值+折 旧 – 净营运资本变化=期末净营运资本 期初净营运资本 净营运资本变化 期末净营运资本-期初净营运资本 期末净营运资本
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 例题:现金流
6.

Cash flow to creditors and stockholders(流向债权人 和股东的现金流量)
Cash flow to stockholders(流向股东的现金流量)
U.S. Corporation 2003 Cash flow to stockholders Dividends paid(支付股利) - Net new equity raised(净新募集的股东资本) cash flow to stockholders(流向股东的现金流) $103 40 $63
• 如,企业己于2000年花费 万元购置了一台新机器,2001年开始 年花费10万元购置了一台新机器 企业己于 年花费 万元购置了一台新机器, 年开始 投入使用。该机器的有效使用期为五年, 投入使用。该机器的有效使用期为五年,五年后的剩余使用价值 为零。2001年后的五年里每年的折旧都从各年收入中扣除,但该 为零。 年后的五年里每年的折旧都从各年收入中扣除, 年后的五年里每年的折旧都从各年收入中扣除 折旧并非每年的现金支出, 万元已于 万元已于2000年支付。 年支付。 折旧并非每年的现金支出,10万元已于 年支付
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2011-112011-11-4
2.3 税负
• 公司所得税
– 税基:应税所得额 税基:
• 利润=收入-成本费用 利润=收入- • 净利润=收入-成本费用-所得税 净利润=收入-成本费用-
流动资产 固定资产
左边
2011-112011-11-4
资金来源? 资金来源?
流动负债
长期负债、 长期负债、权益
资金来源? 资金来源?
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
= 右边
2.1 财务报表
• 损益 利润表及利润分配表 损益/利润表及 利润表
– 成本与费用
• 成本:直接材料、直接人工、制造费用 成本:直接材料、直接人工、 • 费用:营业费用、管理费用、财务费用 费用:营业费用、管理费用、
2011-112011-11-4 华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 例题——自学 ——自学
U.S. CORPORATION 1998 Income Statement ($ In Millions)
Net sales(净销售额) Cost of goods sold(销售成本) Depreciation(折旧) Earnings before interest and taxes(息税前盈余) Interest paid(支付利息) Taxable income(税前盈余) Taxes(税收) Net income(净利润) Dividends(股息) Addition to retained earnings(保留盈余)
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 例题:现金流
2. Cash flow from assets(源自资产的现金流)
– Capital Spending(资本性支出)
Ending net fixed assets(期末固定资产净值) - Beginning net fixed assets(期初固定资产净值) + Depreciation(折旧) Net investment in fixed assets(净资本性支出)
– 现金流量的确认标准是收付实现制,在现实中已经发 现金流量的确认标准是收付实现制, 生现金流入与流出时确认现金流量。收付实现制( 生现金流入与流出时确认现金流量。收付实现制(也 实收实付制) 实收实付制)是以款项是否收到或支付为标准来确认 本期的收入和费用,而不论其业务何时发生。 本期的收入和费用,而不论其业务何时发生。它反映 了企业的资金头寸情况, 了企业的资金头寸情况,为企业合理地运用资金提供 了可靠的资料。 了可靠的资料。
Ch.2 财务报表、税负和现金流 财务报表、
• 主要内容: 主要内容:
– 财务报表
• • • • 资产负债表 损益表 利润分配表 现金流量表
– 税负 – 现金流
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.1 财务报表
• 财务报表
– 第二条 财务报表是对企业财务状况、经营成果和现金 财务报表是对企业财务状况、 流量的结构性表述。 流量的结构性表述。财务报表至少应当包括下列组成 部分: 部分:
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 例题:现金流
5.

Cash flow to creditors and stockholders(流向债权人 和股东的现金流量)
Cash flow to creditors(流向债权人的现金流量)
U.S. Corporation 2003 Cash flow to creditors Interest paid(利息支出) - Net new borrowing(净新增借款) cash flow to creditors(流向债权人的现金流) $70 46 $24
2011-112011-11-4 华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 现金流
• 非现金项目
– 折旧、摊销的意义 折旧、
• 在会计中,按照权责发生制能正确地核算产品的成 在会计中, 本费用 • 在财务中
– 不需要企业实际的现金流出 – 充实了企业法人的现金流入——不需要流入债权人(利 不需要流入债权人( 充实了企业法人的现金流入 不需要流入债权人 息——财务费用)、国家(所得税)、股东(利润分配)、 财务费用)、国家(所得税)、股东(利润分配)、 财务费用)、国家 )、股东 员工(成本费用)、供应商(成本费用) )、供应商 员工(成本费用)、供应商(成本费用)
Operation cash flow (OCF)[经营性现金流量(OCF)]
U.S. Corporation 2003 Operating Cash Flow Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) + Depreciation(折旧i) - taxes(税收) Operation Cash Flow (OCF)(经营性现金流) $694 65 212 $547
– 权责发生制原则 权责发生制原则 – 配比原则:收入费用、时间配比 配比原则:收入费用、
• 现金流量表
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 现金流
• 现金流:现金流危机累死大企业 现金流:
– 现金流的内涵
• 企业某一时刻实际收到或支出的现金,不是企业应收应付的收 企业某一时刻实际收到或支出的现金, 入或者支出。 入或者支出。
$1,709 1,644 65 $ 130
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 例题:现金流
3.
– –
Cash flow from assets
Change in Net Working Capital(净营运资本变化) NWC: net working capital(NWC:净营运资本)
Ending NWC(期末净营运资本) - Beginning NWC(期初净营运资本) Change in NWC(净营运资本变化)
$1,014 684 $ 330
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 例题:现金流
4. Cash flow from assets
– Conclusion (结果)
• • • • • 资产负债表 利润表 现金流量表 所有者权益(或股东权益,下同) 所有者权益(或股东权益,下同)变动表 附注
• 企业会计准则
• 第30~33号:财务报表列报、现金流量表、中期财务报表、 ~ 号 财务报表列报、现金流量表、中期财务报表、 合并财务报表。 合并财务报表。
2011-112011-11-4
2011-112011-11-4
华南理工大学工商管理学院 肖万
2.2 现金流
• 非现金项目
– 非现金项目,是指那些能给企业法人带来现金流入而不需 非现金项目, 要实际支付出去的费用项目,如折旧、摊销等。 要实际支付出去的费用项目,如折旧、摊销等。 – 折旧反映了生产过程中资本设备的损耗。在利润表中,折 折旧反映了生产过程中资本设备的损耗。在利润表中, 旧从销售收入中扣除。如果折旧未扣除,净利润将被高估, 旧从销售收入中扣除。如果折旧未扣除,净利润将被高估, 税额也将增加。因此在确定利润时,折旧连同其它费用, 税额也将增加。因此在确定利润时,折旧连同其它费用, 如工时和原材料等一起被扣除。 如工时和原材料等一起被扣除。
相关文档
最新文档