博迪第八版投资学第十章课后习题答案

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博迪《投资学》笔记和课后习题详解(指数模型)【圣才出品】

博迪《投资学》笔记和课后习题详解(指数模型)【圣才出品】

第10章指数模型10.1 复习笔记1.单指数证券市场(1)单指数模型①单指数模型的定义式马科维茨模型在实际操作中存在两个问题,一是需要估计大量的数据;二是该模型应用中相关系数确定或者估计中的误差会导致结果无效。

单指数模型大降低了马科维茨资产组合选择程序的数据数量,它把精力放在了对证券的专门分析中。

因为不同企业对宏观经济事件有不同的敏感度。

所以,如果记宏观因素的非预测成分为F,记证券i对宏观经济事件的敏感度为βi;则证券i的宏观成分为,则股票收益的单因素模型为:②单指数模型收益率的构成因为指数模型可以把实际的或已实现的证券收益率区分成宏观(系统)的与微观(公司特有)的两部分。

每个证券的收益率是三个部分的总和:如果记市场超额收益R M的方差为σ2M,则可以把每个股票收益率的方差拆分成两部分:(2)指数模型的估计单指数模型表明,股票GM的超额收益与标准普尔500指数的超额收益之间的关系由下式给定:R i=αi+βi R M+e i该式通过βi来测度股票i对市场的敏感度,βi是回归直线的斜率。

回归直线的截距是αi,它代表了平均的公司特有收益。

在任一时期里,回归直线的特定观测偏差记为e i,称为残值。

每一个残值都是实际股票收益与由描述股票同市场之间的一般关系的回归方程所预测出的股票收益之间的差异。

这些量可以用标准回归技术来估计。

(3)指数模型与分散化资产组合的方差为其中定义资产组合方差的系统风险成分为依赖于市场运动的部分为它也依赖于单个证券的敏感度系数。

这部分风险依赖于资产组合的贝塔和σ2M,不管资产组合分散化程度如何都不会改变。

相比较,资产组合方差的非系统成分是σ2(e P),它来源于公司特有成分e i。

因为这些e i 是独立的,都具有零期望值,所以可以得出这样的结论:随着越来越多的股票加入到资产组合中,公司特有风险倾向于被消除掉,非市场风险越来越小。

当各资产为等权重,且e i不相关时,有。

式中,为公司特有方差的均值。

投资学(博迪)答案

投资学(博迪)答案
收益百分比=2 000美元/15 000美元=0.133 3=13.33%
(ii)价格不变,净价值不变。
收益百分比= 0。
(iii)净价值下跌至7 2美元×2 5 0-5 000美元=13 000美元。
收益百分比=2 000美元/15 000美元=-0.133 3=-1 3 . 3 3%
股票价格的百分比变化和投资者收益百分比关系由下式给定:
第五章利率史与风险溢价
1.根据表5-1,分析以下情况对真实利率的影响?
a.企业对其产品的未来需求日趋悲观,并决定减少其资本支出。
b.居民因为其未来社会福利保险的不确定性增加而倾向于更多地储蓄。
c.联邦储蓄委员会从公开市场上购买美国国债以增加货币供给。
a.如果企业降低资本支出,它们就很可能会减少对资金的需求。这将使得图5 - 1中的需求曲线向左上方移动,从而降低均衡实际利率。
a. Lanni公司向银行贷款。它共获得50000美元的现金,并且签发了一张票据保证3年内还款。
b. Lanni公司使用这笔现金和它自有的20000美元为其一新的财务计划软件开发提供融资。
c. Lanni公司将此软件产品卖给微软公司(Microsoft),微软以它的品牌供应给公众,Lanni公司获得微软的股票1500股作为报酬。
10.67%; -2.67%; -16%
e.假设一年后,Intel股票价格降至多少时,投资者将受到追缴保证金的通知?p=28.8
购买成本是8 0美元×250=20 000美元。你从经纪人处借得5 000美元,并从自有资金中取出
15 000美元进行投资。你的保证金账户初始净价值为15 000美元。
a. (i)净价值增加了2 000美元,从15 000美元增加到:8 8美元×2 5 0-5 000美元=17 000美元。

博迪《投资学》笔记和课后习题详解(投资环境)【圣才出品】

博迪《投资学》笔记和课后习题详解(投资环境)【圣才出品】

第1章投资环境1.1 复习笔记1.金融资产与实物资产(1)概念实物资产指经济生活中所创造的用于生产商品和提供服务的资产。

实物资产包括:土地、建筑物、知识、机械设备以及劳动力。

实物资产和“人力”资产是构成整个社会的产出和消费的主要内容。

金融资产是实物资产所创造的利润或政府的收入的要求权。

金融资产主要指股票或债券等有价证券。

金融资产是投资者财富的一部分,但不是社会财富的组成部分。

(2)两种资产的区分①实物资产能够创造财富和收入,而金融资产却只是收入或财富在投资者之间的配置的一种手段。

②实物资产通常只在资产负债表的资产一侧出现,而金融资产却可以作为资产或负债在资产负债表的两侧都出现。

对企业的金融要求权是一种资产,但是,企业发行的这种金融要求权则是企业的负债。

③金融资产的产生和消除一般要通过一定的商务过程。

例如,当贷款被支付后,债权人的索偿权(一种金融资产)和债务人的债务(一种金融负债)就都消失了。

而实物资产只能通过偶然事故或逐渐磨损来消除。

2.金融市场(1)金融市场与经济①金融市场的概念金融市场是指以金融资产为交易对象而形成的供求关系及其机制的总和。

它包括三层含义,一是它是金融资产进行交易的一个有形和无形的场所;二是它反映了金融资产的供应者和需求者之间所形成的供求关系;三是它包含了金融资产交易过程中所产生的运行机制。

②金融市场的作用a.金融市场允许人们通过金融资产储蓄财富,使人们消费与收入在时间上分离。

人们可以通过调整消费期获得最满意的消费。

b.金融市场使人们可以通过金融资产的买卖来分配实物资产的风险。

c.金融市场保证了公司经营权和所有权的分离。

③代理问题代理问题是指公司的管理者追求自己的利益而非公司的利益所产生的管理者与股东潜在的利益冲突。

解决代理问题的管理机制有:期权等激励机制、通过董事会解雇管理者以及雇佣独立人士监控管理者。

绩效差的公司通常面临着被收购的危机,这是一种外部的激励。

公司治理危机包括会计丑闻、分析师丑闻和首次公开发行中的问题。

博迪《投资学》(第10版)章节题库-第九章至第十章【圣才出品】

博迪《投资学》(第10版)章节题库-第九章至第十章【圣才出品】

第三部分资本市场均衡第9章资本资产定价模型一、选择题1.如果一个股票的价值是高估的,则它应位于()。

A.证券市场线的上方B.证券市场线的下方C.证券市场线上D.在纵轴上【答案】B【解析】证券市场线(SML)如图9-1所示,它主要用来说明投资组合报酬率与系统风险程度β系数之间的关系。

图9-1被高估的证券预期收益率低于市场收益率,因此位于证券市场线下方。

2.无风险利率和市场预期收益率分别是3.5%和10.5%。

根据资本资产定价模型,一只β值是1.63的证券的预期收益是()。

A.10.12%B.14.91%C.16.56%D.18.79%【答案】B【解析】根据资本资产定价模型:E(r i)=r f+β[E(r M)-r f]=3.5%+1.63×(10.5%-3.5%)=14.91%。

3.资本资产定价模型给出了精确预测()的方法。

A.有效投资组合B.单一资产与风险资产组合期望收益率C.不同风险收益偏好下最优风险投资组合D.资产风险及其期望收益率之间的关系【答案】D【解析】根据资本资产定价模型,每一证券的期望收益率应等于无风险利率加上该证券由β系数测定的风险溢价。

4.假定一只股票定价合理,预期收益是15%,市场预期收益是10.5%,无风险利率是3.5%,这只股票的β值是()。

A.1.36B.1.52C.1.64D.1.75【答案】C【解析】既然α值假定为零,证券的收益就等于CAPM设定的收益。

因此,将已知的数值代入CAPM,即15%=[3.5%+(10.5%-3.5%)β],解得:β=1.64。

5.根据CAPM模型,市场期望收益率和无风险收益率分别是0.12和0.06,β值为1.2的证券A的期望收益率是()。

A.0.068B.0.12C.0.132D.0.142【答案】C【解析】根据资本资产定价模型,E(r i)=r f+[E(r M)-r f]βi=0.06+(0.12-0.06)×1.2=0.132。

博迪《投资学》笔记和课后习题详解(最优风险资产组合)【圣才出品】

博迪《投资学》笔记和课后习题详解(最优风险资产组合)【圣才出品】

第8章最优风险资产组合8.1 复习笔记1. 分散化与资产组合风险(1)系统性风险与非系统性风险分散化能够降低风险,但是当共同的风险来源影响所有的公司时,分散化就不能消除风险了。

资产组合的标准差随着证券种类的增加而下降,但是,它不能降至零。

在最充分的分散条件下还存在着市场风险,它来源于与市场有关的因素,这种风险亦被称为“系统风险”,或“不可分散风险”。

而那些可被分散化消除的风险被称为“独特风险”、“特有公司风险”、“非系统风险”或“可分散风险”。

(2)两种风险资产的资产组合①资产组合的风险与收益资产组合的期望收益是资产组合中各种证券的期望收益的加权平均值,即:两资产的资产组合的方差是:②表格法计算组合方差表8-1显示可以通过电子表格计算资产组合的方差。

其中a表示两个共同基金收益的相邻协方差矩阵,相邻矩阵是沿着首排首列相邻每一基金在资产组合中权重的协方差矩阵。

可以通过如下方法得到资产组合的方差:斜方差矩阵中的每个因子与行、列中的权重相乘,把四个结果相加,就可以得出给出的资产组合方差。

表8-1 通过协方差矩阵计算资产组合方差③相关系数与资产组合方差具有完全正相关(相关系数为1)的资产组合的标准差恰好是资产组合中各证券标准差的加权平均值。

相关系数小于1时,资产组合的标准差小于资产组合中各证券标准差的加权平均值。

通过调整资产比例,具有完全负相关(相关系数为-1)的资产组合的标准差可以趋向0。

④资产组合比例与资产组合方差当两种资产负相关时,调整资产组合比例可以得到小于两种资产方差的最小组合方差。

若某个资产比例为负值,表示借入(或卖空)该资产。

⑤机会集机会集是指多种资产进行组合所能构成的所有风险收益的集合。

2. 资产配置(1)最优风险资产组合最优风险资产组合是使资本配置线的斜率(报酬与波动比率)最大的风险资产组合,这样表示边际风险报酬最大。

最优风险资产组合为资产配置线与机会集曲线的切点。

(2)最优完整资产组合最优完整资产组合为投资者无差异曲线与资本配置线的切点处组合,最优完整组合包含风险资产组合(债券和股票)以及无风险资产(国库券)。

Essentials Of Investments 8th Ed Bodie 投资学精要(第八版)课后习题答案Chap007

Essentials Of Investments 8th Ed Bodie 投资学精要(第八版)课后习题答案Chap007

CHAPTER 07CAPITAL ASSET PRICING AND ARBITRAGE PRICINGTHEORY1. The required rate of return on a stock is related to the required rate of return on thestock market via beta. Assuming the beta of Google remains constant, the increase in the risk of the market will increase the required rate of return on the market, and thus increase the required rate of return on Google.2. An example of this scenario would be an investment in the SMB and HML. As of yet,there are no vehicles (index funds or ETFs) to directly invest in SMB and HML. While they may prove superior to the single index model, they are not yet practical, even for professional investors.3. The APT may exist without the CAPM, but not the other way. Thus, statement a ispossible, but not b. The reason being, that the APT accepts the principle of risk and return, which is central to CAPM, without making any assumptions regardingindividual investors and their portfolios. These assumptions are necessary to CAPM.4. E(r P ) = r f + β[E(r M ) – r f ]20% = 5% + β(15% – 5%) ⇒ β = 15/10 = 1.55. If the beta of the security doubles, then so will its risk premium. The current riskpremium for the stock is: (13% - 7%) = 6%, so the new risk premium would be 12%, and the new discount rate for the security would be: 12% + 7% = 19%If the stock pays a constant dividend in perpetuity, then we know from the original data that the dividend (D) must satisfy the equation for a perpetuity:Price = Dividend/Discount rate 40 = D/0.13 ⇒ D = 40 ⨯ 0.13 = $5.20 At the new discount rate of 19%, the stock would be worth: $5.20/0.19 = $27.37The increase in stock risk has lowered the value of the stock by 31.58%.6. The cash flows for the project comprise a 10-year annuity of $10 million per year plus anadditional payment in the tenth year of $10 million (so that the total payment in the tenth year is $20 million). The appropriate discount rate for the project is:r f + β[E(r M ) – r f ] = 9% + 1.7(19% – 9%) = 26% Using this discount rate:NPV = –20 + +∑=101t t26.1101026.110= –20 + [10 ⨯ Annuity factor (26%, 10 years)] + [10 ⨯ PV factor (26%, 10 years)] = 15.64The internal rate of return on the project is 49.55%. The highest value that beta can take before the hurdle rate exceeds the IRR is determined by:49.55% = 9% + β(19% – 9%) ⇒ β = 40.55/10 = 4.055 7. a. False. β = 0 implies E(r) = r f , not zero.b. False. Investors require a risk premium for bearing systematic (i.e., market orundiversifiable) risk.c. False. You should invest 0.75 of your portfolio in the market portfolio, and theremainder in T-bills. Then: βP = (0.75 ⨯ 1) + (0.25 ⨯ 0) = 0.758.a. The beta is the sensitivity of the stock's return to the market return. Call theaggressive stock A and the defensive stock D . Then beta is the change in the stock return per unit change in the market return. We compute each stock's beta by calculating the difference in its return across the two scenarios divided by the difference in market return.00.2205322A =--=β70.0205145.3D =--=βb. With the two scenarios equal likely, the expected rate of return is an average ofthe two possible outcomes: E(r A ) = 0.5 ⨯ (2% + 32%) = 17%E(r B ) = 0.5 ⨯ (3.5% + 14%) = 8.75%c. The SML is determined by the following: T-bill rate = 8% with a beta equal tozero, beta for the market is 1.0, and the expected rate of return for the market is:0.5 ⨯ (20% + 5%) = 12.5%See the following graph.812.5%S M LThe equation for the security market line is: E(r) = 8% + β(12.5% – 8%) d. The aggressive stock has a fair expected rate of return of:E(r A ) = 8% + 2.0(12.5% – 8%) = 17%The security analyst’s estimate of the expected rate of return is also 17%.Thus the alpha for the aggressive stock is zero. Similarly, the required return for the defensive stock is:E(r D ) = 8% + 0.7(12.5% – 8%) = 11.15%The security analyst’s estimate of the expected return for D is only 8.75%, and hence:αD = actual expected return – required return predicted by CAPM= 8.75% – 11.15% = –2.4%The points for each stock are plotted on the graph above.e. The hurdle rate is determined by the project beta (i.e., 0.7), not by the firm’sbeta. The correct discount rate is therefore 11.15%, the fair rate of return on stock D.9. Not possible. Portfolio A has a higher beta than Portfolio B, but the expected returnfor Portfolio A is lower.10. Possible. If the CAPM is valid, the expected rate of return compensates only forsystematic (market) risk as measured by beta, rather than the standard deviation, which includes nonsystematic risk. Thus, Portfolio A's lower expected rate of return can be paired with a higher standard deviation, as long as Portfolio A's beta is lower than that of Portfolio B.11. Not possible. The reward-to-variability ratio for Portfolio A is better than that of themarket, which is not possible according to the CAPM, since the CAPM predicts that the market portfolio is the most efficient portfolio. Using the numbers supplied:S A =5.0121016=- S M =33.0241018=-These figures imply that Portfolio A provides a better risk-reward tradeoff than the market portfolio.12. Not possible. Portfolio A clearly dominates the market portfolio. It has a lowerstandard deviation with a higher expected return.13. Not possible. Given these data, the SML is: E(r) = 10% + β(18% – 10%)A portfolio with beta of 1.5 should have an expected return of: E(r) = 10% + 1.5 ⨯ (18% – 10%) = 22%The expected return for Portfolio A is 16% so that Portfolio A plots below the SML (i.e., has an alpha of –6%), and hence is an overpriced portfolio. This is inconsistent with the CAPM.14. Not possible. The SML is the same as in Problem 12. Here, the required expectedreturn for Portfolio A is: 10% + (0.9 ⨯ 8%) = 17.2%This is still higher than 16%. Portfolio A is overpriced, with alpha equal to: –1.2%15. Possible. Portfolio A's ratio of risk premium to standard deviation is less attractivethan the market's. This situation is consistent with the CAPM. The market portfolio should provide the highest reward-to-variability ratio.16.a.b.As a first pass we note that large standard deviation of the beta estimates. None of the subperiod estimates deviate from the overall period estimate by more than two standard deviations. That is, the t-statistic of the deviation from the overall period is not significant for any of the subperiod beta estimates. Looking beyond the aforementioned observation, the differences can be attributed to different alpha values during the subperiods. The case of Toyota is most revealing: The alpha estimate for the first two years is positive and for the last two years negative (both large). Following a good performance in the "normal" years prior to the crisis, Toyota surprised investors with a negative performance, beyond what could be expected from the index. This suggests that a beta of around 0.5 is more reliable. The shift of the intercepts from positive to negative when the index moved to largely negative returns, explains why the line is steeper when estimated for the overall period. Draw a line in the positive quadrant for the index with a slope of 0.5 and positive intercept. Then draw a line with similar slope in the negative quadrant of the index with a negative intercept. You can see that a line that reconciles the observations for both quadrants will be steeper. The same logic explains part of the behavior of subperiod betas for Ford and GM.17. Since the stock's beta is equal to 1.0, its expected rate of return should be equal to thatof the market, that is, 18%. E(r) =01P P P D -+0.18 =100100P 91-+⇒ P 1 = $10918. If beta is zero, the cash flow should be discounted at the risk-free rate, 8%:PV = $1,000/0.08 = $12,500If, however, beta is actually equal to 1, the investment should yield 18%, and the price paid for the firm should be:PV = $1,000/0.18 = $5,555.56The difference ($6944.44) is the amount you will overpay if you erroneously assume that beta is zero rather than 1.ing the SML: 6% = 8% + β(18% – 8%) ⇒β = –2/10 = –0.220.r1 = 19%; r2 = 16%; β1 = 1.5; β2 = 1.0a.In order to determine which investor was a better selector of individual stockswe look at the abnormal return, which is the ex-post alpha; that is, the abnormalreturn is the difference between the actual return and that predicted by the SML.Without information about the parameters of this equation (i.e., the risk-free rateand the market rate of return) we cannot determine which investment adviser isthe better selector of individual stocks.b.If r f = 6% and r M = 14%, then (using alpha for the abnormal return):α1 = 19% – [6% + 1.5(14% – 6%)] = 19% – 18% = 1%α2 = 16% – [6% + 1.0(14% – 6%)] = 16% – 14% = 2%Here, the second investment adviser has the larger abnormal return and thusappears to be the better selector of individual stocks. By making betterpredictions, the second adviser appears to have tilted his portfolio toward under-priced stocks.c.If r f = 3% and r M = 15%, then:α1 =19% – [3% + 1.5(15% – 3%)] = 19% – 21% = –2%α2 = 16% – [3%+ 1.0(15% – 3%)] = 16% – 15% = 1%Here, not only does the second investment adviser appear to be a better stockselector, but the first adviser's selections appear valueless (or worse).21.a.Since the market portfolio, by definition, has a beta of 1.0, its expected rate ofreturn is 12%.b.β = 0 means the stock has no systematic risk. Hence, the portfolio's expectedrate of return is the risk-free rate, 4%.ing the SML, the fair rate of return for a stock with β= –0.5 is:E(r) = 4% + (–0.5)(12% – 4%) = 0.0%The expected rate of return, using the expected price and dividend for next year: E(r) = ($44/$40) – 1 = 0.10 = 10%Because the expected return exceeds the fair return, the stock must be under-priced.22.The data can be summarized as follows:ing the SML, the expected rate of return for any portfolio P is:E(r P) = r f + β[E(r M) – r f ]Substituting for portfolios A and B:E(r A) = 6% + 0.8 ⨯ (12% – 6%) = 10.8%E(r B) = 6% + 1.5 ⨯ (12% – 6%) = 15.0%Hence, Portfolio A is desirable and Portfolio B is not.b.The slope of the CAL supported by a portfolio P is given by:S =P fP σr)E(r-Computing this slope for each of the three alternative portfolios, we have:S (S&P 500) = 6/20S (A) = 5/10S (B) = 8/31Hence, portfolio A would be a good substitute for the S&P 500.23.Since the beta for Portfolio F is zero, the expected return for Portfolio F equals therisk-free rate.For Portfolio A, the ratio of risk premium to beta is: (10% - 4%)/1 = 6%The ratio for Portfolio E is higher: (9% - 4%)/(2/3) = 7.5%This implies that an arbitrage opportunity exists. For instance, you can create aPortfolio G with beta equal to 1.0 (the same as the beta for Portfolio A) by taking a long position in Portfolio E and a short position in Portfolio F (that is, borrowing at the risk-free rate and investing the proceeds in Portfolio E). For the beta of G to equal 1.0, theproportion (w) of funds invested in E must be: 3/2 = 1.5The expected return of G is then:E(r G) = [(-0.50) ⨯ 4%] + (1.5 ⨯ 9%) = 11.5%βG = 1.5 ⨯ (2/3) = 1.0Comparing Portfolio G to Portfolio A, G has the same beta and a higher expected return.Now, consider Portfolio H, which is a short position in Portfolio A with the proceedsinvested in Portfolio G:βH = 1βG + (-1)βA = (1 ⨯ 1) + [(-1) ⨯ 1] = 0E(r H) = (1 ⨯ r G) + [(-1) ⨯ r A] = (1 ⨯ 11.5%) + [(- 1) ⨯ 10%] = 1.5%The result is a zero investment portfolio (all proceeds from the short sale of Portfolio Aare invested in Portfolio G) with zero risk (because β = 0 and the portfolios are welldiversified), and a positive return of 1.5%. Portfolio H is an arbitrage portfolio.24.Substituting the portfolio returns and betas in the expected return-beta relationship, weobtain two equations in the unknowns, the risk-free rate (r f ) and the factor return (F):14.0% = r f + 1 ⨯ (F – r f )14.8% = r f + 1.1 ⨯ (F – r f )From the first equation we find that F = 14%. Substituting this value for F into the second equation, we get:14.8% = r f + 1.1 ⨯ (14% – r f ) ⇒ r f = 6%25.a.Shorting equal amounts of the 10 negative-alpha stocks and investing the proceedsequally in the 10 positive-alpha stocks eliminates the market exposure and creates azero-investment portfolio. Using equation 7.5, and denoting the market factor as R M,the expected dollar return is [noting that the expectation of residual risk (e) inequation 7.8 is zero]:$1,000,000 ⨯ [0.03 + (1.0 ⨯ R M)] – $1,000,000 ⨯ [(–0.03) + (1.0 ⨯ R M)]= $1,000,000 ⨯ 0.06 = $60,000The sensitivity of the payoff of this portfolio to the market factor is zero because theexposures of the positive alpha and negative alpha stocks cancel out. (Notice thatthe terms involving R M sum to zero.) Thus, the systematic component of total riskalso is zero. The variance of the analyst's profit is not zero, however, since thisportfolio is not well diversified.For n = 20 stocks (i.e., long 10 stocks and short 10 stocks) the investor will have a$100,000 position (either long or short) in each stock. Net market exposure is zero,but firm-specific risk has not been fully diversified. The variance of dollar returnsfrom the positions in the 20 firms is:20 ⨯ [(100,000 ⨯ 0.30)2] = 18,000,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $134,164.b.If n = 50 stocks (i.e., 25 long and 25 short), $40,000 is placed in each position,and the variance of dollar returns is:50 ⨯ [(40,000 ⨯ 0.30)2] = 7,200,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $84,853.Similarly, if n = 100 stocks (i.e., 50 long and 50 short), $20,000 is placed ineach position, and the variance of dollar returns is:100 ⨯ [(20,000 ⨯ 0.30)2] = 3,600,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $60,000.Notice that when the number of stocks increases by a factor of 5 (from 20 to 100),standard deviation falls by a factor of 5= 2.236, from $134,164 to $60,000. 26.Any pattern of returns can be "explained" if we are free to choose an indefinitely largenumber of explanatory factors. If a theory of asset pricing is to have value, it mustexplain returns using a reasonably limited number of explanatory variables (i.e.,systematic factors).27.The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty, i.e., sources ofuncertainty that are of concern to many investors. Researchers should investigatefactors that correlate with uncertainty in consumption and investment opportunities.GDP, the inflation rate and interest rates are among the factors that can be expected to determine risk premiums. In particular, industrial production (IP) is a good indicator of changes in the business cycle. Thus, IP is a candidate for a factor that is highlycorrelated with uncertainties related to investment and consumption opportunities in the economy.28.The revised estimate of the expected rate of return of the stock would be the oldestimate plus the sum of the unexpected changes in the factors times the sensitivitycoefficients, as follows:Revised estimate = 14% + [(1 ⨯ 1) + (0.4 ⨯ 1)] = 15.4%29.Equation 7.11 applies here:E(r P) = r f + βP1[E(r1) - r f] + βP2[E(r2) – r f]We need to find the risk premium for these two factors:γ1 = [E(r1) - r f] andγ2 = [E(r2) - r f]To find these values, we solve the following two equations with two unknowns: 40% = 7% + 1.8γ1 + 2.1γ210% = 7% + 2.0γ1 + (-0.5)γ2The solutions are: γ1 = 4.47% and γ2 = 11.86%Thus, the expected return-beta relationship is:E(r P) = 7% + 4.47βP1 + 11.86βP230.The first two factors (the return on a broad-based index and the level of interest rates)are most promising with respect to the likely impa ct on Jennifer’s firm’s cost of capital.These are both macro factors (as opposed to firm-specific factors) that can not bediversified away; consequently, we would expect that there is a risk premiumassociated with these factors. On the other hand, the risk of changes in the price ofhogs, while important to some firms and industries, is likely to be diversifiable, andtherefore is not a promising factor in terms of its impact on the firm’s cost of capital.31.Since the risk free rate is not given, we assume a risk free rate of 0%. The APT required(i.e., equilibrium) rate of return on the stock based on Rf and the factor betas is:Required E(r) = 0 + (1 x 6) + (0.5 x 2) + (0.75 x 4) = 10%According to the equation for the return on the stock, the actually expected return onthe stock is 6 % (because the expected surprises on all factors are zero by definition).Because the actually expected return based on risk is less than the equilibrium return,we conclude that the stock is overpriced.CFA 1a, c and dCFA 2a.E(r X) = 5% + 0.8(14% – 5%) = 12.2%αX = 14% – 12.2% = 1.8%E(r Y) = 5% + 1.5(14% – 5%) = 18.5%αY = 17% – 18.5% = –1.5%b.(i)For an investor who wants to add this stock to a well-diversified equityportfolio, Kay should recommend Stock X because of its positivealpha, while Stock Y has a negative alpha. In graphical terms, StockX’s expected return/risk profile plots above the SML, while Stock Y’sprofile plots below the SML. Also, depending on the individual riskpreferences of Kay’s clients, Stock X’s lower beta may have abeneficial impact on overall portfolio risk.(ii)For an investor who wants to hold this stock as a single-stock portfolio,Kay should recommend Stock Y, because it has higher forecastedreturn and lower standard deviation than S tock X. Stock Y’s Sharperatio is:(0.17 – 0.05)/0.25 = 0.48Stock X’s Sharpe ratio is only:(0.14 – 0.05)/0.36 = 0.25The market index has an even more attractive Sharpe ratio:(0.14 – 0.05)/0.15 = 0.60However, given the choice between Stock X and Y, Y is superior.When a stock is held in isolation, standard deviation is the relevantrisk measure. For assets held in isolation, beta as a measure of risk isirrelevant. Although holding a single asset in isolation is not typicallya recommended investment strategy, some investors may hold what isessentially a single-asset portfolio (e.g., the stock of their employercompany). For such investors, the relevance of standard deviationversus beta is an important issue.CFA 3a.McKay should borrow funds and i nvest those funds proportionally in Murray’sexisting portfolio (i.e., buy more risky assets on margin). In addition toincreased expected return, the alternative portfolio on the capital market line(CML) will also have increased variability (risk), which is caused by the higherproportion of risky assets in the total portfolio.b.McKay should substitute low beta stocks for high beta stocks in order to reducethe overall beta of York’s portfolio. By reducing the overall portfolio beta,McKay will reduce the systematic risk of the portfolio and therefore theportfolio’s volatility relative to the market. The security market line (SML)suggests such action (moving down the SML), even though reducing beta mayresult in a slight loss of portfolio efficiency unless full diversification ismaintained. York’s primary objective, however, is not to maintain efficiencybut to reduce risk exposure; reducing portfolio beta meets that objective.Because York does not permit borrowing or lending, McKay cannot reduce riskby selling equities and using the proceeds to buy risk free assets (i.e., by lendingpart of the portfolio).CFA 4c.“Both the CAPM and APT require a mean-variance efficient market portfolio.”This statement is incorrect. The CAPM requires the mean-variance efficientportfolio, but APT does not.d.“The CAPM assumes that one specific factor explains security returns but APTdoes not.” This statement is c orrect.CFA 5aCFA 6dCFA 7d You need to know the risk-free rate.CFA 8d You need to know the risk-free rate.CFA 9Under the CAPM, the only risk that investors are compensated for bearing is the riskthat cannot be diversified away (i.e., systematic risk). Because systematic risk(measured by beta) is equal to 1.0 for each of the two portfolios, an investor wouldexpect the same rate of return from each portfolio. Moreover, since both portfolios are well diversified, it does not matter whether the specific risk of the individual securities is high or low. The firm-specific risk has been diversified away from both portfolios. CFA 10b r f = 8% and E(r M) = 16%E(r X) = r f + βX[E(r M) – r f] = 8% + 1.0(16% - 8%) = 16%E(r Y) = r f + βY[E(r M) – r f] = 8% + 0.25(16% - 8%) = 10%Therefore, there is an arbitrage opportunity.CFA 11cCFA 12dCFA 13cInvestors will take on as large a position as possible only if the mis-pricingopportunity is an arbitrage. Otherwise, considerations of risk anddiversification will limit the position they attempt to take in the mis-pricedsecurity.CFA 14d。

投资学第10章习题及答案

投资学第10章习题及答案

第10章习题及答案1.2008年金融危机对我国股市有何影响?2.货币政策如何影响股市的?3.2008年以来我国实施的宽松的财政政策对于股票市场有何影响?4.简述经济周期与证券市场波动之间的关系?5.影响行业兴衰的因素都有哪些?6.一个公司的行业敏感性取决于哪些因素?参考答案1.国际经济关系对证券市场的影响,包括国际经济的增长状况、国际金融以及利率与汇率的变动、境外股市行情波动、贸易关系等。

其中国际金融以及利率与汇率的变动对于证券市场的影响非常大。

西方主要国际金融市场的利率一旦发生变化,证券市场也会相应的发生变化,即利率的提高将会带来证券市场的下跌趋势,反之利率的降低,证券市场就会上涨。

境外股市行情的波动会立刻影响到我国股市的波动。

一国因为某种因素引发股市危机,就会引发连锁的股市灾难。

另外,贸易关系的改变通常会引起相关国际性公司股票价格发生波动。

如果一国贸易对国际市场依赖性比较大,那么,贸易关系的改善,将会推动该国股市指数的大幅上涨;相反,如果贸易关系恶化,通常会引起该国股市指数的大幅下挫。

例如07年爆发美国次贷危机中,美国股市下跌了55%,以此同时,受到牵连的中国股市跌幅达到73%。

2.从证券投资的角度看, 货币政策可以直接影响证券市场行情。

中央银行的货币政策对证券的价格有重要影响。

从整体来说, 宽松的货币政策将会使证券市场价格上涨;而从紧的货币政策将会使证券市场价格下跌。

货币政策对证券市场的影响可以从四个方面来分析: (1)利率政策对于证券市场价格具有重要影响。

通常证券价格对利率的变动较为敏感。

(2)中央银行的微调政策对证券价格的影响具体表现如下:如果放松银根, 中央银行将大量买进证券, 增加了社会对证券的需求, 引起证券价格上升;如果紧缩银根,中央银行将抛出证券, 使证券供给过旺, 导致价格下跌。

(3)货币政策的综合影响, 当货币供应量过多而造成通货膨胀时, 人们为保值而购买证券(尤其是股票) , 推动证券需求上升, 价格上涨; 当货币供应量不足时, 人们为取得货币资金而抛售证券, 使证券价格下跌。

投资学 (博迪) 第10版课后习题答案19 Investments 10th Edition Textbook Solutions Chapter 19

投资学 (博迪) 第10版课后习题答案19 Investments 10th Edition Textbook Solutions Chapter 19

15. a. The total capital of the firms must first be calculated by adding their respective debt and equity together. The total capital for Acme is 100 + 50 = 150, and the total capital for Apex is 450 + 150 = 600. The economic value added will be the spread between the ROC and cost of capital multiplied by the total capital of the firm. Acme’s EVA thus equals (17% − 9%) × 150 = 12 (million). Apex’s EVA equals (15% − 10%) × 600 = 30 (mil). Notice that even though Apex’s spread is smaller, their larger capital stock allows them more economic value added.
Alternatively, 0.03 = 0.65 × [ROA + (ROA - 0.06) × 0.5] 0.0462 = [ROA + (ROA - 0.06) × 0.5] 0.0462 = ROA + 0.5ROA - 0.03 0.0762 = ROA + 0.5ROA 0.0762 = 1.5ROA 0.0508 = ROA
2. Earnings management should not matter in a truly efficient market, where all publicly available information is reflected in the price of a share of stock. Investors can see through attempts to manage earnings so that they can determine a company’s true profitability and, hence, the intrinsic value of a share of stock. However, if firms do engage in earnings management, then the clear implication is that managers do not view financial markets as efficient.

Essentials Of Investments 8th Ed Bodie 投资学精要(第八版)课后习题答案chap04

Essentials Of Investments 8th Ed Bodie 投资学精要(第八版)课后习题答案chap04

CHAPTER 04 MUTUAL FUNDS AND OTHER INVESTMENT COMPANIES 1.Mutual funds offer many benefits. Some of those benefits include the ability to investwith small amounts of money, diversification, professional management, lowtransaction costs, tax benefits, and reduce administrative functions.2.Close-end funds trade on the open market and are thus subject to market pricing. Open-end funds, are sold by the mutual fund and must reflect the NAV of the investments.3.Annual fees charged by a mutual fund to pay for marketing and distribution costs.4. A unit investment trust is an unmanaged mutual fund. Its portfolio is fixed and does notchange due to asset trades, as does a close-end fund. .5.Exchange-traded funds can be traded during the day, just as the stocks they represent.They are most tax effective, in that they do not have as many distributions. They also have much lower transaction costs. They also do not require load charges, management fees, and minimum investment amounts.6.Hedge funds have much less regulation since they are part of private partnerships andfree from mist SEC regulation. They permit investors to take on many risks unavailable to mutual funds. Hedge funds, however, may require higher fees and provide lesstransparency to investors. This offers significant counter party risk and hedge fundinvestors need to be more careful about the firm the invest with.7.An open-end fund will have higher fees since they are actively marketing and managingtheir investor base. The fund is always looking for new investors. A unit investment trust need not spend too much time on such matters since investors find each other.8.Asset allocation funds may dramatically vary the proportions allocated to each marketin accord with the portfolio manager’s forecast of the r elative performance of eachsector. Hence, these funds are engaged in market timing and are not designed to be low-risk investment vehicles.9.a. A unit investment trusts offer low costs and stable portfolios. Since they do notchange their portfolio, the investor knows exactly what they own. They are better suited to sophisticated investors.b. Open-end mutual funds offer higher levels of service to investors. The investors donot have any administrative burdens and their money is actively managed. This is better suited for less knowledgeable investors.c. Individual securities offer the most sophisticated investors ultimate flexibility. Theyare able to save money since they are only charged the expenses they incur. Alldecisions are under the control of the investor.10. Open-end funds must honor redemptions and receive deposits from investors. This flowof money necessitates retaining cash. Close-end funds no longer take and receivemoney from investors. As such, they are free to be fully invested at all times.11. The offering price includes a 6% front-end load, or sales commission, meaning thatevery dollar paid results in only $0.94 going toward purchase of shares. Therefore: Offering price =06.0170.10$load 1NAV -=-= = $11.3812. NAV = offering price ⨯ (1 – load) = $12.30 ⨯ 0.95 = $11.6913. HW14. Value of stocks sold and replaced = $15,000,000Turnover rate = 000,000,42$000,000,15$= 0.357 = 35.7%15.a. NAV =million5million 3$million 200$-= $39.40b. Premium (or discount) = NAV NAV ice Pr - = 40.39$40.39$36$-= –0.086 = -8.6% The fund sells at an 8.6% discount from NAV16. Rate of return = NAV year of Start ons Distributi )NAV (+∆ = 50.12$50.1$40.0$+-= 0.0880 = 8.80%17.HW18.Assume a hypothetical investment of $100.Loaded upa. Year 1 = 100 x (1+.06-.0175) = 104.25b. Year 3 = 100 x (1+.06-.0175)^3 = 116.30c. Year 10 = 100 x (1+.06-.0175)^10 = 151.62Economy funda. Year 1 = 100 x .98 x (1+.06-.0025) = 103.64b. Year 3 = 100 x .98 x (1+.06-.0025) ^ 3 = 115.90c. Year 10 = 100 x .98 x (1+.06-.0025) ^ 10 = 171.4119.NAVa. (450,000,000 – 10,000,000) / 44,000,000 = $10 per shareb. (440,000,000 – 10,000,000) / 43,000,000 = $10 per share20.a.Empirical research indicates that past performance of mutual funds is not highlypredictive of future performance, especially for better-performing funds. Whilethere may be some tendency for the fund to be an above average performer nextyear, it is unlikely to once again be a top 10% performer.b.On the other hand, the evidence is more suggestive of a tendency for poorperformance to persist. This tendency is probably related to fund costs andturnover rates. Thus if the fund is among the poorest performers, investorswould be concerned that the poor performance will persist.21. Start of year NAV = $20Dividends per share = $0.20End of year NAV is based on the 8% price gain, less the 1% 12b-1 fee:End of year NAV = $20 ⨯ 1.08 ⨯ (1 – 0.01) = $21.384 Rate of return =20$20.0$20$384.21$+-= 0.0792 = 7.92%22. The excess of purchases over sales must be due to new inflows into the fund. Therefore,$400 million of stock previously held by the fund was replaced by new holdings. So turnover is: $400/$2,200 = 0.182 = 18.2%23. Fees paid to investment managers were: 0.007 ⨯ $2.2 billion = $15.4 millionSince the total expense ratio was 1.1% and the management fee was 0.7%, we conclude that 0.4% must be for other expenses. Therefore, other administrative expenses were: 0.004 ⨯ $2.2 billion = $8.8 million24. As an initial approximation, your return equals the return on the shares minus the totalof the expense ratio and purchase costs: 12% - 1.2% - 4% = 6.8%But the precise return is less than this because the 4% load is paid up front, not at the end of the year.To purchase the shares, you would have had to invest: $20,000/(1 - 0.04) = $20,833The shares increase in value from $20,000 to: $20,000 ⨯ (1.12 - 0.012) = $22,160 The rate of return is: ($22,160 - $20,833)/$20,833 = 6.37%25. Suppose you have $1000 to invest. The initial investment in Class A shares is $940 netof the front-end load. After 4 years, your portfolio will be worth:$940 ⨯ (1.10)4 = $1,376.25Class B shares allow you to invest the full $1,000, but your investmentperformance net of 12b-1 fees will be only 9.5%, and you will pay a 1% back-endload fee if you sell after 4 years. Your portfolio value after 4 years will be:$1,000 ⨯ (1.095)4 = $1,437.66After paying the back-end load fee, your portfolio value will be:$1,437.66 ⨯ 0.99 = $1,423.28Class B shares are the better choice if your horizon is 4 years. With a 15-year horizon, the Class A shares will be worth:$940 ⨯ (1.10)15 = $3,926.61For the Class B shares, there is no back-end load in this case since the horizon is greater than 5 years. Therefore, the value of the Class B shares will be:$1,000 ⨯ (1.095)15 = $3,901.32At this longer horizon, Class B shares are no longer the better choice. The effect of Class B's 0.5% 12b-1 fees cumulates over time and finally overwhelms the 6% load charged to Class A investors.26. For the bond fund, the fraction of portfolio income given up to fees is:%0.4%6.0= 0.150 = 15.0%For the equity fund, the fraction of investment earnings given up to fees is:%0.12%6.0= 0.050 = 5.0%Fees are a much higher fraction of expected earnings for the bond fund, and therefore may be a more important factor in selecting the bond fund. This may help to explain why unmanaged unit investment trusts are concentrated inthe fixed income market. The advantages of unit investment trusts are low turnover and low trading costs and management fees. This is a more important concern to bond-market investors.27.a. After two years, each dollar invested in a fund with a 4% load and a portfolioreturn equal to r will grow to:$0.96 ⨯ (1 + r – 0.005)2Each dollar invested in the bank CD will grow to:$1 ⨯ (1.06)2If the mutual fund is to be the better investment, then the portfolio return, r,must satisfy:0.96 ⨯ (1 + r – 0.005)2 > (1.06)20.96 ⨯ (1 + r – 0.005)2 > 1.1236(1 + r – 0.005)2 > 1.1704 1 + r – 0.005 > 1.08191 + r > 1.0869Therefore, r > 0.0869 = 8.69%b.If you invest for six years, then the portfolio return must satisfy:0.96 ⨯ (1 + r – 0.005)6 > (1.06)6 = 1.4185(1 + r – 0.005)6 > 1.47761 + r – 0.005 > 1.06721 + r > 1.0722r > 7.22%The cutoff rate of return is lower for the six year investment because the "fixedcost" (i.e., the one-time front-end load) is spread out over a greater number ofyears.c.With a 12b-1 fee instead of a front-end load, the portfolio must earn a rate ofreturn (r) that satisfies:1 + r – 0.005 – 0.0075 > 1.06In this case, r must exceed 7.25% regardless of the investment horizon.28.The turnover rate is 50%. This means that, on average, 50% of the portfolio is sold andreplaced with other securities each year. Trading costs on the sell orders are 0.4%; and the buy orders to replace those securities entail another 0.4% in trading costs. Total trading costs will reduce portfolio returns by: 2 ⨯ 0.4% ⨯ 0.50 = 0.4%29.Suppose that finishing in the top half of all portfolio managers is purely luck, and thatthe probability of doing so in any year is exactly ½. Then the probability that anyparticular manager would finish in the top half of the sample five years in a row is (½)5 = 1/32. We would then expect to find that [350 ⨯ (1/32)] = 11 managers finish in the top half for each of the five consecutive years. This is precisely what we found. Thus, we should not conclude that the consistent performance after five years is proof of skill.We would expect to find eleven managers exhibiting precisely this level of"consistency" even if performance is due solely to luck.。

投资学精要博迪第八版课后答案Chapter2

投资学精要博迪第八版课后答案Chapter2

投资学精要博迪第八版课后答案Chapter2CHAPTER 02 ASSET CLASSES AND FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS /doc/3f4673862.html,mon stock is an ownership share in a publicly held corporation. Common shareholders have voting rights and may receive dividends. Preferred stockrepresents nonvoting shares in a corporation, usually paying a fixed stream ofdividends. While corporate bonds are long-term debt by corporations, typically paying semi-annual coupons and returning the face value of the bond at maturity.2.While the DJIA has 30 large corporations in the index, it does not represent theoverall market nearly as well as the 500 stocks contained in The Wilshire index.The DJIA is simply too small.3.They are short term, very safe, and highly liquid. Also, their unit value almostnever changes.4.Treasury bills, certificates of d eposit, commercial paper, bankers’ acceptances,Eurodollars, repos, reserves, federal funds and brokers’ calls.5.American Depository Receipts, or ADRs, are certificates traded in U.S. marketsthat represent ownership in shares of a foreign company. Investors may alsopurchase shares of foreign companies on foreign exchanges. Lastly, investors may use international mutual funds to own shares indirectly.6.Because they produce coupons that are tax free.7.The fed funds rate is simply the rate of interest on very short-term loans amongfinancial institutions. The London Interbank Offer Rate (LIBOR) is the rate atwhich large banks in London are willing to lend money among themselves.8.General obligation bonds are backed by the local governments, while revenuebonds have proceeds attached to specific projects. A revenue bond has lessguarantees, therefore, it is riskier and will have a higher yield.9.Corporations may exclude 70% of dividends received from domestic corporationsin the computation of their taxable income.10.Limited liability means that the most shareholders can lose in event of the failureof the corporation is their original investment.11.Money market securities are referred to as “cash equivalents” because of theirgreat liquidity. The prices of money market securities are very stable, and they can be converted to cash (i.e., sold) on very short notice and with very lowtransaction costs.12.Taxable equivalent yield = .0675 / (1-.35) = .103813.a.The taxable bond. With a zero tax bracket, the after-tax yield for thetaxable bond is the same as the before-tax yield (5%), which is greaterthan the yield on the municipal bond.b.The taxable bond. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:0.05 x (1 – 0.10) = 4.5%c.You are indifferent. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:0.05 x (1 – 0.20) = 4.0%The after-tax yield is the same as that of the municipal bond.d.The municipal bond offers the higher after-tax yield for investors in taxbrackets above 20%.14.The after-tax yield on the corporate bonds is: [0.09 x (1 –0.30)] = 0.0630 =6.30%. Therefore, the municipals must offer at least 6.30% yields.15.The equivalent taxable yield (r) is: r = rm/(1 – t)a. 4.00%b. 4.44%c. 5.00%d. 5.71%16.a.You would have to pay the asked price of:107:27 = 107.8438% of par = $1,074.438b.The coupon rate is 4.875%, implying coupon payments of $48.75 annuallyor, more precisely, $24.375 semiannually.c.Current yield = Annual coupon income/price =4.875/107.8438= 0.0452 = 4.52%17.a.The closing price today is $74.92, which is $1.82 belowyesterday’s price.Therefore, yesterday’s closing price was: $74.92 + $1.82 = $76.74b.You could buy: $5,000/$74.92 = 66.74 sharesc.Your annual dividend income would be 1.90 % of $5,000, or $95.d.Earnings per share can be derived from the price-earnings (PE) ratio.Price/Earnings = 13 and Price = $74.92 so that Earnings = $74.92/13 =$5.763118.a.At t = 0, the value of the index is: (90 + 50 + 100)/3 = 80At t = 1, the value of the index is: (95 + 45 + 110)/3 = 83.3333 The rate of return is: (83.3333/80) – 1 = 4.167%b.In the absence of a split, stock C would sell for 110, and the value of theindex would be: (95 + 45 + 110)/3 = 83.3333After the split, stock C sells at 55. Therefore, we need to set the divisor (d)such that:83.3333 = (95 + 45 + 55)/d…..d = 2.340c.The rate of return is zero. The index remains unchanged, as it should,since the return on each stock separately equals zero.19.a.Total market value at t = 0 is: (9,000 + 10,000 + 20,000) = 39,000Total market value at t = 1 is: (9,500 + 9,000 + 22,000) = 40,500Rate of return = (40,500/39,000) – 1 = 3.85%b.The return on each stock is as follows:R a = (95/90) – 1 = 0.0556R b = (45/50) – 1 = –0.10R c = (110/100) – 1 = 0.10The equally-weighted average is: [0.0556 + (-0.10) + 0.10]/3 =0.0185 = 1.85%20.The fund would require constant readjustment since every change in the price of astock would bring the fund asset allocation out of balance.21.It would increase by 19 points. (60 – 3) / 3 = 1922.Price3.4% x (87/360) = 0.8217% or a $ price of $10,000 x (1-.008217) = $9,917.83Equivalent Yield10,000 / 9,9917.83 = 1.0083 x 365/87 = 4.23%23.a.The higher coupon bondb.The call with the lower exercise pricec.The put on the lower priced stock24.a.The December maturity futures price is $5.116 per bushel. If the contractcloses at $5.25 per bushel in December, your profit / loss on each contract(for delivery of 5,000 bushels of corn) will be: ($5.25 - $5.116) x 5000 =$ 670 gain.b.There are 5114,099 contracts outstanding, representing 570,495,000bushels of corn.25.a.Yes. As long as the stock price at expiration exceeds the exercise price, itmakes sense to exercise the call.Gross profit is: $111 - $ 105 = $6Net profit = $6 – $ 22.40 = $16.40 lossRate of return = -16.40 / 22.40 = - .7321 or 73.21% lossb.Yes, exercise.Gross profit is: $111 - $ 100 = $11Net profit = $11 – $ 22.40 = $11.40 lossRate of return = -11.40 / 22.40 = 0.5089 or 50.89 % lossc. A put with exercise price $105 would expire worthless for any stock priceequal to or greater than $105. An investor in such a put would have a rateof return over the holding period of –100%.26.a.Long callb.Long putc.Short putd.Short call27.There is always a chance that the option will expire in the money. Investors willpay something for this chance of a positive payoff.28.Value of callInitial Cost Profitat expirationa. 0 4 -4b. 0 4 -4c. 0 4 -4d. 5 4 1e. 10 4 6Value of putInitial Cost Profitat expirationa. 10 6 4b. 5 6 -1c. 0 6 -6d. 0 6 -6e. 0 6 -629.The spread will widen. Deterioration of the economy increases credit risk, that is,the likelihood of default. Investors will demand a greater premium on debtsecurities subject to default risk.30.Eleven stocks have a 52 week high at least 150% above the 52 week low.Individual stocks are much more volatile than a group of stocks.31.The total before-tax income is $4. After the 70% exclusion, taxable income is:0.30 x $4 = $1.20Therefore:Taxes = 0.30 x $1.20 = $0.36After-tax income = $4 – $0.36 = $3.64After-tax rate of return = $3.64 / $40 = 9.10%32.A put option conveys the right to sell the underlying asset at the exercise price. Ashort position in a futures contract carries an obligation to sell the underlyingasset at the futures price.33.A call option conveys the right to buy the underlying asset at the exercise price.A long position in a futures contract carries an obligation to buy the underlyingasset at the futures price.CFA 1Answer: c。

博迪《投资学》笔记和课后习题详解(证券是如何交易的)【圣才出品】

博迪《投资学》笔记和课后习题详解(证券是如何交易的)【圣才出品】
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圣才电子书 十万种考研考证电子书、题库视频学习平台

场外交易市场(OTC)是指在证券交易所之外的证券交易市场,是由证券经营机构单独 或共同设立的非集中地进行证券交易的场所,如证券交易中心、报价中心、柜台交易或转让 的场所。其交易价格采取“一对一”的议价方式。该市场可进行股票整数交易,也可进行股 票零数交易。在该市场上交易的股票通常以非上市股票为主。
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圣才电子书 十万种考研考证电子书、题库视频学习平台

向。统计潜在投资者的过程称为预约准备。预约可以为发行公司提供有价值的信息,因为大 机构投资者时常对证券市场的需求、发行公司的前景、竞争者情况具有敏锐的洞察力。
②首次公开发行的折价 首次公开发行的折价是指首次公开发行的价格通常是偏低的,股票在公开证券市场交易 的当天经常发生价格暴涨。 ③首次公开发行的成本 首次公开发行的直接成本通常约为筹资总额的 7%,而首次公开发行的偏低定价可以看 作是另一种成本。
全国证券交易商协会自动报价系统 NASDAQ(纳斯达克)是美国最著名的场外交易市 场。
③三级市场与四级市场 三级市场是指证券在交易所上市却在场外市场进行交易的市场,即上市股票的场外交易 市场。 四级市场是指投资者之间直接交易在证券交易所上市或在场外市场交易的证券,无经纪 人介入的证券交易市场。该市场适应机构投资者(如大公司)买卖上市股票的特殊需要,一 般利用电子计算机网络系统直接进行交易,可节省可观的交易费用。由于电子通信网络(ECN) 的出现,四级市场特有的投资者之间的直接交易近年来急剧增加。 ④全国交易系统 网络市场交易系统(ITS)通过电脑使不同交易所联系在一起,并允许经纪人和做市商可 以跨市场交易,构成了一个全国交易系统。 (2)交易所交易 ①参与者 由于经纪人公司在交易所拥有席位,佣金经纪商(commission broker)有权在交易所大 厅完成委托交易。 大厅经纪人(floor brokers)是交易所的独立会员,他们拥有属于自己的席位,当佣金经 纪商的订单过多而无力处理时,大厅经纪人可代为处理。

博迪《投资学》笔记及习题(行为金融与技术分析)【圣才出品】

博迪《投资学》笔记及习题(行为金融与技术分析)【圣才出品】

第12章行为金融与技术分析12.1 复习笔记1.来自行为学派的批评(1)行为金融学的立足点①非理性行为。

传统的金融理论忽视了现实人决策的过程,以及个体间的差异性。

越来越多的经济学家认为资本市场的异象是由一些非理性行为导致的,而且这些非理性行为就体现在个人投资者进行复杂决策的过程中。

这些非理性行为可以分为两大类:a.投资者通常不能正确处理信息,从而不能正确推断未来收益率的概率分布;b.即使给定未来收益的概率分布,投资者做出的决策通常是前后矛盾的或次优的。

非理性投资者的存在本身不足以导致资本市场无效。

如果非理性行为能够影响证券价格,敏锐的套利者就会利用这些套利机会,使价格回归真实价值。

②实际中套利行为受到限制。

假如套利活动的确受到限制,那么无套利的市场也不一定就是有效的。

(2)非理性行为①信息处理信息处理的错误将导致投资者对可能发生的事件的概率以及相关收益率做出错误估计,比较重要的四个偏差类型有:a.预测错误。

当做预测时,人们经常会过于依赖近期经验而非先验信念(也被称为记忆偏差),在信息存在很大不确定性的时候做出极端预测。

b.过度自信。

人们往往会高估自己信念和预测的准确性,并高估自己的能力。

c.保守主义。

保守主义偏差指投资者对最近出现的事件反应太慢(太保守)。

这种偏差会导致股市市场收益的动量效应。

d.忽视样本规模和代表性。

代表性偏差指通常人们似乎不考虑样本的规模,推理时将一个小样本视为一个大的样本,使之作为一个总体的代表,然后根据这个小的样本很快得出一种模式并以此来预测未来。

这种模式会导致过度反应或反应不足的异象。

②行为偏差即使信息处理是完美的,个人利用信息做决策时也不是完全理性的。

这些行为偏差在很大程度上影响投资者如何处理风险-报酬问题,以及他们对风险-报酬的权衡。

a.框定偏差:投资选择的构建似乎会影响投资者的决策。

人们在利益面前是风险厌恶型的,而面临损失时又是风险偏好的。

但在许多情况下,投资者在盈利或者亏损时确定的有风险的投资框架是很随意的。

Investments 8ed Bodie 投资学 第八版 博迪 习题答案

Investments 8ed Bodie 投资学 第八版 博迪 习题答案

Investments 8ed Bodie 投资学第八版博迪习题答案CHAPTER 1 THE INVESTMENT ENVIRONMENTPROBLEM SETS1 Ultimately it is true that real assets determine the material well being of an economy Nevertheless individuals can benefit when financial engineering creates new products that allow them to manage their portfolios of financial assets more efficiently Because bundling and unbundling creates financial products with new properties and sensitivities to various sources of risk it allows investors to hedge particular sources of risk more efficientlySecuritization requires access to a large number of potential investors To attract these investors the capital market needsa safe system of business laws and low probability of confiscatory taxationregulationa well-developed investment banking industrya well-developed system of brokerage and financialtransactions andwell-developed media particularly financial reportingThese characteristics are found in indeed make for a well-developed financial market3 Securitization leads to disintermediation that is securitization provides a means for market participants to bypass intermediaries For example mortgage-backed securities channel funds to the housing market without requiring that banks or thrift institutions make loans from their own portfolios As securitization progresses financial intermediaries must increase other activities such as providing short-term liquidity to consumers and small business and financial services4 Financial assets make it easy for large firms to raise the capital needed to finance their investments in real assets If General Motors for example could not issue stocks or bonds to the general public it would have a far more difficult time raising capital Contraction of the supply of financial assets would make financing more difficult thereby increasing the cost of capital A higher cost of capital results in less investment and lower real growth5 Even if the firm does not need to issue stock in any particular year the stock market is still important to the financial manager The stock price provides important information about how the market values the firms investment projects For example if the stock price rises considerably managers might conclude that the market believes the firms future prospects are bright This might be a useful signal to the firm to proceed with an investment such as an expansion of the firms businessIn addition the fact that shares can be traded in the secondary market makes the shares more attractive to investors since investors know that when they wish to they will be able to sell their shares This in turn makes investors more willing to buy shares in a primary offering and thus improves the terms on which firms can raise money in the equity market6 a Cash is a financial asset because it is the liability of the federal governmentb No The cash does not directly add to the productive capacity of the economyc Yesd Society as a whole is worse off since taxpayers as a group will make up for the liability7 a The bank loan is a financial liability for Lanni Lannis IOU is the banks financial asset The cash Lanni receives is a financial asset The new financial asset created is Lannis promissory note that is Lannis IOU to the bankb Lanni transfers financial assets cash to the software developers In return Lanni gets a real asset the completed software No financial assets are created or destroyed cash is simply transferred from one party to anotherc Lanni gives the real asset the software to Microsoft in exchange for a financial asset 1500 shares of Microsoft stock If Microsoft issues new shares in order to pay Lanni then this would represent the creation of new financial assetsd Lanni exchanges one financial asset 1500 shares of stock for another 120000 Lanni gives a financial asset 50000 cash to the bank and gets back another financial asset its IOU The loan is "destroyed" in the transaction since itis retired when paid off and no longer exists8 aAssets LiabilitiesShareholders equity Cash 70000 Bank loan50000 Computers 30000 Shareholders equity 50000 Total 100000 Total 100000 Ratio of real assets to total assets 30000100000 030bAssets LiabilitiesShareholders equity Software product 70000Bank loan 50000 Computers 30000Shareholders equity 50000 Total 100000Total 100000 Valued at costRatio of real assets to total assets 100000100000 10 cAssets LiabilitiesShareholders equity Microsoft shares 120000Bank loan 50000 Computers 30000Shareholders equity 100000 Total 150000Total 150000 Ratio of real assets to total assets 30000150000 020Conclusion when the firm starts up and raises working capital it is characterized by a low ratio of real assets tototal assets When it is in full production it has a high ratio of real assets to total assets When the project "shuts down" and the firm sells it off for cash financial assets once again replace real assets9 For commercial banks the ratio is 1075104109 0010For non-financial firms the ratio is 1329525164 0528 The difference should be expected primarily because the bulk of the business of financial institutions is to make loans which are financial assets for financial institutions10 a Primary-market transactionb Derivative assetsc Investors who wish to hold gold without the complication and cost of physical storage11 a A fixed salary means that compensation is at least in the short run independent of the firms success This salary structure does not tie the managers immediate compensation to the success of the firm However the manager might view this as the safest compensation structure and therefore value it more highlyb A salary that is paid in the form of stock in the firm means that the manager earns the most when the shareholders wealth is imized This structure is therefore most likely to align the interests of managers and shareholders If stock compensation is overdone however the manager might view it as overly risky since the managers career is already linked to the firm and this undiversified exposure would be exacerbated with a large stock position in the firmc Call options on shares of the firm create great incentives for managers to contribute to the firms success In some cases however stock options can lead to other agency problems For example a manager with numerous call options might be tempted to take on a very risky investment project reasoning that if the project succeeds the payoff will be huge while if it fails the losses are limited to the lost value of the options Shareholders in contrast bear the losses as wellas the gains on the project and might be less willing to assume that risk12 Even if an individual shareholder could monitor and improve managers performance and thereby increase the value of the firm the payoff would be small since the ownership share in a large corporation would be very small For example if you own 10000 of GM stock and can increase the value of the firm by 5 a very ambitious goal you benefit by only 005 10000 500 In contrast a bank that has a multimillion-dollar loan outstanding to the firm has a big stake in making sure that the firm can repay the loan It is clearly worthwhile for the bank to spend considerable resources to monitor the firm13 Mutual funds accept funds from small investors and invest on behalf of these investors in the national and international securities marketsPension funds accept funds and then invest on behalf of current and future retirees thereby channeling funds from one sector of the economy to anotherVenture capital firms pool the funds of private investors and invest in start-up firmsBanks accept deposits from customers and loan those funds to businesses or use the funds to buy securities of largecorporations14 Treasury bills serve a purpose for investors who prefer a low-risk investment The lower average rate of return compared to stocks is the price investors pay for predictability of investment performance and portfolio value15 With a top-down investing style you focus on asset allocation or the broad composition of the entire portfolio which is the major determinant of overall performance Moreover top-down management is the natural way to establish a portfolio with a level of risk consistent with your risk tolerance The disadvantage of an exclusive emphasis on top-down issues is that you may forfeit the potential high returns that could result from identifying and concentrating in undervalued securities or sectors of the market With a bottom-up investing style you try to benefit from identifying undervalued securities The disadvantage is that you tend to overlook the overall composition of your portfolio which may result in a non-diversified portfolio or a portfolio with a risk level inconsistent with your level of risk tolerance In addition this technique tends to require more active management thus generating more transaction costs Finally your analysis may be incorrect in which case you will have fruitlessly expended effort and money attempting to beat a simple buy-and-hold strategy16 You should be skeptical If the author actually knows how to achieve such returns one must question why the author would then be so ready to sell the secret to others Financialmarkets are very competitive one of the implications of this fact is that riches do not come easily High expected returns require bearing some risk and obvious bargains are few and far between Odds are that the only one getting rich from the book is its author17 a The SEC website defines the difference between saving and investing in terms of the investment alternatives or the financial assets the individual chooses to acquire According to the SEC website saving is the process of acquiring a safe financial asset and investing is the process of acquiring risky financial assetsb The economists definition of savings is the difference between income and consumption Investing is the process of allocating ones savings among available assets both real assets and financial assets The SEC definitions actually represent according the economists definition two kinds of investment alternatives18 As is the case for the SEC definitions see Problem 17 the SIA defines saving and investing as acquisition of alternative kinds of financial assets According to the SIA saving is the process of acquiring safe assets generally from a bank while investing is the acquisition of other financialassets such as stocks and bonds On the other hand the definitions in the chapter indicate that saving means spending less than ones income Investing is the process of allocating ones savings among financial assets including savings account deposits and money market accounts saving according to the SIA other financial assets such as stocks and bonds investing according to the SIA as well as real assetsCHAPTER 2 ASSET CLASSES ANDFINANCIAL INSTRUMENTSPROBLEM SETS1 Preferred stock is like long-term debt in that it typically promises a fixed payment each year In this way it is a perpetuity Preferred stock is also like long-term debt in that it does not give the holder voting rights in the firm Preferred stock is like equity in that the firm is under no contractual obligation to make the preferred stock dividend payments Failure to make payments does not set off corporate bankruptcy With respect to the priority of claims to the assets of the firm in the event of corporate bankruptcy preferred stock has a higher priority than common equity but a lower priority than bonds2 Money market securities are called cash equivalentsbecause of their great liquidity The prices of money market securities are very stable and they can be converted to cash ie sold on very short notice and with very low transaction costs3 The spread will widen Deterioration of the economy increases credit risk that is the likelihood of default Investors will demand a greater premium on debt securities subject to default risk4 On the day we tried this experiment 36 of the 50 stocks met this criterion leading us to conclude that returns on stock investments can be quite volatile5 a You would have to pay the asked price of11831 11896875 of par 11896875b The coupon rate is 11750 implying coupon payments of 11750 annually or more precisely 5875 semiannually Current yield Annual coupon incomeprice1175011896875 00988 9886 P 10000102 9803927 The total before-tax income is 4 After the 70 exclusion for preferred stock dividends the taxable income is 030 4 120Therefore taxes are 030 120 036After-tax income is 400 – 036 364Rate of return is 3644000 9108 a General Dynamics closed today at 7459 which was 017 higher than yesterdays price Yesterdays closing price was 7442b You could buy 50007459 6703 sharesc Your annual dividend income would be 6703 092 6167d The price-to-earnings ratio is 16 and the price is 7459 Therefore7459Earnings per share 16 Earnings per share 4669 a At t 0 the value of the index is 90 50 100 3 80At t 1 the value of the index is 95 45 110 3 83333 The rate of return is 8333380 1 417In the absence of a split Stock C would sell for 110 so the value of the index would be 2503 83333After the split Stock C sells for 55 Therefore we need to find the divisor d such that83333 95 45 55 d d 2340c The return is zero The index remains unchanged becausethe return for each stock separately equals zero10 a Total market value at t 0 is 9000 10000 20000 39000Total market value at t 1 is 9500 9000 22000 40500Rate of return 4050039000 – 1 385The return on each stock is as followsrA 9590 – 1 00556rB 4550 – 1 –010rC 110100 – 1 010The equally-weighted average is[00556 -010 010]3 00185 18511 The after-tax yield on the corporate bonds is 009 1– 030 00630 630Therefore municipals must offer at least 630 yields12 Equation 22 shows that the equivalent taxable yield is r rm 1 – ta 400b 444c 500d 57113 a The higher coupon bondb The call with the lower exercise pricec The put on the lower priced stock14 a You bought the contract when the futures price was 142750 see Figure 212 The contract closes at a price of 1300 which is 12750 less than the original futures price The contract multiplier is 250 Therefore the loss will be12750 250 31875b Open interest is 601655 contracts15 a Since the stock price exceeds the exercise price you will exercise the callThe payoff on the option will be 42 40 2The option originally cost 214 so the profit is 200 214014Rate of return 014214 00654 654b If the call has an exercise price of 4250 you would not exercise for any stock price of 4250 or less The loss on the call would be the initial cost 072c Since the stock price is less than the exercise price you will exercise the putThe payoff on the option will be 4250 4200 050The option originally cost 183 so the profit is 050 183 133Rate of return 133183 07268 726816 There is always a possibility that the option will be in-the-money at some time prior to expiration Investors will pay something for this possibility of a positive payoff17Value of call at expiration Initial Cost Profita 0 4 -4b 0 4 -4 c0 4 -4 d 5 4 1 e 10 46Value of put at expiration Initial Cost Profita 10 6 4b 5 6 -1c 06 -6 d 0 6 -6 e 0 6-618 A put option conveys the right to sell the underlying asset at the exercise price A short position in a futures contract carries an obligation to sell the underlying asset at the futures price19 A call option conveys the right to buy the underlying asset at the exercise price A long position in a futures contract carries an obligation to buy the underlying asset at the futures priceCFA PROBLEMSd2 The equivalent taxable yield is 675 1 034 10233 a Writing a call entails unlimited potential losses as the stock price rises4 a The taxable bond With a zero tax bracket the after-tax yield for the taxable bond is the same as the before-tax yield5 which is greater than the yield on the municipal bondThe taxable bond The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is005 1 – 010 45You are indifferent The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is005 1 – 020 40The after-tax yield is the same as that of the municipal bondd The municipal bond offers the higher after-tax yield for investors in tax brackets above 20If the after-tax yields are equal then 0056 008 1 –tThis implies that t 030 30CHAPTER 3 HOW SECURITIES ARE TRADEDPROBLEM SETSAnswers to this problem will vary2 The SuperDot system expedites the flow of orders from exchange members to the specialists It allows members to send computerized orders directly to the floor of the exchange whichallows the nearly simultaneous sale of each stock in a large portfolio This capability is necessary for program trading3 The dealer sets the bid and asked price Spreads should be higher on inactively traded stocks and lower on actively traded stocks4 a In principle potential losses are unbounded growing directly with increases in the price of IBMb If the stop-buy order can be filled at 128 the imum possible loss per share is 8 If the price of IBM shares goes above 128 then the stop-buy order would be executed limiting the losses from the short sale5 a The stock is purchased for 300 40 12000The amount borrowed is 4000 Therefore the investor put up equity or margin of 8000If the share price falls to 30 then the value of the stock falls to 9000 By the end of the year the amount of the loan owed to the broker grows to4000 108 4320Therefore the remaining margin in the investors account is 9000 4320 4680The percentage margin is now 46809000 052 52Therefore the investor will not receive a margin callThe rate of return on the investment over the year isEnding equity in the account Initial equity Initial equity4680 8000 8000 0415 4156 a The initial margin was 050 1000 40 20000As a result of the increase in the stock price Old Economy Traders loses10 1000 10000Therefore margin decreases by 10000 Moreover Old Economy Traders must pay the dividend of 2 per share to the lender of the shares so that the margin in the account decreases by an additional 2000 Therefore the remaining margin is 20000 – 10000 – 2000 8000b The percentage margin is 800050000 016 16So there will be a margin callc The equity in the account decreased from 20000 to 8000 in one year for a rate of return of 1200020000 060 607 Much of what the specialist does eg crossing orders and maintaining the limit order book can be accomplished by a computerized system In fact some exchanges use an automated system for night trading A more difficult issue to resolve is whether the more discretionary activities of specialists involving trading for their own accounts eg maintaining an orderly market can be replicated by a computer system8 a The buy order will be filled at the best limit-sell order price 5025b The next market buy order will be filled at the next-best limit-sell order price 5150c You would want to increase your inventory There is considerable buying demand at prices just below 50 indicating that downside risk is limited In contrast limit sell orders are sparse indicating that a moderate buy order could result in a substantial price increase9 a You buy 200 shares of Telecom for 10000 These shares increase in value by 10 or 1000 You pay interest of 008 5000 400The rate of return will be012 12b The value of the 200 shares is 200P Equity is 200P –5000 You will receive a margin call when030 when P 3571 or lower10 a Initial margin is 50 of 5000 or 2500b Total assets are 7500 5000 from the sale of the stock and 2500 put up for margin Liabilities are 100P Therefore equity is 7500 – 100P A margin call will be issued when 030 when P 5769 or higher11 The total cost of the purchase is 40 500 20000You borrow 5000 from your broker and invest 15000 of your own funds Your margin account starts out with equity of 15000a i Equity increases to 44 500 – 5000 17000Percentage gain 200015000 01333 1333ii With price unchanged equity is unchangedPercentage gain zeroiii Equity falls to 36 500 – 5000 13000Percentage gain –200015000 –01333 –1333The relationship between the percentage return and the percentage change in the price of the stock is given by return change in price change in price 1333 For example when the stock price rises from 40 to 44 the percentage change in price is 10 while the percentage gain forthe investor isreturn 10 1333b The value of the 500 shares is 500P Equity is 500P –5000 You will receive a margin call when025 when P 1333 or lowerc The value of the 500 shares is 500P But now you have borrowed 10000 instead of 5000 Therefore equity is 500P –10000 You will receive a margin call when025 when P 2667With less equity in the account you are far more vulnerable to a margin callBy the end of the year the amount of the loan owed to the broker grows to5000 108 5400The equity in your account is 500P –5400 Initial equity was 15000 Therefore your rate of return after one year is as followsi 01067 1067ii –00267 –267–01600 –1600The relationship between the percentage return and the percentage change in the price of Intel is given by returnFor example when the stock price rises from 40 to 44 the percentage change in price is 10 while the percentage gain for the investor is1067e The value of the 500 shares is 500P Equity is 500P –5400 You will receive a margin call when025 when P 1440 or lower12 a The gain or loss on the short position is –500 PInvested funds 15000Therefore rate of return –500 P 15000The rate of return in each of the three scenarios isi rate of return –500 15000 –01333 –1333ii rate of return –500 15000 0iii rate of return [–500 –4 ]15000 01333 1333b Total assets in the margin account equal20000 from the sale of the stock 15000 the initial margin 35000Liabilities are 500P You will receive a margin call when 025 when P 56 or higherWith a 1 dividend the short position must now pay on the borrowed shares 1share 500 shares 500 Rate of return is now[ –500 P – 500]15000i rate of return [ –500 4 –500]15000 –01667 –1667ii rate of return [ –500 0 –500]15000 –00333 –333iii rate of return [ –500 –4 – 500]15000 01000 1000Total assets are 35000 and liabilities are 500P 500 A margin call will be issued when025 when P 5520 or higher13 The broker is instructed to attempt to sell your Marriott stock as soon as the Marriott stock trades at a bid price of 38 or less Here the broker will attempt to execute but may not be able to sell at 38 since the bid price is now 3795 The price at which you sell may be more or less than 38 because the stop-loss becomes a market order to sell at current market prices14 a 5550b 5525c The trade will not be executed because the bid price is lower than the price specified in the limit sell orderd The trade will not be executed because the asked price is greater than the price specified in the limit buy order15 a In an exchange market there can be price improvement in the two market orders Brokers for each of the market orders ie the buy order and the sell order can agree to execute a trade inside the quoted spread For example they can trade at 5537 thus improving the price for both customers by 012 or 013 relative to the quoted bid and asked prices The buyer gets the stock for 013 less than the quoted asked price and the seller receives 012 more for the stock than the quoted bid priceb Whereas the limit order to buy at 5537 would not be executed in a dealer market since the asked price is 5550 it could be executed in an exchange market A broker for another customer with an order to sell at market would view the limit buy order as the best bid price the two brokers could agree to the trade and bring it to the specialist who would then execute the trade16 a You will not receive a margin call You borrowed 20000 and with another 20000 of your own equity you bought 1000 shares of Disney at 40 per share At 35 per share the market value of the stock is 35000 your equity is 15000 and the percentage margin is 1500035000 429Your percentage margin exceeds the required maintenance marginYou will receive a margin call when035 when P 3077 or lowerThe proceeds from the short sale net of commission were14 100 – 50 1350A dividend payment of 200 was withdrawn from the account Covering the short sale at 9 per share cost you including commission 900 50 950Therefore the value of your account is equal to the net profit on the transaction1350 – 200 – 950 200Note that your profit 200 equals 100 shares profit per share of 2 Your net proceeds per share was14 selling price of stock–9 repurchase price of stock–2 dividend per share–1 2 trades 050 commission per share2CFA PROBLEMS1 a In addition to the explicit fees of 70000 FBN appears to have paid an implicit price in underpricing of the IPO The underpricing is 3 per share or a total of 300000 implying total costs of 370000b No The underwriters do not capture the part of the costs corresponding to the underpricing The underpricing may be arational marketing strategy Without it the underwriters would need to spend more resources in order to place the issue with the public The underwriters would then need to charge higher explicit fees to the issuing firm The issuing firm may be just as well off paying the implicit issuance cost represented by the underpricing2 d The broker will sell at current market price after the first transaction at 55 or less3 dCHAPTER 4 MUTUAL FUNDS ANDOTHER INVESTMENT COMPANIESPROBLEM SETS1 The unit investment trust should have lower operating expenses Because the investment trust portfolio is fixed once the trust is established it does not have to pay portfolio managers to constantly monitor and rebalance the portfolio as perceived needs or opportunities change Because the portfolio is fixed the unit investment trust also incurs virtually no trading costs2 a Unit investment trusts diversification from large-scale investing lower transaction costs associated with large-scale trading low management fees predictable portfoliocomposition guaranteed low portfolio turnover rateb Open-end mutual funds diversification from large-scale investing lower transaction costs associated with large-scale trading professional management that may be able to take advantage of buy or sell opportunities as they arise record keepingc Individual stocks and bonds No management fee realization of capital gains or losses can be coordinated with investors personal tax situations portfolio can be designed to investors specific risk profile3 Open-end funds are obligated to redeem investors shares at net asset value and thus must keep cash or cash-equivalent securities on hand in order to meet potential redemptions Closed-end funds do not need the cash reserves because there are no redemptions for closed-end funds Investors in closed-end funds sell their shares when they wish to cash out4 Balanced funds keep relatively stable proportions of funds invested in each asset class They are meant as convenient instruments to provide participation in a range of asset classes Life-cycle funds are balanced funds whose asset mix generally depends on the age of the investor Aggressive life-cycle funds with larger investments in equities are。

投资学(金德环)1-10课后习题解答

投资学(金德环)1-10课后习题解答
A B C D E 19% 15% 7% 16.6% 0.8 1.5 12% 0 8% 15% 81 36 0 12.926%
E ( Ri ) R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ]i (1) E ( RA ) R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ] A R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ]*0.8 (2) E ( RB ) R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ] B 19% R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ]*1.5 (3) E ( RC ) R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ]C 15% R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ]C (4) E ( RD ) R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ] D 7% R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ]*0 (5) E ( RE ) R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ] E 16.6% R f [ E ( Rm ) R f ]*1.2
证券 A B C
n
贝塔值 0.9 1.3 1.05
权重 0.3 0.1 0.6
p X ii 0.9*0.3 1.3*0.1 1.05*0.6 1.03
i 1

10、请根据CAPM中收益与风险的关系补充下表中 缺失的数据: i E ( Ri ) i i 2 证券名称
0.5*(16 8.25) 2 0.3*(2.5 8.25) 2 0.2*(2.5 8.25) 2 7.94
p

4、项目A的收益为4%,标准差为7.5%,项目B的收益为10 %,标准差为9% ,投资哪个项目?

方法I :变异系数(取小:B) CV 7.5% 1.88; CV 9% 0.9 A B

Essentials Of Investments 8th Ed Bodie 投资学精要(第八版)课后习题答案Chap007

Essentials Of Investments 8th Ed Bodie 投资学精要(第八版)课后习题答案Chap007

CHAPTER 07CAPITAL ASSET PRICING AND ARBITRAGE PRICINGTHEORY1. The required rate of return on a stock is related to the required rate of return on thestock market via beta. Assuming the beta of Google remains constant, the increase in the risk of the market will increase the required rate of return on the market, and thus increase the required rate of return on Google.2. An example of this scenario would be an investment in the SMB and HML. As of yet,there are no vehicles (index funds or ETFs) to directly invest in SMB and HML. While they may prove superior to the single index model, they are not yet practical, even for professional investors.3. The APT may exist without the CAPM, but not the other way. Thus, statement a ispossible, but not b. The reason being, that the APT accepts the principle of risk and return, which is central to CAPM, without making any assumptions regardingindividual investors and their portfolios. These assumptions are necessary to CAPM.4. E(r P ) = r f + β[E(r M ) – r f ]20% = 5% + β(15% – 5%) ⇒ β = 15/10 = 1.55. If the beta of the security doubles, then so will its risk premium. The current riskpremium for the stock is: (13% - 7%) = 6%, so the new risk premium would be 12%, and the new discount rate for the security would be: 12% + 7% = 19%If the stock pays a constant dividend in perpetuity, then we know from the original data that the dividend (D) must satisfy the equation for a perpetuity:Price = Dividend/Discount rate 40 = D/0.13 ⇒ D = 40 ⨯ 0.13 = $5.20 At the new discount rate of 19%, the stock would be worth: $5.20/0.19 = $27.37The increase in stock risk has lowered the value of the stock by 31.58%.6. The cash flows for the project comprise a 10-year annuity of $10 million per year plus anadditional payment in the tenth year of $10 million (so that the total payment in the tenth year is $20 million). The appropriate discount rate for the project is:r f + β[E(r M ) – r f ] = 9% + 1.7(19% – 9%) = 26% Using this discount rate:NPV = –20 + +∑=101t t26.1101026.110= –20 + [10 ⨯ Annuity factor (26%, 10 years)] + [10 ⨯ PV factor (26%, 10 years)] = 15.64The internal rate of return on the project is 49.55%. The highest value that beta can take before the hurdle rate exceeds the IRR is determined by:49.55% = 9% + β(19% – 9%) ⇒ β = 40.55/10 = 4.055 7. a. False. β = 0 implies E(r) = r f , not zero.b. False. Investors require a risk premium for bearing systematic (i.e., market orundiversifiable) risk.c. False. You should invest 0.75 of your portfolio in the market portfolio, and theremainder in T-bills. Then: βP = (0.75 ⨯ 1) + (0.25 ⨯ 0) = 0.758.a. The beta is the sensitivity of the stock's return to the market return. Call theaggressive stock A and the defensive stock D . Then beta is the change in the stock return per unit change in the market return. We compute each stock's beta by calculating the difference in its return across the two scenarios divided by the difference in market return.00.2205322A =--=β70.0205145.3D =--=βb. With the two scenarios equal likely, the expected rate of return is an average ofthe two possible outcomes: E(r A ) = 0.5 ⨯ (2% + 32%) = 17%E(r B ) = 0.5 ⨯ (3.5% + 14%) = 8.75%c. The SML is determined by the following: T-bill rate = 8% with a beta equal tozero, beta for the market is 1.0, and the expected rate of return for the market is:0.5 ⨯ (20% + 5%) = 12.5%See the following graph.812.5%S M LThe equation for the security market line is: E(r) = 8% + β(12.5% – 8%) d. The aggressive stock has a fair expected rate of return of:E(r A ) = 8% + 2.0(12.5% – 8%) = 17%The security analyst’s estimate of the expected rate of return is also 17%.Thus the alpha for the aggressive stock is zero. Similarly, the required return for the defensive stock is:E(r D ) = 8% + 0.7(12.5% – 8%) = 11.15%The security analyst’s estimate of the expected return for D is only 8.75%, and hence:αD = actual expected return – required return predicted by CAPM= 8.75% – 11.15% = –2.4%The points for each stock are plotted on the graph above.e. The hurdle rate is determined by the project beta (i.e., 0.7), not by the firm’sbeta. The correct discount rate is therefore 11.15%, the fair rate of return on stock D.9. Not possible. Portfolio A has a higher beta than Portfolio B, but the expected returnfor Portfolio A is lower.10. Possible. If the CAPM is valid, the expected rate of return compensates only forsystematic (market) risk as measured by beta, rather than the standard deviation, which includes nonsystematic risk. Thus, Portfolio A's lower expected rate of return can be paired with a higher standard deviation, as long as Portfolio A's beta is lower than that of Portfolio B.11. Not possible. The reward-to-variability ratio for Portfolio A is better than that of themarket, which is not possible according to the CAPM, since the CAPM predicts that the market portfolio is the most efficient portfolio. Using the numbers supplied:S A =5.0121016=- S M =33.0241018=-These figures imply that Portfolio A provides a better risk-reward tradeoff than the market portfolio.12. Not possible. Portfolio A clearly dominates the market portfolio. It has a lowerstandard deviation with a higher expected return.13. Not possible. Given these data, the SML is: E(r) = 10% + β(18% – 10%)A portfolio with beta of 1.5 should have an expected return of: E(r) = 10% + 1.5 ⨯ (18% – 10%) = 22%The expected return for Portfolio A is 16% so that Portfolio A plots below the SML (i.e., has an alpha of –6%), and hence is an overpriced portfolio. This is inconsistent with the CAPM.14. Not possible. The SML is the same as in Problem 12. Here, the required expectedreturn for Portfolio A is: 10% + (0.9 ⨯ 8%) = 17.2%This is still higher than 16%. Portfolio A is overpriced, with alpha equal to: –1.2%15. Possible. Portfolio A's ratio of risk premium to standard deviation is less attractivethan the market's. This situation is consistent with the CAPM. The market portfolio should provide the highest reward-to-variability ratio.16.a.b.As a first pass we note that large standard deviation of the beta estimates. None of the subperiod estimates deviate from the overall period estimate by more than two standard deviations. That is, the t-statistic of the deviation from the overall period is not significant for any of the subperiod beta estimates. Looking beyond the aforementioned observation, the differences can be attributed to different alpha values during the subperiods. The case of Toyota is most revealing: The alpha estimate for the first two years is positive and for the last two years negative (both large). Following a good performance in the "normal" years prior to the crisis, Toyota surprised investors with a negative performance, beyond what could be expected from the index. This suggests that a beta of around 0.5 is more reliable. The shift of the intercepts from positive to negative when the index moved to largely negative returns, explains why the line is steeper when estimated for the overall period. Draw a line in the positive quadrant for the index with a slope of 0.5 and positive intercept. Then draw a line with similar slope in the negative quadrant of the index with a negative intercept. You can see that a line that reconciles the observations for both quadrants will be steeper. The same logic explains part of the behavior of subperiod betas for Ford and GM.17. Since the stock's beta is equal to 1.0, its expected rate of return should be equal to thatof the market, that is, 18%. E(r) =01P P P D -+0.18 =100100P 91-+⇒ P 1 = $10918. If beta is zero, the cash flow should be discounted at the risk-free rate, 8%:PV = $1,000/0.08 = $12,500If, however, beta is actually equal to 1, the investment should yield 18%, and the price paid for the firm should be:PV = $1,000/0.18 = $5,555.56The difference ($6944.44) is the amount you will overpay if you erroneously assume that beta is zero rather than 1.ing the SML: 6% = 8% + β(18% – 8%) ⇒β = –2/10 = –0.220.r1 = 19%; r2 = 16%; β1 = 1.5; β2 = 1.0a.In order to determine which investor was a better selector of individual stockswe look at the abnormal return, which is the ex-post alpha; that is, the abnormalreturn is the difference between the actual return and that predicted by the SML.Without information about the parameters of this equation (i.e., the risk-free rateand the market rate of return) we cannot determine which investment adviser isthe better selector of individual stocks.b.If r f = 6% and r M = 14%, then (using alpha for the abnormal return):α1 = 19% – [6% + 1.5(14% – 6%)] = 19% – 18% = 1%α2 = 16% – [6% + 1.0(14% – 6%)] = 16% – 14% = 2%Here, the second investment adviser has the larger abnormal return and thusappears to be the better selector of individual stocks. By making betterpredictions, the second adviser appears to have tilted his portfolio toward under-priced stocks.c.If r f = 3% and r M = 15%, then:α1 =19% – [3% + 1.5(15% – 3%)] = 19% – 21% = –2%α2 = 16% – [3%+ 1.0(15% – 3%)] = 16% – 15% = 1%Here, not only does the second investment adviser appear to be a better stockselector, but the first adviser's selections appear valueless (or worse).21.a.Since the market portfolio, by definition, has a beta of 1.0, its expected rate ofreturn is 12%.b.β = 0 means the stock has no systematic risk. Hence, the portfolio's expectedrate of return is the risk-free rate, 4%.ing the SML, the fair rate of return for a stock with β= –0.5 is:E(r) = 4% + (–0.5)(12% – 4%) = 0.0%The expected rate of return, using the expected price and dividend for next year: E(r) = ($44/$40) – 1 = 0.10 = 10%Because the expected return exceeds the fair return, the stock must be under-priced.22.The data can be summarized as follows:ing the SML, the expected rate of return for any portfolio P is:E(r P) = r f + β[E(r M) – r f ]Substituting for portfolios A and B:E(r A) = 6% + 0.8 ⨯ (12% – 6%) = 10.8%E(r B) = 6% + 1.5 ⨯ (12% – 6%) = 15.0%Hence, Portfolio A is desirable and Portfolio B is not.b.The slope of the CAL supported by a portfolio P is given by:S =P fP σr)E(r-Computing this slope for each of the three alternative portfolios, we have:S (S&P 500) = 6/20S (A) = 5/10S (B) = 8/31Hence, portfolio A would be a good substitute for the S&P 500.23.Since the beta for Portfolio F is zero, the expected return for Portfolio F equals therisk-free rate.For Portfolio A, the ratio of risk premium to beta is: (10% - 4%)/1 = 6%The ratio for Portfolio E is higher: (9% - 4%)/(2/3) = 7.5%This implies that an arbitrage opportunity exists. For instance, you can create aPortfolio G with beta equal to 1.0 (the same as the beta for Portfolio A) by taking a long position in Portfolio E and a short position in Portfolio F (that is, borrowing at the risk-free rate and investing the proceeds in Portfolio E). For the beta of G to equal 1.0, theproportion (w) of funds invested in E must be: 3/2 = 1.5The expected return of G is then:E(r G) = [(-0.50) ⨯ 4%] + (1.5 ⨯ 9%) = 11.5%βG = 1.5 ⨯ (2/3) = 1.0Comparing Portfolio G to Portfolio A, G has the same beta and a higher expected return.Now, consider Portfolio H, which is a short position in Portfolio A with the proceedsinvested in Portfolio G:βH = 1βG + (-1)βA = (1 ⨯ 1) + [(-1) ⨯ 1] = 0E(r H) = (1 ⨯ r G) + [(-1) ⨯ r A] = (1 ⨯ 11.5%) + [(- 1) ⨯ 10%] = 1.5%The result is a zero investment portfolio (all proceeds from the short sale of Portfolio Aare invested in Portfolio G) with zero risk (because β = 0 and the portfolios are welldiversified), and a positive return of 1.5%. Portfolio H is an arbitrage portfolio.24.Substituting the portfolio returns and betas in the expected return-beta relationship, weobtain two equations in the unknowns, the risk-free rate (r f ) and the factor return (F):14.0% = r f + 1 ⨯ (F – r f )14.8% = r f + 1.1 ⨯ (F – r f )From the first equation we find that F = 14%. Substituting this value for F into the second equation, we get:14.8% = r f + 1.1 ⨯ (14% – r f ) ⇒ r f = 6%25.a.Shorting equal amounts of the 10 negative-alpha stocks and investing the proceedsequally in the 10 positive-alpha stocks eliminates the market exposure and creates azero-investment portfolio. Using equation 7.5, and denoting the market factor as R M,the expected dollar return is [noting that the expectation of residual risk (e) inequation 7.8 is zero]:$1,000,000 ⨯ [0.03 + (1.0 ⨯ R M)] – $1,000,000 ⨯ [(–0.03) + (1.0 ⨯ R M)]= $1,000,000 ⨯ 0.06 = $60,000The sensitivity of the payoff of this portfolio to the market factor is zero because theexposures of the positive alpha and negative alpha stocks cancel out. (Notice thatthe terms involving R M sum to zero.) Thus, the systematic component of total riskalso is zero. The variance of the analyst's profit is not zero, however, since thisportfolio is not well diversified.For n = 20 stocks (i.e., long 10 stocks and short 10 stocks) the investor will have a$100,000 position (either long or short) in each stock. Net market exposure is zero,but firm-specific risk has not been fully diversified. The variance of dollar returnsfrom the positions in the 20 firms is:20 ⨯ [(100,000 ⨯ 0.30)2] = 18,000,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $134,164.b.If n = 50 stocks (i.e., 25 long and 25 short), $40,000 is placed in each position,and the variance of dollar returns is:50 ⨯ [(40,000 ⨯ 0.30)2] = 7,200,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $84,853.Similarly, if n = 100 stocks (i.e., 50 long and 50 short), $20,000 is placed ineach position, and the variance of dollar returns is:100 ⨯ [(20,000 ⨯ 0.30)2] = 3,600,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $60,000.Notice that when the number of stocks increases by a factor of 5 (from 20 to 100),standard deviation falls by a factor of 5= 2.236, from $134,164 to $60,000. 26.Any pattern of returns can be "explained" if we are free to choose an indefinitely largenumber of explanatory factors. If a theory of asset pricing is to have value, it mustexplain returns using a reasonably limited number of explanatory variables (i.e.,systematic factors).27.The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty, i.e., sources ofuncertainty that are of concern to many investors. Researchers should investigatefactors that correlate with uncertainty in consumption and investment opportunities.GDP, the inflation rate and interest rates are among the factors that can be expected to determine risk premiums. In particular, industrial production (IP) is a good indicator of changes in the business cycle. Thus, IP is a candidate for a factor that is highlycorrelated with uncertainties related to investment and consumption opportunities in the economy.28.The revised estimate of the expected rate of return of the stock would be the oldestimate plus the sum of the unexpected changes in the factors times the sensitivitycoefficients, as follows:Revised estimate = 14% + [(1 ⨯ 1) + (0.4 ⨯ 1)] = 15.4%29.Equation 7.11 applies here:E(r P) = r f + βP1[E(r1) - r f] + βP2[E(r2) – r f]We need to find the risk premium for these two factors:γ1 = [E(r1) - r f] andγ2 = [E(r2) - r f]To find these values, we solve the following two equations with two unknowns: 40% = 7% + 1.8γ1 + 2.1γ210% = 7% + 2.0γ1 + (-0.5)γ2The solutions are: γ1 = 4.47% and γ2 = 11.86%Thus, the expected return-beta relationship is:E(r P) = 7% + 4.47βP1 + 11.86βP230.The first two factors (the return on a broad-based index and the level of interest rates)are most promising with respect to the likely impa ct on Jennifer’s firm’s cost of capital.These are both macro factors (as opposed to firm-specific factors) that can not bediversified away; consequently, we would expect that there is a risk premiumassociated with these factors. On the other hand, the risk of changes in the price ofhogs, while important to some firms and industries, is likely to be diversifiable, andtherefore is not a promising factor in terms of its impact on the firm’s cost of capital.31.Since the risk free rate is not given, we assume a risk free rate of 0%. The APT required(i.e., equilibrium) rate of return on the stock based on Rf and the factor betas is:Required E(r) = 0 + (1 x 6) + (0.5 x 2) + (0.75 x 4) = 10%According to the equation for the return on the stock, the actually expected return onthe stock is 6 % (because the expected surprises on all factors are zero by definition).Because the actually expected return based on risk is less than the equilibrium return,we conclude that the stock is overpriced.CFA 1a, c and dCFA 2a.E(r X) = 5% + 0.8(14% – 5%) = 12.2%αX = 14% – 12.2% = 1.8%E(r Y) = 5% + 1.5(14% – 5%) = 18.5%αY = 17% – 18.5% = –1.5%b.(i)For an investor who wants to add this stock to a well-diversified equityportfolio, Kay should recommend Stock X because of its positivealpha, while Stock Y has a negative alpha. In graphical terms, StockX’s expected return/risk profile plots above the SML, while Stock Y’sprofile plots below the SML. Also, depending on the individual riskpreferences of Kay’s clients, Stock X’s lower beta may have abeneficial impact on overall portfolio risk.(ii)For an investor who wants to hold this stock as a single-stock portfolio,Kay should recommend Stock Y, because it has higher forecastedreturn and lower standard deviation than S tock X. Stock Y’s Sharperatio is:(0.17 – 0.05)/0.25 = 0.48Stock X’s Sharpe ratio is only:(0.14 – 0.05)/0.36 = 0.25The market index has an even more attractive Sharpe ratio:(0.14 – 0.05)/0.15 = 0.60However, given the choice between Stock X and Y, Y is superior.When a stock is held in isolation, standard deviation is the relevantrisk measure. For assets held in isolation, beta as a measure of risk isirrelevant. Although holding a single asset in isolation is not typicallya recommended investment strategy, some investors may hold what isessentially a single-asset portfolio (e.g., the stock of their employercompany). For such investors, the relevance of standard deviationversus beta is an important issue.CFA 3a.McKay should borrow funds and i nvest those funds proportionally in Murray’sexisting portfolio (i.e., buy more risky assets on margin). In addition toincreased expected return, the alternative portfolio on the capital market line(CML) will also have increased variability (risk), which is caused by the higherproportion of risky assets in the total portfolio.b.McKay should substitute low beta stocks for high beta stocks in order to reducethe overall beta of York’s portfolio. By reducing the overall portfolio beta,McKay will reduce the systematic risk of the portfolio and therefore theportfolio’s volatility relative to the market. The security market line (SML)suggests such action (moving down the SML), even though reducing beta mayresult in a slight loss of portfolio efficiency unless full diversification ismaintained. York’s primary objective, however, is not to maintain efficiencybut to reduce risk exposure; reducing portfolio beta meets that objective.Because York does not permit borrowing or lending, McKay cannot reduce riskby selling equities and using the proceeds to buy risk free assets (i.e., by lendingpart of the portfolio).CFA 4c.“Both the CAPM and APT require a mean-variance efficient market portfolio.”This statement is incorrect. The CAPM requires the mean-variance efficientportfolio, but APT does not.d.“The CAPM assumes that one specific factor explains security returns but APTdoes not.” This statement is c orrect.CFA 5aCFA 6dCFA 7d You need to know the risk-free rate.CFA 8d You need to know the risk-free rate.CFA 9Under the CAPM, the only risk that investors are compensated for bearing is the riskthat cannot be diversified away (i.e., systematic risk). Because systematic risk(measured by beta) is equal to 1.0 for each of the two portfolios, an investor wouldexpect the same rate of return from each portfolio. Moreover, since both portfolios are well diversified, it does not matter whether the specific risk of the individual securities is high or low. The firm-specific risk has been diversified away from both portfolios. CFA 10b r f = 8% and E(r M) = 16%E(r X) = r f + βX[E(r M) – r f] = 8% + 1.0(16% - 8%) = 16%E(r Y) = r f + βY[E(r M) – r f] = 8% + 0.25(16% - 8%) = 10%Therefore, there is an arbitrage opportunity.CFA 11cCFA 12dCFA 13cInvestors will take on as large a position as possible only if the mis-pricingopportunity is an arbitrage. Otherwise, considerations of risk anddiversification will limit the position they attempt to take in the mis-pricedsecurity.CFA 14d。

投资学 博迪 第8版 Chap014

投资学 博迪 第8版 Chap014

14-23
Figure 14.7 The Price of a 30-Year ZeroCoupon Bond over Time at a Yield to Maturity of 10%
14-24
Default Risk and Ratings
• Rating companies
– Moody’s Investor Service – Standard & Poor’s – Fitch
• U.S. Treasury – Notes and Bonds • Corporations • Municipalities • International Governments and Corporations
14-3
Figure 14.1 Listing of Treasury Issues
• Prices and Yields (required rates of return) have an inverse relationship • When yields get very high the value of the bond will be very low • When yields approach zero, the value of the bond approaches the sum of the cash flows
14-6
Innovation in the Bond Market
• • • • Inverse Floaters Asset-Backed Bonds Catastrophe Bonds/Act of God Bonds Indexed Bonds
14-7
Table 14.1 Principal and Interest Payments for a Treasury Inflation Protected Security

(完整word版)博迪第八版投资学第十章课后习题答案

(完整word版)博迪第八版投资学第十章课后习题答案

CHAPTER 10: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORYAND MULTIFACTOR MODELS OF RISK AND RETURNPROBLEM SETS1. The revised estimate of the expected rate of return on the stock would be the oldestimate plus the sum of the products of the unexpected change in each factortimes the respective sensitivity coefficient:revised estimate = 12% + [(1 2%) + (0.5 3%)] = 15.5%2. The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty, i.e., sources ofuncertainty that are of concern to many investors. Researchers should investigate factors that correlate with uncertainty in consumption and investmentopportunities. GDP, the inflation rate, and interest rates are among the factorsthat can be expected to determine risk premiums. In particular, industrialproduction (IP) is a good indicator of changes in the business cycle. Thus, IP is acandidate for a factor that is highly correlated with uncertainties that have to dowith investment and consumption opportunities in the economy.3. Any pattern of returns can be “explained” if we are free to choose anindefinitely large number of explanatory factors. If a theory of asset pricing is tohave value, it must explain returns using a reasonably limited number ofexplanatory variables (i.e., systematic factors).4. Equation 10.9 applies here:E(r p) = r f + P1 [E(r1 ) r f ] + P2 [E(r2) – r f ]We need to find the risk premium (RP) for each of the two factors:RP1 = [E(r1) r f ] and RP2 = [E(r2) r f ]In order to do so, we solve the following system of two equations with two unknowns:31 = 6 + (1.5 RP1) + (2.0 RP2)27 = 6 + (2.2 RP1) + [(–0.2) RP2]The solution to this set of equations is:RP1 = 10% and RP2 = 5%Thus, the expected return-beta relationship is: E(r P) = 6% + (P1 10%) + (P2 5%)5. The expected return for Portfolio F equals the risk-free rate since its beta equals 0.For Portfolio A, the ratio of risk premium to beta is: (12 6)/1.2 = 5For Portfolio E, the ratio is lower at: (8 – 6)/0.6 = 3.33This implies that an arbitrage opportunity exists. For instance, you can create a Portfolio G with beta equal to 0.6 (the same as E’s) by combining Portfolio A and Portfolio F in equal weights. The expected return and beta for Portfolio G are then:E(r G ) = (0.5 12%) + (0.5 6%) = 9%G = (0.5 1.2) + (0.5 0) = 0.6Comparing Portfolio G to Portfolio E, G has the same beta and higher return.Therefore, an arbitrage opportunity exists by buying Portfolio G and selling an equal amount of Portfolio E. The profit for this arbitrage will be:r G– r E =[9% + (0.6 F)] [8% + (0.6 F)] = 1%That is, 1% of the funds (long or short) in each portfolio.6. Substituting the portfolio returns and betas in the expected return-betarelationship, we obtain two equations with two unknowns, the risk-free rate (r f ) and the factor risk premium (RP):12 = r f + (1.2 RP)9 = r f + (0.8 RP)Solving these equations, we obtain:r f = 3% and RP = 7.5%7. a. Shorting an equally-weighted portfolio of the ten negative-alpha stocks andinvesting the proceeds in an equally-weighted portfolio of the ten positive-alpha stocks eliminates the market exposure and creates a zero-investmentportfolio. Denoting the systematic market factor as R M , the expected dollarreturn is (noting that the expectation of non-systematic risk, e, is zero):$1,000,000 [0.02 + (1.0 R M )] $1,000,000 [(–0.02) + (1.0R M )]= $1,000,000 0.04 = $40,000The sensitivity of the payoff of this portfolio to the market factor is zero because the exposures of the positive alpha and negative alpha stocks cancel out. (Notice that the terms involving R M sum to zero.) Thus, the systematic component of total risk is also zero. The variance of the analyst’s profit is not zero, however, since this portfolio is not well diversified.For n = 20 stocks (i.e., long 10 stocks and short 10 stocks) the investor will have a $100,000 position (either long or short) in each stock. Net market exposure is zero, but firm-specific risk has not been fully diversified. The variance of dollar returns from the positions in the 20 stocks is: 20 [(100,000 0.30)2 ] = 18,000,000,000 The standard deviation of dollar returns is $134,164.b.If n = 50 stocks (25 stocks long and 25 stocks short), the investor will have a $40,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is: 50 [(40,000 0.30)2 ] = 7,200,000,000 The standard deviation of dollar returns is $84,853. Similarly, if n = 100 stocks (50 stocks long and 50 stocks short), the investor will have a $20,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is: 100 [(20,000 0.30)2 ] = 3,600,000,000 The standard deviation of dollar returns is $60,000. Notice that, when the number of stocks increases by a factor of 5 (i.e., from 20 to 100), standard deviation decreases by a factor of 5= 2.23607 (from $134,164 to $60,000).8. a.)e (22M 22σ+σβ=σ 88125)208.0(2222A =+⨯=σ 50010)200.1(2222B =+⨯=σ 97620)202.1(2222C =+⨯=σb.If there are an infinite number of assets with identical characteristics, then a well-diversified portfolio of each type will have only systematic risk since the non-systematic risk will approach zero with large n. The mean will equal that of the individual (identical) stocks.c. There is no arbitrage opportunity because the well-diversified portfolios allplot on the security market line (SML). Because they are fairly priced, there is no arbitrage.9. a. A long position in a portfolio (P) comprised of Portfolios A and B will offer anexpected return-beta tradeoff lying on a straight line between points A and B.Therefore, we can choose weights such that P = C but with expectedreturn higher than that of Portfolio C. Hence, combining P with a shortposition in C will create an arbitrage portfolio with zero investment, zero beta, and positive rate of return.b. The argument in part (a) leads to the proposition that the coefficient of 2must be zero in order to preclude arbitrage opportunities.10. a. E(r) = 6 + (1.2 6) + (0.5 8) + (0.3 3) = 18.1%b.Surprises in the macroeconomic factors will result in surprises in the return ofthe stock:Unexpected return from macro factors =[1.2(4 – 5)] + [0.5(6 – 3)] + [0.3(0 – 2)] = –0.3%E (r) =18.1% − 0.3% = 17.8%11. The APT required (i.e., equilibrium) rate of return on the stock based on r f and thefactor betas is:required E(r) = 6 + (1 6) + (0.5 2) + (0.75 4) = 16%According to the equation for the return on the stock, the actually expectedreturn on the stock is 15% (because the expected surprises on all factors are zero by definition). Because the actually expected return based on risk is less than the equilibrium return, we conclude that the stock is overpriced.12. The first two factors seem promising with respect to the likely impact on the firm’scost of capital. Both are macro factors that would elicit hedging demands across broad sectors of investors. The third factor, while important to Pork Products, is a poor choice for a multifactor SML because the price of hogs is of minor importance to most investors and is therefore highly unlikely to be a priced risk factor. Better choices would focus on variables that investors in aggregate might find moreimportant to their welfare. Examples include: inflation uncertainty, short-terminterest-rate risk, energy price risk, or exchange rate risk. The important point here is that, in specifying a multifactor SML, we not confuse risk factors that areimportant to a particular investor with factors that are important to investors ingeneral; only the latter are likely to command a risk premium in the capital markets.13. The maximum residual variance is tied to the number of securities (n) in theportfolio because, as we increase the number of securities, we are more likely to encounter securities with larger residual variances. The starting point is todetermine the practical limit on the portfolio residual standard deviation, (e P), that still qualifies as a ‘well-diversified portfolio.’ A reasonable approach is to compare 2(e P) to the market variance, or equivalently, to compare (e P) to the market standard deviation. Suppose we do not allow (e P) to exceed p M, where p is a small decimal fraction, for example, 0.05; then, the smaller the value wechoose for p, the more stringent our criterion for defining how diversified a‘well-diversified’ portfolio must be.Now construct a portfolio of n securities with weights w1, w2,…,w n, so that w i =1.The portfolio residual variance is: 2(e P) = w122(e i)To meet our practical definition of sufficiently diversified, we require this residual variance to be less than (p M)2. A sure and simple way to proceed is to assumethe worst, that is, assume that the residual variance of each security is the highest possible value allowed under the assumptions of the problem: 2(e i) = n2MIn that case: 2(e P) = w i2n M2Now apply the constraint: w i2 n M2 ≤ (p M)2This requires that: n w i2≤p2Or, equivalently, that: w i2 ≤p2/nA relatively easy way to generate a set of well-diversified portfolios is to useportfolio weights that follow a geometric progression, since the computations then become relatively straightforward. Choose w1 and a common factor q for thegeometric progression such that q < 1. Therefore, the weight on each stock is afraction q of the weight on the previous stock in the series. Then the sum of n terms is:w i= w1(1– q n)/(1– q) = 1or: w1 = (1– q)/(1–q n)The sum of the n squared weights is similarly obtained from w12 and a common geometric progression factor of q2. Therefore:w i2 = w12(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)Substituting for w1 from above, we obtain:w i2 = [(1– q)2/(1–q n)2] × [(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)]For sufficient diversification, we choose q so that: w i2 ≤p2/nFor example, continue to assume that p = 0.05 and n = 1,000. If we chooseq = 0.9973, then we will satisfy the required condition. At this value for q:w1 = 0.0029 and w n = 0.0029 × 0.99731,000In this case, w1 is about 15 times w n. Despite this significant departure from equalweighting, this portfolio is nevertheless well diversified. Any value of q between0.9973 and 1.0 results in a well-diversified portfolio. As q gets closer to 1, theportfolio approaches equal weighting.14. a. Assume a single-factor economy, with a factor risk premium E M and a (large)set of well-diversified portfolios with beta P. Suppose we create a portfolioZ by allocating the portion w to portfolio P and (1 – w) to the marketportfolio M. The rate of return on portfolio Z is:R Z = (w × R P) + [(1 – w) × R M]Portfolio Z is riskless if we choose w so that Z = 0. This requires that:Z = (w × P) + [(1 – w) × 1] = 0 w = 1/(1 –P) and (1 – w) = –P/(1 –P) Substitute this value for w in the expression for R Z:R Z = {[1/(1 –P)] × R P} – {[P/(1 –P)] × R M}Since Z = 0, then, in order to avoid arbitrage, R Z must be zero.This implies that: R P = P× R MTaking expectations we have:E P = P× E MThis is the SML for well-diversified portfolios.b. The same argument can be used to show that, in a three-factor model withfactor risk premiums E M, E1 and E2, in order to avoid arbitrage, we must have:E P = (PM× E M) + (P1× E1) + (P2× E2)This is the SML for a three-factor economy.15. a. The Fama-French (FF) three-factor model holds that one of the factors drivingreturns is firm size. An index with returns highly correlated with firm size (i.e.,firm capitalization) that captures this factor is SMB (Small Minus Big), thereturn for a portfolio of small stocks in excess of the return for a portfolio oflarge stocks. The returns for a small firm will be positively correlated with SMB.Moreover, the smaller the firm, the greater its residual from the other twofactors, the market portfolio and the HML portfolio, which is the return for aportfolio of high book-to-market stocks in excess of the return for a portfolioof low book-to-market stocks. Hence, the ratio of the variance of this residualto the variance of the return on SMB will be larger and, together with thehigher correlation, results in a high beta on the SMB factor.b.This question appears to point to a flaw in the FF model. The model predictsthat firm size affects average returns, so that, if two firms merge into a largerfirm, then the FF model predicts lower average returns for the merged firm.However, there seems to be no reason for the merged firm to underperformthe returns of the component companies, assuming that the component firmswere unrelated and that they will now be operated independently. We mighttherefore expect that the performance of the merged firm would be the sameas the performance of a portfolio of the originally independent firms, but theFF model predicts that the increased firm size will result in lower averagereturns. Therefore, the question revolves around the behavior of returns for aportfolio of small firms, compared to the return for larger firms that resultfrom merging those small firms into larger ones. Had past mergers of smallfirms into larger firms resulted, on average, in no change in the resultantlarger firms’ stock return characteristics (compared to the portfolio of stocksof the merged firms), the size factor in the FF model would have failed.Perhaps the reason the size factor seems to help explain stock returns is that, when small firms become large, the characteristics of their fortunes (and hence their stock returns) change in a significant way. Put differently, stocksof large firms that result from a merger of smaller firms appear empirically to behave differently from portfolios of the smaller component firms. Specifically, the FF model predicts that the large firm will have a smaller risk premium. Notice that this development is not necessarily a bad thing for the stockholders of the smaller firms that merge. The lower risk premium may be due, in part, to the increase in value of the larger firm relative to the merged firms.CFA PROBLEMS1. a. This statement is incorrect. The CAPM requires a mean-variance efficientmarket portfolio, but APT does not.b.This statement is incorrect. The CAPM assumes normally distributed securityreturns, but APT does not.c. This statement is correct.2. b. Since Portfolio X has = 1.0, then X is the market portfolio and E(R M) =16%.Using E(R M ) = 16% and r f = 8%, the expected return for portfolio Y is notconsistent.3. d.4. c.5. d.6. c. Investors will take on as large a position as possible only if the mispricingopportunity is an arbitrage. Otherwise, considerations of risk anddiversification will limit the position they attempt to take in the mispricedsecurity.7. d.8. d.。

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CHAPTER 10: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORYAND MULTIFACTOR MODELS OF RISK AND RETURNPROBLEM SETS1. The revised estimate of the expected rate of return on the stock wouldbe the old estimate plus the sum of the products of the unexpectedchange in each factor times the respective sensitivity coefficient: revised estimate = 12% + [(1 2%) + (0.5 3%)] = 15.5%2. The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty, i.e.,sources of uncertainty that are of concern to many investors.Researchers should investigate factors that correlate with uncertaintyin consumption and investment opportunities. GDP, the inflation rate,and interest rates are among the factors that can be expected todetermine risk premiums. In particular, industrial production (IP) is a good indicator of changes in the business cycle. Thus, IP is acandidate for a factor that is highly correlated with uncertaintiesthat have to do with investment and consumption opportunities in theeconomy.3. Any pattern of returns can be “explained” if we are free to choose anindefinitely large number of explanatory factors. If a theory of assetpricing is to have value, it must explain returns using a reasonablylimited number of explanatory variables (i.e., systematic factors).4. Equation 10.9 applies here:E(r p) = r f + P1 [E(r1 ) r f ] + P2 [E(r2) – r f ]We need to find the risk premium (RP) for each of the two factors: RP1 = [E(r1) r f ] and RP2 = [E(r2) r f ]In order to do so, we solve the following system of two equations with two unknowns:31 = 6 + (1.5 RP1) + (2.0 RP2)27 = 6 + (2.2 RP1) + [(–0.2) RP2]The solution to this set of equations is:RP1 = 10% and RP2 = 5%Thus, the expected return-beta relationship is: E(r P) = 6% + (P1 10%) + (P2 5%)5. The expected return for Portfolio F equals the risk-free rate since itsbeta equals 0.For Portfolio A, the ratio of risk premium to beta is: (12 6)/1.2 = 5For Portfolio E, the ratio is lower at: (8 – 6)/0.6 = 3.33This implies that an arbitrage opportunity exists. For instance, youcan create a Portfolio G with beta equal to 0.6 (the same as E’s) by combining Portfolio A and Portfolio F in equal weights. The expectedreturn and beta for Portfolio G are then:E(r G ) = (0.5 12%) + (0.5 6%) = 9%G = (0.5 1.2) + (0.5 0) = 0.6Comparing Portfolio G to Portfolio E, G has the same beta and higherreturn. Therefore, an arbitrage opportunity exists by buying PortfolioG and selling an equal amount of Portfolio E. The profit for thisarbitrage will be:r G– r E =[9% + (0.6 F)] [8% + (0.6 F)] = 1%That is, 1% of the funds (long or short) in each portfolio.6. Substituting the portfolio returns and betas in the expected return-beta relationship, we obtain two equations with two unknowns, the risk-free rate (r f ) and the factor risk premium (RP):12 = r f + (1.2 RP)9 = r f + (0.8 RP)Solving these equations, we obtain:r f = 3% and RP = 7.5%7. a. Shorting an equally-weighted portfolio of the ten negative-alphastocks and investing the proceeds in an equally-weighted portfolioof the ten positive-alpha stocks eliminates the market exposure andcreates a zero-investment portfolio. Denoting the systematic marketfactor as R M , the expected dollar return is (noting that theexpectation of non-systematic risk, e, is zero):$1,000,000 [0.02 + (1.0 R M )] $1,000,000 [(–0.02)+ (1.0 R M )]= $1,000,000 0.04 = $40,000The sensitivity of the payoff of this portfolio to the market factor is zero because the exposures of the positive alpha and negative alpha stocks cancel out. (Notice that the terms involving R M sum to zero.) Thus, the systematic component of total risk is also zero. The variance of the analyst’s profit is not zero, however, since this portfolio is not well diversified.For n = 20 stocks (i.e., long 10 stocks and short 10 stocks) the investor will have a $100,000 position (either long or short) in each stock. Net market exposure is zero, but firm-specific risk has not been fully diversified. The variance of dollar returns from the positions in the 20 stocks is: 20 [(100,000 0.30)2 ] = 18,000,000,000 The standard deviation of dollar returns is $134,164.b.If n = 50 stocks (25 stocks long and 25 stocks short), the investor will have a $40,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is: 50 [(40,000 0.30)2 ] = 7,200,000,000 The standard deviation of dollar returns is $84,853. Similarly, if n = 100 stocks (50 stocks long and 50 stocks short), the investor will have a $20,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is: 100 [(20,000 0.30)2 ] = 3,600,000,000 The standard deviation of dollar returns is $60,000. Notice that, when the number of stocks increases by a factor of 5 (i.e., from 20 to 100), standard deviation decreases by a factor of 5= 2.23607 (from $134,164 to $60,000).8. a.)e (22M 22σ+σβ=σ 88125)208.0(2222A =+⨯=σ 50010)200.1(2222B =+⨯=σ 97620)202.1(2222C =+⨯=σb.If there are an infinite number of assets with identical characteristics, then a well-diversified portfolio of each type will have only systematic risk since the non-systematic risk will approach zero with large n. The mean will equal that of the individual (identical) stocks.c. There is no arbitrage opportunity because the well-diversifiedportfolios all plot on the security market line (SML). Becausethey are fairly priced, there is no arbitrage.9. a. A long position in a portfolio (P) comprised of Portfolios A and Bwill offer an expected return-beta tradeoff lying on a straightline between points A and B. Therefore, we can choose weights suchthat P = C but with expected return higher than that ofPortfolio C. Hence, combining P with a short position in C willcreate an arbitrage portfolio with zero investment, zero beta, andpositive rate of return.b. The argument in part (a) leads to the proposition that thecoefficient of 2 must be zero in order to preclude arbitrageopportunities.10. a. E(r) = 6 + (1.2 6) + (0.5 8) + (0.3 3) = 18.1%b.Surprises in the macroeconomic factors will result in surprises inthe return of the stock:Unexpected return from macro factors =[1.2(4 – 5)] + [0.5(6 – 3)] + [0.3(0 – 2)] = –0.3%E (r) =18.1% − 0.3% = 17.8%11. The APT required (i.e., equilibrium) rate of return on the stock basedon r f and the factor betas is:required E(r) = 6 + (1 6) + (0.5 2) + (0.75 4) = 16%According to the equation for the return on the stock, the actuallyexpected return on the stock is 15% (because the expected surprises on all factors are zero by definition). Because the actually expectedreturn based on risk is less than the equilibrium return, we conclude that the stock is overpriced.12. The first two factors seem promising with respect to the likely impacton the firm’s cost of capital. Both are macro factors that would elicit hedging demands across broad sectors of investors. The third factor,while important to Pork Products, is a poor choice for a multifactor SML because the price of hogs is of minor importance to most investors and is therefore highly unlikely to be a priced risk factor. Better choices would focus on variables that investors in aggregate might find moreimportant to their welfare. Examples include: inflation uncertainty,short-term interest-rate risk, energy price risk, or exchange rate risk.The important point here is that, in specifying a multifactor SML, we not confuse risk factors that are important to a particular investorwith factors that are important to investors in general; only the latter are likely to command a risk premium in the capital markets.13. The maximum residual variance is tied to the number of securities (n)in the portfolio because, as we increase the number of securities, weare more likely to encounter securities with larger residual variances.The starting point is to determine the practical limit on the portfolio residual standard deviation, (e P), that still qualifies as a ‘well-diversified portfolio.’ A reasonable approach is to compare 2(e P) to the market variance, or equivalently, to compare (e P) to the marketstandard deviation. Suppose we do not allow (e P) to exceed p M, where p is a small decimal fraction, for example, 0.05; then, the smaller the value we choose for p, the more stringent our criterion for defininghow diversified a ‘well-diversified’ portfolio must be.Now construct a portfolio of n securities with weights w1, w2,…,w n, sothat w i =1. The portfolio residual variance is: 2(e P) = w122(e i)To meet our practical definition of sufficiently diversified, werequire this residual variance to be less than (p M)2. A sure andsimple way to proceed is to assume the worst, that is, assume that the residual variance of each security is the highest possible valueallowed under the assumptions of the problem: 2(e i) = n2MIn that case: 2(e P) = w i2n M2Now apply the constraint: w i2 n M2 ≤ (p M)2This requires that: n w i2≤ p2Or, equivalently, that: w i2 ≤ p2/nA relatively easy way to generate a set of well-diversified portfolios isto use portfolio weights that follow a geometric progression, since the computations then become relatively straightforward. Choose w1 and acommon factor q for the geometric progression such that q < 1. Therefore, the weight on each stock is a fraction q of the weight on the previous stock in the series. Then the sum of n terms is:w i= w1(1– q n)/(1– q) = 1or: w1 = (1– q)/(1–q n)The sum of the n squared weights is similarly obtained from w12 and acommon geometric progression factor of q2. Therefore:w i2 = w12(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)Substituting for w1 from above, we obtain:w i2 = [(1– q)2/(1–q n)2] × [(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)]For sufficient diversification, we choose q so that: w i2 ≤ p2/nFor example, continue to assume that p = 0.05 and n = 1,000. If wechooseq = 0.9973, then we will satisfy the required condition. At this valuefor q:w1 = 0.0029 and w n = 0.0029 × 0.99731,000In this case, w1 is about 15 times w n. Despite this significantdeparture from equal weighting, this portfolio is nevertheless welldiversified. Any value of q between 0.9973 and 1.0 results in a well-diversified portfolio. As q gets closer to 1, the portfolio approachesequal weighting.14. a. Assume a single-factor economy, with a factor risk premium E M and a(large) set of well-diversified portfolios with beta P. Supposewe create a portfolio Z by allocating the portion w to portfolio Pand (1 – w) to the market portfolio M. The rate of return onportfolio Z is:R Z = (w × R P) + [(1 – w) × R M]Portfolio Z is riskless if we choose w so that Z = 0. Thisrequires that:Z = (w × P) + [(1 – w) × 1] = 0 w = 1/(1 –P) and (1 – w) = –P/(1 –P)Substitute this value for w in the expression for R Z:R Z = {[1/(1 –P)] × R P} – {[P/(1 –P)] × R M}Since Z = 0, then, in order to avoid arbitrage, R Z must be zero.This implies that: R P = P× R MTaking expectations we have:E P = P× E MThis is the SML for well-diversified portfolios.b. The same argument can be used to show that, in a three-factormodel with factor risk premiums E M, E1 and E2, in order to avoidarbitrage, we must have:E P = (PM× E M) + (P1× E1) + (P2× E2)This is the SML for a three-factor economy.15. a. The Fama-French (FF) three-factor model holds that one of thefactors driving returns is firm size. An index with returns highlycorrelated with firm size (i.e., firm capitalization) thatcaptures this factor is SMB (Small Minus Big), the return for aportfolio of small stocks in excess of the return for a portfolioof large stocks. The returns for a small firm will be positivelycorrelated with SMB. Moreover, the smaller the firm, the greaterits residual from the other two factors, the market portfolio andthe HML portfolio, which is the return for a portfolio of highbook-to-market stocks in excess of the return for a portfolio oflow book-to-market stocks. Hence, the ratio of the variance ofthis residual to the variance of the return on SMB will be largerand, together with the higher correlation, results in a high betaon the SMB factor.b.This question appears to point to a flaw in the FF model. Themodel predicts that firm size affects average returns, so that, iftwo firms merge into a larger firm, then the FF model predictslower average returns for the merged firm. However, there seems tobe no reason for the merged firm to underperform the returns ofthe component companies, assuming that the component firms wereunrelated and that they will now be operated independently. Wemight therefore expect that the performance of the merged firmwould be the same as the performance of a portfolio of theoriginally independent firms, but the FF model predicts that theincreased firm size will result in lower average returns.Therefore, the question revolves around the behavior of returnsfor a portfolio of small firms, compared to the return for largerfirms that result from merging those small firms into larger ones.Had past mergers of small firms into larger firms resulted, onaverage, in no change in the resultant larger firms’ stock returncharacteristics (compared to the portfolio of stocks of the mergedfirms), the size factor in the FF model would have failed.Perhaps the reason the size factor seems to help explain stock returns is that, when small firms become large, thecharacteristics of their fortunes (and hence their stock returns) change in a significant way. Put differently, stocks of large firms that result from a merger of smaller firms appearempirically to behave differently from portfolios of the smaller component firms. Specifically, the FF model predicts that the large firm will have a smaller risk premium. Notice that this development is not necessarily a bad thing for the stockholders of the smaller firms that merge. The lower risk premium may be due, in part, to the increase in value of the larger firm relative to the merged firms.CFA PROBLEMS1. a. This statement is incorrect. The CAPM requires a mean-varianceefficient market portfolio, but APT does not.b.This statement is incorrect. The CAPM assumes normally distributedsecurity returns, but APT does not.c. This statement is correct.2. b. Since Portfolio X has = 1.0, then X is the market portfolio andE(R M) =16%. Using E(R M ) = 16% and r f = 8%, the expected return forportfolio Y is not consistent.3. d.4. c.5. d.6. c. Investors will take on as large a position as possible only if themispricing opportunity is an arbitrage. Otherwise, considerationsof risk and diversification will limit the position they attemptto take in the mispriced security.7. d.8. d..。

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