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国际财务管理课后作业答案

国际财务管理课后作业答案

《国际财务管理》章后练习题第一章【题1—1】某跨国公司A，2006年11月兼并某亏损国有企业B。

B企业兼并时账面净资产为500万元，2005年亏损100万元（以前年度无亏损），评估确认的价值为550万元。

经双方协商，A 跨国公司可以用以下两种方式兼并B企业。

甲方式：A公司以180万股和10万元人民币购买B企业（A公司股票市价为3元/股）；乙方式：A公司以150万股和100万元人民币购买B企业。

兼并后A公司股票市价3.1元/股。

A公司共有已发行的股票2000万股（面值为1元/股）。

假设兼并后B企业的股东在A公司中所占的股份以后年度不发生变化，兼并后A公司企业每年未弥补亏损前应纳税所得额为900万元，增值后的资产的平均折旧年限为5年，行业平均利润率为10%。

所得税税率为33%。

请计算方式两种发方式的差异。

【题1—1】答案（1）甲方式：B企业不需将转让所得缴纳所得税；B 企业2005年的亏损可以由A公司弥补。

A公司当年应缴所得税=（900-100）×33%=264万元，与合并前相比少缴33万元所得税，但每年必须为增加的股权支付股利。

（2）乙方式：由于支付的非股权额（100万元）大于股权面值的20%（30万元）。

所以，被兼并企业B应就转让所得缴纳所得税。

B企业应缴纳的所得税=（150 ×3 + 100- 500）×33% = 16.5（万元）B企业去年的亏损不能由A公司再弥补。

（3）A公司可按评估后的资产价值入帐,计提折旧,每年可减少所得税(550-500)/5×33%=3.3万元。

【题1—2】东方跨国公司有A、B、C、D四个下属公司，2006年四个公司计税所得额和所在国的所得税税率为：A公司：500万美元 33%B公司：400万美元 33%C公司：300万美元 24%D公司：-300万美元 15%东方公司的计税所得额为-100万美元，其所在地区的所得税税率为15%。

国际财务管理课后习题答案解析chapter

国际财务管理课后习题答案解析chapter

CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreign exchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission thatbuyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ. When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$ is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three day s’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the changes in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 • Borrow $100 million at • Pay interest for first three • Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) • Roll loan over at• September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓•••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ↓↓↓↓↓•••••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used to hedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between thefutures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:• has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,• accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,• pays interest quarterly,• has a one-year term to maturity, and• calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50 = 1.1056 and d = 1/u = .9045. At the exercise price of E = 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0 = Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。

国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案7

国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案7

CHAPTER 6 INTERNATIONAL PARITY RELATIONSHIPSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Give a full definition of arbitrage.Answer:Arbitrage can be defined as the act of simultaneously buying and selling the same or equivalent assets or commodities for the purpose of making certain, guaranteed profits.2. Discuss the implications of the interest rate parity for the exchange rate determination.Answer: Assuming that the forward exchange rate is roughly an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate, IRP can be written as:S = [(1 + I£)/(1 + I$)]E[S t+1 I t].The exchange rate is thus determined by the relative interest rates, and the expected future spot rate, conditional on all the available information, I t, as of the present time. One thus can say that expectation is self-fulfilling. Since the information set will be continuously updated as news hit the market, the exchange rate will exhibit a highly dynamic, random behavior.3. Explain the conditions under which the forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.Answer: The forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate if (I) the risk premium is insignificant and (ii) foreign exchange markets are informationally efficient.4. Explain the purchasing power parity, both the absolute and relative versions. What causes the deviations from the purchasing power parity?Answer: The absolute version of purchasing power parity (PPP):S = P$/P£.The relative version is:e = π$ - π£.PPP can be violated if there are barriers to international trade or if people in different countries have different consumption taste. PPP is the law of one price applied to a standard consumption basket.5. Discuss the implications of the deviations from the purchasing power parity for countries’ competitive positions in the world market.Answer: If exchange rate changes satisfy PPP, competitive positions of countries will remain unaffected following exchange rate changes. Otherwise, exchange rate changes will affect relative competitiveness of countries. If a country’s currency appreciates (depreciates) by more than is warranted by PPP, that will hurt (strengthen) the country’s competitive position in the world market.6. Explain and derive the international Fisher effect.Answer: The international Fisher effect can be obtained by combining the Fisher effect and the relative version of PPP in its expectational form. Specifically, the Fisher effect holds thatE(π$) = I$ - ρ$,E(π£) = I£ - ρ£.Assuming that the real interest rate is the same between the two countries, i.e., ρ$ = ρ£, and substituting the above results into the PPP, i.e., E(e) = E(π$)- E(π£), we obtain the international Fisher effect: E(e) = I$ - I£.7. Researchers found that it is very difficult to forecast the future exchange rates more accurately than the forward exchange rate or the current spot exchange rate. How would you interpret this finding?Answer: This implies that exchange markets are informationally efficient. Thus, unless one has private information that is not yet reflected in the current market rates, it would be difficult to beat the market.8. Explain the random walk model for exchange rate forecasting. Can it be consistent with the technical analysis?Answer: The random walk model predicts that the current exchange rate will be the best predictor of the future exchange rate. An implication of the model is that past history of the exchange rate is of no value in predicting future exchange rate. The model thus is inconsistent with the technical analysis which tries to utilize past history in predicting the future exchange rate.*9. Derive and explain the monetary approach to exchange rate determination.Answer: The monetary approach is associated with the Chicago School of Economics. It is based on two tenets: purchasing power parity and the quantity theory of money. Combing these two theories allows for stating, say, the $/£ spot exchange rate as:S($/£) = (M$/M£)(V$/V£)(y£/y$),where M denotes the money supply, V the velocity of money, and y the national aggregate output. The theory holds that what matters in exchange rate determination are:1. The relative money supply,2. The relative velocities of monies, and3. The relative national outputs.10. CFA question: 1997, Level 3.A.Explain the following three concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP):a. The law of one price.b. Absolute PPP.c. Relative PPP.B.Evaluate the usefulness of relative PPP in predicting movements in foreign exchange rates on:a.Short-term basis (for example, three months)b.Long-term basis (for example, six years)Answer:A. a. The law of one price (LOP) refers to the international arbitrage condition for the standardconsumption basket. LOP requires that the consumption basket should be selling for the same price ina given currency across countries.A. b. Absolute PPP holds that the price level in a country is equal to the price level in another countrytimes the exchange rate between the two countries.A. c. Relative PPP holds that the rate of exchange rate change between a pair of countries is aboutequalto the difference in inflation rates of the two countries.B. a. PPP is not useful for predicting exchange rates on the short-term basis mainly becauseinternational commodity arbitrage is a time-consuming process.B. b. PPP is useful for predicting exchange rates on the long-term basis.PROBLEMS1. Suppose that the treasurer of IBM has an extra cash reserve of $100,000,000 to invest for six months. The six-month interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the United States and 6 percent per annum in Germany. Currently, the spot exchange rate is €1.01 per dollar and the six-month forward exchange rate is €0.99 per dollar. The treasurer of IBM does not wish to bear any exchange risk. Where should he/she invest to maximize the return?The market conditions are summarized as follows:I$ = 4%; i€= 3.5%; S = €1.01/$; F = €0.99/$.If $100,000,000 is invested in the U.S., the maturity value in six months will be$104,000,000 = $100,000,000 (1 + .04).Alternatively, $100,000,000 can be converted into euros and invested at the German interest rate, with the euro maturity value sold forward. In this case the dollar maturity value will be$105,590,909 = ($100,000,000 x 1.01)(1 + .035)(1/0.99)Clearly, it is better to invest $100,000,000 in Germany with exchange risk hedging.2. While you were visiting London, you purchased a Jaguar for £35,000, payable in three months. You have enough cash at your bank in New York City, which pays 0.35% interest per month, compounding monthly, to pay for the car. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.45/£and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.40/£. In London, the money market interest rate is 2.0% for a three-month investment. There are two alternative ways of paying for your Jaguar.(a) Keep the funds at your bank in the U.S. and buy £35,000 forward.(b) Buy a certain pound amount spot today and invest the amount in the U.K. for three months so that the maturity value becomes equal to £35,000.Evaluate each payment method. Which method would you prefer? Why?Solution: The problem situation is summarized as follows:A/P = £35,000 payable in three monthsi NY = 0.35%/month, compounding monthlyi LD = 2.0% for three monthsS = $1.45/£; F = $1.40/£.Option a:When you buy £35,000 forward, you will need $49,000 in three months to fulfill the forward contract. The present value of $49,000 is computed as follows:$49,000/(1.0035)3 = $48,489.Thus, the cost of Jaguar as of today is $48,489.Option b:The present value of £35,000 is £34,314 = £35,000/(1.02). To buy £34,314 today, it will cost $49,755 = 34,314x1.45. Thus the cost of Jaguar as of today is $49,755.You should definitely choose to use “option a”, and save $1,266, which is the difference between $49,755 and $48489.3. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.50/£ and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.52/£. The three-month interest rate is 8.0% per annum in the U.S. and 5.8% per annum in the U.K. Assume that you can borrow as much as $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. Determine whether the interest rate parity is currently holding.b. If the IRP is not holding, how would you carry out covered interest arbitrage? Show all the steps and determine the arbitrage profit.c. Explain how the IRP will be restored as a result of covered arbitrage activities.Solution: Let’s summarize the given data first:S = $1.5/£; F = $1.52/£; I$ = 2.0%; I£ = 1.45%Credit = $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. (1+I$) = 1.02(1+I£)(F/S) = (1.0145)(1.52/1.50) = 1.0280Thus, IRP is not holding exactly.b. (1) Borrow $1,500,000; repayment will be $1,530,000.(2) Buy £1,000,000 spot using $1,500,000.(3) Invest £1,000,000 at the pound interest rate of 1.45%;maturity value will be £1,014,500.(4) Sell £1,014,500 forward for $1,542,040Arbitrage profit will be $12,040c. Following the arbitrage transactions described above,The dollar interest rate will rise;The pound interest rate will fall;The spot exchange rate will rise;The forward exchange rate will fall.These adjustments will continue until IRP holds.4. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €0.80/$ and the three-month forward exchange rate is €0.7813/$. The three-month interest rate is5.6 percent per annum in the United States and 5.40 percent per annum in France. Assume that you can borrow up to $1,000,000 or €800,000.a. Show how to realize a certain profit via covered interest arbitrage, assuming that you want to realize profit in terms of U.S. dollars. Also determine the size of your arbitrage profit.b. Assume that you want to realize profit in terms of euros. Show the covered arbitrage process and determine the arbitrage profit in euros.Solution:a.(1+ i $) = 1.014 < (F/S) (1+ i € ) = 1.053. Thus, one has to borrow dollars and invest in euros tomake arbitrage profit.1.Borrow $1,000,000 and repay $1,014,000 in three months.2.Sell $1,000,000 spot for €1,060,000.3.Invest €1,060,000 at the euro interest rate of 1.35 % for three months and receive€1,074,310 atmaturity.4.Sell €1,074,310 forward for $1,053,245.Arbitrage profit = $1,053,245 - $1,014,000 = $39,245.b.Follow the first three steps above. But the last step, involving exchange risk hedging, will bedifferent.5.Buy $1,014,000 forward for €1,034,280.Arbitrage profit = €1,074,310 - €1,034,280 = €40,0305. In the issue of October 23, 1999, the Economist reports that the interest rate per annum is 5.93% in the United States and 70.0% in Turkey. Why do you think the interest rate is so high in Turkey? Based on the reported interest rates, how would you predict the change of the exchange rate between the U.S. dollarand the Turkish lira?Solution: A high Turkish interest rate must reflect a high expected inflation in Turkey. According to international Fisher effect (IFE), we haveE(e) = i$ - i Lira= 5.93% - 70.0% = -64.07%The Turkish lira thus is expected to depreciate against the U.S. dollar by about 64%.6. As of November 1, 1999, the exchange rate between the Brazilian real and U.S. dollar is R$1.95/$. The consensus forecast for the U.S. and Brazil inflation rates for the next 1-year period is 2.6% and 20.0%, respectively. How would you forecast the exchange rate to be at around November 1, 2000?Solution: Since the inflation rate is quite high in Brazil, we may use the purchasing power parity to forecast the exchange rate.E(e) = E(π$) - E(πR$)= 2.6% - 20.0%= -17.4%E(S T) = S o(1 + E(e))= (R$1.95/$) (1 + 0.174)= R$2.29/$7. (CFA question) Omni Advisors, an international pension fund manager, uses the concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP) and the International Fisher Effect (IFE) to forecast spot exchange rates. Omni gathers the financial information as follows:Base price level 100Current U.S. price level 105Current South African price level 111Base rand spot exchange rate $0.175Current rand spot exchange rate $0.158Expected annual U.S. inflation 7%Expected annual South African inflation 5%Expected U.S. one-year interest rate 10%Expected South African one-year interest rate 8%Calculate the following exchange rates (ZAR and USD refer to the South African and U.S. dollar, respectively).a. The current ZAR spot rate in USD that would have been forecast by PPP.b. Using the IFE, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD one year from now.c. Using PPP, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD four years from now.Solution:a. ZAR spot rate under PPP = [1.05/1.11](0.175) = $0.1655/rand.b. Expected ZAR spot rate = [1.10/1.08] (0.158) = $0.1609/rand.c. Expected ZAR under PPP = [(1.07)4/(1.05)4] (0.158) = $0.1704/rand.8. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €1.50/₤ and the one-year forward exchange rate is €1.60/₤. The one-year interest rate is 5.4% in euros and 5.2% in pounds. You can borrow at most €1,000,000 or the equivalent pound amount, i.e., ₤666,667, at the current spot exchange rate.a.Show how you can realize a guaranteed profit from covered interest arbitrage. Assume that you are aeuro-based investor. Also determine the size of the arbitrage profit.b.Discuss how the interest rate parity may be restored as a result of the abovetransactions.c.Suppose you are a pound-based investor. Show the covered arbitrage process anddetermine the pound profit amount.Solution:a. First, note that (1+i €) = 1.054 is less than (F/S)(1+i €) = (1.60/1.50)(1.052) = 1.1221.You should thus borrow in euros and lend in pounds.1)Borrow €1,000,000 and promise to repay €1,054,000 in one year.2)Buy ₤666,667 spot for €1,000,000.3)Invest ₤666,667 at the pound interest rate of 5.2%; the maturity value will be ₤701,334.4)To hedge exchange risk, sell the maturity value ₤701,334 forward in exchange for €1,122,134.The arbitrage profit will be the difference between €1,122,134 and €1,054,000, i.e., €68,134.b. As a result of the above arbitrage transactions, the euro interest rate will rise, the poundinterest rate will fall. In addition, the spot exchange rate (euros per pound) will rise and the forward rate will fall. These adjustments will continue until the interest rate parity is restored.c. The pound-based investor will carry out the same transactions 1), 2), and 3) in a. But to hedge, he/she will buy €1,054,000 forward in exchange for ₤658,750. The arbitrage profit will then be ₤42,584 = ₤701,334 - ₤658,750.9. Due to the integrated nature of their capital markets, investors in both the U.S. and U.K. require the same real interest rate, 2.5%, on their lending. There is a consensus in capital markets that the annual inflation rate is likely to be 3.5% in the U.S. and 1.5% in the U.K. for the next three years. The spot exchange rate is currently $1.50/£.pute the nominal interest rate per annum in both the U.S. and U.K., assuming that the Fishereffect holds.b.What is your expected future spot dollar-pound exchange rate in three years from now?c.Can you infer the forward dollar-pound exchange rate for one-year maturity?Solution.a. Nominal rate in US = (1+ρ) (1+E(π$)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.035) – 1 = 0.0609 or 6.09%.Nominal rate in UK= (1+ρ) (1+E(π₤)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.015) – 1 = 0.0404 or 4.04%.b. E(S T) = [(1.0609)3/(1.0404)3] (1.50) = $1.5904/₤.c. F = [1.0609/1.0404](1.50) = $1.5296/₤.Mini Case: Turkish Lira and the Purchasing Power ParityVeritas Emerging Market Fund specializes in investing in emerging stock markets of the world. Mr. Henry Mobaus, an experienced hand in international investment and your boss, is currently interested in Turkish stock markets. He thinks that Turkey will eventually be invited to negotiate its membership in the European Union. If this happens, it will boost the stock prices in Turkey. But, at the same time, he is quite concerned with the volatile exchange rates of the Turkish currency. He would like to understand what drives the Turkish exchange rates. Since the inflation rate is much higher in Turkey than in the U.S., he thinks that the purchasing power parity may be holding at least to some extent. As a research assistant for him, you were assigned to check this out. In other words, you have to study and prepare a report on the following question: Does the purchasing power parity hold for the Turkish lira-U.S. dollar exchange rate? Among other things, Mr. Mobaus would like you to do the following:Plot the past exchange rate changes against the differential inflation rates betweenTurkey and the U.S. for the last four years.Regress the rate of exchange rate changes on the inflation rate differential to estimatethe intercept and the slope coefficient, and interpret the regression results.Data source: You may download the consumer price index data for the U.S. and Turkey from the following website: /home/0,2987,en_2649_201185_1_1_1_1_1,00.html, “hot file” (Excel format) . You may download the exchange rate data from the website: merce.ubc.ca/xr/data.html.Solution:a. In the current solution, we use the monthly data from January 1999 – December 2002.b. We regress exchange rate changes (e) on the inflation rate differential and estimate the intercept (α ) and slope coefficient (β):3.095) (t 1.472βˆ0.649)- (t 0.011αˆε Inf_US) -Inf_Turkey (βˆαˆ e t t ===-=++=The estimated intercept is insignificantly different from zero, whereas the slope coefficient is positive and significantly different from zero. In fact, the slope coefficient is insignificantly different from unity. [Note that t-statistics for β = 1 is 0.992 = (1.472 – 1)/0.476 where s.e. is 0.476] In other words, we cannot reject the hypothesis that the intercept is zero and the slope coefficient is one. The results are thus supportive of purchasing power parity.。

财务管理基础 第七章 课后题答案 斯坦利.B.布洛克

财务管理基础 第七章 课后题答案 斯坦利.B.布洛克

ChProblems1. City Farm Insurance has collection centers across the country to speed up collections. Thecompany also makes its disbursements from remote disbursement centers. The collection time has been reduced by two days and disbursement time increased by one day because of these policies. Excess funds are being invested in short-term instruments yielding12 percent per annum.a. If City Farm has $5 million per day in collections and $3 million per day indisbursements, how many dollars has the cash management system freed up?b. How much can City Farm earn in dollars per year on short-term investments madepossible by the freed-up cash?7-1. Solution:City Farm Insurancea. $5,000,000 daily collections× 2.0 days speed up = $10,000,000 additional collections$3,000,000 daily disbursements× 1.0 days slow down = $ 3,000,000 delayed disbursements$13,000,000 freed-up fundsb. $13,000,000 freed-up funds12% interest rate$1,560,000 interest on freed-up cash2. Nicholas Birdcage Company of Hollywood ships cages throughout the country. Nicholashas determined that through the establishment of local collection centers around thecountry, he can speed up the collection of payments by one and one-half days. Furthermore, the cash management department of his bank has indicated to him that he can defer hispayments on his accounts by one-half day without affecting suppliers. The bank has aremote disbursement center in Florida.a. If the company has $4 million per day in collections and $2 million per day indisbursements, how many dollars will the cash management system free up?b. If the company can earn 9 percent per annum on freed-up funds, how much will theincome be?c. If the annual cost of the new system is $700,000, should it be implemented?7-2. Solution:Nicholas Birdcage Company of Hollywooda. $4,000,000 daily collections× 1.5 days speed up = $6,000,000 additional collections$2,000,000 daily disbursements× .5 days slow down = $1,000,000 delayed disbursements$7,000,000 freed-up fundsb. $7,000,000 freed-up funds9% interest rate$630,000 interest on freed-up cashc. No. The annual income of $630,000 is $70,000 less than theannual cost of $700,000 for the new system.3. Megahurtz International Car Rentals has rent-a-car outlets throughout the world. It alsokeeps funds for transactions purposes in many foreign countries. Assume in 2003, it held 100,000 reals in Brazil worth 35,000 dollars. It drew 12 percent interest, but the Brazilian real declined 20 percent against the dollar.a. What is the value of its holdings, based on U.S. dollars, at year-end (Hint: multiply$35,000 times 1.12 and then multiply the resulting value by 80 percent.)b. What is the value of its holdings, based on U.S. dollars, at year-end if it drew9 percent interest and the real went up by 10 percent against the dollar?7-3. Solution:Megahurtz International Car Rentala. $35,000 × 1.12 = $39,200$39,200 × 80% = $31,360 dollar value of real holdingsb. $35,000 × 1.09 = $38,150$38,150 × 110% = $41,965 dollar value of real holdings4. Thompson Wood Products has credit sales of $2,160,000 and accounts receivableof $288,000. Compute the value of the average collection period.7-4. Solution:Thompson Wood ProductsAccounts Receivable Average collection period Average daily credit sales$288,000$2,160,000/360$288,00048days $6,000====5. Lone Star Petroleum Co. has annual credit sales of $2,880,000 and accounts receivableof $272,000. Compute the value of the average collection period.7-5. Solution:Lone Star Petroleum Co.Accounts Receivable Average collection period Average daily credit sales$272,000$2,288,000/360$272,0008,00034days ====6. Knight Roundtable Co. has annual credit sales of $1,080,000 and an average collectionperiod of 32 days in 2008. Assume a 360-day year. What is the company ’s averageaccounts receivable balance? Accounts receivable are equal to the average daily credit sales times the average collection period.7-6. Solution:Knight Roundtable Co.$1,080,000annual credit sales $3,000credit sales a day 360days per year=$3,000 average 32 average $96,000 average accounts daily credit sales collection period receivable balance=⨯7.Darla ’s Cosmetics has annual credit sales of $1,440,000 and an average collection period of 45 days in 2008. Assume a 360-day year.What is the company ’s average accounts receivable balance? Accounts receivable are equal to the average daily credit sales times the average collection period. 7-7. Solution:Darla ’s Cosmetic Company$1,440,000 annual credit sales/360 = $4,000 per day credit sales $4,000 credit sales × 45 average collection period = $180,000average accounts receivable balance8. In Problem 7, if accounts receivable change to $200,000 in the year 2009, while credit salesare $1,800,000, should we assume the firm has a more or a less lenient credit policy? 7-8. Solution:Darla ’s Cosmetics (Continued)To determine if there is a more lenient credit policy, compute the average collection period.Accounts ReceivableAverage collection period Average daily credit sales$200,000$1,800,000/360$200,00040 days $5,000====Since the firm has a shorter average collection period, it appears that the firm does not have a more lenient credit policy.9. Hubbell Electronic Wiring Company has an average collection period of 35 days. Theaccounts receivable balance is $105,000. What is the value of its credit sales?7-9. Solution:Hubbell Electronic Wiring CompanyAccounts receivable Average collection period Average daily credit sales$105,00035 days credit sales 360$105,000Credit sales/36035 daysCredit sales/360$3,000 credit sales per dayCredit sales $3,==⎛⎫ ⎪⎝⎭===000360$1,080,000⨯=10. Marv ’s Women ’s Wear has the following schedule for aging of accounts receivable.Age of Receivables, April 30, 2004(1)(2) (3) (4)Month of SalesAge of Account Amounts Percent of Amount Due April .................................0–30 $ 88,000 ____ March ...............................31–60 44,000 ____ February ...........................61–90 33,000 ____ January .............................91–120 55,000 ____ Total receivables ...........$220,000 100%a . Fill in column (4) for each month.b . If the firm had $960,000 in credit sales over the four-month period, compute the average collection period. Average daily sales should be based on a 120-day period.c . If the firm likes to see its bills collected in 30 days, should it be satisfied with the average collection period?d . Disregarding your answer to part c and considering the aging schedule for accounts receivable, should the company be satisfied? e . What additional information does the aging schedule bring to the company that theaverage collection period may not show?7-10. Solution:Marv’s Women’s WearAge of Receivables, April 30, 2004a.(1)(2)(3)(4)Month of SalesAge ofAccount AmountsPercent ofAmount DueApril 0-30 $ 88,000 40% March 31-60 44,000 20% February 61-90 33,000 15% January 91-120 55,000 25% Total receivables $220,000 100%b.Accounts receivable Average Collection PeriodAverage daily credit sales$220,000$960,000/120$220,000$8,00027.5 days====c. Yes, the average collection of 27.5 days is less than 30 days.d. No. The aging schedule provides additional insight that 60percent of the accounts receivable are over 30 days old.e. It goes beyond showing how many days of credit salesaccounts receivables represent, to indicate the distribution of accounts receivable between various time frames.11. Nowlin Pipe & Steel has projected sales of 72,000 pipes this year, an ordering cost of$6 per order, and carrying costs of $2.40 per pipe.a . What is the economic ordering quantity?b . How many orders will be placed during the year?c . What will the average inventory be?7-11. Solution:Nowlin Pipe and Steel Companya. EOQ 600 units =====b. 72,000 units/600 units = 120 ordersc. EOQ/2 = 600/2 = 300 units (average inventory)12. Howe Corporation is trying to improve its inventory control system and has installed anonline computer at its retail stores. Howe anticipates sales of 126,000 units per year, an ordering cost of $4 per order, and carrying costs of $1.008 per unit.a . What is the economic ordering quantity?b . How many orders will be placed during the year?c . What will the average inventory be?d . What is the total cost of inventory expected to be?7-12. Solution:Howe Corp.a. EOQ 1,000 units ===b. 126,000 units/1,000 units = 126 orders7-12. (Continued)c. EOQ/2 = 1,000/2 = 500 units (average inventory)d. 126 orders × $4 ordering cost= $ 504 500 units × $1.008 carrying cost per unit = 504 Total costs = $1,00813. (See Problem 12 for basic data.) In the second year, Howe Corporation finds it can reduceordering costs to $1 per order but that carrying costs will stay the same at $1.008 per unit. a . Recompute a, b, c , and d in Problem 12 for the second year.b . Now compare years one and two and explain what happened.7-13. Solution:Howe Corp. (Continued)a. EOQ 500 units =====126,000 units/500 units = 252 ordersEOQ/2 = 500/2 = 250 units (average inventory)252 orders × $1 ordering cost= $252 250 units × $1.008 carrying cost per unit = 252 Total costs = $504b. The number of units ordered declines 50%, while the numberof orders doubles. The average inventory and total costs both decline by one-half. Notice that the total cost did not decline in equal percentage to the decline in ordering costs. This isbecause the change in EOQ and other variables (½) isproportional to the square root of the change in orderingcosts (¼).14. Higgins Athletic Wear has expected sales of 22,500 units a year, carrying costs of $1.50per unit, and an ordering cost of $3 per order.a. What is the economic order quantity?b. What will be the average inventory? The total carrying cost?c. Assume an additional 30 units of inventory will be required as safety stock. What willthe new average inventory be? What will the new total carrying cost be?7-14. Solution:Higgins Athletic Weara. EOQ==300 units===b. EOQ/2 = 300/2 = 150 units (average inventory)150 units × $1.50 carrying cost/unit = $225 total carrying costc.EOQAverage inventory Safety Stock230030150301802=+=+=+= 180 inventory × $1.50 carrying cost per year = $270 total carrying cost15. Dimaggio Sports Equipment, Inc., is considering a switch to level production. Costefficiencies would occur under level production, and aftertax costs would decline by$35,000, but inventory would increase by $400,000. Dimaggio would have to finance the extra inventory at a cost of 10.5 percent.a. Should the company go ahead and switch to level production?b. How low would interest rates need to fall before level production would be feasible? 7-15. Solution:Dimaggio Sports Equipment, Inc.a. Inventory increases by $400,000× interest expense 10.5%Increased costs $ 42,000Less: Savings 35,000Loss ($ 7,000)Don’t switch to level production. Increased ROI is less thanthe interest cost of more inventory.b. If interest rates fall to 8.75% or less, the switch would befeasible.$35,000 Savings8.75%$400,000 increased inventory16. Johnson Electronics is considering extending trade credit to some customers previouslyconsidered poor risks. Sales will increase by $100,000 if credit is extended to these new customers. Of the new accounts receivable generated, 10 percent will prove to beuncollectible. Additional collection costs will be 3 percent of sales, and production and selling costs will be 79 percent of sales. The firm is in the 40 percent tax bracket.a. Compute the incremental income after taxes.b. What will Johnson’s incremental return on sales be if these new credit customers areaccepted?c. If the receivable turnover ratio is 6 to 1, and no other asset buildup is needed to servethe new customers, what will Johnson’s incremental return on new averageinvestment be?7-16. Solution:Johnson Electronicsa. Additional sales .................................................... $100,000Accounts uncollectible (10% of new sales) ......... – 10,000Annual incremental revenue ................................ $ 90,000Collection costs (3% of new sales) ...................... – 3,000Production and selling costs (79% of new sales) .– 79,000Annual income before taxes ................................. $ 8,000Taxes (40%) ......................................................... – 3,200Incremental income after taxes ............................ $ 4,800b.Incremental income Incremental return on salesIncremental sales$4,800/$100,000 4.8%===c. Receivable turnover = Sales/Receivable turnover = 6xReceivables = Sales/Receivable turnover= $100,000/6= $16,666.67Incremental return on new average investment =$4,800/$16,666.67 = 28.80%17. Collins Office Supplies is considering a more liberal credit policy to increase sales, butexpects that 9 percent of the new accounts will be uncollectible. Collection costs are5 percent of new sales, production and selling costs are 78 percent, and accounts receivableturnover is five times. Assume income taxes of 30 percent and an increase in sales of$80,000. No other asset buildup will be required to service the new accounts.a. What is the level of accounts receivable to support this sales expansion?b. What would be Collins’s incremental aftertax return on investment?c. Should Collins liberalize credit if a 15 percent aftertax return on investment isrequired?Assume Collins also needs to increase its level of inventory to support new sales and that inventory turnover is four times.d. What would be the total incremental investment in accounts receivable and inventoryto support a $80,000 increase in sales?e. Given the income determined in part b and the investment determined in part d,should Collins extend more liberal credit terms?7-17. Solution:Collins Office Suppliesa.$80,000 Investment in accounts receivable$16,0005==b. Added sales .......................................................... $ 80,000Accounts uncollectible (9% of new sales) ........... – 7,200 Annual incremental revenue ................................ $ 72,800 Collection costs (5% of new sales) ...................... – 4,000 Production and selling costs (78% of new sales) – 62,400 Annual income before taxes ................................. $ 6,400 Taxes (30%) ......................................................... – 1,920 Incremental income after taxes ............................ $ 4,480Return on incremental investment = $4,480/$16,000 = 28% c. Yes! 28% exceeds the required return of 15%.7-17. (Continued)d.$80,000 Investment in inventory =$20,0004Total incremental investmentInventory $20,000Accounts receivable 16,000Incremental investment $36,000 $4,480/$36,000 = 12.44% return on investmente. No! 12.44% is less than the required return of 15%.18. Curtis Toy Manufacturing Company is evaluating the extension of credit to a new group ofcustomers. Although these customers will provide $240,000 in additional credit sales,12 percent are likely to be uncollectible. The company will also incur $21,000 in additionalcollection expense. Production and marketing costs represent 72 percent of sales. Thecompany is in a 30 percent tax bracket and has a receivables turnover of six times. No other asset buildup will be required to service the new customers. The firm has a 10 percentdesired return on investment.a. Should Curtis extend credit to these customers?b. Should credit be extended if 14 percent of the new sales prove uncollectible?c. Should credit be extended if the receivables turnover drops to 1.5 and 12 percent ofthe accounts are uncollectible (as was the case in part a).Curtis Toy Manufacturing Companya. Added sales ............................................................. $240,000Accounts uncollectible (12% of new sales) ............ 28,800 Annual incremental revenue ................................... 211,200 Collection costs ....................................................... 21,000 Production and selling costs (72% of new sales) .... 172,800 Annual income before taxes .................................... 17,400 Taxes (30%) ............................................................ 5,220 Incremental income after taxes ............................... $ 12,180 $240,000Receivable turnover 6.0x 6.040,000 in new receivables ==$12,180Return on incremental investment 30.45%$40,000== b. Added sales ..........................................................$240,000 Accounts uncollectible (14% of new sales) .........– 33,600 Annual incremental revenue ................................$206,400 Collection costs ....................................................– 21,000 Production and selling costs (72% of new sales) .–172,800 Annual income before taxes .................................$ 12,600 Taxes (30%) .........................................................– 3,780 Incremental income after taxes ............................ $ 8,820$8,820Return on incremental investment 22.05%$40,000== Yes, extend credit.c. If receivable turnover drops to 1.5x, the investment inaccounts receivable would equal $240,000/1.5 = $160,000.The return on incremental investment, assuming a 12%uncollectible rate, is 7.61%.$12,180==Return on incremental investment7.61%$160,000The credit should not be extended. 7.61% is less than thedesired 10%.19. Reconsider problem 18. Assume the average collection period is 120 days. All other factorsare the same (including 12 percent uncollectibles). Should credit be extended?7-19. Solution:Curtis Toy Manufacturing Company (Continued) First compute the new accounts receivable balance.Accounts receivable = average collection period × average dailysales240,000120 days120$667$80,040⨯=⨯=360 daysorAccounts receivable = sales/accounts receivable turnover360 days==Accounts receivable turnover3x120 days=$240,000/3$80,000Then compute return on incremental investment.$12,18015.23%=$80,000Yes, extend credit. 15.23% is greater than 10%.20. Apollo Data Systems is considering a promotional campaign that will increase annualcredit sales by $600,000. The company will require investments in accounts receivable, inventory, and plant and equipment. The turnover for each is as follows:Accounts receivable (5x)Inventory (8x)Plant and equipment (2x)All $600,000 of the sales will be collectible. However, collection costs will be 3 percent of sales, and production and selling costs will be 77 percent of sales. The cost to carryinventory will be 6 percent of inventory. Depreciation expense on plant and equipment will be 7 percent of plant and equipment. The tax rate is 30 percent.a. Compute the investments in accounts receivable, inventory, and plant and equipmentbased on the turnover ratios. Add the three together.b. Compute the accounts receivable collection costs and production and selling costsand add the two figures together.c. Compute the costs of carrying inventory.d. Compute the depreciation expense on new plant and equipment.e. Add together all the costs in parts b, c, and d.f. Subtract the answer from part e from the sales figure of $600,000 to arrive at incomebefore taxes. Subtract taxes at a rate of 30 percent to arrive at income after taxes.g. Divide the aftertax return figure in part f by the total investment figure in part a. If thefirm has a required return on investment of 12 percent, should it undertake thepromotional campaign described throughout this problem.7-20. Solution:Apollo Data Systemsa. Accounts receivable = sales/accounts receivable turnover=$120,000$600,000/5Inventory = sales/inventory turnover=$75,000$600,000/8Plant and equipment = sales/(plant and equipment turnover)=$600,000/2$300,000Total investment$495,0007-20. (Continued)b. Collection cost = 3% × $600,000 $ 18,000Production and selling costs = 77% × $600,000 = 462,000Total costs related to accounts receivable $480,000c. Cost of carrying inventory6% × inventory6% × $75,000 $4,500d. Depreciation expense7% × Plant and Equipment7% × $300,000 $21,000e. Total costs related to accounts receivable $480,000Cost of carrying inventory 4,500Depreciation expense 21,000Total costs $505,500f. Sales $600,000– total costs 505,500Income before taxes 94,500Taxes (30%) 28,350Income after taxes $ 66,150g. Income after taxes$66,15013.36%Total investment495,000==Yes, it should undertake the campaignThe aftertax return of 13.36% exceeds the required rate of return of 12%21. In Problem 20, if inventory turnover had only been 4 times:a. What would be the new value for inventory investment?b. What would be the return on investment? You need to recompute the total investmentand the total costs of the campaign to work toward computing income after taxes.Should the campaign be undertaken?7-21. Solution:Apollo Data Systems (Continued)a. Inventory = sales/inventory turnover$150,000 = $600,000/4b. New Total InvestmentAccounts receivable $120,000Inventory 150,000Plant and equipment 300,000$570,000Total Cost of the CampaignCost of carrying inventory6% × $150,000 = $9,000 ($4,500 more than previously)New Income After TaxesSales $600,000– total costs 510,000 ($505,500 + 4,500)Income before taxes 90,000Taxes (30%) 27,000Income after taxes $ 63,000Income after taxes$63,000==11.05%Total investment570,000No, the campaign should not be undertakenThe aftertax return of 11.05% is less than the required rate ofreturn of 12%(Problems 22–25 are a series and should be taken in order.)22. Maddox Resources has credit sales of $180,000 yearly with credit terms of net 30 days,which is also the average collection period. Maddox does not offer a discount for early payment, so its customers take the full 30 days to pay.What is the average receivables balance? What is the receivables turnover?7-22. Solution:Maddox ResourcesSales/360 days = average daily sales$180,000/360 = $500Accounts receivable balance = $500 × 30 days = $15,000Receivable turnover =Sales$180,00012x Receivables$15,000==or360 days/30 = 12x23. If Maddox were to offer a 2 percent discount for payment in 10 days and every customertook advantage of the new terms, what would the new average receivables balance be?Use the full sales of $180,000 for your calculation of receivables.7-23. Solution:Maddox Resources (Continued)$500 × 10 days = $5,000 new receivable balance24. If Maddox reduces its bank loans, which cost 12 percent, by the cash generated from itsreduced receivables, what will be the net gain or loss to the firm?7-24. Solution:Maddox Resources (Continued)Old receivables – new receivables with discount = Funds freed by discount$15,000 – $5,000 ................................... = $10,000Savings on loan = 12% × $10,000 .......... = $ 1,200Discount on sales = 2% × $180,000 ........ = (3,600)Net change in income from discount ...... $(2,400) No! Don’t offer the discount since the income from reduced bankloans does not offset the loss on the discount.25. Assume that the new trade terms of 2/10, net 30 will increase sales by 20 percent becausethe discount makes the Maddox price competitive. If Maddox earns 16 percent on salesbefore discounts, should it offer the discount? (Consider the same variables as you did for problems 22 through 24.)7-25. Solution:Maddox Resources (Continued)New sales = $180,000 × 1.20 = $216,000 Sales per day = $216,000/360 = $600 Average receivables balance = $600 × 10 = $6,000 Savings in interest cost ($15,000 – $6,000) × 12% = 1,080 Increase profit on new sales = 16% × $36,000* = $5,760 Reduced profit because of discount = 2% × $216,000 = (4,320) Net change in income ............................................ $2,520 Yes, offer the discount because total profit increases.*New Sales $36,000 = $216,000 – $180,000COMPREHENSIVE PROBLEMBailey Distributing Company sells small appliances to hardware stores in the southern California area. Michael Bailey, the president of the company, is thinking about changing the credit policies offered by the firm to attract customers away from competitors. The current policy calls for a1/10, net 30, and the new policy would call for a 3/10, net 50. Currently 40 percent of Bailey customers are taking the discount, and it is anticipated that this number would go up to50 percent with the new discount policy. It is further anticipated that annual sales would increase from a level of $200,000 to $250,000 as a result of the change in the cash discount policy.The increased sales would also affect the inventory level. The average inventory carried by Bailey is based on a determination of an EOQ. Assume unit sales of small appliances will increase from 20,000 to 25,000 units. The ordering cost for each order is $100 and the carrying cost per unit is $1 (these values will not change with the discount). The average inventory is based on EOQ/2. Each unit in inventory has an average cost of $6.50.Cost of goods sold is equal to 65 percent of net sales; general and administrative expenses are 10 percent of net sales; and interest payments of 12 percent will be necessary only for the increase in the accounts receivable and inventory balances. Taxes will equal 25 percent of before-tax income.a. Compute the accounts receivable balance before and after the change in the cashdiscount policy. Use the net sales (Total sales – Cash discounts) to determine theaverage daily sales and the accounts receivable balances.b. Determine EOQ before and after the change in the cash discount policy. Translate thisinto average inventory (in units and dollars) before and after the change in the cashdiscount policy.c. Complete the income statement.Before Policy Change After Policy ChangeNet sales (Sales – Cash discounts)Cost of goods soldGross profitGeneral and administrativeexpenseOperating profitInterest on increase in accountsreceivable and inventory (12%)Income before taxesTaxesIncome after taxesd. Should the new cash discount policy be utilized? Briefly comment.Bailey Distributing Companya. Accounts receivable = average collection × averageperiod daily sales Before Policy ChangeAverage collection period .40 × 10 days = 4 .60 × 30 days = 18 22 days Average daily sales()()()$200,000.01.40$200,000Credit sales Discount 360360$200,000$800360$199,200360Average daily sales $553.33--=-===22 days × $553.33 = $12,173.26 accounts receivable before policy changeAfter Policy Change Average collection period .50 × 10 days = 5 .50 × 50 days = 25 30 days。

财务管理课后答案第七章

财务管理课后答案第七章

Chapter 7Problems1. City Farm Insurance has collection centers across the country to speed up collections. The company alsomakes its disbursements from remote disbursement centers. The collection time has been reduced by two days and disbursement time increased by one day because of these policies. Excess funds are being invested in short-term instruments yielding 12 percent per annum.a. If City Farm has $5 million per day in collections and $3 million per day in disbursements, howmany dollars has the cash management system freed up?b. How much can City Farm earn in dollars per year on short-term investments made possible by thefreed-up cash?7-1. Solution:City Farm Insurancea. $5,000,000 daily collections× 2.0 days speed up = $10,000,000 additional collections$3,000,000 daily disbursements× 1.0 days slow down = $ 3,000,000 delayed disbursements$13,000,000 freed-up fundsb. $13,000,000 freed-up funds12% interest rate$1,560,000 interest on freed-up cash2. Nicholas Birdcage Company of Hollywood ships cages throughout the country. Nicholas has determined that through the establishment of local collection centers around the country, he can speed up the collection of payments by one and one-half days. Furthermore, the cash management department of his bank has indicated to him that he can defer his payments on his accounts by one-half day without affecting suppliers. The bank has a remote disbursement center in Florida.a. If the company has $4 million per day in collections and $2 million per day in disbursements, howmany dollars will the cash management system free up?b. If the company can earn 9 percent per annum on freed-up funds, how much will the income be?c. If the annual cost of the new system is $700,000, should it be implemented?7-2. Solution:Nicholas Birdcage Company of Hollywooda. $4,000,000 daily collections× 1.5 days speed up = $6,000,000 additional collections$2,000,000 daily disbursements× .5 days slow down = $1,000,000 delayed disbursements$7,000,000 freed-up fundsb.$7,000,000 freed-up funds9% interest rate$630,000 interest on freed-up cash⨯ c.No. The annual income of $630,000 is $70,000 less than the annual cost of $700,000 for the new system.3. Megahurtz International Car Rentals has rent-a-car outlets throughout the world. It also keeps funds for transactions purposes in many foreign countries. Assume in 2003, it held 100,000 reals in Brazil worth 35,000 dollars. It drew 12 percent interest, but the Brazilian real declined 20 percent against the dollar. a . What is the value of its holdings, based on U.S. dollars, at year-end (Hint: multiply $35,000 times 1.12 and then multiply the resulting value by 80 percent.)b .What is the value of its holdings, based on U.S. dollars, at year-end if it drew 9 percent interest and the real went up by 10 percent against the dollar? 7-3.Solution:Megahurtz International Car Rentala.$35,000 × 1.12 = $39,200$39,200 × 80% = $31,360 dollar value of real holdings b.$35,000 × 1.09 = $38,150$38,150 × 110% = $41,965 dollar value of real holdings4. Thompson Wood Products has credit sales of $2,160,000 and accounts receivable of $288,000. Computethe value of the average collection period. 7-4.Solution:Thompson Wood ProductsAccounts ReceivableAverage collection period Average daily credit sales$288,000$2,160,000/360$288,00048days $6,000====5. Lone Star Petroleum Co. has annual credit sales of $2,880,000 and accounts receivable of $272,000. Compute the value of the average collection period. 7-5.Solution:Lone Star Petroleum Co.Accounts ReceivableAverage collection period Average daily credit sales$272,000$2,288,000/360$272,0008,00034days====6. Knight Roundtable Co. has annual credit sales of $1,080,000 and an average collection period of 32 days in 2008. Assume a 360-day year. What is the company ’s average accounts receivable balance? Accounts receivable are equal to the average daily credit sales times the average collection period. 7-6.Solution:Knight Roundtable Co.$1,080,000annual credit sales$3,000credit sales a day 360days per year=$3,000 average 32 average $96,000 average accounts daily credit sales collection period receivable balance=⨯ 7. Darla ’s Cosmetics has annual credit sales of $1,440,000 and an average collection period of 45 days in 2008. Assume a 360-day year.What is the company ’s average accounts receivable balance? Accounts receivable are equal to the average daily credit sales times the average collection period. 7-7.Solution:Darla ’s Cosmetic Company$1,440,000 annual credit sales/360 = $4,000 per day credit sales$4,000 credit sales × 45 average collection period = $180,000 average accounts receivable balance8. In Problem 7, if accounts receivable change to $200,000 in the year 2009, while credit sales are$1,800,000, should we assume the firm has a more or a less lenient credit policy? 7-8.Solution:Darla ’s Cosmetics (Continued)To determine if there is a more lenient credit policy, compute the average collection period.Accounts ReceivableAverage collection period Average daily credit sales$200,000$1,800,000/360$200,00040 days $5,000====Since the firm has a shorter average collection period, it appears that the firm does not have a more lenient credit policy.9. Hubbell Electronic Wiring Company has an average collection period of 35 days. The accounts receivable balance is $105,000. What is the value of its credit sales? 7-9.Solution:Hubbell Electronic Wiring CompanyAccounts receivable Average collection period Average daily credit sales$105,00035 days credit sales 360$105,000Credit sales/36035 daysCredit sales/360$3,000 credit sales per dayCredit sales $3,==⎛⎫ ⎪⎝⎭===000360$1,080,000⨯=10.Marv ’s Women ’s Wear has the following schedule for aging of accounts receivable.Age of Receivables, April 30, 2004(1) (2)(3) (4)Month of SalesAge of AccountAmounts Percent of AmountDue April ....................................... 0–30 $ 88,000 ____ March .....................................31–6044,000____February ................................. 61–90 33,000 ____January ................................... 91–120 55,000 ____Total receivables ................. $220,000 100%a. Fill in column (4) for each month.b. If the firm had $960,000 in credit sales over the four-month period, compute the averagecollection period. Average daily sales should be based on a 120-day period.c. If the firm likes to see its bills collected in 30 days, should it be satisfied with the averagecollection period?d. Disregarding your answer to part c and considering the aging schedule for accounts receivable,should the company be satisfied?e. What additional information does the aging schedule bring to the company that the averagecollection period may not show?7-10. Solution:Marv’s Women’s WearAge of Receivables, April 30, 2004a.(1)(2)(3)(4)Month of Sales Age of Account Amounts Percent of AmountDueApril 0-30 $ 88,000 40% March 31-60 44,000 20% February 61-90 33,000 15% January 91-120 55,000 25% Total receivables $220,000 100%b.Accounts receivable Average Collection PeriodAverage daily credit sales$220,000$960,000/120$220,000$8,00027.5 days====c. Yes, the average collection of 27.5 days is less than 30 days.d. No. The aging schedule provides additional insight that 60 percent of the accounts receivableare over 30 days old.e. It goes beyond showing how many days of credit sales accounts receivables represent, toindicate the distribution of accounts receivable between various time frames.11. Nowlin Pipe & Steel has projected sales of 72,000 pipes this year, an ordering cost of $6 per order, and carrying costs of $2.40 per pipe. a . What is the economic ordering quantity?b . How many orders will be placed during the year?c .What will the average inventory be? 7-11.Solution:Nowlin Pipe and Steel Companya.EOQ 600 units=====b. 72,000 units/600 units = 120 ordersc.EOQ/2 = 600/2 = 300 units (average inventory)12.Howe Corporation is trying to improve its inventory control system and has installed an online computer at its retail stores. Howe anticipates sales of 126,000 units per year, an ordering cost of $4 per order, and carrying costs of $1.008 per unit. a . What is the economic ordering quantity?b . How many orders will be placed during the year?c . What will the average inventory be?d .What is the total cost of inventory expected to be? 7-12.Solution:Howe Corp.a.EOQ 1,000 units ===b.126,000 units/1,000 units = 126 orders7-12. (Continued)c. EOQ/2 = 1,000/2 = 500 units (average inventory)d.126 orders × $4 ordering cost = $ 504 500 units × $1.008 carrying cost per unit = 504 Total costs= $1,00813. (See Problem 12 for basic data.) In the second year, Howe Corporation finds it can reduce ordering costs to $1 per order but that carrying costs will stay the same at $1.008 per unit. a . Recompute a, b, c , and d in Problem 12 for the second year. b .Now compare years one and two and explain what happened. 7-13.Solution:Howe Corp. (Continued)a.EOQ 500 units=====126,000 units/500 units = 252 ordersEOQ/2 = 500/2 = 250 units (average inventory) 252 orders × $1 ordering cost = $252 250 units × $1.008 carrying cost per unit = 252 Total costs = $504b.The number of units ordered declines 50%, while the number of orders doubles. The average inventory and total costs both decline by one-half. Notice that the total cost did not decline in equal percentage to the decline in ordering costs. This is because the change in EOQ and other variables (½) is proportional to the square root of the change in ordering costs (¼).14. Higgins Athletic Wear has expected sales of 22,500 units a year, carrying costs of $1.50 per unit, and an ordering cost of $3 per order. a . What is the economic order quantity?b . What will be the average inventory? The total carrying cost?c .Assume an additional 30 units of inventory will be required as safety stock. What will the new average inventory be? What will the new total carrying cost be? 7-14.Solution:Higgins Athletic Weara. EOQ==300 units ===b. EOQ/2 = 300/2 = 150 units (average inventory)150 units × $1.50 carrying cost/unit = $225 total carrying costc.EOQAverage inventory Safety Stock230030150301802=+=+=+=180 inventory × $1.50 carrying cost per year= $270 total carrying cost15. Dimaggio Sports Equipment, Inc., is considering a switch to level production. Cost efficiencies would occur under level production, and aftertax costs would decline by $35,000, but inventory would increase by $400,000. Dimaggio would have to finance the extra inventory at a cost of 10.5 percent.a. Should the company go ahead and switch to level production?b. How low would interest rates need to fall before level production would be feasible?7-15. Solution:Dimaggio Sports Equipment, Inc.a. Inventory increases by $400,000× interest expense 10.5%Increased costs $ 42,000Less: Savings 35,000Loss ($ 7,000)Don’t switch to level production. Increased ROI is less than the interest cost of moreinventory.b. If interest rates fall to 8.75% or less, the switch would be feasible.$35,000 Savings8.75%$400,000 increased inventory=16. Johnson Electronics is considering extending trade credit to some customers previously considered poorrisks. Sales will increase by $100,000 if credit is extended to these new customers. Of the new accounts receivable generated, 10 percent will prove to be uncollectible. Additional collection costs will be 3 percent of sales, and production and selling costs will be 79 percent of sales. The firm is in the 40percent tax bracket.a. Compute the incremental income after taxes.b. What will Johnson’s incremental return on sales be if these new credit customers are accepted?c. If the receivable turnover ratio is 6 to 1, and no other asset buildup is needed to serve the newcustomers, what will Johnson’s incremental return on new average investment be?7-16. Solution:Johnson Electronicsa. Additional sales ............................................................................................ $100,000Accounts uncollectible (10% of new sales) .................................................. – 10,000Annual incremental revenue ......................................................................... $ 90,000Collection costs (3% of new sales) ............................................................... – 3,000Production and selling costs (79% of new sales) .......................................... – 79,000Annual income before taxes ......................................................................... $ 8,000Taxes (40%) .................................................................................................. – 3,200Incremental income after taxes ..................................................................... $ 4,800b.Incremental income Incremental return on salesIncremental sales$4,800/$100,000 4.8%===c. Receivable turnover = Sales/Receivable turnover = 6xReceivables = Sales/Receivable turnover= $100,000/6= $16,666.67Incremental return on new average investment = $4,800/$16,666.67 = 28.80%17. Collins Office Supplies is considering a more liberal credit policy to increase sales, but expects that 9 percent of the new accounts will be uncollectible. Collection costs are 5 percent of new sales, production and selling costs are 78 percent, and accounts receivable turnover is five times. Assume income taxes of 30 percent and an increase in sales of $80,000. No other asset buildup will be required to service the new accounts.a. What is the level of accounts receivable to support this sales expansion?b. What would be Collins’s incremental aftertax return on investment?c. Should Collins liberalize credit if a 15 percent aftertax return on investment is required?Assume Collins also needs to increase its level of inventory to support new sales and that inventory turnover is four times.d. What would be the total incremental investment in accounts receivable and inventory to support a$80,000 increase in sales?e. Given the income determined in part b and the investment determined in part d, should Collinsextend more liberal credit terms?7-17. Solution:Collins Office Suppliesa.$80,000 Investment in accounts receivable$16,0005==b. Added sales .................................................................................................. $ 80,000Accounts uncollectible (9% of new sales) .................................................... – 7,200Annual incremental revenue ......................................................................... $ 72,800Collection costs (5% of new sales) ............................................................... – 4,000Production and selling costs (78% of new sales) – 62,400Annual income before taxes ......................................................................... $ 6,400Taxes (30%) .................................................................................................. – 1,920Incremental income after taxes ..................................................................... $ 4,480Return on incremental investment = $4,480/$16,000 = 28%c. Yes! 28% exceeds the required return of 15%.7-17. (Continued)d.$80,000 Investment in inventory =$20,0004=Total incremental investmentInventory $20,000Accounts receivable 16,000Incremental investment $36,000 $4,480/$36,000 = 12.44% return on investmente. No! 12.44% is less than the required return of 15%.18. Curtis Toy Manufacturing Company is evaluating the extension of credit to a new group of customers.Although these customers will provide $240,000 in additional credit sales, 12 percent are likely to be uncollectible. The company will also incur $21,000 in additional collection expense. Production and marketing costs represent 72 percent of sales. The company is in a 30 percent tax bracket and has a receivables turnover of six times. No other asset buildup will be required to service the new customers.The firm has a 10 percent desired return on investment.a. Should Curtis extend credit to these customers?b. Should credit be extended if 14 percent of the new sales prove uncollectible?c .Should credit be extended if the receivables turnover drops to 1.5 and 12 percent of the accounts are uncollectible (as was the case in part a ). 7-18.Solution:Curtis Toy Manufacturing Companya.Added sales ...................................................................................................... $240,000 Accounts uncollectible (12% of new sales) ...................................................... 28,800 Annual incremental revenue ............................................................................. 211,200 Collection costs ................................................................................................ 21,000 Production and selling costs (72% of new sales) .............................................. 172,800 Annual income before taxes ............................................................................. 17,400 Taxes (30%) ...................................................................................................... 5,220 Incremental income after taxes .........................................................................$ 12,180$240,000Receivable turnover 6.0x6.040,000 in new receivables==$12,180Return on incremental investment 30.45%$40,000==b.Added sales .................................................................................................. $240,000 Accounts uncollectible (14% of new sales) .................................................. – 33,600 Annual incremental revenue ......................................................................... $206,400 Collection costs ............................................................................................ – 21,000 Production and selling costs (72% of new sales) .......................................... –172,800 Annual income before taxes ......................................................................... $ 12,600 Taxes (30%) .................................................................................................. – 3,780 Incremental income after taxes .....................................................................$ 8,820$8,820Return on incremental investment 22.05%$40,000==Yes, extend credit.7-18. (Continued)c.If receivable turnover drops to 1.5x, the investment in accounts receivable would equal $240,000/1.5 = $160,000. The return on incremental investment, assuming a 12% uncollectible rate, is 7.61%.$12,180==Return on incremental investment7.61%$160,000The credit should not be extended. 7.61% is less than the desired 10%.19. Reconsider problem 18. Assume the average collection period is 120 days. All other factors are the same(including 12 percent uncollectibles). Should credit be extended?7-19. Solution:Curtis Toy Manufacturing Company (Continued)First compute the new accounts receivable balance.Accounts receivable = average collection period × average daily sales240,000⨯=⨯=120 days120$667$80,040360 daysorAccounts receivable = sales/accounts receivable turnover360 days==Accounts receivable turnover3x120 days=$240,000/3$80,000Then compute return on incremental investment.$12,18015.23%=$80,000Yes, extend credit. 15.23% is greater than 10%.20. Apollo Data Systems is considering a promotional campaign that will increase annual credit sales by $600,000. The company will require investments in accounts receivable, inventory, and plant and equipment. The turnover for each is as follows:Accounts receivable (5x)Inventory (8x)Plant and equipment (2x)All $600,000 of the sales will be collectible. However, collection costs will be 3 percent of sales, and production and selling costs will be 77 percent of sales. The cost to carry inventory will be 6 percent of inventory. Depreciation expense on plant and equipment will be 7 percent of plant and equipment. The tax rate is 30 percent.a. Compute the investments in accounts receivable, inventory, and plant and equipment based on theturnover ratios. Add the three together.b. Compute the accounts receivable collection costs and production and selling costs and add thetwo figures together.c. Compute the costs of carrying inventory.d. Compute the depreciation expense on new plant and equipment.e. Add together all the costs in parts b, c, and d.f. Subtract the answer from part e from the sales figure of $600,000 to arrive at income before taxes.Subtract taxes at a rate of 30 percent to arrive at income after taxes.g. Divide the aftertax return figure in part f by the total investment figure in part a. If the firm has arequired return on investment of 12 percent, should it undertake the promotional campaigndescribed throughout this problem.7-20. Solution:Apollo Data Systemsa. Accounts receivable = sales/accounts receivable turnover=$120,000$600,000/5Inventory = sales/inventory turnover=$75,000$600,000/8Plant and equipment = sales/(plant and equipment turnover)=$600,000/2$300,000Total investment$495,0007-20. (Continued)b. Collection cost = 3% × $600,000 $ 18,000Production and selling costs = 77% × $600,000 = 462,000Total costs related to accounts receivable $480,000c. Cost of carrying inventory6% × inventory6% × $75,000 $4,500d. Depreciation expense7% × Plant and Equipment7% × $300,000 $21,000e. Total costs related to accounts receivable $480,000Cost of carrying inventory 4,500Depreciation expense 21,000Total costs $505,500f. Sales $600,000– total costs 505,500 Income before taxes 94,500 Taxes (30%) 28,350 Income after taxes $ 66,150g. Income after taxes$66,15013.36%Total investment495,000==Yes, it should undertake the campaignThe aftertax return of 13.36% exceeds the required rate of return of 12%21. In Problem 20, if inventory turnover had only been 4 times:a. What would be the new value for inventory investment?b. What would be the return on investment? You need to recompute the total investment and thetotal costs of the campaign to work toward computing income after taxes. Should the campaign beundertaken?7-21. Solution:Apollo Data Systems (Continued)a. Inventory = sales/inventory turnover$150,000 = $600,000/4b. New Total InvestmentAccounts receivable $120,000Inventory 150,000Plant and equipment 300,000$570,000Total Cost of the CampaignCost of carrying inventory6% × $150,000 = $9,000 ($4,500 more than previously)New Income After TaxesSales $600,000– total costs 510,000 ($505,500 + 4,500)Income before taxes 90,000Taxes (30%) 27,000Income after taxes $ 63,000Income after taxes$63,00011.05%Total investment570,000==No, the campaign should not be undertakenThe aftertax return of 11.05% is less than the required rate of return of 12%(Problems 22–25 are a series and should be taken in order.)22. Maddox Resources has credit sales of $180,000 yearly with credit terms of net 30 days, which is also theaverage collection period. Maddox does not offer a discount for early payment, so its customers take the full 30 days to pay.What is the average receivables balance? What is the receivables turnover?7-22. Solution:Maddox ResourcesSales/360 days = average daily sales$180,000/360 = $500Accounts receivable balance = $500 × 30 days = $15,000Receivable turnover =Sales$180,00012x Receivables$15,000==or360 days/30 = 12x23. If Maddox were to offer a 2 percent discount for payment in 10 days and every customer took advantageof the new terms, what would the new average receivables balance be? Use the full sales of $180,000 for your calculation of receivables.7-23. Solution:Maddox Resources (Continued)$500 × 10 days = $5,000 new receivable balance24. If Maddox reduces its bank loans, which cost 12 percent, by the cash generated from its reducedreceivables, what will be the net gain or loss to the firm?7-24. Solution:Maddox Resources (Continued)Old receivables – new receivables with discount = Funds freed by discount$15,000 – $5,000 .................................................................... = $10,000Savings on loan = 12% × $10,000 ............................................ = $ 1,200Discount on sales = 2% × $180,000 ......................................... = (3,600)Net change in income from discount ........................................ $(2,400) No! Don’t offer the discount since the income from reduced bank loans does not offset the loss onthe discount.25. Assume that the new trade terms of 2/10, net 30 will increase sales by 20 percent because the discountmakes the Maddox price competitive. If Maddox earns 16 percent on sales before discounts, should it offer the discount? (Consider the same variables as you did for problems 22 through 24.)7-25. Solution:Maddox Resources (Continued)New sales = $180,000 × 1.20 = $216,000 Sales per day = $216,000/360 = $600 Average receivables balance = $600 × 10 = $6,000 Savings in interest cost ($15,000 – $6,000) × 12% = 1,080Increase profit on new sales = 16% × $36,000* = $5,760Reduced profit because of discount = 2% × $216,000 = (4,320) Net change in income ................................................................................... $2,520 Yes, offer the discount because total profit increases.*New Sales $36,000 = $216,000 – $180,000COMPREHENSIVE PROBLEMBailey Distributing Company sells small appliances to hardware stores in the southern California area. Michael Bailey, the president of the company, is thinking about changing the credit policies offered by the firm to attract customers away from competitors. The current policy calls for a 1/10, net 30, and the new policy would call for a 3/10, net 50. Currently 40 percent of Bailey customers are taking the discount, and it is anticipated that this number would go up to 50 percent with the new discount policy. It is further anticipated that annual sales would increase from a level of $200,000 to $250,000 as a result of the change in the cash discount policy.The increased sales would also affect the inventory level. The average inventory carried by Bailey is based on a determination of an EOQ. Assume unit sales of small appliances will increase from 20,000 to 25,000 units. The ordering cost for each order is $100 and the carrying cost per unit is $1 (these values will not change with the discount). The average inventory is based on EOQ/2. Each unit in inventory has an average cost of $6.50.Cost of goods sold is equal to 65 percent of net sales; general and administrative expenses are 10 percentof net sales; and interest payments of 12 percent will be necessary only for the increase in the accounts receivable and inventory balances. Taxes will equal 25 percent of before-tax income.a. Compute the accounts receivable balance before and after the change in the cash discount policy.Use the net sales (Total sales – Cash discounts) to determine the average daily sales and theaccounts receivable balances.b. Determine EOQ before and after the change in the cash discount policy. Translate this intoaverage inventory (in units and dollars) before and after the change in the cash discount policy.c. Complete the income statement.Before Policy Change After Policy ChangeNet sales (Sales – Cash discounts)Cost of goods soldGross profitGeneral and administrativeexpenseOperating profitInterest on increase in accountsreceivable and inventory (12%)Income before taxesTaxesIncome after taxesd. Should the new cash discount policy be utilized? Briefly comment.CP 7-1. Solution:Bailey Distributing Companya. Accounts receivable = average collection × averageperiod daily sales Before Policy ChangeAverage collection period.40 × 10 days = 4.60 × 30 days = 1822 daysAverage daily sales。

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 7doc资料

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 7doc资料

CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreign exchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission thatbuyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ. When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$ is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three day s’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the changes in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 • Borrow $100 million at • Pay interest for first three • Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) • Roll loan over at• September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓•••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ↓↓↓↓↓•••••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used to hedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between thefutures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:• has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,• accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,• pays interest quarterly,• has a one-year term to maturity, and• calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50 = 1.1056 and d = 1/u = .9045. At the exercise price of E = 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0 = Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。

International_Financial_Management3-7_problem

International_Financial_Management3-7_problem

Chapter 03Suggested Solution to Mexico’s Balance-of-Payments ProblemTo solve this case, it is useful to review Chapter 2, especially the section on the Mexican peso crisis. Despite the fact that Mexico had experienced continuous trade deficits until December 1994, the country’s currency was not allowed to depreciate for political reasons. The Mexican government did not want the peso devaluation before the Presidential election held in 1994. If the Mexican peso had been allowed to gradually depreciate against the major currencies, the peso crisis could have been prevented.The key lessons that can be derived from the peso crisis are: First, Mexico depended too much on short-term foreign portfolio capital (which is easily reversible) for its economic growth. The country perhaps should have saved more domestically and depended more on long-term foreign capital. This can be a valuable lesson for many developing countries. Second, the lack of reliable economic information was another contributing factor to the peso crisis. The Salinas administration was reluctant to fully disclose the true state of the Mexican economy. If investors had known that Mexico was experiencing serious trade deficits and rapid depletion of foreign exchange reserves, the peso might have been gradually depreciating, rather than suddenly collapsed as it did. The transparent disclosure of economic data can help prevent the peso-type crisis. Third, it is important to safeguard the world financial system from the peso-type crisis. To this end, a multinational safety net needs to be in place to contain the peso-type crisis in the early stage.Chapter 05PROBLEMS1. Using Exhibit 5.4, calculate a cross-rate matrix for the euro, Swiss franc, Japanese yen, and the British pound. Use the most current American term quotes to calculate thecross-rates so that the triangular matrix resulting is similar to the portion above the diagonalin Exhibit 5.6.Solution: The cross-rate formula we want to use is:S(j/k) = S($/k)/S($/j).The triangular matrix will contain 4 x (4 + 1)/2 = 10 elements.¥SF £$Euro 138.05 1.5481 .6873 1.3112 Japan (100) 1.1214 .4979 .9498 Switzerland .4440 .8470 U.K 1.90772. Using Exhibit 5.4, calculate the one-, three-, and six-month forward cross-exchange rates between the Canadian dollar and the Swiss franc using the most current quotations. State the forward cross-rates in “Canadian” terms.Solution: The formulas we want to use are:F N(CD/SF) = F N($/SF)/F N($/CD)orF N(CD/SF) = F N(CD/$)/F N(SF/$).We will use the top formula that uses American term forward exchange rates.F1(CD/SF) = .8485/.8037 = 1.0557F3(CD/SF)= .8517/.8043 = 1.0589F6(CD/SF)= .8573/.8057 = 1.06403. Restate the following one-, three-, and six-month outright forward European term bid-ask quotes in forward points.Spot 1.3431-1.3436One-Month 1.3432-1.3442Three-Month 1.3448-1.3463Six-Month 1.3488-1.3508Solution:One-Month 01-06Three-Month 17-27Six-Month 57-724. Using the spot and outright forward quotes in problem 3, determine the corresponding bid-ask spreads in points.Solution:Spot 5One-Month 10Three-Month 15Six-Month 205. Using Exhibit 5.4, calculate the one-, three-, and six-month forward premium or discount for the Canadian dollar versus the U.S. dollar using American term quotations. For simplicity, assume each month has 30 days. What is the interpretation of your results?Solution: The formula we want to use is:f N,CD= [(F N($/CD) - S($/CD/$)/S($/CD)] x 360/Nf1,CD= [(.8037 - .8037)/.8037] x 360/30 = .0000f3,CD= [(.8043 - .8037)/.8037] x 360/90 = .0030f6,CD= [(.8057 - .8037)/.8037] x 360/180 = .0050The pattern of forward premiums indicates that the Canadian dollar is trading at an increasing premium versus the U.S. dollar. That is, it becomes more expensive (in both absolute and percentage terms) to buy a Canadian dollar forward for U.S. dollars the further into the future one contracts.6. Using Exhibit 5.4, calculate the one-, three-, and six-month forward premium or discount for the U.S. dollar versus the British pound using European term quotations. For simplicity, assume each month has 30 days. What is the interpretation of your results?Solution: The formula we want to use is:f N,$= [(F N (£/$) - S(£/$))/S(£/$)] x 360/Nf1,$= [(.5251 - .5242)/.5242] x 360/30 = -.0023f3,$= [(.5268 - .5242)/.5242] x 360/90 = -.0198f6,$= [(.5290 - .5242)/.5242] x 360/180 = -.0183The pattern of forward premiums indicates that the British pound is trading at a discount versus the U.S. dollar. That is, it becomes more expensive to buy a U.S. dollar forward for British pounds (in absolute but not percentage terms) the further into the future one contracts.7. Given the following information, what are the NZD/SGD currency against currency bid-ask quotations?American Terms European TermsBank Quotations Bid Ask Bid AskNew Zealand dollar .7265 .7272 1.3751 1.3765Singapore dollar .6135 .6140 1.6287 1.6300Solution: Equation 5.12 from the text implies S b(NZD/SGD)= S b($/SGD)x S b(NZD/$) = .6135 x 1.3765 = .8445. The reciprocal, 1/S b(NZD/SGD)= S a(SGD/NZD)= 1.1841. Analogously, it is implied that S a(NZD/SGD)= S a($/SGD)x S a(NZD/$)= .6140 x 1.3765 = .8452. The reciprocal, 1/S a(NZD/SGD) = S b(SGD/NZD) = 1.1832. Thus, the NZD/SGD bid-ask spread is NZD0.8445-NZD0.8452 and the SGD/NZD spread is SGD1.1832-SGD1.1841.8. Assume you are a trader with Deutsche Bank. From the quote screen on your computer terminal, yo u notice that Dresdner Bank is quoting €0.7627/$1.00 and Credit Suisse isoffering SF1.1806/$1.00. You learn that UBS is making a direct market between the Swiss franc and the euro, with a current €/SF quote of .6395. Show how you can make a triangular arbitrage profit by trading at these prices. (Ignore bid-ask spreads for this problem.) Assume you have $5,000,000 with which to conduct the arbitrage. What happens if you initially sell dollars for Swiss francs? What €/SF price will eliminate triangula r arbitrage?Solution: To make a triangular arbitrage profit the Deutsche Bank trader would sell $5,000,000 to Dresdner Bank at €0.7627/$1.00. This trade would yield €3,813,500= $5,000,000 x .7627. The Deutsche Bank trader would then sell the euros for Swiss francs to Union Bank of Switzerland at a price of €0.6395/SF1.00, yielding SF5,963,253 = €3,813,500/.6395. The Deutsche Bank trader will resell the Swiss francs to Credit Suisse for $5,051,036 = SF5,963,253/1.1806, yielding a triangular arbitrage profit of $51,036.If the Deutsche Bank trader initially sold $5,000,000 for Swiss francs, instead of euros, the trade would yield SF5,903,000 = $5,000,000 x 1.1806. The Swiss francs would in turn be traded for euros to UBS for €3,774,969= SF5,903,000 x .6395. The euros would be resold to Dresdner Bank for $4,949,481 = €3,774,969/.7627, or a loss of $50,519. Thus, it is necessary to conduct the triangular arbitrage in the correct order.The S(€/SF)cross exchange rate should be .7627/1.1806 = .6460. This is an equilibrium rate at which a triangular arbitrage profit will not exist. (The student can determine this for himself.) A profit results from the triangular arbitrage when dollars are first sold for euros because Swiss francs are purchased for euros at too low a rate in comparison to the equilibrium cross-rate, i.e., Swiss francs are purchased for only €0.6395/SF1.00 instead of the no-arbitrage rate of €0.6460/SF1.00. Similarly, when dollars are first sold for Swiss francs, an arbitrage loss results because Swiss francs are sold for euros at too low a rate, resulting in too few euros. That is, each Swiss franc is sold for €0.6395/SF1.00 instead of the higher no-arbitrage rate of €0.6460/SF1.00.9. The current spot exchange rate is $1.95/£ and the three-month forward rate is $1.90/£. Based on your analysis of the exchange rate, you are pretty confident that the spot exchange rate will be $1.92/£ in three months. Assume that you would like to buy or sell £1,000,000.a. What actions do you need to take to speculate in the forward market? What is the expected dollar profit from speculation?b. What would be your speculative profit in dollar terms if the spot exchange rate actually turns out to be $1.86/£.Solution:a. If you believe the spot exchange rate will be $1.92/£ in three months, you should buy £1,000,000 forward for $1.90/£. Your expected profit will be:$20,000 = £1,000,000 x ($1.92 -$1.90).b. If the spot exchange rate actually turns out to be $1.86/£ in three months, your loss from the long position will be:-$40,000 = £1,000,000 x ($1.86 -$1.90).10. Omni Advisors, an international pension fund manager, plans to sell equities denominated in Swiss Francs (CHF) and purchase an equivalent amount of equities denominated in South African Rands (ZAR).Omni will realize net proceeds of 3 million CHF at the end of 30 days and wants to eliminate the risk that the ZAR will appreciate relative to the CHF during this 30-day period. The following exhibit shows current exchange rates between the ZAR, CHF, and the U.S. dollar (USD).Currency Exchange Ratesa.Describe the currency transaction that Omni should undertake to eliminatecurrency risk over the 30-day period.b.Calculate the following:• The CHF/ZAR cross-currency rate Omni would use in valuing the Swissequity portfolio.• The current value of Omni’s Swiss equity portfolio in ZAR.• The annualized forward premium or discount at which the ZA R is tradingversus the CHF.CFA Guideline Answer:a.To eliminate the currency risk arising from the possibility that ZAR willappreciate against the CHF over the next 30-day period, Omni should sell30-day forward CHF against 30-day forward ZAR delivery (sell 30-dayforward CHF against USD and buy 30-day forward ZAR against USD).b.The calculations are as follows:• Using the currency cross rates of two forward foreign currencies and three currencies (CHF, ZAR, USD), the exchange would be as follows:--30 day forward CHF are sold for USD. Dollars are bought at the forward selling price of CHF1.5285 = $1 (done at ask sidebecause going from currency into dollars)--30 day forward ZAR are purchased for USD. Dollars are simultaneously sold to purchase ZAR at the rate of 6.2538 = $1 (done at the bid side because going from dollars into currency)--For every 1.5285 CHF held, 6.2538 ZAR are received; thus the cross currency rate is 1.5285 CHF/6.2538 ZAR = 0.244411398.• At the time of execution of the forward contracts, the value of the 3 million CHF equity portfolio would be 3,000,000 CHF/0.244411398 = 12,274,386.65 ZAR.• To calculate the annuali zed premium or discount of the ZAR against the CHF requires comparison of the spot selling exchange rate to the forward selling price of CHF for ZAR.Spot rate = 1.5343 CHF/6.2681 ZAR = 0.24477912030 day forward ask rate 1.5285 CHF/6.2538 ZAR = 0.244411398The premium/discount formula is:[(forward rate – spot rate) / spot rate] x (360 / # day contract) =[(0.244411398 – 0.24477912) / 0.24477912] x (360 / 30) =-1.8027126 % = -1.80% discount ZAR to CHFChapter 06PROBLEMS1. Suppose that the treasurer of IBM has an extra cash reserve of $100,000,000 to invest for six months. The six-month interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the United States and 6 percent per annum in Germany. Currently, the spot exchange rate is €1.01 per dollar and the six-month forward exchange rate is €0.99 per dollar. The treasurer of IBM does not wish tobear any exchange risk. Where should he/she invest to maximize the return?Answer: The market conditions are summarized as follows:I$ = 4%; i€= 3.5%; S = €1.01/$; F = €0.99/$.If $100,000,000 is invested in the U.S., the maturity value in six months will be$104,000,000 = $100,000,000 (1 + .04).Alternatively, $100,000,000 can be converted into euros and invested at the German interest rate, with the euro maturity value sold forward. In this case the dollar maturity value will be $105,590,909 = ($100,000,000 x 1.01)(1 + .035)(1/0.99)Clearly, it is better to invest $100,000,000 in Germany with exchange risk hedging.2. While you were visiting London, you purchased a Jaguar for £35,000, payable in three months. You have enough cash at your bank in New York City, which pays 0.35% interest per month, compounding monthly, to pay for the car. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.45/£ and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.40/£. In London, the money market interest rate is 2.0% for a three-month investment. There are two alternative ways of paying for your Jaguar.(a) Keep the funds at your bank in the U.S. and buy £35,000 forward.(b) Buy a certain pound amount spot today and invest the amount in the U.K. for three months so that the maturity value becomes equal to £35,000.Evaluate each payment method. Which method would you prefer? Why?Solution: The problem situation is summarized as follows:A/P = £35,000 payable in three monthsi NY = 0.35%/month, compounding monthlyi LD = 2.0% for three monthsS = $1.45/£; F = $1.40/£.Option a:When you buy £35,000 forward, you will need $49,000 in three months to fulfill the forward contract. The present value of $49,000 is computed as follows:$49,000/(1.0035)3 = $48,489.Thus, the cost of Jaguar as of today is $48,489.Option b:The present value of £35,000 is £34,314 = £35,000/(1.02). To buy £34,314 today, it will cost $49,755 = 34,314x1.45. Thus the cost of Jaguar as of today is $49,755.You should definitely choose to use “option a”, and save $1,266, which is the difference between $49,755 and $48489. \3. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.50/£ and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.52/£. The three-month interest rate is 8.0% per annum in the U.S. and 5.8% per annum in the U.K. Assume that you can borrow as much as $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. Determine whether the interest rate parity is currently holding.b. If the IRP is not holding, how would you carry out covered interest arbitrage? Show all the steps and determine the arbitrage profit.c. Explain how the IRP will be restored as a result of covered arbitrage activities.Solution: Let’s summarize the given data first:S = $1.5/£; F = $1.52/£; I$ = 2.0%; I£ = 1.45%Credit = $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. (1+I$) = 1.02(1+I£)(F/S) = (1.0145)(1.52/1.50) = 1.0280Thus, IRP is not holding exactly.b. (1) Borrow $1,500,000; repayment will be $1,530,000.(2) Buy £1,000,000 spot using $1,500,000.(3) Invest £1,000,000 at the pound interest rate of 1.45%;maturity value will be £1,014,500.(4) Sell £1,014,500 forward for $1,542,040Arbitrage profit will be $12,040c. Following the arbitrage transactions described above,The dollar interest rate will rise;The pound interest rate will fall;The spot exchange rate will rise;The forward exchange rate will fall.These adjustments will continue until IRP holds.4. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €0.80/$ and the three-month forward exchange rate is €0.7813/$. The three-month interest rate is5.6 percent per annum in the United States and 5.40 percent per annum in France. Assume that you can borrow up to $1,000,000 or €800,000.a. Show how to realize a certain profit via covered interest arbitrage, assuming that you want to realize profit in terms of U.S. dollars. Also determine the size of your arbitrage profit.b. Assume that you want to realize profit in terms of euros. Show the covered arbitrage process and determine the arbitrage profit in euros.Solution:a.(1+ i $) = 1.014 < (F/S) (1+ i € ) = 1.053. Thus, one has to borrow dollars and invest ineuros to make arbitrage profit.1.Borrow $1,000,000 and repay $1,014,000 in three months.2.Sell $1,000,000 spot for €1,060,000.3.Invest €1,060,000 at the euro interest rate of 1.35 % for three months and receive€1,074,310 at maturity.4.Sell €1,074,310 forward for $1,053,245.Arbitrage profit = $1,053,245 - $1,014,000 = $39,245.b.Follow the first three steps above. But the last step, involving exchange risk hedging, willbe different.5.Buy $1,014,000 forward for €1,034,280.Arbitrage profit = €1,074,310 - €1,034,280 = €40,0305. In the issue of October 23, 1999, the Economist reports that the interest rate per annum is 5.93% in the United States and 70.0% in Turkey. Why do you think the interest rate is so highin Turkey? Based on the reported interest rates, how would you predict the change of the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Turkish lira?Solution: A high Turkish interest rate must reflect a high expected inflation in Turkey. According to international Fisher effect (IFE), we haveE(e) = i$ - i Lira= 5.93% - 70.0% = -64.07%The Turkish lira thus is expected to depreciate against the U.S. dollar by about 64%.6. As of November 1, 1999, the exchange rate between the Brazilian real and U.S. dollar is R$1.95/$. The consensus forecast for the U.S. and Brazil inflation rates for the next 1-year period is 2.6% and 20.0%, respectively. How would you forecast the exchange rate to be at around November 1, 2000?Solution: Since the inflation rate is quite high in Brazil, we may use the purchasing power parity to forecast the exchange rate.E(e) = E(π$) - E(πR$)= 2.6% - 20.0%= -17.4%E(S T) = S o(1 + E(e))= (R$1.95/$) (1 + 0.174)= R$2.29/$7. (CFA question) Omni Advisors, an international pension fund manager, uses the concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP) and the International Fisher Effect (IFE) to forecast spot exchange rates. Omni gathers the financial information as follows:Base price level 100Current U.S. price level 105Current South African price level 111Base rand spot exchange rate $0.175Current rand spot exchange rate $0.158Expected annual U.S. inflation 7%Expected annual South African inflation 5%Expected U.S. one-year interest rate 10%Expected South African one-year interest rate 8%Calculate the following exchange rates (ZAR and USD refer to the South African and U.S. dollar, respectively).a. The current ZAR spot rate in USD that would have been forecast by PPP.b. Using the IFE, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD one year from now.c. Using PPP, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD four years from now.Solution:a. ZAR spot rate under PPP = [1.05/1.11](0.175) = $0.1655/rand.b. Expected ZAR spot rate = [1.10/1.08] (0.158) = $0.1609/rand.c. Expected ZAR under PPP = [(1.07)4/(1.05)4] (0.158) = $0.1704/rand.8. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €1.50/₤ and the one-year forward exchange rate is €1.60/₤. The one-year interest rate is 5.4% in euros and 5.2% in pounds. You can borrow at most €1,000,000 or the equivalent pound amount, i.e., ₤666,667, a t the current spot exchange rate.a.Show how you can realize a guaranteed profit from covered interest arbitrage. Assumethat you are a euro-based investor. Also determine the size of the arbitrage profit.b.Discuss how the interest rate parity may be restored as a result of the abovetransactions.c.Suppose you are a pound-based investor. Show the covered arbitrage process anddetermine the pound profit amount.Solution:a. First, note that (1+i €) = 1.054 is less than (F/S)(1+i €) = (1.60/1.50)(1.052) = 1.1221.You should thus borrow in euros and lend in pounds.1)Borrow €1,000,000 and promise to repay €1,054,000 in one year.2)Buy ₤666,667 spot for €1,000,000.3)Invest ₤666,667 at the pound int erest rate of 5.2%; the maturity value will be₤701,334.4)To hedge exchange risk, sell the maturity value ₤701,334 forward in exchange for€1,122,134. The arbitrage profit will be the difference between €1,122,134 and €1,054,000, i.e., €68,134.b. As a result of the above arbitrage transactions, the euro interest rate will rise, the pound interest rate will fall. In addition, the spot exchange rate (euros per pound) will rise and the forward rate will fall. These adjustments will continue until the interest rate parity is restored.c. The pound-based investor will carry out the same transactions 1), 2), and 3) in a. But to hedge, he/she will buy €1,054,000 forward in exchange for ₤658,750. The arbitrage profit will then be ₤42,584 = ₤701,334 - ₤658,750.9. Due to the integrated nature of their capital markets, investors in both the U.S. and U.K. require the same real interest rate, 2.5%, on their lending. There is a consensus in capital markets that the annual inflation rate is likely to be 3.5% in the U.S. and 1.5% in the U.K. for the next three years. The spot exchange rate is currently $1.50/£.pute the nominal interest rate per annum in both the U.S. and U.K., assuming that theFisher effect holds.b.What is your expected future spot dollar-pound exchange rate in three years from now?c.Can you infer the forward dollar-pound exchange rate for one-year maturity?Solution.a. Nominal rate in US = (1+ρ) (1+E(π$)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.035) – 1 = 0.0609 or 6.09%.Nominal rate in UK= (1+ρ) (1+E(π₤)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.015) – 1 = 0.0404 or 4.04%.b. E(S T) = [(1.0609)3/(1.0404)3] (1.50) = $1.5904/₤.c. F = [1.0609/1.0404](1.50) = $1.5296/₤.Chapter 07PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three days’ settlement pri ces are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the changes in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] xEUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000∙Borrow $100 million at ∙Pay interest for first three ∙Pay back principalSeptember 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) ∙Roll loan over at∙September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓∙∙9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollarfuture contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in afixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20,which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in twoadditional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second ThirdFourth paymentinitiated payment (9%) payment paymentand principal↓↓↓↓↓∙∙∙∙9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-monthloan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substitutingthe contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change inyield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)。

国际财务管理(填有答案)

国际财务管理(填有答案)

《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案第一章绪论一、单选题1. 关于国际财务管理学与财务管理学的关系表述正确的是(C)。

A. 国际财务管理是学习财务管理的基础B. 国际财务管理与财务管理是两门截然不同的学科C. 国际财务管理是财务管理的一个新的分支D. 国际财务管理研究的范围要比财务管理的窄2. 凡经济活动跨越两个或更多国家国界的企业，都可以称为( A )。

A. 国际企业B. 跨国企业C. 跨国公司D. 多国企业3.企业的（ C）管理与财务管理密切结合，是国际财务管理的基本特点A.资金B.人事C.外汇 D成本4.国际财务管理与跨国企业财务管理两个概念( D) 。

A. 完全相同B. 截然不同C. 仅是名称不同D. 内容有所不同4.国际财务管理的内容不应该包括( C )。

A. 国际技术转让费管理B. 外汇风险管理C. 合并财务报表管理D. 企业进出口外汇收支管理5.“企业生产经营国际化”和“金融市场国际化”的关系是( C )。

A. 二者毫不相关B. 二者完全相同C. 二者相辅相成D. 二者互相起负面影响二、多选题1.国际企业财务管理的组织形态应考虑的因素有（）。

A.公司规模的大小B.国际经营的投入程度C.管理经验的多少D.整个国际经营所采取的组织形式2.国际财务管理体系的内容包括（）A.外汇风险的管理B.国际税收管理C.国际投筹资管理D.国际营运资金管3.国际财务管理目标的特点（）。

A.稳定性B.多元性C.层次性D.复杂性4.广义的国际财务管理观包括（）。

A.世界统一财务管理观B.比较财务管理观C.跨国公司财务管理观D.国际企业财务管理观5. 我国企业的国际财务活动日益频繁，具体表现在( )。

A. 企业从内向型向外向型转化B. 外贸专业公司有了新的发展C. 在国内开办三资企业D. 向国外投资办企业E. 通过各种形式从国外筹集资金三、判断题1.国际财务管理是对企业跨国的财务活动进行的管理。

（）2.国际财务管理学是着重研究企业如何进行国际财务决策，使所有者权益最大化的一门科学。

国际财务管理课后习题标准答案chapter-7

国际财务管理课后习题标准答案chapter-7

CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreign exchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission thatbuyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ. When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$ is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three day s’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the changes in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 • Borrow $100 million at • Pay interest for first three • Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) • Roll loan over at• September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓•••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ↓↓↓↓↓•••••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used to hedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between thefutures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:• has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,• accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,• pays interest quarterly,• has a one-year term to maturity, and• calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50 = 1.1056 and d = 1/u = .9045. At the exercise price of E = 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0 = Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。

国际财务管理第六版中文版第七章课后题

国际财务管理第六版中文版第七章课后题

第七章外汇期货与外汇期权1.$1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x 125,000 = $2,837.50,2. $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x 125,000 = $562.50,因为保证金账户余额只有562.50，将会经历追加保证金要求，增加保证金账户余额至最初的水平3.3496 x 125,000 =620000004. 因为未来即期价格高于期货合约价格，因此多头方有利。

3个合同多头方的预期利润为 3 x ($0.083800 - $0.077275) x 500,000 = $9787.5如果期货的价格与未来的即期价格相同，则没有获利。

5. 空头3 x ($0.077275- $0.07500) x 500,000 = 3412.5如果期货的价格与未来的即期价格相同，则没有获利。

6.若到期的即期价格低于或等于108.5，看涨期权的净到期价值为0,；若到期的即期价格高于108.5的，看涨期权的净到期价值为。

因此，若即期价格为110美分，则净到期价值=110-108.5=1.5美分。

若即期价格为112美分，则净到期价值=110-108.5=3.5美分。

7.若到期的即期价格高于或等于108.5，看跌期权的净到期价值为0；若到期的即期价格低于108.5的，看涨期权的净到期价值为。

因此，若即期价格为106美分，则净到期价值=108.5-106=2.5美分。

若即期价格为108美分，则净到期价值=108.5-108=0.5美分。

若即期价格为大于等于108.5美分，则净到期价值为0.1 / 1。

国际财务管理（英文版）课后习题答案8

国际财务管理（英文版）课后习题答案8

IM-1 CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS 1. Explain Explain the the the basic basic basic differences differences differences between between between the the the operation operation operation of of of a a a currency currency currency forward forward forward market market market and and and a a a futures futures market. Answer: The The forward forward forward market market market is is is an an an OTC OTC OTC market market market where where where the the the forward forward forward contract contract contract for for for purchase purchase purchase or or or sale sale sale of of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an an exchange-traded exchange-traded exchange-traded instrument instrument instrument with with with standardized standardized standardized features features features specifying specifying specifying contract contract contract size size size and and and delivery delivery delivery date. date. Futures Futures contracts contracts contracts are are are marked-to-market marked-to-market marked-to-market daily daily daily to to to reflect reflect reflect changes changes changes in in in the the the settlement settlement settlement price. price. Delivery Delivery is is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In In order order order for for for a a a derivatives derivatives derivatives market market market to to to function function function most most most efficiently, efficiently, two two types types types of of of economic economic economic agents agents agents are are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain. Answer: Two Two types types types of of of market market market participants participants participants are are are necessary necessary necessary for for for the the the efficient efficient efficient operation operation operation of of of a a a derivatives derivatives market: speculators and h edgers hedgers . A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To To do do do this, this, this, the the the speculator speculator speculator will will will take take take a a a long long long or or or short short short position position position in in in a a a futures futures futures contract contract contract depending depending depending upon upon upon his his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk. 3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery? Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result i n the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward forward contracts contracts contracts are are are tailor-made tailor-made between the the long long long and and and short. short. By By contrast, contrast, only only about about about one one one percent percent percent of of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedgi n g , their standardized delivery delivery dates dates dates make them make them unlikely unlikely to to to correspond correspond correspond to the actual future to the actual future dates when foreign IM-2 exchange exchange transactions transactions transactions will will will occur. occur. Thus, Thus, they they they are are are generally generally generally closed closed closed out out out in in in a a a reversing reversing reversing trade. trade. In In fact, fact, fact, the the commission commission that that that buyers buyers buyers and and and sellers sellers sellers pay to pay to transact transact in in in the the the futures futures futures market market market is a single is a single a mount amount amount that covers that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position. 4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery? Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FXfutures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about about the the the relative relative relative future future future value value value of of of one one one currency currency currency versus versus versus another at another at the the scheduled scheduled scheduled expiration expiration expiration dates dates dates of of of the the contracts. One will generally generally see see see a a a steadily steadily steadily appreciating appreciating appreciating or or or depreciating depreciating depreciating pattern; pattern; pattern; however, however, however, it it it may may may be be mixed mixed at at at times. times. Thus, Thus, the the the futures futures futures market market market is is is useful useful useful for for price discovery , , i.e., i.e., i.e., obtaining obtaining obtaining the the the market’s market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates. 5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract? Answer: Answer: A A A futures futures futures (or (or (or forward) forward) forward) contract contract contract is is is a a a vehicle vehicle vehicle for for for buying buying buying or or or selling selling selling a a a stated stated stated amount amount amount of of of foreign foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous advantageous price price price in in in comparison comparison comparison to to to the the the spot spot spot price price price at at at the the the delivery delivery delivery date. date. By By contrast, contrast, contrast, an an an option option option is is is a a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time time in in in the the the future, future, future, but but but not enforcing not enforcing any any obligation obligation obligation on on on him him him if if if the the the spot spot spot price price price is is is more more more favorable favorable favorable than than than the the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract. 6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money? Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t ) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t@ E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t ) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money . IM-3 7. List List the the the arguments (variables) arguments (variables) of of which which which an an an FX call FX call or or put put put option option option model model model price price price is is is a function. a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments? Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t , E, r i , r $, Ta nd and s . When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase: 1. the larger (smaller) is S , 2. the smaller (larger) is E , 3. the smaller (larger) is r i , 4. the larger (smaller) is r $, 5. the larger (smaller) r $ is relative to r i , and 6. the greater is s . When r $ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r $ is very much larger than r i , a European FX call will will increase increase increase in in in price, price, price, but but but the the the put put put premium premium premium will will will decrease, decrease, decrease, when when when the the the option option option term-to-maturity term-to-maturity term-to-maturity increases. increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r $. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since Since a a a longer longer longer term term term American American American option option option can can can be be be exercised exercised exercised on on on any any any date date date that that that a shorter a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option. IM-4 PROBLEMS 1. Assume Assume today’s today’s today’s settlement settlement settlement price price price on on on a a a CME CME CME EUR EUR EUR futures futures futures contract contract contract is is is $1.3140/EUR. $1.3140/EUR. ou Y ou have have have a a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next next three three three days’ days’ days’ settlement settlement settlement prices prices prices are are are $1.3126, $1.3126, $1.3126, $1.3133, $1.3133, $1.3133, and and and $1.3049. $1.3049. Calculate Calculate the the the chan chan changes ges ges in in in the the performance performance bond bond bond account account account from from from daily daily daily marking-to-market marking-to-market and and the the the balance balance balance of of of the the the performance performance performance bond bond account after the third day. Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133) + ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50, where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract. 2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract. Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50, where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract. With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a a margin margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level. 3. Using Using the the the quotations quotations quotations in in in Exhibit Exhibit Exhibit 7.3, 7.3, 7.3, calculate calculate calculate the the the face face face value value value of of of the the the open open open interest interest interest in in in the the the June June June 2005 2005 Swiss franc futures contract. Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract. 4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of of $0.08845. $0.08845. ou Y ou believe believe believe the the the spot spot spot price price price in in in June will June will be be $0.09500. $0.09500. What speculative position position would would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position i n three contracts. in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes? September 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 ·Borrow $100 million at ·Pay interest for first three ·Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interest basis points (bps) ·Roll loan over at ·September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR + 200 bps IM-6 Loan First loan payment (9%) Second payment initiated and futures contract expires and principal ¯ ¯ ¯· · ·9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating -to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed discussed in in in the the the text text text above. above. Show Show that that that this this this strategy strategy strategy would would would result result result in in in a a a fixed-rate fixed-rate fixed-rate loan, loan, loan, assuming assuming assuming an an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations. Johnson Johnson is is is considering considering considering a a a 12-month 12-month 12-month loan loan loan as as as an an an alternative. alternative. This This approach approach approach will will will result result result in in in two two two additional additional uncertain cash flows, as follows: Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯¯· · · · ·9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed. CFA Guideline Answer a. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship: BPV FUT = Change in V alue = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001) = $25 The number of contract, N, can be found by: N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures) = ($2,500) / ($25) = 100 OR IM-7 N = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract) = ($100 million) / ($1 million) = 100 OR N = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position) = ($100,000,000) / ($981,750) where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)] » 102 contracts Therefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented. A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) i ncrease over the implied LIBOR rate. increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is: = ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts = $125,000. However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is: = -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4) = - $2,450,000. Combining Combining the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from the the the hedge hedge hedge with with with the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from the the the loan loan loan results results results in in in a a a net net net outflow outflow outflow of of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent: = ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093 This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20. b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for (for the the the June June June payment), payment), payment), and and and 100 100 100 June futures (for June futures (for t he the the September September September payment). payment). The The objective objective objective is is is to to to hedge hedge each each interest interest interest rate rate rate payment payment payment separately separately separately using using using the the the appropriate appropriate appropriate number number number of of of contracts. contracts. The The problem problem problem is is is the the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used to  Strategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100 December 1998 0 100 March 1999 0 100 a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curve IM-9 a. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of of the the the next next next three three three quarters. quarters. With With the the the strip strip strip hedge hedge hedge in in in place, place, place, each each each quarter quarter quarter of of of the the the coming coming coming year year year is is is hedged hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy Strategy A A A for for for Jacob Jacob Jacob Bower Bower Bower is is is that that that Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B is is is likely likely likely to to to work work work well well well whether whether whether a a a parallel parallel parallel shift shift shift or or or a a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s Bower’s liability. liability. The The same same same is is is not not not true true true for for for Strategy Strategy Strategy A. A. Because Because Jacob Jacob Jacob Bower’s Bower’s Bower’s liability liability liability carries carries carries a a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results. b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is Superior Strategy Strategy A A A is is is a a a stack stack stack hedge strategy hedge strategy that that initially initially initially involves involves involves selling selling selling (shorting) (shorting) (shorting) 300 300 300 September September September contracts. contracts. Strategy Strategy A A A is is is rarely rarely rarely better better better than than than Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B as as as a a a hedging hedging hedging or or or risk-reduction risk-reduction risk-reduction strategy. strategy. Only Only from from from the the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain certain interest interest interest rate rate rate scenarios. scenarios. For For example example example Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A will will will work work work as as as well well well as as as Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B for for for Bower’s Bower’s liability liability if if if interest interest interest rates rates rates (instantaneously) (instantaneously) (instantaneously) change change change in in in parallel parallel parallel fashion. fashion. Another Another interest interest interest rate rate rate scenario scenario where where Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A outperforms outperforms outperforms Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B is is is one one one in in in which which which the the the yield yield yield curve curve curve rises rises rises but but but with with with a a a twist twist twist so so so that that futures futures yields yields yields rise rise rise more more more for for for near near near expirations expirations than than for for for distant distant distant expirations. expirations. Upon Upon expiration expiration expiration of of of the the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 100 September, September, September, 100 100 100 December, December, December, and and and 100 100 100 March). March). Consequently, Consequently, the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A will will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability. 8. Use Use the the the quotations quotations quotations in in in Exhibit Exhibit Exhibit 7.7 7.7 7.7 to to to calculate calculate calculate the the the intrinsic intrinsic intrinsic value value value and and and the the the time time time value value value of of of the the the 97 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic V alue = Time V alue IM-10 97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen 97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen 9. Assume Assume spot spot spot Swiss Swiss Swiss franc franc franc is is is $0.7000 $0.7000 $0.7000 and and and the the the six-month six-month six-month forward forward forward rate rate rate is is is $0.6950. $0.6950. What What is is is the the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent. Solution: Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7. C a ³Max [(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0] ³ Max [ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents 10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a ³Max [(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0] ³Max [ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents 11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the the put put put of of of problem problem problem 10. 10. Assume Assume the the the annualized annualized annualized volatility volatility volatility of of of the the the Swiss Swiss Swiss franc franc franc is is is 14.2 14.2 14.2 percent. percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet. Solution: d 1 = [ln (69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)Ö.50 = .2675 d 2 = d 1 - .142Ö.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671 N(d 1) = .6055 N(d 2) = .5664 N(-d 1) = .3945 N(-d 2) = .4336 C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e -(.035)(.50) = 3.51 cents P e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e -(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents 12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9. IM-11 The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where (.9045), where u = e .142Ö.50 = = 1.1056 1.1056 1.1056 and and d = 1/u = .9045. At At the the the exercise exercise exercise price price price of of E = = 68, 68, 68, the the the option option option will will will only only only be be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT = 9.39¢9.39¢ = 77.39¢ = 77.39¢ - - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0. The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674. Thus, the call premium is: C 0 = Max {[69.50(.6674) {[69.50(.6674) –– 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68} = Max [1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF. IM-12 MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULA TOR A A speculator speculator speculator is is is considering considering considering the the the purchase purchase purchase of of of five five five three-month three-month three-month Japanese Japanese Japanese yen yen yen call call call options options options with with with a a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents cents per per per 100 100 100 yen yen yen and and and the the the 90-day 90-day 90-day forward forward forward rate rate rate is is is 95.71 95.71 95.71 cents. cents. cents. The The The speculator speculator speculator believes believes believes the the the yen yen yen will will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following: 1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule. 2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even. Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator: 1. +-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25. 6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25. 3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium. 4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen. 。

(完整word版)国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案8

(完整word版)国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案8

CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreignexchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission that buyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ.When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$ is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three days’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the chan ges in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 •Borrow $100 million at •Pay interest for first three •Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) •Roll loan over at•September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓•••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ↓↓↓↓↓•••••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used tohedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between the futures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:•has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,•accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,•pays interest quarterly,•has a one-year term to maturity, and•calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50= 1.1056 and d = 1/u= .9045. At the exercise price of E= 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0= Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。

国际财务管理答案

国际财务管理答案

Solutions for International Corporate FinanceChapter 1 (2)Chapter 2 (4)Chapter 3 (6)Chapter 4 (8)Chapter 5 (12)Chapter 6 (14)Chapter 7 (16)Chapter 8 (18)Chapter 9 (21)Chapter 10 (23)Chapter 11 (26)Chapter 12 (29)Chapter 15. International Business Methods. Snyder Golf Co., a U.S. firm that sells high-quality golf clubs in the U.S., wants to expand internationally by selling the same golf clubs in Brazil.a. Describe the tradeoffs that are involved for each method (such as exporting, direct foreign investment, etc.) that Snyder could use to achieve its goal.ANSWER: Snyder can export the clubs, but the transportation expenses may be high. If could establish a subsidiary in Brazil to produce and sell the clubs, but this may require a large investment of funds. It could use licensing, in which it specifies to a Brazilian firm how to produce the clubs. In this way, it does not have to establish its own subsidiary there.b. Which method would you recommend for this firm? Justify your recommendation. ANSWER: If the amount of golf clubs to be sold in Brazil is small, it may decide to export. However, if the expected sales level is high, it may benefit from licensing. If it is confident that the expected sales level will remain high, it may be willing to establish a subsidiary. The wages are lower in Brazil, and the large investment needed to establish a subsidiary may be worthwhile.8. Comparative Advantage.a. Explain how the theory of comparative advantage relates to the need for international business. ANSWER: The theory of comparative advantage implies that countries should specialize in production, thereby relying on other countries for some products. Consequently, there is a need for international business.b. Explain how the product cycle theory relates to the growth of an MNC.ANSWER: The product cycle theory suggests that at some point in time, the firm will attempt to capitalize on its perceived advantages in markets other than where it was initially established.10. Valuation of Wal-Mart’s International Business. In addition to all of its stores in the U.S., Wal-Mart has 11 stores in Argentina, 24 stores in Brazil, 214 stores in Canada, 29 stores in China, 92 stores in Germany, 15 stores in South Korea, 611 stores in Mexico, and 261 stores in the U.K. Consider the value of Wal-Mart as being composed of two parts, a U.S. part (due to business in the U.S.) and a non-U.S. part (due to business in other countries). Explain how to determine the present value (in dollars) of the non-U.S. part assuming that you had access to all the details of Wal-Mart businesses outside the U.S.ANSWER: The non-U.S. part can be measured as the present value of future dollar cash flows resulting from the non-U.S. businesses. Based on recent earnings data for each store and applying an expected growth rate, you can estimate the remitted earnings that will come from each country in each year in the future. You can convert those cash flows to dollars using a forecasted exchange rate per year. Determine the present value of cash flows of all stores within one country. Then repeat the process for other countries. Then add up all the present values that you estimated to derive a consolidated present value of all non-U.S. subsidiaries.15. International Joint Venture. Anheuser-Busch, the producer of Budweiser and other beers, has recently expanded into Japan by engaging in a joint venture with Kirin Brewery, the largest brewery in Japan. The joint venture enables Anheuser-Busch to have its beer distributed through Kirin’s distribution channels in Japan. In addition, it can utilize Kirin’s facilities to produce beer that will be sold locally. In return, Anheuser-Busch provides information about the American beer market to Kirin.a. Explain how the joint venture can enable Anheuser-Busch to achieve its objective of maximizing shareholder wealth.ANSWER: The joint venture creates a way for Anheuser-Busch to distribute Budweiser throughout Japan. It enables Anheuser-Busch to penetrate the Japanese market without requiring a substantial investment in Japan.b. Explain how the joint venture can limit the risk of the international business.ANSWER: The joint venture has limited risk because Anheuser-Busch does not need to establish its own distribution network in Japan. Thus, Anheuser-Busch may be able to use a smaller investment for the international business, and there is a higher probability that the international business will be successful.c. Many international joint ventures are intended to circumvent barriers that normally prevent foreign competition. What barrier in Japan is Anheuser-Busch circumventing as a result of the joint venture? What barrier in the United States is Kirin circumventing as a result of the joint venture?ANSWER: Anheuser-Busch is able t o benefit from Kirin’s distribution system in Japan, which would not normally be so accessible. Kirin is able to learn more about how Anheuser-Busch expanded its product across numerous countries, and therefore breaks through an “information”barrier.d. Explain how Anheuser-Busch could lose some of its market share in countries outside Japan as a result of this particular joint venture.ANSWER: Anheuser-Busch could lose some of its market share to Kirin as a result of explaining its worldwide expansion strategies to Kirin. However, it appears that Anheuser-Busch expects the potential benefits of the joint venture to outweigh any potential adverse effects.24. Global Competition. Explain why more standardized product specifications across countries can increase global competition.ANSWER: Standardized product specifications allow firms to more easily expand their business across other countries, which increases global competition.Chapter 24. Free Trade. There has been considerable momentum to reduce or remove trade barriers in an effort to achieve “free trade.” Yet, one disgruntled executive of an exporting firm stated, “Free trade is not conceivable; we are always at the mercy of the exchange rate. Any country can use this mechanism to impose trade bar riers.” What does this statement mean?ANSWER: This statement implies that even if there were no explicit barriers, a government could attempt to manipulate exchange rates to a level that would effectively reduce foreign competition. For example, a U.S. firm may be discouraged from attempting to export to Japan if the value of the dollar is very high against the yen. The prices of the U.S. goods from the Japanese perspective are too high because of the strong dollar. The reverse situation could also be possible in which a Japanese exporting firm is priced out of the U.S. market because of a strong yen (weak dollar). [Answer is based on opinion.]8. International Investments. In recent years many U.S.-based MNCs have increased their investments in foreign securities, which are not as susceptible to negative shocks in the U.S. market. Also, when MNCs believe that U.S. securities are overvalued, they can pursue non-U.S. securities that are driven by a different market. Moreover, in periods of low U.S. interest rates, U.S. corporations tend to seek investments in foreign securities. In general, the flow of funds into foreign countries tends to decline when U.S. investors anticipate a strong dollar.a. Explain how expectations of a strong dollar can affect the tendency of U.S. investors to invest abroad.ANSWER: A weak dollar would discourage U.S. investors from investing abroad. It can cause the investors to purchase foreign currency (when investing) at a higher exchange rate than the exchange rate at which they would sell the currency (when the investment is liquidated).b. Explain how low U.S. interest rates can affect the tendency of U.S.-based MNCs to invest abroad.ANSWER: Low U.S. interest rates can encourage U.S.-based MNCs to invest abroad, as investors seek higher returns on their investment than they can earn in the U.S.c. In general terms, what is the attraction of foreign investments to U.S. investors?ANSWER: The main attraction is potentially higher returns. The international stocks can outperform U.S. stocks, and international bonds can outperform U.S. bonds. However, there is no guarantee that the returns on international investments will be so favorable. Some investors may also pursue international investments to diversify their investment portfolio, which can possibly reduce risk.10. Exchange Rate Effects on Trade.a. Explain why a stronger dollar could enlarge the U.S. balance of trade deficit. Explain why a weaker dollar could affect the U.S. balance of trade deficit.ANSWER: A stronger dollar makes U.S. exports more expensive to importers and may reduceimports. It makes U.S. imports cheap and may increase U.S. imports. A weaker home currency increases the prices of imports purchased by the home country and reduces the prices paid by foreign businesses for the home country’s exports. This should cause a decrease in the home country’s demand for imports and an increase in the foreign demand for the home country’s exports, and therefore increase the current account. However, this relationship can be distorted by other factors.b. It is sometimes suggested that a floating exchange rate will adjust to reduce or eliminate any current account deficit. Explain why this adjustment would occur.ANSWER: A current account deficit reflects a net sale of the home currency in exchange for other currencies. This places downward pressure on that home currency’s value. If the currency weakens, it will reduce the home demand for foreign goods (since goods will now be more expensive), and will increase the home export volume (since exports will appear cheaper to foreign countries).c. Why does the exchange rate not always adjust to a current account deficit?ANSWER: In some cases, the home currency will remain strong even though a current account deficit exists, since other factors (such as international capital flows) can offset the forces placed on the currency by the current account.13. Effects of Tariffs. Assume a simple world in which the U.S. exports soft drinks and beer to France and imports wine from France. If the U.S. imposes large tariffs on the French wine, explain the likely impact on the values of the U.S. beverage firms, U.S. wine producers, the French beverage firms, and the French wine producers.ANSWER: The U.S. wine producers benefit from the U.S. tariffs, while the French wine producers are adversely affected. The French government would likely retaliate by imposing tariffs on the U.S. beverage firms, which would adversely affect their value. The French beverage firms would benefit.15. Demand for Exports. A relatively small U.S. balance of trade deficit is commonly attributed toa strong demand for U.S. exports. What do you think is the underlying reason for the strong demand for U.S. exports?ANSWER: The strong demand for U.S. exports is commonly attributed to strong foreign economies or to a weak dollar.Chapter 35. International Financial Markets. Recently, Wal-Mart established two retail outlets in the city of Shenzhen, China, which has a population of 3.7 million. These outlets are massive and contain products purchased locally as well as imports. As Wal-Mart generates earnings beyond what it needs in Shenzhen, it may remit those earnings back to the United States. Wal-Mart is likely to build additional outlets in Shenzhen or in other Chinese cities in the future.a. Explain how the Wal-Mart outlets in China would use the spot market in foreign exchange. ANSWER: The Wal-Mart stores in China need other currencies to buy products from other countries, and must convert the Chinese currency (yuan) into the other currencies in the spot market to purchase these products. They also could use the spot market to convert excess earnings denominated in yuan into dollars, which would be remitted to the U.S. parent.b. Explain how Wal-Mart might utilize the international money market when it is establishing other Wal-Mart stores in Asia.ANSWER: Wal-Mart may need to maintain some deposits in the Eurocurrency market that can be used (when needed) to support the growth of Wal-Mart stores in various foreign markets. When some Wal-Mart stores in foreign markets need funds, they borrow from banks in the Eurocurrency market. Thus, the Eurocurrency market serves as a deposit or lending source for Wal-Mart and other MNCs on a short-term basis.c. Explain how Wal-Mart could use the international bond market to finance the establishment of new outlets in foreign markets.ANSWER: Wal-Mart could issue bonds in the Eurobond market to generate funds needed to establish new outlets. The bonds may be denominated in the currency that is needed; then, once the stores are established, some of the cash flows generated by those stores could be used to pay interest on the bonds.11. Foreign Exchange. You just came back from Canada, where the Canadian dollar was worth $.70. You still have C$200 from your trip and could exchange them for dollars at the airport, but the airport foreign exchange desk will only buy them for $.60. Next week, you will be going to Mexico and will need pesos. The airport foreign exchange desk will sell you pesos for $.10 per peso. You met a tourist at the airport who is from Mexico and is on his way to Canada. He is willing to buy your C$200 for 130 pesos. Should you accept the offer or cash the Canadian dollars in at the airport? Explain.ANSWER: Exchange with the tourist. If you exchange the C$ for pesos at the foreign exchange desk, the cross-rate is $.60/$10 = 6. Thus, the C$200 would be exchanged for 120 pesos (computed as 200 ×6). If you exchange Canadian dollars for pesos with the tourist, you will receive 130 pesos.15. Exchange Rate Effects on Borrowing. Explain how the appreciation of the Japanese yen against the U.S. dollar would affect the return to a U.S. firm that borrowed Japanese yen and used the proceeds for a U.S. project.ANSWER: If the Japanese yen appreciates over the borrowing period, this implies that the U.S. firm converted yen to U.S. dollars at a lower exchange rate than the rate at which it paid for yen at the time it would repay the loan. Thus, it is adversely affected by the appreciation. Its cost of borrowing will be higher as a result of this appreciation.20. Interest Rates. Why do interest rates vary among countries? Why are interest rates normally similar for those European countries that use the euro as their currency? Offer a reason why the government interest rate of one country could be slightly higher than that of the government interest rate of another country, even though the euro is the currency used in both countries.ANSWER: Interest rates in each country are based on the supply of funds and demand for funds for a given currency. However, the supply and demand conditions for the euro are dictated by all participating countries in aggregate, and do not vary among participating countries. Yet, the government interest rate in one country that uses the euro could be slightly higher than others that use the euro if it is subject to default risk. The higher interest rate would reflect a risk premium.21. Forward Contract. The Wolfpack Corporation is a U.S. exporter that invoices its exports to the United Kingdom in British pounds. If it expects that the pound will appreciate against the dollar in the future, should it hedge its exports with a forward contract? Explain.ANSWER: The forward contract can hedge future receivables or payables in foreign currencies to insulate the firm against exchange rate risk. Yet, in this case, the Wolfpack Corporation should not hedge because it would benefit from appreciation of the pound when it converts the pounds to dollars.Chapter 43. Inflation Effects on Exchange Rates. Assume that the U.S. inflation rate becomes high relative to Canadian inflation. Other things being equal, how should this affect the (a) U.S. demand for Canadian dollars, (b) supply of Canadian dollars for sale, and (c) equilibrium value of the Canadian dollar?ANSWER: Demand for Canadian dollars should increase, supply of Canadian dollars for sale should decrease, and the Canadian dollar’s value should increase.12. Factors Affecting Exchange Rates. Mexico tends to have much higher inflation than the United States and also much higher interest rates than the United States. Inflation and interest rates are much more volatile in Mexico than in industrialized countries. The value of the Mexican peso is typically more volatile than the currencies of industrialized countries from a U.S. perspective; it has typically depreciated from one year to the next, but the degree of depreciation has varied substantially. The bid/ask spread tends to be wider for the peso than for currencies of industrialized countries.a. Identify the most obvious economic reason for the persistent depreciation of the peso. ANSWER: The high inflation in Mexico places continual downward pressure on the value of the peso.b. High interest rates are commonly expected to strengthen a country’s currency because they can encourage foreign investment in securities in that country, which results in the exchange of other currencies for that currency. Yet, the peso’s value has declined against the dollar over most years even though Mexican interest rates are typically much higher than U.S. interest rates. Thus, it appears that the high Mexican interest rates do not attract substantial U.S. investment in Mexico’s securities. Why do you think U.S. investors do not try to capitalize on the high interest rates in Mexico?ANSWER: The high interest rates in Mexico result from expectations of high inflation. That is, the real interest rate in Mexico may not be any higher than the U.S. real interest rate. Given the high inflationary expectations, U.S. investors recognize the potential weakness of the peso, which could more than offset the high interest rate (when they convert the pesos back to dollars at the end of the investment period). Therefore, the high Mexican interest rates do not encourage U.S. investment in Mexican securities, and do not help to strengthen the value of the peso.c. Why do you think the bid/ask spread is higher for pesos than for currencies of industrialized countries? How does this affect a U.S. firm that does substantial business in Mexico?ANSWER: The bid/ask spread is wider because the banks that provide foreign exchange services are subject to more risk when they maintain currencies such as the peso that could decline abruptly at any time. A wider bid/ask spread adversely affects the U.S. firm that does business in Mexico because it increases the transactions costs associated with conversion of dollars to pesos, or pesos to dollars.14. Aggregate Effects on Exchange Rates. Assume that the United States invests heavily in government and corporate securities of Country K. In addition, residents of Country K invest heavily in the United States. Approximately $10 billion worth of investment transactions occur between these two countries each year. The total dollar value of trade transactions per year is about $8 million. This information is expected to also hold in the future. Because your firm exports goods to Country K, your job as international cash manager requires you to forecast the value of Country K’s currency (the “krank”) with respect to the dollar. Explain how each of the following conditions will affect the value of the krank, holding other things equal. Then, aggregate all of these impacts to develop an ov erall forecast of the krank’s movement against the dollar.a. U.S. inflation has suddenly increased substantially, while Country K’s inflation remains low. ANSWER: Increased U.S. demand for the krank. Decreased supply of kranks for sale. Upward pressure in the krank’s value.b. U.S. interest rates have increased substantially, while Country K’s interest rates remain low. Investors of both countries are attracted to high interest rates.ANSWER: Decreased U.S. demand for the krank. Increased supply of kranks for sale. Downward pressure on the krank’s value.c. The U.S. income level increased substantially, while Country K’s income level has remained unchanged.ANSWER: Increased U.S. demand for the krank. Upward pressure on the krank’s value.d. The U.S. is expected to impose a small tariff on goods imported from Country K. ANSWER: The tariff will cause a decrease in the United States’ desire for Country K’s goods, and will therefore reduce the demand for kranks for sale. Downward pressure on the krank’s value.e. Combine all expected impacts to develop an overall forecast.ANSWER: Two of the scenarios described above place upward pressure on the value of the krank. However, these scenarios are related to trade, and trade flows are relatively minor between the U.S. and Country K. The interest rate scenario places downward pressure on the krank’s value. Since the interest rates affect capital flows and capital flows dominate trade flows between the U.S. and Country K, the interest rate scenario should overwhelm all other scenarios. Thus, when considering the importance of implications of all scenarios, the krank is expected to depreciate.22. Speculation. Blue Demon Bank expects that the Mexican peso will depreciate against the dollar from its spot rate of $.15 to $.14 in 10 days. The following interbank lending and borrowingin the interbank market, depending on which currency it wants to borrow.a. How could Blue Demon Bank attempt to capitalize on its expectations without using deposited funds? Estimate the profits that could be generated from this strategy.ANSWER: Blue Demon Bank can capitalize on its expectations about pesos (MXP) as follows:1. Borrow MXP70 million2. Convert the MXP70 million to dollars:MXP70,000,000 × $.15 = $10,500,0003. Lend the dollars through the interbank market at 8.0% annualized over a 10-day period. The amount accumulated in 10 days is:$10,500,000 × [1 + (8% × 10/360)] = $10,500,000 × [1.002222] = $10,523,3334. Repay the peso loan. The repayment amount on the peso loan is:MXP70,000,000 × [1 + (8.7% × 10/360)] = 70,000,000 × [1.002417]=MXP70,169,1675. Based on the expected spot rate of $.14, the amount of dollars needed to repay the peso loan is: MXP70,169,167 × $.14 = $9,823,6836. After repaying the loan, Blue Demon Bank will have a speculative profit (if its forecasted exchange rate is accurate) of:$10,523,333 – $9,823,683 = $699,650b. Assume all the preceding information with this exception: Blue Demon Bank expects the peso to appreciate from its present spot rate of $.15 to $.17 in 30 days. How could it attempt to capitalize on its expectations without using deposited funds? Estimate the profits that could be generated from this strategy.ANSWER: Blue Demon Bank can capitalize on its expectations as follows:1. Borrow $10 million2. Convert the $10 million to pesos (MXP):$10,000,000/$.15 = MXP 66, 666,6673. Lend the pesos through the interbank market at 8.5% annualized over a 30-day period. The amount accumulated in 30 days is:MXP66,666,667 × [1 + (8.5% × 30/360)] = 66,666,667 × [1.007083] = MXP67,138,8894. Repay the dollar loan. The repayment amount on the dollar loan is:$10,000,000 × [1 + (8.3% × 30/360)] = $10,000,000 × [1.006917] = $10,069,1705. Convert the pesos to dollars to repay the loan. The amount of dollars to be received in 30 days (based on the expected spot rate of $.17) is:MXP67,138,889 × $.17 = $11,413,6116. The profits are determined by estimating the dollars available after repaying the loan:$11,413,611 – $10,069,170 = $1,344,44123. SpeculationDiamond Bank expects that the Singapore dollar will depreciate against the dollar from its spotDiamond Bank considers borrowing 10 million Singapore dollars in the interbank market andinvesting the funds in dollars for 60 days. Estimate the profits(or losses) that could be earned from this strategy. Should Diamond Bank pursue this strategy?ANSWER:Borrow S$10,000,000 and convert to U.S. $:S$10,000,000 × $.43 = $4,300,000Invest funds for 60 days. The rate earned in the U.S. for 60 days is:7% × (60/360) = 1.17%Total amount accumulated in 60 days:$4,300,000 × (1 + .0117) = $4,350,310Convert U.S. $ back to S$ in 60 days:$4,350,310/$.42 = S$10,357,881The rate to be paid on loan is:.24 × (60/360) = .04Amount owed on S$ loan is:S$10,000,000 × (1 + .04) = S$10,400,000This strategy results in a loss:S$10,357,881 – S$10,400,000 = –S$42,119Diamond Bank should not pursue this strategy.Chapter 52. Risk of Currency Futures. Currency futures markets are commonly used as a means of capitalizing on shifts in currency values, because the value of a futures contract tends to move in line with the change in the corresponding currency value. Recently, many currencies appreciated against the dollar. Most speculators anticipated that these currencies would continue to strengthen and took large buy positions in currency futures. However, the Fed intervened in the foreign exchange market by immediately selling foreign currencies in exchange for dollars, causing an abrupt decline in the values of foreign currencies (as the dollar strengthened). Participants that had purchased currency futures contracts incurred large losses. One floor broker responded to the effects of the Fed's intervention by immediately selling 300 futures contracts on British pounds (with a value of about $30 million). Such actions caused even more panic in the futures market.a. Explain why the central bank s intervention caused such panic among currency futures traders with buy positions.ANSWER: Futures prices on pounds rose in tandem with the value of the pound. However, when central banks intervened to support the dollar, the value of the pound declined, and so did values of futures contracts on pounds. So traders with long (buy) positions in these contracts experienced losses because the contract values declined.b. Explain why the floor broker s willingness to sell 300 pound futures contracts at the going market rate aroused such concern. What might this action signal to other brokers?ANSWER: Normally, this order would have been sold in pieces. This action could signal a desperate situation in which many investors sell futures contracts at any price, which places more downward pressure on currency future prices, and could cause a crisis.c. Explain why speculators with short (sell) positions could benefit as a result of the central bank s intervention.ANSWER: The central bank intervention placed downward pressure on the pound and other European currencies. Thus, the values of futures contracts on these currencies declined. Traders that had short positions in futures would benefit because they could now close out their short positions by purchasing the same contracts that they had sold earlier. Since the prices of futures contracts declined, they would purchase the contracts for a lower price than the price at which they initially sold the contracts.d. Some traders with buy positions may have responded immediately to the central bank s intervention by selling futures contracts. Why would some speculators with buy positions leave their positions unchanged or even increase their positions by purchasing more futures contracts in response to the central bank s intervention?ANSWER: Central bank intervention sometimes has only a temporary effect on exchange rates. Thus, the European currencies could strengthen after a temporary effect caused by central bank intervention. Traders have to predict whether natural market forces will ultimately overwhelm any pressure induced as a result of central bank intervention. ]。

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国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter-7CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is naturalIM-1because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreign exchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission that buyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these contracts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.IM-26. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.IM-37. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ.When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.IM-4PROBLEMS1. Ass ume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three day s’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the changes in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?IM-5Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 •Borrow $100 million at •Pay interest for first three •Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestIM-6basis points (bps) •Roll loan over at•September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal ↓↓↓•••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth paymentinitiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal↓↓↓↓↓•••••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25IM-7The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is: = ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20IM-8payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used to hedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between the futures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:•has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,•accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,•pays interest quarterly,•has a one-year term to maturity, and•calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank Offered Rate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100IM-9a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curve undergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation onthe 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d 2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9. The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142√.50 = 1.1056 and d = 1/u = .9045. At the exercise price of E = 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢- 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0= Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。

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