国际财务管理学第三版答案
国际财务管理(填有答案),DOC
《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案第一章绪论一、单选题1.关于国际财务管理学与财务管理学的关系表述正确的是(C)。
A.国际财务管理是学习财务管理的基础B.国际财务管理与财务管理是两门截然不同的学科C.国际财务管理是财务管理的一个新的分支D.国际财务管理研究的范围要比财务管理的窄2.A.3.A.资金B.4.A.4.A.C.5.A.二、多选1.A.C.2.A.3.A.稳定性4.A.世界统一财务管理观B.比较财务管理观C.跨国公司财务管理观D.国际企业财务管理观5.我国企业的国际财务活动日益频繁，具体表现在()。
A.企业从内向型向外向型转化B.外贸专业公司有了新的发展C.在国内开办三资企业D.向国外投资办企业E.通过各种形式从国外筹集资金三、判断题1.国际财务管理是对企业跨国的财务活动进行的管理。
（）2.国际财务管理学是着重研究企业如何进行国际财务决策，使所有者权益最大化的一门科学。
（）3.国际财务管理与国际金融在研究角度上来说是相同的。
（）4.国际财务管理的目标是单一的，即“股东财富最大化”。
（）5.国际财务管理体系，是以经典财务学理论为指导，将财务学知识体系和实践经验应用于国际化经营的背景下所形成的一套完整的学科体系。
（）6.国际财务管理与一般公司财务管理具有相同的基础，研究对象，适用背景和解决问题的方式。
（）7.我国小企业在越南、缅甸等国设立一个工厂，不能称为跨国公司。
（）8.国际企业财务经理经常利用套期保值功能。
（）9.跨国公司主要是指发达资本主义国家的，以本国为基地，通过对外直接投资，在世界各地设立分支机构或子公司，从事国际化生产和经营活动的垄断企业。
（）四、简答题略1.1.√2.√一、单选1.A.2.A.C.D.3.A.4.A.5.A.6.一国外汇市场的汇率完全由外汇市场的供求关系决定，这种汇率制度称为(B)。
A.固定汇率制B.自由浮动汇率制C.管理浮动汇率制D.单独浮动汇率制7.（D）是指世界各国在货币兑换、国际收支调节、国际储备和结算等方面所共同遵守的惯例或规则而形成的一种制度。
财务管制第三版王化成人民大学出版社课后练习题答案.doc
财务管理第三版王化成人民大学出版社课后练习题答案11第1章案例思考题１.参见P８-11２．青鸟的财务管理目标经历了从利润最大化到公司价值最大化的转变3．最初决策不合适,让步是对的,但程度、方式等都可以再探讨。
第2章练习题1.可节省的人工成本现值=15０0０＊4.９68=74５2０,小于投资额,不应购置。
２.价格＝1０00＊0．8９3＝８9３元3．（1)年金=50００/4.344=1１51.01万元；(2）５００0/１5００=3.333，介于16%利率5年期、6年期年金现值系数之间，年度净利需年底得到，故需要６年还清4.5.A=8%＋１.5*１４%=２9%，同理,B=22％，Ｃ=13.6%,D=４3%6．价格=1000*８％*3.993+１0０0*０.6８1=1000.４4元7.K=5%+0.8*12%=14.６％，价格＝1*(1+３％）／(14.6%-３％)＝8．８8元第二章案例思考题案例１1．36５7２1761+1%1+8.54%1267.１82⨯⨯⨯＝()()亿元２.如果利率为每周1%，按复利计算,6亿美元增加到12亿美元需要７0周,增加到10０0亿美元需要514.1５周案例２1.2．可淘汰C ,风险大报酬小３.当期望报酬率相等时可直接比较标准离差,否则须计算标准离差率来衡量风险第3章案例思考题假定公司总股本为4亿股，且三年保持不变。
教师可自行设定股数。
计算市盈率时,教师也可自行设定每年的股价变动。
趋势分析可做图，综合分析可用杜邦体系。
第四章练习题１. 解：每年折旧＝(１40＋100)4=6０(万元）每年营业现金流量=销售收入（1税率)付现成本(1税率）+折旧税率=220（140%）110（140%）＋604０% ＝１3266＋24=９0(万元)投资项目的现金流量为:１40 10040１0%,６1０%,4１0％，210％，2１00PVＩF 10%，1140＝400.５64+９０3.17００.８26400.826100０.９０9１４0=22．56+2３5．6633．0４９０.９140=－５.72（万元）（2)获利指数=(２2.56+235.6633．04)/(90.9+140)=0．９8（3)贴现率为１0%时,净现值=-５.７2（万元）贴现率为9％时,净现值=４0ＰＶIF 9％,６+90PVＩＦA ９%,4ＰVIF9％,240财务管理第一阶段学习笔记[资料]1《财务管理》课程第1阶段学习笔记网院学号:_110****＊****＿批次：＿201１１0_辅修专业：会计姓名:林怡成绩：___＿___一、学习内容１. 学习体系第一讲：总论第二讲:财务管理的价值观念第三讲:财务报表分析2.学习目标第一章掌握财务管理、财务活动和财务关系的概念和内容，熟悉财务管理木匾的特征,熟悉财务管理目标几种主要观点，熟悉财务管理环境的内容及其与财务管理的关系。
国际财务管理学答案
国际财务管理学答案【篇一：国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 8】saction exposuresuggested answers and solutions to end-of-chapter questions andproblemsquestions1. how would you define transaction exposure? how is it different from economic exposure?answer: transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm?s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. when do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result? answer: hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. on the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. if the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.answer: there is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. in the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. the cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. what are the advantages of a currency options contract asa hedging tool compared with the forward contract?5. suppose your company has purchased a put option on the german mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. in this case, your company can be said to have an ?insurance? policy on its receivable. explain in what sense this is so.。
国际财务管理(填有答案)
《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案第一章绪论一、单选题1. 关于国际财务管理学与财务管理学的关系表述正确的是(C)。
A. 国际财务管理是学习财务管理的基础B. 国际财务管理与财务管理是两门截然不同的学科C. 国际财务管理是财务管理的一个新的分支D. 国际财务管理研究的范围要比财务管理的窄2. 凡经济活动跨越两个或更多国家国界的企业，都可以称为( A )。
A. 国际企业B. 跨国企业C. 跨国公司D. 多国企业3.企业的（ C）管理与财务管理密切结合，是国际财务管理的基本特点A.资金B.人事C.外汇 D成本4.国际财务管理与跨国企业财务管理两个概念( D) 。
A. 完全相同B. 截然不同C. 仅是名称不同D. 内容有所不同4.国际财务管理的内容不应该包括( C )。
A. 国际技术转让费管理B. 外汇风险管理C. 合并财务报表管理D. 企业进出口外汇收支管理5.“企业生产经营国际化”和“金融市场国际化”的关系是( C )。
A. 二者毫不相关B. 二者完全相同C. 二者相辅相成D. 二者互相起负面影响二、多选题1.国际企业财务管理的组织形态应考虑的因素有（）。
A.公司规模的大小B.国际经营的投入程度C.管理经验的多少D.整个国际经营所采取的组织形式2.国际财务管理体系的内容包括（）A.外汇风险的管理B.国际税收管理C.国际投筹资管理D.国际营运资金管3.国际财务管理目标的特点（）。
A.稳定性B.多元性C.层次性D.复杂性4.广义的国际财务管理观包括（）。
A.世界统一财务管理观B.比较财务管理观C.跨国公司财务管理观D.国际企业财务管理观5. 我国企业的国际财务活动日益频繁，具体表现在( )。
A. 企业从内向型向外向型转化B. 外贸专业公司有了新的发展C. 在国内开办三资企业D. 向国外投资办企业E. 通过各种形式从国外筹集资金三、判断题1.国际财务管理是对企业跨国的财务活动进行的管理。
（）2.国际财务管理学是着重研究企业如何进行国际财务决策，使所有者权益最大化的一门科学。
财务管理(王方华_第三版)习题答案
财务管理(王方华_第三版)习题答案第1章 财务管理总论【题1—1】（1）无限责任即467 000元；（2）因为600 000－36 000＝564 000＞467 000，即洪亮仍需承担467 000元，合伙人没有承担风险；（3）有限责任即263 000－90 000＝173 000元。
【题1—2】（1）若公司经营的产品增值率低则应争取一般纳税人，否则是小规模纳税人；（2）理论上的征收率＝［增值额/销售收入］×增值税率，若大于实际征收率应选择小规模纳税人，若小于则应选择一般纳税人，若相等是没有区别的。
【题1—3】25.92％【题1—4】应积极筹集资金回购债券。
第2章 财务管理基本价值观念【题2—1】（1）计算该项改扩建工程的总投资额：2000×（F/A，12%，3）=2000×3.3744=6748.80（万元）从以上计算的结果表明该矿业公司连续三年的投资总额为6748.80万元。
（2）计算该公司在7年内等额归还银行全部借款的本息的金额：67480.80÷（P/A，12%，7）=6748.80÷4.5638=1478.77（万元）计算结果表明，该项工程完工后，该矿业公司若分7年等额归还全部贷款的本息，则每年末应偿付1478.77万元。
（3）计算该公司以每年的净利和折旧1800万元偿还银行借款，需要多少年才能还清本息。
（P/A，12%，n）=6748.80÷1800=3.7493查1元年金现值表，在12%这一栏内找出与3.7493相邻的两个年金现值系数及其相应的期数，并采用插值法计算如下：以上计算结果表明，该公司如果每年末用1800万元来归还贷款的全部本息，需要5.29年可还清。
【题2—2】10年收益于2006年年初的现值为:800000×（P/A，6%，15）-800000×（P/A，6%，5）=800000×9.7122-800000×4.2124=4399840（元）【题2—3】P＝10×（P／A， 6％， 6）＝10×4.9173=49.173（万元）宋女士付给甲开发商的资金现值为：25＋49.173＝ 74.173 （万元）如果直接按每平方米6500元购买，宋女士只需要付出65万元，由此可见分期付款对她而言不合算。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 8(2020年7月整理).pdf
CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure? Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not reallyexposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forward rate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure. (a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield: $20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Th us the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client? (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure? Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,453.75 $3,1500.5790.64(strike price)$/SF$253.75(=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge? Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchang e rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to take?What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfr ont for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€.Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hed ging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 1.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 1.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$. Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,2410.75 (75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,2410.77 (75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,2410.78 (75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,2410.79 (75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,2410.80 (75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,2410.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s s ales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit 120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010 121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564 122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666 123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986 124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204 125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010 126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105 127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360 128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360 129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360 130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360 131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360 132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360 133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360 134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360 135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360 136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360 137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360 138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360 139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360 140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360 141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360 142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360 143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360 144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360 145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360 146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360 147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360 148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360 149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360 150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360。
刘玉平财务管理学第3版课后习题详解考研真题
刘玉平《财务管理学》（第3版）笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）第一部分复习指南目录封面第一章总论1.1 复习笔记1.2 课后习题详解1.3 考研真题与典型题详解第二章财务管理环境2.1 复习笔记2.2 课后习题详解2.3 考研真题与典型题详解第三章价值衡量3.1 复习笔记3.2 课后习题详解3.3 考研真题与典型题详解第四章财务分析4.1 复习笔记4.2 课后习题详解4.3 考研真题与典型题详解第五章企业融资决策5.1 复习笔记5.2 课后习题详解5.3 考研真题与典型题详解第六章资本成本与资本结构6.1 复习笔记6.2 课后习题详解6.3 考研真题与典型题详解第七章内部长期投资决策7.1 复习笔记7.2 课后习题详解7.3 考研真题与典型题详解第八章对外长期投资决策8.1 复习笔记8.2 课后习题详解8.3 考研真题与典型题详解第九章短期财务决策9.1 复习笔记9.2 课后习题详解9.3 考研真题与典型题详解第十章利润与股利分配政策10.1 复习笔记10.2 课后习题详解10.3 考研真题与典型题详解试读第一章总论1.1 复习笔记第一节财务管理理论的发展一、财务管理的概念企业财务管理，就是在国家方针、政策指导下，根据国民经济发展的客观规律和企业资金活动的特点，对企业的资金运动所进行的决策、计划、组织、监督和控制，对企业的财务关系进行协调的一项工作。
简单地讲，企业财务管理就是组织企业财务活动，处理财务关系的一项经济管理活动，它是企业管理的重要组成部分。
二、财务管理的对象1．企业的资金运动：企业的资金运动过程，可以分为筹集、运用和分配三个阶段。
（1）资金的筹集：企业筹集资金的途径主要有两种：一种是所接受的投资者投入的资金，即企业的资本金；另一种是向债权人借入的资金，即企业的负债。
（2）资金的运用：资金运用是把筹集到的资金合理地投到生产经营活动过程及各个方面。
（3）资金的分配：企业将取得的营业收入进行分配。
国际财务管理习题及答案
01
3. 国际融资风险管理
02
• 国际融资风险的识别与评估
03
• 国际融资风险的控制与防范措施
国际营运资金管理的答案
1. 国际营运资金管理概述 • 国际营运资金管理的定义和目标
• 国际营运资金管理的主要内容和方法
国际营运资金管理的答案
2. 国际现金管理
• 国际现金流入与流出的管理
• 国际现金预算与控制的方法和 步骤
国际投资决策
1. 简答题
简述国际投资的优势和风险。
4. 案例题
分析某公司如何进行国际投资决策。
2. 论述题
论述国际投资决策需要考虑的因素。
3. 计算题
计算国际投资组合的预期收益率和风险。
国际融资决策
1. 简答题
简述国际融资的渠道和方式。
3. 计算题
计算国际融资的成本和效益。
2. 论述题
论述国际融资决策需要考虑的因 素。
国际财务管理涉及多国经济环境、货 币汇率变动、国际税务法规、政治风 险等因素，需要综合考虑多种因素， 制定合适的财务策略。
国际财务管理的重要性
1. 全球化经营的需要
随着全球化进程加速，跨国公司需要有效的国际财务管理来整合全 球资源，优化资源配置，提高经营效率。
2. 降低财务风险
国际财务管理有助于跨国公司识别、评估和控制财务风险，降低经 营风险。
国际营运资金管理的答案
3. 国际应收账款管理
• 国际应收账款的信用政策制定与执 行
• 国际应收账款的催收与保理业务
04 国际财务管理案例分析
跨国公司外汇风险管理案例
案例背景
某跨国公司在多个国家设有子公 司，由于各国的汇率波动，公司 面临外汇风险。
(完整word版)国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter9
CHAPTER 9 MANAGEMENT OF ECONOMIC EXPOSURESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define economic exposure to exchange risk?Answer: Economic exposure can be defined as the possibility that the firm’s cash flows and thus its market value may be affected by the unexpected exchange rate changes.2. Explain the following statement: “Exposure is the regression coefficient.”Answer: Exposure to currency risk can be appropriately measured by th e sensitivity of the firm’s future cash flows and the market value to random changes in exchange rates. Statistically, this sensitivity can be estimated by the regression coefficient. Thus, exposure can be said to be the regression coefficient.3. Suppose that your company has an equity position in a French firm. Discuss the condition under which the dollar/franc exchange rate uncertainty does not constitute exchange exposure for your company.Answer: Mere changes in exchange rates do not necessarily constitute currency exposure. If the French franc value of the equity moves in the opposite direction as much as the dollar value of the franc changes, then the dollar value of the equity position will be insensitive to exchange rate movements. As a result, your company will not be exposed to currency risk.4. Explain the competitive and conversion effects of exchange rate changes on the firm’s operating cash flow.Answer: The competitive effect: exchange rate changes may affect operating cash flows by altering the firm’s competitive position.The conversion effect: A given operating cash flows in terms of a foreign currency will be converted into higher or lower dollar (home currency)amounts as the exchange rate changes.5. Discuss the determinants of operating exposure.Answer: The main determinants of a firm’s operating exposure are (1) the structure of the markets in which the firm sources its inputs, such as labor and materials, and sells its products, and (2) the firm’s ability to mitigate the effect of exchange rate changes by adjusting its markets, product mix, and sourcing.6. Discuss the implications of purchasing power parity for operating exposure.Answer: If the exchange rate changes are matched by the inflation rate differential between countries, firms’ competitive positions will not be altered by exchange rate changes. Firms are not subject to operating exposure.7. General Motors exports cars to Spain but the strong dollar against the peseta hurts sales of GM cars in Spain. In the Spanish market, GM faces competition from the Italian and French car makers, such as Fiat and Renault, whose currencies remain stable relative to the peseta. What kind of measures would you recommend so that GM can maintain its market share in Spain.Answer: Possible measures that GM can take include: (1) diversify the market; try to market the cars not just in Spain and other European countries but also in, say, Asia; (2) locate production facilities in Spain and source inputs locally; (3) locate production facilities, say, in Mexico where production costs are low and export to Spain from Mexico.8. What are the advantages and disadvantages of financial hedging of the firm’s operating exposure vis-à-vis operational hedges (such as relocating manufacturing site)?Answer: Financial hedging can be implemented quickly with relatively low costs, but it is difficult to hedge against long-term, real exposure with financial contracts. On the other hand, operational hedges are costly, time-consuming, and not easily reversible.9. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of maintaining multiple manufacturing sites as a hedge against exchange rate exposure.Answer: To establish multiple manufacturing sites can be effective in managing exchange risk exposure, but it can be costly because the firm may not be able to take advantage of the economy of scale.10. Evaluate the following statement: “A firm can reduce its currency exposure by diversifying across different business lines.”Answer: Conglomerate expansion may be too costly as a means of hedging exchange risk exposure. Investment in a different line of business must be made based on its own merit.11. The exchange rate uncertainty may not necessarily mean that firms face exchange risk exposure. Explain why this may be the case.Answer: A firm can have a natural hedging position due to, for example, diversified markets, flexible sourcing capabilities, etc. In addition, to the extent that the PPP holds, nominal exchange rate changes do not influenc e firms’ competitive positions. Under these circumstances, firms do not need to worry about exchange risk exposure.PROBLEMS1. Suppose that you hold a piece of land in the City of London that you may want to sell in one year. As a U.S. resident, you are concerned with the dollar value of the land. Assume that, if the British economy booms in the future, the land will be worth £2,000 and one British pound will be worth $1.40. If the British economy slows down, on the other hand, the land will be worth less, i.e., £1,500, but the pound will be stronger, i.e., $1.50/£. You feel that the British economy will experience a boom with a 60% probability and a slow-down with a 40% probability.(a) Estimate your exposure b to the exchange risk.(b) Compute the variance of the dollar value of your property that is attributable to the exchange rate uncertainty.(c) Discuss how you can hedge your exchange risk exposure and also examine the consequences of hedging.Solution: (a) Let us compute the necessary parameter values:E(P) = (.6)($2800)+(.4)($2250) = $1680+$900 = $2,580E(S) = (.6)(1.40)+(.4)(1.5) = 0.84+0.60 = $1.44Var(S) = (.6)(1.40-1.44)2 + (.4)(1.50-1.44)2= .00096+.00144 = .0024.Cov(P,S) = (.6)(2800-2580)(1.4-1.44)+(.4)(2250-2580)(1.5-1.44)= -5.28-7.92 = -13.20b = Cov(P,S)/Var(S) = -13.20/.0024 = -£5,500.You have a negative exposure! As the pound gets stronger (weaker) against the dollar, the dollar value of your British holding goes down (up).(b) b2Var(S) = (-5500)2(.0024) =72,600($)2(c) Buy £5,500 forward. By doing so, you can eliminate the volatility of the dollar value of your British asset that is due to the exchange rate volatility.2. A U.S. firm holds an asset in France and faces the following scenario:In the above table, P* is the euro price of the asset held by the U.S. firm and P is the dollar price of the asset.(a) Compute the exchange exposure faced by the U.S. firm.(b) What is the variance of the dollar price of this asset if the U.S. firm remains unhedged against thisexposure?(c) If the U.S. firm hedges against this exposure using the forward contract, what is the variance of thedollar value of the hedged position?Solution: (a)E(S) = .25(1.20 +1.10+1.00+0.90) = $1.05/€E(P) = .25(1,800+1,540+1,300 +1,080) = $1,430Var(S) = .25[(1.20-1.05)2 +(1.10-1.05)2+(1.00-1.05)2+(0.90-1.05)2]= .0125Cov(P,S) = .25[(1,800-1,430)(1.20-1.05) + (1,540-1,430)(1.10-1.05)(1,300-1,430)(1.00-1.05) + (1,080-1,430)(0.90-1.05)]= 30b = Cov(P,S)/Var(S) = 30/0.0125 = €2,400.(b) Var(P) = .25[(1,800-1,430)2+(1,540-1,430)2+(1,300-1,430)2+(1,080-1,430)2]= 72,100($)2.(c) Var(P) - b2Var(S) = 72,100 - (2,400)2(0.0125) = 100($)2.This means that most of the volatility of the dollar value of the French asset can be removed by hedging exchange risk. The hedging can be achieved by selling €2,400 forward.MINI CASE: ECONOMIC EXPOSURE OF ALBION COMPUTERS PLCConsider Case 3 of Albion Computers PLC discussed in the chapter. Now, assume that the pound is expected to depreciate to $1.50 from the current level of $1.60 per pound. This implies that the pound cost of the imported part, i.e., Intel’s microprocessors, is £341 (=$512/$1.50). Other variables, such as the unit sales volume and the U.K. inflation rate, remain the same as in Case 3.(a) Compute the projected annual cash flow in dollars.(b) Compute the projected operating gains/losses over the four-year horizon as the discounted present value of change in cash flows, which is due to the pound depreciation, from the benchmark case presented in Exhibit 12.4.(c) What actions, if any, can Albion take to mitigate the projected operating losses due to the pound depreciation?Suggested Solution to Economic Exposure of Albion Computers PLCa) The projected annual cash flow can be computed as follows:______________________________________________________Sales (40,000 units at £1,080/unit) £43,200,000Variable costs (40,000 units at £697/unit) £27,880,000Fixed overhead costs 4,000,000Depreciation allowances 1,000,000Net profit before tax £15,315,000Income tax (50%) 7,657,500Profit after tax 7,657,500Add back depreciation 1,000,000Operating cash flow in pounds £8,657,500Operating cash flow in dollars $12,986,250______________________________________________________b) ______________________________________________________Benchmark CurrentVariables Case Case______________________________________________________Exchange rate ($/£) 1.60 1.50Unit variable cost (£) 650 697Unit sales price (£) 1,000 1,080Sales volume (units) 50,000 40,000Annual cash flow (£) 7,250,000 8,657,500Annual cash flow ($) 11,600,000 12,986,250Four-year present value ($) 33,118,000 37,076,946Operating gains/losses ($) 3,958,946______________________________________________________c) In this case, Albion actually can expect to realize exchange gains, rather than losses. This is mainly due to the fact that while the selling price appreciates by 8% in the U.K. market, the variable cost of imported input increased by about 6.25%. Albion may choose not to do anything.。
国际财务管理学第三版答案
国际财务管理学第三版答案【篇一：国际财务管理离线作业_答案】txt>第1章国际财务管理导论一、名词解释1.国际企业: 超越国界从事商业活动的企业，包括各种类型、各种规模的参与国际商务的企业。
国内生产、国际销售是国际企业最简单的国际业务。
跨国公司是国际企业发展的较高阶段和典型代表。
2.许可经营:许可方企业向受许可方企业提供技术，包括、专利技术、技术诀窍或商标以换取使用费的一种经营方式。
当许可方企业与受许可方企业分别位于不同国家时，就形成了国家间的许可经营。
这种方式也可以被看作技术出口。
3.特许经营：是一种特殊的许可经营方式，许可方通过向被许可方提供全套专业化企业经营手段，包括商标、企业组织、销售或服务策略和培训、技术支持等定期取得特许权使用费，被许可方则必须同意遵守严格的规则和程序以实现经营的标准化。
特许权使用费通常以被许可方的销售收入为基础收取。
4.分部式组织: 称事业部制组织结构。
其特点是在高层管理者之下，按地区或产品设置若干分部，实行“集中政策，分散经营”的集中领导下的分权管理。
5.混合式组织：事实上很少有哪家企业是单纯采用一种结构类型的，采用两种以上组合方式的称为混合式结构。
6.分权模式: 子公司拥有充分的财务管理决策权，母公司对于其财务管理控制以间接管理为主。
二、简答题1.国际财务管理与国内企业的财务管理内容有哪些的重要区别。
【答案】国际财务管理是指对国际企业的涉外经济活动进行的财务管理。
财务管理主要涉与的是如何作出各种最佳的公司财务决定，比如通过适宜的投资、资产结构、股息政策以与人力资源管理，从而达到既定的公司目标（股东财富最大化）。
国际财务管理与国内财务管理之间的区别主要体现在以下几个方面：（1）跨国经营和财务活动受外汇风险的影响；（2）全球范围内融资，寻求最佳全球融资战略；（3）跨国经营中商品和资金无法自由流动；（4）对外投资为股东在全球范围内分散风险。
2.试述国际财务管理体系的内容。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 3
CHAPTER 3 BALANCE OF PAYMENTSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Define the balance of payments.Answer: The balance of payments (BOP) can be defined as the statistical record of a country’s international transactions over a certain period of time presented in the form of double-entry bookkeeping.2. Why would it be useful to examine a country’s balance of payments data?Answer: It would be useful to examine a country’s BOP for at least two reaso ns. First, BOP provides detailed information about the supply and demand of the country’s currency. Second, BOP data can be used to evaluate the performance of the country in international economic competition. For example, if a country is experiencing per ennial BOP deficits, it may signal that the country’s industries lack competitiveness.3. The United States has experienced continuous current account deficits since the early 1980s. What do you think are the main causes for the deficits? What would be the consequences of continuous U.S. current account deficits?Answer: The current account deficits of U.S. may have reflected a few reasons such as (I) a historically high real interest rate in the U.S., which is due to ballooning federal budget deficits, that kept the dollar strong, and (ii) weak competitiveness of the U.S. industries.4. In contrast to the U.S., Japan has realized continuous current account surpluses. What could be the main causes for these surpluses? Is it desirable to have continuous current account surpluses?Answer: Japan’s continuous current account surpluses may have reflected a weak yen and high competitiveness of Japanese industries. Massive capital exports by Japan prevented yen from appreciating more than it did. At the same time, foreigners’ exports to Japan were hampered by closed nature of Japanese markets. Continuous current account surpluses disrupt free trade by promoting protectionistsentiment in the deficit country. It is not desirable especially when it is brought about by the mercantilist policies.5. Comment on the following statement: “Since the U.S. imports more than it exports, it is necessary for the U.S. to import capital from foreign countries to finance its current account deficits.”Answer: The statement presupposes that the U.S. current account deficit causes its capital account surplus. In reality, the causality may be running in the opposite direction: U.S. capital account surplus may cause the country’s current account deficit. Suppose foreigners fin d the U.S. a great place to invest and send their capital to the U.S., resulting in U.S. capital account surplus. This capital inflow will strengthen the dollar, hurting the U.S. export and encouraging imports from foreign countries, causing current account deficits.6. Explain how a country can run an overall balance of payments deficit or surplus.Answer: A country can run an overall BOP deficit or surplus by engaging in the official reserve transactions. For example, an overall BOP deficit can be su pported by drawing down the central bank’s reserve holdings. Likewise, an overall BOP surplus can be absorbed by adding to the central bank’s reserve holdings.7. Explain official reserve assets and its major components.Answer: Official reserve assets are those financial assets that can be used as international means of payments. Currently, official reserve assets comprise: (I) gold, (ii) foreign exchanges, (iii) special drawing rights (SDRs), and (iv) reserve positions with the IMF. Foreign exchanges are by far the most important official reserves.8. Explain how to compute the overall balance and discuss its significance.Answer: The overall BOP is determined by computing the cumulative balance of payments including the current account, capital account, and the statistical discrepancies. The overall BOP is significant because it indicates a country’s international payment gap that must be financed by the government’s official reserve transactions.9. Since the early 1980s, foreign portfolio investors have purchased a significant portion of U.S. treasury bond issues. Discuss the short-term and long-term effects of foreigners’ portfolio investment on the U.S. balance of payments.Answer: As foreigners purchase U.S. Treasury bonds, U.S. BOP will improve in the short run. But in the long run, U.S. BOP may deteriorate because the U.S. should pay interests and principals to foreigners. If foreign funds are used productively and contributes to the competitiveness of U.S. industries, however, U.S. BOP may improve in the long run.10. Describe the balance of payments identity and discuss its implications under the fixed and flexible exchange rate regimes.Answer: The balance of payments identity holds that the combined balance on the current and capital accounts should be equal in size, but opposite in sign, to the change in the official reserves: BCA + BKA = -BRA. Under the pure flexible exchange rate regime, central banks do not engage in official reserve transactions. Thus, the overall balance must balance, i.e., BCA = -BKA. Under the fixed exchange rate regime, however, a country can have an overall BOP surplus or deficit as the central bank will accommodate it via official reserve transactions.11. Exhibit 3.3 indicates that in 1991, the U.S. had a current account deficit and at the same time a capital account deficit. Explain how this can happen?Answer: In 1991, the U.S. experienced an overall BOP deficit, which must have been accommodated by the Federal Reserve’s official reserve action, i.e., drawing down its reserve holdings.12. Explain how each of the following transactions will be classified and recorded in the debit and credit of the U.S. balance of payments:(1) A Japanese insurance company purchases U.S. Treasury bonds and pays out of its bank account kept in New York City.(2) A U.S. citizen consumes a meal at a restaurant in Paris and pays with her American Express card.(3) A Indian immigrant living in Los Angeles sends a check drawn on his L.A. bank account as a gift to his parents living in Bombay.(4) A U.S. computer programmer is hired by a British company for consulting and gets paid from the U.S. bank account maintained by the British company.Answer:_________________________________________________________________Transactions Credit Debit_________________________________________________________________Japanese purchase of U.S. T bonds √Japanese payment using NYC account √U.S. citizen having a meal in Paris √Paying the meal with American Express √Gift to parents in Bombay √Receipts of the check by parents (goodwill) √Export of programming service √British payment out its account in U.S. √_________________________________________________________________13. Construct the balance of payment table for Japan for the year of 1998 which is comparable in format to Exhibit 3.1, and interpret the numerical data. You may consult International Financial Statistics published by IMF or research for useful websites for the data yourself.Answer:A summary of the Japanese Balance of Payments for 1998 (in $ billion)Credits DebitsCurrent Account(1) Exports 646.03(1.1) Merchandise 374.04(1.2) Services 62.41(1.3) Factor income 209.58(2) Imports -516.50(2.1) Merchandise -251.66(2.2) Services -111.83(3.3) Factor income -153.01(3) Unilateral transfer 5.53 -14.37Balance on current account 120.69[(1) + (2) + (3)]Capital Account(4) Direct investment 3.27 -24.62(5) Portfolio investment 73.70 -113.73(5.1) Equity securities 16.11 -14.00(5.2) Debt securities 57.59 -99.73(6) Other investment 39.51 -109.35Balance on financial account -131.22[(4) + (5) + (6)](7) Statistical discrepancies 4.36Overall balance -6.17Official Reserve Account 6.17Source: IMF, International Financial Statistics Yearbook, 1999.Note: Capital account in the above table corresponds with the ‘Financial account’ in IMF’s balance of payment statistics. IMF’s Capital account’ is included in ‘Other investment’ in the above table.MINI CASE: MEXICO’S BALANCE OF PAYMENTS PROBLEMRecently, Mexico experienced large-scale trade deficits, depletion of foreign reserve holdings and a major currency devaluation in December 1994, followed by the decision to freely float the peso. These events also brought about a severe recession and higher unemployment in Mexico. Since the devaluation, however, the trade balance has improved.Investigate the Mexican experiences in detail and write a report on the subject. In the report, you may:(a) document the tr end in Mexico’s key economic indicators, such as the balance of payments, the exchange rate, and foreign reserve holdings, during the period 1994.1 through 1995.12.;(b) investigate the causes of Mexico’s balance of payments difficulties prior to the peso devaluation;(c) discuss what policy actions might have prevented or mitigated the balance of payments problem and the subsequent collapse of the peso; and(d) derive lessons from the Mexican experience that may be useful for other developing countries.In your report, you may identify and address any other relevant issues concerning Mexico’s balance of payment problem.Suggested Solution to Mexico’s Balance-of-Payments ProblemTo solve this case, it is useful to review Chapter 2, especially the section on the Mexican peso crisis. Despite the fact that Mexico had experienced continuous trade deficits until December 1994, the country’s currency was not allowed to depreciate for political reasons. The Mexican government did not want the peso devaluation before the Presidential election held in 1994. If the Mexican peso had been allowed to gradually depreciate against the major currencies, the peso crisis could have been prevented.The key lessons that can be derived from the peso crisis are: First, Mexico depended too much on short-term foreign portfolio capital (which is easily reversible) for its economic growth. The country perhaps should have saved more domestically and depended more on long-term foreign capital. This can be a valuable lesson for many developing countries. Second, the lack of reliable economic information was another contributing factor to the peso crisis. The Salinas administration was reluctant to fully disclose the true state of the Mexican economy. If investors had known that Mexico was experiencing serious trade deficits and rapid depletion of foreign exchange reserves, the peso might have been gradually depreciating, rather than suddenly collapsed as it did. The transparent disclosure of economic data can help prevent the peso-type crisis. Third, it is important to safeguard the world financial system from the peso-type crisis. To this end, a multinational safety net needs to be in place to contain the peso-type crisis in the early stage.。
国际财务管理(填有答案)
《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案第一章绪论一、单选题1. 关于国际财务管理学与财务管理学的关系表述正确的是(C)。
A. 国际财务管理是学习财务管理的基础B. 国际财务管理与财务管理是两门截然不同的学科C. 国际财务管理是财务管理的一个新的分支D. 国际财务管理研究的范围要比财务管理的窄2. 凡经济活动跨越两个或更多国家国界的企业，都可以称为( A )。
A. 国际企业B. 跨国企业C. 跨国公司D. 多国企业3.企业的（ C）管理与财务管理密切结合，是国际财务管理的基本特点A.资金B.人事C.外汇 D成本4.国际财务管理与跨国企业财务管理两个概念( D) 。
A. 完全相同B. 截然不同C. 仅是名称不同D. 内容有所不同4.国际财务管理的内容不应该包括( C )。
A. 国际技术转让费管理B. 外汇风险管理C. 合并财务报表管理D. 企业进出口外汇收支管理5.“企业生产经营国际化”和“金融市场国际化”的关系是( C )。
A. 二者毫不相关B. 二者完全相同C. 二者相辅相成D. 二者互相起负面影响二、多选题1.国际企业财务管理的组织形态应考虑的因素有（）。
A.公司规模的大小B.国际经营的投入程度C.管理经验的多少D.整个国际经营所采取的组织形式2.国际财务管理体系的内容包括（）A.外汇风险的管理B.国际税收管理C.国际投筹资管理D.国际营运资金管3.国际财务管理目标的特点（）。
A.稳定性B.多元性C.层次性D.复杂性4.广义的国际财务管理观包括（）。
A.世界统一财务管理观B.比较财务管理观C.跨国公司财务管理观D.国际企业财务管理观5. 我国企业的国际财务活动日益频繁，具体表现在( )。
A. 企业从内向型向外向型转化B. 外贸专业公司有了新的发展C. 在国内开办三资企业D. 向国外投资办企业E. 通过各种形式从国外筹集资金三、判断题1.国际财务管理是对企业跨国的财务活动进行的管理。
（）2.国际财务管理学是着重研究企业如何进行国际财务决策，使所有者权益最大化的一门科学。
财务管理(第三版)课后题答案
第一章 案例思考题1． 参见P8-112． 青鸟的财务管理目标经历了从利润最大化到公司价值最大化的转变 3． 最初决策不合适，让步是对的，但程度、方式等都可以再探讨。
第二章 练习题1． 可节省的人工成本现值=15000*4.968=74520，小于投资额，不应购置。
2． 价格=1000*0.893=893元3． （1）年金=5000/4.344=1151.01万元；（2）5000/1500 =3.333，介于16%利率5年期、6年期年金现值系数之间，年度净利需年底得到，故需要6年还清5． A=8%+1.5*14%=29%，同理，B=22%，C=13.6%，D=43% 6． 价格=1000*8%*3.993+1000*0.681=1000.44元7． K=5%+0.8*12%=14.6%，价格=1*（1+3%）/（14.6%-3%）=8.88元第二章 案例思考题 案例11．365721761+1%1+8.54%1267.182⨯⨯⨯=（）（）亿元2．如果利率为每周1%，按复利计算，6亿美元增加到12亿美元需要70周，增加到1000亿美元需要514.15周案例22．可淘汰C，风险大报酬小3．当期望报酬率相等时可直接比较标准离差，否则须计算标准离差率来衡量风险第三章案例思考题假定公司总股本为4亿股，且三年保持不变。
教师可自行设定股数。
计算市盈率时，教师也可自行设定每年的股价变动。
趋势分析可做图，综合分析可用杜邦体系。
第四章 练习题1. 解：每年折旧=（140+100）÷4=60（万元）每年营业现金流量=销售收入⨯（1-税率）-付现成本⨯（1-税率）+折旧⨯税率 =220⨯（1-40%）-110⨯（1-40%）+60⨯40% =132-66+24=90（万元）（1）净现值=40⨯PVIF 10%,6+90⨯PVIFA 10%,4⨯PVIF 10%,2-40⨯ PVIF 10%,2-100⨯ PVIF 10%,1-140 =40⨯0.564+90⨯3.170⨯0.826-40⨯0.826-100⨯0.909-140 =22.56+235.66-33.04-90.9-140=-5.72（万元） （2）获利指数=（22.56+235.66）/（90.9+140+33.04）=0.98 （3） 贴现率为10%时，净现值=-5.72（万元）贴现率为9%时，净现值=40⨯PVIF 9%,6+90⨯PVIFA 9%,4⨯PVIF 9%,2-40⨯ PVIF 9%,2-100⨯ PVIF 9%,1-140=40⨯0.596+90⨯3.240⨯0.842-40⨯0.842-100⨯0.917-140 =23.84+245.53-33.68-91.7-140=-3.99（万元） 设内部报酬率为r ，则：72.599.3%9%1099.3%9+-=-r r=9.41%综上，由于净现值小于0，获利指数小于1，贴现率小于资金成本10%，故项目不可行。
财务管理(第三版)课后答案
附录《财务管理》第三版参考答案第1章【练习题】1.1独资企业、合作企业、公司制企业1.2公司、有利于企业融资1.3业绩股、递延奖金1.4预算约束、人员控制、审计监督1.5 A C1.6 B C1.7 A B C D1.8 A B C D1.9 B1.10 D1.11 A B C D1.12 ~1.16 错错错错对【自测题】1.1 参见教材相关内容。
1.2 主要内容：保留重大财务事项的决策权；建立与完善对经营者的激励机制；建立于完善对经营者的约束及控制机制。
1.3 参见教材第5页相关内容。
1.4 相同点：两者都是用来指导企业财务决策的财务目标或价值理念，以实现企业的最高财务目标即“业主经济利益最大化”。
主要区别：1.两者产生的经济背景不同，“利润最大化”观点产生于19世纪，当时企业组织形式主要是单个业主制，企业通过自筹资金来运作；随着公司制等现代企业组织形式的出现和发展，所有权与经营权的分离，企业利益主体开始多元化，现代财务主流理论接受了“财富最大化”观点。
2.在满足利益要求方面，“利润最大化”仅仅考虑业主利益，而“财富最大化”综合考虑业主、雇员、债权人及社会等多方面利益主体的要求。
3.在企业财务决策方面，“利润最大化”仅仅考虑投资问题，而“财富最大化”综合考虑投资、筹资及股利政策等问题。
4.在投资收益评价方面，“利润最大化”考虑的是期间利润，而“财富最大化”区分不同时期的报酬，即考虑资金的时间价值和风险因素。
由于以上区别，“利润最大化”目标观念易导致企业的短期行为，而“财富最大化”目标观念能兼顾短期利益和长远利益，促进企业稳定发展。
第2章【自测题】2.1 （财务管理与会计的区别参见教材相关内容）财务管理与会计虽然在职能上存在差别，但两者是相辅相成的，在实际工作中两者密不可分，财务管理执行分析、预测等职能，必须以会计提供的核算数据为基础，并且了解实际的核算过程和特点；同时财务管理的结果必然对会计核算流程、成本控制等方面产生影响，即财务管理对会计工作可发挥导向作用。
国际财务管理学第三版试卷
国际财务管理学第三版试卷篇一：国际财务管理期末测试题《国际财务管理》一、单项选择题1. 国际证券组合投资可以降低（）。
A .系统风险B .非系统风险C .市场风险D .不可分散风险【答案】B2. 如果票面利率小于市场利率，此时债券应该（）发行。
A .溢价B .折价C .平价D .以上答案都可以【答案】B3. 以下风险中最重要的是（）。
A .商品交易风险B .外汇借款风险C .会计折算风险D .经济风险【答案】D4. 如果某项借款名义贷款期为10年，而实际贷款期只有5年，则这项借款最有可能采用的偿还方式是（）。
A .到期一次偿还B .分期等额偿还C .逐年分次等额还本D .以上三种都可以【答案】C5. 在国际信贷计算利息时以365/365来表示计息天数与基础天数的关系称为（）。
A .大陆法B .欧洲货币法C .英国法D .时态法【答案】C6. 欧洲货币市场的主要短期信贷利率是（）。
A .LIBORB .SIBORC .HOBORD .NIBOR【答案】A7. 一国政府、金融机构、公司等在某一外国债券市场上发行的，不是以该外国的货币为面值的债券是（）。
A .普通债券B .国内债券C .欧洲债券D .外国债券【答案】C8. 在对国外投资的子公司进行财务评价时，应扣除的子公司不可控因素不包括（）。
A .转移价格B .利率波动C .通货膨胀D .汇率波动【答案】B9. 在国际技术转让中，利润分享率一般认为应是（）。
A .1/2B .1/3C .1/4D .1/5【答案】C10. 美国A公司预测美元对英镑美元升值，美元对马克美元贬值，则A公司（）。
A .从英国的进口，应加快支付B .对英国的出口，应推迟收汇C .从德国的进口，应推迟支付D .对德国的出口，应推迟收汇【答案】D11. "使用外资收益率"这一指标等于1减去（）。
A .可偿还期B .外资偿还率C .补偿贸易换汇率D .补偿贸易利润率【答案】B12. 国际商业银行贷款中不属于短期的是（）。
浙大XXX《国际财务管理》在线答案
浙大XXX《国际财务管理》在线答案您的本次作业分数为：100分单选题1.依据财务打算、各项治理制度等标准，运用一定的方法，对企业各项财务活动的全过程进行有效的日常监控，以保证财务目标的实现属于国际财务治理的（）。
• A 财务规划职能• B 财务操纵职能• C 财务分析职能• D 财务和谐职能正确答案:B单选题2.（）科学地考虑了风险与酬劳之间的联系，能有效地克服企业财务治理人员不顾风险的大小，只片面追求利润的错误倾向。
• A 利润最大化目标• B 净现值最大化目标• C 资本成本最小化目标• D 股东财宝最大化目标正确答案:D单选题3.非预期的汇率变动通过阻碍跨国公司的生产销售数量、价格、成本等，导致公司国际竞争地位发生变化的风险是（）。
• A 折算风险• B 交易风险• C 经营风险• D 利率风险正确答案:C单选题4.（）是两个或两个以上主权国家之间，为了和谐在处理跨国纳税人征税事务和其他方面的税收事务，依据国际关系准则所签订的协议或者条约。
• A 税收抵免• B 税收协定• C 国际避税地• D 贸易谈判正确答案:B单选题5.（）是评判国际财务治理活动是否合理的标准，是整个国际财务治理活动的定向机制、动身点和归宿。
• A 国际财务治理的特点• B 国际财务治理的职能• C 国际财务治理的目标• D 国际财务治理的内容正确答案:C单选题6.（）是指通过货币收付结清国际间由于国际贸易后其他政治、经济、文化等交流活动而发生的债权债务所确定的原则和采取的措施。
• A 国际货币制度• B 国际收支制度• C 国际结算制度• D 国际贸易制度正确答案:C单选题7.国际现金治理，国际应收账款治理，国际存货治理属于（）。
• A 国际税收治理• B 国际投资治理• C 国际筹资治理• D 国际营运资金治理正确答案:D单选题8.对企业的会计核算职能与财务治理职能不能进行分工的财务治理机构是（）。
• A 以会计为轴心的财务治理机构• B 与会计机构并行的财务治理机构• C 财务公司型治理机构• D 企业各机构单设财务治理职能部门正确答案:A单选题9.（）是企业因进行对外交易而取得外币债券或承担外币债务时，由于交易发生日的汇率与结算日的汇率不一致，可能导致收入或支动身生变动的风险。
- 1、下载文档前请自行甄别文档内容的完整性，平台不提供额外的编辑、内容补充、找答案等附加服务。
- 2、"仅部分预览"的文档,不可在线预览部分如存在完整性等问题,可反馈申请退款(可完整预览的文档不适用该条件!)。
- 3、如文档侵犯您的权益，请联系客服反馈,我们会尽快为您处理(人工客服工作时间：9:00-18:30)。
国际财务管理学第三版答案国际财务管理学第三版答案【篇一：国际财务管理离线作业_答案】txt>第1章国际财务管理导论一、名词解释1.国际企业: 超越国界从事商业活动的企业，包括各种类型、各种规模的参与国际商务的企业。
国内生产、国际销售是国际企业最简单的国际业务。
跨国公司是国际企业发展的较高阶段和典型代表。
2.许可经营:许可方企业向受许可方企业提供技术，包括版权、专利技术、技术诀窍或商标以换取使用费的一种经营方式。
当许可方企业与受许可方企业分别位于不同国家时，就形成了国家间的许可经营。
这种方式也可以被看作技术出口。
3.特许经营：是一种特殊的许可经营方式，许可方通过向被许可方提供全套专业化企业经营手段，包括商标、企业组织、销售或服务策略和培训、技术支持等定期取得特许权使用费，被许可方则必须同意遵守严格的规则和程序以实现经营的标准化。
特许权使用费通常以被许可方的销售收入为基础收取。
4.分部式组织: 称事业部制组织结构。
其特点是在高层管理者之下，按地区或产品设置若干分部，实行“集中政策，分散经营”的集中领导下的分权管理。
5.混合式组织：事实上很少有哪家企业是单纯采用一种结构类型的，采用两种以上组合方式的称为混合式结构。
6.分权模式: 子公司拥有充分的财务管理决策权，母公司对于其财务管理控制以间接管理为主。
二、简答题1.国际财务管理与国内企业的财务管理内容有哪些的重要区别。
【答案】国际财务管理是指对国际企业的涉外经济活动进行的财务管理。
财务管理主要涉及的是如何作出各种最佳的公司财务决定，比如通过适宜的投资、资产结构、股息政策以及人力资源管理，从而达到既定的公司目标（股东财富最大化）。
国际财务管理与国内财务管理之间的区别主要体现在以下几个方面：（1）跨国经营和财务活动受外汇风险的影响；（2）全球范围内融资，寻求最佳全球融资战略；（3）跨国经营中商品和资金无法自由流动；（4）对外投资为股东在全球范围内分散风险。
2.试述国际财务管理体系的内容。
【答案】国际财务管理体系的内容主要包括：（1）国际财务管理环境。
指的是国际货币制度、国际收支制度和国际结算制度等制度环境的总和。
（2）外汇预测与外汇风险的管理。
外汇风险是指经济主体在持有或运用外汇的经济活动中，因汇率变动而蒙受损失的一种可能性。
主要包括交易风险，折算风险和经济风险。
对汇率变化进行预测，掌握外汇风险管理的知识和技术。
（3）国际融资管理。
包括融资渠道，融资原则，融资方式，资金成本及融资风险。
（4）国际投资管理。
包括国际直接投资和国际间接投资两种形式。
（5）国际营运资金管理。
包括国际现金管理，国际应收账款管理，国际存货管理。
（6）国际利润管理。
对企业的利润分配进行管理，制定利润分配制度，确定利润的留存比例，并对业绩进行考核。
（7）国际资金转移管理。
通过设计有效的国际企业内部资金转移机制达到避开障碍、保证国际企业总体利益的目的。
（8）国际税收管理。
进行国际税收协调，以避免重复征税。
包括税收协定，税收抵免和避税地等。
3.国际企业组织结构有哪些基本种类？其特点分别是什么？教材p17-204.影响国际企业经营和财务管理组织形式的因素有哪些？教材p215.如何处理好国际企业总部与分部财务集权和分权的关系？教材p23第2章环境与国际财务管理一、名词解释1.国际收支：是指一定时期内某一经济体（通常指一国或地区）与世界上其他经济体之间的各项经济交易。
其中的经济交易是在居民与非居民之间进行的，包括经常性项目交易、资本与金融项目交易和国际储备资产变动等。
2.国际收支平衡表：是反映一国的国际收支情况的报表，主要包括以下内容：经常项目、资本与金融项目、储备资产项目、净误差和遗漏项目。
由于有净误差和遗漏项目，国际收支平衡表永远是平衡的，但这并不意味着该国的国际收支就是平衡的。
3.国际收支失衡：是指经常项目和资本项目借贷方借贷方发生持久或巨额的借贷方余额。
当某个项目的贷方金额大于借方金额时，称为出现“顺差”；当某个项目的借方金额大于贷方金额时，称为出现“逆差”。
引起国际收支失衡的主要是自主交易和调节性交易，不包括净误差和遗漏。
二、简答题1.东道国发生通货膨胀对国际企业现金流量的稳定性有什么影响？教材p35【答案】东道国发生通货膨胀对国际企业来说会导致在东道国市场上销售产品的价格上涨，以及从东道国市场上取得的原材料、劳动力、资本成本的提高，从而导致国际企业现金流量的波动。
由于国际企业的产品市场和原材料等生产资料市场不一定分布在同一个国家，因此某东道国的通货膨胀对国际企业整体现金流的影响需要根据具体情况确定。
当使用大量进口原材料或零部件并在当地销售产品的子公司在当地发生通货膨胀时，当地币值的现金流入量可能增加，如果当地的货币没有随着通货膨胀发生贬值，则从国际企业的总体角度来看，该子公司带来的现金流量就可能增加，反之，如果子公司在东道国取得生产资料进行生产，将产品销往国外市场或其他子公司，则通货膨胀引起的成本提高，将导致国际企业现金流量减少。
但如果考虑到通货膨胀与汇率的影响之间可能存在的相互抵消作用某东道国发生的通胀将引起的国际企业现金流量估计将比较困难。
2.哪些经济因素影响国际收支平衡表上的经常项目？教材p40【答案】影响国际收支平衡表上的经常项目的经济因素有：（1）进出口货物；（2）输入输出劳务；（3）对外应收及应付的收益，包括职工报酬和投资收益；（4）在五同等回报的情况下，与其他国家或地区之间发生的提供或接受经济价值的经常转移，包括侨汇、国家之间的无偿捐赠、援助、赔偿等项目。
3.导致一国国际收支失衡的原因是什么？教材p44如何进行调节？教材p46【答案】导致一国国际收支失衡的原因主要有：（1）通货膨胀；（2）利率差异；（3）汇率的变化；（4）巨大的需求结构性变化；（5）政府干预。
调节国际收支失衡的措施可包括以下几种：（1）动用储备；（2）调整汇率；（3）调整利率（4）管制。
第3章《外汇市场与汇率预测》一、名词解释1.外汇: 以外国货币表示的可以用作国际清偿的支付手段或资产，包括外国现钞、外币支付凭证或支付工具、外币有价证券、特别提款权、其他外汇资产等。
2.直接标价法：是以一定数额外币为标准，折为相应数额本币表示汇率，即本币表示的外币价，也称为“应付标价法”。
世界上除了美国、英国以外，绝大多数国家都采用直接标价法。
3.间接标价法：用一定数额本币作为标准，折算为相应数额外币表示汇率，即外币表示的本币价，也称为“应收标价法”。
4.即期汇率：指目前的汇率，用于外汇的现货买卖，是外汇买卖双方在成交当日或两天以内交割使用的汇率，也称现汇汇率。
5.远期汇率：指现在由外汇买卖双方签订远期合同时规定的、在未来一定时期进行交割时使用的汇率6.远期差价：即期汇率与远期汇率之间有一定的差额，称为远期差价，这种差额用升水、贴水和平价来表示。
升水表示远期汇率比即期汇率高，贴水表示远期汇率比即期汇率低，平价表示两者相等。
7.即期外汇交易：又称现汇交易，指按银行当天挂牌的汇率（即期汇率）成交，并于当日或两个营业日之内进行交割的交易方式。
8.远期外汇交易：也称期汇交易，指交易双方按远期汇率签订远期合同，按合同约定的日期、币种、金额等进行交割的外汇买卖交易，期限一般为1个月、3个月、6个月、12个月等。
超过1年的称为超远期外汇交易。
远期外汇交易一般适合与大企业的大额交易。
9.套汇交易：是指在不同的时间(交割期限)、不同的地点(外汇市场)利用汇率或利率上的差异进行外汇买卖，以防范汇率风险和牟取套汇收益的外汇交易活动。
包括直接套汇（即两地套汇）和间接套汇（即三角套汇）。
10.掉期交易：又称时间套汇，是指交易者在买进或卖出即期外汇的同时，卖出或买进等额同种货币的远期合约的交易方式。
与套汇交易的目的不同，掉期交易不是为了投机获利，而是通过交易，避免汇率变动的风险，实现资金保值。
11.外汇期货交易：在有形的期货交易市场中，交易双方在期货交易所以公开喊价方式成交后，签订的一个在未来某一时间根据约定的货币期货价格，交割一定数量外汇的标准合约。
12.外汇期权交易：根据约定条件，期权的买方有权在未来的一定时间内按照约定汇率，向权利的卖方买进或卖出约定数额的外汇，同时权利的买方也有权不执行上述买卖的合约。
约定汇率又称为行权价、执行价、清算价二、简答题1.外汇市场由哪些参与者构成？【答案】外汇市场参与者有：（1）外汇银行和非银行外汇经营机构（2）外汇经纪人（3）外汇的需求者和供给者（4）投机者和套汇者（5）中央银行2.外币贬值在直接标价法下和在间接标价法下分别如何体现？【答案】（1）外币贬值在直接标价法下体现为外汇汇率下降，能用比原来较少的本币就能兑换到同一数额的外币，即表示本币升值，外币贬值。
即外币的价值和汇率的升跌成正比。
（2）外币贬值在间接标价法下体现为外汇汇率上升，一定数额的本币能兑换的外币数额比前期多，则说明外币币值下降、本币币值上升。
即外币的价值和汇率的升跌成反比。
【篇二：陈玉箐国际财务管理课后答案】s=txt>第一章【题1—1】某跨国公司a，2006年11月兼并某亏损国有企业b。
b企业兼并时账面净资产为500万元，2005年亏损100万元（以前年度无亏损），评估确认的价值为550万元。
经双方协商，a跨国公司可以用以下两种方式兼并b企业。
甲方式：a公司以180万股和10万元人民币购买b企业（a公司股票市价为3元/股）；乙方式：a公司以150万股和100万元人民币购买b企业。
兼并后a公司股票市价3.1元/股。
a公司共有已发行的股票2000万股（面值为1元/股）。
假设兼并后b企业的股东在a公司中所占的股份以后年度不发生变化，兼并后a公司企业每年未弥补亏损前应纳税所得额为900万元，增值后的资产的平均折旧年限为5年，行业平均利润率为10%。
所得税税率为33%。
请计算方式两种发方式的差异。
【题1—1】答案（1）甲方式：（2）乙方式：由于支付的非股权额（100万元）大于股权面值的20%（30万元）。
所以，被兼并企业b应就转让所得缴纳所得税。
b企业去年的亏损不能由a公司再弥补。
【题1—2】东方跨国公司有a、b、c、d四个下属公司，2006年四个公司计税所得额和所在国的所得税税率为：a公司：500万美元33%b公司：400万美元33%c公司：300万美元24%d公司：-300万美元15%东方公司的计税所得额为-100万美元，其所在地区的所得税税率为15%。
请从税务角度选择成立子公司还是分公司？【题1—2】答案（1）若a、b、c、d为子公司d公司和总公司的亏损留作以后年度弥补。
东方跨国公司2006年度合计应纳所得税额=165+132+72=369（万美元）（2）若a、b、c、d为分公司分公司本身不独立核算，那么，各分支机构的年度计税所得额都要并入总机构缴纳所得税，其应纳所得税的计算为：企业合并纳税，一是各自之间的亏损可以弥补，二是由于总机构位于低税率地区，汇总纳税可以降低税率，节税249万美元（369-120）。