英文版第10版罗斯公司理财MINICASE2答案EXCEL格式
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap004
公司理财习题答案第四章Chapter 4: Net Present Value4.1 a. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the I nterest already earned. Therefore, the interest earnedin part c, $1,653.30, is more than double the amount earned in part a, $628.89.4.2 a. $1,000 / 1.17 = $513.16b. $2,000 / 1.1 = $1,818.18c. $500 / 1.18 = $233.254.3 You can make your decision by computing either the present value of the $2,000 that youcan receive in ten years, or the future value of the $1,000 that you can receive now.Present value: $2,000 / 1.0810 = $926.39Future value: $1,000 ⨯ 1.0810 = $2,158.93Either calculation indicates you should take the $1,000 now.4.4 Since this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the presentvalue of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.304.5 PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.234.6 a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same.Remember, FV = PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV.Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. Youshould choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. Youknow that rate must fall between 10% and 20% because the option you wouldchoose differs at these rates. Let r be the discount rate that makes you indifferentbetween the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%4.7 PV of Joneses’ offer = $150,000 / (1.1)3 = $112,697.22Since the PV of Joneses’ offer is less than Smiths’ offer, $115,000, you should chooseSmiths’ offer.4.8 a. P0 = $1,000 / 1.0820 = $214.55b. P10 = P0 (1.08)10 = $463.20c. P15 = P0 (1.08)15 = $680.594.9 The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for sixyears. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earninterest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.614.10 PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.184.11 a. The cost of investment is $900,000.PV of cash inflows = $120,000 / 1.12 + $250,000 / 1.122 + $800,000 / 1.123= $875,865.52Since the PV of cash inflows is less than the cost of investment, you should notmake the investment.b. NPV = -$900,000 + $875,865.52= -$24,134.48c. NPV = -$900,000 + $120,000 / 1.11 + $250,000 / 1.112 + $800,000 / 1.113= $-4,033.18Since the NPV is still negative, you should not make the investment.4.12 NPV = -($340,000 + $10,000) + ($100,000 - $10,000) / 1.1+ $90,000 / 1.12 + $90,000 / 1.13 + $90,000 / 1.14 + $100,000 / 1.15= -$2,619.98Since the NPV is negative, you should not buy it.If the relevant cost of capital is 9 percent,NPV = -$350,000 + $90,000 / 1.09 + $90,000 / 1.092 + $90,000 / 1.093+ $90,000 / 1.094 + $100,000 / 1.095= $6,567.93Since the NPV is positive, you should buy it.4.13 a. Profit = PV of revenue - Cost = NPVNPV = $90,000 / 1.15 - $60,000 = -$4,117.08No, the firm will not make a profit.b. Find r that makes zero NPV.$90,000 / (1+r)5 - $60,000 = $0(1+r)5 = 1.5r = 0.08447 = 8.447%4.14 The future value of the decision to own your car for one year is the sum of the trade-invalue and the benefit from owning the car. Therefore, the PV of the decision to own thecar for one year is$3,000 / 1.12 + $1,000 / 1.12 = $3,571.43Since the PV of the roommate’s offer, $3,500, is lower than the aunt’s offer, you shouldaccept aunt’s offer.4.15 a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25公司理财习题答案第四章e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earninginterest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at theend of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earnsinterest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balancethat earns interest is rising faster.4.16 a. $1,000 e0.12 ⨯ 5 = $1,822.12b. $1,000 e0.1 ⨯ 3 = $1,349.86c. $1,000 e0.05 ⨯ 10 = $1,648.72d. $1,000 e0.07 ⨯ 8 = $1,750.674.17 PV = $5,000 / [1+ (0.1 / 4)]4 ⨯ 12 = $1,528.364.18 Effective annual interest rate of Bank America= [1 + (0.041 / 4)]4 - 1 = 0.0416 = 4.16%Effective annual interest rate of Bank USA= [1 + (0.0405 / 12)]12 - 1 = 0.0413 = 4.13%You should deposit your money in Bank America.4.19 The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply theperpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $8004.20 Quarterly interest rate = 12% / 4 = 3% = 0.03Therefore, the price of the security = $10 / 0.03 = $333.334.21 The price at the end of 19 quarters (or 4.75 years) from today = $1 / (0.15 ÷ 4) = $26.67The current price = $26.67 / [1+ (.15 / 4)]19 = $13.254.22 a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus,the value of the perpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream.Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.4.23 The value at t = 8 is $120 / 0.1 = $1,200.Thus, the value at t = 5 is $1,200 / 1.13 = $901.58.4.24 P = $3 (1.05) / (0.12 - 0.05) = $45.004.25 P = $1 / (0.1 - 0.04) = $16.674.26 The first cash flow will be generated 2 years from today.The value at the end of 1 year from today = $200,000 / (0.1 - 0.05) = $4,000,000.Thus, PV = $4,000,000 / 1.1 = $3,636,363.64.4.27 A zero NPV-$100,000 + $50,000 / r = 0-r = 0.54.28 Apply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present valueof an annuity factor.NPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 8A1.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.4.29 Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments.Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments. Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20A08.0= $2,000 (9.8181)= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.884.30 The value of annuity at the end of year five= $500 15A = $500 (5.84737) = $2,923.6915.0The present value = $2,923.69 / 1.125 = $1,658.984.31 The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must beequal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A t r. The annuity factors are in theappendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the rowlabeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.10% ⎤ 6.1446 ⎤a ⎡ r ⎥bc ⎡ 6.4 ⎪ d⎣ 9% ⎦⎣ 6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate.Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.公司理财习题答案第四章4.32 a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000which you need in five years. That amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075].Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.$17,824.65 = C 5A.007$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 fiveyears from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 /1.075 = $17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (seefootnote 14 of the text).4.33The amount of loan is $120,000 ⨯ 0.85 = $102,000.20C A= $102,000.010The amount of equal installments isC = $102,000 / 20A = $102,000 / 8.513564 = $11,980.8810.04.34 The present value of salary is $5,000 36A = $150,537.53.001The present value of bonus is $10,000 3A = $23,740.42 (EAR = 12.68% is used since.01268bonuses are paid annually.)The present value of the contract = $150,537.53 + $23,740.42 = $174,277.944.35 The amount of loan is $15,000 ⨯ 0.8 = $12,000.C 48A = $12,0000067.0The amount of monthly installments isC = $12,000 / 48A = $12,000 / 40.96191 = $292.960067.04.36 Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-taxamounts. The after-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of$115,200 to obtain the value of this option.Value = $115,200 + $115,200 30A10.0= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-taxpayment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].Value = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30A.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.4.37 The amount of loan is $9,000. The monthly payment C is given by solving the equation: C 60008.0A = $9,000 C = $9,000 / 47.5042 = $189.46In October 2000, Susan Chao has 35 (= 12 ⨯ 5 - 25) monthly payments left, including the one due in October 2000.Therefore, the balance of the loan on November 1, 2000 = $189.46 + $189.46 34008.0A = $189.46 + $189.46 (29.6651) = $5,809.81Thus, the total amount of payoff = 1.01 ($5,809.81) = $5,867.91 4.38 Let r be the rate of interest you must earn. $10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000 (1 + r)12 = 8 r = 0.18921 = 18.921%4.39 First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s education. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education is$21,000 415.0A= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955. This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these is PV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516 = $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44. Payment = $14,880.44 / 1515.0A = $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.804.40 The NPV of the policy isNPV = -$750 306.0A - $800306.0A / 1.063 + $250,000 / [(1.066) (1.0759)] = -$2,004.76 - $1,795.45 + $3,254.33= -$545.88 Therefore, you should not buy the policy.4.41 The NPV of the lease offer isNPV = $120,000 - $15,000 - $15,000 908.0A - $25,000 / 1.0810= $105,000 - $93,703.32 - $11,579.84 = -$283.16 Therefore, you should not accept the offer.4.42 This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is $50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60. PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28 This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is $21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46公司理财习题答案第四章4.43 Use the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV ofthe project. Notice that the four $1,000 cash flows form an annuity. You can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV 1 $700 0.9091 $636.37 2 900 0.8264 743.76 3 1,000 ⎤ 4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.80 5 1,000 ⎥ 6 1,000 ⎦ 7 1,250 0.5132 641.50 8 1,375 0.4665 641.44 Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87 = $282.87 Purchase the machine.4.44 Weekly inflation rate = 0.039 / 52 = 0.00075 Weekly interest rate = 0.104 / 52 = 0.002 PV = $5 [1 / (0.002 - 0.00075)] {1 – [(1 + 0.00075) / (1 + 0.002)]52 ⨯ 30} = $3,429.384.45 Engineer:NPV = -$12,000 405.0A + $20,000 / 1.055 + $25,000 / 1.056 - $15,000 / 1.057- $15,000 / 1.058 + $40,000 2505.0A / 1.058= $352,533.35 Accountant:NPV = -$13,000 405.0A + $31,000 3005.0A / 1.054= $345,958.81 Become an engineer.After your brother announces that the appropriate discount rate is 6%, you can recalculate the NPVs. Calculate them the same way as above except using the 6% discount rate. Engineer NPV = $292,419.47 Accountant NPV = $292,947.04Your brother made a poor decision. At a 6% rate, he should study accounting.4.46 Since Goose receives his first payment on July 1 and all payments in one year intervalsfrom July 1, the easiest approach to this problem is to discount the cash flows to July 1 then use the six month discount rate (0.044) to discount them the additional six months. PV = $875,000 / (1.044) + $650,000 / (1.044)(1.09) + $800,000 / (1.044)(1.092) + $1,000,000 / (1.044)(1.093) + $1,000,000/(1.044)(1.094) + $300,000 / (1.044)(1.095)+ $240,000 1709.0A / (1.044)(1.095) + $125,000 1009.0A / (1.044)(1.0922) = $5,051,150Remember that the use of annuity factors to discount the deferred payments yields the value of the annuity stream one period prior to the first payment. Thus, the annuity factor applied to the first set of deferred payments gives the value of those payments on July 1 of 1989. Discounting by 9% for five years brings the value to July 1, 1984. The use of the six month discount rate (4.4%) brings the value of the payments to January 1, 1984. Similarly, the annuity factor applied to the second set of deferred payments yields the value of those payments in 2006. Discounting for 22 years at 9% and for six months at 4.4% provides the value at January 1, 1984.The equivalent five-year, annual salary is the annuity that solves: $5,051,150 = C 509.0A C = $5,051,150/3.8897C = $1,298,596The student must be aware of possible rounding errors in this problem. The differencebetween 4.4% semiannual and 9.0% and for six months at 4.4% provides the value at January 1, 1984. 4.47 PV = $10,000 + ($35,000 + $3,500) [1 / (0.12 - 0.04)] [1 - (1.04 / 1.12) 25 ]= $415,783.604.48 NPV = -$40,000 + $10,000 [1 / (0.10 - 0.07)] [1 - (1.07 / 1.10)5 ] = $3,041.91 Revise the textbook.4.49The amount of the loan is $400,000 (0.8) = $320,000 The monthly payment is C = $320,000 / 3600067.0.0A = $ 2,348.10 Thirty years of payments $ 2,348.10 (360) = $ 845,316.00 Eight years of payments $2,348.10 (96) = $225,417.60 The difference is the balloon payment of $619,898.404.50 The lease payment is an annuity in advanceC + C 2301.0A = $4,000 C (1 + 20.4558) = $4,000 C = $186.424.51 The effective annual interest rate is[ 1 + (0.08 / 4) ] 4 – 1 = 0.0824The present value of the ten-year annuity is PV = 900 100824.0A = $5,974.24 Four remaining discount periodsPV = $5,974.24 / (1.0824) 4 = $4,352.43公司理财习题答案第四章4.52The present value of Ernie’s retirement incomePV = $300,000 20A / (1.07) 30 = $417,511.5407.0The present value of the cabinPV = $350,000 / (1.07) 10 = $177,922.25The present value of his savingsPV = $40,000 10A = $280,943.26.007In present value terms he must save an additional $313,490.53 In future value termsFV = $313,490.53 (1.07) 10 = $616,683.32He must saveC = $616.683.32 / 20A = $58,210.5407.0。
(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C
CHAPTER 20INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. a.The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than inthe spot market (SFr 1.53 versus SFr 1.50).b.The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buyone dollar in the future than it does today.c.Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates.2.The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar. This isthe relative PPP relationship.3. a.The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take moreA$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today.b.The inflation rate in Australia is higher.c.Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are thesame.4. A Yankee bond is most accurately described by d.5. No. For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exportsbecome more expensive for others to buy (bad). The reverse is true for currency depreciation.6.Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving ontransportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk. Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations.7.One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency. Moregenerally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified.8. a.False. If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the sameamount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar.b.False. The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relativeto the dollar. Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines.c.True. The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time.9. a.American exporters: their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods fora fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars.American importers: their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars.b.American exporters: they would generally be better off if the British government’s intentionsresult in a strengthened pound.American importers: they would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens.c.American exporters: they would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscalexpansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in cruzeiros, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars.American importers: they would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars.10.IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit anyarbitrage opportunities. Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly.11.It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period andwhether the expectation is accurate. Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders do not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure.12.One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investmentprovides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own. Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country. Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment. Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk. If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk. As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment.13.Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment. If, after taking into consideration all risks, aproject in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it. Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task. But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic.14.If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S. parent will experience an exchange rate loss when theforeign cash flow is remitted to the U.S. This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts. Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located.15.False. If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rateand the U.S. rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation. Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial.16.The difference between a Eurobond and a foreign bond is that the foreign bond is denominated in thecurrency of the country of origin of the issuing company. Eurobonds are more popular than foreign bonds because of registration differences. Eurobonds are unregistered securities.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the quotes from the table, we get:a.$50(€0.7870/$1) = €39.35b.$1.2706c.€5M($1.2706/€) = $6,353,240d.New Zealand dollare.Mexican pesof.(P11.0023/$1)($1.2186/€1) = P13.9801/€This is a cross rate.g.The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar. The least valuable is the Indonesian rupiah.2. a.You would prefer £100, since:(£100)($.5359/£1) = $53.59b.You would still prefer £100. Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/£ exchange rate to find theamount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get:(£100)($1.8660/£1)(SF .8233) = SF 226.6489ing the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find:(SF 1.2146/$1)($0.5359/£1) = SF 2.2665/£1The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so:£1/SF .4412 = £0.4412/SF 13. a.F180= ¥104.93 (per $). The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in theforward market than in the spot market ($0.0093659 versus $0.009530).b.F90 = $1.8587/£. The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forwardmarket than in the spot market ($0.5380 versus $0.5359).c.The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen inthe future than it does today. The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take fewer dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today.4. a.The U.S. dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy:(Can$1)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $0.7937b.The cost in U.S. dollars is:(Can$2.19)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $1.74Among the reasons that absolute PPP doe sn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes.c.The U.S. dollar is selling at a discount, because it is less expensive in the forward market thanin the spot market (Can$1.22 versus Can$1.26).d.The Canadian dollar is expected to appreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takesfewer Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar in the future than it does today.e.Interest rates in the United States are probably higher than they are in Canada.5. a.The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is:(¥115/$1)($1.70/£1) = ¥195.5/£1b.The yen is quoted too low relative to the pound. Take out a loan for $1 and buy ¥115. Use the¥115 to purchase pounds at the cross-rate, which will give you:¥115(£1/¥185) = £0.6216Use the pounds to buy back dollars and repay the loan. The cost to repay the loan will be:£0.6216($1.70/£1) = $1.0568You arbitrage profit is $0.0568 per dollar used.6.We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question. The equation we will useis:R FC = (F T– S0)/S0 + R USUsing this relationship, we find:Great Britain: R FC = (£0.5394 – £0.5359)/£0.5359 + .038 = 4.45%Japan: R FC = (¥104.93 – ¥106.77)/¥106.77 + .038 = 2.08%Switzerland: R FC = (SFr 1.1980 – SFr 1.2146)/SFr 1.2146 + .038 = 2.43%7.If we invest in the U.S. for the next three months, we will have:$30M(1.0045)3 = $30,406,825.23If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months. After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be:($30M)(£0.56/$1)(1.0060)3/(£0.59/$1) = $28,990,200.05We should invest in U.S.ing the relative purchasing power parity equation:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]tWe find:Z3.92 = Z3.84[1 + (h FC– h US)]3h FC– h US = (Z3.92/Z3.84)1/3– 1h FC– h US = .0069Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S. by 0.69% over this period.9.The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production. Theproduction cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S. dollars. Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,295,250.18If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/1.1(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,572,954.71If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/0.9(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $955,833.53To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that make the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S. dollars, so:$145 = S$168.50/S TS T = S$1.1621/$1S T = –.2978 or –29.78% decline10. a.If IRP holds, then:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.5257Since given F180 is Kr6.56, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high.Borrow Kr1 today at 8% interest. Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 6.56. Convert the loan proceeds into dollars:Kr 1 ($1/Kr 6.43) = $0.15552Invest these dollars at 5%, ending up with $0.15931. Convert the dollars back into krone as$0.15931(Kr 6.56/$1) = Kr 1.04506Repay the Kr 1 loan, ending with a profit of:Kr1.04506 – Kr1.03868 = Kr 0.00638b.To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.525711.The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal. We canrearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question:R US– h US = R FC– h FCh FC = R FC + h US– R USa.h AUS = .05 + .035 – .039h AUS = .046 or 4.6%b.h CAN = .07 + .035 – .039h CAN = .066 or 6.6%c.h TAI = .10 + .035 – .039h TAI = .096 or 9.6%12. a.The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the futurethan it does today.b.h US– h JAP (¥129.76 – ¥131.30)/¥131.30h US– h JAP = – .0117 or –1.17%(1 – .0117)4– 1 = –.0461 or –4.61%The approximate inflation differential between the U.S. and Japan is – 4.61% annually.13. We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasingpower parity relationship:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]TUsing this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be:F1 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]1F1 = HUF 225.97The exchange rate in two years should be:F2 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]2F2 = HUF 237.49And the exchange rate in five years should be:F5 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]5F5 = HUF 275.71ing the interest-rate parity theorem:(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC) = F(0,1) / S0We can find the forward rate as:F(0,1) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)] S0F(0,1) = (1.13 / 1.08)$1.50/£F(0,1) = $1.57/£Intermediate15.First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years. From interest rate andpurchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is:E(S T) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)]T S0So:E(S1) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)1 $1.22/€ = $1.2282/€E(S2) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)2 $1.22/€ = $1.2365/€E(S3) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)3 $1.22/€ = $1.2448/€Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows. The dollar cash flow each year will be:Year 0 cash flow = –€$12,000,000($1.22/€) = –$14,640,000.00Year 1 cash flow = €$2,700,000($1.2282/€) = $3,316,149.86Year 2 cash flow = €$3,500,000($1.2365/€) = $4,327,618.63Year 3 cash flow = (€3,300,000 + 7,400,000)($1.2448/€) = $13,319,111.90And the NPV of the project will be:NPV = –$14,640,000 + $3,316,149.86/1.13 + $4,4327,618.63/1.132 + $13,319,111.90/1.133NPV = $914,618.7316. a.Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but theexchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate.b.We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time. Theequation is:E[S T] = (SFr 1.72)[1 + (.07 – .08)]TE[S T] = 1.72(.99)TSo, the cash flows each year in U.S. dollar terms will be:t SFr E[S T] US$0 –27.0M –$15,697,674.421 +7.5M 1.7028 $4,404,510.222 +7.5M 1.6858 $4,449,000.223 +7.5M 1.6689 $4,493,939.624 +7.5M 1.6522 $4,539,332.955 +7.5M 1.6357 $4,585,184.79And the NPV is:NPV = –$15,697,674.42 + $4,404,510.22/1.13 + $4,449,000.22/1.132 + $4,493,939.62/1.133 + $4,539,332.95/1.134 + $4,585,184.79/1.135NPV = $71,580.10c.Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swissfrancs, we get:R SFr = 1.13[1 + (.07 – .08)] – 1R SFr = 11.87%So, the NPV in Swiss francs is:NPV = –SFr 27.0M + SFr 7.5M(PVIFA11.87%,5)NPV = SFr 123,117.76Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S. dollars as:NPV = (SFr 123,117.76)($1/SFr 1.72)NPV = $71,580.10Challenge17. a.The domestic Fisher effect is:1 + R US = (1 + r US)(1 + h US)1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US)This relationship must hold for any country, that is:1 + r FC = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC)The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so:1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US) = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC) = 1 + r FCb.The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is:E[S t] = F t = S0 [(1 + R FC)/(1 + R US)]tc.The exact form for relative PPP is:E[S t] = S0 [(1 + h FC)/(1 + h US)]td.For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at time t as:E[S t] = (€0.5)[1.07/1.05]t= (€0.5)(1.019)tWe then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value. Doing so, we find:NPV = –[€2M/(€0.5)] + {€0.9M/[1.019(€0.5)]}/1.1 + {€0.9M/[1.0192(€0.5)]}/1.12 + {€0.9M/[1.0193(€0.5/$1)]}/1.13NPV = $316,230.72For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in the euros as:R FC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – 1 = 0.121Next, we find the NPV in euros as:NPV = –€2M + (€0.9M)/1.121 + (€0.9M)/1.1212+ (€0.9M)/1.1213= €158,115.36And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is:NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /(€0.5/$1) = $316,230.72。
罗斯企业单位理财英文理解练习知识题附带答案解析第九章
CHAPTER 9Risk Analysis, Real Options, and Capital Budgeting Multiple Choice Questions:I. DEFINITIONSSCENARIO ANALYSISb 1. An analysis of what happens to the estimate of the net present valuewhen you examine a number of different likely situations is called _____analysis.a. forecastingb. scenarioc. sensitivityd. simulatione. break-evenDifficulty level: EasySENSITIVITY ANALYSISc 2. An analysis of what happens to the estimate of net present value whenonly one variable is changed is called _____ analysis.a. forecastingb. scenarioc. sensitivityd. simulatione. break-evenDifficulty level: EasySIMULATION ANALYSISd 3. An analysis which combines scenario analysis with sensitivity analysis iscalled _____ analysis.a. forecastingb. scenarioc. sensitivityd. simulatione. break-evenDifficulty level: EasyBREAK-EVEN ANALYSISe 4. An analysis of the relationship between the sales volume and variousmeasures of profitability is called _____ analysis.a. forecastingb. scenarioc. sensitivityd. simulatione. break-evenDifficulty level: EasyVARIABLE COSTSa 5. Variable costs:a. change in direct relationship to the quantity of output produced.b. are constant in the short-run regardless of the quantity of outputproduced.c. reflect the change in a variable when one more unit of output isproduced.d. are subtracted from fixed costs to compute the contribution margin.e. form the basis that is used to determine the degree of operatingleverage employed by a firm.Difficulty level: EasyFIXED COSTSb 6. Fixed costs:a. change as the quantity of output produced changes.b. are constant over the short-run regardless of the quantity of outputproduced.c. reflect the change in a variable when one more unit of output isproduced.d. are subtracted from sales to compute the contribution margin.e. can be ignored in scenario analysis since they are constant over the lifeof a project.Difficulty level: EasyACCOUNTING BREAK-EVENc 7. The sales level that results in a project’s net income exactly equalingzero is called the _____ break-even.a. operationalb. leveragedc. accountingd. cashe. present valueDifficulty level: EasyPRESENT VALUE BREAK-EVENe 8. The sales level that results in a project’s net present value exactlyequaling zero is called the _____ break-even.a. operationalb. leveragedc. accountingd. cashe. present valueDifficulty level: EasyII. CONCEPTSSCENARIO ANALYSISb 9. Conducting scenario analysis helps managers see the:a. impact of an individual variable on the outcome of a project.b. potential range of outcomes from a proposed project.c. changes in long-term debt over the course of a proposed project.d. possible range of market prices for their stock over the life of a project.e. allocation distribution of funds for capital projects under conditions of hard rationing.Difficulty level: EasySENSITIVITY ANALYSISb 10. Sensitivity analysis helps you determine the:a. range of possible outcomes given possible ranges for every variable.b. degree to which the net present value reacts to changes in a single variable.c. net present value given the best and the worst possible situations.d. degree to which a project is reliant upon the fixed costs.e. level of variable costs in relation to the fixed costs of a project.Difficulty level: EasySENSITIVITY ANALYSISc 11. As the degree of sensitivity of a project to a single variable rises, the:a. lower the forecasting risk of the project.b. smaller the range of possible outcomes given a pre-defined range of values for theinput.c. more attention management should place on accurately forecasting thefuture value ofthat variable.d. lower the maximum potential value of the project.e. lower the maximum potential loss of the project.Difficulty level: MediumSENSITIVITY ANALYSISc 12. Sensitivity analysis is conducted by:a. holding all variables at their base level and changing the required rate of returnassigned to a project.b. changing the value of two variables to determine their interdependency.c. changing the value of a single variable and computing the resulting change in thecurrent value of a project.d. assigning either the best or the worst possible value to each variable and comparing theresults to those achieved by the base case.e. managers after a project has been implemented to determine how each variable relates to the level of output realized.Difficulty level: MediumSENSITIVITY ANALYSISd 13. To ascertain whether the accuracy of the variable cost estimate for a project will havemuch effect on the final outcome of the project, you should probably conduct _____analysis.a. leverageb. scenarioc. break-evend. sensitivitye. cash flowDifficulty level: EasySIMULATIONd 14. Simulation analysis is based on assigning a _____ and analyzing the results.a. narrow range of values to a single variableb. narrow range of values to multiple variables simultaneouslyc. wide range of values to a single variabled. wide range of values to multiple variables simultaneouslye. single value to each of the variablesDifficulty level: MediumSIMULATIONe 15. The type of analysis that is most dependent upon the use of a computer is _____ analysis.a. scenariob. break-evenc. sensitivityd. degree of operating leveragee. simulationDifficulty level: EasyVARIABLE COSTSd 16. Which one of the following is most likely a variable cost?a. office rentb. property taxesc. property insuranced. direct labor costse. management salariesDifficulty level: EasyVARIABLE COSTSa 17. Which of the following statements concerning variable costs is (are) correct?I. Variable costs minus fixed costs equal marginal costs.II. Variable costs are equal to zero when production is equal to zero.III. An increase in variable costs increases the operating cash flow.a. II onlyb. III onlyc. I and III onlyd. II and III onlye. I and II onlyDifficulty level: MediumVARIABLE COSTSa 18. All else constant, as the variable cost per unit increases, the:a. contribution margin decreases.b. sensitivity to fixed costs decreases.c. degree of operating leverage decreases.d. operating cash flow increases.e. net profit increases.Difficulty level: MediumFIXED COSTSc 19. Fixed costs:I. are variable over long periods of time.II. must be paid even if production is halted.III. are generally affected by the amount of fixed assets owned by a firm.IV. per unit remain constant over a given range of production output.a. I and III onlyb. II and IV onlyc. I, II, and III onlyd. I, II, and IV onlye. I, II, III, and IVDifficulty level: MediumCONTRIBUTION MARGINc 20. The contribution margin must increase as:a. both the sales price and variable cost per unit increase.b. the fixed cost per unit declines.c. the gap between the sales price and the variable cost per unit widens.d. sales price per unit declines.e. the sales price minus the fixed cost per unit increases.Difficulty level: MediumACCOUNTING BREAK-EVENa 21. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the accounting break-evenpoint?I. The net income is equal to zero at the accounting break-even point.II. The net present value is equal to zero at the accounting break-even point.III. The quantity sold at the accounting break-even point is equal to the total fixed costs plus depreciation divided by the contribution margin.IV. The quantity sold at the accounting break-even point is equal to the total fixed costs divided by the contribution margin.a. I and III onlyb. I and IV onlyc. II and III onlyd. II and IV onlye. I, II, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumACCOUNTING BREAK-EVENb 22. All else constant, the accounting break-even level of sales will decrease when the:a. fixed costs increase.b. depreciation expense decreases.c. contribution margin decreases.d. variable costs per unit increase.e. selling price per unit decreases.Difficulty level: MediumPRESENT VALUE BREAK-EVENd 23. The point where a project produces a rate of return equal to the required return isknown as the:a. point of zero operating leverage.b. internal break-even point.c. accounting break-even point.d. present value break-even point.e. internal break-even point.Difficulty level: EasyPRESENT VALUE BREAK-EVENb 24. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the present value break-evenpoint of a project?I. The present value of the cash inflows equals the amount of the initial investment.II. The payback period of the project is equal to the life of the project.III. The operating cash flow is at a level that produces a net present value of zero.IV. The project never pays back on a discounted basis.a. I and II onlyb. I and III onlyc. II and IV onlyd. III and IV onlye. I, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumINVESTMENT TIMING DECISIONb 25. The investment timing decision relates to:a. how long the cash flows last once a project is implemented.b. the decision as to when a project should be started.c. how frequently the cash flows of a project occur.d. how frequently the interest on the debt incurred to finance a project is compounded.e. the decision to either finance a project over time or pay out the initial cost in cash.Difficulty level: MediumOPTION TO WAITe 26. The timing option that gives the option to wait:I. may be of minimal value if the project relates to a rapidly changing technology.II. is partially dependent upon the discount rate applied to the project being evaluated.III. is defined as the situation where operations are shut down for a period of time.IV. has a value equal to the net present value of the project if it is started today versus thenet present value if it is started at some later date.a. I and III onlyb. II and IV onlyc. I and II onlyd. II, III, and IV onlye. I, II, and IV onlyDifficulty level: ChallengeOPTION TO EXPANDb 27. Last month you introduced a new product to the market. Consumer demand has beenoverwhelming and appears that strong demand will exist over the long-term. Given thissituation, management should consider the option to:a. suspend.b. expand.c. abandon.d. contract.e. withdraw.Difficulty level: EasyOPTION TO EXPANDc 28. Including the option to expand in your project analysis will tend to:a. extend the duration of a project but not affect the project’s net present value.b. increase the cash flows of a project but decrease the project’s net present value.c. increase the net present value of a project.d. decrease the net present value of a project.e. have no effect on either a project’s cash flows or its net present value.Difficulty level: MediumSENSITIVITY AND SENARIO ANALYSISd 29. Theoretically, the NPV is the most appropriate method to determine theacceptability of a project. A false sense of security can be overwhelmthe decision-maker when the procedure is applied properly and thepositive NPV results are accepted blindly. Sensitivity and scenarioanalysis aid in the process bya. changing the underlying assumptions on which the decision is based.b. highlights the areas where more and better data are needed.c. providing a picture of how an event can affect the calculations.d. All of the above.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumDECSION TREEa 30. In order to make a decision with a decision treea. one starts farthest out in time to make the first decision.b. one must begin at time 0.c. any path can be taken to get to the end.d. any path can be taken to get back to the beginning.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumDECISION TREEc 31. In a decision tree, the NPV to make the yes/no decision is dependent ona. only the cash flows from successful path.b. on the path where the probabilities add up to one.c. all cash flows and probabilities.d. only the cash flows and probabilities of the successful path.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumDECISION TREEe 32. In a decision tree, caution should be used in analysis becausea. early stage decisions are probably riskier and should not likely use thesame discount rate.b. if a negative NPV is actually occurring, management should opt out ofthe project and minimize their loss.c. decision trees are only used for planning, not actually daily management.d. Both A and C.e. Both A and B.Difficulty level: MediumSENSITIVITY ANALYSISd 33. Sensitivity analysis evaluates the NPV with respect toa. changes in the underlying assumptions.b. one variable changing while holding the others constant.c. different economic conditions.d. All of the above.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumSENSITIVITY ANALYSISd 34. Sensitivity analysis provides information ona. whether the NPV should be trusted, it may provide a false sense ofsecurity if all NPVs are positive.b. the need for additional information as it tests each variable in isolation.c. the degree of difficulty in changing multiple variables together.d. Both A and B.e. Both A and C.Difficulty level: MediumFIXED COSTSb 35. Fixed production costs area. directly related to labor costs.b. measured as cost per unit of time.c. measured as cost per unit of output.d. dependent on the amount of goods or services produced.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumVARIABLE COSTSd 36. Variable costsa. change as the quantity of output changes.b. are zero when production is zero.c. are exemplified by direct labor and raw materials.d. All of the above.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasySENSITIVITY ANALYSISb 37. An investigation of the degree to which NPV depends on assumptionsmade about any singular critical variable is called a(n)a. operating analysis.b. sensitivity analysis.c. marginal benefit analysis.d. decision tree analysis.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasySENSITIVITY AND SCENARIOS ANALYSISb 38. Scenario analysis is different than sensitivity analysisa. as no economic forecasts are changed.b. as several variables are changed together.c. because scenario analysis deals with actual data versus sensitivityanalysis which deals with a forecast.d. because it is short and simple.e. because it is 'by the seat of the pants' technique.Difficulty level: MediumEQUIVALENT ANNUAL COSTc 39. In the present-value break-even the EAC is used toa. determine the opportunity cost of investment.b. allocate depreciation over the life of the project.c. allocate the initial investment at its opportunity cost over the life of theproject.d. determine the contribution margin to fixed costs.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumBREAK-EVENb 40. The present value break-even point is superior to the accounting break-even point becausea. present value break-even is more complicated to calculate.b. present value break-even covers the economic opportunity costs of theinvestment.c. present value break-even is the same as sensitivity analysis.d. present value break-even covers the fixed costs of production, which theaccounting break-even does not.e. present value break-even covers the variable costs of production, whichthe accounting break-even does not.Difficulty level: EasyABANDONMENTd 41. The potential decision to abandon a project has option value becausea. abandonment can occur at any future point in time.b. a project may be worth more dead than alive.c. management is not locked into a negative outcome.d. All of the above.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyTYPES OF BREAK-EVEN ANALYSISd 42. Which of the following are types of break-even analysis?a. present value break-evenb. accounting profit break-evenc. market value break-evend. Both A and B.e. Both A and C.Difficulty level: EasyMONTE CARLO SIMULATIONc 43. The approach that further attempts to model real word uncertainty byanalyzing projects the way one might analyze gambling strategies iscalleda. gamblers approach.b. blackjack approach.c. Monte Carlo simulation.d. scenario analysis.e. sensitivity analysis.Difficulty level: MediumMONTE CARLO SIMULATIONc 44. Monte Carlo simulation isa. the most widely used by executives.b. a very simple formula.c. provides a more complete analysis that sensitivity or scenario.d. the oldest capital budgeting technique.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyOPTIONS IN CAPITAL BUDGETINGd 45. Which of the following are hidden options in capital budgeting?a. option to expand.b. timing option.c. option to abandon.d. All of the above.e. None of the above.Difficulty level: EasyIII. PROBLEMSUse this information to answer questions 46 through 50.The Adept Co. is analyzing a proposed project. The company expects tosell 2,500units, give or take 10 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $8 and the expected fixed costs are $12,500. Cost estimates are consideredaccurate within a plus or minus 5 percent range. The depreciation expense is $4,000. The sale price is estimated at $16 a unit, give or take 2 percent.The company bases their sensitivity analysis on the expected case scenario. SCENARIO ANALYSISd 46. What is the sales revenue under the optimistic case scenario?a. $40,000b. $43,120c. $44,000d. $44,880e. $48,400Difficulty level: MediumSCENARIO ANALYSISd 47. What is the contribution margin under the expected case scenario?a. $2.67b. $3.00c. $7.92d. $8.00e. $8.72Difficulty level: MediumSCENARIO ANALYSISc 48. What is the amount of the fixed cost per unit under the pessimistic case scenario?a. $4.55b. $5.00c. $5.83d. $6.02e. $6.55Difficulty level: MediumSENSITIVITY ANALYSISb 49. The company is conducting a sensitivity analysis on the sales price using a salesprice estimate of $17. Using this value, the earnings before interest and taxes will be:a. $4,000b. $6,000c. $8,500d. $10,000e. $18,500Difficulty level: MediumSENSITIVITY ANALYSISb 50. The company conducts a sensitivity analysis using a variable cost of $9. The totalvariable cost estimate will be:a. $21,375b. $22,500c. $23,625d. $24,125e. $24,750Difficulty level: MediumUse this information to answer questions 51 through 55.The Can-Do Co. is analyzing a proposed project. The company expects to sell 12,000units, give or take 4 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $7 and the expected fixed cost is $36,000. The fixed and variable cost estimatesare considered accurate within a plus or minus 6 percent range. Thedepreciation expense is $30,000. The tax rate is 34 percent. The sale priceis estimated at $14 a unit, give or take 5 percent. The company bases their sensitivity analysis on the expected case scenario.SCENARIO ANALYSISa 51. What is the earnings before interest and taxes under the expected case scenario?a. $18,000b. $24,000c. $36,000d. $48,000e. $54,000Difficulty level: MediumSCENARIO ANALYSISc 52. What is the earnings before interest and taxes under anoptimistic case scenario?a. $22,694.40b. $24,854.40c. $37,497.60d. $52,694.40e. $67,947.60Difficulty level: ChallengeSCENARIO ANALYSISb 53. What is the earnings before interest and taxes under the pessimistic case scenario?a. -$566.02b. -$422.40c. -$278.78d. $3,554.50e. $5,385.60Difficulty level: ChallengeSENSITIVITY ANALYSISd 54. What is the operating cash flow for a sensitivity analysis using total fixed costs of$32,000?a. $14,520b. $16,520c. $22,000d. $44,520e. $52,000Difficulty level: MediumSENSITIVITY ANALYSISd 55. What is the contribution margin for a sensitivity analysis using a variable cost per unit of $8?a. $3b. $4c. $5d. $6e. $7Difficulty level: MediumVARIABLE COSTc 56. A firm is reviewing a project with labor cost of $8.90 per unit, raw materials cost of$21.63 a unit, and fixed costs of $8,000 a month. Sales are projected at 10,000 unitsover the three-month life of the project. What are the total variable costsof the project?a. $216,300b. $297,300c. $305,300d. $313,300e. $329,300Difficulty level: MediumVARIABLE COSTd 57. A project has earnings before interest and taxes of $5,750, fixed costs of $50,000, aselling price of $13 a unit, and a sales quantity of 11,500 units.Depreciation is $7,500.What is the variable cost per unit?a. $6.75b. $7.00c. $7.25d. $7.50e. $7.75Difficulty level: MediumFIXED COSTb 58. At a production level of 5,600 units a project has total costs of $89,000.The variable cost per unit is $11.20. What is the amount of the total fixed costs?a. $24,126b. $26,280c. $27,090d. $27,820e. $28,626Difficulty level: MediumFIXED COSTe 59. At a production level of 6,000 units a project has total costs of $120,000.The variable cost per unit is $14.50. What is the amount of the total fixed costs?a. $25,165b. $28,200c. $30,570d. $32,000e. $33,000Difficulty level: MediumCONTRIBUTION MARGINc 60. Wilson’s Meats has computed their fixed costs to be $.60 for every pound of meatthey sell given an average daily sales level of 500 pounds. They charge$3.89 per pound of top-grade ground beef. The variable cost per poundis $2.99. What is the contribution margin per pound of ground beef sold?a. $.30b. $.60c. $.90d. $2.99e. $3.89Difficulty level: MediumCONTRIBUTION MARGINe 61. Ralph and Emma’s is considering a project with total sales of $17,500, total variable costs of $9,800, total fixed costs of $3,500, and estimated production of 400 units. Thedepreciation expense is $2,400 a year. What is the contribution margin per unit?a. $4.50b. $10.50c. $14.14d. $19.09e. $19.25Difficulty level: MediumACCOUNTING BREAK-EVENa 62. You are considering a new project. The project has projected depreciation of $720,fixed costs of $6,000, and total sales of $11,760. The variable cost per unit is$4.20. What is the accounting break-even level of production?a. 1,200 unitsb. 1,334 unitsc. 1,372 unitsd. 1,889 unitse. 1,910 unitsDifficulty level: MediumACCOUNTING BREAK-EVENb 63. The accounting break-even production quantity for a project is 5,425 units. The fixedcosts are $31,600 and the contribution margin is $6. What is the projecteddepreciation expense?a. $700b. $950c. $1,025d. $1,053e. $1,100Difficulty level: MediumACCOUNTING BREAK-EVENd 64. A project has an accounting break-even point of 2,000 units. The fixed costs are$4,200 and the depreciation expense is $400. The projected variable cost per unit is$23.10. What is the projected sales price?a. $20.80b. $21.00c. $21.20d. $25.40e. $25.60Difficulty level: MediumACCOUNTING BREAK-EVENa 65. A proposed project has fixed costs of $3,600, depreciation expense of $1,500, and asales quantity of 1,300 units. What is the contribution margin if the projected level ofsales is the accounting break-even point?a. $3.92b. $4.14c. $4.50d. $4.80e. $5.00Difficulty level: MediumPRESENT VALUE BREAK-EVENc 66. A project has a contribution margin of $5, projected fixed costs of $12,000, projectedvariable cost per unit of $12, and a projected present value break-even point of 5,000units. What is the operating cash flow at this level of output?a. $1,000b. $12,000c. $13,000d. $68,000e. $73,000Difficulty level: MediumPRESENT VALUE BREAK-EVENa 67. Thompson & Son have been busy analyzing a new product. They have determined thatan operating cash flow of $16,700 will result in a zero net present value, which is a company requirement for project acceptance. The fixed costs are $12,378 and thecontribution margin is $6.20. The company feels that they can realistically capture 10 percent of the 50,000 unit market for this product. Should the company develop the new product? Why or why not?a. yes; because 5,000 units of sales exceeds the quantity required for a zero net presentvalueb. yes; because the internal break-even point is less than 5,000 unitsc. no; because the firm can not generate sufficient sales to obtain at least a zero netpresent valued. no; because the project has an expected internal rate of return of negative 100percente. no; because the project will not pay back on a discounted basisDifficulty level: ChallengePRESENT VALUE BREAK-EVENe 68. Kurt Neal and Son is considering a project with a discounted payback just equal to theproject’s life. The projections include a sales price of $11, variable cost per unit of$8.50, and fixed costs of $4,500. The operating cash flow is $6,200. What is the break-even quantity?a. 1,800 unitsb. 2,480 unitsc. 3,057 unitsd. 3,750 unitse. 4,280 unitsDifficulty level: MediumDECISION TREE NET PRESENT VALUEb 69. At stage 2 of the decision tree it shows that if a project is successful, thepayoff will be $53,000 with a 2/3 chance of occurrence. There is also the 1/3 chance of a $-24,000 payoff. The cost of getting to stage 2 (1 year out) is $44,000. The cost of capital is 15%. What is the NPV of theproject at stage 1?a. $-13,275b. $-20,232c. $ 2,087d. $ 7,536e. Can not be calculated without the exact timing of future cash flows. Difficulty level: MediumUse the following to answer questions 70-71:The Quick-Start Company has the following pattern of potential cash flows with their planned investment in a new cold weather starting system for fuelinjected cars.Do not testDECISION TREEa 70. If the company has a discount rate of 17%, what is the value closest totime 1 net present value?a. $ 48.6 millionb. $ 80.9 millionc. $108.2 milliond. $181.4 millione. None of the above.Difficulty level: ChallengeDECISION TREEb 71. If the company has a discount rate of 17%, should they decide to invest?a. yes, NPV = $ 2.2 millionb. yes, NPV = $ 21.6 millionc. no, NPV = $-1.9 milliond. yes, NPV = $ 8.6 millione. No, since more than one branch is NPV = 0 or negative you must reject.Difficulty level: ChallengeACCOUNTING BREAK-EVENe 72. The Mini-Max Company has the following cost information on their newprospective project. Calculate the accounting break-even point.Initial investment: $700Fixed costs: $200 per yearVariable costs: $3 per unitDepreciation: $140 per year.Price: $8 per unitDiscount rate: 12%Project life: 5 yearsTax rate: 34%a. 25 units per yearb. 68 units per yearc. 103 units per yeard. 113 units per yeare. None of the above.Difficulty level: Medium。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap
30.1 The new corporation issues $300,000 in new debt. The merger creates $100,000 ofgoodwill because the merger is a purchase.Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 580 Equity 700Goodwill 100Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.2 If the balance sheet for Philadelphia Pretzel shows assets at book value instead of marketvalue, the goodwill will be only $60,000 (=$300,000 - $240,000). Thus, the net fixed assetsare $620,000 (=$1,300,000 - $480,000 - $140,000 - $60,000).Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $200Other assets 140 Long-term debt 400Net fixed assets 620 Equity 700Goodwill 60Total assets $1,300 Total liabilities $1,300 30.3Balance SheetLager Brewing(in $ thousands)Current assets $480 Current liabilities $280Other assets 140 Long-term debt 100Net fixed assets 580 Equity 820Total assets $1,200 Total liabilities $1,200 30.4 a. False. Although the reasoning seems correct, the Stillman-Eckbo data do not supportthe monopoly power theory.b. True. When managers act in their own interest, acquisitions are an important controldevice for shareholders. It appears that some acquisitions and takeovers are theconsequence of underlying conflicts between managers and shareholders.c. False. Even if markets are efficient, the presence of synergy will make the value ofthe combined firm different from the sum of the values of the separate firms.Incremental cash flows provide the positive NPV of the transaction.d. False. In an efficient market, traders will value takeovers based on “Fundamentalfactors” regardless of the time horizon. Recall that the evidence as a whole suggestsefficiency in the markets. Mergers should be no different.e. False. The tax effect of an acquisition depends on whether the merger is taxable ornon-taxable. In a taxable merger, there are two opposing factors to consider, thecapital gains effect and the write-up effect. The net effect is the sum of these twoeffects.f. True. Because of the coinsurance effect, wealth might be transferred from thestockholders to the bondholders. Acquisition analysis usually disregards this effectand considers only the total value.30.530.6 a. The weather conditions are independent. Thus, the joint probabilities are theproducts of the individual probabilities.Possible states Joint probabilityRain Rain 0.1 x 0.1=0.01Rain Warm 0.1 x 0.4=0.04Rain Hot 0.1 x 0.5=0.05Warm Rain 0.4 x 0.1=0.04Warm Warm 0.4 x 0.4=0.16Warm Hot 0.4 x 0.5=0.20Hot Rain 0.5 x 0.1=0.05Hot Warm 0.5 x 0.4=0.20Hot Hot 0.5 x 0.5=0.25Since the state Rain Warm has the same outcome (revenue) as Warm Rain, theirprobabilities can be added. The same is true of Rain Hot, Hot Rain and Warm Hot,Hot Warm. Thus the joint probabilities arePossibleJoint probabilitystatesRain Rain 0.01Rain Warm 0.08Rain Hot 0.10Warm Warm 0.16Warm Hot 0.40Hot Hot 0.25The joint values are the sums of the values of the two companies for the particularstate.Possible states Joint valueRain Rain $200,000Rain Warm 300,000Warm Warm 400,000Rain Hot 500,000Warm Hot 600,000Hot Hot 800,000b. Recall, if a firm cannot service its debt, the bondholders receive the value of the assets.Thus, the value of the debt is the value of the company if the face value of the debt isgreater than the value of the company. If the value of the company is greater than the value of the debt, the value of the debt is its face value. Here the value of the common stock is always the residual value of the firm over the value of the debt.Joint Prob. Joint Value Debt Value Stock Value0.01 $200,000 $200,000 $00.08 300,000 300,000 00.16 400,000 400,000 00.10 500,000 400,000 100,0000.40 600,000 400,000 200,0000.25 800,000 400,000 400,000c. To show that the value of the combined firm is the sum of the individual values, youmust show that the expected joint value is equal to the sum of the separate expected values.Expected joint value= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($500,000) +0.40($600,000) + 0.25($800,000)= $580,000Since the firms are identical, the sum of the expected values is twice the expectedvalue of either.Expected individual value = 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($400,000) = $290,000 Expected combined value = 2($290,000) = $580,000d. The bondholders are better off if the value of the debt after the merger is greater thanthe value of the debt before the merger.Value of the debt before the merger:The value of debt for either company= 0.1($100,000) + 0.4($200,000) + 0.5($200,000) = $190,000Total value of debt before the merger = 2($190,000) = $380,000Value of debt after the merger= 0.01($200,000) + 0.08($300,000) + 0.16($400,000) + 0.10($400,000) +0.40($400,000) +0.25($400,000)= $390,000The bondholders are $10,000 better off after the merger.30.7 The decision hinges upon the risk of surviving. The final decision should hinge on thewealth transfer from bondholders to stockholders when risky projects are undertaken.High-risk projects will reduce the expected value of the bondholders’ claims on the firm.The telecommunications business is riskier than the utilities business. If the total value of the firm does not change, the increase in risk should favor the stockholder. Hence,management should approve this transaction. Note, if the total value of the firm dropsbecause of the transaction and the wealth effect is lower than the reduction in total value, management should reject the project.30.8 If the market is “smart,” the P/E ratio will not be constant.a. Value = $2,500 + $1,000 = $3,500b. EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=($100 + $100)/200 =$1c. Price per share = Value/Total number of shares=$3,500/200 =$17.50d. If the market is “fooled,” the P/E ratio will be constant at $25.Value = P/E * Total number of shares= 25 * 200 = $5,000EPS = Post-merger earnings / Total number of shares=$5,000/200 = $25.0030.9 a. After the merger, Arcadia Financial will have 130,000 [=10,000 + (50,000)(6/10)]shares outstanding. The earnings of the combined firm will be $325,000. The earningsper share of the combined firm will be $2.50 (=$325,000/130,000). The acquisition will increase the EPS for the stockholders from $2.25 to $2.50.b. There will be no effect on the original Arcadia stockholders. No synergies exist in thismerger since Arcadia is buying Coldran at its market price. Examining the relativevalues of the two firms sees the latter point.Share price of Arcadia = (16 * $225,000) / 100,000=$36Share price of Coldran = (10.8 * $100,000) / 50,000=$21.60The relative value of these prices is $21.6/$36 = 0.6. Since Coldran’s shareholdersreceive 0.6 shares of Arcadia for every share of Coldran, no synergies exist.30.10 a. The synergy will be the discounted incremental cash flows. Since the cash flows areperpetual, this amount isb. The value of Flash-in-the-Pan to Fly-by-Night is the synergy plus the current marketvalue of Flash-in-the-Pan.V = $7,500,000 + $20,000,000= $27,500,000c. Cash alternative = $15,000,000Stock alternative = 0.25($27,500,000 + $35,000,000)= $15,625,000d. NPV of cash alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,000,000=$12,500,000NPV of stock alternative = V - Cost=$27,500,000 - $15,625,000=$11,875,000e. Use the cash alternative, its NPV is greater.30.11 a. The value of Portland Industries before the merger is $9,000,000 (=750,000x12). Thisvalue is also the discounted value of the expected future dividends.$9,000,000 =r = 0.1025 = 10.25%r is the risk-adjusted discount rate for Portland’s expected future dividends.the value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.b. NPV = Gain - Cost= $14,815,385 - ($40x250, 000)= $4,815,385c. If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but thecost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $14,815,385= $29,815,385Cost = 0.375x$29,815,385= $11,180,769NPV= $14,815,385 - $11,180,769=$3,634,616d. The acquisition should be attempted with a cash offer since it provides a higher NPV.e. The value of Portland Industries after the merger isThis is the value of Portland Industries to Freeport.NPV = Gain-Cost=$11,223,529 - ($40x250,000)=$1,223,529If Freeport offers stock, the value of Portland Industries to Freeport is the same, but the cost differs.Cost = (Fraction of combined firm owned by Portland’s stockholders)x(Value of the combined firm)Value of the combined firm = (Value of Freeport before merger)+ (Value of Portland to Freeport)= $15x1,000,000 + $11,223,529= $26,223,529Cost = 0.375 * $26,223,529=$9,833,823NPV = $11,223,529 - $9,833,823=$1,389,706The acquisition should be attempted with a stock offer since it provides a higher NPV.30.12 a. Number of shares after acquisition=30 + 15 = 45 milStock price of Harrods after acquisition = 1,000/45=22.22 poundsb. Value of Selfridge stockholders after merger:α * 1,000 = 300α = 30%New shares issued = 12.86 mil12.86:20 = 0.643:1The proper exchange ratio should be 0.643 to make the stock offer’s value to Selfridgeequivalent to the cash offer.30.13 To evaluate this proposal, look at the present value of the incremental cash flows.Cash Flows to Company A(in $ million)Year 0 1 2 3 4 5Acquisition of B -550Dividends from B 150 32 5 20 30 45Tax-loss carryforwards 25 25Terminal value 600Total -400 32 30 45 30 645 The additional cash flows from the tax-loss carry forwards and the proposed level of debt should be discounted at the cost of debt because they are determined with very littleuncertainty.The after-tax cash flows are subject to normal business risk and must be discounted at anormal rate.Beta coefficient for the bond = 0.25 = [(8%-6%)/8%].Beta coefficient for the company = 1 = [(0.25)2 + (1.25)(0.75)]Discount rate for normal operations:r = 6% + 8% (1) = 14%Discount rate for dividends:The new beta coefficient for the company, 1, must be the weighted average of the debtbeta and the stock beta.1 = 0.5(0.25) + 0.5(βs)βs = 1.75r = 6% + 8%(1.75) = 20%Because the NPV of the acquisition is negative, Company A should not acquireCompany B.30.14 The commonly used defensive tactics by target-firm managers include:i. corporate charter amendments like super-majority amendment or staggering theelection of board members.ii. repurchase standstill agreements.iii. exclusionary self-tenders.iv. going private and leveraged buyouts.v. other devices like golden parachutes, scorched earth strategy, poison pill, ..., etc.Mini Case: U.S.Steel’s case.You have 3 choices: tender, or do not tender or sell in the market. If you do sell your shares in the market, at some point, somebody else would need to make a decision in “tender” or “not tender” as well.It is important to recognize that the firm has about 60 million shares outstanding (since 30 million shares will give US Steel 50.1% of Marathon shares). Let’s consider the possible sellingthe market price.If you choose not to tender, and 30 million shares were tendered US Steel succeeds to gain50.1% control, you will only receive $85 a share. If you do tender, the price you will receive will be no worse than $85 a share and can be as high as $125 a share. Depending on the number of shares tendered, you will receive one of the following prices.If only 50.1% tendered, you will get $125 per share.If the shares tendered exceed 50.1% but less than 100%, you will get more than $105 ashare.If all 60 million shares were tendered, you will get $105 per share. (which is )It is clear that, in the above 3 cases, when you are not sure about whether US Steel will succeed or not, you will be better off to tender your shares than not tender. This is because at best, you will only receive $85 per share if you choose not to tender.版权申明本文部分内容，包括文字、图片、以及设计等在网上搜集整理。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap023
公司理财习题答案第二十三章Answers to End-of-Chapter Problems B-203Chapter 23: Options and Corporate Finance: Extensions and Applications23.1 d 1 = [(r + ½ σ2) t]/ t 2σ= [(0.06 + ½ (0.25)2 ) 4]/()()425.02= 0.73N(d 1) = 0.7673 d 2 = d 1 – t 2σ = 0.73 – ()()425.02 = 0.23N(0.23) = 0.5910C = 50(0.7673) – 50e -0.06⨯4 (0.5910) = $38.365 – $23.245 = $15.12Total Value:$15.12 ⨯50$1$m illion = $302,40023.2 Option A: use discount rate of 6%Total pay value = $1mil 406.0A + 1.2096 millionOption B:Total pay value = $1.25 mil 406.0AThe question is whether the incremental $1.25 mil straight pay value is greater or lower than the options value of $1.2096 mil. If we use the riskless rate of 6%, the cost ofadditional $0.25 mil is $0.8663 mil (As opposed to $1.2096 mil). Holding everything else constant, Mr. Hurt is right and the Board is wrong. It’s cheaper for the firm to pay Mr. Hurt a $1.25 mil straight pay without opitons. However, diversification may make the $1.25 mil straignt pay better off for Mr. Hurt. From the bounding effect, the firm will be better off to offer Mr. Hurt the options.23.3 Fixed plant: r = 12%NPV = -1million + ()()112.0120$000,150++ ()()()(){}()1912.012.0120$2/000,1505.020$000,1505.0+A + = -1million + $2,678,571.43 + $10,704,073.24= $12,382,644.67Flexible plant:NPV = -1.5million + ()()112.0110$000,150+ +()()()(){}()1912.0912.012.0115$000,1505.010$000,1505.0+A +A = -1.5million + $1,339,285.71 + $8,920,061.03= $8,759,346.74TGC should choose the fixed plant since it has a larger NPV.Answers to End-of-Chapter Problems B-204 23.4If rate = 11%; NPV = ⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛+-11.155$50$ = -$0.4505 million < 0If rate = 9%; NPV = ⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛+-09.155$50$= $0.4588 millionNPV = 0.5 (0) + 0.5 (0.4588 million) = $229,400 > $500 He should not take the offer to sell his option.23.5 a. NPV = -7 million + (10,000 ⨯ $200) 515.0A= -$295,689.80b. $100,000 = 415.0C AC = $35,026.54( level of sales) ⨯ ($200) = $35,026.54=175.13 units≈ 176 units23.6 NPV = -7 mil +(10,000⨯ $200 /1.15) +[(0.5⨯15,000⨯ $200 ⨯915.0A ) +(0.5 ⨯100,000)]/1.15= -7 mil + $1,739,130.43 + $6,267,283.37= $1,006,413.80。
公司财务,第十版,课后答案
e.No, dividend payments should not be treated as incremental cash flows. A firm’s decision to pay or not pay dividends is independent of the decision to accept or reject any given investment project. For this reason, dividends are not an incremental cash flow to a given project. Dividend policy is discussed in more detail in later chapters.
c.No, the research and development costs should not be treated as incremental cash flows. The costs of research and development undertaken on the product during the past three years aresunk costsand should not be included in the evaluation of the project. Decisions made and costs incurred in the past cannot be changed. They should not affect the decision to accept or reject the project.
公司理财罗斯课后习题答案修订稿
公司理财罗斯课后习题答案集团标准化工作小组 [Q8QX9QT-X8QQB8Q8-NQ8QJ8-M8QMN]第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案
CHAPTER 7NET PRESENT VALUE AND OTHER INVESTMENT CRITERIAAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. A payback period less than the project’s life means that the NPV is positive for a zero discount rate,but nothing more definitive can be said. For discount rates greater than zero, the payback period will still be less than the project’s life, but the NPV may be positive, zero, or negative, depending on whether the discount rate is less than, equal to, or greater than the IRR. The discounted payback includes the effect of the relevant discount rate. If a project’s discounted payback period is less than the project’s life, it must be the case that NPV is positive.2.If a project has a positive NPV for a certain discount rate, then it will also have a positive NPV for azero discount rate; thus, the payback period must be less than the project life. Since discounted payback is calculated at the same discount rate as is NPV, if NPV is positive, the discounted payback period must be less than the project’s life. If NPV is positive, then the present value of future cash inflows is greater than the initial investment cost; thus PI must be greater than 1. If NPV is positive for a certain discount rate R, then it will be zero for some larger discount rate R*; thus, the IRR must be greater than the required return.3. a.Payback period is simply the accounting break-even point of a series of cash flows. To actuallycompute the payback period, it is assumed that any cash flow occurring during a given period isrealized continuously throughout the period, and not at a single point in time. The payback isthen the point in time for the series of cash flows when the initial cash outlays are fullyrecovered. Given some predetermined cutoff for the payback period, the decision rule is toaccept projects that payback before this cutoff, and reject projects that take longer to payback.The worst problem associated with payback period is that it ignores the time value of money. Inaddition, the selection of a hurdle point for payback period is an arbitrary exercise that lacksany steadfast rule or method. The payback period is biased towards short-term projects; it fullyignores any cash flows that occur after the cutoff point.b.The average accounting return is interpreted as an average measure of the accountingperformance of a project over time, computed as some average profit measure attributable tothe project divided by some average balance sheet value for the project. This text computesAAR as average net income with respect to average (total) book value. Given somepredetermined cutoff for AAR, the decision rule is to accept projects with an AAR in excess ofthe target measure, and reject all other projects. AAR is not a measure of cash flows and marketvalue, but a measure of financial statement accounts that often bear little resemblance to therelevant value of a project. In addition, the selection of a cutoff is arbitrary, and the time valueof money is ignored. For a financial manager, both the reliance on accounting numbers ratherthan relevant market data and the exclusion of time value of money considerations are troubling.Despite these problems, AAR continues to be used in practice because (1) the accountinginformation is usually available, (2) analysts often use accounting ratios to analyze firmperformance, and (3) managerial compensation is often tied to the attainment of targetaccounting ratio goals.c.The IRR is the discount rate that causes the NPV of a series of cash flows to be identically zero.IRR can thus be interpreted as a financial break-even rate of return; at the IRR discount rate,the net value of the project is zero. The acceptance and rejection criteria are:If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, accept the project if the internal rate ofreturn is greater than or equal to the discount rate.If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, reject the project if the internal rate ofreturn is less than the discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, accept the project if the internal rate ofreturn is less than or equal to the discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, reject the project if the internal rate ofreturn is greater than the discount rate.IRR is the interest rate that causes NPV for a series of cash flows to be zero. NPV is preferred in all situations to IRR; IRR can lead to ambiguous results if there are non-conventional cash flows, and it also ambiguously ranks some mutually exclusive projects. However, for stand-alone projects with conventional cash flows, IRR and NPV are interchangeable techniques. The IRR decision rule for projectsd.The profitability index is the present value of cash inflows relative to the project cost. As such,it is a benefit/cost ratio, providing a measure of the relative profitability of a project. The profitability index decision rule is to accept projects with a PI greater than one, and to reject projects with a PI less than one. The profitability index can be expressed as: PI = (NPV + cost)/cost = 1 + (NPV/cost). If a firm has a basket of positive NPV projects and is subject to capital rationing, PI may provide a good ranking measure of the projects, indicating the “bang for the buck” of each particu lar project.e.NPV is simply the present value of a project’s cash flows. NPV specifically measures, afterconsidering the time value of money, the net increase or decrease in firm wealth due to the project. The decision rule is to accept projects that have a positive NPV, and reject projects with a negative NPV. NPV is superior to the other methods of analysis presented in the text because it has no serious flaws. The method unambiguously ranks mutually exclusive projects, and can differentiate between projects of different scale and time horizon. The only drawback to NPV is that it relies on cash flow and discount rate values that are often estimates and not certain, but this is a problem shared by the other performance criteria as well. A project with NPV = $2,500 implies that the total shareholder wealth of the firm will increase by $2,500 if the project is accepted.4.For a project with future cash flows that are an annuity:Payback = I / CAnd the IRR is:0 = – I + C / IRRSolving the IRR equation for IRR, we get:IRR = C / INotice this is just the reciprocal of the payback. So:IRR = 1 / PBFor long-lived projects with relatively constant cash flows, the sooner the project pays back, the greater is the IRR.5.There are a number of reasons. Two of the most important have to do with transportation costs andexchange rates. Manufacturing in the U.S. places the finished product much closer to the point of sale, resulting in significant savings in transportation costs. It also reduces inventories because goods spend less time in transit. Higher labor costs tend to offset these savings to some degree, at least compared to other possible manufacturing locations. Of great importance is the fact that manufacturing in the U.S. means that a much higher proportion of the costs are paid in dollars. Since sales are in dollars, the net effect is to immunize profits to a large extent against fluctuations in exchange rates. This issue is discussed in greater detail in the chapter on international finance.6.The single biggest difficulty, by far, is coming up with reliable cash flow estimates. Determining anappropriate discount rate is also not a simple task. These issues are discussed in greater depth in the next several chapters. The payback approach is probably the simplest, followed by the AAR, but even these require revenue and cost projections. The discounted cash flow measures (discounted payback, NPV, IRR, and profitability index) are really only slightly more difficult in practice.7.Yes, they are. Such entities generally need to allocate available capital efficiently, just as for-profitsdo. However, it is frequently the case that the “revenues” from not-for-profit ventures are not tangible. For example, charitable giving has real opportunity costs, but the benefits are generally hard to measure. To the extent that benefits are measurable, the question of an appropriate required return remains. Payback rules are commonly used in such cases. Finally, realistic cost/benefit analysis along the lines indicated should definitely be used by the U.S. government and would go a long way toward balancing the budget!8.The statement is false. If the cash flows of Project B occur early and the cash flows of Project Aoccur late, then for a low discount rate the NPV of A can exceed the NPV of B. Observe the following example.C0C1C2IRR NPV @ 0% Project A –$1,000,000 $0 $1,440,000 20% $440,000 Project B –$2,000,000 $2,400,000 $0 20% 400,000However, in one particular case, the statement is true for equally risky Projects. If the lives of the two Projects are equal and the cash flows of Project B are twice the cash flows of Project A in every time period, the NPV of Project B will be twice the NPV of Project A.9. Although the profitability index (PI) is higher for Project B than for Project A, Project A should bechosen because it has the greater NPV. Confusion arises because Project B requires a smaller investment than Project A requires. Since the denominator of the PI ratio is lower for Project B than for Project A, B can have a higher PI yet have a lower NPV. Only in the case of capital rationing could the company’s decision have been incorrect.10. a.Project A would have a higher IRR since initial investment for Project A is less than that ofProject B, if the cash flows for the two projects are identical.b.Yes, since both the cash flows as well as the initial investment are twice that of Project B.11.Project B would have a more sensitive NPV to changes in the discount rate. The reason is the timevalue of money. Cash flows that occur further out in the future are always more sensitive to changes in the interest rate. This is similar to the interest rate risk of a bond.12.The MIRR is calculated by finding the present value of all cash outflows, the future value of all cashinflows to the end of the project, and then calculating the IRR of the two cash flows. As a result, the cash flows have been discounted or compounded by one interest rate (the required return), and then the interest rate between the two remaining cash flows is calculated. As such, the MIRR is not a true interest rate. In contrast, consider the IRR. If you take the initial investment, and calculate the future value at the IRR, you can replicate the future cash flows of the project exactly.13.The criticism is incorrect. It is true that if you calculate the future value of all intermediate cashflows to the end of the project at the required return, then calculate the NPV of this future value and the initial investment, you will get the same NPV. However, NPV says nothing about reinvestment of intermediate cash flows. The NPV is the present value of the project cash flows. The fact that the reinvestment works is an artifact of the time value of money.14.The criticism is incorrect for several reasons. It is true that if you calculate the future value of allintermediate cash flows to the end of the project at the IRR, then calculate the IRR of this future value and the initial investment, you will get the same IRR. This only occurs if the intermediate cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. However, similar to the previous question, IRR deals with the present value of the cash flows, not the future value. There is also another important point. This criticism deals with the reinvestment of the intermediate cash flows. As we will see in the next chapter, any reinvestment assumption concerning the intermediate cash flows is incorrect. The reason is that when we are calculating the cash flows for a project, we are concerned with the incremental cash flows from the project, that is, the cash flows the project creates. Reinvestment violates this principal. Consider the following example:C0C1C2IRR Project A –$100 $10 $110 10% Suppose this is a deposit into a bank account. The IRR of the cash flows is 10 percent. Does it the IRR change if the Year 1 cash flow is reinvested in the account, or if it is withdrawn and spent on pizza? No. Finally, think back to the yield to maturity calculation on a bond. The YTM is the IRR of the bond investment, but no mention of a reinvestment assumption of the bond coupons is inferred.The reason is that the reinvestment assumption is irrelevant to calculating the YTM on a bond; in the same way, the reinvestment assumption is irrelevant in the IRR calculation.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1. a.The payback period is the time that it takes for the cumulative undiscounted cash inflows toequal the initial investment.Project A:Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = €4,000 = €4,000Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = €4,000 +3,500 = €7,500 Payback period = 2 yearsProject B:Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = €2,500 = €2,500Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = €2,500 + 1,200 = €3,700Cumulative cash flows Year 3 = €2,500 + 1,200 + 3,000 = €6,700 Companies can calculate a more precise value using fractional years. To calculate the fractionalpayba ck period, find the fraction of year 3’s cash flows that is needed for the company to have cumulative undiscounted cash flows of €5,000. Divide the difference between the initial investment and the cumulative undiscounted cash flows as of year 2 by the undiscounted cashflow of year 3.Payback period = 2 + (€5,000 –€3,700) / €3,000Payback period = 2.43Since project A has a shorter payback period than project B has, the company should chooseproject A.b.Discount each project’s cash flows at 15 percent. Choose the project with the highest NPV.Project A:NPV = –€7,500 + €4,000 / 1.15 + €3,500 / 1.152 + €1,500 / 1.153NPV = –€388.96Project B:NPV = –€5,000 + €2,500 / 1.15 + €1,200 / 1.152 + €3,000 / 1.153NPV = €53.83The firm should choose Project B since it has a higher NPV than Project A has.2.To calculate the payback period, we need to find the time that the project has recovered its initialinvestment. The cash flows in this problem are an annuity, so the calculation is simpler. If the initial cost is £3,000, the payback period is:Payback = 3 + (£300 / £900) = 3.33 yearsThere is a shortcut to calculate the payback period if the future cash flows are an annuity. Just divide the initial cost by the annual cash flow. For the £3,000 cost, the payback period is:Payback = £3,000 / £900 = 3.33 yearsFor an initial cost of £5,000, the payback period is:Payback = 5 + (£500 / £900) = 5.55 yearsThe payback period for an initial cost of £10,000 is a little trickier. Notice that the total cash inflows after nine years will be:Total cash inflows = 8(£900) = £7,200If the initial cost is £10,000, the project never pays back. Notice that if you use the shortcut forannuity cash flows, you get:Payback = £10,000 / £900 = 11.11 years.This answer does not make sense since the cash flows stop after nine years, so the payback period is never.3.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value todayof the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $7,000/1.14 = $6,140.35Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $7,500/1.142 = $5,771.01Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $8,000/1.143 = $5,399.77Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $8,500/1.144 = $5,032.68To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $6,140.35, so the discounted payback for an $8,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($8,000 – 6,140.35)/$5,771.01 = 1.32 yearsFor an initial cost of $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($13,000 – 6,140.35 – 5,771.01)/$5,399.77 = 2.20 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost.This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $18,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($18,000 – 6,140.35 – 5,771.01 – 5,399.77) / $5,032.68 = 3.14 years4.To calculate the discounted payback, discount all future cash flows back to the present, and use thesediscounted cash flows to calculate the payback period. Doing so, we find:R = 0%: 4 + (£1,100 / £2,100) = 4.52 yearsDiscounted payback = Regular payback = 4.52 yearsR = 5%: £2,100/1.05 + £2,100/1.052 + £2,100/1.053 + £2,100/1.054 + £2,100/1.055 = £9,091.90 £2,100/1.056 = £1,567.05Discounted payback = 5 + (£9,500 – 9,091.90) / £1,567.05 = 5.26 years R = 15%: £2,100/1.15 + £2,100/1.152 + £2,100/1.153 + £2,100/1.154 + £2,100/1.155 + £2,100/1.156 = £7,947.41; The project never pays back.5. a.The average accounting return is the average project earnings after taxes, divided by theaverage book value, or average net investment, of the machine during its life. The book value of the machine is the gross investment minus the accumulated depreciation.Average book value = (Book Value0 + Book Value1 + Book Value2 + Book Value3 +Book Value4 + Book Value5) / (Economic Life)Average book value = ($16,000 + 12,000 + 8,000 + 4,000 + 0) / (5 years)Average book value = $8,000Average Project Earnings = $4,500To find the average accounting return, we divide the average project earnings by the average book value of the machine to calculate the average accounting return. Doing so, we find:Average Accounting Return = Average Project Earnings / Average Book ValueAverage Accounting Return = $4,500 / $8,000Average Accounting Return = 0.5625 or 56.25%6.First, we need to determine the average book value of the project. The book value is the grossinvestment minus accumulated depreciation.Purchase Date Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Gross Investment €8,000 €8,000 €8,000 €8,000Less: Accumulated Depreciation 0 4,000 6,500 8,000Net Investment €8,000 €4,000 €1,500 €0 Now, we can calculate the average book value as:Average book value = (€8,000 + 4,000 + 1,500 + 0) / (4 years)Average book value = €3,375To calculate the average accounting return, we must remember to use the aftertax average netincome when calculating the average accounting return. So, the average aftertax net income is:Average aftertax net income = (1 – t c) Annual pretax net incomeAverage aftertax net income = (1 – 0.25) €2,000Average aftertax net income = €1,500The average accounting return is the average after-tax net income divided by the average book value, which is:Average accounting return = €1,500 / €3,375Average accounting return = 0.4444 or 44.44%7.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that definesthe IRR for this project is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –¥8,000,000 + ¥4,000,000/(1 + IRR) + ¥3,000,000/(1 + IRR)2 + ¥2,000,000/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 6.93%Since the IRR is less than the required return we would reject the project.8.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that definesthe IRR for this Project A is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = – £2,000 + £1,000/(1 + IRR) + £1,500/(1 + IRR)2 + £2,000/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 47.15%And the IRR for Project B is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = – £1,500 + £500/(1 + IRR) + £1,000/(1 + IRR)2 + £1,500/(1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that: IRR = 36.19%9.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The cash flows from this project are an annuity, so the equation for the profitability index is:PI = C(PVIFA R,t) / C0PI = €41,000(PVIFA15%,7) / €160,000PI = 1.066110. a.The profitability index is the present value of the future cash flows divided by the initial cost.So, for Project Alpha, the profitability index is:PI Alpha = [$300 / 1.10 + $700 / 1.102 + $600 / 1.103] / $500 = 2.604And for Project Beta the profitability index is:PI Beta = [$300 / 1.10 + $1,800 / 1.102 + $1,700 / 1.103] / $2,000 = 1.519b.According to the profitability index, you would accept Project Alpha. However, remember theprofitability index rule can lead to incorrect decision when ranking mutually exclusive projects.Intermediate11. a.To have a payback equal to the project’s life, given C is a constant cash flow for N years:C = I/Nb.To have a positive NPV, I < C (PVIFA R%, N). Thus, C > I / (PVIFA R%, N).c.Benefits = C (PVIFA R%, N) = 2 × costs = 2IC = 2I / (PVIFA R%, N)12. a.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equationthat defines the IRR for this project is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3 + C4 / (1 + IRR)40 = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / (1 + IRR) –₩2,000 / (1 + IRR)2–₩1,000 / (1 + IRR)3–₩1,000 / (1 +IRR)4Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 13.99%b.This problem differs from previous ones because the initial cash flow is positive and all futurecash flows are negative. In other words, this is a financing-type project, while previous projects were investing-type projects. For financing situations, accept the project when the IRR is less than the discount rate. Reject the project when the IRR is greater than the discount rate.IRR = 13.99%Discount Rate = 12%IRR > Discount RateReject the offer when the discount rate is less than the IRR.ing the same reason as part b., we would accept the project if the discount rate is 20 percent.IRR = 13.99%Discount Rate = 19%IRR < Discount RateAccept the offer when the discount rate is greater than the IRR.d.The NPV is the sum of the present value of all cash flows, so the NPV of the project if thediscount rate is 10 percent will be:NPV = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / 1.12 –₩2,000 / 1.122–₩1,000 / 1.123–₩1,000 / 1.124NPV = –₩173.83When the discount rate is 12 percent, the NPV of the offer is –₩359.95. Reject the offer.And the NPV of the project is the discount rate is 19 percent will be:NPV = ₩5,000 –₩2,500 / 1.19 –₩2,000 / 1.192–₩1,000 / 1.193–₩1,000 / 1.194NPV = ₩394.75When the discount rate is 19 percent, the NPV of the offer is ₩466.82. Accept the offer.e.Yes, the decisions under the NPV rule are consistent with the choices made under the IRR rulesince the signs of the cash flows change only once.13. a.The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the IRR foreach project is:Deepwater Fishing IRR:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$600,000 + $270,000 / (1 + IRR) + $350,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $300,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 24.30%Submarine Ride IRR:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / (1 + IRR) + $700,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $900,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:IRR = 21.46%Based on the IRR rule, the deepwater fishing project should be chosen because it has the higher IRR.b.To calculate the incremental IRR, we s ubtract the smaller project’s cash flows from the largerproject’s cash flows. In this case, we subtract the deepwater fishing cash flows from the submarine ride cash flows. The incremental IRR is the IRR of these incremental cash flows. So, the incremental cash flows of the submarine ride are:Year 0Year 1Year 2 Year 3 Submarine Ride –$1,800,000 $1,000,000 $700,000 $900,000Deepwater Fishing –600,000 270,000 350,000 300,000Submarine – Fishing –$1,200,000 $730,000 $350,000 $600,000 Setting the present value of these incremental cash flows equal to zero, we find the incremental IRR is:0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)30 = –$1,200,000 + $730,000 / (1 + IRR) + $350,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $600,000 / (1 + IRR)3Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find that:Incremental IRR = 19.92%For investing-type projects, accept the larger project when the incremental IRR is greater than the discount rate. Since the incremental IRR, 19.92%, is greater than the required rate of return of 15 percent, choose the submarine ride project. Note that this is the choice when evaluating only the IRR of each project. The IRR decision rule is flawed because there is a scale problem.That is, the submarine ride has a greater initial investment than does the deepwater fishing project. This problem is corrected by calculating the IRR of the incremental cash flows, or by evaluating the NPV of each project.c.The NPV is the sum of the present value of the cash flows from the project, so the NPV of eachproject will be:Deepwater fishing:NPV = –$600,000 + $270,000 / 1.15 + $350,000 / 1.152 + $300,000 / 1.153NPV = $96,687.76Submarine ride:NPV = –$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / 1.15 + $700,000 / 1.152 + $900,000 / 1.153NPV = $190,630.39Since the NPV of the submarine ride project is greater than the NPV of the deepwater fishingproject, choose the submarine ride project. The incremental IRR rule is always consistent withthe NPV rule.14. a.The profitability index is the PV of the future cash flows divided by the initial investment. Thecash flows for both projects are an annuity, so:PI I = 元15,000(PVIFA10%,3 ) / 元30,000 = 1.243PI II = 元2,800(PVIFA10%,3) / 元5,000 = 1.393The profitability index decision rule implies that we accept project II, since PI II is greater thanthe PI I.b.The NPV of each project is:NPV I = –元30,000 + 元15,000(PVIFA10%,3) = 元7,302.78NPV II = –元5,000 + 元2,800(PVIFA10%,3) = 元1,963.19The NPV decision rule implies accepting Project I, since the NPV I is greater than the NPV II.ing the profitability index to compare mutually exclusive projects can be ambiguous whenthe magnitudes of the cash flows for the two projects are of different scale. In this problem,project I is roughly 3 times as large as project II and produces a larger NPV, yet the profit-ability index criterion implies that project II is more acceptable.15. a.The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = –₦28,000,000 + ₦53,000,000/1.11 –₦8,000,000/1.112 = ₦13,254,768.28The NPV is greater than 0, so we would accept the project.b.The equation for the IRR of the project is:0 = –₦28,000,000 + ₦53,000,000/(1+IRR) –₦8,000,000/(1+IRR)2From Descartes rule of signs, we know there are two IRRs since the cash flows change signstwice. From trial and error, the two IRRs are:IRR = 72.75%, –83.46%。
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案
(完整版)公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案-CAL-FENGHAI-(2020YEAR-YICAI)_JINGBIAN第一章1.在所有权形式的公司中,股东是公司的所有者。
股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。
企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。
管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化,而不是股东的利益最大化。
在这种环境下,他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。
2.非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。
非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。
管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。
一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。
因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。
另一种极端,我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。
一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。
然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。
请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
6.管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。
如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。
如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。
然而,如果管理层不能增加企业的价值,并且没有其他更高的投标价格,那么管理层不是在为股东的最大化权益行事。
现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。
较少的私人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap016
CHAPTER 16DIVIDENDS AND DIVIDEND POLICYAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.Dividend policy deals with the timing of dividend payments, not the amounts ultimately paid.Dividend policy is irrelevant when the timing of dividend payments doesn’t affect the present value of all future dividends.2. A stock repurchase reduces equity while leaving debt unchanged. The debt ratio rises. A firm could,if desired, use excess cash to reduce debt instead. This is a capital structure decision.3.The chief drawback to a strict dividend policy is the variability in dividend payments. This is aproblem because investors tend to want a somewhat predictable cash flow. Also, if there is information content to dividend announcements, then the firm may be inadvertently telling the market that it is expecting a downturn in earnings prospects when it cuts a dividend, when in reality its prospects are very good. In a compromise policy, the firm maintains a relatively constant dividend. It increases dividends only when it expects earnings to remain at a sufficiently high level to pay the larger dividends, and it lowers the dividend only if it absolutely has to.4.Friday, December 29 is the ex-dividend day. Remember not to count January 1 because it is aholiday, and the exchanges are closed. Anyone who buys the stock before December 29 is entitled to the dividend, assuming they do not sell it again before December 29.5.No, because the money could be better invested in stocks that pay dividends in cash which benefitthe fundholders directly.6.The change in price is due to the change in dividends, not due to the change in dividend policy.Dividend policy can still be irrelevant without a contradiction.7.The stock price dropped because of an expected drop in future dividends. Since the stock price is thepresent value of all future dividend payments, if the expected future dividend payments decrease, then the stock price will decline.8. The plan will probably have little effect on shareholder wealth. The shareholders can reinvest ontheir own, and the shareholders must pay the taxes on the dividends either way. However, the shareholders who take the option may benefit at the expense of the ones who don’t (because of the discount). Also as a result of the plan, the firm will be able to raise equity by paying a 10% flotation cost (the discount), which may be a smaller discount than the market flotation costs of a new issue for some companies.9.If these firms just went public, they probably did so because they were growing and needed theadditional capital. Growth firms typically pay very small cash dividends, if they pay a dividend at all.This is because they have numerous projects available, and they reinvest the earnings in the firm instead of paying cash dividends.B-2 SOLUTIONS10.It would not be irrational to find low-dividend, high-growth stocks. The trust should be indifferentbetween receiving dividends or capital gains since it does not pay taxes on either one (ignoring possible restrictions on invasion of principal, etc.). It would be irrational, however, to hold municipal bonds. Since the trust does not pay taxes on the interest income it receives, it does not need the tax break associated with the municipal bonds. Therefore, it should prefer to hold higher yield, taxable bonds.11.The stock price drop on the ex-dividend date should be lower. With taxes, stock prices should dropby the amount of the dividend, less the taxes investors must pay on the dividends. A lower tax rate lowers the investors’ tax liability.12.With a high tax on dividends and a low tax on capital gains, investors, in general, will prefer capitalgains. If the dividend tax rate declines, the attractiveness of dividends increases.13.Knowing that share price can be expressed as the present value of expected future dividends doesnot make dividend policy relevant. Under the growing perpetuity model, if overall corporate cash flows are unchanged, then a change in dividend policy only changes the timing of the dividends.The PV of those dividends is the same. This is true because, given that future earnings are held constant, dividend policy simply represents a transfer between current and future stockholders.In a more realistic context and assuming a finite holding period, the value of the shares should represent the future stock price as well as the dividends. Any cash flow not paid as a dividend will be reflected in the future stock price. As such the PV of the flows will not change with shifts in dividend policy; dividend policy is still irrelevant.14.T he bird-in-the-hand argument is based upon the erroneous assumption that increased dividendsmake a firm less risky. If capital spending and investment spending are unchanged, the firm’s overall cash flows are not affected by the dividend policy.15.This argument is theoretically correct. In the real world, with transaction costs of security trading,home-made dividends can be more expensive than dividends directly paid out by the firms. However, the existence of financial intermediaries, such as mutual funds, reduces the transaction costs for individuals greatly. Thus, as a whole, the desire for current income shouldn’t be a major factor favoring high-current-dividend policy.16. a.Cap’s past behavior suggests a preference for capital gains, while Widow Jones exhibits apreference for current income.b. Cap could show the Widow how to construct homemade dividends through the sale of stock.Of course, Cap will also have to convince her that she lives in an MM world. Remember thathomemade dividends can only be constructed under the MM assumptions.c.Widow Jones may still not invest in Neotech because of the transaction costs involved inconstructing homemade dividends. Also, the Widow may desire the uncertainty resolutionwhich comes with high dividend stocks.17.To minimize her tax burden, your aunt should divest herself of high dividend yield stocks and investin low dividend yield stock. Or, if possible, she should keep her high dividend stocks, borrow an equivalent amount of money and invest that money in a tax-deferred account.CHAPTER 16 B-3 18. The capital investment needs of small, growing companies are very high. Therefore, payment ofdividends could curtail their investment opportunities. Their other option is to issue stock to pay the dividend, thereby incurring issuance costs. In either case, the companies and thus their investors are better off with a zero dividend policy during the firms’ rapid growth phases. This fact makes these firms attractive only to low dividend clienteles.This example demonstrates that dividend policy is relevant when there are issuance costs. Indeed, it may be relevant whenever the assumptions behind the MM model are not met.19. Unless there is an unsatisfied high dividend clientele, a firm cannot improve its share price byswitching policies. If the market is in equilibrium, the number of people who desire high dividend payout stocks should exactly equal the number of such stocks available. The supplies and demands of each clientele will be exactly met in equilibrium. If the market is not in equilibrium, the supply of high dividend payout stocks may be less than the demand. Only in such a situation could a firm benefit from a policy shift.20. This finding implies that firms use initial dividends to “signal” their potential growth and positiveNPV prospects to the stock market. The initiation of regular cash dividends also serves to convince the market that their high current earnings are not temporary.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1.The aftertax dividend is the pretax dividend times one minus the tax rate, so:Aftertax dividend = $6.00(1 – .20) = $4.80The stock price should drop by the aftertax dividend amount, or:Ex-dividend price = $80 – 4.80 = $75.202. a.The shares outstanding increases by 10 percent, so:New shares outstanding = 10,000(1.10) = 11,000New shares issued = 1,000Since the par value of the new shares is £1, the capital surplus per share is £24. The total capital surplus is therefore:B-4 SOLUTIONSCapital surplus on new shares = 1,000(£24) = £24,000Common stock (£1 par value) £ 11,000Capital surplus 204,000Retained earnings 561,500£776,500b.The shares outstanding increases by 25 percent, so:New shares outstanding = 10,000(1.25) = 12,500New shares issued = 2,500Since the par value of the new shares is £1, the capital surplus per share is £24. The total capital surplus is therefore:Capital surplus on new shares = 2,500(£24) = £60,000Common stock (£1 par value) £ 12,500Capital surplus 240,000Retained earnings 524,000£776,5003. a.To find the new shares outstanding, we multiply the current shares outstanding times the ratioof new shares to old shares, so:New shares outstanding = 10,000(3/1) = 30,000The equity accounts are unchanged except that the par value of the stock is changed by the ratio of new shares to old shares, so the new par value is:New par value = £1(1/3) = £.3333 per share.b.To find the new shares outstanding, we multiply the current shares outstanding times the ratioof new shares to old shares, so:New shares outstanding = 10,000(1/5) = 2,000.The equity accounts are unchanged except that the par value of the stock is changed by the ratio of new shares to old shares, so the new par value is:New par value = £1(5/1) = £5.00 per share.CHAPTER 16 B-5 4.To find the new stock price, we multiply the current stock price by the ratio of old shares to newshares, so:a.€65(2/5) = €26.00b.€65(1/1.18) = €55.08c.€65(1/1.40) = €46.43d.€65(7/4) = €113.75e.To find the new shares outstanding, we multiply the current shares outstanding times the ratioof new shares to old shares, so:a: 150,000(5/2) = 375,000b: 150,000(1.18) = 177,000c: 150,000(1.40) = 210,000d: 150,000(4/7) = 85,7145.The stock price is the total market value of equity divided by the shares outstanding, so:P0 = Au$175,000 equity/5,000 shares = Au$35.00 per shareIgnoring tax effects, the stock price will drop by the amount of the dividend, so:P X = Au$35.00 – 1.50 = Au$33.50The total dividends paid will be:Au$1.50 per share(5,000 shares) = Au$7,500The equity and cash accounts will both decline by Au$7,500.6.Repurchasing the shares will reduce shareholders’ equity by Au$4,025. The shares repurchased willbe the total purchase amount divided by the stock price, so:Shares bought = Au$4,025/Au$35.00 = 115And the new shares outstanding will be:New shares outstanding = 5,000 – 115 = 4,885B-6 SOLUTIONSAfter repurchase, the new stock price is:Share price = Au$170,975/4,885 shares = Au$35.00The repurchase is effectively the same as the cash dividend because you either hold a share worth Au$35.00, or a share worth Au$33.50 and Au$1.50 in cash. Therefore, you participate in the repurchase according to the dividend payout percentage; you are unaffected.7. The stock price is the total market value of equity divided by the shares outstanding, so:P0 = ₦360,000 equity/15,000 shares = ₦24 per shareThe shares outstanding will increase by 25 percent, so:New shares outstanding = 15,000(1.25) = 18,750The new stock price is the market value of equity divided by the new shares outstanding, so:P X = ₦360,000/18,750 shares = ₦19.208.With a stock dividend, the shares outstanding will increase by one plus the dividend amount, so:New shares outstanding = 350,000(1.12) = 392,000The capital surplus is the capital paid in excess of par value, which is €1, so:Capital surplus for new shares = 42,000(€19) = €798,000The new capital surplus will be the old capital surplus plus the additional capital surplus for the new shares, so:Capital surplus = €1,650,000 + 798,000 = €2,448,000The new equity portion of the balance sheet will look like this:Common stock (€1 par value) € 392,000Capital surplus 2,448,000Retained earnings 2,160,000€5,000,0009.The only equity account that will be affected is the par value of the stock. The par value will changeby the ratio of old shares to new shares, so:New par value = €1(1/5) = €0.20 per share.CHAPTER 16 B-7The total dividends paid this year will be the dividend amount times the number of shares outstanding. The company had 350,000 shares outstanding before the split. We must remember to adjust the shares outstanding for the stock split, so:Total dividends paid this year = €0.70(350,000 shares)(5/1 split) = €1,225,000The dividends increased by 10 percent, so the total dividends paid last year were:Last year’s dividends = €1,225,000/1.10 = €1,113,636.36And to find the dividends per share, we simply divide this amount by the shares outstanding last year. Doing so, we get:Dividends per share last year = €1,113,636.36/350,000 shares = €3.1810.The equity portion of capital outlays is the retained earnings. Subtracting dividends from net income,we get:Equity portion of capital outlays = $1,200 – 600 = $600Since the debt-equity ratio is .80, we can find the new borrowings for the company by multiplying the equity investment by the debt-equity ratio, so:New borrowings = .80($600) = $480And the total capital outlay will be the sum of the new equity and the new debt, which is:Total capital outlays = $600 + 480 =$1,080.11. a.The payout ratio is the dividend per share divided by the earnings per share, so:Payout ratio = ₩0.80/₩7Payout ratio = .1143 or 11.43%b.Under a residual dividend policy, the additions to retained earnings, which is the equity portionof the planned capital outlays, is the retained earnings per share times the number of shares outstanding, so:Equity portion of capital outlays = 7M shares (₩7 – .80) = ₩43.4MThis means the total investment outlay will be:Total investment outlay = ₩43.4M + 18MTotal investment outlay = ₩61.4MThe debt-equity ratio is the new borrowing divided by the new equity, so:D/E ratio = ₩18M/₩43.4M = .4147B-8 SOLUTIONSCHAPTER 16 B-9 12. a.Since the company has a debt-equity ratio of 3, they can raise ₡3 in debt for every ₡1 of equity.The maximum capital outlay with no outside equity financing is:Maximum capital outlay = ₡180,000 + 3(₡180,000) = ₡720,000.b.If planned capital spending is ₡800,000, then no dividend will be paid and new equity will beissued since this exceeds the amount calculated in a.c.No, they do not maintain a constant dividend payout because, with the strict residual policy,the dividend will depend on the investment opportunities and earnings. As these two things vary, the dividend payout will also vary.13. a.We can find the new borrowings for the company by multiplying the equity investment by thedebt-equity ratio, so we get:New debt = 2(₪56M) = ₪112MAdding the new retained earnings, we get:Maximum investment with no outside equity financing = ₪56M + 2(₪56M) = ₪168Mb. A debt-equity ratio of 2 implies capital structure is 2/3 debt and 1/3 equity. The equity portionof the planned new investment will be:Equity portion of investment funds = 1/3(₪72M) = ₪24MThis is the addition to retained earnings, so the total available for dividend payments is:Residual = ₪56M – 24M = ₪32MThis makes the dividend per share:Dividend per share = ₪32M/12M shares = ₪2.67c.The borrowing will be:Borrowing = ₪72M – 24M = ₪48MAlternatively, we could calculate the new borrowing as the weight of debt in the capital structure times the planned capital outlays, so:Borrowing = 2/3(₪72M) = ₪48MThe addition to retained earnings is ₪24M, which we calculated in part b.B-10 SOLUTIONSd.If the company plans no capital outlays, no new borrowing will take place. The dividend pershare will be:Dividend per share = ₪56M/12M shares = ₪4.6714. a.If the dividend is declared, the price of the stock will drop on the ex-dividend date by the valueof the dividend, ¥5. It will then trade for ¥95.b.If it is not declared, the price will remain at ¥100.c.Nakumura’s outflows for inves tments are ¥5,000,000. These outflows occur immediately. Oneyear from now, the firm will realize ¥1,000,000 in net income and it will pay ¥500,000 in dividends, but the need for financing is immediate. Nakumura must finance ¥2,000,000 through the sale of shares worth ¥100. It must sell ¥5,000,000 / ¥100 = 50,000 shares.d.The MM model is not realistic since it does not account for taxes, brokerage fees, uncertaintyover future cash flows, investors’ preferences, signaling effects, and agency costs.Intermediate15.The price of the stock today is the PV of the dividends, so:P0 = Rs.0.70/1.15 + Rs.40/1.152 = Rs.30.85To find the equal two year dividends with the same present value as the price of the stock, we set up the following equation and solve for the dividend (Note: The dividend is a two year annuity, so we could solve with the annuity factor as well):Rs.30.85 = D/1.15 + D/1.152D = Rs.18.98We now know the cash flow per share we want each of the next two years. We can find the price of stock in one year, which will be:P1 = Rs.40/1.15 = Rs.34.78Since you own 1,000 shares, in one year you want:Cash flow in Year one = 1,000(Rs.18.98) = Rs.18,979.07B ut you’ll only get:Dividends received in one year = 1,000(Rs.0.70) = Rs.700.00CHAPTER 16 B-11 Thus, in one year you will need to sell additional shares in order to increase your cash flow. The number of shares to sell in year one is:Shares to sell at time one = (Rs.18,979.07 – 700)/Rs.34.78 = 525.52 sharesAt Year 2, you cash flow will be the dividend payment times the number of shares you still own, so the Year 2 cash flow is:Year 2 cash flow = Rs.40(1,000 – 525.52) = Rs.18,979.0716.If you only want Rs.200 in Year 1, you will buy:(Rs.700 – 200)/Rs.34.78 = 14.38 sharesat Year 1. Your dividend payment in Year 2 will be:Year 2 dividend = (1,000 + 14.38)(Rs.40) = Rs.40,575Note that the present value of each cash flow stream is the same. Below we show this by finding the present values as:PV = Rs.200/1.15 + Rs.40,575/1.152 = Rs.30,854.44PV = 1,000(Rs.0.70)/1.15 + 1,000(Rs.40)/1.152 = Rs.30,854.4417. a.If the company makes a dividend payment, we can calculate the wealth of a shareholder as:Dividend per share = 元5,000/200 shares = 元25.00The stock price after the dividend payment will be:P X = 元40 – 25 = 元15 per shareThe shareholder will have a stock worth 元15 and a 元25 dividend for a total wealth of 元40.If the company makes a repurchase, the company will repurchase:Shares repurchased = 元5,000/元40 = 125 sharesIf the shareholder lets their shares be repurchased, they will have 元40 in cash. If the shareholder keeps their shares, they’re still worth 元40.b.If the company pays dividends, the current EPS is 元0.95, and the P/E ratio is:P/E = 元15/元0.95 = 15.79B-12 SOLUTIONSCHAPTER 16 B-13 If the company repurchases stock, the number of shares will decrease. The total net income is the EPS times the current number of shares outstanding. Dividing net income by the new number of shares outstanding, we find the EPS under the repurchase is:EPS = 元0.95(200)/(200 125) = 元2.53The stock price will remain at 元40 per share, so the P/E ratio is:P/E = 元40/元2.53 = 15.79c. A share repurchase would seem to be the preferred course of action. Only those shareholderswho wish to sell will do so, giving the shareholder a tax timing option that he or she doesn’t get with a dividend payment.18. a.Since the firm has a 100 percent payout policy, the entire net income, ฿32,000 will be paid as adividend. The current value of the firm is the discounted value one year from now, plus the current income, which is:Value = ฿32,000 + ฿1,545,600/1.12Value = ฿1,412,000b.The current stock price is the value of the firm, divided by the shares outstanding, which is:Stock price = ฿1,412,000/10,000Stock price = ฿141.20Since the company has a 100 percent payout policy, the current dividend per share will be the company’s net income, divided by the shares outstanding, or:Current dividend = ฿32,000/10,000Current dividend = ฿3.20The stock price will fall by the value of the dividend to:Ex-dividend stock price = ฿141.20 – 3.20Ex-dividend stock price = ฿138.00c. i.According to MM, it cannot be true that the low dividend is depressing the price. Sincedividend policy is irrelevant, the level of the dividend should not matter. Any funds notdistributed as dividends add to the value of the firm, hence the stock price. Thesedirectors merely want to change the timing of the dividends (more now, less in the future).As the calculations below indicate, the value of the firm is unchanged by their proposal.Therefore, share price will be unchanged.B-14 SOLUTIONSTo show this, consider what would happen if the dividend was increased to ฿4.25. Sinceonly the existing shareholders will get the dividend, the required baht amount to pay thedividends is:Total dividends = ฿4.25(10,000)Total dividends = ฿42,500To fund this dividend payment, the company must raise:Bahts raised = Required funds – Net incomeBahts raised = ฿42,500 – 32,000Bahts raised = ฿10,500This money can only be raised with the sale of new equity to maintain the all-equityfinancing. Since those new shareholders must also earn 12 percent, their share of the firmone year from now is:New shareholder value in one year = ฿10,500(1.12)New shareholder value in one year = ฿11,760This means that the old shareholders' interest falls to:Old shareholder value in one year = ฿1,545,600 – 11,760Old shareholder value in one year = ฿1,533,840Under this scenario, the current value of the firm is:Value = ฿42,500 + ฿1,533,840/1.12Value = ฿1,412,000Since the firm value is the same as in part a, the change in dividend policy had no effect.ii.The new shareholders are not entitled to receive the current dividend. They will receive only the value of the equity one year hence. The present value of those flows is:Present value = ฿1,533,840/1.12Present value = ฿1,369,500And the current share price will be:Current share price = ฿1,369,500/10,000Current share price = ฿136.95So, the number of new shares the company must sell will be:Shares sold = ฿10,500/฿136.95Shares sold = 76.67 sharesCHAPTER 16 B-15 19. a.The current price is the current cash flow of the company plus the present value of theexpected cash flows, divided by the number of shares outstanding. So, the current stock price is: Stock price = ($1,200,000 + 15,000,000) / 1,000,000Stock price = $16.20b.To achieve a zero dividend payout policy, he can invest the dividends back into the company’sstock. The dividends per share will be:Dividends per share = [($1,200,000)(.50)]/1,000,000Dividends per share = $0.60And the stockholder in question will receive:Dividends paid to shareholder = $0.60(1,000)Dividends paid to shareholder = $600The new stock price after the dividends are paid will be:Ex-dividend stock price = $16.20 – 0.60Ex-dividend stock price = $15.60So, the number of shares the investor will buy is:Number of shares to buy = $600 / $15.60Number of shares to buy = 38.4620. ing the formula from the text proposed by Lintner:Div1 = Div0 + s(t EPS1– Div0)Div1 = €1.25 + .3[(.4)(€4.50) –€1.25]Div1 = €1.415b.Now we use an adjustment rate of 0.60, so the dividend next year will be:Div1 = Div0 + s(t EPS1– Div0)Div1 = €1.25 + .7[(.4)(€4.50) –€1.25]Div1= €1.635c.The lower adjustment factor in part a is more conservative. The lower adjustment factor willalways result in a lower future dividend.B-16 SOLUTIONSChallenge21.Assuming no capital gains tax, the aftertax return for the Gordon Company is the capital gainsgrowth rate, plus the dividend yield times one minus the tax rate. Using the constant growth dividend model, we get:Aftertax return = g + D(1 – t) = .15Solving for g, we get:.15 = g + .06(1 – .35)g = .1110The equivalent pretax return for Gecko Company, which pays no dividend, is:Pretax return = g + D = .1110 + .06 = 17.10%22. Using the equation for the decline in the stock price ex-dividend for each of the tax ratepolicies, we get:(P0– P X)/D = (1 – T P)/(1 – T G)a.P0– P X = D(1 – 0)/(1 – 0)P0– P X = Db.P0– P X = D(1 – .15)/(1 – 0)P0– P X = .85Dc.P0– P X = D(1 – .15)/(1 – .25)P0– P X = 1.1333Dd.With this tax policy, we simply need to multiply the personal tax rate times one minus thedividend exemption percentage, so:P0– P X = D[1 – (.35)(.30)]/(1 – .35)P0– P X = 1.3769De.Since different investors have widely varying tax rates on ordinary income and capital gains,dividend payments have different after-tax implications for different investors. This differential taxation among investors is one aspect of what we have called the clientele effect.CHAPTER 16 B-17 23.Since the ¥2,000,000 cash is after corporate tax, the full amount will be invested. So, the value ofeach alternative is:Alternative 1:The firm invests in T-bills or in preferred stock, and then pays out as special dividend in 3 years If the firm invests in T-Bills:If the firm invests in T-bills, the aftertax yield of the T-bills will be:Aftertax corporate yield = .07(1 – .35)Aftertax corporate yield = .0455 or 4.55%So, the future value of the corporate investment in T-bills will be:FV of investment in T-bills = ¥2,000,000(1 + .0455)3FV of investment in T-bills = ¥2,285,609.89Since the future value will be paid to shareholders as a dividend, the aftertax cash flow will be:Aftertax cash flow to shareholders = ¥2,285,609.89(1 – .15)Aftertax cash flow to shareholders = ¥1,942,768.41If the firm invests in preferred stock:If the firm invests in preferred stock, the assumption would be that the dividends received will be reinvested in the same preferred stock. The preferred stock will pay a dividend of:Preferred dividend = .11(¥2,000,000)Preferred dividend = ¥220,000Since 70 percent of the dividends are excluded from tax:Taxable preferred dividends = (1 – .70)(¥220,000)Taxable preferred dividends = ¥66,000And the taxes the company must pay on the preferred dividends will be:Taxes on preferred dividends = .35(¥66,000)Taxes on preferred dividends = ¥23,100So, the aftertax dividend for the corporation will be:Aftertax corporate dividend = ¥220,000 – 23,100Aftertax corporate dividend = ¥196,900B-18 SOLUTIONSThis means the aftertax corporate dividend yield is:Aftertax corporate dividend yield = ¥196,900 / ¥2,000,000Aftertax corporate dividend yield = .09845 or 9.845%The future value of the company’s investment in preferred stock will be:FV of investment in preferred stock = ¥2,000,000(1 + .09845)3FV of investment in preferred stock = ¥2,650,762.85Since the future value will be paid to shareholders as a dividend, the aftertax cash flow will be: Aftertax cash flow to shareholders = ¥2,650,762.85(1 – .15)Aftertax cash flow to shareholders = ¥2,253,148.42Alternative 2:The firm pays out dividend now, and individuals invest on their own. The aftertax cash received by shareholders now will be:Aftertax cash received today = ¥2,000,000(1 – .15)Aftertax cash received today = ¥1,700,000The individuals invest in Treasury bills:If the shareholders invest the current aftertax dividends in Treasury bills, the aftertax individual yield will be:Aftertax individual yield on T-bills = .07(1 – .31)Aftertax individual yield on T-bills = .0483 or 4.83%So, the future value of the individual investment in Treasury bills will be:FV of investment in T-bills = ¥1,700,000(1 + .0483)3FV of investment in T-bills = ¥1,958,419.29The individuals invest in preferred stock:If the individual invests in preferred stock, the assumption would be that the dividends received will be reinvested in the same preferred stock. The preferred stock will pay a dividend of:Preferred dividend = .11(¥1,700,000)Preferred dividend = ¥187,000。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap015
公司理财习题答案第十五章Chapter 15: Capital Structure: Basic Concepts15.1 a. The value of Nadus’ stock is ($20)(5,000) = $100,000. Since Nadus is an all-equityfirm, $100,000 is also the value of the firm.b. The value of any firm is the sum of the market value of its bonds and the marketvalue of its stocks, i.e. V=B+S, For Logis, the value of the stock is not yet known,nor is the value of the firm. The market value of Logis’ bonds is $25,000. Thus,the value of Logis’ stock isS=V - $25,000.c. Costs:Nadus: 0.20 ($100,000) = $20,000Logis: 0.20 (V - $25,000)Returns: You are entitled to 20% of the net income of each firm.Nadus: 0.20 ($350,000) = $70,000Logis: 0.20 [$350,000-0.12($25,000)] = $69,400d. From the standpoint of the stockholders, Logis is riskier. If you hold Logis stock,you can receive returns only after the bondholders have been paid.e. In this problem, positive signs denote negative signs denote all cash inflows and alloutflows. You should expect the immediate flows to be on net negative (anoutflow). The future flows should be on net positive (an inflow).Immediate flows:Borrow from the bank an amount equal to 20% of Logis’ debt$5,000Buy 20% of Nadus’ stock -20,000Total Immediate Flows -$15,000Future flows:Pay the interest on the loan 0.12 ($5,000) -$600Receive 20% of Nadus’ net income 70,000Total Future Flows $69,400f. Since the returns from the purchase of the Logis stock are the same as the returns inthe strategy you constructed in part e, the two investments must cost the same.Cost of the strategy = Cost of Logis stock$15,000 = 0.20 (V-$25,000)Therefore, V=$100,000Note: This is an application of MM-Proposition I, In this MM world with no taxesand no financial distress costs, the value of an levered firm will equal the value ofan un-levered firm. Thus, capital structure does not matter.g. If the value of the Logis firm is $135,000 then the value of Logis stock is $110,000(= $135,000 - $25,000). If that is true, purchasing 20% of Logis’ stock would costyou $22,000 ( = 0.20 x $110,000). You will receive the same return as before($69,400). You can receive the same return for only $15,000 by following thestrategy in part e. Thus, if Logis is worth $135,000, you should borrow on yourown account an amount equal to 20% of Logis’ debt and purchase 20% of Nadus’stock.15.2 a. B=$10 million S=$20 millionTherefore, B/S=$10 / $20 = 1/2b. The required return is the firm’s after-tax overall cost of capital. In this no tax world,that is simplyrBVrSVr 0B S =+Use CAPM to find the required return on equity. Sr = 8% + (0.9)(10%) = 17%The cost of debt is 14%.Therefore,r$10 m illion$30 m illion0.14$20 m illion$30 m illion0.1716% 0=+=15.3 You expect to earn a 20% return on your investment of $25,000. Thus, you are earning$5,000 (=$25,000 x 0.20) per year. Since you borrowed $75,000, you will be makinginterest payments of $7,500 (=$75,000 x 0.10) per annum. Your share of the stock must earn $12,500 (= $5,000 + $7,500). The return without leverage is 0.125 (=$12,500 /$100,000).15.4 The firms are identical except for their capital structures. Thus, under MM-Proposition Itheir market values must be the same regardless of their capital structures. If they are not equal, the lower valued stock is a better purchase.Market values:Levered: V=$275 million + $100 x 4.5 million = $725 millionUnlevered: V= $80 x 10 million = $800 millionSince Levered’s market value is less than Unlevered’s market value, you should buyLevered’s stock. To understand why, construct the strategies that were presented in thetext. Suppose you want to own 5% of the equity of each firm.Strategy One: Buy 5% of Unlevered’s equityStrategy Two: Buy 5% of Levered’s equityStrategy Three: Create the dollar returns of Levered through borrowing an amount equal to 5% of Levered’s debt and purchasing 5% of Unlevered’s stock. If youfollow this strategy you will own what amounts to 5% of the equity ofLevered. The reason why is that the dollar returns will be identical topurchasing 5% of Levered outright.Dollar Investment Dollar Return Strategy One: -(0.05)($800) (0.05)($96)Strategy Two: -(0.05)($450) (0.05)[$96 - (0.08)($275)]Strategy Three:Borrow (0.05)($275) -[(0.05) ($275)] (0.08)Buy Unlevered -(0.05)($800) (0.05)($96)Net $ Flows -(0.05)($525) (0.05)[$96 - (0.08)($275)] Note: Dollar amounts are in millions.Note: Negative signs denote outflows and positive denotes inflows.Since the payoffs to strategies Two and Three are identical, their costs should be the same.Yet, strategy three is more expensive than strategy two ($26.25 million versus $22.5公司理财习题答案第十五章million). Thus, Levered’s stock is underpriced relative to Unlevered’s stock. You should purchase Levered’s s tock.15.5 a. In this MM world, the market value of Veblen must be the same as the market valueof Knight. If they are not equal, an investor can improve his net returns throughborrowing and buying Veblen stock. To understand the improvement, construct thestrategies discussed in the text. The investor already owns 0.0058343 (=$10,000 /$1,714,000) of the equity of Knight. Suppose he is willing to purchase the sameamount of Veblen’s equity.Strategy One (SI): Buy 0.58343% of Veblen’s equit y.Strategy Two (SII): Continue to hold the 0.58343% of Knight’s equity.Strategy Three (SIII): Create the dollar returns of Knight through borrowing anamount equal to 0.58343% of Knight’s debt and purchasing0.58343% of Veblen’s stock. If you follow this strategy youwill own what amounts to 0.58343% of the equity of Knight.The reason why is that the dollar returns will be identical topurchasing 0.58343% of Knight outright.Dollar Investment Dollar Return SI: -(0.0058343)($2.4) (0.0058343)($0.3)SII: -(0.0058343)($1.714) (0.0058343)($0.24)SIII:Borrow (0.0058343)($1) -[(0.0058343) ($1)] (0.06)Buy Veblen -(0.0058343)($2.4) (0.0058343)($0.3)Net $ Flows -(0.0058343)($1.4) (0.0058343)($0.24) Note: Dollar amounts are in millions.Note: Negative signs denote outflows and positive denotes inflows.Since strategies Two and Three have the same payoffs, they should cost the same.Strategy three is cheaper, thus, Knight stock is overpriced relative to Veblen stock.An investor can benefit by selling the Knight stock, borrowing an amount equal to0.0058343 of Knights debt and buying the same portion of Veblen stock. Theinvestor’s dollar returns will be identical to holding the Knight stock, but the costwill be less.b. Modigliani and Miller argue that everyone would attempt to construct the strategy.Investors would attempt to follow the strategy and the act of them doing so willlower the market value of Knight and raise the market value of Veblen until theyare equal.15.6 Each lady has purchased shares of the all-equity NLAW and borrowed or lent to create thenet dollar returns she desires. Once NLAW becomes levered, the return that the ladiesreceive for owning stock will be decreased by the interest payments. Thus, to continue to receive the same net dollar returns, each lady must rebalance her portfolio. The easiestapproach to this problem is to consider each lady individually. Determine the dollarreturns that the investor would receive from an all-equity NLAW. Determine what she will receive from the firm if it is levered. Then adjust her borrowing or lending position tocreate the returns she received from the all-equity firm.Before looking at the women’s positions, look at the firm value.All-equity: V=100,000 x $50 = $5,000,000Levered: V=$1,000,000 + 80,000 x $50 = $5,000,000Remember, the firm repurchased 20,000 shares.The income of the firm is unknown. Since we need it to compute the investor’s returns, we will denote it as Y. Assume that the income of the firm does not change due to the capital restructuring and that it is constant for the foreseeable future.Ms. A before rebalancing: Ms. A owns $10,000 worth of NLAW stock. That ownership represents ownership of 0.002 (=$10,000/$5,000,000) of the all-equity firm. That ownership entitles her to receive 0.002 of the firm’s income; i.e. her dollar return is 0.002Y. Also, Ms. A has borrowed $2,000. That loan will require her to make an interest payment of $400 ($2,000 x 0.20). Thus, the dollar investment and dollar return positions of Ms. A are:Dollar Investment Dollar Return NLAW Stock -$10,000 0.002YBorrowing 2,000 -$400Net -$8,000 0.002Y-$400Note: Negative signs denote outflows and positive denotes inflows.Ms. A after rebalancing: After rebalancing, Ms. A will want to receive net dollar returnsof 0.002Y-$400. The only way to receive the 0.002Y is to own 0.002 of NLAW’s stock. Examine the returns she will receive from the levered NLAW if she owns 0.002 of thef irm’s equity. She will receive (0.002) [Y - ($1,000,000)(0.20)] = 0.002Y - $400. This is exactly the dollar return she desires! Therefore, Ms. A should own 0.002 of the levered firm’s equity and neither lends nor borrow. Owning 0.002 of the firm’s equi ty means she has $8,000 (= 0.0002 x $4,000,000) invested in NLAW stock.Dollar Investment Dollar Return NLAW stock -$8,000 0.002Y - $400Ms. B before rebalancing: Ms. B owns $50,000 worth of NLAW stock. That ownership represents ownership of 0.01 (=$50,000/$5,000,000) of the all-equity firm. That ownership entitles her to receive 0.01 of the firm’s income; i.e. her dollar return is 0.01Y. Also, Ms. B has lent $6,000. That loan will generate interest income for her of the amount $1,200 (=$6,000 x 0.20). Thus, the dollar investment and dollar return positions of Ms. B are:Dollar Investment Dollar Return NLAW Stock -$50,000 0.01YLending -6,000 $1,200Net -$56,000 0.01Y + $1,200Ms. B after rebalancing: After rebalancing, Ms. B will want to receive net dollar returns of 0.01Y + $1,200. The only way to receive the 0.01Y is to own 0.01 of NLAW’s stock. Examine the returns she will receive from the levered NLAW if she owns 0.01 of the firm’s equity. She will receive (0.01) [Y - ($1,000,000) (0.20)] = 0.01Y - $2,000. This is not the return which Ms. B desires, so she must lend enough money to generate interest income of $3,200 (=$2,000 + $1,200). Since the interest rate is 20% she must lend公司理财习题答案第十五章$16,000 (= $3,200 / 0.20). The 0.01 equity interest of Ms. B means she will have $40,000 (=0.01 x $4,000,000) invested in NLAW.Dollar Investment Dollar ReturnNLAW Stock -$40,000 0.01Y - $2,000Lending -16,000 $3,200Net -$56,000 0.01Y + $1,200Ms. C before rebalancing: Ms. C owns $20,000 worth of NLAW stock. That ownershiprepresents ownership of 0.004 (=$20,000 / $5,000,000) of the all-equity firm. Thatownership entitles her to receive 0.004 of the firm’s income; i.e. her dollar return is 0.004Y.The dollar investment and dollar return positions of Ms. A are:Dollar Investment Dollar ReturnNLAW Stock -$20,000 0.004YMs. C after rebalancing: After rebalancing, Ms. C will want to receive net dollar returns of0.004Y. The only way to receive the 0.004Y is to ow n 0.004 of NLAW’s stock. Examinethe returns she will receive from the levered NLAW if she owns 0.004 of the firm’s equity.She will receive (0.004) [Y - ($1,000,000) (0.20)] = 0.004Y - $800. This is not the dollar return she desires. Therefore, Ms. C must lend enough money to offset the $800 she loses once the firm becomes levered. Since the interest rate is 20% she must lend $4,000 (=$800 / 0.20). The 0.004 equity interest of Ms. C means she will have $16,000 (0.004 x$4,000,000) invested in NLAW.Dollar Investment Dollar ReturnNLAW Stock -$16,000 0.004Y - $800Lending -4,000 $800Net -$20,000 0.004Y15.7 a. Since Rayburn is currently an all-equity firm, the value of the firm’s assets equalsthe value of its equity. Under MM-Proposition One, the value of a firm will notchange due to a capital structure change, and the overall cost of capital will remainunchanged. Therefore, Rayburn’s overall cost of capital is 18%.b. MM-Proposition Two states r r(B/S)(r r)=+-.S00BApplying this formula you can find the cost of equity.r = 18% + ($400,000 / $1,600,000) (18% - 10%) = 20%Sc. In accordance with Proposition Two, the expected return on Rayburn’s equity willrise with the amount of leverage. This rise occurs because of the risk which the debt adds.15.8 a.b.i. According to efficient markets, Strom’s stock price will rise immediately toreflect the NPV of the project.ii. The NPV of the facilities that Strom is buying isNPV= -$300,000 + ($120,000 / 0.15) = $500,000The sum of the old assets and the NPV of the new facilities is the new value ofthe firm ($5.5 million). Since new shares have not yet been sold, the price of theoutstanding shares must rise. The new price is $5,500,000 / 250,000 = $22.iii. Strom needed to raise $300,000 through the sale of stock that sells for $22.Thus, Strom sold 13,636.364 (=$300,000 / $22) shares.iv.v.vi. The returns available to the shareholders are the sum of the returns from each portion of the firm.Total earnings = $750,000 + $120,000 = $870,000Return = ($870,000 / $5,800,000) = 15%Note: The returns to the shareholder had to be the same since r0 was unchangedand the firm added no debt.c.i.Under efficient markets the price of the shares must rise to reflect the NPV of thenew facilities. The value will be the same as with all-equity financing because1. Strom purchased the same competitor and2. In this MM world debt is no better or no worse than equity.公司理财习题答案第十五章ii.iii. The cost of equity will be the earnings after interest and taxes divided by the market value of common. Since Strom pays no taxes, the cost of equity is simplythe earnings after interest (EAI) divided by the market value of common.EAI = $750,000 + $120,000 - $300,000 (0.10) = $840,000Cost of equity = $840,000 / $5,500,000 = 15.27%iv. The debt causes the equity of the firm to be riskier. Remember, stockholders are residual owners of the firm.v. MM-Proposition Two states,r r(B/S)(r r)15%($300,000/$5,500,000)(15%10%)15.27% =+-=+-=S00Bd. Examine the final balance sheet for the firm and you will see that the price is $22under each plan.15.9 a. The market value of the firm will be the present value of Gulf’s earning s after thenew plant is built. Since the firm is an all-equity firm, the overall required return isthe required return on equity.Annual earnings = Original plant + New Plant= $27 million + $3 million = $30 millionValue = $30 million / 0.1 = $300 millionb. Gulf Power is in an MM world (no taxes, no costs of financial distress). Therefore,the value of the firm is unchanged by a change in the capital structure.c. The overall required rate of return is also unchanged by the capital structurechange. Thus, according to MM-Proposition Two, r r(B/S)(r r)=+-. TheS00B firm is valued at $300 million of which $20 million is debt. The remaining $280million is the value of the stock.r S = 10% + ($20 million / $280 million) (10% - 8%) = 10.14%15.10 a. False. Leverage increases both the risks of the stock and its expected return. MMpoint out that these two effects exactly cancel out each other and leave the price ofthe stock and the value of the firm invariant to leverage. Since leverage is beingreduced in this firm, the risk of the shares is lower; however, the price of the stockremains the same in accordance with MM.b. False. If moderate borrowing does not affect the probability of financial distress,then the required return on equity is proportional to the debt-equity ratio [i.e.=+-]. Increasing the amount of debt will increase the return on r r(B/S)(r r)S00Bequity.15.11 a.i. Individuals can borrow at the same interest rate at which firms borrow.ii. There are no taxes.iii. There are no costs of financial distress.b.i. If firms are able to borrow at a rate that is lower than that at which individualsborrow, then it is possible to increase the firm’s value through borrowing. Asthe text discussed, since investors can purchase securities on margin, theindividuals’ effective rate is probably no higher than that of the firms.ii. In the presence of corporate taxes, the value of the firm is positively related to the level of debt. Since interest payments are deductible, increasing debtminimizes tax expenditure and thus maximizes the value of the firm for thestockholders. As will be shown in the next chapter, personal taxes offset thepositive effect of debt.iii. Because these costs are substantial and stockholders eventually bear them, they are incentives to lower the amount of debt. This implies that the capital structuremay matter. This topic will also be discussed more fully in the next chapter. 15.12 a and b.Total investment in the firm’s assets = $10 x 1million x 1% = $0.1 million3 choices of financing 20% debt 40% debt 60% debtTotal asset investment 0.1 0.1 0.1x ROA (15%) 0.015 0.015 0.015- Interest 0.2 x 0.1 x0.1 0.4 x 0.1 x 0.1 0.6 x 0.1 x 0.1Profit after interest 0.013 0.011 0.009/ Investment in equity 0.1 x 0.8 0.1 x 0.6 0.1 x 0.4ROE 16.25% 18.33% 22.5%Susan can expect to earn $0.013 million, $0.011 million, and $0.009 million,respectively, from the correspondent three scenarios of financing choices, i.e.borrowing 20%, 40%, or 60% of the total investment. The respective returns onequity are 16.25%, 18.33% and 22.5%.c. From part a and b, we can see that in an MM with no tax world, higher leveragebrings about higher return on equity. The high ROE is due to the increased risk ofequity while the WACC remains unchanged. See below.WACC for 20% debt = 16.25% x 0.8 + 10% x 0.2 = 15%WACC for 40% debt = 18.33% x 0.6 + 10% x 0.4 = 15%WACC for 60% debt = 22.5% x 0.4 + 10% x 0.6 = 15%This example is a case of homemade leverage, so the results are parallel to that of aleveraged firm.15.13 Suppose individuals can borrow at the same rate as the corporation, there is no needfor the firm to change its capital structure because of the different forecasts ofearnings growth rates, as investors can always duplicate the leverage by creatinghomemade leverage. Different expectation of earnings growth rates can affect theexpected return on assets. But this change is the result of the change in expectedoperating performance of the corporation and/or other macroeconomic factors. Theleverage ratio is irrelevant here since we are in an MM without tax world.公司理财习题答案第十五章15.14 a. current debt = 0.75 / 10% = $7.5 millioncurrent equity = 7.5 / 40% = $18.75 millionTotal firm value = 7.5 + 18.75 = $26.25 millionb. r s = earnings after interest/total equity value = $(3.75 - .75)/$18.75 = 16%r B =10%r 0 = (.4/1.4)(10%) + (1/1.4)(16%) = 14.29%r S after repurchase = 14.29% + (50%)(14.29% - 10%) = 16.44%So, the return on equity would increase from 16% to 16.44% with the completion of the planned stock repurchase.c. The stock price wouldn’t change because in an MM world, there’s no added value toa change in firm leverage. In other words, it’s a zero NPV transaction.15.15 a. Since V V T B L U C =+,V =V T B U L C -. L V = $1,700,000, B = $500,000 and C T =0.34. Therefore, the value of the unlevered firm isU V = $1,700,000 - (0.34)($500,000) = $1,530,000b. Equity holders earn 20% after-tax in an all-equity firm. That amount is $306,000(=$1,530,000 x 0.20). The yearly, after-tax interest expense in the levered firm is$33,000 [=$500,000 x 0.10 (1-0.34)]. Thus, the after-tax earnings of the equityholders in a levered firm are $273,000 (=$306,000 - $33,000). This amount is thefirm’s net income.15.16 The initial market value of the equity is given as $3,500,000. On a per share basis this is$20 (=$3,500,000 / 175,000). The firm buys back $1,000,000 worth of shares, or 50,000 (= $1,000,000 / $20) shares.In this MM world with taxes,V V T B L U C =+= $3,500,000 + (0.3) ($1,000,000) = $3,800,000Since V = B + S, the market value of the equity is $2,800,000 (= $3,800,000 - $1,000,000).15.17 a. Since Streiber is an all-equity firm,V = EBIT (1 - C T ) / 0r = $2,500,000 (1 - 0.34) / 0.20 = $8,250,000b. V V T B L U C =+= $8,250,000 + (0.34)($600,000) = $8,454,000c. The presence of debt creates a tax shield for the firm. That tax shield has value andaccounts for the increase in the value of the firm.d. You are making the MM assumptions:i. No personal taxesii. No costs of financial distressiii. Debt level of the firm is constant through time15.18 a. In this MM world with no financial distress costs, the value of the levered firm isgiven by V V T B L U C =+. The value of the unlevered firm is V = EBIT (1 - C T ) / r 0.The market value of the debt of Olbet is B = $200,000 / 0.08 = $2,500,000.Therefore, V = $1,200,000 (1 - 0.35) / 0.12 + ($2,500,000) (0.35) = $7,375,000b. Since debt adds to the value of the firm, it implies that the firm should be financedentirely with debt if it wishes to maximize its value.c. This conclusion is incorrect because it does not consider the costs of financialdistress or other agency costs that might offset the positive contribution of the debt. These costs will be discussed in further detail in the next chapter.15.19 a. Since Green is currently an all-equity firm, the value of the firm is the value of itsoutstanding equity, $10 million. The value of the firm must also equal the PV ofthe after-tax earnings, discounted at the overall required return. The after-taxearnings are simply ($1,500,000) (1 - 0.4) = $900,000. Thus, $10,000,000 =$900,000 / 0r0r = 0.09b. With 500,000 shares outstanding, the current price of a share is $20 (=$10,000,000 / 500,000). Green’s market value balance sheet isTherefore, at the announcement, the value of the firm will rise by the PV of the tax shield (PVTS). The PVTS is ($2,000,000) (0.4) = $800,000. Since the value of the firm has risen $800,000 and the debt has not yet been issued, the price of Green stock must rise to reflect the increase in firm value. Since the firm is worth $10,800,000 (=$10,000,000 + 800,000) and there are 500,000 shares outstanding,the price of a share rises to $21.60 (= $10,800,000 / 500,000). price of the stock rises to $21.60. Thus, Green will retire $2,000,000 / $21.60 = $92,592.59 shares. e. After the restructuring, the value of the firm will still be $10,800,000. Debt will be $2,000,000 and the 407,407.41 (=500,000 - 92,592.59) outstanding shares of stockwill sell for $21.60. )T -)(1r (B /S)(r r r C B 00S -+= = 0.09 + ($2,000,000 / $8,800,000) (0.09 - 0.06) (1 - 0.4) = 9.41%15.20 a.million $20.83$100.3515.0)65.0(4$B T r )T EBIT(1B T V V C 0C C U L =⨯+=+-=+= b.公司理财习题答案第十五章Answers to End-of-Chapter Problems B-15112.48%V )T EBIT(1r V S )T (1r V Br L C S L C B L WACC =-=+-= c. r r (B /S)(r r )(1-T S 00B C =+-)= 0.15 + [10 / (20.83 - 10)] (0.65) (0.15 - 0.10) = 18.01%15.21 a. r S = 0r + (B / S)( 0r – B r )(1 – C T )= 15% + (2.5)(15% – 11%)(1– 35%)= 21.50%b. If there is no debt, WACC r = r S = 15%c. S r = 15% + 0.75 (15% – 11%)(1 – 35%)= 16.95%B/S = 0.75, B = 0.75SB/(B+S) = 0.75S/(0.75S +S)= 0.75 /1.75S/(B+S) = 1– (0.75 /1.75) = (1/1.75)r WACC = (0.75/1.75)(0.11)(1– 0.35) + (1/1.75)(16.95%)= 12.75%S r = 15% + 1.5 (15% – 11%)(1 – 35%)= 18.90%B/S = 1.5, B = 1.5SB/(B+S) = 1.5S/(1.5S +S)= 1.5/2.5S /(B+S) = 1 – (1.5/2.5)WACC r = (1.5/2.5)(0.11)(1 – 0.35) + (1/2.5)(0.1890)= 11.85%15.22 Since this is an all-equity firm, the WACC = S r .$240,00025.0)4.01(000,100$r )T EBIT(1V S C U =-=-=If the firm borrows to repurchase its own shares, then the value of GT will be: L V = U V + C T B()$440,000000,500$4.025.0)6.0(000,100$=⨯+=。
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案Chap002
CHAPTER 2ACCOUNTING STATEMENTS, TAXES AND CASH FLOWAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.Liquidity measures how quickly and easily an asset can be converted to cash without significant lossin value. It’s desirable for firms to have high liquidity so that they have a large factor of safety in meeting short-term creditor demands. However, since liquidity also has an opportunity cost associated with it - namely that higher returns can generally be found by investing the cash into productive assets - low liquidity levels are also desirable to the firm. It’s up to the firm’s financial management staff to find a reasonable compromise between these opposing needs2.The recognition and matching principles in financial accounting call for revenues, and the costsassociated with producing those revenues, to be “booked” when the revenue process is essentially complete, not necessarily when the cash is collected or bills are paid. Note that this way is not necessarily correct; it’s the way accountants have chosen to do it.3.The bottom line number shows the change in the cash balance on the balance sheet. As such, it is nota useful number for analyzing a company.4. The major difference is the treatment of interest expense. The accounting statement of cash flowstreats interest as an operating cash flow, while the financial cash flows treat interest as a financing cash flow. The logic of the accounting statement of cash flows is that since interest appears on the income statement, which shows the operations for the period, it is an operating cash flow. In reality, interest is a financing expense, which results from the company’s choice of debt/equity. We will have more to say about this in a later chapter. When comparing the two cash flow statements, the financial statement of cash flows is a more appropriate measure of the company’s performance because of its treatment of interest.5.Market values can never be negative. Imagine a share of stock selling for –$20. This would meanthat if you placed an order for 100 shares, you would get the stock along with a check for $2,000.How many shares do you want to buy? More generally, because of corporate and individual bankruptcy laws, net worth for a person or a corporation cannot be negative, implying that liabilities cannot exceed assets in market value.6.For a successful company that is rapidly expanding, for example, capital outlays will be large,possibly leading to negative cash flow from assets. In general, what matters is whether the money is spent wisely, not whether cash flow from assets is positive or negative.7.It’s probably not a good sign for an established company, but it would be fairly ordinary for a start-up, so it depends.8.For example, if a company were to become more efficient in inventory management, the amount ofinventory needed would decline. The same might be true if it becomes better at collecting its receivables. In general, anything that leads to a decline in ending NWC relative to beginning would have this effect. Negative net capital spending would mean more long-lived assets were liquidated than purchased.9.If a company raises more money from selling stock than it pays in dividends in a particular period,its cash flow to stockholders will be negative. If a company borrows more than it pays in interest and principal, its cash flow to creditors will be negative.10.The adjustments discussed were purely accounting changes; they had no cash flow or market valueconsequences unless the new accounting information caused stockholders to revalue the derivatives. Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1.To find owner’s equity, we must construct a balance sheet as follows:Balance SheetCA $5,000 CL $4,500NFA 23,000 LTD 13,000OE ??TA $28,000 TL & OE $28,000We know that total liabilities and owner’s equity (TL & OE) must equal total assets of $28,000. We also know that TL & OE is equal to current liabilities plus long-term debt plus owner’s equity, so owner’s equity is:O E = $28,000 –13,000 – 4,500 = $10,500N WC = CA – CL = $5,000 – 4,500 = $5002. The income statement for the company is:Income StatementSales S/.527,000Costs 280,000Depreciation 38,000EBIT S/.209,000Interest 15,000EBT S/.194,000Taxes (35%) 67,900Net income S/.126,100One equation for net income is:Net income = Dividends + Addition to retained earningsRearranging, we get:Addition to retained earnings = Net income – DividendsAddition to retained earnings = S/.126,100 – 48,000Addition to retained earnings = S/.78,1003.To find the book value of current assets, we use: NWC = CA – CL. Rearranging to solve for currentassets, we get:CA = NWC + CL = $900K + 2.2M = $3.1MThe market value of current assets and fixed assets is given, so:Book value CA = $3.1M Market value CA = $2.8MBook value NFA = $4.0M Market value NFA = $3.2MBook value assets = $3.1M + 4.0M = $7.1M Market value assets = $2.8M + 3.2M = $6.0M 4.Taxes = 0.15(€50K) + 0.25(€25K) + 0.34(€25K) + 0.39(€273K – 100K)Taxes = €89,720The average tax rate is the total tax paid divided by net income, so:Average tax rate = €89,720 / €273,000Average tax rate = 32.86%.The marginal tax rate is the tax rate on the next €1 of earnings, so the marginal tax rate = 39%.5.To calculate OCF, we first need the income statement:Income StatementSales 元13,500Costs 5,400Depreciation 1,200EBIT 元6,900Interest 680Taxable income 元6,220Taxes (35%) 2,177Net income 元4,043OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = 元6,900 + 1,200 – 2,177OCF = 元5,923 capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + DepreciationNet capital spending = £4,700,000 – 4,200,000 + 925,000 Net capital spending = £1,425,0007.The long-term debt account will increase by $8 million, the amount of the new long-term debt issue.Since the company sold 10 million new shares of stock with a $1 par value, the common stock account will increase by $10 million. The capital surplus account will increase by $16 million, the value of the new stock sold above its par value. Since the company had a net income of $7 million, and paid $4 million in dividends, the addition to retained earnings was $3 million, which will increase the accumulated retained earnings account. So, the new long-term debt and stockholders’ equity portion of the balance sheet will be:Long-term debt $ 68,000,000Total long-term debt $ 68,000,000Shareholders equityPreferred stock $ 18,000,000Common stock ($1 par value) 35,000,000Accumulated retained earnings 92,000,000Capital surplus 65,000,000Total equity $ 210,000,000Total Liabilities & Equity $ 278,000,0008.Cash flow to creditors = Interest paid – Net new borrowingCash flow to creditors = €340,000 – (LTD end– LTD beg)Cash flow to creditors = €340,000 – (€3,100,000 – 2,800,000)Cash flow to creditors = €340,000 – 300,000Cash flow to creditors = €40,0009. Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends paid – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = €600,000 – [(Common end + APIS end) – (Common beg + APIS beg)]Cash flow to stockholders = €600,000 – [(€855,000 + 7,600,000) – (€820,000 + 6,800,000)]Cash flow to stockholders = €600,000 – (€7,620,000 – 8,455,000)Cash flow to stockholders = –€235,000Note, APIS is the additional paid-in surplus.10. Cash flow from assets = Cash flow to creditors + Cash flow to stockholders= €40,000 – 235,000= –€195,000Cash flow from assets = –€195,000 = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending= OCF – (–€165,000) – 760,000= –€195,000Operating cash flow = –€195,000 – 165,000 + 760,000= €400,000Intermediate11. a.The accounting statement of cash flows explains the change in cash during the year. Theaccounting statement of cash flows will be:Statement of cash flowsOperationsNet income ZW$125Depreciation 75Changes in other current assets (25)Total cash flow from operations ZW$175Investing activitiesAcquisition of fixed assets ZW$(175)Total cash flow from investing activities ZW$(175)Financing activitiesProceeds of long-term debt ZW$90Current liabilities 10Dividends (65)Total cash flow from financing activities ZW$35Change in cash (on balance sheet) ZW$35b.Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg= (CA end– CL end) – (CA beg– CL beg)= [(ZW$45 + 145) – 70] – [(ZW$10 + 120) – 60)= ZW$120 – 70= ZW$50c.To find the cash flow generated by the firm’s assets, we need the operating cash flow, and thecapital spending. So, calculating each of these, we find:Operating cash flowNet income ZW$125Depreciation 75Operating cash flow ZW$200Note that we can calculate OCF in this manner since there are no taxes.Capital spendingEnding fixed assets ZW$250Beginning fixed assets (150)Depreciation 75Capital spending ZW$175Now we can calculate the cash flow generated by the firm’s assets, which is:Cash flow from assetsOperating cash flow ZW$200Capital spending (175)Change in NWC (50)Cash flow from assets ZW$(25)Notice that the accounting statement of cash flows shows a positive cash flow, but the financial cash flows show a negative cash flow. The cash flow generated by the firm’s assets is a better number for analyzing the firm’s performance.12.With the information provided, the cash flows from the firm are the capital spending and the changein net working capital, so:Cash flows from the firmCapital spending $(3,000)Additions to NWC (1,000)Cash flows from the firm $(4,000)And the cash flows to the investors of the firm are:Cash flows to investors of the firmSale of short-term debt $(7,000)Sale of long-term debt (18,000)Sale of common stock (2,000)Dividends paid 23,000Cash flows to investors of the firm $(4,000)13. a. The interest expense for the company is the amount of debt times the interest rate on the debt.So, the income statement for the company is:Income StatementSales £1,000,000Cost of goods sold 300,000Selling costs 200,000Depreciation 100,000EBIT £400,000Interest 100,000Taxable income £300,000Taxes (35%) 105,000Net income £195,000b. And the operating cash flow is:OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = £400,000 + 100,000 – 105,000OCF = £395,00014.To find the OCF, we first calculate net income.Income StatementSales Au$145,000Costs 86,000Depreciation 7,000Other expenses 4,900EBIT Au$47,100Interest 15,000Taxable income Au$32,100Taxes 12,840Net income Au$19,260Dividends Au$8,700Additions to RE Au$10,560a.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = Au$47,100 + 7,000 – 12,840OCF = Au$41,260b.CFC = Interest – Net new LTDCFC = Au$15,000 – (–Au$6,500)CFC = Au$21,500Note that the net new long-term debt is negative because the company repaid part of its long-term debt.c.CFS = Dividends – Net new equityCFS = Au$8,700 – 6,450CFS = Au$2,250d.We know that CFA = CFC + CFS, so:CFA = Au$21,500 + 2,250 = Au$23,750CFA is also equal to OCF – Net capital spending – Change in NWC. We already know OCF.Net capital spending is equal to:Net capital spending = Increase in NFA + DepreciationNet capital spending = Au$5,000 + 7,000Net capital spending = Au$12,000Now we can use:CFA = OCF – Net capital spending – Change in NWCAu$23,750 = Au$41,260 – 12,000 – Change in NWC.Solving for the change in NWC gives Au$5,510, meaning the company increased its NWC by Au$5,510.15.The solution to this question works the income statement backwards. Starting at the bottom:Net income = Dividends + Addition to ret. earningsNet income = $900 + 4,500Net income = $5,400Now, looking at the income statement:EBT –EBT × Tax rate = Net incomeRecognize that EBT × tax rate is simply the calculation for taxes. Solving this for EBT yields: EBT = NI / (1– tax rate)EBT = $5,400 / 0.65EBT = $8,308Now we can calculate:EBIT = EBT + interestEBIT = $8,308 + 1,600EBIT = $9,908The last step is to use:EBIT = Sales – Costs – DepreciationEBIT = $29,000 – 13,000 – DepreciationEBIT = $9,908Solving for depreciation, we find that depreciation = $6,092.16.The balance sheet for the company looks like this:Balance SheetCash ¥175,000 Accounts payable ¥430,000 Accounts receivable 140,000 Notes payable 180,000 Inventory 265,000 Current liabilities ¥610,000 Current assets ¥580,000 Long-term debt 1,430,000Total liabilities ¥2,040,000 Tangible net fixed assets 2,900,000Intangible net fixed assets 720,000 Common stock ??Accumulated ret. earnings 1,240,000 Total assets ¥4,200,000 Total liab. & owners’ equity¥4,200,000Total liabilities and owners’ equity is:TL & OE = CL + LTD + Common stockSolving for this equation for equity gives us:Common stock = ¥4,200,000 – 1,240,000 – 2,040,000Common stock = ¥920,00017.The market value of shareholders’ equity cannot be zero. A negative market va lue in this case wouldimply that the company would pay you to own the stock. The market value of shareholders’ equity can be stated as: Shareholders’ equity = Max [(TA – TL), 0]. So, if TA is 元4,000,000 equity is equal to 元1,000,000 and if TA is 元2,500,000 equity is equal to 元0. We should note here that the book value of shareholders’ equity can be negative.18. a. Taxes Growth = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($10K) = $17,150Taxes Income = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($25K) + 0.39($235K) + 0.34($8.165M)= $2,890,000b. Each firm has a marginal tax rate of 34% on the next $10,000 of taxable income, despite theirdifferent average tax rates, so both firms will pay an additional $3,400 in taxes.19.Income StatementSales ₦850,000COGS 630,000A&S expenses 120,000Depreciation 130,000EBIT (₦30,000)Interest 85,000Taxable income (₦115,000)Taxes (30%) 0 income (₦115,000)b.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = (₦30,000) + 130,000 – 0OCF = ₦100,000 income was negative because of the tax deductibility of depreciation and interest expense.However, the actual cash flow from operations was positive because depreciation is a non-cash expense and interest is a financing expense, not an operating expense.20. A firm can still pay out dividends if net income is negative; it just has to be sure there is sufficientcash flow to make the dividend payments.Change in NWC = Net capital spending = Net new equity = 0. (Given)Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spendingCash flow from assets = ₦100,000 – 0 – 0 = ₦100,000Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = ₦30,000 – 0 = ₦30,000Cash flow to creditors = Cash flow from assets – Cash flow to stockholdersCash flow to creditors = ₦100,000 – 30,000Cash flow to creditors = ₦70,000Cash flow to creditors is also:Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDSo:Net new LTD = Interest – Cash flow to creditorsNet new LTD = ₦85,000 – 70,000Net new LTD = ₦15,00021. a.The income statement is:Income StatementSales $12,800Cost of good sold 10,400Depreciation 1,900EBIT $ 500Interest 450Taxable income $ 50Taxes (34%) 17Net income $33b.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = $500 + 1,900 – 17OCF = $2,383c.Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg= (CA end– CL end) – (CA beg– CL beg)= ($3,850 – 2,100) – ($3,200 – 1,800)= $1,750 – 1,400 = $350Net capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + Depreciation= $9,700 – 9,100 + 1,900= $2,500CFA = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending= $2,383 – 350 – 2,500= –$467The cash flow from assets can be positive or negative, since it represents whether the firm raised funds or distributed funds on a net basis. In this problem, even though net income and OCF are positive, the firm invested heavily in both fixed assets and net working capital; it had to raise a net $467 in funds from its stockholders and creditors to make these investments.d.Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTD= $450 – 0= $450Cash flow to stockholders = Cash flow from assets – Cash flow to creditors= –$467 – 450= –$917We can also calculate the cash flow to stockholders as:Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equitySolving for net new equity, we get:Net new equity = $500 – (–917)= $1,417The firm had positive earnings in an accounting sense (NI > 0) and had positive cash flow from operations. The firm invested $350 in new net working capital and $2,500 in new fixed assets. The firm had to raise $467 from its stakeholders to support this new investment. It accomplished this by raising $1,417 in the form of new equity. After paying out $500 of this in the form of dividends to shareholders and $450 in the form of interest to creditors, $467 was left to meet the firm’s cash flow needs for investment.22. a.Total assets 2005 = ¥650,000 + 2,900,000 = ¥3,550,000Total liabilities 2005 = ¥265,000 + 1,500,000 = ¥1,765,000Owners’ equity 2005 = ¥3,550,000 – 1,765,000 = ¥1,785,000Total assets 2006 = ¥705,000 + 3,400,000 = ¥4,105,000Total liabilities 2006 = ¥290,000 + 1,720,000 = ¥2,010,000Owners’ equity 2006 = ¥4,105,000 – 2,010,000 = ¥2,095,000b.NWC 2005 = CA05 – CL05 = ¥650,000 – 265,000 = ¥385,000NWC 2006 = CA06 – CL06 = ¥705,000 – 290,000 = ¥415,000Change in NWC = NWC06 – NWC05 = ¥415,000 – 385,000 = ¥30,000c.We can calculate net capital spending as:Net capital spending = Net fixed assets 2006 – Net fixed assets 2005 + DepreciationNet capital spending = ¥3,400,000 – 2,900,000 + 800,000Net capital spending = ¥1,300,000So, the company had a net capital spending cash flow of ¥1,300,000. We also know that net capital spending is:Net capital spending = Fixed assets bought – Fixed assets sold¥1,300,000 = ¥1,500,000 – Fixed assets soldFixed assets sold = ¥1,500,000 – 1,300,000 = ¥200,000To calculate the cash flow from assets, we must first calculate the operating cash flow. The operating cash flow is calculated as follows (you can also prepare a traditional income statement):EBIT = Sales – Costs – DepreciationEBIT = ¥8,600,000 – 4,150,000 – 800,000EBIT = ¥3,650,000EBT = EBIT – InterestEBT = ¥3,650,000 – 216,000EBT = ¥3,434,000Taxes = EBT ⨯ .35Taxes = ¥3,434,000 ⨯ .35Taxes = ¥1,202,000OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = ¥3,650,000 + 800,000 – 1,202,000OCF = ¥3,248,000Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending.Cash flow from assets = ¥3,248,000 – 30,000 – 1,300,000Cash flow from assets = ¥1,918,000 new borrowing = LTD06 – LTD05Net new borrowing = ¥1,720,000 – 1,500,000Net new borrowing = ¥220,000Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDCash flow to creditors = ¥216,000 – 220,000Cash flow to creditors = –¥4,000Net new borrowing = ¥220,000 = Debt issued – Debt retiredDebt retired = ¥300,000 – 220,000 = ¥80,00023.Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2005Cash €2,107 Accounts payable €2,213Accounts receivable 2,789 Notes payable 407Inventory 4,959 Current liabilities €2,620Current assets €9,855Long-term debt €7,056 Net fixed assets €17,669 Owners' equity €17,848Total assets €27,524 Total liab. & equity €27,524Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2006Cash €2,155 Accounts payable €2,146Accounts receivable 3,142 Notes payable 382Inventory 5,096 Current liabilities €2,528Current assets €10,393Long-term debt €8,232 Net fixed assets €18,091 Owners' equity €17,724Total assets €28,484 Total liab. & equity €28,4842005 Income Statement 2006 Income Statement Sales €4,018.00 Sales €4,312.00 COGS 1,382.00 COGS 1,569.00 Other expenses 328.00 Other expenses 274.00 Depreciation 577.00 Depreciation 578.00 EBIT €1,731.00 EBIT €1,891.00 Interest 269.00 Interest 309.00 EBT €1,462.00 EBT €1,582.00 Taxes (34%) 497.08 Taxes (34%) 537.88 Net income € 964.92 Net income €1,044.12 Dividends €490.00 Dividends €539.00 Additions to RE €474.92 Additions to RE €505.12 24.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = €1,891 + 578 – 537.88OCF = €1,931.12Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg = (CA – CL) end– (CA – CL) begChange in NWC = (€10,393 – 2,528) – (€9,855 – 2,620)Change in NWC = €7,865 – 7,235 = €630Net capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg+ DepreciationNet capital spending = €18,091 – 17,669 + 578Net capital spending = €1,000Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spendingCash flow from assets = €1,931.12 – 630 – 1,000Cash flow from assets = €301.12Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDNet new LTD = LTD end– LTD begCash flow to creditors = €309 – (€8,232 – 7,056)Cash flow to creditors = –€867Net new equity = Common stock end– Common stock begCommon stock + Retained earnings = T otal owners’ equityNet new equity = (OE – RE) end– (OE – RE) begNet new equity = OE end– OE beg + RE beg– RE endRE end= RE beg+ Additions to RE04Net new equity = OE end– OE beg+ RE beg– (RE beg + Additions to RE06)= OE end– OE beg– Additions to RENet new equity = €17,724 – 17,848 – 505.12 = –€629.12Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = €539 – (–€629.12)Cash flow to stockholders = €1,168.12As a check, cash flow from assets is €301.12.Cash flow from assets = Cash flow from creditors + Cash flow to stockholdersCash flow from assets = –€867 + 1,168.12Cash flow from assets = €301.12Challenge25.We will begin by calculating the operating cash flow. First, we need the EBIT, which can becalculated as:EBIT = Net income + Current taxes + Deferred taxes + InterestEBIT = £192 + 110 + 21 + 57EBIT = £380Now we can calculate the operating cash flow as:Operating cash flowEarnings before interest and taxes £380Depreciation 105Current taxes (110)Operating cash flow £375The cash flow from assets is found in the investing activities portion of the accounting statement of cash flows, so:Cash flow from assetsAcquisition of fixed assets £198Sale of fixed assets (25)Capital spending £173The net working capital cash flows are all found in the operations cash flow section of the accounting statement of cash flows. However, instead of calculating the net working capital cash flows as the change in net working capital, we must calculate each item individually. Doing so, we find:Net working capital cash flowCash £140Accounts receivable 31Inventories (24)Accounts payable (19)Accrued expenses 10Notes payable (6)Other (2)NWC cash flow £130Except for the interest expense and notes payable, the cash flow to creditors is found in the financing activities of the accounting statement of cash flows. The interest expense from the income statement is given, so:Cash flow to creditorsInterest £57Retirement of debt 84Debt service £141Proceeds from sale of long-term debt (129)Total £12And we can find the cash flow to stockholders in the financing section of the accounting statement of cash flows. The cash flow to stockholders was:Cash flow to stockholdersDividends £94Repurchase of stock 15Cash to stockholders £109Proceeds from new stock issue (49)Total £60 capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + Depreciation= (NFA end– NFA beg) + (Depreciation + AD beg) – AD beg= (NFA end– NFA beg)+ AD end– AD beg= (NFA end + AD end) – (NFA beg + AD beg) = FA end– FA beg27. a.The tax bubble causes average tax rates to catch up to marginal tax rates, thus eliminating thetax advantage of low marginal rates for high income corporations.b.Assuming a taxable income of $100,000, the taxes will be:Taxes = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($25K) + 0.39($235K) = $113.9KAverage tax rate = $113.9K / $335K = 34%The marginal tax rate on the next dollar of income is 34 percent.For corporate taxable income levels of $335K to $10M, average tax rates are equal to marginal tax rates.Taxes = 0.34($10M) + 0.35($5M) + 0.38($3.333M) = $6,416,667Average tax rate = $6,416,667 / $18,333,334 = 35%The marginal tax rate on the next dollar of income is 35 percent. For corporate taxable income levels over $18,333,334, average tax rates are again equal to marginal tax rates.c.Taxes = 0.34($200K) = $68K = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($25K) + X($100K);X($100K) = $68K – 22.25K = $45.75KX = $45.75K / $100KX = 45.75%。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap006
公司理财习题答案第六章Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment Rules6.1 a. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 yearsPayback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. NPV A = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96NPV B = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83Project B should be chosen.6.2 a. Payback period = 6 + {$1,000,000 - ($150,000 ⨯ 6)} / $150,000 = 6.67 yearsYes, the project should be adopted.b. $150,000 11A= $974,259.010The discounted payback period = 11 + ($1,000,000 - $974,259) / ($150,000 / 1.112)= 11.54 yearsc. NPV = -$1,000,000 + $150,000 / 0.10 = $500,0006.3 a. Average Investment:($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000Average accounting return:$4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25%b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does notconsider the time value of money.2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule.3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows.6.4 Average Investment = ($2,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $1,000,000Average net income = [$100,000 {(1 + g)5 - 1} / g] / 5= {$100,000A (1.075 - 1} / 0.07} / 5= $115,014.78AAR = $115,014.78 / $1,000,000 = 11.50%No, since the machine’s AAR is less than the firm’s cutoff AAR.6.5 a6.6PI = $40,000 7A / $160,000 = 1.04.015Since the PI exceeds one accept the project.6.7 The IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0.-$3,000 + $2,500 / (1 + IRR A) + $1,000 / (1 + IRR A)2 = 0By trial and error, IRR A = 12.87%Since project B’s cash flows are two times of those of project A, the IRR B = IRR A =12.87%6.8 a. Solve x by trial and error:-$4,000 + $2,000 / (1 + x) + $1,500 / (1 + x)2 + $1,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0x = 6.93%b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discount rate of 8%.6.9 Find the IRRs of project A analytically. Since the IRR is the discount rate that makes the NPVequal to zero, the following equation must hold.-$200 + $200 / (1 + r) + $800 / (1 + r)2 - $800 / (1 + r)3 = 0$200 [-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] - {$800 / (1 + r)2}[-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] = 0[-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] [$200 - $800 / (1 + r)2] = 0For this equation to hold, either [-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] = 0 or [$200 - $800 / (1 + r)2] = 0.Solve each of these factors for the r that would cause the factor to equal zero. Theresulting rates are the two IRRs for project A. They are either r = 0% or r = 100%.Note: By inspection you should have known that one of the IRRs of project A iszero. Notice that the sum of the un-discounted cash flows for project A is zero.Thus, not discounting the cash flows would yield a zero NPV. The discount ratewhich is tantamount to not discounting is zero.Here are some of the interactions used to find the IRR by trial and error.Sophisticated calculators can compute this rate without all of the tedium involved inthe trial-and-error method.NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.3 + $100 / 1.32 + $150 / 1.33 = $15.91NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.4 + $100 / 1.42 + $150 / 1.43 = -$8.60NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.37 + $100 / 1.372 + $150 / 1.373 = -$1.89NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36 + $100 / 1.36 2 + $150 / 1.363 = $0.46NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36194 + $100 / 1.361942 + $150 / 1.361943= $0.0010NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36195 + $100 / 1.361952 + $150 / 1.361953= -$0.0013NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.361944 + $100 / 1.3619442 + $150 / 1.3619443= $0.0000906Thus, the IRR is approximately 36.1944%.6.10 a. Solve r in the equation:$5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3- $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0By trial and error,IRR = r = 13.99%b. Since this problem is the case of financing, accept the project if the IRR is less thanthe required rate of return.IRR = 13.99% > 10%Reject the offer.c. IRR = 13.99% < 20%Accept the offer.d. When r = 10%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14= -$359.95When r = 20%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24= $466.82Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cashflows change only once.公司理财习题答案第六章6.11 a. Project A:NPV = -$5,000 + $3,500 / (1 + r) + $3,500 / (1 + r)2 = 0IRR = r = 25.69%Project B:NPV = -$100,000 + $65,000 / (1 + r) + $65,000 / (1 + r)2 = 0IRR = r = 19.43%b. Choose project A because it has a higher IRR.c. The difference in scale is ignored.d. Apply the incremental IRR method.e.C0C1C2B - A -$95,000 $61,500 $61,500NPV = -$95,000 + $61,500 / (1 + r) + $61,500 / (1 + r)2 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 19.09%f. If the discount rate is less than 19.09%, choose project B.Otherwise, choose project A.g. NPV A = -$5,000 + $3,500 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 = $689.98NPV B = -$100,000 + $65,000 / 1.15 + $65,000 / 1.152 = $5,671.08Choose project B.6.12 a. PV A = {$5,000 / (0.12 - 0.04)} / 1.122 = $49,824.61PV B = (-$6,000 / 0.12) / 1.12 = -$44,642.86b. The IRR for project C must solve{$5,000 / (x - 0.04)} / (1 + x)2 + (-$6,000 / x) / (1 + x) = 0$5,000 / (x - 0.04) - $6,000 (1 + x) / x = 025 x2 + 3.17 x - 1 =0x = {-3.17 - (110.0489)0.5} / 50 or {-3.17 + (110.0489)0.5} / 50The relevant positive root is IRR = x = 0.1464 = 14.64%c. To arrive at the appropriate decision rule, we must graph the NPV as a function ofthe discount rate. At a discount rate of 14.64% the NPV is zero. To determine if thegraph is upward or downward sloping, check the NPV at another discount rate. At adiscount rate of 10% the NPV is $14,325.07 [= $68,870.52 - $54,545.54]. Thus, thegraph of the NPV is downward sloping. From the discussion in the text, if an NPVgraph is downward sloping, the project is an investing project. The correct decisionrule for an investing project is to accept the project if the discount rate is below14.64%.14.64% 10% rNPV0 $14,325.076.13 Generally, the statement is false. If the cash flows of project B occur early and the cashflows of project A occur late, then for a low discount rate the NPV of A can exceed theNPV of B. Examples are easy to construct.C0C1C2IRR NPV @ 0% A: -$1,000,000 $0 $1,440,000 0.20 $440,000B: -2,000,000 2,400,000 0 0.20 400,000 In one particular case, the statement is true for equally risky projects. If the lives of thetwo projects are equal and in every time period the cash flows of the project B are twice the cash flows of project A, then the NPV of project B will be twice as great as the NPV of project A for any discount rate between 0% and 20%.6.14 a. NPVα = $756.57 - $500 = $256.57NPVβ = $2,492.11 - $2,000 = $492.11b. Choose project beta.6.15 Although the profitability index is higher for project B than for project A, the NPV is theincrease in the value of the company that will occur if a particular project is undertaken.Thus, the project with the higher NPV should be chosen because it increases the value of the firm the most. Only in the case of capital rationing could the pension fund manager be correct.6.16 a. PI A = ($70,000 / 1.12 + $70,000 / 1.122) / $100,000 = 1.183PI B = ($130,000 / 1.12 + $130,000 / 1.122) / $200,000 = 1.099PI C = ($75,000 / 1.12 + $60,000 / 1.122) / $100,000 = 1.148b. NPV A = -$100,000 + $118,303.57 = $18,303.57NPV B = -$200,000 + $219,706.63 = $19,706.63NPV C = -$100,000 + $114,795.92 = $14,795.92c. Accept all three projects because PIs of all the three projects are greater than one.d. Based on the PI rule, project C can be eliminated because its PI is less than the oneof project A, while both have the same amount of the investment. We can computethe PI of the incremental cash flows between the two projects,Project C0C1C2PIB - A -$100,000 $60,000 $60,000 1.014We should take project B since the PI of the incremental cash flows is greater thanone.e. Project B has the highest NPV, while A has the next highest NPV.Take both projects A and B.6.17 a. The payback period is the time it takes to recoup the initial investment of a project.Accept any project that has a payback period that is equal to or shorter than thecompany’s standard payback period. Reject all other projects.b. The average accounting return (AAR) is defined asAverage project earnings ÷ Average book value of the investment.Accept projects for which the AAR is equal to or greater than the firm’s standard.Reject all other projects.c. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the discount rate which makes the net presentvalue (NPV) of the project zero. The accept / reject criteria is:公司理财习题答案第六章If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, accept the project if IRR ≥discount rate.If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, reject the project if IRR <discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, accept the project if IRR ≤discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, reject the project if IRR >discount rate.If the project has cash flows that alternate in sign, there is likely to be more thanone positive IRR. In that situation, there is no valid IRR accept / reject rule.d. The profitability index (PI) is defined as:(The present value of the cash flows subsequent to the initial investment ÷The initial investment)Accept any project for which the profitability index is equal to or greater thanone. Reject project for which that is not true.e. The net present value (NPV) is the sum of the present values of all project cashflows. Accept those projects with NPVs which are equal to or greater than zero.Rejects p roposals with negative NPVs.6.18 Let project A represent New Sunday Early Edition; and let project B represent NewSaturday Late Edition.a. Payback period of project A = 2 + ($1,200 - $1,150) / $450 = 2.11 yearsPayback period of project B = 2 + ($2,100 - $1,900) / $800 = 2.25 yearsBased on the payback period rule, you should choose project A.b. Project A:Average investment = ($1,200 + $0) / 2 = $600Depreciation = $400 / yearAverage income = [($600 - $400) + ($550 - $400) + ($450 - $400)] / 3= $133.33AAR = $133.33 / $600 = 22.22%Project B:Average investment = ($2,100 + $0) / 2 = $1,050Depreciation = $700 / yearAverage income = [($1,000 - $700) + ($900 - $700) + ($800 - $700)] / 3= $200AAR = $200 / $1,050 = 19.05%c. IRR of project A:-$1,200 + $600 / (1 + r) + $550 / (1 + r)2 + $450 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 16.76%IRR of project B:-$2,100 + $1,000 / (1 + r) + $900 / (1 + r)2 + $800 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 14.29%Project A has a greater IRR.d. IRR of project B-A:Incremental cash flowsYear 0 1 2 3B - A -$900 $400 $350 $350-$900 + $400 / (1 + r) + $350 / (1 + r)2 + $350 / (1 + r)3 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 11.02%If the required rate of return is greater than 11.02%, then choose project A.If the required rate of return is less than 11.02%, then choose project B.6.19 Let project A be Deepwater Fishing; let project B be New Submarine Ride.a. Project A:Year Discounted CF Cumulative CF0 -$600,000 -$600,0001 234,783 -365,2172 264,650 -100,5673 197,255Discounted payback period of project A = 2 + $100,567 / $197,255= 2.51 yearsProject B:Year Discounted CF Cumulative CF0 -$1,800,000 -$1,800,0001 869,565 -930,4352 529,301 -401,1343 591,765Discounted payback period of project B = 2 + $401,134 / $591,765= 2.68 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. IRR of project A:-$600,000 + $270,000 / (1 + r) + $350,000 / (1 + r)2 + $300,000 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 24.30%IRR of project B:-$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 /(1 + r) + $700,000 / (1 + r)2 + $900,000 / (1 + r)3= 0IRR = r = 21.46%Based on the IRR rule, project A should be chosen since it has a greater IRR.c. Incremental IRR:Year 0 1 2 3B - A -$1,200,000 $730,000 $350,000 $600,000-$1,200,000 + $730,000 / (1 + r) + $350,000 / (1 + r)2 + $600,000 / (1 + r)3 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 19.92%Since the incremental IRR is greater than the required rate of return, 15%, chooseproject B.d. NPV A = -$600,000 + $270,000 / 1.15 + $350,000 / 1.152 + $300,000 / 1.153= $96,687.76公司理财习题答案第六章NPV B = -$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / 1.15 + $700,000 / 1.152 + $900,000 / 1.153= $190,630.39Since NPV B > NPV A , choose project B.Yes, the NPV rule is consistent with the incremental IRR rule. 6.20 a. The IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0-$600,000 + ()0r 1000,50$r 1%811%)8r (000,100$1111=+-⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛++--IRR ≈18.56%b.Yes, the mine should be opened since its IRR exceeds its required return of 10%.。
罗斯公司理财Chap002全英文题库及答案
罗斯公司理财Chap002全英⽂题库及答案Chapter 02 Financial Statements and Cash Flow Answer KeyMultiple Choice Questions1. The financial statement showing a firm's accounting value on a particular date is the:A. income statement.B. balance sheet.C. statement of cash flows.D. tax reconciliation statement.E. shareholders' equity sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: DEFINITIONS2. A current asset is:A. an item currently owned by the firm.B. an item that the firm expects to own within the next year.C. an item currently owned by the firm that will convert to cash within the next 12 months.D. the amount of cash on hand the firm currently shows on its balance sheet.E. the market value of all items currently owned by the firm.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: DEFINITIONS3. The long-term debts of a firm are liabilities:A. that come due within the next 12 months.B. that do not come due for at least 12 months.C. owed to the firm's suppliers.D. owed to the firm's shareholders.E. the firm expects to incur within the next 12 months.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: LONG-TERM DEBTType: DEFINITIONS4. Net working capital is defined as:A. total liabilities minus shareholders' equity.B. current liabilities minus shareholders' equity.C. fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.D. total assets minus total liabilities.E. current assets minus current liabilities.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: DEFINITIONS5. A(n) ____ asset is one which can be quickly converted into cash without significant loss in value.A. currentB. fixedC. intangibleD. liquidE. long-termDifficulty level: EasyTopic: LIQUID ASSETSType: DEFINITIONS6. The financial statement summarizing a firm's accounting performance over a period of time is the:A. income statement.B. balance sheet.C. statement of cash flows.D. tax reconciliation statement.E. shareholders' equity sheet.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: DEFINITIONS7. Noncash items refer to:A. the credit sales of a firm.B. the accounts payable of a firm.C. the costs incurred for the purchase of intangible fixed assets.D. expenses charged against revenues that do not directly affect cash flow.E. all accounts on the balance sheet other than cash on hand.Difficulty level: EasyTopic: NONCASH ITEMSType: DEFINITIONS8. Your _____ tax rate is the amount of tax payable on the next taxable dollar you earn.A. deductibleB. residualC. totalD. averageE. marginalDifficulty level: EasyTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATESType: DEFINITIONS9. Your _____ tax rate is the total taxes you pay divided by your taxable income.A. deductibleB. residualC. totalD. averageE. marginalDifficulty level: EasyTopic: AVERAGE TAX RATESType: DEFINITIONS10. _____ refers to the cash flow that results from the firm's ongoing, normal business activities.A. Cash flow from operating activitiesB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIESType: DEFINITIONS11. _____ refers to the changes in net capital assets.A. Operating cash flowB. Cash flow from investingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM INVESTINGType: DEFINITIONS12. _____ refers to the difference between a firm's current assets and its current liabilities.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from assetsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: EasyTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: DEFINITIONS13. _____ is calculated by adding back noncash expenses to net income and adjusting for changes in current assets and liabilities.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from operationsE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW FROM OPERATIONSType: DEFINITIONS14. _____ refers to the firm's interest payments less any net new borrowing.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from shareholdersE. Cash flow to creditorsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: DEFINITIONS15. _____ refers to the firm's dividend payments less any net new equity raised.A. Operating cash flowB. Capital spendingC. Net working capitalD. Cash flow from creditorsE. Cash flow to stockholdersDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: DEFINITIONS16. Earnings per share is equal to:A. net income divided by the total number of shares outstanding.B. net income divided by the par value of the common stock.C. gross income multiplied by the par value of the common stock.D. operating income divided by the par value of the common stock.E. net income divided by total shareholders' equity.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: DEFINITIONS17. Dividends per share is equal to dividends paid:A. divided by the par value of common stock.B. divided by the total number of shares outstanding.C. divided by total shareholders' equity.D. multiplied by the par value of the common stock.E. multiplied by the total number of shares outstanding. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DIVIDENDS PER SHAREType: DEFINITIONS18. Which of the following are included in current assets?I. equipmentII. inventoryIII. accounts payableIV. cashA. II and IV onlyB. I and III onlyC. I, II, and IV onlyD. III and IV onlyE. II, III, and IV onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: CONCEPTS19. Which of the following are included in current liabilities?I. note payable to a supplier in eighteen monthsII. debt payable to a mortgage company in nine monthsIII. accounts payable to suppliersIV. loan payable to the bank in fourteen monthsA. I and III onlyB. II and III onlyC. III and IV onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, II, and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT LIABILITIESType: CONCEPTS20. An increase in total assets:A. means that net working capital is also increasing.B. requires an investment in fixed assets.C. means that shareholders' equity must also increase.D. must be offset by an equal increase in liabilities and shareholders' equity.E. can only occur when a firm has positive net income.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS21. Which one of the following assets is generally the most liquid?A. inventoryB. buildingsC. accounts receivableD. equipmentE. patentsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS22. Which one of the following statements concerning liquidity is correct?A. If you sold an asset today, it was a liquid asset.B. If you can sell an asset next year at a price equal to its actual value, the asset is highly liquid.C. Trademarks and patents are highly liquid.D. The less liquidity a firm has, the lower the probability the firm will encounter financial difficulties.E. Balance sheet accounts are listed in order of decreasing liquidity.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS23. Liquidity is:A. a measure of the use of debt in a firm's capital structure.B. equal to current assets minus current liabilities.C. equal to the market value of a firm's total assets minus its current liabilities.D. valuable to a firm even though liquid assets tend to be less profitable to own.E. generally associated with intangible assets.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: CONCEPTS24. Which of the following accounts are included in shareholders' equity?I. interest paidII. retained earningsIII. capital surplusIV. long-term debtA. I and II onlyB. II and IV onlyC. I and IV onlyD. II and III onlyE. I and III onlyDifficulty level: MediumTopic: SHAREHOLDERS' EQUITYType: CONCEPTS25. Book value:A. is equivalent to market value for firms with fixed assets.B. is based on historical cost.C. generally tends to exceed market value when fixed assets are included.D. is more of a financial than an accounting valuation.E. is adjusted to market value whenever the market value exceeds the stated book value. Difficulty level: Medium Topic: BOOK VALUEType: CONCEPTS26. When making financial decisions related to assets, you should:A. always consider market values.B. place more emphasis on book values than on market values.C. rely primarily on the value of assets as shown on the balance sheet.D. place primary emphasis on historical costs.E. only consider market values if they are less than book values.Topic: MARKET VALUEType: CONCEPTS27. As seen on an income statement:A. interest is deducted from income and increases the total taxes incurred.B. the tax rate is applied to the earnings before interest and taxes when the firm has both depreciation and interest expenses.C. depreciation is shown as an expense but does not affect the taxes payable.D. depreciation reduces both the pretax income and the net income.E. interest expense is added to earnings before interest and taxes to get pretax income. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: CONCEPTS28. The earnings per share will:A. increase as net income increases.B. increase as the number of shares outstanding increase.C. decrease as the total revenue of the firm increases.D. increase as the tax rate increases.E. decrease as the costs decrease.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS29. Dividends per share:A. increase as the net income increases as long as the number of shares outstanding remains constant.B. decrease as the number of shares outstanding decrease, all else constant.C. are inversely related to the earnings per share.D. are based upon the dividend requirements established by Generally Accepted Accounting Procedures.E. are equal to the amount of net income distributed to shareholders divided by the number of shares outstanding. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DIVIDENDS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS30. Earnings per shareA. will increase if net income increases and number of shares remains constant.B. will increase if net income decreases and number of shares remains constant.C. is number of shares divided by net income.D. is the amount of money that goes into retained earnings on a per share basis.E. None of the above.Topic: EARNINGS PER SHAREType: CONCEPTS31. According to Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, costs are:A. recorded as incurred.B. recorded when paid.C. matched with revenues.D. matched with production levels.E. expensed as management desires.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: MATCHING PRINCIPLEType: CONCEPTS32. Depreciation:A. is a noncash expense that is recorded on the income statement.B. increases the net fixed assets as shown on the balance sheet.C. reduces both the net fixed assets and the costs of a firm.D. is a non-cash expense which increases the net operating income.E. decreases net fixed assets, net income, and operating cash flows.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NONCASH ITEMSType: CONCEPTS33. When you are making a financial decision, the most relevant tax rate is the _____ rate.A. averageB. fixedC. marginalD. totalE. variableDifficulty level: MediumTopic: MARGINAL TAX RATEType: CONCEPTS34. An increase in which one of the following will cause the operating cash flow to increase?A. depreciationB. changes in the amount of net fixed capitalC. net working capitalD. taxesE. costsDifficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS35. A firm starts its year with a positive net working capital. During the year, the firm acquires more short-term debt than it does short-term assets. This means that:A. the ending net working capital will be negative.B. both accounts receivable and inventory decreased during the year.C. the beginning current assets were less than the beginning current liabilities.D. accounts payable increased and inventory decreased during the year.E. the ending net working capital can be positive, negative, or equal to zero.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CHANGE IN NET WORKING CAPITALType: CONCEPTS36. The cash flow to creditors includes the cash:A. received by the firm when payments are paid to suppliers.B. outflow of the firm when new debt is acquired.C. outflow when interest is paid on outstanding debt.D. inflow when accounts payable decreases.E. received when long-term debt is paid off.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO CREDITORSType: CONCEPTS37. Cash flow to stockholders must be positive when:A. the dividends paid exceed the net new equity raised.B. the net sale of common stock exceeds the amount of dividends paid.C. no income is distributed but new shares of stock are sold.D. both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors are negative.E. both the cash flow to assets and the cash flow to creditors are positive. Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS38. Which equality is the basis for the balance sheet?A. Fixed Assets = Stockholder's Equity + Current AssetsB. Assets = Liabilities + Stockholder's EquityC. Assets = Current Long-Term Debt + Retained EarningsD. Fixed Assets = Liabilities + Stockholder's EquityE. None of the aboveDifficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS39. Assets are listed on the balance sheet in order of:A. decreasing liquidity.B. decreasing size.C. increasing size.D. relative life.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BALANCE SHEETType: CONCEPTS40. Debt is a contractual obligation that:A. requires the payout of residual flows to the holders of these instruments.B. requires a repayment of a stated amount and interest over the period.C. allows the bondholders to sue the firm if it defaults.D. Both A and B.E. Both B and C.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: DEBTType: CONCEPTS41. The carrying value or book value of assets:A. is determined under GAAP and is based on the cost of the asset.B. represents the true market value according to GAAP.C. is always the best measure of the company's value to an investor.D. is always higher than the replacement cost of the assets.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CARRYING VALUEType: CONCEPTS42. Under GAAP, a firm's assets are reported at:A. market value.B. liquidation value.C. intrinsic value.D. cost.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GAAPType: CONCEPTS43. Which of the following statements concerning the income statement is true?A. It measures performance over a specific period of time.B. It determines after-tax income of the firm.C. It includes deferred taxes.D. It treats interest as an expense.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: INCOME STATEMENTType: CONCEPTS44. According to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), revenue is recognized as income when:A. a contract is signed to perform a service or deliver a good.B. the transaction is complete and the goods or services are delivered.C. payment is requested.D. income taxes are paid.E. All of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: GAAP INCOME RECOGNITIONType: CONCEPTS45. Which of the following is not included in the computation of operating cash flow?A. Earnings before interest and taxesB. Interest paidC. DepreciationD. Current taxesE. All of the above are includedDifficulty level: MediumTopic: OPERATING CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS46. Net capital spending is equal to:A. net additions to net working capital.B. the net change in fixed assets.C. net income plus depreciation.D. total cash flow to stockholders less interest and dividends paid.E. the change in total assets.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET CAPITAL SPENDINGType: CONCEPTS47. Cash flow to stockholders is defined as:A. interest payments.B. repurchases of equity less cash dividends paid plus new equity sold.C. cash flow from financing less cash flow to creditors.D. cash dividends plus repurchases of equity minus new equity financing.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW TO STOCKHOLDERSType: CONCEPTS48. Free cash flow is:A. without cost to the firm.B. net income plus taxes.C. an increase in net working capital.D. cash that the firm is free to distribute to creditors and stockholders.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: FREE CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS49. The cash flow of the firm must be equal to:A. cash flow to stockholders minus cash flow to debtholders.B. cash flow to debtholders minus cash flow to stockholders.C. cash flow to governments plus cash flow to stockholders.D. cash flow to stockholders plus cash flow to debtholders.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOWType: CONCEPTS50. Which of the following are all components of the statement of cash flows?A. Cash flow from operating activities, cash flow from investing activities, and cash flow from financing activitiesB. Cash flow from operating activities, cash flow from investing activities, and cash flow from divesting activitiesC. Cash flow from internal activities, cash flow from external activities, and cash flow from financing activitiesD. Cash flow from brokering activities, cash flow from profitable activities, and cash flow from non-profitable activitiesE. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWSType: CONCEPTS51. One of the reasons why cash flow analysis is popular is because:A. cash flows are more subjective than net income.B. cash flows are hard to understand.C. it is easy to manipulate, or spin the cash flows.D. it is difficult to manipulate, or spin the cash flows.E. None of the above.Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CASH FLOW MANAGEMENTType: CONCEPTS52. A firm has $300 in inventory, $600 in fixed assets, $200 in accounts receivable, $100 in accounts payable, and $50 in cash. What is the amount of the current assets?A. $500B. $550C. $600D. $1,150E. $1,200Current assets = $300 + $200 + $50 = $550Difficulty level: MediumTopic: CURRENT ASSETSType: PROBLEMS53. Total assets are $900, fixed assets are $600, long-term debt is $500, and short-term debt is $200. What is the amount of net working capital?A. $0B. $100C. $200D. $300E. $400Net working capital = $900 - $600 - $200 = $100Difficulty level: MediumTopic: NET WORKING CAPITALType: PROBLEMS54. Brad's Company has equipment with a book value of $500 that could be sold today at a 50% discount. Its inventory is valued at $400 and could be sold to a competitor for that amount. The firm has $50 in cash and customers owe it $300. What is the accounting value of its liquid assets?A. $50B. $350C. $700D. $750E. $1,000Liquid assets = $400 + $50 + $300 = $750Difficulty level: MediumTopic: LIQUIDITYType: PROBLEMS55. Martha's Enterprises spent $2,400 to purchase equipment three years ago. This equipment is currently valued at $1,800 on today's balance sheet but could actually be sold for $2,000. Net working capital is $200 and long-term debt is $800. Assuming the equipment is the firm's only fixed asset, what is the book value of shareholders' equity?A. $200B. $800C. $1,200D. $1,400E. The answer cannot be determined from the information providedBook value of shareholders' equity = $1,800 + $200 - $800 = $1,200Difficulty level: MediumTopic: BOOK VALUEType: PROBLEMS。
公司理财-罗斯课后习题答案.pdf
案:公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是 30 美元万。然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全
性只会节省 20 美元万。请问公司应该怎么做呢?”
5.财务管理的目标都是相同的,但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的,因为不同的国家有不
同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。
有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。
3.这句话是不正确的。管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前
的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。
4.有两种结论。一种极端,在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。因此所有目标都有一个最优
水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。另一种极端,我们可以认为这是
股东的最大化权益行事。现在的管理层经常在公司面临这些恶意收购的情况时迷失自己
的方向。
7.其他国家的代理问题并不严重,主要取决于其他国家的私人投资者占比重较小。较少的私
人投资者能减少不同的企业目标。高比重的机构所有权导致高学历的股东和管理层讨论
决策风险项目。此外,机构投资者比私人投资者可以根据自己的资源和经验更好地对管理
明公司财务有什么异样,但两种方法都没有说明差异是好的还是坏的。例如,假设公司的
流动比率增大，这可能意味着公司改善了过去流动性存在的问题,也可能意味着公司对资
产的管理效率下降。同类公司分析也可能出现问题。公司的流动比率低于同类公司可能
表明其资产管理更有效率,也可能公司面对流动性问题。两种分析方法都没有说明比率的
8.例如,如果一个公司的库存管理变得更有效率,一定数量的存货需要将会下降。如果该公司
可以提高应收帐款回收率，同样可以降低存货需求。一般来说,任何导致期末的 NWC 相
公司理财(罗斯)第2章(英文)
2-2
Sources of Information
Annual reports Wall Street Journal Internet
2.1 The Balance Sheet 2.2 The Income Statement 2.3 Net Working Capital 2.4 Financial Cash Flow 2.5 The Statement of Cash Flows 2.6 Financial Statement Analysis 2.7 Summary and Conclusions
McGraw-Hill/Irwin Corporate Finance, 7/e 2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
2-6
Debt versus Equity
Generally, when a firm borrows it gives the bondholders first claim on the firm’s cash flow. Thus shareholder’s equity is the residual difference between assets and liabilities.
Total assets
McGraw-Hill/Irwin Corporate Finance, 7/e
$1,879
$1,742
2005 The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版
第五章：净现值和投资评价的其他方法1.如果项目会带来常规的现金流，回收期短于项目的生命周期意味着，在折现率为0 的情况下，NPV 为正值。
折现率大于0 时，回收期依旧会短于项目的生命周期，但根据折现率小于、等于、大于IRR 的情况，NPV 可能为正、为零、为负。
折现回收期包含了相关折现率的影响。
如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期，NPV 一定为正值。
2.如果某项目有常规的现金流，而且NPV 为正，该项目回收期一定短于其生命周期。
因为折现回收期是用与NPV 相同的折现值计算出来的，如果NPV为正，折现回收期也会短于该项目的生命周期。
NPV 为正表明未来流入现金流大于初始投资成本，盈利指数必然大于1。
如果NPV 以特定的折现率R 计算出来为正值时，必然存在一个大于R 的折现率R’使得NPV 为0，因此，IRR 必定大于必要报酬率。
3.（1）回收期法就是简单地计算出一系列现金流的盈亏平衡点。
其缺陷是忽略了货币的时间价值，另外，也忽略了回收期以后的现金流量。
当某项目的回收期小于该项目的生命周期，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
回收期法决策作出的选择比较武断。
（2）平均会计收益率为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。
其最大的缺陷在于没有使用正确的原始材料，其次也没有考虑到时间序列这个因素。
一般某项目的平均会计收益率大于公司的目标会计收益率，则可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（3）内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0 的贴现率。
其缺陷在于没有办法对某些项目进行判断，例如有多重内部收益率的项目，而且对于融资型的项目以及投资型的项目判断标准截然相反。
对于投资型项目，若IRR 大于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
对于融资型项目，若IRR 小于贴现率，项目可以接受；反之，则拒绝。
（4）盈利指数是初始以后所有预期未来现金流量的现值和初始投资的比值。
必须注意的是，倘若初始投资期之后，在资金使用上还有限制，那盈利指数就会失效。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap008
公司理财习题答案第八章Chapter 8: Strategy and Analysis in Using Net Present Value8.1 Go directly:NPV = 0.5 ⨯ $20 million + 0.5 ⨯ $5 million= $12.5 millionTest marketing:NPV = -$2 million + (0.75 ⨯ $20 million + 0.25 ⨯ $5 million) / 1.15= $12.13 millionGo directly to the market.8.2 Focus group: -$120,000 + 0.70 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $720,000Consulting firm: -$400,000 + 0.90 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $680,000Direct marketing: 0.50 ⨯ $1,200,000 = $600,000The manager should conduct a focus group.8.3 Price more aggressively:-$1,300,000 + (0.55 ⨯ 0) + 0.45 ⨯ (-$550,000)= -$1,547,500Hire lobbyist:-$800,000 + (0.75 ⨯ 0) + 0.25 ⨯ (-$2,000,000)= -$1,300,000Tandem should hire the lobbyist.8.4 Let sales price be x.Depreciation = $600,000 / 5 = $120,000BEP: ($900,000 + $120,000) / (x - $15) = 20,000x = $668.5 The accounting break-even= (120,000 + 20,000) / (1,500 - 1,100)= 350 units8.6 a. The accounting break-even= 340,000 / (2.00 - 0.72)= 265,625 abalonesb. [($2.00 ⨯ 300,000) - (340,000 + 0.72 ⨯ 300,000)] (0.65)= $28,600This is the after tax profit.8.7 EAC = $140,000 / 7A = $33,650.015Depreciation = $140,000 / 7 = $20,000BEP = {$33,650 + $340,000 ⨯ 0.65 - $20,000 ⨯ 0.35} / {($2 - $0.72) ⨯ 0.65} = 297,656.25≈ 297,657 units8.8 Depreciation = $200,000 / 5 = $40,000 EAC = $200,000 / 512.0A = $200,000 / 3.60478 = $55,482BEP = {$55,482 + $350,000 ⨯ 0.75 - $40,000 ⨯ 0.25} / {($25 - $5) ⨯ 0.75} = 20,532.13 ≈ 20533 units 8.9 Let I be the break-even purchase price. Incremental C 0$20,000 Tax effect 3,400 Total $23,400 Depreciation per period = $45,000 / 15 = $3,000Book value of the machine = $45,000 - 5 ⨯ $3,000 = $30,000Loss on sale of machine = $30,000 - $20,000 = $10,000 Tax credit due to loss = $10,000 ⨯ 0.34 = $3,400Incremental cost savings: $10,000 (1 - 0.34) = $6,600 Incremental depreciation tax shield: [I / 10 - $3,000] (0.34)The break-even purchase price is the Investment (I), which makes the NPV be zero. NPV = 0 = -I + $23,400 + $6,600 1015.0A + [I / 10 - $3,000] (0.34) 1015.0A = -I + $23,400 + $6,600 (5.0188) + I (0.034) (5.0188) - $3,000 (0.34) (5.0188) I = $61,981 8.10 Pessimistic:NPV= -$420,000 + (){}23,000$38$21$320,0000.65$60,0000.351.13t t 17--⨯+⨯=∑= -$123,021.71 Expected: NPV = -$420,000 + (){}25,000$40$20$300,0000.65$60,0000.351.13t7--⨯+⨯=∑t 1= $247,814.17公司理财习题答案第八章Optimistic:NPV= -$420,000 +(){}27,000$42$19$280,0000.65$60,0000.351.13tt 17--⨯+⨯=∑= $653,146.42Even though the NPV of pessimistic case is negative, if we change one input while allothers are assumed to meet their expectation, we have all positive NPVs like the one before. Thus, this project is quite profitable.PessimisticNPVUnit sales 23,000 $132,826.30 Price$38 $104,079.33 Variable costs $21 $175,946.75 Fixed costs$320,000$190,320.248.11 Pessimistic: NPV = -$1,500,000 +(){}1100000220000600000401131,.$850,.$300,..⨯--⨯+⨯=∑$115$725tt= -$675,701.68 Expected: NPV = -$1,500,000+(){}1200000250000600000401131,.$800,.$300,..⨯--⨯+⨯=∑$120$705tt= $399,304.88Optimistic: NPV = -$1,500,000+(){}130,0000.27$125$68$750,0000.60$300,0000.401.13tt 15⨯--⨯+⨯=∑= $1,561,468.43The expected present value of the new tennis racket is $428,357.21. (Assuming there are equal chances of the 3 scenarios occurring.)8.12 NPV = (){}-+⨯--⨯+⨯=∑1,500,000130,0000.22$120$70$800,0000.60$300,0000.401.13tt 15= $251,581.17The 3% drop in market share hurt significantly more than the 10,000 increase in market size helped. However, if the drop were only 2%, the effects would be about even. Market size is going up by over 8%, thus it seems market share is more important than market size.8.13 a. NPV = -$10,000,000 + ( $750, 000 ⨯10A) = -$5,391,574.6710.b.Revised NPV = -$10,000,000 + $750,000 / 1.10 + [(.5 ⨯ $1,500,000 ⨯9A).10+ (.5 ⨯ $200,000 )] / 1.10= -$5,300,665.58Option value of abandonment = -$5,300,665.58 – ( -$5,391,574.67 )= $90,909.098.14 a. NPV = -$100M + ( $100 ⨯ 2M ⨯10A) = $738.49Million.20b.$50M = C9A20.C = $12.40 Million (or 1.24 Million units )。
公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案
Solutions Manual Fundamentals of Corporate Finance10th edition Ross, Westerfield, and Jordan06-25-2013Prepared byBrad JordanUniversity of KentuckyJoe SmoliraBelmont UniversityCHAPTER 1INTRODUCTION TO CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.Capital budgeting (deciding whether to expand a manufacturing plant), capital structure (decidingwhether to issue new equity and use the proceeds to retire outstanding debt), and working capital management (modifying the firm’s credit collection policy with its customers).2.Disadvantages: unlimited liability, limited life, difficulty in transferring ownership, difficulty inraising capital funds. Some advantages: simpler, less regulation, the owners are also the managers, sometimes personal tax rates are better than corporate tax rates.3.The primary disadvantage of the corporate form is the double taxation to shareholders of distributedearnings and dividends. Some advantages include: limited liability, ease of transferability, ability to raise capital, and unlimited life.4.In response to Sarbanes-Oxley, small firms have elected to go dark because of the costs ofcompliance. The costs to comply with Sarbox can be several million dollars, which can be a large percentage of a small firm’s profits. A major cost of going dark is less access to capital. Since the firm is no longer publicly traded, it can no longer raise money in the public market. Although the company will still have access to bank loans and the private equity market, the costs associated with raising funds in these markets are usually higher than the costs of raising funds in the public market.5.The treasurer’s office and the controller’s office are the two primary organizational groups thatreport directly to the chief financial officer. The controller’s office handles cost and financial accounting, tax management, and management information systems, while the treasurer’s office is responsible for cash and credit management, capital budgeting, and financial planning. Therefore, the study of corporate finance is concentrated within the treasury group’s fu nctions.6.To maximize the current market value (share price) of the equity of the firm (whether it’spubliclytraded or not).7. In the corporate form of ownership, the shareholders are the owners of the firm. The shareholderselect the directors of the corporation, who in turn appoint the firm’s management. This separation of ownership from control in the corporate form of organization is what causes agency problems to exist. Management may act in its own or someone else’s best interests, rather than th ose of the shareholders. If such events occur, they may contradict the goal of maximizing the share price of the equity of the firm.8. A primary market transaction.公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案9.In auction markets like the NYSE, brokers and agents meet at a physical location (the exchange) tomatch buyers and sellers of assets. Dealer markets like NASDAQ consist of dealers operating at dispersed locales who buy and sell assets themselves, communicating with other dealers either electronically or literally over-the-counter.10.Such organizations frequently pursue social or political missions, so many different goals areconceivable. One goal that is often cited is revenue minimization; that is, provide whatever goods and services are offered at the lowest possible cost to society. A better approach might be to observe that even a not-for-profit business has equity. Thus, one answer is that the appropriate goal is to maximize the value of the equity.11.Presumably, the current stock value reflects the risk, timing, and magnitude of all future cash flows,both short-term and long-term. If this is correct, then the statement is false.12.An argument can be made either way. At the one extreme, we could argue that in a market economy,all of these things are priced. There is thus an optimal level of, for example, ethical and/or illegal behavior, and the framework of stock valuation explicitly includes these. At the other extreme, we could argue that these are noneconomic phenomena and are best handled through the political process. A classic (and highly relevant) thought question that illustrates this debate goes something like this: “A firm has estimated that the cost of improving the safety of one of its products is $30 million. However, the firm believes that improving the safety of the product will only save $20 million in product liability claims. What should the firm do?”13.The goal will be the same, but the best course of action toward that goal may be different because ofdiffering social, political, and economic institutions.14.The goal of management should be to maximize the share price for the current shareholders. Ifmanagement believes that it can improve the profitability of the firm so that the share price will exceed $35, then they should fight the offer from the outside company. If management believes that this bidder or other unidentified bidders will actually pay more than $35 per share to acquire the company, then they should still fight the offer. However, if the current management cannot increase the value of the firm beyond the bid price, and no other higher bids come in, then management is not acting in the interests of the shareholders by fighting the offer. Since current managers often lose their jobs when the corporation is acquired, poorly monitored managers have an incentive to fight corporate takeovers in situations such as this.15.We would expect agency problems to be less severe in countries with a relatively small percentageof individual ownership. Fewer individual owners should reduce the number of diverse opinions concerning corporate goals. The high percentage of institutional ownership might lead to a higher degree of agreement between owners and managers on decisions concerning risky projects. In addition, institutions may be better able to implement effective monitoring mechanisms on managers than can individual owners, based on the institutions’ deeper resources and experiences with their own management. The increase in institutional ownership of stock in the United States and the growing activism of these large shareholder groups may lead to a reduction in agency problems for U.S. corporations and a more efficient market for corporate control.16. How much is too much? Who is worth more, Lawrence Ellison or Tiger Woods? The simplestanswer is that there is a market for executives just as there is for all types of labor. Executive compensation is the price that clears the market. The same is true for athletes and performers.Having said that, one aspect of executive compensation deserves comment. A primary reason executive compensation has grown so dramatically is that companies have increasingly moved to stock-based compensation. Such movement is obviously consistent with the attempt to better align stockholder and management interests. In recent years, stock prices have soared, so management has cleaned up. It is sometimes argued that much of this reward is simply due to rising stock prices in general, not managerial performance. Perhaps in the future, executive compensation will be designed to reward only differential performance, that is, stock price increases in excess of general market increases.公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案CHAPTER 2FINANCIAL STATEMENTS, TAXES, AND CASH FLOWAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.Liquidity measures how quickly and easily an asset can be converted to cash without significant lossin value. It’s desirable for firms to have high liquidity so that they have a large factor of safety in meeting short-term creditor demands. However, since liquidity also has an opportunity cost associated with it—namely that higher returns can generally be found by investing the cash into productive assets—low liquidity levels are also desirable to the firm. It’s up to the firm’s financial management staff to find a reasonable compromise between these opposing needs.2.The recognition and matching principles in financial accounting call for revenues, and the costsassociated with producing those revenues, to be “booked” when the revenue process is essentially complete, not necessarily when the cash is collected or bills are paid. Note that this way is not necessarily correct; it’s the way accountants have chosen to do it.3.Historical costs can be objectively and precisely measured whereas market values can be difficult toestimate, and different analysts would come up with different numbers. Thus, there is a trade-off between relevance (market values) and objectivity (book values).4. Depreciation is a noncash deduction that reflects adjustments made in asset book values inaccordance with the matching principle in financial accounting. Interest expense is a cash outlay, but it’s a financing cost, not an operating cost.5.Market values can never be negative. Imagine a share of stock selling for –$20. This would meanthat if you placed an order for 100 shares, you would get the stock along with a check for $2,000.How many shares do you want to buy? More generally, because of corporate and individual bankruptcy laws, net worth for a person or a corporation cannot be negative, implying that liabilities cannot exceed assets in market value.6.For a successful company that is rapidly expanding, for example, capital outlays will be large,possibly leading to negative cash flow from assets. In general, what matters is whether the money is spent wisely, not whether cash flow from assets is positive or negative.7.It’s probably not a good sign for an established company, but it would be fairly ordinary for a start-up, so it depends.8.For example, if a company were to become more efficient in inventory management, the amount ofinventory needed would decline. The same might be true if it becomes better at collecting its receivables. In general, anything that leads to a decline in ending NWC relative to beginning would have this effect. Negative net capital spending would mean more long-lived assets were liquidated than purchased.9.If a company raises more money from selling stock than it pays in dividends in a particular period,its cash flow to stockholders will be negative. If a company borrows more than it pays in interest, its cash flow to creditors will be negative.10.The adjustments discussed were purely accounting changes; they had no cash flow or market valueconsequences unless the new accounting information caused stockholders to revalue the derivatives.11.Enterprise value is the theoretical takeover price. In the event of a takeover, an acquirer would haveto take on the company's debt but would pocket its cash. Enterprise value differs significantly from simple market capitalization in several ways, and it may be a more accurate representation of a firm's value. In a takeover, the value of a firm's debt would need to be paid by the buyer when taking overa company. This enterprise value provides a much more accurate takeover valuation because itincludes debt in its value calculation.12.In general, it appears that investors prefer companies that have a steady earnings stream. If true, thisencourages companies to manage earnings. Under GAAP, there are numerous choices for the way a company reports its financial statements. Although not the reason for the choices under GAAP, one outcome is the ability of a company to manage earnings, which is not an ethical decision. Even though earnings and cash flow are often related, earnings management should have little effect on cash flow (except for tax implications). If the market is “fooled” and prefers steady earnings, shareholder wealth can be increased, at least temporarily. However, given the questionable ethics of this practice, the company (and shareholders) will lose value if the practice is discovered. Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end of chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1.To find owners’ equity, we must construct a balance sheet as follows:Balance SheetCA $ 4,800 CL $ 4,200NFA 27,500 LTD 10,500OE ??TA $32,300 TL & OE $32,300We know that total liabilities and owners’ equity (TL & OE) must equal total assets of $32,300.We also know that TL & OE is equal to current liabilities plus long-term debt plus owners’ equity, so owners’ equity is:OE = $32,300 – 10,500 – 4,200 = $17,600NWC = CA – CL = $4,800 – 4,200 = $600公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案2. The income statement for the company is:Income StatementSales $734,000Costs 315,000Depreciation 48,000EBIT $371,000Interest 35,000EBT $336,000Taxes (35%) 117,600Net income $218,4003.One equation for net income is:Net income = Dividends + Addition to retained earningsRearranging, we get:Addition to retained earnings = Net income – Dividends = $218,400 – 85,000 = $133,4004.EPS = Net income / Shares = $218,400 / 110,000 = $1.99 per shareDPS = Dividends / Shares = $85,000 / 110,000 = $0.77 per share5.To find the book value of current assets, we use: NWC = CA –CL. Rearranging to solve forcurrent assets, we get:CA = NWC + CL = $215,000 + 900,000 = $1,115,000The market value of current assets and fixed assets is given, so:Book value CA = $1,115,000 Market value CA = $1,250,000Book value NFA = $3,200,000 Market value NFA = $5,300,000Book value assets = $4,315,000 Market value assets = $6,550,0006.Taxes = 0.15($50,000) + 0.25($25,000) + 0.34($25,000) + 0.39($255,000 – 100,000) = $82,7007.The average tax rate is the total tax paid divided by taxable income, so:Average tax rate = $82,700 / $255,000 = .3243, or 32.43%The marginal tax rate is the tax rate on the next $1 of earnings, so the marginal tax rate = 39%.8.To calculate OCF, we first need the income statement:Income StatementSales $39,500Costs 18,400Depreciation 1,900EBIT $19,200Interest 1,400Taxable income $17,800Taxes (35%) 6,230Net income $11,570OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes = $19,200 + 1,900 – 6,230 = $14,870 capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + DepreciationNet capital spending = $3,600,000 – 2,800,000 + 345,000Net capital spending = $1,145,00010. Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC begChange in NWC = (CA end– CL end) – (CA beg– CL beg)Change in NWC = ($3,460 – 1,980) – ($3,120 – 1,570)Change in NWC = $1,480 – 1,550 = –$7011.Cash flow to creditors = Interest paid – Net new borrowingCash flow to creditors = Interest paid – (LTD end– LTD beg)Cash flow to creditors = $190,000 – ($2,550,000 – 2,300,000)Cash flow to creditors = –$60,00012. Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends paid – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = Dividends paid – [(Common end + APIS end) – (Common beg + APIS beg)] Cash flow to stockholders = $540,000 – [($715,000 + 4,700,000) – ($680,000 + 4,300,000)]Cash flow to stockholders = $105,000Note, APIS is the additional paid-in surplus.13. Cash flow from assets = Cash flow to creditors + Cash flow to stockholders= –$60,000 + 105,000 = $45,000Cash flow from assets = $45,000 = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending= $45,000 = OCF – (–$55,000) – 1,300,000Operating cash flow = $45,000 – 55,000 + 1,300,000Operating cash flow = $1,290,000公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案Intermediate14.To find the OCF, we first calculate net income.Income StatementSales $235,000Costs 141,000Other expenses 7,900Depreciation 17,300EBIT $ 68,800Interest 12,900Taxable income $ 55,900Taxes 19,565Net income $ 36,335Dividends $12,300Additions to RE $24,035a.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes = $68,800 + 17,300 – 19,565 = $66,535b.CFC = Interest – Net new LTD = $12,900 – (–4,500) = $17,400Note that the net new long-term debt is negative because the company repaid part of its long-term debt.c.CFS = Dividends – Net new equity = $12,300 – 6,100 = $6,200d.We know that CFA = CFC + CFS, so:CFA = $17,400 + 6,200 = $23,600CFA is also equal to OCF – Net capital spending – Change in NWC. We already know OCF.Net capital spending is equal to:Net capital spending = Increase in NFA + Depreciation = $25,000 + 17,300 = $42,300Now we can use:CFA = OCF – Net capital spending – Change in NWC$23,600 = $66,535 – 42,300 – Change in NWCChange in NWC = $635This means that the company increased its NWC by $635.15.The solution to this question works the income statement backwards. Starting at the bottom:Net income = Dividends + Addition to retained earnings = $1,800 + 5,300 = $7,100Now, looking at the income statement:EBT – EBT × Tax rate = Net incomeRecognize that EBT × Tax rate is simply the calculation for taxes. Solving this for EBT yields:EBT = NI / (1– Tax rate) = $7,100 / (1 – 0.35) = $10,923Now you can calculate:EBIT = EBT + Interest = $10,923 + 4,900 = $15,823The last step is to use:EBIT = Sales – Costs – Depreciation$15,823 = $52,000 – 27,300 – DepreciationSolving for depreciation, we find that depreciation = $8,87716.The balance sheet for the company looks like this:Balance SheetCash $ 127,000 Accounts payable $ 210,000Accounts receivable 105,000 Notes payable 160,000Inventory 293,000 Current liabilities $ 370,000Current assets $ 525,000 Long-term debt 845,000Total liabilities $1,215,300 Tangible net fixed assets 1,620,000Intangible net fixed assets 630,000 Common stock ??Accumulated ret. earnings 1,278,000 Total assets $2,775,000 Total liab. & owners’ equity$2,755,000Total liabilities and owners’ equity is:TL & OE = CL + LTD + Common stock + Retained earningsSolving for this equation for equity gives us:Common stock = $2,755,000 – 1,215,300 – 1,278,000 = $282,00017.The market value of shareholders’ equity cannot be negative. A negative market value in this casewould imply that the company would pay you to own the stock. The market value of shareholders’ equity can be stated as: Shareholders’ equity = Max [(TA – TL), 0]. So, if TA is $7,100, equity is equal to $1,300, and if TA is $5,200, equity is equal to $0. We should note here that the book value of shareholders’ equity can be negative.公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案18. a. Taxes Growth = 0.15($50,000) + 0.25($25,000) + 0.34($1,000) = $14,090Taxes Income = 0.15($50,000) + 0.25($25,000) + 0.34($25,000) + 0.39($235,000)+ 0.34($7,600,000 – 335,000)= $2,584,000b. Each firm has a marginal tax rate of 34% on the next $10,000 of taxable income, despite theirdifferent average tax rates, so both firms will pay an additional $3,400 in taxes.19.Income StatementSales $850,000COGS 610,000A&S expenses 110,000Depreciation 140,000EBIT –$10,000Interest 85,000Taxable income –$95,000Taxes (35%) 0 income –$95,000b.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes = –$10,000 + 140,000 – 0 = $130,000 income was negative because of the tax deductibility of depreciation and interest expense.However, the actual cash flow from operations was positive because depreciation is a non-cash expense and interest is a financing expense, not an operating expense.20. A firm can still pay out dividends if net income is negative; it just has to be sure there is sufficientcash flow to make the dividend payments.Change in NWC = Net capital spending = Net new equity = 0. (Given)Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spendingCash flow from assets = $130,000 – 0 – 0 = $130,000Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equity = $63,000 – 0 = $63,000Cash flow to creditors = Cash flow from assets – Cash flow to stockholdersCash flow to creditors = $130,000 – 63,000 = $67,000Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDNet new LTD = Interest – Cash flow to creditors = $85,000 – 67,000 = $18,00021. a.Income StatementSales $27,360Cost of goods sold 19,260Depreciation 4,860EBIT $ 3,240Interest 2,190Taxable income $ 1,050Taxes (34%) 357Net income $ 693b.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes= $3,240 + 4,860 – 357 = $7,743c.Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg= (CA end– CL end) – (CA beg– CL beg)= ($7,116 – 3,780) – ($5,760 – 3,240)= $3,336 – 2,520 = $816Net capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + Depreciation= $20,160 – 16,380 + 4,860 = $8,640CFA = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending= $7,743 – 816 – 8,640 = –$1,713The cash flow from assets can be positive or negative, since it represents whether the firmraised funds or distributed funds on a net basis. In this problem, even though net income andOCF are positive, the firm invested heavily in both fixed assets and net working capital; ithad to raise a net $1,713 in funds from its stockholders and creditors to make theseinvestments.d.Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTD = $2,190 – 0 = $2,190Cash flow to stockholders = Cash flow from assets – Cash flow to creditors= –$1,713 – 2,190 = –$3,903We can also calculate the cash flow to stockholders as:Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equitySolving for net new equity, we get:Net new equity = $1,560 – (–3,903) = $5,463The firm had positive earnings in an accounting sense (NI > 0) and had positive cash flowfrom operations. The firm invested $816 in new net working capital and $8,640 in new fixedassets. The firm had to raise $1,713 from its stakeholders to support this new investment. Itaccomplished this by raising $5,463 in the form of new equity. After paying out $1,560 ofthis in the form of dividends to shareholders and $2,190 in the form of interest to creditors,$1,713 was left to meet the firm’s cash flow needs for investment.22. a.Total assets 2010 = $914 + 3,767 = $4,681Total liabilities 2010 = $365 + 1,991= $2,356Owners’ equity 2010 = $4,681 – 2,356 = $2,325Total assets 2011 = $990 + 4,536 = $5,526Total liabilities 2011 = $410 + 2,117 = $2,527Owners’ equity 2011 = $5,526 – 2,527 = $2,999b.NWC 2010 = CA10 – CL10 = $914 – 365 = $549NWC 2011 = CA11 – CL11 = $990 – 410 = $580Change in NWC = NWC11 – NWC10 = $580 – 549 = $31公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案c.We can calculate net capital spending as:Net capital spending = Net fixed assets 2011 – Net fixed assets 2010 + DepreciationNet capital spending = $4,536 – 3,767 + 1,033 = $1,802So, the company had a net capital spending cash flow of $1,802. We also know that netcapital spending is:Net capital spending = Fixed assets bought – Fixed assets sold$1,802 = $1,890 – Fixed assets soldFixed assets sold = $1,890 – 1,802 = $88To calculate the cash flow from assets, we must first calculate the operating cash flow. Theincome statement is:Income StatementSales $11,592Costs 5,405Depreciation expense 1,033EBIT $ 5,154Interest expense 294EBT $ 4,860Taxes (35%) 1,701Net income $ 3,159So, the operating cash flow is:OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes = $5,154 + 1,033 – 1,701 = $4,486And the cash flow from assets is:Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending.= $4,486 – 31 – 1,802 = $2,653 new borrowing = LTD11 – LTD10 = $2,117 – 1,991 = $126Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTD = $294 – 126 = $168Net new borrowing = $126 = Debt issued – Debt retiredDebt retired = $378 – 126 = $252Challenge capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + Depreciation= (NFA end– NFA beg) + (Depreciation + AD beg) – AD beg= (NFA end– NFA beg)+ AD end– AD beg= (NFA end + AD end) – (NFA beg + AD beg)= FA end– FA beg24. a.The tax bubble causes average tax rates to catch up to marginal tax rates, thus eliminating thetax advantage of low marginal rates for high income corporations.b.Taxes = 0.15($50,000) + 0.25($25,000) + 0.34($25,000) + 0.39($235,000) = $113,900Average tax rate = $113,900 / $335,000 = 34%The marginal tax rate on the next dollar of income is 34 percent.For corporate taxable income levels of $335,000 to $10 million, average tax rates are equal tomarginal tax rates.Taxes = 0.34($10,000,000) + 0.35($5,000,000) + 0.38($3,333,333)= $6,416,667Average tax rate = $6,416,667 / $18,333,333 = 35%The marginal tax rate on the next dollar of income is 35 percent. For corporate taxableincome levels over $18,333,334, average tax rates are again equal to marginal tax rates.c.Taxes = 0.34($200,000) = $68,000$68,000 = 0.15($50,000) + 0.25($25,000) + 0.34($25,000) + X($100,000);X($100,000) = $68,000 – 22,250X = $45,750 / $100,000X = 45.75%25.Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2010Cash $ 6,067 Accounts payable $ 4,384Accounts receivable 8,034 Notes payable 1,171Inventory 14,283 Current liabilities $ 5,555Current assets $28,384Long-term debt $20,320 Net fixed assets $50,888 Owners' equity $53,397Total assets $79,272 Total liab. & equity $79,272Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2011Cash $ 6,466 Accounts payable $ 4,644Accounts receivable 9,427 Notes payable 1,147Inventory 15,288 Current liabilities $ 5,791Current assets $31,181Long-term debt $24,636 Net fixed assets $54,273 Owners' equity $55,027Total assets $85,454 Total liab. & equity $85,454公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案2010 Income Statement 2011 Income Statement Sales $11,573.00Sales $12,936.00 COGS 3,979.00COGS 4,707.00 Other expenses 946.00Other expenses 824.00 Depreciation 1,661.00Depreciation 1,736.00 EBIT $ 4,987.00EBIT $ 5,669.00 Interest 776.00Interest 926.00 EBT $ 4,211.00EBT $ 4,743.00 Taxes (34%) 1,431.74Taxes (34%) 1,612.62 Net income $ 2,779.26Net income $ 3,130.38 Dividends $1,411.00Dividends $1,618.00 Additions to RE 1,368.26Additions to RE 1,512.3826.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes = $5,669 + 1,736 – 1,612.62 = $5,792.38Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg = (CA – CL) end– (CA – CL) beg= ($31,181 – 5,791) – ($28,384 – 5,555)= $2,561Net capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg+ Depreciation= $54,273 – 50,888 + 1,736 = $5,121Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending= $5,792.38 – 2,561 – 5,121 = –$1,889.62Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDNet new LTD = LTD end– LTD begCash flow to creditors = $926 – ($24,636 – 20,320) = –$3,390Net new equity = Common stock end– Common stock begCommon stock + Retained earnings = Tota l owners’ equityNet new equity = (OE – RE) end– (OE – RE) beg= OE end– OE beg + RE beg– RE endRE end= RE beg+ Additions to RE08Net new equity = OE end– OE beg+ RE beg– (RE beg + Additions to RE11)= OE end– OE beg– Additions to RENet new equity = $55,027 – 53,397 – 1,512.38 = $117.62CFS = Dividends – Net new equityCFS = $1,618 – 117.62 = $1,500.38As a check, cash flow from assets is –$1,889.62.CFA = Cash flow from creditors + Cash flow to stockholdersCFA = –$3,390 + 1,500.38 = –$1,889.62公司理财英文版第10版课后习题答案CHAPTER 3WORKING WITH FINANCIAL STATEMENTSAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. a.If inventory is purchased with cash, then there is no change in the current ratio. If inventory ispurchased on credit, then there is a decrease in the current ratio if it was initially greater than 1.0.b.Reducing accounts payable with cash increases the current ratio if it was initially greater than 1.0.c.Reducing short-term debt with cash increases the current ratio if it was initially greater than 1.0.d.As long-term debt approaches maturity, the principal repayment and the remaining interestexpense become current liabilities. Thus, if debt is paid off with cash, the current ratio increases if it was initially greater than 1.0. If the debt has not yet become a current liability, then paying it off will reduce the current ratio since current liabilities are not affected.e.Reduction of accounts receivables and an increase in cash leaves the current ratio unchanged.f.Inventory sold at cost reduces inventory and raises cash, so the current ratio is unchanged.g. Inventory sold for a profit raises cash in excess of the inventory recorded at cost, so the currentratio increases.2.The firm has increased inventory relative to other current assets; therefore, assuming current liabilitylevels remain unchanged, liquidity has potentially decreased.3. A current ratio of 0.50 means that the firm has twice as much in current liabilities as it does incurrent assets; the firm potentially has poor liquidity. If pressed by its short-term creditors and suppliers for immediate payment, the firm might have a difficult time meeting its obligations. A current ratio of 1.50 means the firm has 50% more current assets than it does current liabilities. This probably represents an improvement in liquidity; short-term obligations can generally be met completely with a safety factor built in. A current ratio of 15.0, however, might be excessive. Any excess funds sitting in current assets generally earn little or no return. These excess funds might be put to better use by investing in productive long-term assets or distributing the funds to shareholders.4. a.Quick ratio provides a measure of the short-term liquidity of the firm, after removing the effectsof inventory, generally the least liquid of the firm’s current assets.b.Cash ratio represents the ability of the firm to completely pay off its current liabilities with itsmost liquid asset (cash).c.Total asset turnover measures how much in sales is generated by each dollar of firm assets.d.Equity multiplier represents the degree of leverage for an equity investor of the firm; it measuresthe dollar worth of firm assets each equity dollar has a claim to.e.Long-term debt ratio measures the percentage of total firm capitalization funded by long-termdebt.。