最新国际财务6章习题第四组知识分享
国际财务管理6章习题第四组分析
导致购买力平价偏离的因素
购买力平价是用的两国的价格水平的对比。以下几个因素可能导致购买力平 价的偏离: 1、两国的价格水平变动,通货膨胀率的变动 2、各国不同的经济增长水平。(因为这是可以用价格的衡量,即能为市场 力量控制) 3、贸易壁垒和非贸易因素 4、交易费用。例如国际经济交易存在的信息及运输费用 5、文化因素。例如每个国家的人都有不同的消费观念和侧重点。 但是这种偏离是暂时的,最终汇率会回归购买力平价的均衡汇率。
5.讨论购买力平价偏离对于一国在世界市场上竞争
地位的意义。
如果购买力平价成立,那么各国间的通货膨胀 率差异就会因汇率的变动而抵消,各国在世界 出口市场上的竞争地位也不会受汇率变动的系 统影响。 但如果购买力平价发生偏离,那么名义汇率的 变动会引起实际汇率的变动,从而影响各国的 国际竞争地位。
如果本国的通货膨胀超过了国外的通货膨胀,且 名义汇率未能贬值到以补偿本国较高的通货膨 胀率的程度,那么实际汇率会上升。 如果实际汇率上升(下降),那么本国竞争力削 弱(增强)。 实际汇率为q , 当q=1时,购买力平价成立 本国竞争力不变 当q<1时,购买力平价不成立 本国竞争力增强; q>1时,本国竞争力消弱
相对购买力平价: (弥补了绝对购买力平价一些不足的方面。)它的主要观点可以简单 地表述为,两国货币的汇率水平将根据两国通胀率的差异而进行相应 地调整。它表明两国间的相对通货膨胀决定两种货币间的均衡汇率。 同时,它也强调,基期与远期之间的通货膨胀率差别必须等同于这个 期限内汇率的差别。若用e表示汇率变化率,π表示本国通货膨胀率π* 表示外国通货膨胀率,所以 e=π-π*。如果不一致,就会出现套利情 况,直到汇率调整到两者一致为止。
国际财务管理课后习题答案第六章(供参考)
CHAPTER 6 INTERNATIONAL PARITY RELATIONSHIPSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Give a full definition of arbitrage.Answer:Arbitrage can be defined as the act of simultaneously buying and selling the same or equivalent assets or commodities for the purpose of making certain, guaranteed profits.2. Discuss the implications of the interest rate parity for the exchange rate determination.Answer: Assuming that the forward exchange rate is roughly an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate, IRP can be written as:S = [(1 + I£)/(1 + I$)]E[S t+1 I t].The exchange rate is thus determined by the relative interest rates, and the expected future spot rate, conditional on all the available information, I t, as of the present time. One thus can say that expectation is self-fulfilling. Since the information set will be continuously updated as news hit the market, the exchange rate will exhibit a highly dynamic, random behavior.3. Explain the conditions under which the forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.Answer: The forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate if (I) the risk premium is insignificant and (ii) foreign exchange markets are informationally efficient.4. Explain the purchasing power parity, both the absolute and relative versions. What causes the deviations from the purchasing power parity?Answer: The absolute version of purchasing power parity (PPP):S = P$/P£.The relative version is:e = π$ - π£.PPP can be violated if there are barriers to international trade or if people in different countries have different consumption taste. PPP is the law of one price applied to a standard consumption basket.8. Explain the random walk model for exchange rate forecasting. Can it be consistent with the technical analysis?Answer: The random walk model predicts that the current exchange rate will be the best predictor of the future exchange rate. An implication of the model is that past history of the exchange rate is of no value in predicting future exchange rate. The model thus is inconsistent with the technical analysis which tries to utilize past history in predicting the future exchange rate.*9. Derive and explain the monetary approach to exchange rate determination.Answer: The monetary approach is associated with the Chicago School of Economics. It is based on two tenets: purchasing power parity and the quantity theory of money. Combing these two theories allows for stating, say, the $/£ spot exchange rate as:S($/£) = (M$/M£)(V$/V£)(y£/y$),where M denotes the money supply, V the velocity of money, and y the national aggregate output. The theory holds that what matters in exchange rate determination are:1. The relative money supply,2. The relative velocities of monies, and3. The relative national outputs.10. CFA question: 1997, Level 3.A.Explain the following three concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP):a. The law of one price.b. Absolute PPP.c. Relative PPP.B.Evaluate the usefulness of relative PPP in predicting movements in foreign exchange rates on:a.Short-term basis (for example, three months)b.Long-term basis (for example, six years)Answer:A. a. The law of one price (LOP) refers to the international arbitrage condition for the standardconsumption basket. LOP requires that the consumption basket should be selling for the same price ina given currency across countries.A. b. Absolute PPP holds that the price level in a country is equal to the price level in another countrytimes the exchange rate between the two countries.A. c. Relative PPP holds that the rate of exchange rate change between a pair of countries is aboutequalto the difference in inflation rates of the two countries.B. a. PPP is not useful for predicting exchange rates on the short-term basis mainly becauseinternational commodity arbitrage is a time-consuming process.B. b. PPP is useful for predicting exchange rates on the long-term basis.PROBLEMS1. Suppose that the treasurer of IBM has an extra cash reserve of $100,000,000 to invest for six months. The six-month interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the United States and 6 percent per annum in Germany. Currently, the spot exchange rate is €1.01 per dollar and the six-month forward exchange rate is €0.99 per dollar. The treasurer of IBM does not wish to bear any exchange risk. Where should he/she invest to maximize the return?The market conditions are summarized as follows:I$ = 4%; i€= 3.5%; S = €1.01/$; F = €0.99/$.If $100,000,000 is invested in the U.S., the maturity value in six months will be$104,000,000 = $100,000,000 (1 + .04).Alternatively, $100,000,000 can be converted into euros and invested at the German interest rate, with the euro maturity value sold forward. In this case the dollar maturity value will be$105,590,909 = ($100,000,000 x 1.01)(1 + .035)(1/0.99)Clearly, it is better to invest $100,000,000 in Germany with exchange risk hedging.2. While you were visiting London, you purchased a Jaguar for £35,000, payable in three months. You have enough cash at your bank in New York City, which pays 0.35% interest per month, compounding monthly, to pay for the car. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.45/£and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.40/£. In London, the money market interest rate is 2.0% for a three-month investment. There are two alternative ways of paying for your Jaguar.(a) Keep the funds at your bank in the U.S. and buy £35,000 forward.(b) Buy a certain pound amount spot today and invest the amount in the U.K. for three months so that the maturity value becomes equal to £35,000.Evaluate each payment method. Which method would you prefer? Why?Solution: The problem situation is summarized as follows:A/P = £35,000 payable in three monthsi NY = 0.35%/month, compounding monthlyi LD = 2.0% for three monthsS = $1.45/£; F = $1.40/£.Option a:When you buy £35,000 forward, you will need $49,000 in three months to fulfill the forward contract. The present value of $49,000 is computed as follows:$49,000/(1.0035)3 = $48,489.Thus, the cost of Jaguar as of today is $48,489.Option b:The present value of £35,000 is £34,314 = £35,000/(1.02). To buy £34,314 today, it will cost $49,755 = 34,314x1.45. Thus the cost of Jaguar as of today is $49,755.You should definitely choose to use “option a”, and save $1,266, which is the diff erence between $49,755 and $48489.3. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.50/£ and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.52/£. The three-month interest rate is 8.0% per annum in the U.S. and 5.8% per annum in the U.K. Assume that you can borrow as much as $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. Determine whether the interest rate parity is currently holding.b. If the IRP is not holding, how would you carry out covered interest arbitrage? Show all the steps and determine the arbitrage profit.c. Explain how the IRP will be restored as a result of covered arbitrage activities.Solution: Let’s summarize the given data first:S = $1.5/£; F = $1.52/£; I$ = 2.0%; I£ = 1.45%Credit = $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. (1+I$) = 1.02(1+I£)(F/S) = (1.0145)(1.52/1.50) = 1.0280Thus, IRP is not holding exactly.b. (1) Borrow $1,500,000; repayment will be $1,530,000.(2) Buy £1,000,000 spot using $1,500,000.(3) Invest £1,000,000 at the pound interest rate of 1.45%;maturity value will be £1,014,500.(4) Sell £1,014,500 forward for $1,542,040Arbitrage profit will be $12,040c. Following the arbitrage transactions described above,The dollar interest rate will rise;The pound interest rate will fall;The spot exchange rate will rise;The forward exchange rate will fall.These adjustments will continue until IRP holds.4. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €0.80/$ and the three-month forward exchange rate is €0.7813/$. The three-month interest rate is5.6 percent per annum in the United States and 5.40 percent per annum in France. Assume that you can borrow up to $1,000,000 or €800,000.a. Show how to realize a certain profit via covered interest arbitrage, assuming that you want to realize profit in terms of U.S. dollars. Also determine the size of your arbitrage profit.b. Assume that you want to realize profit in terms of euros. Show the covered arbitrage process and determine the arbitrage profit in euros.Solution:a.(1+ i $) = 1.014 < (F/S) (1+ i € ) = 1.053. Thus, one has to borrow dollars and invest in euros tomake arbitrage profit.1.Borrow $1,000,000 and repay $1,014,000 in three months.2.Sell $1,000,000 spot for €1,060,000.3.Invest €1,060,000 at the euro interest rate of 1.35 % for three months and receive €1,074,310 atmaturity.4.Sell €1,074,310 forward for $1,053,245.Arbitrage profit = $1,053,245 - $1,014,000 = $39,245.b.Follow the first three steps above. But the last step, involving exchange risk hedging, will bedifferent.5.Buy $1,014,000 forward for €1,034,280.Arbitrage profit = €1,074,310 - €1,034,280 = €40,0305. In the issue of October 23, 1999, the Economist reports that the interest rate per annum is 5.93% in the United States and 70.0% in Turkey. Why do you think the interest rate is so high in Turkey? Based on the reported interest rates, how would you predict the change of the exchange rate between the U.S. dollarand the Turkish lira?Solution: A high Turkish interest rate must reflect a high expected inflation in Turkey. According to international Fisher effect (IFE), we haveE(e) = i$ - i Lira= 5.93% - 70.0% = -64.07%The Turkish lira thus is expected to depreciate against the U.S. dollar by about 64%.6. As of November 1, 1999, the exchange rate between the Brazilian real and U.S. dollar is R$1.95/$. The consensus forecast for the U.S. and Brazil inflation rates for the next 1-year period is 2.6% and 20.0%, respectively. How would you forecast the exchange rate to be at around November 1, 2000?Solution: Since the inflation rate is quite high in Brazil, we may use the purchasing power parity to forecast the exchange rate.E(e) = E(π$) - E(πR$)= 2.6% - 20.0%= -17.4%E(S T) = S o(1 + E(e))= (R$1.95/$) (1 + 0.174)= R$2.29/$7. (CFA question) Omni Advisors, an international pension fund manager, uses the concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP) and the International Fisher Effect (IFE) to forecast spot exchange rates. Omni gathers the financial information as follows:Base price level 100Current U.S. price level 105Current South African price level 111Base rand spot exchange rate $0.175Current rand spot exchange rate $0.158Expected annual U.S. inflation 7%Expected annual South African inflation 5%Expected U.S. one-year interest rate 10%Expected South African one-year interest rate 8%Calculate the following exchange rates (ZAR and USD refer to the South African and U.S. dollar, respectively).a. The current ZAR spot rate in USD that would have been forecast by PPP.b. Using the IFE, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD one year from now.c. Using PPP, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD four years from now.Solution:a. ZAR spot rate under PPP = [1.05/1.11](0.175) = $0.1655/rand.b. Expected ZAR spot rate = [1.10/1.08] (0.158) = $0.1609/rand.c. Expected ZAR under PPP = [(1.07)4/(1.05)4] (0.158) = $0.1704/rand.8. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €1.50/₤ and the one-year forward exchange rate is €1.60/₤. The one-year interest rate is 5.4% in euros and 5.2% in pounds. You can borrow at most €1,000,000 or the equivalent pound amount, i.e., ₤666,667, at the current spot exchange rate.a.Show how you can realize a guaranteed profit from covered interest arbitrage. Assume that you are aeuro-based investor. Also determine the size of the arbitrage profit.b.Discuss how the interest rate parity may be restored as a result of the abovetransactions.c.Suppose you are a pound-based investor. Show the covered arbitrage process anddetermine the pound profit amount.Solution:a. First, note that (1+i €) = 1.054 is less than (F/S)(1+i €) = (1.60/1.50)(1.052) = 1.1221.You should thus borrow in euros and lend in pounds.1)Borrow €1,000,000 and promise to repay €1,054,000 in one year.2)Buy ₤666,667 spot for €1,000,000.3)Invest ₤666,667 at the pound interest rate of 5.2%; the maturity value will be ₤701,334.4)To hedge exchange risk, sell the maturity value ₤701,334 forward in exchange for €1,122,134.The arbitrage profit will be the difference between €1,122,134 and €1,054,000, i.e., €68,134.b. As a result of the above arbitrage transactions, the euro interest rate will rise, the poundinterest rate will fall. In addition, the spot exchange rate (euros per pound) will rise and the forward rate will fall. These adjustments will continue until the interest rate parity is restored.c. The pound-based investor will carry out the same transactions 1), 2), and 3) in a. But to hedge, he/she will bu y €1,054,000 forward in exchange for ₤658,750. The arbitrage profit will then be ₤42,584 = ₤701,334 - ₤658,750.9. Due to the integrated nature of their capital markets, investors in both the U.S. and U.K. require the same real interest rate, 2.5%, on their lending. There is a consensus in capital markets that the annual inflation rate is likely to be 3.5% in the U.S. and 1.5% in the U.K. for the next three years. The spot exchange rate is currently $1.50/£.pute the nominal interest rate per annum in both the U.S. and U.K., assuming that the Fishereffect holds.b.What is your expected future spot dollar-pound exchange rate in three years from now?c.Can you infer the forward dollar-pound exchange rate for one-year maturity?Solution.a. Nominal ra te in US = (1+ρ) (1+E(π$)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.035) – 1 = 0.0609 or 6.09%.Nominal rate in UK= (1+ρ) (1+E(π₤)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.015) – 1 = 0.0404 or 4.04%.b. E(S T) = [(1.0609)3/(1.0404)3] (1.50) = $1.5904/₤.c. F = [1.0609/1.0404](1.50) = $1.5296/₤.Mini Case: Turkish Lira and the Purchasing Power ParityVeritas Emerging Market Fund specializes in investing in emerging stock markets of the world. Mr. Henry Mobaus, an experienced hand in international investment and your boss, is currently interested in Turkish stock markets. He thinks that Turkey will eventually be invited to negotiate its membership in the European Union. If this happens, it will boost the stock prices in Turkey. But, at the same time, he is quite concerned with the volatile exchange rates of the Turkish currency. He would like to understand what drives the Turkish exchange rates. Since the inflation rate is much higher in Turkey than in the U.S., he thinks that the purchasing power parity may be holding at least to some extent. As a research assistant for him, you were assigned to check this out. In other words, you have to study and prepare a report on the following question: Does the purchasing power parity hold for the Turkish lira-U.S. dollar exchange rate? Among other things, Mr. Mobaus would like you to do the following:Plot the past exchange rate changes against the differential inflation rates betweenTurkey and the U.S. for the last four years.Regress the rate of exchange rate changes on the inflation rate differential to estimatethe intercept and the slope coefficient, and interpret the regression results.Data source: You may download the consumer price index data for the U.S. and Turkey from the following website: , “hot file” (Excel format) . You may download the exchange rate data from the website: merce.ubc.ca/xr/data.html.Solution:a. In the current solution, we use the monthly data from January 1999 – December 2002.b. We regress exchange rate changes (e) on the inflation rate differential and estimate theintercept (α ) and slope coefficient (β):3.095) (t 1.472βˆ0.649)- (t 0.011αˆε Inf_US) -Inf_Turkey (βˆαˆ e tt ===-=++=The estimated intercept is insignificantly different from zero, whereas the slope coefficient is positive and significantly different from zero. In fact, the slope coefficient is insignificantly different from unity. [Note that t-statistics for β = 1 is 0.992 = (1.472 – 1)/0.476 where s.e. is 0.476] In other words, we cannot reject the hypothesis that the intercept is zero and the slope coefficient is one. The results are thus supportive of purchasing power parity.5. Discuss the implications of the deviations from the purchasing power parity for countries’ competitive positions in the world market.Answer: If exchange rate changes satisfy PPP, competitive positions of countries will remain unaffected following exchange rate changes. Otherwise, exchange rate changes will affect relative competitiveness of countries. If a country’s currency appreciates (depre ciates) by more than is warranted by PPP, that will hurt (strengthen) the country’s competitive position in the world market.6. Explain and derive the international Fisher effect.Answer: The international Fisher effect can be obtained by combining the Fisher effect and the relative version of PPP in its expectational form. Specifically, the Fisher effect holds thatE(π$) = I$ - ρ$,E(π£) = I£ - ρ£.Assuming that the real interest rate is the same between the two countries, i.e., ρ$ = ρ£, and substituting the above results into the PPP, i.e., E(e) = E(π$)- E(π£), we obtain the international Fisher effect: E(e) = I$ - I£.7. Researchers found that it is very difficult to forecast the future exchange rates more accurately than the forward exchange rate or the current spot exchange rate. How would you interpret this finding?Answer: This implies that exchange markets are informationally efficient. Thus, unless one has private information that is not yet reflected in the current market rates, it would be difficult to beat the market.。
财务管理学第六章课后重点题答案
第六章1 三通公司拟发行5年期,利率6%,面额1000元债券一批;预计发行总价格为550万元,发行费用率为2%;公司所得税税率为33%。
要求:试测算该批债券的资本成本率。
2 四方公司拟发行优先股50万股,发行总价150万元,预计年股利率8%,发行费用6万元。
要求:试测算该批优先股的资本成本率。
3 五虎公司普通股现行市价为每股20元,现准备增发8万股新股,预计发行费用率5%,第一年每股股利1元,以后每年股利增长率为5%. 要求:试测算本次增发普通股的资本成本率。
4 六郎公司年度销售净额为28000万元,息税前利润为8000万元,固定成本为3200万元,变动成本率60%;资本总额为20000万元,其中债务资本比例占40%,平均年利率8%。
要求:试分别计算该公司的营业杠杆系数、财务杠杆系数和联合杠杆系数。
筹资方式筹资方案甲 方案乙筹资额(万元)个别资本成本率(%) 筹资额(万元)个别资本成本率(%)长期借款 800 7。
0 1100 7。
5公司债券 1200 8。
5 400 8。
0普通股 3000 14。
0 3500 14。
0合计 5000 - 5000 —解: 甲:长期借款资本比例=800/5000=0.16公司债券资本比例=1200/5000=0。
24 普通股资本比例=3000/5000=0.6测算综合资本成本率:Kw=7%*0。
16+8.5%*0.24+14%*0.6=11。
56% 乙:长期借款资本比例=1100/5000=0。
22 公司债券资本比例=400/5000=0。
08 普通股资本比例=3500/5000=0。
7 Kw=7。
5%*0.22+8%*0。
08+14%*0.7=12。
09% 由以上计算可知,甲、乙两个筹资方案的综合资本成本率分别为11.56%、12.09%, 可知,甲的综合资本成本率低于乙,因此选择甲筹资方案5八发公司2005年长期资本总额为1亿元,其中普通股6000万元(240万股),长期债务4000万元,利率10%。
西方财务会计第六章答案
西方财务会计第六章答案chapter 6 Accounting for merchandising businessesClass Discussion Questions1. Mercha ndising businesses acquire merchandise for resale to customers. It is the selling ofmerchandise, instead of a service, that makes the activities of a merchandising business dif-ferent from the activities of a service business.2. Yes. Gross profit is the excess of (net) sales over cost of merchandise sold. A net loss ariseswhen operating expenses exceed gross profit. Therefore, a business can earn a gross profit but incur operating expenses in excess of this gross profit and end up with a net loss.3. a. Incr ease c. Decreaseb. Increase d. Decrease4. U nder the periodic method, the inventory records do not show the amount available for saleor the amount sold during the period. In contrast, under the perpetual method of accounting for merchandise inventory, each purchase and sale of merchandise is recorded in the invento-ry and the cost of merchandise sold accounts. As a result, the amount of merchandise availa-ble for sale and the amount sold are continuously (perpetually) disclosed in the inventory records.5. The multiple-step form of income statement contains conventional groupings for revenuesand expenses, with intermediate balances, before concluding with the net income balance. In the single-step form, the total of all expenses is deducted from the total of all revenues, with-out intermediate balances.6. The major advantages of the single-step form of income statement are its simplicity and itsemphasis on total revenues and total expenses as the determinants of net income. The major objection to the form is that such relationships as gross profit to sales and income from opera-tions to sales are not as readily determinable as when the multiple-step form is used.7. a. 2% discount allowed if paid within ten days of date of invoice; entire amount of invoicedue within 60 days of date of invoice.b. Payment due within 30 days of date of invoice.c. Payment due by the end of the month in which the sale was made.8. a. A credit memorandum issued by the seller of merchandise indicates the amount for whichthe buyer's account is to be credited (credit to Accounts Receivable) and the reason for the sales return or allowance.b. A debit memorandum issued by the buyer of merchandise indicates the amount for whichthe seller's account is to be debited (debit to Accounts Payable) and the reason for the purchases return or allowance.9. a. The buyerb. The seller10. E xamples of such accounts include the following: Sales, Sales Discounts, Sales Returns andAllowances, Cost of Merchandise Sold, Merchandise Inventory.Ex. 6–1a. $490,000 ($250,000 + $975,000 – $735,000)b.40% ($490,000 ÷ $1,225,000)c. No. If operating expenses are less than gross profit, there will be a net income. On the otherhand, if operating expenses exceed gross profit, there will be a net loss.Ex. 6–2 : $15,710 million ( $20,946 million – $5,236 million ) Ex. 6–3a. Purchases discounts, purchases returns and allowancesb. Transportation in;c. Merchandise available for saled. Merchandise inventory (ending)Ex. 6–41. The schedule should begin with the January 1, not the December 31, merchandise inventory.2. Purchases returns and allowances and purchases discounts should be deducted from (notadded to) purchases.3. The result of subtracting purchases returns and allowances and purchases discounts frompur chases should be labeled ―net purchases.‖4. Transportation in should be added to net purchases to yield cost of merchandise purchased.5. The merchandise inventory at December 31 should be deducted from merchandise availablefor sale to yield cost of merchandise sold.A correct cost of merchandise sold section is as follows:Cost of merchandise sold:Merchandise inventory, January 1, 2006 ........ $132,000 Purchases ........................................................... $600,000Less: Purchases returns and allowances$14,000Purchases discounts .............................. 6,000 20,000 Netpurchases ..................................................... $580,000Add transportation in ....................................... 7,500Cost of merchandise purchased ................. 587,500 Merchandise available for sale ......................... $719,500 Less merchandise inventory,December 31, 2006....................................... 120,000 Cost of merchandise sold .................................. $599,500 Ex. 6–5 Net sales: $3,010,000 ( $3,570,000 – $320,000 – $240,000 ) Gross profit: $868,000 ( $3,010,000 – $2,142,000 )Ex. 6–6THE MERIDEN COMPANYIncome StatementFor the Year Ended June 30, 2006Revenues:Net sales ................................................................................. $5,400,000Rent revenue ......................................................................... 30,000Total revenues................................................................... $5,430,000 Expenses:Cost of merchandise sold ..................................................... $3,240,000Selling expenses .................................................................... 480,000 Administrative expenses ...................................................... 300,000 Interest expense .................................................................... 47,500 Total expenses ................................................................... 4,067,500 Net income ..................................................................................... $1,362,500Ex. 6–71. Sales returns and allowances and sales discounts should be deducted from (not added to)sales.2. Sales returns and allowances and sales discounts should be deducted from sales to yield "netsales" (not gross sales).3. Deducting the cost of merchandise sold from net sales yields gross profit.4. Deducting the total operating expenses from gross profit would yield income from operations(or operating income).5. Interest revenue should be reported under the caption ―Other income‖ and should be addedto Income from operations to arrive at Net income.6. The final amount on the income statement should be labeled Net income, not Gross profit.A correct income statement would be as follows:THE PLAUTUS COMPANYIncome StatementFor the Year Ended October 31, 2006Revenue from sales:Sales .................................................................... $4,200,000Less: Sales returns and allowances ............... $81,200Sales discounts ....................................... 20,300 101,500Net sales ........................................................ $4,098,500 Cost of merchandise sold ........................................ 2,093,000 Gross profit .............................................................. $2,005,500 Operating expenses:Selling expenses ................................................. $ 203,000Transportation out ............................................ 7,500Administrative expenses ................................... 122,000Total operating expenses ............................ 332,500 Incomefrom operations .......................................... $1,673,000 Other income: Interest revenue ................................................. 66,500Net income ................................................................ $1,739,500 Ex. 6–8a. $25,000 c. $477,000 e. $40,000 g. $757,500b. $210,000 d. $192,000 f. $520,000 h. $690,000Ex. 6–9a. Cash ......................................................................................... 6,900Sales ................................................................................... 6,900 Cost of Merchandise Sold ...................................................... 4,830 Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 4,830b. Accounts Receivable ............................................................... 7,500Sales ................................................................................... 7,500 Cost of Merchandise Sold ...................................................... 5,625 Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 5,625c. Cash ......................................................................................... 10,200Sales ................................................................................... 10,200 Cost of Merchandise Sold ...................................................... 6,630 Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 6,630d. Accounts Receivable—American Express ........................... 7,200Sales ................................................................................... 7,200 Cost of Merchandise Sold ...................................................... 5,040 Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 5,040e. Credit Card Expense (675)Cash (675)f. Cash ......................................................................................... 6,875Credit Card Expense (325)Accounts Receivable—American Express ..................... 7,200Ex. 6–10It was acceptable to debit Sales for the $235,750. However, using Sales Returns and Allow-ances assists management in monitoring the amount of returns so that quick action can be taken if returns become excessive.Accounts Receivable should also have been credited for $235,750. In addition, Cost of Mer-chandise Sold should only have been credited for the cost of the merchandise sold, not the selling price. Merchandise Inventory should also have been debited for the cost of the merchandise re-turned. The entries to correctly record the returns would have been as follows: Sales (or Sales Returns and Allowances) ............................. 235,750 Accounts Receivable ......................................................... 235,750 Merchandise Inventory .......................................................... 141,450 Cost of Merchandise Sold ................................................ 141,450 Ex. 6–11a. $7,350 [$7,500 –$150 ($7,500 × 2%)]b. Sales Returns and Allowances .............................................. 7,500Sales Discounts (150)Cash ................................................................................... 7,350Merchandise Inventory .......................................................... 4,500 Cost of Merchandise Sold ................................................ 4,500Ex. 6–12(1) Sold merchandise on account, $12,000.(2) Recorded the cost of the merchandise sold and reduced the merchandise inventory account,$7,800.(3) Accepted a return of merchandise and granted an allowance, $2,500.(4) Updated the merchandise inventory account for the cost of the merchandise returned,$1,625.(5) Received the balance due within the discount period, $9,405. [Sale of $12,000, less return of$2,500, l ess discount of $95 (1% × $9,500).]Ex. 6–13a. $18,000b. $18,375c. $540 (3% × $18,000)d. $17,835Ex. 6–14a. $7,546 [Purchase of $8,500, less return of $800, less discount of $154 ($7,700 × 2%)]b. Merchandise InventoryEx. 6–15Offer A is lower than offer B. Details are as follows:A BList price ............................................................................... $40,000 $40,300Less discount ......................................................................... 800 403 $39,200 $39,897 Transportation (625)$39,825 $39,897Ex. 6–16(1) Purchased merchandise on account at a net cost of $8,000.(2) Paid transportation costs, $175.(3) An allowance or return of merchandise was granted by the creditor, $1,000.(4) Paid the balance due within the discount period: debited Accounts Payable, $7,000, and cre-dited Merchandise Inventory for the amount of the discount, $140, and Cash, $6,860.Ex. 6–17a. Merchandise Inventory .......................................................... 7,500Accounts Payable ............................................................. 7,500b. Accounts Payable ................................................................... 1,200Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 1,200c. Accounts Payable ................................................................... 6,300Cash ................................................................................... 6,174Merchandise Inventory (126)a. Merchandise Inventory .......................................................... 12,000Accounts Payable—Loew Co. ......................................... 12,000b. Accounts Payable—Loew Co. ............................................... 12,000Cash ................................................................................... 11,760Merchandise Inventory (240)c. Accounts Payable*—Loew Co. ............................................. 2,940Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 2,940d. Merchandise Inventory .......................................................... 2,000Accounts Payable—Loew Co. ......................................... 2,000e. Cash (940)Accounts Payable—Loew Co. (940)*Note: The debit of $2,940 to Accounts Payable in entry (c) is the amount of cash refund due from Loew Co. It is computed as the amount that was paid for the returned merchandise, $3,000, less the purchase discount of $60 ($3,000 × 2%). The credit toAccounts Payable of $2,000 in en-try (d) reduces the debit balance in the account to $940, which is the amount of the cash refund in entry (e). The alternative entries below yield the same final results.c. Accounts Receivable—Loew Co. .......................................... 2,940Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 2,940d. Merchandise Inventory .......................................................... 2,000Accounts Payable—Loew Co. ......................................... 2,000e. Cash (940)Accounts Payable—Loew Co. ............................................... 2,000 Accounts Receivable—Loew Co. .................................... 2,940Ex. 6–19a. $10,500b. $4,160 [($4,500 – $500) ? 0.99] + $200c. $4,900d. $3,960e. $834 [($1,500 – $700) ? 0.98] + $50Ex. 6–20a. At the time of sale c. $4,280b. $4,000 d. Sales Tax PayableEx. 6–21a. Accounts Receivable ............................................................... 9,720Sales ................................................................................... 9,000Sales Tax Payable (720)Cost of Merchandise Sold ...................................................... 6,300 Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 6,300b. Sales Tax Payable ................................................................... 9,175Cash ................................................................................... 9,175a. Accounts Receivable—Beta Co. ........................................... 11,500Sales ................................................................................... 11,500 Cost of Merchandise Sold ...................................................... 6,900 Merchandise Inventory .................................................... 6,900b. Sales Returns and Allowances (900)Accounts Receivable—Beta Co. (900)Merchandise Inventory (540)Cost of Merchandise Sold (540)c. Cash ......................................................................................... 10,388Sales Discounts (212)Accounts Receivable—Beta Co. ...................................... 10,600 Ex. 6–23a. Merchandise Inventory .......................................................... 11,500Accounts Payable—Superior Co. ................................... 11,500b. Accounts Payable—Superior Co. (900)Merchandise Inventory (900)c. Accounts Payable—Superior Co. ......................................... 10,600Cash ................................................................................... 10,388Merchandise Inventory (212)Ex. 6–24a. debit c. credit e. debitb. debit d. debit f. debitEx. 6–25(b) Cost of Merchandise Sold (d) Sales (e)Sales Discounts(f) Sales Returns and Allowances (g) Salaries Expense (j) Supplies ExpenseEx. 6–26a. 2003: 2.07 [$58,247,000,000 ÷ ($30,011,000,000 + $26,394,000,000)/2]2002: 2.24 [$53,553,000,000 ÷ ($26,394,000,000 + $21,385,000,000)/2]b.These analyses indicate a decrease in the effectiveness in the use of the assets to generateprofits. This decrease is probably due to the slowdown in the U.S. economy during 2002–2003. However, a comparison with similar companies or industry averages would be helpful in making a more definitive statement on the effectiveness of the use of the assets.Ex. 6–27a. 4.13 [$12,334,353,000 ÷ ($2,937,578,000 + $3,041,670,000)/2]b. Although Winn-Dixie and Zales are both retail stores, Zales sells jewelry at a much slowervelocity than Winn-Dixie sells groceries. Thus, Winn-Dixie is able to generate $4.13 of sales for every dollar of assets. Zales, however, is only able to generate $1.53 in sales per dollar of assets. This makes sense when one considers the sales rate for jewelry and the relative cost of holding jewelry inventory, relative to groceries. Fortunately, Zales is able to counter its slow sales velocity, relative to groceries, with higher gross profits, relative to groceries. Appendix 1—Ex. 6–28a. and c.SALES JOURNALCost of MerchandiseSold Dr.Invoice Post.Accts. Rec. Dr. MerchandiseDate No. Account Debited Ref.Sales Cr. Inventory Cr.2006Aug. 3 80 Adrienne Richt ................... ?12,000 4,0008 81 K. Smith .............................. ?10,000 5,50019 82 L. Lao .................................. ?9,000 4,00026 83 Cheryl Pugh ........................ ?14,000 6,50045,000 20,000b. andc.PURCHASES JOURNALAccounts Merchandise OtherPost Payable Inventory Accounts Post.Date Account Credited Ref.Cr. Dr. Dr. Ref. Amount2006Aug. 10 Draco Rug Importers ................. ?8,000 8,00012 Draco Rug Importers ................. ?3,500 3,50021 Draco Rug Importers ................. ?19,500 19,50031,000 31,000d.Merchandise inventory, August 1 ............................................... $ 19,000Plus: August purchases ................................................................ 31,000Less: Cost of merchandise sold ................................................... (20,000)Merchandise inventory, August 31 ............................................. $ 30,000ORQuantity Rug Style Cost2 10 by 6 Chinese* $ 7,5001 8 by 10 Persian 5,5001 8 by 10 Indian 4,0002 10 by 12 Persian 13,000 $ 30,000*($4,000 + $3,500)。
国际财务管理习题及答案
01
3. 国际融资风险管理
02
• 国际融资风险的识别与评估
03
• 国际融资风险的控制与防范措施
国际营运资金管理的答案
1. 国际营运资金管理概述 • 国际营运资金管理的定义和目标
• 国际营运资金管理的主要内容和方法
国际营运资金管理的答案
2. 国际现金管理
• 国际现金流入与流出的管理
• 国际现金预算与控制的方法和 步骤
国际投资决策
1. 简答题
简述国际投资的优势和风险。
4. 案例题
分析某公司如何进行国际投资决策。
2. 论述题
论述国际投资决策需要考虑的因素。
3. 计算题
计算国际投资组合的预期收益率和风险。
国际融资决策
1. 简答题
简述国际融资的渠道和方式。
3. 计算题
计算国际融资的成本和效益。
2. 论述题
论述国际融资决策需要考虑的因 素。
国际财务管理涉及多国经济环境、货 币汇率变动、国际税务法规、政治风 险等因素,需要综合考虑多种因素, 制定合适的财务策略。
国际财务管理的重要性
1. 全球化经营的需要
随着全球化进程加速,跨国公司需要有效的国际财务管理来整合全 球资源,优化资源配置,提高经营效率。
2. 降低财务风险
国际财务管理有助于跨国公司识别、评估和控制财务风险,降低经 营风险。
国际营运资金管理的答案
3. 国际应收账款管理
• 国际应收账款的信用政策制定与执 行
• 国际应收账款的催收与保理业务
04 国际财务管理案例分析
跨国公司外汇风险管理案例
案例背景
某跨国公司在多个国家设有子公 司,由于各国的汇率波动,公司 面临外汇风险。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 6-推荐下载
CHAPTER 6 INTERNATIONAL PARITY RELATIONSHIPSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Give a full definition of arbitrage.Answer:Arbitrage can be defined as the act of simultaneously buying and selling the same or equivalent assets or commodities for the purpose of making certain, guaranteed profits.2. Discuss the implications of the interest rate parity for the exchange rate determination.Answer: Assuming that the forward exchange rate is roughly an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate, IRP can be written as:S = [(1 + I£)/(1 + I$)]E[S t+1 I t].The exchange rate is thus determined by the relative interest rates, and the expected future spot rate, conditional on all the available information, I t, as of the present time. One thus can say that expectation is self-fulfilling. Since the information set will be continuously updated as news hit the market, the exchange rate will exhibit a highly dynamic, random behavior.3. Explain the conditions under which the forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.Answer: The forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate if (I) the risk premium is insignificant and (ii) foreign exchange markets are informationally efficient.4. Explain the purchasing power parity, both the absolute and relative versions. What causes the deviations from the purchasing power parity?Answer: The absolute version of purchasing power parity (PPP):S = P$/P£.The relative version is:e = π$ - π£.PPP can be violated if there are barriers to international trade or if people in different countries have different consumption taste. PPP is the law of one price applied to a standard consumption basket.5. Discuss the implications of the deviations from the purchasing power parity for countries’ competitive positions in the world market.Answer: If exchange rate changes satisfy PPP, competitive positions of countries will remain unaffected following exchange rate changes. Otherwise, exchange rate changes will affect relative competitiveness of countries. If a country’s currency appreciates (depreciates) by more than is warranted by PPP, that will hurt (strengthen) the country’s competitive position in the world market.6. Explain and derive the international Fisher effect.Answer: The international Fisher effect can be obtained by combining the Fisher effect and the relative version of PPP in its expectational form. Specifically, the Fisher effect holds thatE(π$) = I$ - ρ$,E(π£) = I£ - ρ£.Assuming that the real interest rate is the same between the two countries, i.e., ρ$ = ρ£, and substituting the above results into the PPP, i.e., E(e) = E(π$)- E(π£), we obtain the international Fisher effect: E(e) = I$ - I£.7. Researchers found that it is very difficult to forecast the future exchange rates more accurately than the forward exchange rate or the current spot exchange rate. How would you interpret this finding?Answer: This implies that exchange markets are informationally efficient. Thus, unless one has private information that is not yet reflected in the current market rates, it would be difficult to beat the market.8. Explain the random walk model for exchange rate forecasting. Can it be consistent with the technical analysis?Answer: The random walk model predicts that the current exchange rate will be the best predictor of the future exchange rate. An implication of the model is that past history of the exchange rate is of no value in predicting future exchange rate. The model thus is inconsistent with the technical analysis which tries to utilize past history in predicting the future exchange rate.*9. Derive and explain the monetary approach to exchange rate determination.Answer: The monetary approach is associated with the Chicago School of Economics. It is based on two tenets: purchasing power parity and the quantity theory of money. Combing these two theories allows for stating, say, the $/£ spot exchange rate as:S($/£) = (M$/M£)(V$/V£)(y£/y$),where M denotes the money supply, V the velocity of money, and y the national aggregate output. The theory holds that what matters in exchange rate determination are:1. The relative money supply,2. The relative velocities of monies, and3. The relative national outputs.10. CFA question: 1997, Level 3.A.Explain the following three concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP):a. The law of one price.b. Absolute PPP.c. Relative PPP.B.Evaluate the usefulness of relative PPP in predicting movements in foreign exchange rates on:a.Short-term basis (for example, three months)b.Long-term basis (for example, six years)Answer:A. a. The law of one price (LOP) refers to the international arbitrage condition for the standardconsumption basket. LOP requires that the consumption basket should be selling for the same price ina given currency across countries.A. b. Absolute PPP holds that the price level in a country is equal to the price level in another country times the exchange rate between the two countries.A. c. Relative PPP holds that the rate of exchange rate change between a pair of countries is about equal to the difference in inflation rates of the two countries.B. a. PPP is not useful for predicting exchange rates on the short-term basis mainly becauseinternational commodity arbitrage is a time-consuming process.B. b. PPP is useful for predicting exchange rates on the long-term basis.PROBLEMS1. Suppose that the treasurer of IBM has an extra cash reserve of $100,000,000 to invest for six months. The six-month interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the United States and 6 percent per annum in Germany. Currently, the spot exchange rate is €1.01 per dollar and the six-month forward exchange rate is €0.99 per dollar. The treasurer of IBM does not wish to bear any exchange risk. Where should he/she invest to maximize the return?The market conditions are summarized as follows:I$ = 4%; i€ = 3.5%; S = €1.01/$; F = €0.99/$.If $100,000,000 is invested in the U.S., the maturity value in six months will be$104,000,000 = $100,000,000 (1 + .04).Alternatively, $100,000,000 can be converted into euros and invested at the German interest rate, with the euro maturity value sold forward. In this case the dollar maturity value will be$105,590,909 = ($100,000,000 x 1.01)(1 + .035)(1/0.99)Clearly, it is better to invest $100,000,000 in Germany with exchange risk hedging.2. While you were visiting London, you purchased a Jaguar for £35,000, payable in three months. You have enough cash at your bank in New York City, which pays 0.35% interest per month, compounding monthly, to pay for the car. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.45/£ and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.40/£. In London, the money market interest rate is 2.0% for a three-month investment. There are two alternative ways of paying for your Jaguar.(a) Keep the funds at your bank in the U.S. and buy £35,000 forward.(b) Buy a certain pound amount spot today and invest the amount in the U.K. for three months so that the maturity value becomes equal to £35,000.Evaluate each payment method. Which method would you prefer? Why?Solution: The problem situation is summarized as follows:A/P = £35,000 payable in three monthsi NY = 0.35%/month, compounding monthlyi LD = 2.0% for three monthsS = $1.45/£; F = $1.40/£.Option a:When you buy £35,000 forward, you will need $49,000 in three months to fulfill the forward contract. The present value of $49,000 is computed as follows:$49,000/(1.0035)3 = $48,489.Thus, the cost of Jaguar as of today is $48,489.Option b:The present value of £35,000 is £34,314 = £35,000/(1.02). To buy £34,314 today, it will cost $49,755 = 34,314x1.45. Thus the cost of Jaguar as of today is $49,755.You should definitely choose to use “option a”, and save $1,266, which is the difference between $49,755 and $48489.3. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.50/£ and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.52/£. The three-month interest rate is 8.0% per annum in the U.S. and 5.8% per annum in the U.K. Assume that you can borrow as much as $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. Determine whether the interest rate parity is currently holding.b. If the IRP is not holding, how would you carry out covered interest arbitrage? Show all the steps and determine the arbitrage profit.c. Explain how the IRP will be restored as a result of covered arbitrage activities.Solution: Let’s summarize the given data first:S = $1.5/£; F = $1.52/£; I$ = 2.0%; I£ = 1.45%Credit = $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. (1+I$) = 1.02(1+I£)(F/S) = (1.0145)(1.52/1.50) = 1.0280Thus, IRP is not holding exactly.b. (1) Borrow $1,500,000; repayment will be $1,530,000.(2) Buy £1,000,000 spot using $1,500,000.(3) Invest £1,000,000 at the pound interest rate of 1.45%;maturity value will be £1,014,500.(4) Sell £1,014,500 forward for $1,542,040Arbitrage profit will be $12,040c. Following the arbitrage transactions described above,The dollar interest rate will rise;The pound interest rate will fall;The spot exchange rate will rise;The forward exchange rate will fall.These adjustments will continue until IRP holds.4. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €0.80/$ and the three-month forward exchange rate is €0.7813/$. The three-month interest rate is5.6 percent per annum in the United States and 5.40 percent per annum in France. Assume that you can borrow up to $1,000,000 or €800,000.a. Show how to realize a certain profit via covered interest arbitrage, assuming that you want to realize profit in terms of U.S. dollars. Also determine the size of your arbitrage profit.b. Assume that you want to realize profit in terms of euros. Show the covered arbitrage process and determine the arbitrage profit in euros.Solution:a.(1+ i $) = 1.014 < (F/S) (1+ i € ) = 1.053. Thus, one has to borrow dollars and invest in euros to makearbitrage profit.1.Borrow $1,000,000 and repay $1,014,000 in three months.2.Sell $1,000,000 spot for €1,060,000.3.Invest €1,060,000 at the euro interest rate of 1.35 % for three months and receive €1,074,310 atmaturity.4.Sell €1,074,310 forward for $1,053,245.Arbitrage profit = $1,053,245 - $1,014,000 = $39,245.b.Follow the first three steps above. But the last step, involving exchange risk hedging, will bedifferent.5. Buy $1,014,000 forward for €1,034,280.Arbitrage profit = €1,074,310 - €1,034,280 = €40,0305. In the issue of October 23, 1999, the Economist reports that the interest rate per annum is 5.93% in the United States and 70.0% in Turkey. Why do you think the interest rate is so high in Turkey? Based on the reported interest rates, how would you predict the change of the exchange rate between the U.S. dollarand the Turkish lira?Solution: A high Turkish interest rate must reflect a high expected inflation in Turkey. According to international Fisher effect (IFE), we haveE(e) = i$ - i Lira= 5.93% - 70.0% = -64.07%The Turkish lira thus is expected to depreciate against the U.S. dollar by about 64%.6. As of November 1, 1999, the exchange rate between the Brazilian real and U.S. dollar is R$1.95/$. The consensus forecast for the U.S. and Brazil inflation rates for the next 1-year period is 2.6% and 20.0%, respectively. How would you forecast the exchange rate to be at around November 1, 2000?Solution: Since the inflation rate is quite high in Brazil, we may use the purchasing power parity to forecast the exchange rate.E(e)= E(π$) - E(πR$)= 2.6% - 20.0%= -17.4%E(S T)= S o(1 + E(e))= (R$1.95/$) (1 + 0.174)= R$2.29/$7. (CFA question) Omni Advisors, an international pension fund manager, uses the concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP) and the International Fisher Effect (IFE) to forecast spot exchange rates. Omni gathers the financial information as follows:Base price level 100Current U.S. price level 105Current South African price level 111Base rand spot exchange rate $0.175Current rand spot exchange rate $0.158Expected annual U.S. inflation 7%Expected annual South African inflation 5%Expected U.S. one-year interest rate 10%Expected South African one-year interest rate 8%Calculate the following exchange rates (ZAR and USD refer to the South African and U.S. dollar, respectively).a. The current ZAR spot rate in USD that would have been forecast by PPP.b. Using the IFE, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD one year from now.c. Using PPP, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD four years from now.Solution:a. ZAR spot rate under PPP = [1.05/1.11](0.175) = $0.1655/rand.b. Expected ZAR spot rate = [1.10/1.08] (0.158) = $0.1609/rand.c. Expected ZAR under PPP = [(1.07)4/(1.05)4] (0.158) = $0.1704/rand.8. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €1.50/₤and the one-year forward exchange rate is €1.60/₤.The one-year interest rate is 5.4% in euros and 5.2% in pounds. You can borrow at most €1,000,000 or the equivalent pound amount, i.e., ₤666,667, at the current spot exchange rate.a.Show how you can realize a guaranteed profit from covered interest arbitrage. Assume that you are aeuro-based investor. Also determine the size of the arbitrage profit.b.Discuss how the interest rate parity may be restored as a result of the abovetransactions.c.Suppose you are a pound-based investor. Show the covered arbitrage process anddetermine the pound profit amount.Solution:a. First, note that (1+i €) = 1.054 is less than (F/S)(1+i €) = (1.60/1.50)(1.052) = 1.1221.You should thus borrow in euros and lend in pounds.1)Borrow €1,000,000 and promise to repay €1,054,000 in one year.2)Buy ₤666,667 spot for €1,000,000.3)Invest ₤666,667 at the pound interest rate of 5.2%; the maturity value will be ₤701,334.4)To hedge exchange risk, sell the maturity value ₤701,334forward in exchange for €1,122,134.The arbitrage profit will be the difference between €1,122,134 and €1,054,000, i.e., €68,134.b. As a result of the above arbitrage transactions, the euro interest rate will rise, the poundinterest rate will fall. In addition, the spot exchange rate (euros per pound) will rise and the forward rate will fall. These adjustments will continue until the interest rate parity is restored.c. The pound-based investor will carry out the same transactions 1), 2), and 3) in a. But to hedge, he/she will buy €1,054,000 forward in exchange for ₤658,750.The arbitrage profit will then be ₤42,584= ₤701,334 - ₤658,750.9. Due to the integrated nature of their capital markets, investors in both the U.S. and U.K. require the same real interest rate, 2.5%, on their lending. There is a consensus in capital markets that the annual inflation rate is likely to be 3.5% in the U.S. and 1.5% in the U.K. for the next three years. The spot exchange rate is currently $1.50/£.pute the nominal interest rate per annum in both the U.S. and U.K., assuming that the Fishereffect holds.b.What is your expected future spot dollar-pound exchange rate in three years from now?c.Can you infer the forward dollar-pound exchange rate for one-year maturity?Solution.a. Nominal rate in US = (1+ρ)(1+E(π$)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.035) – 1 = 0.0609 or 6.09%.Nominal rate in UK= (1+ρ)(1+E(π₤)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.015) – 1 = 0.0404 or 4.04%.b. E(S T) = [(1.0609)3/(1.0404)3] (1.50) = $1.5904/₤.c. F = [1.0609/1.0404](1.50) = $1.5296/₤.Mini Case: Turkish Lira and the Purchasing Power ParityVeritas Emerging Market Fund specializes in investing in emerging stock markets of the world. Mr. Henry Mobaus, an experienced hand in international investment and your boss, is currently interested in Turkish stock markets. He thinks that Turkey will eventually be invited to negotiate its membership in the European Union. If this happens, it will boost the stock prices in Turkey. But, at the same time, he is quite concerned with the volatile exchange rates of the Turkish currency. He would like to understand what drives the Turkish exchange rates. Since the inflation rate is much higher in Turkey than in the U.S., he thinks that the purchasing power parity may be holding at least to some extent. As a research assistant for him, you were assigned to check this out. In other words, you have to study and prepare a report on the following question: Does the purchasing power parity hold for the Turkish lira-U.S. dollar exchange rate? Among other things, Mr. Mobaus would like you to do the following:a.Plot the past exchange rate changes against the differential inflation rates betweenTurkey and the U.S. for the last four years.b.Regress the rate of exchange rate changes on the inflation rate differential to estimatethe intercept and the slope coefficient, and interpret the regression results.Data source: You may download the consumer price index data for the U.S. and Turkey from the following website: /home/0,2987,en_2649_201185_1_1_1_1_1,00.html, “hot file” (Excel format) . You may download the exchange rate data from the website: merce.ubc.ca/xr/data.html.Solution:a. In the current solution, we use the monthly data from January 1999 – December 2002.IM-123.095) (t 1.472βˆ0.649)- (t 0.011αˆε Inf_US) -Inf_Turkey (βˆαˆ e t t ===-=++= The estimated intercept is insignificantly different from zero, whereas the slope coefficient is positive and significantly different from zero. In fact, the slope coefficient is insignificantly different from unity. [Note that t-statistics for β = 1 is 0.992 = (1.472 – 1)/0.476 where s.e. is 0.476] In other words, we cannot reject the hypothesis that the intercept is zero and the slope coefficient is one. The results are thussupportive of purchasing power parity.。
国际公司金融习题答案--第六章
第六章课后习题参考答案1. 什么是外汇风险,说明外汇风险的三种类型。
外汇风险又称汇率风险,是指在国际经济、贸易、金融等活动中,以外币定价或衡量的资产、负债、收入、支出、以及未来经营活动中可能产生的净现金流量,在用本币表示其价值时因汇率波动而产生损失或收益的不确定性。
外汇风险主要有交易风险,营运风险,会计风险。
2. 试述三种外汇风险的区别。
交易风险是指已经发生的以外币标价的合同,由于现在的汇率和将来结算时的汇率存在差异,从而导致相同金额的外币合约按现时汇率和未来汇率折算成本币时不同而产生的风险。
营运风险,也称经济风险,是指由于无法预料的汇率变化所引起的未来营运现金流量变化进而导致企业价值发生变化所带来的风险。
会计风险又称折算风险,指国际公司的母公司采用本国的货币编制母公司和子公司的合并财务报表时,用外币表示的国外子公司财务报表发生变化的可能性。
三者区别表现在:(1)重要程度不同。
营运风险是未曾预料的汇率变化对公司将来现金流量和公司价值造成的不确定性,会影响公司的生产成本、销售价格、市场竞争地位,对公司具有相对持久的影响,是最重要的风险。
交易风险是外币签订的合同价值受汇率变化影响,一般随着合同履行而结束,影响时间相对较短,影响程度相对不大。
而会计风险仅仅是外币报表折算过程产生的,相对更次要。
因此,国际公司在控制三种风险的时候,首先要确保规避营运风险,其次再考虑另外两种外汇风险。
(2)在会计报表中反映位置不一样。
当汇率发生变化时,交易风险和会计风险可以随着会计报表的编制而及时反映在报表中,而汇率变化对公司营运风险的影响是长期的,可能会在连续多年的会计报表中都会有所反映。
3. 交易风险产生的来源有哪些?(1)用外币表示的应收应付账款产生的交易风险。
①用外币表示的应收账款产生的交易风险②用外币表示的应付账款产生的交易风险(2)外币借贷过程中产生的交易风险①外币借款中的交易风险②外币放贷中的交易风险(3)未平仓的远期外汇交易产生的风险4. 2012年3月1日,中国的A公司从日本的B公司进口一批产品,双方约定,货款用日元标价,金额为15 000 000日元,合同签订后3个月即2012年6月1日,A公司向B公司支付货款。
国际财务管理第六章
第六章 二、 1.根据资料,我们可以通过计算和比较各种货币的贷款成本,做出选择。
(1)如果英镑贷款,设即期汇率为:$ Y /£,那么一年后汇率为:$Y (1-4%)/£;融入1000万美元,需要:£Y10000000一年后还本付息: £%)121(10000000+Y折算成美元:10752000%)41%)(121(10000000%)41(%)121(10000000=-+⋅=+⋅+Y Y(美元) 贷款成本=$10 752 000-$10 000 000=$752 000(2)同理,如果日元贷款:10 000 000(1+6%)(1-2%)=10 388 000(美元) 贷款成本=$10 388 000-$10 000 000=$388 000(3)欧元贷款: 10 000 000(1+5%)(1+4%)=10 080 000(美元)贷款成本=$10 080 000-$10 000 000=$80 000(4)美元贷款成本=$10 000 000×8%=$800 000 结论:四种货币相比较,欧元贷款的成本最低。
2.(1)美元与日元贷款平衡点汇率:日元贷款:JP ¥58 000 000×3%= JP ¥1 740 000美元贷款:5 800万日元按即期汇率JP ¥116.00/$计算需要:$500 000 美元年利息=$500 000×2%=$10 000 换算成日元=10 000Y+500 000(Y-116) =510 000Y-58 000 000Y 若为平衡点汇率,则510 000Y-58 000 000=1 740 000 Y=117.14即当一年后汇率为JP ¥117.14/$时,美元贷款与日元贷款成本相同。
(2)日元贷款成本= JP ¥58 000 000×3%= JP ¥1 740 000 美元贷款成本计算见下表:美元贷款预期成本:(-800 000)×10%+1 160 000×40%+3 200 000×30%+4 220 000×20% =-80 000+464 000+960 000+844 000 =2 188 000(日元)经比较可以看到,日元贷款成本低于美元贷款。
国际财务管理课后习题答案(第六章)
CHAPTER 6 INTERNATIONAL PARITY RELATIONSHIPSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Give a full definition of arbitrage.Answer:Arbitrage can be defined as the act of simultaneously buying and selling the same or equivalent assets or commodities for the purpose of making certain, guaranteed profits.2. Discuss the implications of the interest rate parity for the exchange rate determination.Answer: Assuming that the forward exchange rate is roughly an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate, IRP can be written as:S = [(1 + I£)/(1 + I$)]E[S t+1I t].The exchange rate is thus determined by the relative interest rates, and the expected future spot rate, conditional on all the available information, I t, as of the present time. One thus can say that expectation is self-fulfilling. Since the information set will be continuously updated as news hit the market, the exchange rate will exhibit a highly dynamic, random behavior.3. Explain the conditions under which the forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.Answer: The forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate if (I) the risk premium is insignificant and (ii) foreign exchange markets are informationally efficient.4. Explain the purchasing power parity, both the absolute and relative versions. What causes the deviations from the purchasing power parity?Answer: The absolute version of purchasing power parity (PPP):S = P$/P£.The relative version is:e = $ - £.PPP can be violated if there are barriers to international trade or if people in different countries have different consumption taste. PPP is the law of one price applied to a standard consumption basket.8. Explain the random walk model for exchange rate forecasting. Can it be consistent with the technical analysis?Answer: The random walk model predicts that the current exchange rate will be the best predictor of the future exchange rate. An implication of the model is that past history of the exchange rate is of no value in predicting future exchange rate. The model thus is inconsistent with the technical analysis which tries to utilize past history in predicting the future exchange rate.*9. Derive and explain the monetary approach to exchange rate determination.Answer: The monetary approach is associated with the Chicago School of Economics. It is based on two tenets: purchasing power parity and the quantity theory of money. Combing these two theories allows for stating, say, the $/£ spot exchange rate as: S($/£) = (M$/M£)(V$/V£)(y£/y$),where M denotes the money supply, V the velocity of money, and y the national aggregate output. The theory holds that what matters in exchange rate determination are:1. The relative money supply,2. The relative velocities of monies, and3. The relative national outputs.10. CFA question: 1997, Level 3.A.Explain the following three concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP):a. The law of one price.b. Absolute PPP.c. Relative PPP.B.Evaluate the usefulness of relative PPP in predicting movements in foreignexchange rates on:a.Short-term basis (for example, three months)b.Long-term basis (for example, six years)Answer:A. a. The law of one price (LOP) refers to the international arbitrage condition for the standard consumption basket. LOP requires that the consumption basket should be selling for the same price in a given currency across countries.A. b. Absolute PPP holds that the price level in a country is equal to the price level in another countrytimes the exchange rate between the two countries.A. c. Relative PPP holds that the rate of exchange rate change between a pair of countries is about equalto the difference in inflation rates of the two countries.B. a. PPP is not useful for predicting exchange rates on the short-term basis mainly becauseinternational commodity arbitrage is a time-consuming process.B. b. PPP is useful for predicting exchange rates on the long-term basis.PROBLEMS1. Suppose that the treasurer of IBM has an extra cash reserve of $100,000,000 to invest for six months. The six-month interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the United States and 6 percent per annum in Germany. Currently, the spot exchange rate is €1.01 per dollar and the six-month forward exchange rate is €0.99 per dollar. The treasurer of IBM does not wish to bear any exchange risk. Where should he/she invest to maximize the return?The market conditions are summarized as follows:I$ = 4%; i€= 3.5%; S = €1.01/$; F = €0.99/$.If $100,000,000 is invested in the U.S., the maturity value in six months will be $104,000,000 = $100,000,000 (1 + .04).Alternatively, $100,000,000 can be converted into euros and invested at the German interest rate, with the euro maturity value sold forward. In this case the dollar maturity value will be$105,590,909 = ($100,000,000 x 1.01)(1 + .035)(1/0.99)Clearly, it is better to invest $100,000,000 in Germany with exchange risk hedging.2. While you were visiting London, you purchased a Jaguar for £35,000, payable in three months. You have enough cash at your bank in New York City, which pays 0.35% interest per month, compounding monthly, to pay for the car. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.45/£ and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.40/£. In London, the money market interest rate is 2.0% for a three-month investment. There are two alternative ways of paying for your Jaguar.(a) Keep the funds at your bank in the U.S. and buy £35,000 forward.(b) Buy a certain pound amount spot today and invest the amount in the U.K. for three months so that the maturity value becomes equal to £35,000.Evaluate each payment method. Which method would you prefer? Why?Solution: The problem situation is summarized as follows:A/P = £35,000 payable in three months i NY = 0.35%/month, compounding monthly i LD = 2.0% for three monthsS = $1.45/£; F = $1.40/£.Option a:When you buy £35,000 forward, you will need $49,000 in three months to fulfill the forward contract. The present value of $49,000 is computed as follows: $49,000/(1.0035)3 = $48,489.Thus, the cost of Jaguar as of today is $48,489.Option b:The present value of £35,000 is £34,314 = £35,000/(1.02). To buy £34,314 today, it will cost $49,755 = 34,314x1.45. Thus the cost of Jaguar as of today is $49,755.You should definitely choose to use “option a”, and save $1,266, which is the difference between $49,755 and $48489.3. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.50/£ and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.52/£. The three-month interest rate is 8.0% per annum in the U.S. and 5.8% per annum in the U.K. Assume that you can borro w as much as $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. Determine whether the interest rate parity is currently holding.b. If the IRP is not holding, how would you carry out covered interest arbitrage? Show all the steps and determine the arbitrage profit.c. Explain how the IRP will be restored as a result of covered arbitrage activities.Solution: Let’s summarize the given data first:S = $1.5/£; F = $1.52/£; I$ = 2.0%; I£ = 1.45%Credit = $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. (1+I$) = 1.02(1+I£)(F/S) = (1.0145)(1.52/1.50) = 1.0280Thus, IRP is not holding exactly.b. (1) Borrow $1,500,000; repayment will be $1,530,000.(2) Buy £1,000,000 spot using $1,500,000.(3) Invest £1,000,000 at the pound interest rate of 1.45%;maturity value will be £1,014,500.(4) Sell £1,014,500 forward for $1,542,040Arbitrage profit will be $12,040c. Following the arbitrage transactions described above,The dollar interest rate will rise;The pound interest rate will fall;The spot exchange rate will rise;The forward exchange rate will fall.These adjustments will continue until IRP holds.4. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €0.80/$ and the three-month forward exchange rate is €0.7813/$. The three-month interest rate is5.6 percent per annum in the United States and 5.40 percent per annum in France. Assume that you can borrow up to $1,000,000 or €800,000.a. Show how to realize a certain profit via covered interest arbitrage, assuming that you want to realize profit in terms of U.S. dollars. Also determine the size of your arbitrage profit.b. Assume that you want to realize profit in terms of euros. Show the covered arbitrage process and determine the arbitrage profit in euros.Solution:a.(1+ i $) = 1.014 < (F/S) (1+ i € ) = 1.053. Thus, one has to borrow dollarsand invest in euros to make arbitrage profit.1.Borrow $1,000,000 and repay $1,014,000 in three months.2.Sell $1,000,000 spot for €1,060,000.3.Invest €1,060,000 at the euro interest rate of 1.35 % for three monthsa nd receive €1,074,310 at maturity.4.Sell €1,074,310 forward for $1,053,245.Arbitrage profit = $1,053,245 - $1,014,000 = $39,245.b.Follow the first three steps above. But the last step, involving exchange riskhedging, will be different.5. Buy $1,014,000 forward for €1,034,280.Arbitrage profit = €1,074,310 - €1,034,280 = €40,0305. In the issue of October 23, 1999, the Economist reports that the interest rate per annum is 5.93% in the United States and 70.0% in Turkey. Why do you think the interest rate is so high in Turkey? Based on the reported interest rates, how would you predict the change of the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Turkish lira?Solution: A high Turkish interest rate must reflect a high expected inflation in Turkey. According to international Fisher effect (IFE), we haveE(e) = i$ - i Lira= 5.93% - 70.0% = -64.07%The Turkish lira thus is expected to depreciate against the U.S. dollar by about 64%.6. As of November 1, 1999, the exchange rate between the Brazilian real and U.S. dollar is R$1.95/$. The consensus forecast for the U.S. and Brazil inflation rates for the next 1-year period is 2.6% and 20.0%, respectively. How would you forecast the exchange rate to be at around November 1, 2000?Solution: Since the inflation rate is quite high in Brazil, we may use the purchasing power parity to forecast the exchange rate.E(e) = E($) - E(R$)= 2.6% - 20.0%= -17.4%E(S T) = S o(1 + E(e))= (R$1.95/$) (1 + 0.174)= R$2.29/$7. (CFA question) Omni Advisors, an international pension fund manager, uses the concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP) and the International Fisher Effect (IFE) to forecast spot exchange rates. Omni gathers the financial information as follows: Base price level 100 Current U.S. price level 105Current South African price level 111Base rand spot exchange rate $0.175Current rand spot exchange rate $0.158 Expected annual U.S. inflation 7%Expected annual South African inflation 5%Expected U.S. one-year interest rate 10%Expected South African one-year interest rate 8%Calculate the following exchange rates (ZAR and USD refer to the South African and U.S. dollar, respectively).a. The current ZAR spot rate in USD that would have been forecast by PPP.b. Using the IFE, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD one year from now.c. Using PPP, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD four years from now.Solution:a. ZAR spot rate under PPP = [1.05/1.11](0.175) = $0.1655/rand.b. Expected ZAR spot rate = [1.10/1.08] (0.158) = $0.1609/rand.c. Expected ZAR under PPP = [(1.07)4/(1.05)4] (0.158) = $0.1704/rand.8. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €1.50/₤ and the one-year forward exchange rate is €1.60/₤. The one-year interest rate is 5.4% in euros and 5.2% in pounds. You can borrow at most €1,000,000 or the equivalent pound amount, i.e., ₤666,667, at thecurrent spot exchange rate.a.Show how you can realize a guaranteed profit from covered interest arbitrage.Assume that you are a euro-based investor. Also determine the size of the arbitrage profit.b.Discuss how the interest rate parity may be restored as a result of the abovetransactions.c.Suppose you are a pound-based investor. Show the covered arbitrage processanddetermine the pound profit amount.Solution:a. First, note that (1+i €) = 1.054 is less than (F/S)(1+i €) = (1.60/1.50)(1.052) = 1.1221.You should thus borrow in euros and lend in pounds.1)Borrow €1,000,000 and promise to repay €1,054,000 in one year.2)Buy ₤666,667 spot for €1,000,000.3)Invest ₤666,667 at the pound interest rate of 5.2%; the maturity valuewill be ₤701,334.4)To hedge exchange risk, sell the maturity value ₤701,334 forward inexchange for €1,122,134. The arbitrage profit will be the difference between €1,122,134 and €1,054,000, i.e., €68,134.b. As a result of the above arbitrage transactions, the euro interest rate will rise, the poundinterest rate will fall. In addition, the spot exchange rate (euros per pound) will rise and the forward rate will fall. These adjustments will continue until the interest rate parity is restored.c. The pound-based investor will carry out the same transactions 1), 2), and 3) in a. But to hedge, he/she will bu y €1,054,000 forward in exchange for ₤658,750. The arbitrage profit will then be ₤42,584 = ₤701,334 - ₤658,750.9. Due to the integrated nature of their capital markets, investors in both the U.S. and U.K. require the same real interest rate, 2.5%, on their lending. There is a consensus in capital markets that the annual inflation rate is likely to be 3.5% in the U.S. and 1.5% in the U.K. for the next three years. The spot exchange rate is currently $1.50/£.pute the nominal interest rate per annum in both the U.S. and U.K., assumingthat the Fisher effect holds.b.What is your expected future spot dollar-pound exchange rate in three yearsfrom now?c.Can you infer the forward dollar-pound exchange rate for one-year maturity?Solution.a. Nominal ra te in US = (1+ρ) (1+E(π$)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.035) – 1 = 0.0609 or6.09%.Nominal rate in UK= (1+ρ) (1+E(π₤)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.015) – 1 = 0.0404 or4.04%.b. E(S T) = [(1.0609)3/(1.0404)3] (1.50) = $1.5904/₤.c. F = [1.0609/1.0404](1.50) = $1.5296/₤.Mini Case: Turkish Lira and the Purchasing Power ParityVeritas Emerging Market Fund specializes in investing in emerging stock markets of the world. Mr. Henry Mobaus, an experienced hand in international investment and your boss, is currently interested in Turkish stock markets. He thinks that Turkey will eventually be invited to negotiate its membership in the European Union. If this happens, it will boost the stock prices in Turkey. But, at the same time, he is quite concerned with the volatile exchange rates of the Turkish currency. He would like to understand what drivesthe Turkish exchange rates. Since the inflation rate is much higher in Turkey than in the U.S., he thinks that the purchasing power parity may be holding at least to some extent. As a research assistant for him, you were assigned to check this out. In other words, you have to study and prepare a report on the following question: Does the purchasing power parity hold for the Turkish lira-U.S. dollar exchange rate? Among other things, Mr. Mobaus would like you to do the following:Plot the past exchange rate changes against the differential inflation rates betweenTurkey and the U.S. for the last four years.Regress the rate of exchange rate changes on the inflation rate differential to estimatethe intercept and the slope coefficient, and interpret the regression results.Data source: You may download the consumer price index data for the U.S. and Turkey from the following website: /home/0,2987,en_2649_201185_1_1_1_1_1,00.html, “hot file” (Excel format) . You may download the exchange rate data from the website: merce.ubc.ca/xr/data.html.Solution:a. In the current solution, we use the monthly data from January 1999 –December 2002.b. We regress exchange rate changes (e) on the inflation rate differential and estimate theintercept (α ) and slope coefficient (β):3.095) (t 1.472βˆ0.649)- (t 0.011αˆε Inf_US) -Inf_Turkey (βˆαˆ e tt ===-=++=The estimated intercept is insignificantly different from zero, whereas the slope coefficient is positive and significantly different from zero. In fact, the slope coefficient is insignificantly different from unity. [Note that t-statistics for β = 1 is 0.992 = (1.472 – 1)/0.476 where s.e. is 0.476] In other words, we cannot reject the hypothesis that the intercept is zero and the slope coefficient is one. The results are thus supportive of purchasing power parity.5. Discuss the implications of the deviations from the purchasing power parity for countries’ competitive positions in the world market.Answer: If exchange rate changes satisfy PPP, competitive positions of countries will remain unaffected following exchange rate changes. Otherwise, exchange rate changes will affect relative competitiveness of countries. If a country’s currency appreciates (depreciates) by more than is warranted by PPP, that will hurt (strengthen) the country’s competitive position in the world market.6. Explain and derive the international Fisher effect.Answer: The international Fisher effect can be obtained by combining the Fisher effect and the relative version of PPP in its expectational form. Specifically, the Fisher effect holds thatE($) = I$ - $,E(£) = I£ - £.Assuming that the real interest rate is the same between the two countries, i.e., $ =£, and substituting the above results into the PPP, i.e., E(e) = E($)- E(£), we obtain the international Fisher effect: E(e) = I$ - I£.7. Researchers found that it is very difficult to forecast the future exchange rates more accurately than the forward exchange rate or the current spot exchange rate. How would you interpret this finding?Answer: This implies that exchange markets are informationally efficient. Thus, unless one has private information that is not yet reflected in the current market rates, it would be difficult to beat the market.。
国际财务管理知识分析及练习题参考答案
《国际财务管理》练习题参考答案第1章国际财务管理导论一、名词解释1.国际企业: 超越国界从事商业活动的企业,包括各种类型、各种规模的参与国际商务的企业。
国内生产、国际销售是国际企业最简单的国际业务。
跨国公司是国际企业发展的较高阶段和典型代表。
2.许可经营:许可方企业向受许可方企业提供技术,包括版权、专利技术、技术诀窍或商标以换取使用费的一种经营方式。
当许可方企业与受许可方企业分别位于不同国家时,就形成了国家间的许可经营。
这种方式也可以被看作技术出口。
3.特许经营:是一种特殊的许可经营方式,许可方通过向被许可方提供全套专业化企业经营手段,包括商标、企业组织、销售或服务策略和培训、技术支持等定期取得特许权使用费,被许可方则必须同意遵守严格的规则和程序以实现经营的标准化。
特许权使用费通常以被许可方的销售收入为基础收取。
4.分部式组织: 称事业部制组织结构。
其特点是在高层管理者之下,按地区或产品设置若干分部,实行“集中政策,分散经营”的集中领导下的分权管理。
5.混合式组织:事实上很少有哪家企业是单纯采用一种结构类型的,采用两种以上组合方式的称为混合式结构。
6.分权模式: 子公司拥有充分的财务管理决策权,母公司对于其财务管理控制以间接管理为主。
二、简答题1.国际财务管理与国内企业的财务管理内容有哪些的重要区别。
【答案】国际财务管理是指对国际企业的涉外经济活动进行的财务管理。
财务管理主要涉及的是如何作出各种最佳的公司财务决定,比如通过适宜的投资、资产结构、股息政策以及人力资源管理,从而达到既定的公司目标(股东财富最大化)。
国际财务管理与国内财务管理之间的区别主要体现在以下几个方面:(1)跨国经营和财务活动受外汇风险的影响;(2)全球范围内融资,寻求最佳全球融资战略;(3)跨国经营中商品和资金无法自由流动;(4)对外投资为股东在全球范围内分散风险。
2.试述国际财务管理体系的内容。
【答案】国际财务管理体系的内容主要包括:(1)国际财务管理环境。
国际财务管理课后习题答案(第六章)
CHAPTER 6 INTERNATIONAL PARITY RELATIONSHIPSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF—CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1。
Give a full definition of arbitrage。
Answer:Arbitrage can be defined as the act of simultaneously buying and selling the same or equivalent assets or commodities for the purpose of making certain, guaranteed profits。
2。
Discuss the implications of the interest rate parity for the exchange rate determination.Answer: Assuming that the forward exchange rate is roughly an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate,IRP can be written as:S = [(1 + I£)/(1 + I$)]E[S t+1 I t].The exchange rate is thus determined by the relative interest rates,and the expected future spot rate,conditional on all the available information, I t,as of the present time。
One thus can say that expectation is self—fulfilling. Since the information set will be continuously updated as news hit the market,the exchange rate will exhibit a highly dynamic,random behavior.3. Explain the conditions under which the forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate。
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月后到期之为£35000。 试评价以上两种付款方式,那种更好?为什么?
2.(1)3个月后需要£ 35000需要的美金数额为: £ 35000×$1.4/£=$49000 现在需要的美元为: $49000/(1+0.35%×3)= $48490.85
如果实际汇率上升(下降),那么本国竞争力削 弱(增强)。
实际汇率为q , 当q=1时,购买力平价成立 本国竞争力不变 当q<1时,购买力平价不成立 本国竞争力增强;
q>应。 (1)国际费雪效应认为,名义利率间的差异反
映了汇率的预期变动。
用公式表达为: E (e)=(i$ - i£) / (1 + i£)≈ i$ - i£
同时,假设由于资本的自由流动,各国间的实际利率
是相同的,即:ρ$ = ρ£
将上述结果带入相对购买力平价的期望值
E (e) = E($) - E(£) 中,得:
E (e) =(i$ - i£)/ (1+ i£) ≈ i$ - i£ 这就是费雪效应公式。
计算题
2、假设你在伦敦旅游时,购买了一辆价值£35000的 “美洲虎”汽车,要求在3个月内付款。你在纽约的 银行有一笔月利率为0.35%的存款,足够用于支付车 款。当前的即期汇率是$1.45/£,3个月的远期汇率是 $1.40/£,伦敦3个月投资的货币市场利率是2.0%。有 以下两种付款方式可供选择:
国际财务管理6章习题第四 组
思考题4
绝对购买力平价:
如果一价定律有效,在物价指数中各种可贸易商品所占的权重相等, 那么,一国货币对外汇率主要是由两国货币在其本国所具有的购买力 决定的,两种货币购买力之比决定了两国货币的兑换比率,这说明均 衡汇率决定于两国货币的购买力。由于货币的购买力主要体现在价格 水平上,所以,若以P表示本国的一般物价水平,P*表示外国物价水 平,S表示汇率(直接标价法),则有S=P/P*。这就是绝对购买力平 价的一般形式,它意味着汇率取决于不同货币衡量的可贸易商品的价 格水平之比,即取决于不同货币对可贸易商品的购买力之比。根据这 一关系式,本国物价的上涨将意味著本国货币相对外国货币的贬值。
4.假设即期汇率是€0.80/$,3个月远期汇率是 €0.7813/$。美国3个月期的年利率是5.6%。 法国3个月期的年利率是5.40%。假设你能够 贷款$1 000 000 或者€800 000.
(1)判断利率平价现在是否成立 (2)如果IRP不成立,如何进行抵补套利?列出所有步骤,
并计算套利收益。
(3)解释作为抵补套利的结果,IRP是如何重建的?
解:已知条件有S=$1.5/£ F=$1.52/£ I($)=8%/4=2%
I(£)=5.8%/4=1.45%
(1)(1+I($))=1.02 (1+I(£))(F/S)
导致购买力平价偏离的因素
购买力平价是用的两国的价格水平的对比。以下几个因素可能导致购买力平 价的偏离:
1、两国的价格水平变动,通货膨胀率的变动 2、各国不同的经济增长水平。(因为这是可以用价格的衡量,即能为市场
力量控制) 3、贸易壁垒和非贸易因素 4、交易费用。例如国际经济交易存在的信息及运输费用 5、文化因素。例如每个国家的人都有不同的消费观念和侧重点。 但是这种偏离是暂时的,最终汇率会回归购买力平价的均衡汇率。
1000000*(1+0.0145)=1014500£
d.在远期市场上卖出£1014500,得到
1014500*1.52=1542040$
于是,获利1542040-1530000=12040$
(3) 美国利率上升,英国利率下降,即期汇率上升,远期 汇率下降,这些调整会不断继续,直到IRP再次出现。
=1.0145*(1.52/1.50)=1.0280
两者不相等所以利率平价不成立。
(2)a.借入1500000$,到期归还
$1500000*(1+0.02)=$1530000
b.把所借的$1500000在即期市场上兑换成
1500000/1.5=1000000£
c.在英国市场上投资1000000£,到期值为
相对购买力平价:
(弥补了绝对购买力平价一些不足的方面。)它的主要观点可以简单 地表述为,两国货币的汇率水平将根据两国通胀率的差异而进行相应 地调整。它表明两国间的相对通货膨胀决定两种货币间的均衡汇率。 同时,它也强调,基期与远期之间的通货膨胀率差别必须等同于这个 期限内汇率的差别。若用e表示汇率变化率,π表示本国通货膨胀率π* 表示外国通货膨胀率,所以 e=π-π*。如果不一致,就会出现套利情 况,直到汇率调整到两者一致为止。
5.讨论购买力平价偏离对于一国在世界市场上竞争 地位的意义。
如果购买力平价成立,那么各国间的通货膨胀 率差异就会因汇率的变动而抵消,各国在世界 出口市场上的竞争地位也不会受汇率变动的系 统影响。
但如果购买力平价发生偏离,那么名义汇率的 变动会引起实际汇率的变动,从而影响各国的 国际竞争地位。
如果本国的通货膨胀超过了国外的通货膨胀,且 名义汇率未能贬值到以补偿本国较高的通货膨 胀率的程度,那么实际汇率会上升。
(2)3个月后到期值为£35000,现在需要
£35000/1.02= £ 34313.73 需要的美元为: £ 34313.73×1.45=$49754.91 结论:$48490.85<$49754.91所以选择第一种
3.当前的即期汇率是$1.50/£,3个月远期汇率是$1.52/£。 美国3个月的年利率是8%,英国3个月的年利率是5.8%。 假设你能够贷款$1500000或者£1000000。
(公式及以下推导均以美国为本国,英国为外国
(2)公式推导: 费雪效应表明,预期通货膨胀率就是各国的名义利率 和实际利率之差,即:
E (π$)=(i$ -ρ$) / (1 +ρ$) ≈ i$ -ρ$ E (π£)=(i£ -ρ£) / (1 +ρ£) ≈ i£ -ρ£
上式表达了名义利率与预期利率通货膨胀率之间的关 系,而购买力平价建立起汇率与预期通货膨胀率之间 的关系,我们把这两种关系结合起来