2018学年八下“温州五校协作体”(21中)期中联考

第二部分笔试部分(80分)二、单项填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10)从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案16.-Daming, do you know India?----Sure. it Is____ ancient country with____ long historyA. a, theB. a. aC. an. TheD. an a17. The dried fish smells___but it tastes_____.A strong, awfulB nice, well C. fresh, good D strong,good18.---the cartoon Monster Hunt II is on these days. It’s great.---Really? But I ______ it yet.A sawB will see C. haven't seen D. have seen19. ______Have you lived in Ouhai, Liu Ying?----Since I was in the high school.A.What timeB. How oftenC. WhenD.How long20.I feel sorry. I haven’t won any prizes!That’s a pity!____ you can try other kinds of competitions.A .But B.Because C.And D.However21. My legs hurt and I am hot all over. I ‘m afraid I am__weak __walk any moreA. too...toB. such... that C enough...to D. so......that22. -Have you heard the latest news?---Yes, scientist has just received lots of ____from the space.A.tripsB. adviceC. messagesD. ways23.-Computers are very useful.---Yes, with the help of computers, news can____ every corner of the world.A. enterB. returnC. arrive inD. reach24. In our school story-telling competition, the story___by Han Mei has won the first prize.----- CongratulationsA made upB counted down C. wrote down D looked up25.I think this movie is boring._________.We all laughed from the beginning to the end.A. that's the problem B I don’t think I agree C. Sure, I'd love to. D. what's wrong?三、完形填空(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共计10分。

)从下列各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项,并填在答卷纸的相应位置。

The Readers is a popular TV show. It invites different people to read aloud on the stage. The 26____also tells the moving stories behind those people. They can read everything 27___poems books and letters. By reading the words aloud, the words on the paper come to28____.Many people are fans of the show. They begin to 29_____reading aloud at home. Now the show gives people a 30____place to read across China. It is a reading pavilion. They are in many cities, including Shanghai, Hangzhou and Xi'an.The pavilion is very 31____.Only one person can come into it each time. There is a microphone in it and it32____people’s voices. Everyone can read for three minutes in the pavilion. They can read 33_____they like. The show will pick some of the readers and invite them to read on TV.People of all 34_____read in the pavilion. "Reading should be just like singing and talking, "said Dong Qing, the producer of the show. "We can express our true 35___by reading aloud.”26. A. show B. lesson C. research D. play27. A. In B. such as C. with D.at28. A. light B. reason C. life D. mind29A. mind B. keep C. finish D. enjoy30 A. special B. strange C. beautiful D. wonderful31. A.wide B. small C.tall D.big32. A makes es C. records D. improves33.A.nothing B. everything C. someone D.everyone34.A.corners B. others C.ages D.passers-by35.A. feelings B.ways C. dreams D. aims四、阅读理解(本题有15小题,36-38每小题1分39-49每小题2分,50题5分,共计30分。

) 阅读下面短交,掌握其大意,然后从题中所给的A、B,C、D四个选项中选择最佳选项,并填写在答卷纸的相应位置。

AWonderful Activities for Teenagers in Summer Vacation36, Who can take part in the Event of the Summer？A.Children under 5.B. Children at age of 5-9C. Children under 10D. Children at age of 12-1537. What can the elephant do?A. Ride hikes, play baseball and play the harmonica.B. Ride bikes, dance and play the guitar.C. Ride bikes, play basketball, dance and play the harmonica.D. Ride bikes. dance and play the piano.38. Which of the following is RIGHT?A. You can only register the Even of the Summer on July 14.B. The elephant gives 2 shows a day from July 10 to August 25.C. Wang Gang is one of the famous photographers in Beijing.D. You can ace the exhibition at 4: 30 pm. on Saturday from July 5 to July 19.BDing-Dong!" Jason,honey? Can you answer the door?”“ I’m busy, Mom!” Jason shouted back at his mother. He had spent three hours so far working to this point in the game. He couldn’t stop now.Ding-Dong! Mom's footsteps approached the front doorway.“Jason, it's your friend Todd.” Mom called from the doorway.Todd, his best friend, stepped into the room.” Jason! I need a partner for playing basketball.”He sounded excited.Jason snorted.”No way, Todd. I’m plying a game here.”Todd shook his head.” You can play later. Lets go.”Jason gave his friend a dirty look, and his character in the game almost got killed while he looked away. "I almost died because of you!”Todd looked at Jason's mother. Jason’s mother looked back at him.They both looked at Jason."Why don't you play basketball with your friend? Jason's mother suggested.“Tomorrow, maybe..." There were more levels to beat tomorrow, though. Maybe he'd play tomorrow.He’d have to see what mood he was in. He thought he heard footsteps walking away, but he was too busy beating the next level to care.An hour later, Jason's father came home. It was dinner time after his father washed up and sat down. Jason didn't even hear his name being called to the table. He didn’t hear his father walk up behind him and ask him to turn the game off, either.When the screen suddenly went black and his father's angry face loomed in front of him, Jason finally heard.” No more game for a month. "Jason’s father shouted at him. “You don’t play basketball, you don't come to dinner, and you don't do your chores. We’ll make sure everything else gets done before you play.”Jason nodded slowly. He knew better than to argue with his father, and when he thought about it, he had been playing quite a bit. It was fun, but he was letting down his friends, his family, and himself by playing too much.He would try harder in the future.39. What did Todd ask Jason to do?A Help him cook dinner.B Beat more levels for him.C Repair the computer for him.D Play basketball with him.40. Why did Jason finally stop playing the game?A. He won the game.B. His mother got dinner ready.C His father turned off the computer.D He decided to play basketball outside.4I What did Jason learn in the end?A. He thought that his father was too strict with him.B. He found that playing computer games was quite interesting.C. He realized it was an unhealthy habit to play games without dinner.D. He couldn’t spend all day playing games, because he had other duties.42. Which of the following is the best title of this passage?A Inside the GameB Games or Supper C. Jason's Angry Father D. Uses of the ComputerCAccording to the World Happiness Report,people who live in Denmark are the happiest in the world. Why? Because they know the secret to happiness-" hygge".But what is”hygge"?The Danish"word"hygge"(pronounced"hoo- ga")is often translated"in English as"coziness".But coziness paints only part of the picture. it's also about pending peaceful time in a quiet environment with no calendar. it's about pending time alone or spending time with family.Danish people are very good at"hygge".For example, they create a"hygge environment by burning"candles in classrooms, kitchens, bedrooms, etc According to some reports, Danish people burn more candles every year than people from any otherEuropean country.However, "hygge”isn't just about creating a nice and warm environment: it is best enjoyed with family members and friends. With up to 17 hours of darkness every day in winter, Danish people spend more time indoors as a result, and they often get together for a meal or hot drinks, without the distraction"of modern things or he stress of daily life.Still can’t understand what"hygge"is? If you're reading this in a comfortable chair with a few candles around you, that sense of coziness you're feeling might just be'hygge”.43. How do Danish people create a"hygge"environment?A. By painting their houses.B. By cleaning up bedrooms.C. By bumming candles.D. By shopping online.44. With up to 17 hours of darkness every day in winter, Danish people_______.①play computer games till midnight②Spend more time indoors as a result③stay up late to work in their own rooms④often get together for a meal or hot drinksA.①②B.②④C.①③D.③④45. In the last paragraph, the word coziness means____in Chinese?A.舒适B.友善C.奢侈D.密切46. The article mainly tells us________.A, when Danish people like to stay at home.B. why Danish people burn so many candies.C. how Danish people spend their winter.D. what the Danish secret to happiness is.DHow many times a day do you check your Wechat or QQ? When you wake up?Before bed? Many times in between? The technology which makes our lives simple has taken up too much time. The young people spend more than seven hours a day using technological devices, with an extra hour just chatting with friends.The advantage of technological devices is communication. We are in touch with more people during more hours of the day than at any other time in history. But is it possible that were lonelier than ever? that's what professor Sherry Turkle wrote in her new book, Alone Together, which clearly describes our changing relationship with technology.For Turkle, technology doesn't bring us the lives we want to live.” Were texting people far away,” says Turkle. "Were using lifeless objects to convince ourselves that when were alone, we feel together. And then even when we're with each other, we put ourselves in situations where we are alone-always on our mobile devices. I call it a storm of confusion about what's important in our communication. that's my biggest worry.Besides, communicating online is not face-to-face communication.Online, you can ignore others' feelings. In a text message, you can avoid eye contact. A number of studies have found that today’s young people are less sympathetic than ever. “That doesn’t lead to disaster”says Turkle, "but the disadvantages still cannot be ignored.”47. What is Sherry Turkle's biggest worry?A Technology may make our communication confusing.B Technology can't help people away from loneliness.C Technology may make people's lives hard.D Technology keeps people together.48. What does the author think of the influence of technology on people's life?A. Happy B Sad C Hopeless D. Worried49. What is the purpose of the passage?A. Teach us how to use Wechat.B. Tell us the importance of technology.C. Let us think about what is important in communication.D. Ask young people to stop using mobile phones.50. Do you like to communicate online? Why?_______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________五、词汇运用用(本题有15小题,每小题1分,共计15分。