投资分析方法

BEP
• 3. From the following particulars, find out the selling price per unit if B.E.P. is to be brought down to 9,000 units. • • Variable cost per unit Rs.75 • Fixed expenses Rs,2,70,000 • Selling price per unit Rs.100 •
1,40,000 3,50,000 2,00,000 1,00,000 10,000 40,000 ---------------8,40,000
Ratio Analysis
• Calculate:
• • • • • • • Current Ratio Quick Ratio Inventory to Working capital Debt to Equity Ratio Proprietary Ratio Capital gearing Ratio Current Assets to Fixed assets
Ratio Analysis
• (iii) Inventory to
• • • • •
Working capital = Inventory Working Capital Inventory = Stock = Rs.2,00,000 Working capital = Current Assets – Current Liabilities = Rs.3,50,000 – Rs.1,50,000 = Rs.2,00,000 Inventory to Working capital = 2,00,000 = 1:1
Ratio Analwk.baidu.comsis
• (vii) Current Assets to Fixed assets = Current Assets • Fixed Assets • = 3,50,000 = 0.71:1 • 4,90,000
Investment Analysis
Solution: Year Cash Inflow 1 25,000 2 30,000 3 35,000 4 40,000 5 45,000 + 15,000 Present Value of Cash inflow 0.909 22,725 0.826 24,780 0.751 26,285 0.683 27,320 Out lay calculation 1,00,000+ (20,000x.909) 0.621 37,260 1,00,000 +18,180 --------------1,18,180 Total Present Value of Inflow1,38,320 Total Present Value of Outlay1,18,180 -------------20,140 - NPV -------------P.V.Factor
Ratio Analysis
• (ii) Quick Ratio = Liquid Assets • Current Liabilities • Quick Assets = Sundry Debtors + Bills Receivable + Cash at Bank • = (1,00,000+10,000+40,000) = Rs 1,50,000 • Quick Ratio = 1,50,000 = 1:1 • 1,50,000
Investment Analysis
Problem: A company propose to Purchase a machinery for Rs.1,00,000. The life of the machinery is 5 years. The Cash inflow of the machinery is as follows. Year Cash Inflow Cash Outlay 0 1,00,000 1 25,000 20,000 2 30,000 -3 35,000 -4 40,000 -5 45,000 -In the Fifth year scrap of the machinery was Rs.15,000 Calculate the 1. NPV and 2. Profitability Index.
Ratio Analysis
• Solution: • • (i) Current Ratio = Current Assets • Current Liabilities • Current Assets = Stock + Sundry Debtors + Bills Receivable + Cash at Bank • = (2,00,000+1,00,000+10,000+40,000) = Rs 3,50,000 • Current Liabilities = Sundry Creditors + Bills Payable • = (1,00,000+50,000) = Rs.1,50,000 • Current Ratio = 3,50,000 = 2.33 :1 • 1,50,000 •
BEP
• . A Company estimates that next year it will earn a profit of Rs.50,000. The budgeted fixed costs and sales are Rs.2,50,000 and Rs.9,93,000 respectively. Find out the break-even point for the company. • • Solution : • B.E.P. (in units) = FxS • Contribution • • • Contribution = S – V = F + P • F + P = Rs.2,50,000 + Rs.50,000 = Rs.3,00,000 • • B.E.P. Sales = 2,50,000 x 9,93,000 • 3,00,000 • • = Rs.8,27,500 •
BEP
Ratio Analysis
Problem: • Liabilities • Share Capital • Profit & Loss account • General Reserve • 12% Debentures • Sundry Creditors • Bills Payable
Solution: Let us assume that the contribution per unit at B.E. sales of 9,000 is x • • B.E.P. = Fixed Cost • Contribution per unit • • Contribution per unit is not known. Therefore • 9,000 units = 2,70,000 • x • • 9,000 x = 2,70,000 • • x = 30 • • Contribution is Rs.30 per unit, in place of Rs.25. Therefore, the selling price should have been Rs.105 i.e. Rs.75 + Rs.30. •
(V) Proprietary Ratio = Shareholders’ Fund
• Total Assets • = 2,70,000 = 0.32:1 • 8,40,000 • • (vi) Capital gearing Ratio = Fixed interest bearing securities • Equity Share capital • Fixed interest bearing securities = only debentures = Rs.4,20,000 • Capital gearing Ratio = 4,20,000 = 2.1:1 • 2,00,000 •
Investment Analysis
Total Present Value of Cash Inflow Profitability Index: ------------------------------------------------Total Present Value of Cash Outlay 1,38,320 Profitability Index = ---------------- = 1.17 or 117 1,18,180
Break Even Point
• • • • • • • • • • • • • 1. From the following particulars, calculate the break even point Variable cost per unit = Rs.12 Fixed expenses = Rs.60,000 Selling price per unit = Ra.18 Solution: BEP (Units) = Fixed cost Contribution per unit (Selling Price – Variable Cost = Contribution) Rs.18 – Rs.12 = 6) Rs.60,000 / Rs.6 = 10,000 units B.E.P. Sales = 10,000 x Rs.18 = Rs.1,80,000
2,00,000 30,000 40,000 4,20,000 1,00,000 50,000 ----------------8,40,000
Ratio Analysis
Problem: • Assets • Land & Buildings • Plant & Machinery • Stock • Sundry Debtors • Bills Receivable • Cash at Bank
IV. Debt to Equity Ratio = Long Term Debt
• • • • • • •
Shareholders’ Fund Long Term Debt = Debentures = Rs.4,20,000 Shareholders’ Fund = Capital + Reserves and Surplus = Rs.2,00,000+30,000+40,000 = Rs 2,70,000 Debt to Equity Ratio = 4,20,000 = 1.56: 1 2,70,000 (or) Debt to Equity Ratio = Long Term Debt • Shareholders’ Fund + Long Term Debt • = 4,20,000 = 0.6: 1 • 6,90,000 •