公司理财(双语)4valuing bonds
《公司理财》课后答案(英文版,第六版).doc
Chapter 2: Accounting Statements and Cash Flow2.10AssetsCurrent assetsCash $ 4,000Accounts receivable 8,000Total current assets $ 12,000Fixed assetsMachinery $ 34,000Patents 82,000Total fixed assets $116,000Total assets $128,000Liabilities and equityCurrent liabilitiesAccounts payable $ 6,000Taxes payable 2,000Total current liabilities $ 8,000Long-term liabilitiesBonds payable $7,000Stockholders equityCommon stock ($100 par) $ 88,000Capital surplus 19,000Retained earnings 6,000Total stockholders equity $113,000Total liabilities and equity $128,0002.11One year ago TodayLong-term debt $50,000,000 $50,000,000Preferred stock 30,000,000 30,000,000Common stock 100,000,000 110,000,000Retained earnings 20,000,000 22,000,000Total $200,000,000 $212,000,0002.12Total Cash Flow ofthe Stancil CompanyCash flows from the firmCapital spending $(1,000)Additions to working capital (4,000)Total $(5,000)Cash flows to investors of the firmShort-term debt $(6,000)Long-term debt (20,000)Equity (Dividend - Financing) 21,000Total $(5,000)[Note: This table isn’t the Statement of Cash Flows, which is only covered in Appendix 2B, since the latter has th e change in cash (on the balance sheet) as a final entry.]2.13 a. The changes in net working capital can be computed from:Sources of net working capitalNet income $100Depreciation 50Increases in long-term debt 75Total sources $225Uses of net working capitalDividends $50Increases in fixed assets* 150Total uses $200Additions to net working capital $25*Includes $50 of depreciation.b.Cash flow from the firmOperating cash flow $150Capital spending (150)Additions to net working capital (25)Total $(25)Cash flow to the investorsDebt $(75)Equity 50Total $(25)Chapter 3: Financial Markets and Net Present Value: First Principles of Finance (Advanced)3.14 $120,000 - ($150,000 - $100,000) (1.1) = $65,0003.15 $40,000 + ($50,000 - $20,000) (1.12) = $73,6003.16 a. ($7 million + $3 million) (1.10) = $11.0 millionb.i. They could spend $10 million by borrowing $5 million today.ii. They will have to spend $5.5 million [= $11 million - ($5 million x 1.1)] at t=1.Chapter 4: Net Present Valuea. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the interest already earned. Therefore, the interest earned inSince this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the present value of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.30PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.23a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same. Remember, FV =PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV. Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. You should choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. You know that rate mustfall between 10% and 20% because the option you would choose differs at these rates. Let r be thediscount rate that makes you indifferent between the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for six years. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earn interest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.61PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.18a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earning interest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at the e nd of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earns interest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balance that earns interest is rising faster.The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply the perpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $800a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of theperpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.pply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present value of an annuity factor.ANPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 81.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments. Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments.A= $2,000 (9.8181)Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20.008= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.88The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must be equal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A T r. The annuity factors are in the appendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the row labeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.[ 10% ⎤[6.1446 ⎤a ⎡r ⎥bc ⎡6.4 ⎪ d⎣9%⎦⎣6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate. Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.[Note: A standard financial calculator’s TVM keys can solve for this rate. With annuity flows, the IRR key on “advanced” financial c alculators is unnecessary.]a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000 which youThat amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075]. Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.A$17,824.65 = C 507.0$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 five years from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 / 1.075 =$17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (see footnote 11 of the text).Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-tax amounts. Theafter-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of $115,200 to obtain the value of this option.AValue = $115,200 + $115,200 30.010= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-tax payment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].AValue = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.et r be the rate of interest you must earn.$10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000(1 + r)12= 8r = 0.18921 = 18.921%First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s educati on. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education isA= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955.$21,000 415.0This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these isPV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516= $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44.A= $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.80Payment = $14,880.44 / 15.015This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is$50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60.PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is$21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46se the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV of the project. NoticeYou can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV0.9091 $636.371$70020.8264 743.769003 1,000 ⎤4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.805 1,000 ⎥6 1,000 ⎦7 1,250 0.5132 641.508 1,375 0.4665 641.44Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87= $282.87Purchase the machine.Chapter 5: How to Value Bonds and StocksThe amount of the semi-annual interest payment is $40 (=$1,000 ⨯ 0.08 / 2). There are a total of 40 periods;i.e., two half years in each of the twenty years in the term to maturity. The annuity factor tables can be usedto price these bonds. The appropriate discount rate to use is the semi-annual rate. That rate is simply the annual rate divided by two. Thus, for part b the rate to be used is 5% and for part c is it 3%.A+F/(1+r)40PV=C Tra. $40 (19.7928) + $1,000 / 1.0440 = $1,000Notice that whenever the coupon rate and the market rate are the same, the bond is priced at par.b. $40 (17.1591) + $1,000 / 1.0540 = $828.41Notice that whenever the coupon rate is below the market rate, the bond is priced below par.c. $40 (23.1148) + $1,000 / 1.0340 = $1,231.15Notice that whenever the coupon rate is above the market rate, the bond is priced above par.a. The semi-annual interest rate is $60 / $1,000 = 0.06. Thus, the effective annual rate is 1.062 - 1 =0.1236 = 12.36%.A+ $1,000 / 1.0612b. Price = $30 12.006= $748.48A+ $1,000 / 1.0412c. Price = $30 1204.0= $906.15Note: In parts b and c we are implicitly assuming that the yield curve is flat. That is, the yield in year 5applies for year 6 as well.rice = $2 (0.72) / 1.15 + $4 (0.72) / 1.152 + $50 / 1.153= $36.31The number of shares you own = $100,000 / $36.31 = 2,754 sharesPrice = $1.15 (1.18) / 1.12 + $1.15 (1.182) / 1.122 + $1.152 (1.182) / 1.123+ {$1.152 (1.182)(1.06) / (0.12 - 0.06)} / 1.123= $26.95[Insert before last sentence of question: Assume that dividends are a fixed proportion of earnings.] Dividend one year from now = $5 (1 - 0.10) = $4.50Price = $5 + $4.50 / {0.14 - (-0.10)}= $23.75Since the current $5 dividend has not yet been paid, it is still included in the stock price.Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment Rulesa. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 yearsPayback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. NPV A = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96NPV B = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83Project B should be chosen.a. Average Investment:($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000Average accounting return:$4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25%b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does not consider the timevalue of money.2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule.3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows.aAverage Investment = (8000 + 4000 + 1500 + 0)/4 = 3375.00Average Net Income = 2000(1-0.75) = 1500=> AAR = 1500/3375=44.44%a. Solve x by trial and error:-$8,000 + $4,000 / (1 + x) + $3000 / (1 + x)2 + $2,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0x = 6.93%b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discount rate of 8%.Alternatively, the NPV @ a discount rate of 0.08 = -$136.62.a. Solve r in the equation:$5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3- $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0By trial and error,IRR = r = 13.99%b. Since this problem is the case of financing, accept the project if the IRR is less than the required rate of return.IRR = 13.99% > 10%Reject the offer.c. IRR = 13.99% < 20%Accept the offer.d. When r = 10%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14When r = 20%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24= $466.82Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cash flows change only once.A/ $160,000 = 1.04PI = $40,000 715.0Since the PI exceeds one accept the project.Chapter 7: Net Present Value and Capital BudgetingSince there is uncertainty surrounding the bonus payments, which McRae might receive, you must use the expected value of McRae’s bonuses in the computation of the PV of his contract. McRae’s salary plus the expected value of his bonuses in years one through three is$250,000 + 0.6 ⨯ $75,000 + 0.4 ⨯ $0 = $295,000.Thus the total PV of his three-year contract isPV = $400,000 + $295,000 [(1 - 1 / 1.12363) / 0.1236]+ {$125,000 / 1.12363} [(1 - 1 / 1.123610 / 0.1236]= $1,594,825.68EPS = $800,000 / 200,000 = $4NPVGO = (-$400,000 + $1,000,000) / 200,000 = $3Price = EPS / r + NPVGO= $4 / 0.12 + $3=$36.33Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 51. Annual Salary$120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 Savings2. Depreciation 100,000 160,000 96,000 57,600 57,6003. Taxable Income 20,000 -40,000 24,000 62,400 62,4004. Taxes 6,800 -13,600 8,160 21,216 21,2165. Operating Cash Flow113,200 133,600 111,840 98,784 98,784 (line 1-4)$100,000 -100,0006. ∆ Net workingcapital7. Investment $500,000 75,792*8. Total Cash Flow -$400,000 $113,200 $133,600 $111,840 $98,784 $74,576*75,792 = $100,000 - 0.34 ($100,000 - $28,800)NPV = -$400,000+ $113,200 / 1.12 + $133,600 / 1.122 + $111,840 / 1.123+ $98,784 / 1.124 + $74,576 / 1.125= -$7,722.52Real interest rate = (1.15 / 1.04) - 1 = 10.58%NPV A = -$40,000+ $20,000 / 1.1058 + $15,000 / 1.10582 + $15,000 / 1.10583= $1,446.76NPV B = -$50,000+ $10,000 / 1.15 + $20,000 / 1.152 + $40,000 / 1.153= $119.17Choose project A.PV = $120,000 / {0.11 - (-0.06)}t = 0 t = 1 t = 2 t = 3 t = 4 t = 5 t = 6 ...$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 $6,000$4,000$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 ...The present value of one cycle is:A+ $4,000 / 1.064PV = $12,000 + $6,000 306.0= $12,000 + $6,000 (2.6730) + $4,000 / 1.064= $31,206.37The cycle is four years long, so use a four year annuity factor to compute the equivalent annual cost (EAC).AEAC = $31,206.37 / 406.0= $31,206.37 / 3.4651= $9,006The present value of such a stream in perpetuity is$9,006 / 0.06 = $150,100o evaluate the word processors, compute their equivalent annual costs (EAC).BangAPV(costs) = (10 ⨯ $8,000) + (10 ⨯ $2,000) 414.0= $80,000 + $20,000 (2.9137)= $138,274EAC = $138,274 / 2.9137= $47,456IOUAPV(costs) = (11 ⨯ $5,000) + (11 ⨯ $2,500) 3.014- (11 ⨯ $500) / 1.143= $55,000 + $27,500 (2.3216) - $5,500 / 1.143= $115,132EAC = $115,132 / 2.3216= $49,592BYO should purchase the Bang word processors.Chapter 8: Strategy and Analysis in Using Net Present ValueThe accounting break-even= (120,000 + 20,000) / (1,500 - 1,100)= 350 units. The accounting break-even= 340,000 / (2.00 - 0.72)= 265,625 abalonesb. [($2.00 ⨯ 300,000) - (340,000 + 0.72 ⨯ 300,000)] (0.65)= $28,600This is the after tax profit.Chapter 9: Capital Market Theory: An Overviewa. Capital gains = $38 - $37 = $1 per shareb. Total dollar returns = Dividends + Capital Gains = $1,000 + ($1*500) = $1,500 On a per share basis, this calculation is $2 + $1 = $3 per sharec. On a per share basis, $3/$37 = 0.0811 = 8.11% On a total dollar basis, $1,500/(500*$37) = 0.0811 = 8.11%d. No, you do not need to sell the shares to include the capital gains in the computation of the returns. The capital gain is included whether or not you realize the gain. Since you could realize the gain if you choose, you should include it.The expected holding period return is:()[]%865.1515865.052$/52$75.54$50.5$==-+There appears to be a lack of clarity about the meaning of holding period returns. The method used in the answer to this question is the one used in Section 9.1. However, the correspondence is not exact, because in this question, unlike Section 9.1, there are cash flows within the holding period. The answer above ignores the dividend paid in the first year. Although the answer above technically conforms to the eqn at the bottom of Fig. 9.2, the presence of intermediate cash flows that aren’t accounted for renders th is measure questionable, at best. There is no similar example in the body of the text, and I have never seen holding period returns calculated in this way before.Although not discussed in this book, there are two generally accepted methods of computing holding period returns in the presence of intermediate cash flows. First, the time weighted return calculates averages (geometric or arithmetic) of returns between cash flows. Unfortunately, that method can’t be used here, because we are not given the va lue of the stock at the end of year one. Second, the dollar weighted measure calculates the internal rate of return over the entire holding period. Theoretically, that method can be applied here, as follows: 0 = -52 + 5.50/(1+r) + 60.25/(1+r)2 => r = 0.1306.This produces a two year holding period return of (1.1306)2 – 1 = 0.2782. Unfortunately, this book does not teach the dollar weighted method.In order to salvage this question in a financially meaningful way, you would need the value of the stock at the end of one year. Then an illustration of the correct use of the time-weighted return would be appropriate. A complicating factor is that, while Section 9.2 illustrates the holding period return using the geometric return for historical data, the arithmetic return is more appropriate for expected future returns.E(R) = T-Bill rate + Average Excess Return = 6.2% + (13.0% -3.8%) = 15.4%. Common Treasury Realized Stocks Bills Risk Premium -7 32.4% 11.2% 21.2%-6 -4.9 14.7 -19.6-5 21.4 10.5 10.9 -4 22.5 8.8 13.7 -3 6.3 9.9 -3.6 -2 32.2 7.7 24.5 Last 18.5 6.2 12.3 b. The average risk premium is 8.49%.49.873.125.246.37.139.106.192.21=++-++- c. Yes, it is possible for the observed risk premium to be negative. This can happen in any single year. The.b.Standard deviation = 03311.0001096.0=.b.Standard deviation = = 0.03137 = 3.137%.b.Chapter 10: Return and Risk: The Capital-Asset-Pricing Model (CAPM)a. = 0.1 (– 4.5%) + 0.2 (4.4%) + 0.5 (12.0%) + 0.2 (20.7%) = 10.57%b.σ2 = 0.1 (–0.045 – 0.1057)2 + 0.2 (0.044 – 0.1057)2 + 0.5 (0.12 – 0.1057)2+ 0.2 (0.207 – 0.1057)2 = 0.0052σ = (0.0052)1/2 = 0.072 = 7.20%Holdings of Atlas stock = 120 ⨯ $50 = $6,000 ⨯ $20 = $3,000Weight of Atlas stock = $6,000 / $9,000 = 2 / 3Weight of Babcock stock = $3,000 / $9,000 = 1 / 3a. = 0.3 (0.12) + 0.7 (0.18) = 0.162 = 16.2%σP 2= 0.32 (0.09)2 + 0.72 (0.25)2 + 2 (0.3) (0.7) (0.09) (0.25) (0.2)= 0.033244σP= (0.033244)1/2 = 0.1823 = 18.23%a.State Return on A Return on B Probability1 15% 35% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.22 15% -5% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.23 10% 35% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.34 10% -5% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.3b. = 0.2 [0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.2[0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (-0.05)]+ 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (-0.05)]= 0.135= 13.5%Note: The solution to this problem requires calculus.Specifically, the solution is found by minimizing a function subject to a constraint. Calculus ability is not necessary to understand the principles behind a minimum variance portfolio.Min { X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)}subject to X A + X B = 1Let X A = 1 - X B. Then,Min {(1 - X B)2σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2(1 - X B) X B Cov (R A, R B)}Take a derivative with respect to X B.d{∙} / dX B = (2 X B - 2) σA2+ 2 X B σB2 + 2 Cov(R A, R B) - 4 X B Cov(R A, R B)Set the derivative equal to zero, cancel the common 2 and solve for X B.X BσA2- σA2+ X B σB2 + Cov(R A, R B) - 2 X B Cov(R A, R B) = 0X B = {σA2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}andX A = {σB2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}Using the data from the problem yields,X A = 0.8125 andX B = 0.1875.a. Using the weights calculated above, the expected return on the minimum variance portfolio isE(R P) = 0.8125 E(R A) + 0.1875 E(R B)= 0.8125 (5%) + 0.1875 (10%)= 5.9375%b. Using the formula derived above, the weights areX A = 2 / 3 andX B = 1 / 3c. The variance of this portfolio is zero.σP 2= X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)= (4 / 9) (0.01) + (1 / 9) (0.04) + 2 (2 / 3) (1 / 3) (-0.02)= 0This demonstrates that assets can be combined to form a risk-free portfolio.14.2%= 3.7%+β(7.5%) ⇒β = 1.40.25 = R f + 1.4 [R M– R f] (I)0.14 = R f + 0.7 [R M– R f] (II)(I) – (II)=0.11 = 0.7 [R M– R f] (III)[R M– R f ]= 0.1571Put (III) into (I) 0.25 = R f + 1.4[0.1571]R f = 3%[R M– R f ]= 0.1571R M = 0.1571 + 0.03= 18.71%a. = 4.9% + βi (9.4%)βD= Cov(R D, R M) / σM 2 = 0.0635 / 0.04326 = 1.468= 4.9 + 1.468 (9.4) = 18.70%Weights:X A = 5 / 30 = 0.1667X B = 10 / 30 = 0.3333X C = 8 / 30 = 0.2667X D = 1 - X A - X B - X C = 0.2333Beta of portfolio= 0.1667 (0.75) + 0.3333 (1.10) + 0.2667 (1.36) + 0.2333 (1.88)= 1.293= 4 + 1.293 (15 - 4) = 18.22%a. (i) βA= ρA,MσA / σMρA,M= βA σM / σA= (0.9) (0.10) / 0.12= 0.75(ii) σB= βB σM / ρB,M= (1.10) (0.10) / 0.40= 0.275(iii) βC= ρC,MσC / σM= (0.75) (0.24) / 0.10= 1.80(iv) ρM,M= 1(v) βM= 1(vi) σf= 0(vii) ρf,M= 0(viii) βf= 0b. SML:E(R i) = R f + βi {E(R M) - R f}= 0.05 + (0.10) βiSecurity βi E(R i)A 0.13 0.90 0.14B 0.16 1.10 0.16C 0.25 1.80 0.23Security A performed worse than the market, while security C performed better than the market.Security B is fairly priced.c. According to the SML, security A is overpriced while security C is under-priced. Thus, you could invest in security C while sell security A (if you currently hold it).a. The typical risk-averse investor seeks high returns and low risks. To assess thetwo stocks, find theReturns:State of economy ProbabilityReturn on A*Recession 0.1 -0.20 Normal 0.8 0.10 Expansion0.10.20* Since security A pays no dividend, the return on A is simply (P 1 / P 0) - 1. = 0.1 (-0.20) + 0.8 (0.10) + 0.1 (0.20) = 0.08 = 0.09 This was given in the problem.Risk:R A - (R A -)2 P ⨯ (R A -)2 -0.28 0.0784 0.00784 0.02 0.0004 0.00032 0.12 0.0144 0.00144 Variance 0.00960Standard deviation (R A ) = 0.0980βA = {Corr(R A , R M ) σ(R A )} / σ(R M ) = 0.8 (0.0980) / 0.10= 0.784βB = {Corr(R B , R M ) σ(R B )} / σ(R M ) = 0.2 (0.12) / 0.10= 0.24The return on stock B is higher than the return on stock A. The risk of stock B, as measured by itsbeta, is lower than the risk of A. Thus, a typical risk-averse investor will prefer stock B.b. = (0.7) + (0.3) = (0.7) (0.8) + (0.3) (0.09) = 0.083σP 2= 0.72 σA 2 + 0.32 σB 2 + 2 (0.7) (0.3) Corr (R A , R B ) σA σB = (0.49) (0.0096) + (0.09) (0.0144) + (0.42) (0.6) (0.0980) (0.12) = 0.0089635 σP = = 0.0947 c. The beta of a portfolio is the weighted average of the betas of the components of the portfolio. βP = (0.7) βA + (0.3) βB = (0.7) (0.784) + (0.3) (0.240) = 0.621Chapter 11:An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing Theorya. Stock A:()()R R R R R A A A m m Am A=+-+=+-+βεε105%12142%...Stock B:()()R R R R R B B m m Bm B=+-+=+-+βεε130%098142%...Stock C:()R R R R R C C C m m Cm C=+-+=+-+βεε157%137142%)..(.b.()[]()[]()[]()()()()()()[]()()CB A m cB A m c m B m A m CB A P 25.045.030.0%2.14R 1435.1%925.1225.045.030.0%2.14R 37.125.098.045.02.130.0%7.1525.0%1345.0%5.1030.0%2.14R 37.1%7.1525.0%2.14R 98.0%0.1345.0%2.14R 2.1%5.1030.0R 25.0R 45.0R 30.0R ε+ε+ε+-+=ε+ε+ε+-+++++=ε+-++ε+-++ε+-+=++= c.i.()R R R A B C =+-==+-==+-=105%1215%142%)1113%09815%142%)137%157%13715%142%168%..(..46%.(......ii.R P =+-=12925%1143515%142%)138398%..(..To determine which investment investor would prefer, you must compute the variance of portfolios created bymany stocks from either market. Note, because you know that diversification is good, it is reasonable to assume that once an investor chose the market in which he or she will invest, he or she will buy many stocks in that market.Known:E EF ====001002 and and for all i.i σσεε..Assume: The weight of each stock is 1/N; that is, X N i =1/for all i.If a portfolio is composed of N stocks each forming 1/N proportion of the portfolio, the return on the portfolio is 1/N times the sum of the returns on the N stocks. Recall that the return on each stock is 0.1+βF+ε.()()()()()()[]()()()()()()()[]()[]()[]()()[]()()()()()j i 2j i 22j i i 2222222222P P P P iP ,0.04Corr 0.01,Cov s =isvariance the ,N as limit In the ,Cov 1/N 1s 1/N s )(1/N 1/N F 2F E 1/N F E 0.10.1/N F 0.1E R E R E R Var 0.101/N 00.1E 1/N F E 0.11/N F 0.1E R E 1/N F 0.1F 0.1(1/N)R 1/N R εε+β=εε+β∞⇒εε-+ε+β=ε∑+εβ+β=ε+β=-ε+β+=-==+β+=ε+β+=ε∑+β+=ε+β+=ε+β+==∑∑∑∑∑∑∑∑()()()()()()Thus,F R f E R E R Var R Corr Var R Corr ii ip P p i j PijR 1i =++=++===+=+010*********002250040002500412212111222.........,,εεεεεεa.()()()()Corr Corr Var R Var R i j i j p pεεεε112212000225000225,,..====Since Var ()()R p 1 Var R 2p 〉, a risk averse investor will prefer to invest in the second market.b. Corr ()()εεεε112090i j j ,.,== and Corr 2i()()Var R Var R pp120058500025==..。
(公司理财)英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案C
CHAPTER 20INTERNATIONAL CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. a.The dollar is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in the forward market than inthe spot market (SFr 1.53 versus SFr 1.50).b.The franc is expected to depreciate relative to the dollar because it will take more francs to buyone dollar in the future than it does today.c.Inflation in Switzerland is higher than in the United States, as are nominal interest rates.2.The exchange rate will increase, as it will take progressively more pesos to purchase a dollar. This isthe relative PPP relationship.3. a.The Australian dollar is expected to weaken relative to the dollar, because it will take moreA$ in the future to buy one dollar than it does today.b.The inflation rate in Australia is higher.c.Nominal interest rates in Australia are higher; relative real rates in the two countries are thesame.4. A Yankee bond is most accurately described by d.5. No. For example, if a country’s currency strengthens, imports become cheaper (good), but its exportsbecome more expensive for others to buy (bad). The reverse is true for currency depreciation.6.Additional advantages include being closer to the final consumer and, thereby, saving ontransportation, significantly lower wages, and less exposure to exchange rate risk. Disadvantages include political risk and costs of supervising distant operations.7.One key thing to remember is that dividend payments are made in the home currency. Moregenerally, it may be that the owners of the multinational are primarily domestic and are ultimately concerned about their wealth denominated in their home currency because, unlike a multinational, they are not internationally diversified.8. a.False. If prices are rising faster in Great Britain, it will take more pounds to buy the sameamount of goods that one dollar can buy; the pound will depreciate relative to the dollar.b.False. The forward market would already reflect the projected deterioration of the euro relativeto the dollar. Only if you feel that there might be additional, unanticipated weakening of the euro that isn’t reflected in forward rates today, will the forward hedge protect you against additional declines.c.True. The market would only be correct on average, while you would be correct all the time.9. a.American exporters: their situation in general improves because a sale of the exported goods fora fixed number of euros will be worth more dollars.American importers: their situation in general worsens because the purchase of the imported goods for a fixed number of euros will cost more in dollars.b.American exporters: they would generally be better off if the British government’s intentionsresult in a strengthened pound.American importers: they would generally be worse off if the pound strengthens.c.American exporters: they would generally be much worse off, because an extreme case of fiscalexpansion like this one will make American goods prohibitively expensive to buy, or else Brazilian sales, if fixed in cruzeiros, would become worth an unacceptably low number of dollars.American importers: they would generally be much better off, because Brazilian goods will become much cheaper to purchase in dollars.10.IRP is the most likely to hold because it presents the easiest and least costly means to exploit anyarbitrage opportunities. Relative PPP is least likely to hold since it depends on the absence of market imperfections and frictions in order to hold strictly.11.It all depends on whether the forward market expects the same appreciation over the period andwhether the expectation is accurate. Assuming that the expectation is correct and that other traders do not have the same information, there will be value to hedging the currency exposure.12.One possible reason investment in the foreign subsidiary might be preferred is if this investmentprovides direct diversification that shareholders could not attain by investing on their own. Another reason could be if the political climate in the foreign country was more stable than in the home country. Increased political risk can also be a reason you might prefer the home subsidiary investment. Indonesia can serve as a great example of political risk. If it cannot be diversified away, investing in this type of foreign country will increase the systematic risk. As a result, it will raise the cost of the capital, and could actually decrease the NPV of the investment.13.Yes, the firm should undertake the foreign investment. If, after taking into consideration all risks, aproject in a foreign country has a positive NPV, the firm should undertake it. Note that in practice, the stated assumption (that the adjustment to the discount rate has taken into consideration all political and diversification issues) is a huge task. But once that has been addressed, the net present value principle holds for foreign operations, just as for domestic.14.If the foreign currency depreciates, the U.S. parent will experience an exchange rate loss when theforeign cash flow is remitted to the U.S. This problem could be overcome by selling forward contracts. Another way of overcoming this problem would be to borrow in the country where the project is located.15.False. If the financial markets are perfectly competitive, the difference between the Eurodollar rateand the U.S. rate will be due to differences in risk and government regulation. Therefore, speculating in those markets will not be beneficial.16.The difference between a Eurobond and a foreign bond is that the foreign bond is denominated in thecurrency of the country of origin of the issuing company. Eurobonds are more popular than foreign bonds because of registration differences. Eurobonds are unregistered securities.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basicing the quotes from the table, we get:a.$50(€0.7870/$1) = €39.35b.$1.2706c.€5M($1.2706/€) = $6,353,240d.New Zealand dollare.Mexican pesof.(P11.0023/$1)($1.2186/€1) = P13.9801/€This is a cross rate.g.The most valuable is the Kuwait dinar. The least valuable is the Indonesian rupiah.2. a.You would prefer £100, since:(£100)($.5359/£1) = $53.59b.You would still prefer £100. Using the $/£ exchange rate and the SF/£ exchange rate to find theamount of Swiss francs £100 will buy, we get:(£100)($1.8660/£1)(SF .8233) = SF 226.6489ing the quotes in the book to find the SF/£ cross rate, we find:(SF 1.2146/$1)($0.5359/£1) = SF 2.2665/£1The £/SF exchange rate is the inverse of the SF/£ exchange rate, so:£1/SF .4412 = £0.4412/SF 13. a.F180= ¥104.93 (per $). The yen is selling at a premium because it is more expensive in theforward market than in the spot market ($0.0093659 versus $0.009530).b.F90 = $1.8587/£. The pound is selling at a discount because it is less expensive in the forwardmarket than in the spot market ($0.5380 versus $0.5359).c.The value of the dollar will fall relative to the yen, since it takes more dollars to buy one yen inthe future than it does today. The value of the dollar will rise relative to the pound, because it will take fewer dollars to buy one pound in the future than it does today.4. a.The U.S. dollar, since one Canadian dollar will buy:(Can$1)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $0.7937b.The cost in U.S. dollars is:(Can$2.19)/(Can$1.26/$1) = $1.74Among the reasons that absolute PPP doe sn’t hold are tariffs and other barriers to trade, transactions costs, taxes, and different tastes.c.The U.S. dollar is selling at a discount, because it is less expensive in the forward market thanin the spot market (Can$1.22 versus Can$1.26).d.The Canadian dollar is expected to appreciate in value relative to the dollar, because it takesfewer Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar in the future than it does today.e.Interest rates in the United States are probably higher than they are in Canada.5. a.The cross rate in ¥/£ terms is:(¥115/$1)($1.70/£1) = ¥195.5/£1b.The yen is quoted too low relative to the pound. Take out a loan for $1 and buy ¥115. Use the¥115 to purchase pounds at the cross-rate, which will give you:¥115(£1/¥185) = £0.6216Use the pounds to buy back dollars and repay the loan. The cost to repay the loan will be:£0.6216($1.70/£1) = $1.0568You arbitrage profit is $0.0568 per dollar used.6.We can rearrange the interest rate parity condition to answer this question. The equation we will useis:R FC = (F T– S0)/S0 + R USUsing this relationship, we find:Great Britain: R FC = (£0.5394 – £0.5359)/£0.5359 + .038 = 4.45%Japan: R FC = (¥104.93 – ¥106.77)/¥106.77 + .038 = 2.08%Switzerland: R FC = (SFr 1.1980 – SFr 1.2146)/SFr 1.2146 + .038 = 2.43%7.If we invest in the U.S. for the next three months, we will have:$30M(1.0045)3 = $30,406,825.23If we invest in Great Britain, we must exchange the dollars today for pounds, and exchange the pounds for dollars in three months. After making these transactions, the dollar amount we would have in three months would be:($30M)(£0.56/$1)(1.0060)3/(£0.59/$1) = $28,990,200.05We should invest in U.S.ing the relative purchasing power parity equation:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]tWe find:Z3.92 = Z3.84[1 + (h FC– h US)]3h FC– h US = (Z3.92/Z3.84)1/3– 1h FC– h US = .0069Inflation in Poland is expected to exceed that in the U.S. by 0.69% over this period.9.The profit will be the quantity sold, times the sales price minus the cost of production. Theproduction cost is in Singapore dollars, so we must convert this to U.S. dollars. Doing so, we find that if the exchange rates stay the same, the profit will be:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,295,250.18If the exchange rate rises, we must adjust the cost by the increased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/1.1(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $1,572,954.71If the exchange rate falls, we must adjust the cost by the decreased exchange rate, so:Profit = 30,000[$145 – {(S$168.50)/0.9(S$1.6548/$1)}]Profit = $955,833.53To calculate the breakeven change in the exchange rate, we need to find the exchange rate that make the cost in Singapore dollars equal to the selling price in U.S. dollars, so:$145 = S$168.50/S TS T = S$1.1621/$1S T = –.2978 or –29.78% decline10. a.If IRP holds, then:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.5257Since given F180 is Kr6.56, an arbitrage opportunity exists; the forward premium is too high.Borrow Kr1 today at 8% interest. Agree to a 180-day forward contract at Kr 6.56. Convert the loan proceeds into dollars:Kr 1 ($1/Kr 6.43) = $0.15552Invest these dollars at 5%, ending up with $0.15931. Convert the dollars back into krone as$0.15931(Kr 6.56/$1) = Kr 1.04506Repay the Kr 1 loan, ending with a profit of:Kr1.04506 – Kr1.03868 = Kr 0.00638b.To find the forward rate that eliminates arbitrage, we use the interest rate parity condition, so:F180 = (Kr 6.43)[1 + (.08 – .05)]1/2F180 = Kr 6.525711.The international Fisher effect states that the real interest rate across countries is equal. We canrearrange the international Fisher effect as follows to answer this question:R US– h US = R FC– h FCh FC = R FC + h US– R USa.h AUS = .05 + .035 – .039h AUS = .046 or 4.6%b.h CAN = .07 + .035 – .039h CAN = .066 or 6.6%c.h TAI = .10 + .035 – .039h TAI = .096 or 9.6%12. a.The yen is expected to get stronger, since it will take fewer yen to buy one dollar in the futurethan it does today.b.h US– h JAP (¥129.76 – ¥131.30)/¥131.30h US– h JAP = – .0117 or –1.17%(1 – .0117)4– 1 = –.0461 or –4.61%The approximate inflation differential between the U.S. and Japan is – 4.61% annually.13. We need to find the change in the exchange rate over time, so we need to use the relative purchasingpower parity relationship:F t = S0 × [1 + (h FC– h US)]TUsing this relationship, we find the exchange rate in one year should be:F1 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]1F1 = HUF 225.97The exchange rate in two years should be:F2 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]2F2 = HUF 237.49And the exchange rate in five years should be:F5 = 215[1 + (.086 – .035)]5F5 = HUF 275.71ing the interest-rate parity theorem:(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC) = F(0,1) / S0We can find the forward rate as:F(0,1) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)] S0F(0,1) = (1.13 / 1.08)$1.50/£F(0,1) = $1.57/£Intermediate15.First, we need to forecast the future spot rate for each of the next three years. From interest rate andpurchasing power parity, the expected exchange rate is:E(S T) = [(1 + R US) / (1 + R FC)]T S0So:E(S1) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)1 $1.22/€ = $1.2282/€E(S2) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)2 $1.22/€ = $1.2365/€E(S3) = (1.0480 / 1.0410)3 $1.22/€ = $1.2448/€Now we can use these future spot rates to find the dollar cash flows. The dollar cash flow each year will be:Year 0 cash flow = –€$12,000,000($1.22/€) = –$14,640,000.00Year 1 cash flow = €$2,700,000($1.2282/€) = $3,316,149.86Year 2 cash flow = €$3,500,000($1.2365/€) = $4,327,618.63Year 3 cash flow = (€3,300,000 + 7,400,000)($1.2448/€) = $13,319,111.90And the NPV of the project will be:NPV = –$14,640,000 + $3,316,149.86/1.13 + $4,4327,618.63/1.132 + $13,319,111.90/1.133NPV = $914,618.7316. a.Implicitly, it is assumed that interest rates won’t change over the life of the project, but theexchange rate is projected to decline because the Euroswiss rate is lower than the Eurodollar rate.b.We can use relative purchasing power parity to calculate the dollar cash flows at each time. Theequation is:E[S T] = (SFr 1.72)[1 + (.07 – .08)]TE[S T] = 1.72(.99)TSo, the cash flows each year in U.S. dollar terms will be:t SFr E[S T] US$0 –27.0M –$15,697,674.421 +7.5M 1.7028 $4,404,510.222 +7.5M 1.6858 $4,449,000.223 +7.5M 1.6689 $4,493,939.624 +7.5M 1.6522 $4,539,332.955 +7.5M 1.6357 $4,585,184.79And the NPV is:NPV = –$15,697,674.42 + $4,404,510.22/1.13 + $4,449,000.22/1.132 + $4,493,939.62/1.133 + $4,539,332.95/1.134 + $4,585,184.79/1.135NPV = $71,580.10c.Rearranging the relative purchasing power parity equation to find the required return in Swissfrancs, we get:R SFr = 1.13[1 + (.07 – .08)] – 1R SFr = 11.87%So, the NPV in Swiss francs is:NPV = –SFr 27.0M + SFr 7.5M(PVIFA11.87%,5)NPV = SFr 123,117.76Converting the NPV to dollars at the spot rate, we get the NPV in U.S. dollars as:NPV = (SFr 123,117.76)($1/SFr 1.72)NPV = $71,580.10Challenge17. a.The domestic Fisher effect is:1 + R US = (1 + r US)(1 + h US)1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US)This relationship must hold for any country, that is:1 + r FC = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC)The international Fisher effect states that real rates are equal across countries, so:1 + r US = (1 + R US)/(1 + h US) = (1 + R FC)/(1 + h FC) = 1 + r FCb.The exact form of unbiased interest rate parity is:E[S t] = F t = S0 [(1 + R FC)/(1 + R US)]tc.The exact form for relative PPP is:E[S t] = S0 [(1 + h FC)/(1 + h US)]td.For the home currency approach, we calculate the expected currency spot rate at time t as:E[S t] = (€0.5)[1.07/1.05]t= (€0.5)(1.019)tWe then convert the euro cash flows using this equation at every time, and find the present value. Doing so, we find:NPV = –[€2M/(€0.5)] + {€0.9M/[1.019(€0.5)]}/1.1 + {€0.9M/[1.0192(€0.5)]}/1.12 + {€0.9M/[1.0193(€0.5/$1)]}/1.13NPV = $316,230.72For the foreign currency approach, we first find the return in the euros as:R FC = 1.10(1.07/1.05) – 1 = 0.121Next, we find the NPV in euros as:NPV = –€2M + (€0.9M)/1.121 + (€0.9M)/1.1212+ (€0.9M)/1.1213= €158,115.36And finally, we convert the euros to dollars at the current exchange rate, which is:NPV ($) = €158,115.36 /(€0.5/$1) = $316,230.72。
公司理财(双语)4valuing bonds
PV
16 1.045
16
1.045
2
16
1.045
3
16
1.045
4
216
1.045
5
243.57 Yen
4- 24
Valuing a Bond
Example - USA
In July 2006 you purchase a 3 year US Government bond. The bond has an annual coupon rate of 4%, paid semi-annually. If investors demand a 2.48% return on 6 month investments, what is the price of the bond?
Principles of Corporate Finance
Ninth Edition
Chapter 4
Valuing Bonds
4- 2
Topics Covered
Bonds Using The Present Value Formula to Value Bonds How Bond Prices Vary With Interest Rates The Term Structure and YTM
– The face value is supposed to be paid back to the bondholders as the principal, no matter what the purchasing price of the bond
Coupon：annual interest payment Coupon rate: the stated rate of interest on a bond; or the annual interest payment divided by bond’s face value
2015公司理财(双语)-知识重点
第一篇价值第一章公司理财导论1.公司理财是对以下三个问题的研究：1) 资本预算〔Capital Budgeting〕：长期资产的投资和管理2) 资本结构〔Capital Structure〕：公司短期及长期负债与所有者权益的比例3) 净营运资本〔Net Working Capital〕：现金流量的短期管理〔流动资产– 流动负债〕2.财务管理目标：最大化现有股票的每股价值〔最大化现有所有者权益的市场价值〕。
因此，可以把公司理财定义为研究企业决策和企业股票价值的关系。
第二章会计报表与现金流量1.财务现金流量〔FCFF 企业自由现金流、资产的现金流〕= 经营性现金流量– 资本性支出– 净营运资本的增加= EBIT(1−t c)+折旧−资本性支出−净营运资本的增加其中：经营性现金流量= EBIT(1−t c)+折旧= (营业收入−营业支出)×(1−t c)+折旧×t c资本性支出= 购入的固定资产– 卖出的规定资产= 期末固定资产净额– 期初固定资产净额+ 折旧净营运资本的增加= 期末净营运资本– 期初净营运资本〔用current asset〕注：EBIT = 销售收入– 销售成本– 销售费用、一般费用及管理费用– 折旧+ 其他利润这里，可以看出NOPAT = NOPLAT2.计算项目的现金流：看第六章。
3.会计现金流量表= 经营活动产生的现金流量+ 投资活动产生的现金流量+ 筹资活动产生的现金流量第三章 财务报表分析与财务模型1. 盈余的度量指标：1 ) Net Income: 净利润 = 总收入 – 总支出 2) EPS: 每股收益 = 净利润/发行在外的总股份数3) EBIT: 息税前利润 = 经营活动总收入 – 经营活动总成本= 净利润 + 财务费用 + 所得税〔可排除资本结构〔利息支出〕和税收的影响〕 4) EBITDA: 息税及折旧和摊销前利润 = EBIT + 折旧和摊销 2. 财务比率分析 看Excel 表格总结3.偿债能力比率分析 a) 短期偿债能力分析i.流动比率ii. 速动比率iii. 现金比率b) 长期偿债能力分析i.资产负债率ii.利息保障倍数〔TIE 〕iii.产权比率iv.强制性现金支付比率4. 如果ROE 不太令人满意，可以从杜邦恒等式〔Du Pont Identity 〕中看出要从哪里寻找原因。
Cha08 罗斯公司理财第九版原版书课后习题
Earlier in the chapter, we saw how bonds were rated based on their credit risk. What you will find if you start looking at bonds of different ratings is that lower-rated bonds have higher yields.We stated earlier in this chapter that a bond’s yield is calculated assuming that all the promised payments will be made. As a result, it is really a promised yield, and it may or may not be what you will earn. In particular, if the issuer defaults, your actual yield will be lower, probably much lower. This fact is particularly important when it comes to junk bonds. Thanks to a clever bit of marketing, such bonds are now commonly called high-yield bonds, which has a much nicer ring to it; but now you recognize that these are really high promised yield bonds.Next, recall that we discussed earlier how municipal bonds are free from most taxes and, as a result, have much lower yields than taxable bonds. Investors demand the extra yield on a taxable bond as compensation for the unfavorable tax treatment. This extra compensation is the taxability premium.Finally, bonds have varying degrees of liquidity. As we discussed earlier, there are an enormous number of bond issues, most of which do not trade on a regular basis. As a result, if you wanted to sell quickly, you would probably not get as good a price as you could otherwise. Investors prefer liquid assets to illiquid ones, so they demand a liquidity premium on top of all the other premiums we have discussed. As a result, all else being the same, less liquid bonds will have higher yields than more liquid bonds.ConclusionIf we combine everything we have discussed, we find that bond yields represent the combined effect of no fewer than six factors. The first is the real rate of interest. On top of the real rate are five premiums representing compensation for (1) expected future inflation, (2) interest rate risk, (3) default risk, (4) taxability, and (5) lack of liquidity. As a result, determining the appropriate yield on a bond requires careful analysis of each of these factors.Summary and ConclusionsThis chapter has explored bonds, bond yields, and interest rates. We saw that:1. Determining bond prices and yields is an application of basic discounted cash flow principles.2. Bond values move in the direction opposite that of interest rates, leading to potential gains orlosses for bond investors.3. Bonds are rated based on their default risk. Some bonds, such as Treasury bonds, have no riskof default, whereas so-called junk bonds have substantial default risk.4. Almost all bond trading is OTC, with little or no market transparency in many cases. As a result,bond price and volume information can be difficult to find for some types of bonds.5. Bond yields and interest rates reflect six different factors: the real interest rate and fivepremiums that investors demand as compensation for inflation, interest rate risk, default risk, taxability, and lack of liquidity.In closing, we note that bonds are a vital source of financing to governments and corporations of all types. Bond prices and yields are a rich subject, and our one chapter, necessarily, touches on only the most important concepts and ideas. There is a great deal more we could say, but, instead, we will move on to stocks in our next chapter.Concept Questions1. Treasury Bonds Is it true that a U.S. Treasury security is risk-free?2. Interest Rate Risk Which has greater interest rate risk, a 30-year Treasury bond or a 30-year21. Using Bond Quotes Suppose the following bond quote for IOU Corporation appears in thefinancial page of today’s newspaper. Assume the bond has a face value of $1,000 and the current date is April 15, 2010. What is the yield to maturity of the bond? What is the current yield?22. Finding the Maturity You’ve just found a 10 percent coupon bond on the market that sells forpar value. What is the maturity on this bond?CHALLENGE (Questions 23–30)23. Components of Bond Returns Bond P is a premium bond with a 9 percent coupon. Bond D isa 5 percent coupon bond currently selling at a discount. Both bonds make annual payments, havea YTM of 7 percent, and have five years to maturity. What is the current yield for Bond P? For BondD? If interest rates remain unchanged, what is the expected capital gains yield over the next year for Bond P? For Bond D? Explain your answers and the interrelationship among the various types of yields.24. Holding Period Yield The YTM on a bond is the interest rate you earn on your investment ifinterest rates don’t change. If you actually sell the bond before it matures, your realized return is known as the holding period yield (HPY).1. Suppose that today you buy a 9 percent annual coupon bond for $1,140. The bond has 10years to maturity. What rate of return do you expect to earn on your investment?2. Two years from now, the YTM on your bond has declined by 1 percent, and you decide tosell. What price will your bond sell for? What is the HPY on your investment? Compare this yield to the YTM when you first bought the bond. Why are they different?25. Valuing Bonds The Morgan Corporation has two different bonds currently outstanding. Bond Mhas a face value of $20,000 and matures in 20 years. The bond makes no payments for the first six years, then pays $800 every six months over the subsequent eight years, and finally pays $1,000 every six months over the last six years. Bond N also has a face value of $20,000 and a maturity of20 years; it makes no coupon payments over the life of the bond. If the required return on boththese bonds is 8 percent compounded semiannually, what is the current price of Bond M? Of Bond N?26. R eal Cash Flows When Marilyn Monroe died, ex-husband Joe DiMaggio vowed to place freshflowers on her grave every Sunday as long as he lived. The week after she died in 1962, a bunch of fresh flowers that the former baseball player thought appropriate for the star cost about $8.Based on actuarial tables, “Joltin’ Joe” could expect to live for 30 years after the actress died.Assume that the EAR is 10.7 percent. Also, assume that the price of the flowers will increase at 3.5 percent per year, when expressed as an EAR. Assuming that each year has exactly 52 weeks, what is the present value of this commitment? Joe began purchasing flowers the week after Marilyn died.27. Real Cash Flows You are planning to save for retirement over the next 30 years. To save forretirement, you will invest $800 a month in a stock account in real dollars and $400 a month in a bond account in real dollars. The effective annual return of the stock account is expected to be 12 percent, and the bond account will earn 7 percent. When you retire, you will combine your money into an account with an 8 percent effective return. The inflation rate over this period is expected to be 4 percent. How much can you withdraw each month from your account in real terms assuminga 25-year withdrawal period? What is the nominal dollar amount of your last withdrawal?28. Real Cash Flows Paul Adams owns a health club in downtown Los Angeles. He charges hiscustomers an annual fee of $500 and has an existing customer base of 500. Paul plans to raise the annual fee by 6 percent every year and expects the club membership to grow at a constant rate of3 percent for the next five years. The overall expenses of running the health club are $75,000 ayear and are expected to grow at the inflation rate of 2 percent annually. After five years, Paul2. How many of the coupon bonds must East Coast Yachts issue to raise the $40 million? Howmany of the zeroes must it issue?3. In 20 years, what will be the principal repayment due if East Coast Yachts issues the couponbonds? What if it issues the zeroes?4. What are the company’s considerations in issuing a coupon bond compared to a zero couponbond?5. Suppose East Coast Yachts issues the coupon bonds with a make-whole call provision. Themake-whole call rate is the Treasury rate plus .40 percent. If East Coast calls the bonds in 7 years when the Treasury rate is 5.6 percent, what is the call price of the bond? What if it is 9.1 percent?6. Are investors really made whole with a make-whole call provision?7. After considering all the relevant factors, would you recommend a zero coupon issue or aregular coupon issue? Why? Would you recommend an ordinary call feature or a make-whole call feature? Why?。
公司理财英文版
公司理财英文版Company Financial ManagementIntroductionFinancial management is a critical aspect of running a successful business. It involves planning, organizing, controlling, and monitoring the company's financial resources to achieve its objectives. Effective financial management ensures that the company has sufficient funds, optimal utilization of resources, and profitability. This article provides an overview of the key components of company financial management, including financial planning, budgeting, forecasting, cash flow management, and risk management.Financial PlanningFinancial planning is the foundation of effective financial management. It involves assessing the company's current financial position, setting financial objectives, and developing strategies to achieve those objectives. The financial planning process includes analyzing the company's revenue and expenses, cash flow, assets and liabilities, and financial ratios. This analysis helps identify areas of improvement and opportunities for growth.One of the key aspects of financial planning is setting realistic and achievable financial goals. These goals can be short-term or long-term and should align with the company's overall business objectives. Financial goals may include increasing revenue, reducing expenses, improving profitability, or expanding into newmarkets. Setting specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals enhances the effectiveness of financial planning.BudgetingBudgeting is an integral part of financial management as it helps allocate financial resources effectively. A budget is a comprehensive plan that outlines the company's expected revenue and expenses for a specific period, typically a year. It serves as a roadmap for financial decision-making and helps control spending, ensure profitability, and allocate resources efficiently.The budgeting process involves gathering relevant financial data, estimating revenue and expenses, and projecting cash flows. The budget should be realistic, achievable, and aligned with the company's financial goals. It should also be flexible enough to adapt to changing circumstances and market conditions. Regular monitoring and review of the budget help identify variances and take corrective actions if necessary.ForecastingForecasting is an essential component of financial management as it helps anticipate future financial trends and outcomes. It involves analyzing historical data, market trends, and economic indicators to predict the company's financial performance. Forecasting enables companies to make informed decisions, identify potential risks and opportunities, and develop strategies to mitigate risks and exploit opportunities.Cash Flow ManagementCash flow management is crucial for the financial stability and success of a company. It involves monitoring and controlling the company's cash inflows and outflows to ensure sufficient liquidity and meet financial obligations. Effective cash flow management minimizes the risk of cash shortages, improves financial flexibility, and enhances the company's ability to invest in growth opportunities.To manage cash flow effectively, companies need to accurately forecast cash inflows from sales, investments, and financing activities. They also need to monitor and control cash outflows, including payments to suppliers, employee salaries, and loan repayments. Efficient working capital management, such as optimizing inventory levels and extending payment terms with suppliers, can help improve cash flow.Risk ManagementRisk management is an integral part of company financial management. It involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating financial risks that may impact the company's financial stability and performance. Some common financial risks include market risks, credit risks, liquidity risks, and operational risks.To manage financial risks effectively, companies need to develop robust risk management strategies and processes. This includes diversifying investments, hedging against currency or interest ratefluctuations, implementing internal controls and governance structures, and having effective insurance coverage. Regular monitoring and review of risk management strategies help ensure their effectiveness and relevance in the changing business environment.ConclusionEffective financial management is crucial for the success of any company. It involves planning, budgeting, forecasting, cash flow management, and risk management. Financial planning helps set realistic and achievable financial goals, while budgeting allocates financial resources effectively. Forecasting helps anticipate future financial trends and outcomes, and cash flow management ensures sufficient liquidity. Lastly, risk management mitigates financial risks that may impact the company's financial stability and performance. By implementing sound financial management practices, companies can improve profitability, maximize shareholder value, and achieve long-term sustainability.。
公司理财九版汉语翻译
1-14
1.5 代理问题
代理关系
委托人雇佣代理人来代表他/她的利益 股东(委托人)雇佣经理(代理人)来经营企业
代理问题
委托人和代理人之间有可能存在利益上的冲突
1-15
管理层目标
管理层目标与股东的目标可能会不一致
更高的薪酬 工作前景 独立性
资本结构决策
流动资产
长期资产 1 有形的 2 无形的
怎样为选定的 投资项目筹措资 金？
流动 负债 长期 负债
股东 权益
1-6
短期经营资产的管理
流动 资产
长期资产 1 有形的 2 无形的
净营运 资本
怎样管理和筹措 短期经营活动需 要的资产？
流动 负债
长期 负债
股东 权益
1-7
财务经理
财务经理的主要目标是通过以下措施来增加 企业的价值： 1. 选择能使价值增值的项目 2. 进行聪明的财务决策
销售与规模的增长并不直接就等于股东财 富的增长
1-16
管理管理者
管理者薪酬
可采用激励手段来协调管理层和股东的利益相 一致
为保证实现预定目标，需要非常细心地设计这 些激励机制
公司控制权
被并购和接管的威胁可促使管理层更好的工作
其他利益相关者
1-17
1.6 监管
1933年证券法和1934年证券交易法
以满足投资需求？ 3. 公司应如何管理日常财务活动？
1-3
Байду номын сангаас业的资产负债表模型
资产总价值
投资者拥有的总价值
流动负债
流动资产
长期资产 1 有形的 2 无形的
长期负债 股东权益
公司理财中英文课件 (11)
15
1 Introduction of Bonds
其他事项 1. Par value of bond usually are $1 ,0 0 0 or ₤100. 2. 实际的债券市价还取决于一般利率水平。 3. 多数债券每年只对外发放两次利息。 4. 债券分为无记名( bearer)和记名的(registered)。无记名债券 具有保密性优势, 但有三项缺点。 第一，易遗失或被盗。 第二，由于公司不知道债券的归属，因此无法将重大事项 通知债权人。 第三，不利于税收。
＋1000×10%×（Ｐ/Ａ，8%，10）＝463.20＋100×6.7101＝1134.21（元）
也就是说，投资者把1134.21元的资金投资于南华公司面值为 1000元的债券，便可获得8%的报酬。 【提示】无论采用溢价、折价还是平价发行，其目的都是使 投资者持有债券的到期收益率等于市场利率。
20
21
Indenture (债券契约)
债券契约 (Indenture): 与发行股票不同，公开发行债券的注 册报告中必须有一份债券契约（Indenture），一般长达几百 页。It is sometimes referred to as the deed of trust (信托证书). Indenture: is a written agreement between the corporation (the borrower) and a trust company(委托管理人). 1. The basic terms of the bonds. （债券的基本条款）. 2. A description of property used as security. （财产担保）. 3. Details of the protective covenants. （保护性条款）. 4. The sinking-fund arrangements. （偿债基金计划）. 5. The call provision. （赎回条款）.
2015年CFA二级考试各科目难度和重要度
2015年CFA二级考试各科目难度和重要度CFA二级考试的十个科目都是重点，计算量超级大，如果一级偶尔动动计算器，那二级就是偶尔不用计算器。
每一科掉以轻心都可能导致全盘皆输。
二级是三个级别中最难的，真是不假呀。
FSA难度：★★★★重要度：★★★★★依旧是重点中的重点，还是先啃最硬的骨头！1. Inventory和long lived assets是一级++中有详细铺垫过的，不再强调GAAP与IFRS两个标准的对比，重在介绍这两种资产不情况下的会计处理方法，不同方法下对财务报表的影响。
2. Intercorporateinvestment是二级新增，涉及期初，期末，公允变化等等计量。
按投资性质不同又分四类，各有不同的计量规则，每个规则下又涉及对商誉的不同处理，非常繁琐。
如果理解费劲的时候可以参看国内CPA会计的教材，里面对金融资产以及长期股权投资有非常系统的讲解。
Employeecompensation是二级新增，而且无法在国内找到任何参考资料，因为国内养老金运作和美国相比太不成熟。
所以这部分，很晦涩，看了半天也是只look，没See。
最便捷的方法是直接听课件，我在网店买书时店主送了很多光盘，里面有前几年某个机构录制的教学视频，建议完整听这个LOS的全部基础课内容。
虽然讲得只是干货，没有任何传道解惑的水平，但是起码这部分众多公式你不会混淆了。
应付考试还是好用的。
Multinationaloperation也是新增，不难。
两种方法，三种情况，总结好了，不要硬背，理解了自然而然就烂熟于心了。
3.the lessons welearn, evaluating FSq,没什么意思，就是把一级二级里所有可能操纵报表，弄虚作假的动作，后果影响全部列举一遍。
这部分很虚很空，我想如果实操经验不是很丰富的人根本无法体会这三张的意义。
所以即使他才是最重要的最灵活贴近金融市场的，但根本无法在试卷上出题考什么知识点。
总之FSA还是条理很清晰，知识点也不容易混，理解到位一劳永逸的一科。
《公司理财》课后答案(英文版,第六版).doc
Chapter 2: Accounting Statements and Cash Flow2.10AssetsCurrent assetsCash $ 4,000Accounts receivable 8,000Total current assets $ 12,000Fixed assetsMachinery $ 34,000Patents 82,000Total fixed assets $116,000Total assets $128,000Liabilities and equityCurrent liabilitiesAccounts payable $ 6,000Taxes payable 2,000Total current liabilities $ 8,000Long-term liabilitiesBonds payable $7,000Stockholders equityCommon stock ($100 par) $ 88,000Capital surplus 19,000Retained earnings 6,000Total stockholders equity $113,000Total liabilities and equity $128,0002.11One year ago TodayLong-term debt $50,000,000 $50,000,000Preferred stock 30,000,000 30,000,000Common stock 100,000,000 110,000,000Retained earnings 20,000,000 22,000,000Total $200,000,000 $212,000,0002.12Total Cash Flow ofthe Stancil CompanyCash flows from the firmCapital spending $(1,000)Additions to working capital (4,000)Total $(5,000)Cash flows to investors of the firmShort-term debt $(6,000)Long-term debt (20,000)Equity (Dividend - Financing) 21,000Total $(5,000)[Note: This table isn’t the Statement of Cash Flows, which is only covered in Appendix 2B, since the latter has th e change in cash (on the balance sheet) as a final entry.]2.13 a. The changes in net working capital can be computed from:Sources of net working capitalNet income $100Depreciation 50Increases in long-term debt 75Total sources $225Uses of net working capitalDividends $50Increases in fixed assets* 150Total uses $200Additions to net working capital $25*Includes $50 of depreciation.b.Cash flow from the firmOperating cash flow $150Capital spending (150)Additions to net working capital (25)Total $(25)Cash flow to the investorsDebt $(75)Equity 50Total $(25)Chapter 3: Financial Markets and Net Present Value: First Principles of Finance (Advanced)3.14 $120,000 - ($150,000 - $100,000) (1.1) = $65,0003.15 $40,000 + ($50,000 - $20,000) (1.12) = $73,6003.16 a. ($7 million + $3 million) (1.10) = $11.0 millionb.i. They could spend $10 million by borrowing $5 million today.ii. They will have to spend $5.5 million [= $11 million - ($5 million x 1.1)] at t=1.Chapter 4: Net Present Valuea. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the interest already earned. Therefore, the interest earned inSince this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the present value of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.30PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.23a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same. Remember, FV =PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV. Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. You should choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. You know that rate mustfall between 10% and 20% because the option you would choose differs at these rates. Let r be thediscount rate that makes you indifferent between the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for six years. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earn interest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.61PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.18a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earning interest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at the e nd of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earns interest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balance that earns interest is rising faster.The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply the perpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $800a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of theperpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.pply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present value of an annuity factor.ANPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 81.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments. Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments.A= $2,000 (9.8181)Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20.008= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.88The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must be equal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A T r. The annuity factors are in the appendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the row labeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.[ 10% ⎤[6.1446 ⎤a ⎡r ⎥bc ⎡6.4 ⎪ d⎣9%⎦⎣6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate. Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.[Note: A standard financial calculator’s TVM keys can solve for this rate. With annuity flows, the IRR key on “advanced” financial c alculators is unnecessary.]a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000 which youThat amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075]. Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.A$17,824.65 = C 507.0$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 five years from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 / 1.075 =$17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (see footnote 11 of the text).Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-tax amounts. Theafter-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of $115,200 to obtain the value of this option.AValue = $115,200 + $115,200 30.010= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-tax payment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].AValue = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.et r be the rate of interest you must earn.$10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000(1 + r)12= 8r = 0.18921 = 18.921%First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s educati on. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education isA= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955.$21,000 415.0This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these isPV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516= $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44.A= $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.80Payment = $14,880.44 / 15.015This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is$50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60.PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is$21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46se the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV of the project. NoticeYou can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV0.9091 $636.371$70020.8264 743.769003 1,000 ⎤4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.805 1,000 ⎥6 1,000 ⎦7 1,250 0.5132 641.508 1,375 0.4665 641.44Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87= $282.87Purchase the machine.Chapter 5: How to Value Bonds and StocksThe amount of the semi-annual interest payment is $40 (=$1,000 ⨯ 0.08 / 2). There are a total of 40 periods;i.e., two half years in each of the twenty years in the term to maturity. The annuity factor tables can be usedto price these bonds. The appropriate discount rate to use is the semi-annual rate. That rate is simply the annual rate divided by two. Thus, for part b the rate to be used is 5% and for part c is it 3%.A+F/(1+r)40PV=C Tra. $40 (19.7928) + $1,000 / 1.0440 = $1,000Notice that whenever the coupon rate and the market rate are the same, the bond is priced at par.b. $40 (17.1591) + $1,000 / 1.0540 = $828.41Notice that whenever the coupon rate is below the market rate, the bond is priced below par.c. $40 (23.1148) + $1,000 / 1.0340 = $1,231.15Notice that whenever the coupon rate is above the market rate, the bond is priced above par.a. The semi-annual interest rate is $60 / $1,000 = 0.06. Thus, the effective annual rate is 1.062 - 1 =0.1236 = 12.36%.A+ $1,000 / 1.0612b. Price = $30 12.006= $748.48A+ $1,000 / 1.0412c. Price = $30 1204.0= $906.15Note: In parts b and c we are implicitly assuming that the yield curve is flat. That is, the yield in year 5applies for year 6 as well.rice = $2 (0.72) / 1.15 + $4 (0.72) / 1.152 + $50 / 1.153= $36.31The number of shares you own = $100,000 / $36.31 = 2,754 sharesPrice = $1.15 (1.18) / 1.12 + $1.15 (1.182) / 1.122 + $1.152 (1.182) / 1.123+ {$1.152 (1.182)(1.06) / (0.12 - 0.06)} / 1.123= $26.95[Insert before last sentence of question: Assume that dividends are a fixed proportion of earnings.] Dividend one year from now = $5 (1 - 0.10) = $4.50Price = $5 + $4.50 / {0.14 - (-0.10)}= $23.75Since the current $5 dividend has not yet been paid, it is still included in the stock price.Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment Rulesa. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 yearsPayback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. NPV A = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96NPV B = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83Project B should be chosen.a. Average Investment:($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000Average accounting return:$4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25%b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does not consider the timevalue of money.2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule.3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows.aAverage Investment = (8000 + 4000 + 1500 + 0)/4 = 3375.00Average Net Income = 2000(1-0.75) = 1500=> AAR = 1500/3375=44.44%a. Solve x by trial and error:-$8,000 + $4,000 / (1 + x) + $3000 / (1 + x)2 + $2,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0x = 6.93%b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discount rate of 8%.Alternatively, the NPV @ a discount rate of 0.08 = -$136.62.a. Solve r in the equation:$5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3- $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0By trial and error,IRR = r = 13.99%b. Since this problem is the case of financing, accept the project if the IRR is less than the required rate of return.IRR = 13.99% > 10%Reject the offer.c. IRR = 13.99% < 20%Accept the offer.d. When r = 10%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14When r = 20%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24= $466.82Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cash flows change only once.A/ $160,000 = 1.04PI = $40,000 715.0Since the PI exceeds one accept the project.Chapter 7: Net Present Value and Capital BudgetingSince there is uncertainty surrounding the bonus payments, which McRae might receive, you must use the expected value of McRae’s bonuses in the computation of the PV of his contract. McRae’s salary plus the expected value of his bonuses in years one through three is$250,000 + 0.6 ⨯ $75,000 + 0.4 ⨯ $0 = $295,000.Thus the total PV of his three-year contract isPV = $400,000 + $295,000 [(1 - 1 / 1.12363) / 0.1236]+ {$125,000 / 1.12363} [(1 - 1 / 1.123610 / 0.1236]= $1,594,825.68EPS = $800,000 / 200,000 = $4NPVGO = (-$400,000 + $1,000,000) / 200,000 = $3Price = EPS / r + NPVGO= $4 / 0.12 + $3=$36.33Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 51. Annual Salary$120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 $120,000 Savings2. Depreciation 100,000 160,000 96,000 57,600 57,6003. Taxable Income 20,000 -40,000 24,000 62,400 62,4004. Taxes 6,800 -13,600 8,160 21,216 21,2165. Operating Cash Flow113,200 133,600 111,840 98,784 98,784 (line 1-4)$100,000 -100,0006. ∆ Net workingcapital7. Investment $500,000 75,792*8. Total Cash Flow -$400,000 $113,200 $133,600 $111,840 $98,784 $74,576*75,792 = $100,000 - 0.34 ($100,000 - $28,800)NPV = -$400,000+ $113,200 / 1.12 + $133,600 / 1.122 + $111,840 / 1.123+ $98,784 / 1.124 + $74,576 / 1.125= -$7,722.52Real interest rate = (1.15 / 1.04) - 1 = 10.58%NPV A = -$40,000+ $20,000 / 1.1058 + $15,000 / 1.10582 + $15,000 / 1.10583= $1,446.76NPV B = -$50,000+ $10,000 / 1.15 + $20,000 / 1.152 + $40,000 / 1.153= $119.17Choose project A.PV = $120,000 / {0.11 - (-0.06)}t = 0 t = 1 t = 2 t = 3 t = 4 t = 5 t = 6 ...$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 $6,000$4,000$12,000 $6,000 $6,000 ...The present value of one cycle is:A+ $4,000 / 1.064PV = $12,000 + $6,000 306.0= $12,000 + $6,000 (2.6730) + $4,000 / 1.064= $31,206.37The cycle is four years long, so use a four year annuity factor to compute the equivalent annual cost (EAC).AEAC = $31,206.37 / 406.0= $31,206.37 / 3.4651= $9,006The present value of such a stream in perpetuity is$9,006 / 0.06 = $150,100o evaluate the word processors, compute their equivalent annual costs (EAC).BangAPV(costs) = (10 ⨯ $8,000) + (10 ⨯ $2,000) 414.0= $80,000 + $20,000 (2.9137)= $138,274EAC = $138,274 / 2.9137= $47,456IOUAPV(costs) = (11 ⨯ $5,000) + (11 ⨯ $2,500) 3.014- (11 ⨯ $500) / 1.143= $55,000 + $27,500 (2.3216) - $5,500 / 1.143= $115,132EAC = $115,132 / 2.3216= $49,592BYO should purchase the Bang word processors.Chapter 8: Strategy and Analysis in Using Net Present ValueThe accounting break-even= (120,000 + 20,000) / (1,500 - 1,100)= 350 units. The accounting break-even= 340,000 / (2.00 - 0.72)= 265,625 abalonesb. [($2.00 ⨯ 300,000) - (340,000 + 0.72 ⨯ 300,000)] (0.65)= $28,600This is the after tax profit.Chapter 9: Capital Market Theory: An Overviewa. Capital gains = $38 - $37 = $1 per shareb. Total dollar returns = Dividends + Capital Gains = $1,000 + ($1*500) = $1,500 On a per share basis, this calculation is $2 + $1 = $3 per sharec. On a per share basis, $3/$37 = 0.0811 = 8.11% On a total dollar basis, $1,500/(500*$37) = 0.0811 = 8.11%d. No, you do not need to sell the shares to include the capital gains in the computation of the returns. The capital gain is included whether or not you realize the gain. Since you could realize the gain if you choose, you should include it.The expected holding period return is:()[]%865.1515865.052$/52$75.54$50.5$==-+There appears to be a lack of clarity about the meaning of holding period returns. The method used in the answer to this question is the one used in Section 9.1. However, the correspondence is not exact, because in this question, unlike Section 9.1, there are cash flows within the holding period. The answer above ignores the dividend paid in the first year. Although the answer above technically conforms to the eqn at the bottom of Fig. 9.2, the presence of intermediate cash flows that aren’t accounted for renders th is measure questionable, at best. There is no similar example in the body of the text, and I have never seen holding period returns calculated in this way before.Although not discussed in this book, there are two generally accepted methods of computing holding period returns in the presence of intermediate cash flows. First, the time weighted return calculates averages (geometric or arithmetic) of returns between cash flows. Unfortunately, that method can’t be used here, because we are not given the va lue of the stock at the end of year one. Second, the dollar weighted measure calculates the internal rate of return over the entire holding period. Theoretically, that method can be applied here, as follows: 0 = -52 + 5.50/(1+r) + 60.25/(1+r)2 => r = 0.1306.This produces a two year holding period return of (1.1306)2 – 1 = 0.2782. Unfortunately, this book does not teach the dollar weighted method.In order to salvage this question in a financially meaningful way, you would need the value of the stock at the end of one year. Then an illustration of the correct use of the time-weighted return would be appropriate. A complicating factor is that, while Section 9.2 illustrates the holding period return using the geometric return for historical data, the arithmetic return is more appropriate for expected future returns.E(R) = T-Bill rate + Average Excess Return = 6.2% + (13.0% -3.8%) = 15.4%. Common Treasury Realized Stocks Bills Risk Premium -7 32.4% 11.2% 21.2%-6 -4.9 14.7 -19.6-5 21.4 10.5 10.9 -4 22.5 8.8 13.7 -3 6.3 9.9 -3.6 -2 32.2 7.7 24.5 Last 18.5 6.2 12.3 b. The average risk premium is 8.49%.49.873.125.246.37.139.106.192.21=++-++- c. Yes, it is possible for the observed risk premium to be negative. This can happen in any single year. The.b.Standard deviation = 03311.0001096.0=.b.Standard deviation = = 0.03137 = 3.137%.b.Chapter 10: Return and Risk: The Capital-Asset-Pricing Model (CAPM)a. = 0.1 (– 4.5%) + 0.2 (4.4%) + 0.5 (12.0%) + 0.2 (20.7%) = 10.57%b.σ2 = 0.1 (–0.045 – 0.1057)2 + 0.2 (0.044 – 0.1057)2 + 0.5 (0.12 – 0.1057)2+ 0.2 (0.207 – 0.1057)2 = 0.0052σ = (0.0052)1/2 = 0.072 = 7.20%Holdings of Atlas stock = 120 ⨯ $50 = $6,000 ⨯ $20 = $3,000Weight of Atlas stock = $6,000 / $9,000 = 2 / 3Weight of Babcock stock = $3,000 / $9,000 = 1 / 3a. = 0.3 (0.12) + 0.7 (0.18) = 0.162 = 16.2%σP 2= 0.32 (0.09)2 + 0.72 (0.25)2 + 2 (0.3) (0.7) (0.09) (0.25) (0.2)= 0.033244σP= (0.033244)1/2 = 0.1823 = 18.23%a.State Return on A Return on B Probability1 15% 35% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.22 15% -5% 0.4 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.23 10% 35% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.34 10% -5% 0.6 ⨯ 0.5 = 0.3b. = 0.2 [0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.2[0.5 (0.15) + 0.5 (-0.05)]+ 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (0.35)] + 0.3 [0.5 (0.10) + 0.5 (-0.05)]= 0.135= 13.5%Note: The solution to this problem requires calculus.Specifically, the solution is found by minimizing a function subject to a constraint. Calculus ability is not necessary to understand the principles behind a minimum variance portfolio.Min { X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)}subject to X A + X B = 1Let X A = 1 - X B. Then,Min {(1 - X B)2σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2(1 - X B) X B Cov (R A, R B)}Take a derivative with respect to X B.d{∙} / dX B = (2 X B - 2) σA2+ 2 X B σB2 + 2 Cov(R A, R B) - 4 X B Cov(R A, R B)Set the derivative equal to zero, cancel the common 2 and solve for X B.X BσA2- σA2+ X B σB2 + Cov(R A, R B) - 2 X B Cov(R A, R B) = 0X B = {σA2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}andX A = {σB2 - Cov(R A, R B)} / {σA2+ σB2 - 2 Cov(R A, R B)}Using the data from the problem yields,X A = 0.8125 andX B = 0.1875.a. Using the weights calculated above, the expected return on the minimum variance portfolio isE(R P) = 0.8125 E(R A) + 0.1875 E(R B)= 0.8125 (5%) + 0.1875 (10%)= 5.9375%b. Using the formula derived above, the weights areX A = 2 / 3 andX B = 1 / 3c. The variance of this portfolio is zero.σP 2= X A2 σA2 + X B2σB2+ 2 X A X B Cov(R A , R B)= (4 / 9) (0.01) + (1 / 9) (0.04) + 2 (2 / 3) (1 / 3) (-0.02)= 0This demonstrates that assets can be combined to form a risk-free portfolio.14.2%= 3.7%+β(7.5%) ⇒β = 1.40.25 = R f + 1.4 [R M– R f] (I)0.14 = R f + 0.7 [R M– R f] (II)(I) – (II)=0.11 = 0.7 [R M– R f] (III)[R M– R f ]= 0.1571Put (III) into (I) 0.25 = R f + 1.4[0.1571]R f = 3%[R M– R f ]= 0.1571R M = 0.1571 + 0.03= 18.71%a. = 4.9% + βi (9.4%)βD= Cov(R D, R M) / σM 2 = 0.0635 / 0.04326 = 1.468= 4.9 + 1.468 (9.4) = 18.70%Weights:X A = 5 / 30 = 0.1667X B = 10 / 30 = 0.3333X C = 8 / 30 = 0.2667X D = 1 - X A - X B - X C = 0.2333Beta of portfolio= 0.1667 (0.75) + 0.3333 (1.10) + 0.2667 (1.36) + 0.2333 (1.88)= 1.293= 4 + 1.293 (15 - 4) = 18.22%a. (i) βA= ρA,MσA / σMρA,M= βA σM / σA= (0.9) (0.10) / 0.12= 0.75(ii) σB= βB σM / ρB,M= (1.10) (0.10) / 0.40= 0.275(iii) βC= ρC,MσC / σM= (0.75) (0.24) / 0.10= 1.80(iv) ρM,M= 1(v) βM= 1(vi) σf= 0(vii) ρf,M= 0(viii) βf= 0b. SML:E(R i) = R f + βi {E(R M) - R f}= 0.05 + (0.10) βiSecurity βi E(R i)A 0.13 0.90 0.14B 0.16 1.10 0.16C 0.25 1.80 0.23Security A performed worse than the market, while security C performed better than the market.Security B is fairly priced.c. According to the SML, security A is overpriced while security C is under-priced. Thus, you could invest in security C while sell security A (if you currently hold it).a. The typical risk-averse investor seeks high returns and low risks. To assess thetwo stocks, find theReturns:State of economy ProbabilityReturn on A*Recession 0.1 -0.20 Normal 0.8 0.10 Expansion0.10.20* Since security A pays no dividend, the return on A is simply (P 1 / P 0) - 1. = 0.1 (-0.20) + 0.8 (0.10) + 0.1 (0.20) = 0.08 = 0.09 This was given in the problem.Risk:R A - (R A -)2 P ⨯ (R A -)2 -0.28 0.0784 0.00784 0.02 0.0004 0.00032 0.12 0.0144 0.00144 Variance 0.00960Standard deviation (R A ) = 0.0980βA = {Corr(R A , R M ) σ(R A )} / σ(R M ) = 0.8 (0.0980) / 0.10= 0.784βB = {Corr(R B , R M ) σ(R B )} / σ(R M ) = 0.2 (0.12) / 0.10= 0.24The return on stock B is higher than the return on stock A. The risk of stock B, as measured by itsbeta, is lower than the risk of A. Thus, a typical risk-averse investor will prefer stock B.b. = (0.7) + (0.3) = (0.7) (0.8) + (0.3) (0.09) = 0.083σP 2= 0.72 σA 2 + 0.32 σB 2 + 2 (0.7) (0.3) Corr (R A , R B ) σA σB = (0.49) (0.0096) + (0.09) (0.0144) + (0.42) (0.6) (0.0980) (0.12) = 0.0089635 σP = = 0.0947 c. The beta of a portfolio is the weighted average of the betas of the components of the portfolio. βP = (0.7) βA + (0.3) βB = (0.7) (0.784) + (0.3) (0.240) = 0.621Chapter 11:An Alternative View of Risk and Return: The Arbitrage Pricing Theorya. Stock A:()()R R R R R A A A m m Am A=+-+=+-+βεε105%12142%...Stock B:()()R R R R R B B m m Bm B=+-+=+-+βεε130%098142%...Stock C:()R R R R R C C C m m Cm C=+-+=+-+βεε157%137142%)..(.b.()[]()[]()[]()()()()()()[]()()CB A m cB A m c m B m A m CB A P 25.045.030.0%2.14R 1435.1%925.1225.045.030.0%2.14R 37.125.098.045.02.130.0%7.1525.0%1345.0%5.1030.0%2.14R 37.1%7.1525.0%2.14R 98.0%0.1345.0%2.14R 2.1%5.1030.0R 25.0R 45.0R 30.0R ε+ε+ε+-+=ε+ε+ε+-+++++=ε+-++ε+-++ε+-+=++= c.i.()R R R A B C =+-==+-==+-=105%1215%142%)1113%09815%142%)137%157%13715%142%168%..(..46%.(......ii.R P =+-=12925%1143515%142%)138398%..(..To determine which investment investor would prefer, you must compute the variance of portfolios created bymany stocks from either market. Note, because you know that diversification is good, it is reasonable to assume that once an investor chose the market in which he or she will invest, he or she will buy many stocks in that market.Known:E EF ====001002 and and for all i.i σσεε..Assume: The weight of each stock is 1/N; that is, X N i =1/for all i.If a portfolio is composed of N stocks each forming 1/N proportion of the portfolio, the return on the portfolio is 1/N times the sum of the returns on the N stocks. Recall that the return on each stock is 0.1+βF+ε.()()()()()()[]()()()()()()()[]()[]()[]()()[]()()()()()j i 2j i 22j i i 2222222222P P P P iP ,0.04Corr 0.01,Cov s =isvariance the ,N as limit In the ,Cov 1/N 1s 1/N s )(1/N 1/N F 2F E 1/N F E 0.10.1/N F 0.1E R E R E R Var 0.101/N 00.1E 1/N F E 0.11/N F 0.1E R E 1/N F 0.1F 0.1(1/N)R 1/N R εε+β=εε+β∞⇒εε-+ε+β=ε∑+εβ+β=ε+β=-ε+β+=-==+β+=ε+β+=ε∑+β+=ε+β+=ε+β+==∑∑∑∑∑∑∑∑()()()()()()Thus,F R f E R E R Var R Corr Var R Corr ii ip P p i j PijR 1i =++=++===+=+010*********002250040002500412212111222.........,,εεεεεεa.()()()()Corr Corr Var R Var R i j i j p pεεεε112212000225000225,,..====Since Var ()()R p 1 Var R 2p 〉, a risk averse investor will prefer to invest in the second market.b. Corr ()()εεεε112090i j j ,.,== and Corr 2i()()Var R Var R pp120058500025==..。
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$1,000 (1.06)
30
$174.11
4- 12
Equation
4- 13
Equation Yield to Maturity of an n-Year Zero-Coupon Bond
Example Yields for Different Maturities
4- 14
Example 8.1 Yields for Different Maturities
PV
16 1.045
16
1.045
2
16
1.045
3
16
1.045
4
216
1.045
5
243.57 Yen
4- 24
Valuing a Bond
Example - USA
In July 2006 you purchase a 3 year US Government bond. The bond has an annual coupon rate of 4%, paid semi-annually. If investors demand a 2.48% return on 6 month investments, what is the price of the bond?
The yield to maturity is the required market interest rate on the bond.
4- 5
Bonds
Face value is the stated value of an asset. In the case of a bond, the face value is usually $1000
4- 6
Treasury Bond – issued by the federal government. Corporate Bond – issued by corporations. Municipal Bonds – issued by state and local governments. Foreign Bonds – issued by either foreign governments or foreign corporations.
4- 11
Pure Discount Bonds: Example
Find the value of a 30-year zero-coupon bond with a $1,000 par value and a YTM of 6%.
$0
$0
$0
$1,000
0
1
2
29
30
PV
F (1 r )
4- 20
Valuing a Bond
Example If today is October 1, 2007, what is the value of the following bond? An IBM Bond pays $115 every September 30 for 5 years. In September 2012 it pays an additional $1000 and retires the bond. The bond is rated AAA (WSJ AAA YTM is 7.5%)
4- 4
Bonds (the indenture)
A bond is a legally binding agreement between a borrower and a lender that specifies the:
– – – – Par (face) value ---principal Coupon rate Coupon payment Maturity Date
– The face value is supposed to be paid back to the bondholders as the principal, no matter what the purchasing price of the bond
Coupon：annual interest payment Coupon rate: the stated rate of interest on a bond; or the annual interest payment divided by bond’s face value
Principles of Corporate Finance
Ninth Edition
Chapter 4
Valuing Bonds
4- 2
Topics Covered
Bonds Using The Present Value Formula to Value Bonds How Bond Prices Vary With Interest Rates The Term Structure and YTM
PV
115 1.075
115
1.075
2
115
1.075
3
115
1.075
4
1,115
1.075
5
$1,161.84
4- 22
Valuing a Bond
Example - Germany
In July 2006 you purchase 100 Euros of bonds in Germany which pay a 5% coupon every year. If the bond matures in 2012 and the YTM is 3.8%, what is the value of the bond?
PV 5 1.038 5
1.038
2
5
1.038
3
5
1.038
4
5
1.038
5
105
1.038
6
106.33 Euros
4- 23
Valuing a Bond
Another Example - Japan
In July 2006 you purchase 200 Yen of bonds in Japan which pay a 8% coupon every year. If the bond matures in 2011 and the YTM is 4.5%, what is the value of the bond?
4- 17
Bond Price
Yield-to-maturity (YTM)
7-17
4- 18
Valuing a Bond
PV
C1 (1 r )
1
C2 (1 r )
2
...
1,000 C N (1 r )
N
4- 19
Coupon bonds
Like zero-coupon bonds, coupons bonds pay investors their face value at maturity. In addition, these bonds make regular coupon interest payments.
4- 7
Government Bonds
U.S. Government Bonds
– Treasury bills – pure discount bonds with original maturity of one year or less – T-notes – coupon debt with original maturity between one and ten years
4- 9
Zero-coupon bonds
Suppose that a one-year, risk-free, zero coupon bond with a 100,000 face value has an initial price of $96,618.36Year0 1-$96,618.36
PV
20 1.0248
20
1.0248
2
20
1.0248
3
20
1.0248
4
20
1.0248
5
1020
1.0248
6
$973.54
4- 25
Valuing a Bond
Example continued - USA
Take the same 3 year US Government bond. The bond has an annual coupon rate of 4%, paid semi-annually. If investors demand a 1.50% return on 6 month investments, what is the new price of the bond?
Cash Flows Sept 08 09 10 11 12 115 115 115 115 1115
4- 21
Valuing a Bond
Example continued
If today is October 1, 2007, what is the value of the following bond? An IBM Bond pays $115 every September 30 for 5 years. In September 2012 it pays an additional $1000 and retires the bond. The bond is rated AAA (WSJ AAA YTM is 7.5%)