CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-74

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CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及答案1122-47

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及答案1122-471、Prior to the president’s intervention, the actions by the farmers relative to the manufacturers over the disputed price of water is best described as:【单选题】A.moral hazard.B.adverse selection.C.regulatory arbitrage.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The farmers’ having the ability to restrict the release of water to the detriment of the manufacturers during the pricing dispute is an example of a moral hazard.2、Based on Exhibit 1, which variable in the Beneish model has a year-over-year change that would increase Miland’s likelihood of manipulation?【单选题】A.DSRB.LEVIC.SGAI正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The DSR (days’ sales receivable index)variable in the Beneish model is related positively to the Beneish model M-score. Therefore, a year-over-year increase in DSR from 0.9 to 1.20 would lead to an increase in the M-score, which implies an increase in Miland’s likelihood of manipulation.3、ABC Investment Management acquires a new, very large account with two concentrated positions. The firm’s current policy is to add new accounts for the purpose of performance calculation after the first full month of management. Cupp is responsible for calculating the firm’s performance returns. Before the end of the initial month, Cupp notices that one of the significant holdings of the new accounts is acquired by another company, causing the value of the investment to double. Because of this holding, Cupp decides to account for the new portfolio as of the date of transfer, thereby allowing ABC Investment to reap the positive impact of that month’s portfolio return.【单选题】A.Cupp did not violate the Code and Standards because the GIPS standards allow composites to be updated on the date of large external cash flows.B.Cupp did not violate the Code and Standards because companies are allowed to determine when to incorporate new。

超详细版CFA二考经

超详细版CFA二级考经今年6月的CFA二级成绩刚出来，我5A3B2C顺利通过。

这个成绩比那些大牛们还相差甚远，但我也不认为这是个低空飘过的分数。

两个C分别是Quantitative和FixedIncome，都是权重最小的（今年的FixedIncome破天荒只出了一个itemset），5个A里面却包括了Equity和FSA这样权重很大的科目。

根据权重来安排复习计划很重要，我考一级的时候就是这个战略，最后是以6A4B的成绩通过的，6个A里面依然包括着Equity、FSA和Ethics这些大权重topic。

但无论怎么复习终归还是有些点复习不到或者考试时候忘记，这是难以避免的，既然70%就可以通过，另外30%就要合理挥霍一下嘛。

为了攒人品和为后来者提供一些建议，我把我复习每一个topic的经验分享一下。

首先介绍一下我的学术背景：美国综合排名60位左右的大学经济学本科毕业（辅修数学和金融），现在在综合排名40左右的大学读金融研究生。

鉴于我开始读研究生的时候已经考完二级了，所以研究生的背景对于这次考试的通过可以忽略不计。

我在大学的时候修过几门金融的课程，但是真正把所有知识体系梳理清楚和对金融有清晰认识是复习CFA一级的时候。

一级虽然难度不高，但是知识点体系庞大，通过一级可以为以后的金融学习奠定一个很好的基础。

我正式开始复习二级是三月初，时间比较充裕，但如果你上班上课很紧张的话我建议从年初就要开始准备了。

Ethical &Professional StandardsEthics的面孔在所有topic里面既熟悉又陌生。

熟悉在那一条条一级就已经考过的道德准则，陌生在做练习题的时候照样一题题地做错。

Ethics比一级多加了一个Softdollar standard和Research objectivity standard, 看似仅仅是对道德准则中两条小准则的延伸，字面的表达也很好理解，但是无奈做题就是做不对。

2024cfa 二级题库

2024cfa 二级题库审计风险评估审计风险是审计师在审计结论中发出不恰当意见的风险，从而对财务报表使用者的依赖性造成损害。

审计风险评估是审计过程的重要组成部分，它为审计师提供了一种确定审计重点和分配资源的方法。

固有风险评估固有风险评估涉及对财务报表中固有错误发生的可能性进行评估。

审计师考虑与行业、实体规模和复杂性相关的因素，以及财务报表中固有错误的可能性。

例如，当涉及复杂交易、频繁的管理层变动或财务困难时，固有风险通常较高。

审计师会进行行业分析、风险评估程序和分析性程序来评估固有风险。

控制风险评估控制风险评估涉及对控制措施有效性的评估，这些措施旨在防止或发现和纠正财务报表中的错误。

审计师考虑控制环境、风险评估、控制活动、信息和沟通、以及内部和外部监督。

例如，当内部控制薄弱或存在控制缺陷时，控制风险通常较高。

审计师会执行控制测试程序来评估控制风险。

查错风险评估查错风险评估涉及对审计程序是否能发现财务报表中的重要错误进行评估。

审计师考虑审计方法、取样风险和计划的范围。

例如，当审计程序非常有限或取样风险较高时，查错风险通常较高。

审计师会设计和执行实质性程序来评估查错风险。

审计风险与审计程序审计风险评估的结果用于确定适当的审计程序。

审计师会增加或减少审计程序的范围和性质，以应对较高的审计风险。

例如，如果固有风险或控制风险较高，审计师可能会执行额外的分析性程序或扩大取样规模。

如果查错风险较高，审计师可能会修改审计计划以包括额外的程序。

持续评估审计风险评估是一个持续的过程，可能会随着审计的进展而改变。

审计师会通过对获得的额外证据和信息进行评估来更新审计风险评估。

例如，如果审计师发现重大的控制缺陷，他们可能会提高控制风险评估，并相应地调整审计程序。

结论审计风险评估对于确保审计结论的可靠性至关重要。

通过仔细评估固有风险、控制风险和查错风险，审计师可以确定适当的审计程序并降低发出不恰当意见的风险。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-33

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-33
1、Based on Exhibit 2, forecasted interest expense will reflect changes in Chrome’s debt level under the forecast assumptions used by:【单选题】
A.62.7%.
B.67.0%.
C.69.1%.
正确答案:C
答案解析:C is correct. The calculation of Archway’s gross profit margin for 2015, which reflects the industry-wide 8% inflation on cost of goods sold (COGS), is calculated as follows:
A.Candidate A.
B.Candidate B.
C.Candidate C.
正确答案:A
答案解析:A is correct. In forecasting financing costs such as interest expense, the debt/equity structure of a company is a key determinant. Accordingly, a method that recognizes the relationship between the income statement account (interest expense) and the balance sheet account (debt) would be a preferable method for forecasting interest expense when compared with methods that forecast based solely on the income statement account. By using the effective interest rate (interest expense divided by average gross debt), Candidate A is taking the debt/equity structure into account whereas Candidate B (who forecasts 2013 interest expense to be thesame as 2012 interest expense) and Candidate C (who forecasts 2013 interest expense to be the same as the 2010–2012 average interest expense) are not taking the balance sheet into consideration.

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-3

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-41、In replying to Hextall’s recollection of the financial crisis, Klink most likely considered which risk measure?【单选题】A.VaRB.Scenario analysisC.Sensitivity analysis正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Scenario analysis is used for estimating how a portfolio might perform under conditions of market stress. Scenario risk measures estimate the portfolio returns that would result from a hypothetical change in markets. Stress tests and reverse stress tests are closely related to scenario risk measures. In addressing the possibility of direct exposure to extreme, negative events, Klink is describing a reverse stress test in which specific exposures of the portfolio (10 in this example) are identified. A hypothetical stress test (“reverse stress test”) is designed to measure its effect on each of these exposures.A is incorrect. VaR is used to measure the probabilityof a large loss. One limitation of VaR is its failure to take into account illiquidity.C is incorrect. Sensitivity analysis is used to estimate how gains and losses in the portfolio change with changes in the underlying risk factors. For a short-term investment portfolio consisting entirely of short-duration, high-credit-quality fixed-income securities, there is likely little or no exposure to market sensitivity risk measures, such as beta, duration, convexity, delta, and gamma.2、Stephenson’s return objective and risk tolerance are most appropriately described as:【单选题】A.Return Objective: Below average; Risk Tolerance: Above average.B.Return Objective: Above average; Risk Tolerance: Below average.C.Return Objective: Above average; Risk Tolerance: Above average.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct.Risk: Stephenson has an above-average risk tolerance based on both his ability and willingness to assume risk. His large asset base, long time horizon, ample income to cover expenses, and lack of need for liquidity or cash flow indicate an above-average ability to assume risk. Hisconcentration in US small-capitalization stocks and his desire for high returns indicate substantial willingness to assume risk.Return: Stephenson’s financial circumstances (long time horizon, sizable asset base, ample income, and low liquidity needs) and his risk tolerance warrant an above-average total return objective. His expressed desire for a continued return of 20 percent, however, is unrealistic. Coppa should counsel Stephenson on what level of returns to reasonably expect from the financial markets over long periods of time and to define an achievable return objective.3、Stephenson’s time horizon is best characterized as:【单选题】A.short-term and single-stage.B.long-term and single-stage.C.long-term and multistage.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. Stephenson’s time horizon is long—he is currently only 55 years old. The time horizon consists of two stages: the first stage extends to his retirement in 15 years; the second stage may last for 20 years or more and extends from retirement until his death.4、Is Quek’s response to Yusuf most likely correct?【单选题】A.Yes.B.No, she is incorrect regarding the number of factors.C.No, she is incorrect regarding the identity of the factors.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Quek is incorrect in stating that APT specifies the number of factors in a multifactor model but is correct in stating that APT does not specify the identity of factors in a multifactor model. APT does not indicate the number of factors or their identity.A is incorrect. Quek is incorrect in stating that APT specifies the number of factors in a multifactor model but correct in stating that APT does not specify the identity of factors in a multifactor model. APT does not indicate the number of factors or their identity.C is incorrect. Quek is correct in stating that APT does not specify the identity of factors in a multifactor model. APT does not indicate the number of factors or their identity.5、Is Hextall’s statement regarding the private wealth division likely correct?【单选题】A.Yes.B.No, it is incorrect about forward-looking beta.C.No, it is incorrect about ex ante tracking error.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Hextall’s statement is correct. Riskmeasures for banks are typically focused on liquidity, solvency, and capital sufficiency, whereas risk measures for traditional asset managers are typically focused on investment performance. Ex ante tracking error correctly compares the current portfolio with its benchmark in attempting to measure future potential performance. Forward-looking beta is a current risk measure of a current portfolio and measures an equity portfolio’s sensitivity to the broad equity market.B is incorrect. Hextall’s statement about forward-looking beta is correct.C is incorrect. Hextall’s statement about ex ante tracking error is correct.。

cfa二级课后题讲解

cfa二级课后题讲解
CFA二级课后题讲解的内容包括但不限于以下方面：
1. 财务分析：这部分主要考察考生对财务报表的解读能力，包括资产负债表、利润表和现金流量表等。

题目会要求考生分析公司的财务状况，评估其偿债能力、盈利能力、运营能力和发展能力。

2. 投资组合管理：这部分主要考察考生对投资组合管理的理解，包括资产配置、风险管理和业绩评估等。

题目会要求考生制定投资策略，评估投资组合的风险和回报，以及根据市场变化调整投资组合。

3. 经济学：这部分主要考察考生对宏观经济学的理解，包括国民收入、货币供应、财政政策和货币政策等。

题目会要求考生分析经济形势，评估经济政策的影响，以及预测经济未来的发展趋势。

4. 金融市场：这部分主要考察考生对金融市场的理解，包括股票市场、债券市场、期货市场和期权市场等。

题目会要求考生分析市场走势，评估市场风险，以及预测市场的未来变化。

5. 公司金融：这部分主要考察考生对公司金融的理解，包括资本预算、资本结构、股利政策和公司并购等。

题目会要求考生分析公司的财务决策，评估公司的价值，以及制定公司的财务策略。

以上是CFA二级课后题讲解的一些方面，希望对您有所帮助。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-15

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-151、In regard to calculating Wadgett's FCFF, the comment that is most appropriate is the one dealing with:【单选题】A.working capital adjustments.B.treatment of all non-cash charges.C.treatment of net borrowing.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Cash flow from operations (CFO) already reflects changes in working capital items, therefore Paschel\\\\'s first comment is correct. EBITDA has the non-cash charges of depreciation and amortization added back, so Covey\\\\'s statement is incorrect, not all non-cash charges will need to be added back. Net borrowing is added back for FCFE not FCFF, so Paschel\\\\'s second statement is incorrect.B is incorrect. Depreciation has already been added back to EBITDA, though there may be other items that still need to be added back.C is incorrect. Adjusting for net borrowing is not necessary for FCFF (just FCFE).2、Honoré describes three potential consequences of multicollinearity. Are all three consequences correct?【单选题】A.Yes.B.No, 1 is incorrectC.No, 2 is incorrect正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The R2 is expected to increase, not decline, with a new independent variable. The other two potential consequences Honoré describes are correct.3、Ibarra wants to know the credit spread of bond B2 over a theoretical comparable-maturity government bond with the same coupon rate as this bond. The foregoing credit spread is closest to:【单选题】A.108 bps.B.101 bps.C.225 bps.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The corporate bond’s fair value is computed in the solution to Question 8 as €1,101.24The YTM can be obtained by solving the following equation for IRR:The solution to this equation is 3.26%.Valuation of a four-year, 6% coupon bond under no default (VND) is computed in thesolution to Question 8 as 1,144.63. So, the YTM of a theoretical comparable-maturity government bond with the same coupon rate as the corporate bond B2 can be obtained by solving the following equation for IRR:The solution to this equation is 2.18%. So, the credit spread that the analyst wants to compute is3.26% – 2.18% = 1.08%, or 108 bps.B is incorrect, because that is the spread over the four-year government par bond that has a YTM of 2.25% in Exhibit 2: 3.26% – 2.25% = 1.01%, or 101 bps. Although this spread is commonly used in practice, the analyst is interested in finding the spread over a theoretical 6% coupon government bond.C is incorrect, because that is the YTM of the coupon four-year government bond in Exhibit 2.4、Based on Exhibit 1, which independent variables in Varden’s model are significant at the 0.05 level?【单选题】A.ESG onlyB.10.957%.C.Tenure onlyD.Neither ESG nor tenure正确答案:C答案解析:B is correct. The t-statistic for tenure is 2.308, which is significant at the 0.027 level. The t-statistic for ESG is 1.201, with a p-value of 0.238. This result is not significant at the 0.05level.5、Based on Exhibit 1 and Tyo’s expectations, which country’s term structure is currently best for traders seeking to ride the yield curve?【单选题】A.Country AB.Country BC.Country C正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Country A’s yield curve is upward sloping—a condition for the strategy—and more so than Country B’s.6、To correct the problem Hake encounters when using a Monte Carlo simulation, he would most likely:【单选题】A.adjust the volatility assumption.B.increase the number of simulations.C.add a constant to all interest rates on all paths.正确答案:C答案解析:Using a Monte Carlo simulation, the model will produce benchmark bond values equal to the market prices only by chance. A constant is added to all interest rates on all paths such that the average present value for each benchmark bond equals its market value.A is incorrect because adjustingthe volatility assumption will generate another random value not equal to the benchmark bond value. The benchmark bond is option-free, so its value should not be affected by interest rate volatility.B is incorrect because increasing the model beyond 2000 paths will not lead to a different average value for the benchmark bond.7、Which forward rate cannot be computed from the one-, two-, three-, and four-year spot rates? The rate for a:【单选题】A.one-year loan beginning in two years.B.two-year loan beginning in two years.C.three-year loan beginning in two years.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. There is no spot rate information to provide rates for a loan that terminates in five years. That is f(2,3) is calculated as follows: The equation above indicates that in order to calculate the rate for a three-year loan beginning at the end of two years you need the five year spot rate r(5) and the two-year spot rate r(2). However r(5) is not provided.8、Cannan has been working from home on weekends and occasionally saves correspondence with clients and completed work on her home computer. Because of worsening market conditions, Cannan is one of several employees released by herfirm. While Cannan is looking for a new job, she uses the files she saved at home to request letters of recommendation from former clients. She also provides to prospective clients some of the reports as examples of her abilities.【单选题】A.Cannan violated the Code and Standards because she did not receive permission from her former employer to keep or use the files after her employment ended.B.Cannan did not violate the Code and Standards because the files were created and saved on her own time and computer.C.Cannan violated the Code and Standards because she is prohibited from saving files on her home computer.正确答案:A答案解析:Answer A is correct. According to Standard V(C)–Record Retention, Cannan needed the permission of her employer to maintain the files at home after her employment ended. Without that permission, she should have deleted the files. All files created as part of a member’s or candidate’s professional activity are the property of the firm, even those created outside normal work hours. Thus, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the Code and Standards do not prohibit using one’s personal computer to complete work for one’s employer.9、Based on the data in Exhibit 1, current real short-term interest rates would most likely be highest in:【单选题】A.Country #1.B.Country #2.C.Country #3.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Real short-term interest rates are positively related to both real GDP growth and the volatility of real GDP growth. Country #1 and Country #2 have the highest real GDP growth, as estimated by the difference between nominal GDP growth and average inflation (6.5% – 4.0% = 2.5% and 5.0% – 2.5% = 2.5%, respectively), while Country #3 has the lowest real GDP growth (3.5% – 2.0% = 1.5%). Looking at the volatility of real GDP growth, Country #2 has high real GDP growth volatility, whereas Country #1 and Country #3 have low real GDP growth volatility. Therefore, Country #2 would most likely have the highest real short-term interest rates.10、Which approach would an appraiser most likely use for valuing Property #2?【单选题】A.Cost approach.B.Income approach.C.Sales comparison approach.正确答案:B答案解析:Property #2 is an older office building with unique characteristics that could not be easily reproduced using current architectural designs and materials. Therefore, the cost approach would be less appropriate than the income approach as a basis for appraisal. The sales comparison approach would also be less suitable as the property is relatively unique.。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-74

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-741、Which of the notes made by Bourne regarding the valuation methods is least accurate? The note about the:【单选题】A.Market-based method.parable transactions method.C.Discounted cash flow method.正确答案:B答案解析:The comparable transactions method uses details from recent takeover transactions for comparable companies to make direct estimates of the target company\\\'s takeover value. However it is not necessary to separately estimate a takeover premium as this is already included in the multiples determined from the comparable transactions.2、Based on the relationship of Borgonovo’s stock to the SML, what is the most appropriate decision Benedetti should make regarding the Borgonovo stock?【单选题】A.Keep Borgonovo on the recommended list because it plots below the SML.B.Keep Borgonovo on the recommended list because it plotsabove the SML.C.Remove Borgonovo from the recommended list because it plots below the SML.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The SML required return for Borgonovo is 2.5% + 1.2(7%) = 10.9%. With a forecasted return of 9.0%, Borgonovo lies below the SML (indicating it is overvalued) and should be removed from the bank’s recommended list.3、Based on the regression output in Exhibit 1, there is evidence of positive serial correlation in the errors in:【单选题】A.the linear trend model but not the log-linear trend model.B.both the linear trend model and the log-linear trend model.C.neither the linear trend model nor the log-linear trend model.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The Durbin–Watson statistic for the linear trend model is 0.10 and, for the log-linear trend model, 0.08. Both of these values are below the critical value of 1.75. Therefore, we can reject the hypothesis of no positive serial correlation in the regression errors in both the linear trend model and the log-linear trend model.4、In accounting for the use of derivatives against the three risks that Minor has discovered, the entire gains or losses from thederivatives will most likely bypass LSRC\\\'s income statement for Risk:【单选题】A.1B.2C.3正确答案:C答案解析:When derivatives are used to hedge foreign currency exposure related to a foreign investment, the gains/losses go through other comprehensive income, which is part of shareholders\\\' equity, and thus they bypass the income statement.5、Economic income during year one is closest to:【单选题】A.23,186.B.29,287.C.46,101.正确答案:B。

历年CFA考试真题及答案解析

历年CFA考试真题及答案解析1、The nominal (quoted) annual interest rate on an automobile loan is 10%. The effective annual rate of the loan is 10.47%. The frequency of compounding periods per year for the loan is closest to:【单选题】A.weekly.B.monthly.C.quarterly.正确答案:B答案解析:“The Time Value of Money,” Richard A. DeFusco, CFA, Dennis W. McLeavey, CFA, Jerald E. Pinto, CFA, and David E. Runkle, CFA2013 Modular Level I, Vol. 1, Reading 5, Section 3.3Study Session 2–5–c, dCalculate and interpret the effective annual rate, given the stated annual interest rate and the frequency of compounding. Solve time value of money problems for different frequencies of compounding:B is correct. Use the formula for effective annual rate:Iteratively substitute the possible frequency of compounding until the EAR is 10.47%.Thus, the correct answer is monthly compounding.2、Which of the following is a constraint as defined in the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) Framework for the Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements?【单选题】A.NeutralityB.TimelinessC.Going concern正确答案:B答案解析:“Financial Reporting Standards,” Thomas R. Robinson, CFA, Jan Hendrik van Greuning, CFA, Karen O’Connor Rubsam, CFA, R. Elaine Henry, CFA, and Michael A. Broihahn, CFATimeliness is a constraint in the IFRS Framework. Neutrality is a factor that contributes to reliability and going concern is an assumption of the Framework.3、Which method of calculating the firm’s cost of equity is most likely to incorporate the long-run return relationship between the firm's stock and the market portfolio?【单选题】A.Dividend discount modelB.Capital asset pricing modelC.Bond-yield-plus risk-premium正确答案:B答案解析:“Cost of Capital” Yves Courtois, CFA, Gene C. Lai, and Pamela Peterson Drake, CFAThe capital asset pricing model uses the firm’s equity beta, which is computed from a market model regression of the company's stock returns against market returns.4、For a 90-day U.S. Treasury bill selling at a discount, which of the following methods most likely results in the highest yield?【单选题】A.Money market yieldB.Discount-basis yieldC.Bond equivalent yield正确答案:C答案解析:“Working Capital Management,” Edgar Norton, Jr., Kenneth L. Parkinson, and Pamela Peterson Drake5、An investor gathers the following data.To estimate the stock's justified forward P/E, the investor prefers to use the compounded annual earnings growth and the average of the payout ratios over the relevant period (i.e., 2008–2011). If the investor uses 11.5% as her required rate of return, the stock's justified forward P/E is closest to:【单选题】A.10.B.12.C.21.正确答案:C答案解析:“Equity Valuation: Concepts and Basic Tools,” John J. Nagorniak and Stephen E.Wilcox6、A bond portfolio manager is considering three Bonds – A, B, and C – for his portfolio. Bond A allows the issuer to call the bond before stated maturity, Bond B allows the investor to put the bond back to the issuer before stated maturity, and Bond C contains no embedded options. The bonds are otherwise identical. The manager tells his assistant, “Bond A and Bond B should have larger nominal yield spreads to a U.S. Treasury than Bond C to compensate for their embedded options.”Is the manager most likely correct?【单选题】A.Yes.B.No, Bond A’s nominal yield spread should be less than Bond C’s.C.No, Bond B’s nominal yield spread should be less than Bond C’s.正确答案:C答案解析:“Understanding Yield Spreads,” Frank J. Fabozzi, CFAC is correct because Bond B’s embedded put option benefits the investor and the yield spread willtherefore be less than the yield spread of Bond C, which does not contain this benefit.7、Which of the following characteristics is best described that the information in financialstatements can influence user's economic decisions or affect user's evaluationof past events or forecasts of future events in accordance with the IFRSframework's definitions and recognition criteria?【单选题】A.Relevance.parability.C.Faithful representation.正确答案:A答案解析:根据IFRS的条款，财务报表的两个基本特性使得这些财务信息有用，这两个特性包括相关性（relevance）和公允陈述（faithful representation）。

cfa二级权益原版书课后题讲解

cfa二级权益原版书课后题讲解摘要：I.二级权益投资简介A.权益投资的定义和分类B.二级权益市场的特点和参与者II.权益投资分析A.宏观经济分析1.经济增长和周期2.通货膨胀和利率B.行业分析1.行业分类和特征2.行业生命周期分析C.公司分析1.公司基本面分析1.收入和利润2.资产负债表和现金流量表2.公司估值1.相对估值法2.绝对估值法III.权益投资策略A.价值投资策略B.成长投资策略C.指数投资策略D.技术分析策略IV.权益投资风险管理A.风险的类型和来源B.风险管理的方法和策略正文：二级权益投资是投资者通过二级市场购买和出售股票来获得资本增值和股息收入的一种投资方式。

在二级权益市场中，投资者可以对股票进行买卖，从而实现投资收益。

二级权益市场的主要参与者包括个人投资者、机构投资者、投资顾问和交易所等。

在权益投资分析中，投资者需要从宏观经济、行业和公司三个层面进行分析。

宏观经济分析主要包括对经济增长和周期、通货膨胀和利率等因素的研究。

行业分析需要对行业进行分类，并研究行业的特征、生命周期等因素，以确定行业的投资价值。

公司分析主要关注公司的基本面，包括收入和利润、资产负债表和现金流量表等财务数据，以及公司的估值。

在权益投资策略方面，投资者可以选择不同的投资策略来实现投资目标。

常见的投资策略包括价值投资、成长投资、指数投资和技术分析等。

价值投资策略关注低估值的股票，以实现长期投资收益。

成长投资策略则关注高增长的公司，以实现资本增值。

指数投资策略通过购买股票指数基金来实现投资收益。

技术分析策略则通过对股票价格和交易量的分析来预测市场走势。

在权益投资风险管理方面，投资者需要识别和应对各种风险。

风险的类型和来源包括市场风险、利率风险、信用风险、流动性风险等。

风险管理的方法和策略包括分散投资、对冲、止损等。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-14

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-141、Prior to the president’s intervention, the actions by the farmers relative to the manufacturers over the disputed price of water is best described as:【单选题】A.moral hazard.B.adverse selection.C.regulatory arbitrage.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The farmers’ having the ability to restrict the release of water to the detriment of the manufacturers during the pricing dispute is an example of a moral hazard.2、Based on Exhibit 1, which variable in the Beneish model has a year-over-year change that would increase Miland’s likelihood of manipulation?【单选题】A.DSRB.LEVIC.SGAI正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The DSR (days’ sales receivable index) variable in the Beneish model is related positively to the Beneish model M-score. Therefore, a year-over-year increase in DSR from 0.9 to 1.20 would lead to an increase in the M-score, which implies an increase in Miland’s likelihood of manipulation.3、ABC Investment Management acquires a new, very large account with two concentrated positions. The firm’s current policy is to add new accounts for the purpose of performance calculation after the first full month of management. Cupp is responsible for calculating the firm’s performance returns. Before the end of the initial month, Cupp notices that one of the significant holdings of the new accounts is acquired by another company, causing the value of the investment to double. Because of this holding, Cupp decides to account for the new portfolio as of the date of transfer, thereby allowing ABC Investment to reap the positive impact of that month’s portfolio return.【单选题】A.Cupp did not violate the Code and Standards because the GIPS standards allow composites to be updated on the date of large external cash flows.B.Cupp did not violate the Code and Standards becausecompanies are allowed to determine when to incorporate new accounts into their composite calculation.C.Cupp violated the Code and Standards because the inclusion of the new account produces an inaccurate calculation of the monthly results according to the firm’s stated policies.正确答案:C答案解析:Answer C is correct. Cupp violated Standard III(D)–Performance Presentations when he deviated from the firm’s stated policies solely to capture the gain from the holding being acquired. Answer A is incorrect because the firm does not claim GIPS compliance and the GIPS standards require external cash flows to be treated in a consistent manner with the firm’s documented policies. Answer B is incorrect because the firm does not state that it is updating its composite policies. If such a change were to occur, all cash flows for the month would have to be reviewed to ensure their consistent treatment under the new policy.4、Based on the three economic outlook statements, a profitable long/short trade would be to:【单选题】A.go long a Canadian CDX IG and short a US CDX IG.B.short an iTraxx Crossover and go long an iTraxx Main.C.short electric car CDS and go long traditional car CDS.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Based on Outlook 1, Chan and Smith anticipate that Italy’s economy will weaken. In order to profit from this forecast, one would go short (buy protection) a highyield Italian CDS (e.g., iTraxx Crossover) index and go long (sell protection) an investment-grade Italian CDS (e.g., iTraxx Main) index.5、Assume for this question only that Global reports under U.S. GAAP and that the total periodic pension cost for the year ended 20X8 was €4,250. Ignoring income taxes, which of the following statements best describes the adjustment necessary for analyzing Global Oilfield\\\\'s cash flow statement?【单选题】A.Increase operating cash flow €750 and decrease financing cash flow €750.B.Decrease operating cash flow €2,084 and increase investing cash flow €2,084.C.Increase operating cash flow €5,000 and decrease financing cash flow €5,000.正确答案:A答案解析:Total periodic pension cost represents the true cost of the pension. If the firm\\\\'s contributions exceed its true pension expense, the difference can be viewed as a reduction inthe overall pension obligation similar to an excess principal payment on a loan. Pension contributions are reported as operating activities in the cash flow statement while principal payments are reported6、Whose statement regarding the use of multifactor models in active and passive portfolio management is correct?【单选题】m onlyB.Cheung onlyC.Both Lam and Cheung正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Analysts can use multifactor models in passively managed portfolios to replicate an index fund’s factor exposures.7、Based on Exhibits 1 and 2, Sienna’s FCFE in 2016 is:【单选题】A.€894 million.B.€1,466 million.C.€2,894 million.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Sienna’s FCFE in 2016 is calculated as8、Based on the information in Exhibit 1, the REIT sector that represents the least desirable investment is:【单选题】A.industrial.B.office.C.apartments.正确答案:A答案解析:For industrial properties, the most important factor affecting economic value is retail sales growth, which is expected to be low in West Lundia. The most important factor affecting economic value for apartment REITs are job creation and population growth, which are both expected to be high. For office properties, the most important factor is job creation, which is expected to be high.9、Rule has worked as a portfolio manager for a large investment management firm for the past 10 years. Rule earned his CFA charter last year and has decided to open his own investment management firm. After leaving his current employer, Rule creates some marketing material for his new firm. He states in the material, “In earning the CFA charter, a highly regarded credential in the investment management industry, I further enhanced the portfolio management skills learned during my professional career. While completing the examination process in three consecutive years, I consistently received the highest possible scores on the topics of Ethics, Alternative Investments, and Portfolio Management.” Has Ruleviolated Standard VII(B)–Reference to CFA Institute, the CFA Designation, and the CFA Program in his marketing material?【单选题】A.Rule violated Standard VII(B) in stating that he completed the exams in three consecutive years.B.Rule violated Standard VII(B) in stating that he received the highest scores in the topics of Ethics, Alternative Investments, and Portfolio Management.C.Rule did not violate Standard VII(B).正确答案:B答案解析:Answer B is correct according to Standard VII(B)–Reference to CFA Institute, the CFA Designation, and the CFA Program. CFA Program candidates do not receive their actual scores on the exam. Topic and subtopic results are grouped into three broad categories, and the exam is graded only as “pass” or “fail.” Although a candidate may have achieved a topical score of “above 70%,” she or he cannot factually state that she or he received the highest possible score because that information is not reported. Thus, answer C is incorrect. Answer A is incorrect as long as the member or candidate actually completed the exams consecutively. Standard VII(B) does not prohibit the communication of factual information aboutcompleting the CFA Program in three consecutive years.10、If Hilliard adopts Colbaugh\\\\'s first recommendation regarding the use of additional analytical models, which of the following will she most likely incorporate into her analysis? An estimate of risk pertaining to:【单选题】A.Liquidity.B.Time horizon.C.Business cycle.正确答案:A。

cfa二级考试题目

选择题关于有效市场假说，以下哪个描述是正确的？A. 在有效市场中，投资者可以通过分析信息来获得超额收益。

B. 有效市场假说认为市场总是错误的，因此投资者应忽视市场信息。

C. 有效市场假说认为市场价格反映了所有可用信息，因此无法通过分析获得超额收益。

（正确答案）D. 有效市场仅适用于股票市场，不适用于债券市场。

在评估公司的资本结构时，以下哪个因素不是考虑的重点？A. 公司的债务与股权比例。

B. 公司的盈利能力。

C. 公司的行业特点。

（正确答案）D. 公司的现金流稳定性。

以下哪个是衡量公司运营效率常用的财务指标？A. 市盈率B. 存货周转率（正确答案）C. 资本充足率D. 杠杆比率在进行股票估值时，以下哪个模型是基于公司未来现金流的贴现值？A. 市盈率模型B. 市净率模型C. 贴现现金流模型（正确答案）D. 相对估值模型关于固定收益证券，以下哪个描述是错误的？A. 固定收益证券的收益率与市场利率变动呈反向关系。

B. 固定收益证券的信用风险通常低于股票。

C. 固定收益证券的价格波动通常小于股票。

（正确答案）D. 固定收益证券的到期收益率考虑了利息再投资的风险。

在投资组合管理中，以下哪个策略旨在通过分散投资来降低风险？A. 市场时机选择策略B. 资产配置策略（正确答案）C. 股票选择策略D. 集中投资策略以下哪个不是衡量投资组合风险的常用指标？A. 标准差B. β系数C. 夏普比率D. 跟踪误差（正确答案）关于期权定价，以下哪个模型是最常用的？A. 费雪方程式B. 黑-斯科尔斯模型（正确答案）C. 有效市场假说D. 卡普兰-米尔斯模型在进行宏观经济分析时，以下哪个指标不是常用的先行指标？A. 制造业订单B. 失业率（正确答案）C. 建筑许可D. 消费者预期指数。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-6

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-61、Based on Exhibit 1, Smith should conclude that the insurer with the most efficient underwriting operation is:【单选题】A.Insurer AB.Insurer BC.Insurer C正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The combined ratio, which is the sum of the underwriting expense ratio and the loss and loss adjustment expense ratio, is a measure of the efficiency of an underwriting operation. A combined ratio of less than 100% is considered efficient; a combined ratio greater than 100% indicates an underwriting loss. Insurer C is the only insurer that has a combined ratio less than 100%.2、As compared to the temporal method, the parent\'s fixed asset turnover for fiscal 2008 using the current rate method is:【单选题】A.B.C.the same.正确答案:A答案解析:The local currency (the USD) is depreciating, so the historical rate will be higher than the current rate. Fixed asset turnover (sales divided by net PP&E) will be higher under the current rate method. Net PP&E will be translated at the lower current rate, and because sales are the same under both methods, the ratio will be higher.3、Ebinosa can best value Thunder using the:【单选题】A.excess earnings approach.B.asset-based approach.C.discounted free cash flow approach.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The excess earnings method would rarely be applied to value the equity of a company particularly when it is not needed to value intangibles. The asset-based approach is less appropriate because it is infrequently used to estimate the business enterprise value of operating companies. By contrast, the free cash flow method is broadly applicable and readily applied in this case.4、For this question only, assume a weighted average cost ofcapital (WACC) of 12.0%. YD\'s economic value added (EVA) during the year 2008 is closest to:【单选题】A.$6 million.B.$18 million.C.$24 million.正确答案:B答案解析:$WACC = WACC x capital = 0.12 x 200 = 245、Based on Exhibit 1, Varden’s best answer to Quinni’s question about the F-statistic is:【单选题】A.both independent variables are significant at the 0.05 level.B.neither independent variables are significant at the 0.05 level.C.at least one independent variables are significant at the 0.05 level.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. Exhibit 1 indicates that the F-statistic of 4.161 is significant at the 0.05 level. A significant F-statistic means at least one of the independent variables is significant. 6、If investors have homogeneous expectations, the market is efficient, and there are no taxes, no transactions costs, and no bankruptcy costs, the Modigliani and Miller Proposition I states that:【单选题】A.bankruptcy risk rises with more leverage.B.managers cannot change the value of the company by using more or less debt.C.managers cannot increase the value of the company by employing tax saving strategies.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Proposition I, or the capital structure irrelevance theorem, states that the7、If Alex Renteria is correct that the current price of Tasty Foods stock is its fair value, what is expected capital gains yield on the stock?【单选题】A.3.87%.B.4.25%.C.5.30%.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. If the stock is fairly priced in the market as per the Gordon growth model, the stock price is expected to increase at g, the expected growth rate in dividends. The implied growth rate in dividends, if price is the fair value, is 3.87 percent. Therefore, the expected capital gains yield is 3.87 percent.8、Which of the following is closest to the actual rate of return on beginning plan assets and the rate of return on beginningplan assets that is included in the interest income/expense calculation?【单选题】A.The actual rate of return was 5.56 percent, and the rate included in interestB.The actual rate of return was 1.17 percent, and the rate included in interestC.Both the actual rate of return and the rate included in interest income/expense were正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The actual return on plan assets was 1,302/23,432 = 0.0556, or 5.56 percent. The rate of return included in the interest income/expense is the discount rate, which is given in this example as 5.48 percent.9、Based on information in Exhibits 5 and 6, ER\'s adjusted total debt-to-asset ratio as of end of December, 2017 is closest to:【单选题】A.17.4%.B.20.83%.C.20.14%.正确答案:C答案解析:10、A factor associated with the widespread adoption ofalgorithmic trading is increased:【单选题】A.market efficiency.B.average trade sizes.C.trading destinations.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. Global financial markets have undergone substantial change as markets have fragmented into multiple trading destinations consisting of electronic exchanges, alternative trading systems, and so-called dark pools. In such an environment, when markets are continuously reflecting real-time information and continuously changing conditions, algorithmic trading has been viewed as an important tool.。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-4

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-41、If the US dollar were chosen as the functional currency for Acceletron in 2007, Redline could reduce its balance sheet exposure to exchange rates by:【单选题】A.selling SGD30 million of fixed assets for cash.B.issuing SGD30 million of long-term debt to buy fixed assets.C.issuing SGD30 million in short-term debt to purchase marketable securities.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. If the US dollar is the functional currency, the temporal method must be used, and the balance sheet exposure will be the net monetary assets of 125 + 230 – 185 – 200 = –30, or a net monetary liability of SGD30 million. This net monetary liability would be eliminated if fixed assets (non-monetary) were sold to increase cash. Issuing debt, either short-term or long-term, would increase the net monetary liability.2、In relation to Kostecka’s handling of the Jabbertalk stockrecommendation, which of the following CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct did he least likely violate?【单选题】A.Priority of TransactionsB.Fair Dealingmunication with Clients正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Standard III(B)–Fair Dealing requires members and candidates to deal fairly and objectively with all clients when providing investment analysis, making investment recommendations, taking investment action, or engaging in other professional activities. When Kostecka informs clients of the upcoming investment recommendation by Forkson, he has treated all clients fairly because this disclosure is provided to all of his current clients.A is incorrect because Kostecka has violated Standard VI(B)–Priority of Transactions. There is a potential conflict of interest because the client and the adviser hold the same stock, so the client should be given first priority to trade Jabbertalk.C is incorrect because according to Standard V(B)–Communication with Clients and Prospective Clients, Kostecka should have distinguished fact from opinion. In addition, Kostecka should also disclose to clients andprospective clients the basic format and general principles of the investment processes used to analyze investments, select securities, and construct portfolios and must promptly disclose any changes that might materially affect those processes and use reasonable judgment in identifying which factors are important to his investment analyses, recommendations, or actions and include those factors in communications with clients and prospective clients.3、Zhang\'s statement to support using the harmonic mean is best described as:【单选题】A.incorrect with respect to large outliers.B.incorrect with respect to small outliners.C.correct.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Zhang’s statement is incorrect with respect to small outliers. The harmonic mean tends to mitigate the impact of large outliers. It may aggravate the impact of small outliers, but such outliers are bounded by zero on the downside.A is incorrect. The harmonic mean may aggravate the impact of small outliers, but such outliers are bounded by zero on the downside.C is incorrect. The harmonic mean may aggravate the impact of small outliers, but such outliers arebounded by zero on the downside.4、Based on the mean-reverting level implied by the AR(1) model regression output in Exhibit 1, the forecasted oil price for September 2015 is most likely to be:【单选题】A.4、Is Dua most likely correct with regard to the factors that drive demand for different commercial real estate property types?【单选题】A.No, he is incorrect about retail space.B.Yes.C.No, he is incorrect about industrial and warehouse space.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Dua is correct about factors that drive demand for office space and industrial and warehouse space but incorrect about retail space. Employment growth drives demand for office space, while warehouse space demand depends broadly on economic strength. The level of import and export activity is more directly related to demand for industrial and warehouse space, not retail space. Demand for retail space depends on consumer spending, job growth, and economic strength.B is incorrect. Dua is correct about factors that drive demand for office space and industrial and warehouse spacebut incorrect about retail space.C is incorrect. Dua is correct about factors that drive demand for and industrial and warehouse space.5、Bickchip’s cash-flow-based accruals ratio in 2009 is closest to:【单选题】A.9.9%.B.13.4%.C.23.3%.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The cash-flow-based accruals ratio = [ni – (cfo + cfi)]/(Average NOA) =<span style="font-style: " microsoft="" yahei",="" 微软雅黑;"="">[4,038 – (9,822 – 10,068)]/43,192 = 9.9%.6、The fraction of SGC\'s market price that is attributable to the value of growth is closest to:【单选题】A.21%.B.34%.C.50%.正确答案:B答案解析:Using the Pastor-Stambaugh model to calculate SGC\'s cost of equity:0.04 + (1.20 × 0.05) + (0.50 × 0.02) + (–0.20 × 0.04) + (0.20 × 0.045) =11.10%<imgsrc="https:///bkwimg/up/201911/1118 8395e98f83e5435892d6bc291037a70f.png" alt="" width="222" height="45" title="" align="">$28.45 = $18.74 + PVGOPVGO = $9.71PVGO/Price = $9.71/$28.45 = 34.13%7、Based on Exhibit 2, the implied credit and liquidity risks as indicated by the historical three-year swap spreads for Country B were the lowest:【单选题】A.1 month ago.B.6 months ago.C.12 months ago.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The historical three-year swap spread for Country B was the lowest six months ago. Swap spread is defined as the spread paid by the fixed-rate payer of an interest rate swap over the rate of the “on the run” (most recently issued) government bond security with the same maturity as the swap. The lower (higher) the swap spread, the lower (higher) the return that investors require for credit and/or liquidity risks.The fixed rate of the three-year fixed-for-floating Libor swap was 0.01% six months ago, and the three-year government bond yield was –0.08% six months ago. Thus theswap spread six months ago was 0.01% – (–0.08%) = 0.09%.One month ago, the fixed rate of the three-year fixed-for-floating Libor swap was 0.16%, and the three-year government bond yield was –0.10%. Thus the swap spread one month ago was 0.16% – (–0.10%) = 0.26%.Twelve months ago, the fixed rate of the three-year fixed-for-floating Libor swap was 0.71%, and the three-year government bond yield was –0.07%. Thus, the swap spread 12 months ago was 0.71% – (–0.07%) = 0.78%.8、Using the data in Exhibit 2, the portfolio’s annual 1% parametric VaR is closest to:【单选题】A.CAD 17 million.B.CAD 31 million.C.CAD 48 million.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The VaR is derived as follows:VaR = [(e(rp) – 2.33σp)(–1)](Portfolio value)whereE(Rp) = Annualized daily return = (0.00026 × 250) = 0.065250 = Number of trading days annually2.33 = Number of standard deviations to attain 1% VaR<imgsrc="https:///bkwimg/up/201910/1025 1224ff09b79546919adff44ced35b5d9.png" alt="" width="613" height="50" title="" align="">Portfolio value = CAD260,000,000VaR = –(0.065 – 0.184571) × CAD 260,000,000= CAD31,088,4609、Confabulated’s reported interest income would be lower if the cost was the same but the par value (in € thousands) of:【单选题】A.Bugle was €28,000.B.Cathay was €37,000.C.Dumas was €55,000.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The difference between historical cost and par value must be amortized under the effective interest method. If the par value is less than the initial cost (stated interest rate is greater than the effective rate), the interest income would be lower than the interest received because of amortization of the premium.10、Is his response to Scahill’s question regarding the impact of changes in interest rate volatility on the OAS of callable and putable bonds, Morgan is most likely:【单选题】A.incorrect about callable and putable bonds.B.correct about callable bonds and incorrect about putable bonds.C.correct about putable bonds and incorrect about callablebonds.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Morgan’s response to Scahill is incorrect. As interest rate volatility declines, the embedded call option becomes cheaper; thus, the higher the arbitrage-free value (or model value) of the callable bond.Callable bond value = Value of straight bond – Value of call optionA higher value for the callable bond means that a higher spread needs to be added to one-period forward rates to make the arbitrage-free bond value equal to the market price (i.e., the OAS is higher). For putable bonds as interest rate volatility declines, the value of the put option declines as does the arbitrage-free value of the putable bond.Putable bond value = Value of straight bond + Value of put optionThis implies that a lower spread needs to be added to one-period forward rates to make the arbitrage free bond value equal to the market price. Thus, in this instance, the OAS is lower.B is incorrect. Morgan is correct about the impact on OAS for callable bonds.C is incorrect. Morgan is correct about the impact on OAS for putable bonds.。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-73

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-731、At 31 December 2010, Zimt’s total assets balance would be:【单选题】A.highest if Zimt is deemed to have control of Oxbow.B.highest if Zimt is deemed to have significant influence over Oxbow.C.unaffected by the accounting method used for the investment in Oxbow.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. When a company is deemed to have control of another entity, it records all of the other entity’s assets on its own consolidated balance sheet.2、Yu’s determination regarding Transaction 2 should be based on the currency of the:【单选题】A.loan.B.bank.C.borrower.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The currency of Ngcorp as the borrowingforeign subsidiary, relative to that of Ambleu, determines Ambleu’s choice of translation method for Transaction 2. Because Ngcorp’s functional currency is the Bindiar franc and Ambleu’s presentation currency is the Norvoltian krone, the current rate method rather than the temporal method should be used. Regardless of the currency in which the loan is denominated, the loan is first recorded in Ngcorp’s financial statements. Then, Ngcorp’s financial statements, which include the bank loan, are translated into Ambleu’s consolidated financial statements.3、In 2011, Strawberry Mines\\\\\\\\' share of the dividends received from AdOre was most likely reported as a(n):【单选题】A.Addition to net income.B.Addition to other comprehensive income.C.Deduction from its investment in AdOre.正确答案:C答案解析:In 2011, Strawberry Mines owned 32% of AdOre\\\\\\\\'s stock and had significant influence; therefore, it should have used the equity method. It will not report any dividends received from AdOre as income but would have deducted the dividends received from the carrying value of the investment in AdOre.4、【单选题】A.$48 million.B.$69 million.C.$110 million.正确答案:C答案解析:Amount reported under IFRS:5、If Global Oilfield\\\\\\\\'s retirement plan is a defined contribution arrangement, which of the following statements would be the most correct?【单选题】A.Pension expense and the cash funding amount would be the same.B.The potential gains or losses from the assets contributed to the plan are borne by the firm.C.The firm would report the difference in the benefit obligation and the plan assets on the balance sheet.正确答案:A答案解析:In a defined contribution plan, pension expense is equal to the amount contributed by the firm. The plan participants bear the shortfall risk. There is no pension obligation in a defined contribution plan.。

CFA备考之CFA二级习题精选及解析

CFA备考之CFA二级习题精选及解析CFA备考之CFA二级习题精选及解析CaseRhine Claus Petersen, a pension fund equity analyst, is preparing an analysis of Rhine AG for the upcoming quarterly fund meeting. Rhine is a Germany-based manufacturer that operates three distinct divisions: children’s products (infant car seats, strollers, cribs, etc.), recreational products (bicycles, bicycle trailers, etc.), and home furnishings (contemporary furniture). All three divisions sell through retail outlets around the world.The company has been pursuing an aggressive growth strategy, achieved through both foreign acquisitions and organic growth. Petersen is interested in determining how well Rhine is allocating its resources between the three divisions and the effects of the foreign acquisitions on overall performance. Exhibit 1 summarizes selected divisional and corporate data for 2013 and 2012.Petersen’s preferred method to determine which division is becoming less significant over time is to review the relationship between capital expenditures and total assets by operating division. He plans to base his conclusion on the assumption that 2013’s investme nt behavior is representative of future investment patterns.Petersen knows t hat revenues in the children’s products division have suffered because of declining birth rates in Europe and North America, but he believes that if Rhine can maintain the operating margin for this division then overall company profitability should not be affected.Corinna Berg, another analyst with the fund, reminds Petersen that during 2013, the U.S. dollar weakened against theeuro by 4% and that 50% of the sales in the recreational products division are sold in the United States.Petersen recalls that some of the recent global expansion was aimed at establishing operations in Ireland because its statutory corporate tax rate is lower than the German rate of 29.8%. If Petersen assumes that other tax credits were the same in 2013 as 2012, he can analyze cha nges in Rh ine’s effective tax rate to determine whether the geographic mix of the company’s profits has changed in 2013.Petersen finally examines the company’s liquidity ratios, which are shown in Exhibit 2. Even though the company’s current and quick ratio have improved, his interpretation of the changes in the company’s cash conversion cycle is that the company’s liquidity position has deteriorated.Worried that the balance sheet–based and cash flow–based accruals ratios (not shown) raise some concerns about the possible use of accruals to manage earnings, Petersen asks Berg for advice on what further type of analysis he should do as a follow-up on this issue.1. Using Petersen's preferred method and 2013 divisional data, the best conclusion Peterson can make about which division will potentially become less significant in the future is that it。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-16

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-161、Pereira should forecast that the ROE for Globales is likely to decline:【单选题】A.more slowly than that of the industry competitor.B.at the same rate as the industry competitor.C.more rapidly than that of the industry competitor.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Based on the principle of mean reversion, the high ROE for both firms should revert towards the mean. Globales has a higher cash flow component to its return than the peer firm, however, so its high return on common equity should persist longer than that of the peer firm. The peer firm has a higher accruals component, so it is likely to revert more quickly.2、How many of Yeung\\\\\'s constraints would be accurately regarded as a constraint in an investment policy statement?【单选题】A.One.B.Two.C.Three.正确答案:B答案解析:What Yeung has identified as Constraint 1 is properly classified as a return objective and not a constraint. Investment constraints are factors that restrict investment choices. Constraint 2 is unexampled of time horizon constraint. Constraint 3 is an example of liquidity constraint.3、Based on Exhibit 4, Singh and Ho should conclude that under Scenario 2, shares of Bern are:【单选题】A.undervalued.B.fairly valued.C.overvalued.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct.The total market value of the firm is the sum of the debt, preferred stock, and common stock market values: 15,400 + 4,000 + 18,100 = 37,500 million.WACC = [wd × rd(1 – tax rate)] + (wp × rp) + (we × re).= [(15,400/37,500)(0.060)(1 – 0.269] + (4,000/37,500)(0.055) + (18,100/37,500)(0.11).= 7.70%.Under the assumption that Bern has a low growth rate because it did not receive regulatory approval for its new drugs, the value of Bern can be analyzedusing a two-stage valuation model.Year01234g1.50%1.50%1.50%0.75%FCFFn (€ millions)3,2263,274.393,323.513,373.363,398.66Present Value Factor0.9285290.8621670.800547Present Value (€ millions)3,040.372,865.422,700.53The terminal value at the end of Year 3 is TV3 = FCFF4/(WACC – g4).TV3 = 3,398.66/(0.0770 – 0.0075) = €48,921.38 million.The total value of operating assets = (3,040.37 + 2,865.42 + 2,700.53) + 48,921.38/(1 + 0.0770)3.= 8,606.32 + 39,163.88= €47,770.20 million.4、What is the value of the coefficient of determination?【单选题】A.0.8261.B.0.7436.C.0.8623.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The coefficient of determination is the same as R-squared.5、A benefit of performing Task 1 is that it:【单选题】A.enables the model to price bonds with embedded options.B.identifies benchmark bonds that have been mispriced by the market.C.allows investors to realize arbitrage profits through stripping and reconstitution.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Calibrating a binomial interest rate tree to match a specific term structure is important because we can use the known valuation of a benchmark bond from the spot rate pricing to verify the accuracy of the rates shown in the binomial interest rate tree. Once its accuracy is confirmed, the interest rate tree can then be used to value bonds with embedded options. While discounting with spot rates will produce arbitrage-free valuations for option-free bonds, this spot rate method will not work for bonds with embedded options where expected future cash flows are interest-rate dependent (as rate changes impact the likelihood of options being exercised). The interest rate tree allows for the alternative paths that a bond with embedded options might take.B is incorrect because calibration does not identify mispriced benchmark bonds. In fact, benchmark bonds are employed to prove the accuracy of the binomial interest rate tree, as they are assumed to be correctly priced by the market.C is incorrect because the calibration of the binomial interest rate tree is designed to produce an arbitrage-freevaluation approach and such an approach does not allow a market participant to realize arbitrage profits though stripping and reconstitution.。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-5

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-51、Which of the notes made by Bourne regarding the valuation methods is least accurate? The note about the:【单选题】A.Market-based method.parable transactions method.C.Discounted cash flow method.正确答案:B答案解析:The comparable transactions method uses details from recent takeover transactions for comparable companies to make direct estimates of the target company\\'s takeover value. However it is not necessary to separately estimate a takeover premium as this is already included in the multiples determined from the comparable transactions.2、Based on the relationship of Borgonovo’s stock to the SML, what is the most appropriate decision Benedetti should make regarding the Borgonovo stock?【单选题】A.Keep Borgonovo on the recommended list because it plots below the SML.B.Keep Borgonovo on the recommended list because it plots above the SML.C.Remove Borgonovo from the recommended list because it plots below the SML.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The SML required return for Borgonovo is 2.5% + 1.2(7%) = 10.9%. With a forecasted return of 9.0%, Borgonovo lies below the SML (indicating it is overvalued) and should be removed from the bank’s recommended list.3、Based on the regression output in Exhibit 1, there is evidence of positive serial correlation in the errors in:【单选题】A.the linear trend model but not the log-linear trend model.B.both the linear trend model and the log-linear trend model.C.neither the linear trend model nor the log-linear trend model.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The Durbin–Watson statistic for the linear trend model is 0.10 and, for the log-linear trend model, 0.08. Both of these values are below the critical value of 1.75. Therefore, we can reject the hypothesis of no positive serial correlation in the regression errors in both the linear trend model and the log-linear trend model.4、In accounting for the use of derivatives against the three risksthat Minor has discovered, the entire gains or losses from the derivatives will most likely bypass LSRC\\'s income statement for Risk:【单选题】A.1B.2C.3正确答案:C答案解析:When derivatives are used to hedge foreign currency exposure related to a foreign investment, the gains/losses go through other comprehensive income, which is part of shareholders' equity, and thus they bypass the income statement.5、Economic income during year one is closest to:【单选题】A.23,186.B.29,287.C.46,101.正确答案:B。

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-74

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