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一、New criticism二、Formalism三、Reader-response theoryWhat Do You Think?At its most basic level, reader response criticism considers readers' reactions to literature as vital to interpreting the meaning of the text. However, reader-response criticism can take a number of different approaches. A critic deploying reader-response theory can use a psychoanalytic lens, a feminists lens, or even a structuralist lens. What these different lenses have in common when using a reader response approach is they maintain "...that what a text is cannot be separated from what it does" (Tyson 154).Tyson explains that "...reader-response theorists share two beliefs: 1) that the role of the reader cannot be omitted from our understanding of literature and 2) that readers do not passively consume the meaning presented to them by an objective literary text; rather they actively make the meaning they find in literature" (154). In this way, reader-response theory shares common ground with some of the deconstructionists discussed in the Post-structural area when they talk about "the death of the author," or her displacement as the (author)itarian figure in the text.四、StructuralismLinguistic RootsThe structuralist school emerges from theories of language and linguistics, and it looks for underlying elements in culture and literature that can be connected so that critics can develop general conclusions about the individual works and the systems from which they emerge. In fact, structuralism maintains that "...practically everything we do that is specifically human is expressed in language" (Richter 809). Structuralists believe that these language symbols extend far beyond written or oral communication.For example, codes that represent all sorts of things permeate everything we do: "the performance of music requires complex notation...our economic life rests upon the exchange of labor and goods for symbols, such as cash, checks, stock, and certificates...social life depends on the meaningful gestures and signals of 'body language' and revolves around the exchange of small, symbolic favors: drinks, parties, dinners" (Richter 809).Patterns and ExperienceStructuralists assert that, since language exists in patterns, certain underlying elements are common to all human experiences. Structuralists believe we can observe these experiences through patterns: "...if you examine the physical structures of all buildings built in urban America in 1850 to discover the underlying principles that govern their composition, for example, principles of mechanical construction or of artistic form..." you are using a structuralist lens (Tyson 197).Moreover, "you are also engaged in structuralist activity if you examine the structure of a single building to discover how its composition demonstrates underlying principles of a structural system. In the first example...you're generating a structural system of classification; in the second, you're demonstrating that an individual item belongs to a particular structural class" (Tyson 197). Structuralism in Literary TheoryStructuralism is used in literary theory, for example, "...if you examine the structure of a large number of short stories to discover the underlying principles that govern their composition...principles of narrative progression...or of characterization...you are also engaged instructuralist activity if you describe the structure of a single literary work to discover how its composition demonstrates the underlying principles of a given structural system" (Tyson 197-198).Northrop Frye, however, takes a different approach to structuralism by exploring ways in which genres of Western literature fall into his four mythoi (also see Jungian criticism in the Freudian Literary Criticism resource):1.theory of modes, or historical criticism (tragic, comic, and thematic);2.theory of symbols, or ethical criticism (literal/descriptive, formal, mythical, andanagogic);3.theory of myths, or archetypal criticism (comedy, romance, tragedy, irony/satire);4.theory of genres, or rhetorical criticism (epos, prose, drama, lyric) (Tyson 240). Peirce and SaussureTwo important theorists form the framework (hah) of structuralism: Charles Sanders Peirce and Ferdinand de Saussure. Peirce gave structuralism three important ideas for analyzing the sign systems that permeate and define our experiences:1."iconic signs, in which the signifier resembles the thing signified (such as the stickfigures on washroom doors that signify 'Men' or 'Women';2.indexes, in which the signifier is a reliable indicator of the presence of the signified(like fire and smoke);3.true symbols, in which the signifier's relation to the thing signified is completelyarbitrary and conventional [just as the sound /kat/ or the written word cat areconventional signs for the familiar feline]" (Richter 810).These elements become very important when we move into deconstruction in the Postmodernism resource. Peirce also influenced the semiotic school of structuralist theory that uses sign systems. Sign SystemsThe discipline of semiotics plays an important role in structuralist literary theory and cultural studies. Semioticians "...appl[y] structuralist insights to the study of...sign systems...a non-linguistic object or behavior...that can be analyzed as if it were a language" (Tyson 205). Specifically, "...semiotics examines the ways non-linguistic objects and behaviors 'tell' us something.For example, the picture of the reclining blond beauty in the skin-tight, black velvet dress on the billboard...'tells' us that those who drink this whiskey (presumably male) will be attractive to...beautiful women like the one displayed here" (Tyson 205). Lastly, Richter states, "semiotics takes off from Peirce - for whom language is one of numerous sign systems - and structuralism takes off from Saussure, for whom language was the sign system par excellence"五、Poststructuralism/ DeconstructionThe Center Cannot HoldThis approach concerns itself with the ways and places where systems, frameworks, definitions, and certainties break down. Post-structuralism maintains that frameworks and systems, for example the structuralist systems explained in the Structuralist area, are merely fictitious constructs and that they cannot be trusted to develop meaning or to give order. In fact, the very act of seeking order or a singular Truth (with a capital T) is absurd because there exists no unified truth.Post-structuralism holds that there are many truths, that frameworks must bleed, and that structures must become unstable or decentered. Moreover, post-structuralism is also concernedwith the power structures or hegemonies and power and how these elements contribute to and/or maintain structures to enforce hierarchy. Therefore, post-structural theory carries implications far beyond literary criticism.What Does Your Meaning Mean?By questioning the process of developing meaning, post-structural theory strikes at the very heart of philosophy and reality and throws knowledge making into what Jacques Derrida called "freeplay": "The concept of centered structure...is contradictorily coherent...the concept of centered structure is in fact the concept of a freeplay which is constituted upon a fundamental immobility and a reassuring certitude, which is itself beyond the reach of the freeplay" (qtd. in Richter, 878-879).Derrida first posited these ideas in 1966 at Johns Hopkins University, when he delivered ―Structure, Sign, and Play in the Discourse of the Human Sciences‖: "Perhaps something has occurred in the history of the concept of structure that could be called an 'event,' if this loaded word did not entail a meaning which it is precisely the function of structural-or structuralist-thought to reduce or to suspect. But let me use the term ―event‖ anyway, employing it with caution and as if in quotation marks. In this sense, this event will have the exterior form of a rupture and a redoubling‖ (qtd. in Richter, 878). In his presentation, Derrida challenged structuralism's most basic ideas.Can Language Do That?Post-structural theory can be tied to a move against Modernist/Enlightenment ideas (philosophers: Immanuel Kant, Réne Descartes, John Locke, etc.) and Western religious beliefs (neo-Platonism, Catholicism, etc.). An early pioneer of this resistance was philosopher Friedrich Nietzsche. In his essay, ―On Truth and Lies in an Extra-moral Sense‖ (1873), Nietzsc he rejects even the very basis of our knowledge making, language, as a reliable system of communication: ―The various languages, juxtaposed, show that words are never concerned with truth, never with adequate expression...‖ (248).Below is an example, adapted from the Tyson text, of some language freeplay and a simple form of deconstruction:Time (noun) flies (verb) like an arrow (adverb clause) = Time passes quickly.Time (verb) flies (object) like an arrow (adverb clause) = Get out your stopwatch and time the speed of flies as you would time an arrow's flight.Time flies (noun) like (verb) an arrow (object) = Time flies are fond of arrows (or at least of one particular arrow).So, post-structuralists assert that if we cannot trust language systems to convey truth, the very bases of truth are unreliable and the universe - or at least the universe we have constructed - becomes unraveled or de-centered. Nietzsche uses language slip as a base to move into the slip and shift of truth as a whole: ―What is truth? …truths are an illusion about which it has been forgotten that they are illusions...‖ (On Truth and Lies 250).This returns us to the discussion in the Structuralist area regarding signs, signifiers, and signified. Essentially, post-structuralism holds that we cannot trust the sign = signifier + signified formula, that there is a breakdown of certainty between sign/signifier, which leaves language systems hopelessly inadequate for relaying meaning so that we are (returning to Derrida) in eternal freeplay or instability.What's Left?Important to note, however, is that deconstruction is not just about tearing down - this is a common misconception. Derrida, in "Signature Event Context," addressed this limited view of post-structural theory: "Deconstruction cannot limit or proceed immediately to a neutralization: it must…practice an overturning of the classical opposition and a general displacement of the system. It is only on this condition that deconstruction will provide itself the means with which to intervene in the field of oppositions that it criticizes, which is also a field of nondiscursive forces" (328).Derrida reminds us that through deconstruction we can identify the in-betweens and the marginalized to begin interstitial knowledge building.六、Postmodernism七、PostcolonialismHistory is Written by the VictorsPost-colonial criticism is similar to cultural studies, but it assumes a unique perspective on literature and politics that warrants a separate discussion. Specifically, post-colonial critics are concerned with literature produced by colonial powers and works produced by those who were/are colonized. Post-colonial theory looks at issues of power, economics, politics, religion, and culture and how these elements work in relation to colonial hegemony (western colonizers controlling the colonized).Therefore, a post-colonial critic might be interested in works such as Daniel Defoe's Robinson Crusoe where colonial "...ideology [is] manifest in Crusoe's colonialist attitude toward the land upon which he's shipwrecked and toward the black man he 'colonizes' and names Friday" (Tyson 377). In addition, post-colonial theory might point out that "...despite Heart of Darkness's (Joseph Conrad) obvious anti-colonist agenda, the novel points to the colonized population as the standard of savagery to which Europeans are contrasted" (Tyson 375). Post-colonial criticism also takes the form of literature composed by authors that critique Euro-centric hegemony.A Unique Perspective on EmpireSeminal post-colonial writers such as Nigerian author Chinua Achebe and Kenyan author Ngugi wa Thiong'o have written a number of stories recounting the suffering of colonized people. For example, in Things Fall Apart, Achebe details the strife and devastation that occurred when British colonists began moving inland from the Nigerian coast.Rather than glorifying the exploratory nature of European colonists as they expanded their sphere of influence, Achebe narrates the destructive events that led to the death and enslavement of thousands of Nigerians when the British imposed their Imperial government. In turn, Achebe points out the negative effects (and shifting ideas of identity and culture) caused by the imposition of western religion and economics on Nigerians during colonial rule.Power, Hegemony, and LiteraturePost-colonial criticism also questions the role of the western literary canon and western history as dominant forms of knowledge making. The terms "first-world," "second world," "third world" and "fourth world" nations are critiqued by post-colonial critics because they reinforce the dominant positions of western cultures populating first world status. This critique includes the literary canon and histories written from the perspective of first-world cultures. So, for example, a post-colonial critic might question the works included in "the canon" because the canon does not contain works by authors outside western culture.Moreover, the authors included in the canon often reinforce colonial hegemonic ideology, such as Joseph Conrad's Heart of Darkness. Western critics might consider Heart of Darkness an effective critique of colonial behavior. But post-colonial theorists and authors might disagree with this perspective: "...as Chinua Achebe observes, the novel's condemnation of European is based on a definition of Africans as savages: beneath their veneer of civilization, the Europeans are, the novel tells us, as barbaric as the Africans. And indeed, Achebe notes, the novel portrays Africans as a pre-historic mass of frenzied, howling, incomprehensible barbarians..."八、New HistoricismIt's All Relative...This school, influenced by structuralist and post-structuralist theories, seeks to reconnect a work with the time period in which it was produced and identify it with the cultural and political movements of the time (Michel Foucault's concept of épistème). New Historicism assumes that every work is a product of the historic moment that created it. Specifically, New Historicism is "...a practice that has developed out of contemporary theory, particularly the structuralist realization that all human systems are symbolic and subject to the rules of language, and the deconstructive realization that there is no way of positioning oneself as an observer outside the closed circle of textuality" (Richter 1205).A helpful way of considering New Historical theory, Tyson explains, is to think about the retelling of history itself: "...questions asked by traditional historians and by new historicists are quite different...traditional historians ask, 'What happened?' and 'What does the event tell us about history?' In contrast, new historicists ask, 'How has the event been interpreted?' and 'What do the interpretations tell us about the interpreters?'" (278). So New Historicism resists the notion that "...history is a series of events that have a linear, causal relationship: event A caused event B; eventB caused event C; and so on" (Tyson 278).New historicists do not believe that we can look at history objectively, but rather that we interpret events as products of our time and culture and that "...we don't have clear access to any but the most basic facts of history...our understanding of what such facts mean...is...strictly a matter of interpretation, not fact" (279). Moreover, New Historicism holds that we are hopelessly subjective interpreters of what we observe.九、Feminism(1960s-present)S/heFeminist criticism is concerned with "...the ways in which literature (and other cultural productions) reinforce or undermine the economic, political, social, and psychological oppression of women" (Tyson). This school of theory looks at how aspects of our culture are inherently patriarchal (male dominated) and "...this critique strives to expose the explicit and implicit misogyny in male writing about women" (Richter 1346). This misogyny, Tyson reminds us, can extend into diverse areas of our culture: "Perhaps the most chilling example...is found in the world of modern medicine, where drugs prescribed for both sexes often have been tested on male subjects only" (83).Feminist criticism is also concerned with less obvious forms of marginalization such as the exclusion of women writers from the traditional literary canon: "...unless the critical or historical point of view is feminist, there is a tendency to under-represent the contribution of women writers" (Tyson 82-83).Common Space in Feminist TheoriesThough a number of different approaches exist in feminist criticism, there exist some areas of commonality. This list is excerpted from Tyson:1.Women are oppressed by patriarchy economically, politically, socially, andpsychologically; patriarchal ideology is the primary means by which they are keptso2.In every domain where patriarchy reigns, woman is other: she is marginalized,defined only by her difference from male norms and values3.All of western (Anglo-European) civilization is deeply rooted in patriarchal ideology,for example, in the biblical portrayal of Eve as the origin of sin and death in theworld4.While biology determines our sex (male or female), culture determines our gender(masculine or feminine)5.All feminist activity, including feminist theory and literary criticism, has as itsultimate goal to change the world by prompting gender equality6.Gender issues play a part in every aspect of human production and experience,including the production and experience of literature, whether we are consciouslyaware of these issues or not (91).Feminist criticism has, in many ways, followed what some theorists call the three waves of feminism:1.First Wave Feminism - late 1700s-early 1900's: writers like Mary Wollstonecraft (AVindication of the Rights of Women, 1792) highlight the inequalities between thesexes. Activists like Susan B. Anthony and Victoria Woodhull contribute to thewomen's suffrage movement, which leads to National Universal Suffrage in 1920with the passing of the Nineteenth Amendment2.Second Wave Feminism - early 1960s-late 1970s: building on more equal workingconditions necessary in America during World War II, movements such as theNational Organization for Women (NOW), formed in 1966, cohere feminist politicalactivism. Writers like Simone de Beauvoir (Le deuxième sexe, 1972) and ElaineShowalter established the groundwork for the dissemination of feminist theoriesdove-tailed with the American Civil Rights movementThird Wave Feminism- early 1990s-present: resisting the perceived essentialist (over generalized, over simplified) ideologies and a white, heterosexual, middle class focus of second wave feminism, third wave feminism borrows from post-structural and contemporary gender and race theories (see below) to expand on marginalized populations' experiences. Writers like Alice Walker work to "...reconcile it [feminism] with the concerns of the black community...[and] the survival and wholeness of her people, men and women both, and for the promotion of dialog and community as well as for the valorization of women and of all the varieties of work women perform".十、MarxismBased on the theories of Karl Marx (and so influenced by philosopher Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel), this school concerns itself with class differences, economic and otherwise, as well as the implications and complications of the capitalist system: "Marxism attempts to reveal the ways in which our socioeconomic system is the ultimate source of our experience" (Tyson 277). Theorists working in the Marxist tradition, therefore, are interested in answering the overarching question, whom does it [the work, the effort, the policy, the road, etc.] benefit? The elite? The middle class? And Marxists critics are also interested in how the lower or working classes are oppressed - in everyday life and in literature.The Material DialecticThe Marxist school follows a process of thinking called the material dialectic. This belief system maintains that "...what drives historical change are the material realities of the economic base of society, rather than the ideological superstructure of politics, law, philosophy, religion, and art that is built upon that economic base" (Richter 1088).Marx asserts that "...stable societies develop sites of resistance: contradictions build into the social system that ultimately lead to social revolution and the development of a new society upon the old" (1088). This cycle of contradiction, tension, and revolution must continue: there will always be conflict between the upper, middle, and lower (working) classes and this conflict will be reflected in literature and other forms of expression - art, music, movies, etc.Though a staggering number of different nuances exist within this school of literary theory, Marxist critics generally work in areas covered by the following questions.十一、OtherGender Studies and Queer Theory (1970s-present)Gender(s), Power, and MarginalizationGender studies and queer theory explore issues of sexuality, power, and marginalized populations (woman as other) in literature and culture. Much of the work in gender studies and queer theory, while influenced by feminist criticism, emerges from post-structural interest in fragmented, de-centered knowledge building (Nietzsche, Derrida, Foucault), language (the breakdown of sign-signifier), and psychoanalysis (Lacan).A primary concern in gender studies and queer theory is the manner in which gender and sexuality is discussed: "Effective as this work [feminism] was in changing what teachers taught and what the students read, there was a sense on the part of some feminist critics that...it was still the old game that was being played, when what it needed was a new game entirely. The argument posed was that in order to counter patriarchy, it was necessary not merely to think about new texts, but to think about them in radically new ways" (Richter 1432).Therefore, a critic working in gender studies and queer theory might even be uncomfortable with the binary established by many feminist scholars between masculine and feminine: "Cixous (following Derrida in Of Grammatology) sets up a series of binary oppositions (active/passive, sun/moon...father/mother, logos/pathos). Each pair can be analyzed as a hierarchy in which the former term represents the positive and masculine and the latter the negative and feminine principle" (Richter 1433-1434).In-BetweensMany critics working with gender and queer theory are interested in the breakdown of binaries such as male and female, the in-betweens (also following Derrida's interstitial knowledge building). For example, gender studies and queer theory maintains that cultural definitions of sexuality and what it means to be male and female are in flux: "...the distinction between "masculine" and "feminine" activities and behavior is constantly changing, so that women who wear baseball caps and fatigues...can be perceived as more piquantly sexy by some heterosexual men than those women who wear white frocks and gloves and look down demurely". Moreover, Richter reminds us that as we learn more about our genetic structure, the biology of male/female becomes increasingly complex and murky: "even the physical dualism of sexual genetic structures and bodily parts breaks down when one considers those instances-XXYsyndromes, natural sexual bimorphisms, as well as surgical transsexuals - that defy attempts at binary classification".十二、精神分析Psychoanalytic Criticism (1930s-present)Sigmund FreudPsychoanalytic criticism builds on Freudian theories of psychology. While we don't have the room here to discuss all of Freud's work, a general overview is necessary to explain psychoanalytic literary criticism.The Unconscious, the Desires, and the DefensesFreud began his psychoanalytic work in the 1880s while attempting to treat behavioral disorders in his Viennese patients. He dubbed the disorders 'hysteria' and began treating them by listening to his patients talk through their problems. Based on this work, Freud asserted that people's behavior is affected by their unconscious: "...the notion that human beings are motivated, even driven, by desires, fears, needs, and conflicts of which they are unaware..." (Tyson 14-15).Freud believed that our unconscious was influenced by childhood events. Freud organized these events into developmental stages involving relationships with parents and drives of desire and pleasure where children focus "...on different parts of the body...starting with the mouth...shifting to the oral, anal, and phallic phases..." (Richter 1015). These stages reflect base levels of desire, but they also involve fear of loss (loss of genitals, loss of affection from parents, loss of life) and repression: "...the expunging from consciousness of these unhappy psychological events" (Tyson 15).Tyson reminds us, however, that "...repression doesn't eliminate our painful experiences and emotions...we unconsciously behave in ways that will allow us to 'play out'...our conflicted feelings about the painful experiences and emotions we repress" (15). To keep all of this conflict buried in our unconscious, Freud argued that we develop defenses: selective perception, selective memory, denial, displacement, projection, regression, fear of intimacy, and fear of death, among others.Id, Ego, and SuperegoFreud maintained that our desires and our unconscious conflicts give rise to three areas of the mind that wrestle for dominance as we grow from infancy, to childhood, to adulthood: ∙id - "...the location of the drives" or libido∙ego - "...one of the major defenses against the power of the drives..." and home of the defenses listed above∙superego - the area of the unconscious that houses judgement (of self and others) and "...which begins to form during childhood as a result of the Oedipus complex" (Richter 1015-1016)Oedipus ComplexFreud believed that the Oedipus complex was "...one of the most powerfully determinative elements in the growth of the child" (Richter 1016). Essentially, the Oedipus complex involves children's need for their parents and the conflict that arises as children mature and realize they are not the absolute focus of their mother's attention: "the Oedipus complex begins in a late phase of infantile sexuality, between the child's third and sixth year, and it takes a different form in males than it does in females" (Richter 1016).Freud argued that both boys and girls wish to possess their mothers, but as they grow older "...they begin to sense that their claim to exclusive attention is thwarted by the mother's attention to the。
商业银行管理彼得S.罗斯第八版课后答案chapter_01
CHAPTER 1AN OVERVIEW OF BANKS AND THE FINANCIAL-SERVICES SECTORGoal of This Chapter: In this chapter you will learn about the many roles financial service providers play in the economy today. You will examine how and why the banking industry and the financial services marketplace as a whole is rapidly changing, becoming new and different as we move forward into the future. You will also learn about new and old services offered to the public.Key Topics in This Chapter•Powerful Forces Reshaping the Industry•What is a Bank?•The Financial System and Competing Financial-Service Institutions•Old and New Services Offered to the Public•Key Trends Affecting All Financial-Service Firms•Appendix: Career Opportunities in Financial ServicesChapter OutlineI. I ntroduction: P owerful Forces Reshaping the IndustryII. W hat Is a Bank?A. D efined by the Functions It Serves and the Roles It Play:B. B anks and their Principal CompetitorsC. Legal Basis of a BankD. D efined by the Government Agency That Insures Its DepositsIII.The Financial System and Competing Financial-Service InstitutionsA.Savings AssociationsB.Credit UnionsC.Money Market FundsD.Mutual FundsE.Hedge FundsF.Security Brokers and DealersG.Investment BankersH.Finance CompaniesI.Financial Holding CompaniesJ.Life and Property/Casualty Insurance CompaniesIV. T he Services Banks and Many of Their Closest Competitors Offer the PublicA. S ervices Banks Have Offered Throughout History1.Carrying Out Currency Exchanges2.Discounting Commercial Notes and Making Business Loans3.Offering Savings Deposits4.Safekeeping of Valuables and Certification of Value5.Supporting Government Activities with Credit6.Offering Checking Accounts (Demand Deposits)7.Offering Trust ServicesB. S ervices Banks and Many of Their Financial-Service Competitors HaveOffered More Recently1.Granting Consumer Loans2.Financial Advising3.Managing Cash4.Offering Equipment Leasing5.Making Venture Capital Loans6.Selling Insurance Policies7.Selling Retirement PlansC. Dealing in Securities: Offering Security Brokerage and Investment Banking Services1. Offering Security Underwriting2. Offering Mutual Funds and Annuities3. Offering Merchant Banking Services4. Offering Risk Management and Hedging ServicesV. Key Trends Affecting All Financial-Service FirmsA. S ervice ProliferationB. R ising CompetitionC. G overnment DeregulationD. A n Increasingly Interest-Sensitive Mix of FundsE. T echnological Change and AutomationF. C onsolidation and Geographic ExpansionG. C onvergenceH. G lobalizationVI. T he Plan of This BookVII. S ummaryConcept Checks1-1. What is a bank? How does a bank differ from most other financial-service providers?A bank should be defined by what it does; in this case, banks are generally those financial institutions offering the widest range of financial services. Other financial service providers offer some of the financial services offered by a bank, but not all of them within one institution.1-2. Under U.S. law what must a corporation do to qualify and be regulated as a commercial bank?Under U.S. law, commercial banks must offer two essential services to qualify as banks for purposes of regulation and taxation, demand (checkable) deposits and commercial loans. More recently, Congress defined a bank as any institution that could qualify for deposit insurance administered by the FDIC.1-3.Why are some banks reaching out to become one-stop financial service conglomerates? Is this a good idea in your opinion?There are two reasons that banks are increasingly becoming one-stop financial service conglomerates. The first reason is the increased competition from other types of financial institution s and the erosion of banks’ traditional service areas. The second reason is the Financial Services Modernization Act which has allowed banks to expand their role to be full service providers.1-4. Which businesses are banking’s closest and toughest com petitors? What services do they offer that compete directly with banks’ services?Among a bank’s closest competitors are savings associations, credit unions, money market funds, mutual funds, hedge funds, security brokers and dealers, investment banks, finance companies, financial holding companies, and life andproperty-casualty insurance companies. All of these financial service providers are converging and embracing each other’s innovations. The Financial Services Modernization Act has allowed many of these financial service providers to offer the public one-stop shopping for financial services.1-5. What is happening to banking’s share of the financial mark etplace and why? What kind of banking and financial system do you foresee for the future if present trends continue?The Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999 allowed many of the banks’ closest competitors to offer a wide array of financial services thereby taking away market share from “traditional” banks. Banks and their closest competitors are converging into one-stop shopping for financial services and this trend should continue in the future1-6. What different kinds of services do banks offer the public today? What services do their closest competitors offer?Banks offer the widest range of services of any financial institution. They offer thrift deposits to encourage saving and checkable (demand) deposits to provide a means of payment for purchases of goods and services. They also provide credit through direct loans, by discounting the notes that business customers hold, and by issuing credit guarantees. Additionally, they make loans to consumers for purchases of durable goods, such as automobiles, and for home improvements, etc. Banks also manage the property of customers under trust agreements and manage the cash positions of their business customers. They purchase and lease equipment to customers as an alternative to direct loans. Many banks also assist their customers with buying and selling securities through discount brokerage subsidiaries, the acquisition and sale of foreign currencies, the supplying of venture capital to start new businesses, and the purchase of annuities to supply future funding at retirement or for other long-term projects such as supporting a college education. All of these services are also offered by their closest competitors. Banks and their closest competitors are converging and becoming the financial department stores of the modern era.1-7. What is a financial department store? A universal bank? Why do you think these institutions have become so important in the modern financial system? Financial department store and universal bank refer to the same concept. A financial department store is an institution where banking, fiduciary, insurance, and security brokerage services are unified under one roof. A bank that offers all these services is normally referred to as a universal bank. These have become important because of convergence and changes in regulations that have allowed financial service providers to offer all services under one roof1-8. Why do banks and other financial intermediaries exist in modern society, according to the theory of finance?There are multiple approaches to answering this question. The traditional view of banks as financial intermediaries sees them as simultaneously fulfilling the financial-service needs of savers (surplus-spending units) and borrowers(deficit-spending units), providing both a supply of credit and a supply of liquid assets. A newer view sees banks as delegated monitors who assess and evaluate borrowers on behalf of their depositors and earn fees for supplying monitoring services. Banks also have been viewed in recent theory as suppliers of liquidity andtransactions services that reduce costs for their customers and, through diversification, reduce risk. Banks are also critical in the payment system for goods and services and have played an increasingly important role as a guarantor and a risk management role for customers.1-9. How have banking and the financial services market changed in recent years? What powerful forces are shaping financial markets and institutions today? Which of these forces do you think will continue into the future?Banking is becoming a more volatile industry due, in part, to deregulation which has opened up individual banks to the full force of the financial marketplace. At the same time the number and variety of banking services has increased greatly due to the pressure of intensifying competition from nonbank financial-service providers and changing public demand for more conveniently and reliably provided services. Adding to the intensity of competition, foreign banks have enjoyed success in their efforts to enter countries overseas and attract away profitable domestic business and household accounts.1-10. Can you explain why many of the forces you named in the answer to the previous question have led to significant problems for the management of banks and other financial firms and their stockholders?The net result of recent changes in banking and the financial services market has been to put greater pressure upon their earnings, resulting in more volatile returns to stockholders and an increased bank failure rates. Some experts see banks' role and market share shrinking due to restrictive government regulations and intensifying competition. Institutions have also become more innovative in their service offerings and in finding new sources of funding, such as off-balance-sheet transactions. The increased risk faced by institutions today, therefore, has forced managers to more aggressively utilize a wide array of tools and techniques to improve and stabilize their earnings streams and manage the various risks they face. 1-11. What do you think the financial services industry will look like 20 years from now? What are the implications of your projections for its management today? There appears to be a trend toward continuing consolidation and convergence. There are likely to be fewer financial service providers in the future and many of these will be very large and provide a broad range of financial services under one roof. In addition, global expansion will continue and will be critical to the survival of many financial service providers. Management of financial service providers willhave to be more technologically astute and be able to make a more diverse set of decisions including decisions about mergers, acquisitions and global expansion as well as new services to add to the firm.Problems and Projects1. You have just been hired as the marketing officer for the new First National Bank of Vincent, a suburban banking institution that will soon be serving a local community of 120,000 people. The town is adjacent to a major metropolitan area with a total population of well over 1 million. Opening day for the newly chartered bank is just two months away, and the president and the board of directors are concerned that the new bank may not be able to attract enough depositors and good-quality loan customers to meet its growth and profit projections. There are 18 other financial-service competitors in town, including two credit unions, three finance companies, four insurance agencies, and two security broker offices. Your task is to recommend the various services the bank should offer initially to build up an adequate customer base. You are asked to do the following:a.Make a list of all the services the new bank could offer, according to current regulations.b.List the type of information you will need about the local community tohelp you decide which of the possible services are likely to have sufficientdemand to make them profitable.c.Divide the possible services into two groups--those you think are essentialto customers and should be offered beginning with opening day, and thosethat can be offered later as the bank grows.d. Briefly describe the kind of advertising campaign you would like to run tohelp the public see how your bank is different from all the other financialservice providers in the local area. Which services offered by the nonblankservice providers would be of most concern to the new bank’smanagement?Banks can offer, if they choose, a wide variety of financial services today. These services are listed below. However, unless they are affiliated with a larger bank holding company and can offer some of these services through that company, it may be more limited in what it can offer.Regular Checking Accounts Management Consulting Services NOW Accounts Letters of CreditPassbook Savings Deposits Business Inventory Loans Certificates of Deposit Asset-Based Commercial Loans Money Market Deposits Discounting of Commercial Paper Automobile Loans Plant and Equipment Loans Retirement Savings Plans Venture Capital LoansNonauto Installment Loans to IndividualsResidential Real Estate Loans Leasing Plans for Business Property and EquipmentHome Improvement Loans Security Dealing and Underwriting Personal Trust Management Services Discount Security BrokerageCommercial Trust Services Institutional Trust Services Foreign Currency Trading and ExchangePersonal Financial Advising Personal Cash-Management ServicesInsurance Policy Sales (Mainly Credit-Life)Insurance Today (Except in Some States)) Standby Credit Guarantees Acceptance FinancingTo help the new bank decide which services to offer it would be helpful to gather information about some of the following items in the local community:School Enrollments and Growth in School EnrollmentsEstimated Value of Residential and Commercial PropertyRetail SalesPercentage of Home Ownership Among Residents in the AreaNumber and Size (in Sales and Work Force) of Local Business Establishments Major Population Locations (i.e., Major Subdivisions, etc.) and Any Projected Growth AreasPopulation Demographics (i.e., Age Distribution of the Area)Projected Growth Areas of Industries in the AreaEssential services the bank would probably want to offer right from the beginning includes:Regular Checking Accounts Home Improvement Loans Automobile and other Consumer-type Money Market Deposit Accounts Installment Loans Retirement Savings PlansNOW Accounts Business Inventory LoansPassbook Savings Deposits Discounting of High-QualityCommercial NotesResidential Real Estate LoansCertificates of DepositAs the bank grows, opportunities for the profitable sale of additional services usually increase, especially for trust services for individuals and smaller businesses and personal financial advising as well as some commercial (plant and equipment) loans and leases. Further growth may result in the expansion of commercial trust services as well as a widening variety of commercial loans and credit guarantees.The bank would want to develop an advertising campaign that sends a message to potential customers that the new bank is, indeed, different from its competitors. Small banks often have the advantage of offering highly personalized services in which their customers are known and recognized and services are tailored to each individual customer's special financial needs. Quality and reliability of banking service are often more important to individual customers than is price. A new bank must try to sell prospective customers, most of who will come from other banks in the area, on personalized services, quality, and reliability - all three of which should be emphasized in its advertising program.2. Leading money center banks in the United States have accelerated their investment banking activities all over the globe in recent years, purchasing corporate debt securities and stock from their business customers and reselling those securities to investors in the open market. Is this a desirable move by these banking organizations from a profit standpoint? From a risk standpoint? From the public interest point of view? How would you research their question? If you were managing a corporation that had placed large deposits with a bank engaged in such activities, would you be concerned about the risk to your company's funds? What could you do to better safeguard those funds?In the 1970's and early 1980's investment banking was so profitable that commercial bankers were lured into the investment banking business largely because of its greater profit potential than possessed by more traditional commercial banking activities. Later foreign banks, particularly the British and Japanese banking firms, began to attract away large corporate customers from U.S. banks, who were restrained by regulation from offering many investment banking services. Thus, U.S. banks ran into severe difficulty in simply trying to hold onto their traditional corporate credit and deposit accounts because they could not compete service-wise in the investment banking field. Today, banks are allowed to underwrite securities through either a subsidiary or through a holding company structure. This change occurred as part of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Financial Services Modernization Act).Unfortunately, if investment banking is more profitable than traditional banking product lines, it is also more risky, consistent with the basic tenet of finance that risk and return are directly related. That is why the Federal Reserve Board has placed such strict limits on the type of organization that can offer these services. Currently, the underwriting of most corporate securities must be done through a subsidiary or as a separate part of the holding company so that, in theory at least, the bank is not responsible for any losses incurred. For this reason there may be little reason for depositors (including large corporate depositors) to be concerned about risk exposure from investment banking. Moreover, the ability to offer such services may make U.S. banks more viable in the long run which helps their corporate customers who depend upon them for credit.On the other hand, opponents of investment banking powers for bank operations inside the U.S. have some reasonable concerns that must be addressed. There are, for example, possible conflicts of interest. Information gathered in the investment banking division could be used to the detriment of customers purchasing other bank services. For example, a customer seeking a loan may be told that he or she must buy securities from the bank's investment banking division in order to receive a loan. Moreover, banks could gain effective control over some nonblank industrial corporations which might subject them to added risk exposure and place industrial firms not allied with banks at a competitive disadvantage. As a result theGramm-Leach-Bliley Act has built in some protections to prevent this from happening.3. The term bank has been applied broadly over the years to include a diverse set of financial-service institutions, which offer different financial service packages.Identify as many o f the different kinds of “banks” as you can. How do the “banks” you have identified compare to the largest banking group of all – the commercial banks? Why do you think so many different financial firms have been called banks? How might this terminological confusion affect financial-service customers?The general public tends to classify anything as a bank that offers some sort of financial service, especially deposit and loan services. Other institutions that are often referred to as a bank without being one are savings associations, credit unions, money market funds, mutual funds, hedge funds, security brokers and dealers, investment banks, finance companies, financial holding companies and life and property/casualty insurance companies. All of these institutions offer some of the services that a commercial bank offers, but generally not the entire scope of services. Since providers of financial services are normally called banks by the general public they are able to take away business from traditional banks and it is of utmost importance for commercial banks to clarify their unique position among financial services providers.4. What advantages can you see to banks affiliating with insurance companies? How might such an affiliation benefit a bank? An insurer? Can you identify any possible disadvantages to such an affiliation? Can you cite any real world examples of bank-insurer affiliations? How well do they appear to have worked out in practice?Before Glass-Steagall banks used to sell insurance services to their customers on a regular basis. in particular, banks would sell life insurance companies to loan customers to ensure repayment of the loan in case of death or disablement. These reasons still exist today and the right to sell insurances to customers again benefits banks in allowing them to offer their customers complete financial packages from financing the home or car to insure it, from giving investment advice to selling life insurance policies and annuities for retirement planning. Generally, a bank customer who is already purchasing a service from a bank might feel compelled to purchase an insurance product, as well. On the other hand, insurance companies sometimes have a negative image, which makes it more difficult to sell certain insurance products. Combining their products with the trust that people generally have in banks will make it easier for them to sell their products. The most prominent example of a bank-insurer affiliation is the merger of Citicorp and Traveler’s Insurance to Citigroup. However, given that Citigroup has sold Traveler’s Insurance indicates that the anticipated synergy effects did not materialize.5. Explain the difference between consolidation and convergence. Are these trends in banking and financial services related? Do they influence each other? How? Consolidation refers to increase in the size of financial institutions and the decline in the number of small independently owned banks and financial service providers. Convergence is the bringing together of firms from different industries to createconglomerate firms offering multiple services. Clearly, these two trends are related. In their effort to compete with each other, banks and their closest competitors have acquired other firms in their industry as well across industries to provide multiple financial services in multiple markets.6. What is a financial intermediary? What are their key characteristics? Is a bank a type of financial intermediary? Why? What other financial-services companies are financial intermediaries? What important role within the financial system do financial intermediaries play?A financial intermediary is a business that interacts with deficit spending individuals and institutions and surplus spending individuals and institutions. For that reason any financial service provider (including banks) is considered a financial intermediary. In their function as intermediaries they act as a bridge between the deficit and surplus spending units by offering financial services to the surplus spending individuals and then loaning those funds to the deficit spending individuals. Financial intermediaries accelerate economic growth by increasing the pool of available funds and lowering the risk of investments through diversification.。
SAP_BASIS工作和学习总结
SAP_BASIS工作和学习总结SAP学习记录书BASIS篇李子文目录1 ECC6.0安装之后的配置 (3)1.1 Initial Consistency Check (SM28) (3)1.2 Edit Batch Jobs (3)1.3 Workbench Organizer Reconfiguration (3)1.4 TMS Configuration (4)1.5 Import Printers (4)1.6 Client Configuration (4)1.7 Set System Change Option (5)1.8 Import Users (5)1.9 SCC7 (5)1.10 SM37 (5)1.11 SCC4 (6)1.12 Deleting Source System Profiles (6)1.13 Reconfigure Operation Modes (7)1.14 Delete Update Failures (7)1.15 Delete Batch Input Sessions (8)1.16 Reorganize Spool (8)1.17 Delete Invalid Background Control Objects (8) 1.18 Restrict Outgoing Email and Faxes (8)1.19 Adjust RFC connections (9)1.20 Convert Logical Systems (9)1.21 Adjust Logical Systems names (9)1.22 Allow Certains Settings to be modifiable (10)1.23 BSI Configuration (R3 HR Systems only) (10)1.24 SE38 (10)1.25 Reconfigure DB13 schedule (10)1.26 Client Configuration (11)2 积累 (13)2.1 修改sap*或者DDIC的密码 (13)2.2 (13)2.3 SAP ERP权限参数文件 (14)2.4导出、导入集团数据 (15)2.5根据Return Code判断gui连接SAP服务器的问题 (15)2.6 ST03N工作负载的后台作业定义 (15)2.7 R3trans (16)2.8 (16)3 (17)3.1 (17)3.2 (17)3.3 (17)1 ECC6.0安装之后的配置1.1 Initial Consistency Check (SM28)1. Logon to the newly refreshed SAP system and run transaction SM282. Ensure that no errors are reported. Otherwise, take the necessary steps to correct the problems.1.2 Edit Batch Jobs1. Set the fields as followsJob name: RDDIMPDP*User name: *Job Status: Released and Ready checked off, all others uncheckedFr: 01/01/0001To: 12/31/9999Or after event: *2. Press to execute the query3. Highlight the first job in the list and press the ctrl + f11 to change the job.4. Examine the Exec Target field.a. If the box is empty, press to exitb. If the box is not empty, then clear out the contents so the field is blank and press ctrl + s to save5. Repeat Steps 3 and 4 for each additonal job listed.1.3 Workbench Organizer Reconfiguration1. Logon on to client 000 of the newly refreshed system with DDIC.SE061. Select the Database Copy or migration option2. Press the Post-installation Processing button.3. When prompted Do you want to re-install the CTS?, press the Yes button4. When prompted *for* the Source System of Database Copy?, make sure that the of the production system is selected. Press the checkmark button to continue.5. When prompted Change originals from PRD to QUA?, press the Yes button6. When prompted Delete TMS Configuration?, press the Yes button7. When prompted Delete old TMS configuration?, press the Yes button8. When prompted Delete Old Versions of transport routes?, press the No button1.4 TMS Configuration1. Logon on to client 000 of the newly refreshed system.STMS1. Upon starting STMS, a windows with the title TMS: Include System in Transport Domain should be displayed2. The information on *this* screen is automatically filled out from information provided during the SAP installation and should be correct. If it correct, then enter a description *for* the system and press +S to save. Otherwise, press the Other configuration button and manually configure.3. From the Overview menu, select Transport Routes4. From the Configuration menu, select Adjust with Controller5. Press the Yes button when prompted *if* you want copy the transport routes from the controller.1.5 Import Printers1. Logon on to the production client of the newly refreshed system.STMS2. Press to go to the *import* Overview.3. Double click on the of the newly refresh system4. From the Extras menu select Other Requests, then Add.5. In the Transp. Request box, enter the transport number containing the printer definitions that was exported. Press to save.6. Select the transport that was just added to the queue and press + to start the import.7. In the Target client box, enter the productive client of the newly created system. Press to save.8. Press the button to start the transport.1.6 Client ConfigurationSCC41. From the Table view menu, select Display -> Change2. When warned that the table is cross-client, press the checkmark button.3. Double click on one of the non-system clients (i.e. not client 000, 001 or 066)4. Define client as follows:Client role: TestChanges and transports *for* client-specific object: Changes without automatic recordingClient-independent object changes: Changes to repository and cross-client customizing allowedProtection: Client copier and comparison tool: Protection level 0Restrictions when starting CATT and eCATT: eCATT and CATT allowed5. Press +S to save.6. Repeat steps 4 through 6 *for* any additional clients1.7 Set System Change OptionSE061. Press the System Change Option button.2. Set the global setting to Modifiable3. From the Edit menu, select Software Components Modifiable4. From the Edit menu, select Namespaces Modifiable5. Press +S to save.1.8 Import UsersSTMS1. Press to go to the Import overview2. Double click on the of the newly refreshed system.3. Press to refresh the list of transports4. Locate the transport in the list containing the user exports done before the start of the refresh.If the transport is NOT in the list, then from the Extras menu, select Other requests then Add. Enter the transport number and press . Then press the Yes button to add the transport.5. Highlight the transport and press the Import request icon .6. At the client *import* screen, enter the target client and then press the Import button7. Press to confirm that the *import* will proceed1.9 SCC71. Run the Post Client Import Processing2. The transport number should be the same as that of the transport started in STMS3. Schedule the job to run in the background. Do NOT schedule it to run immediately. We need to modify the job before it can be released.4. Press +S to save.1.10 SM371. Set the fields as followsJob name: CLIENTIMPORT*User name: *Job Status: All options checkedFr: 01/01/0001To: 12/31/9999Or after event: *2. Highlight the job that was created by SCC7 and press + to modify the job.3. Press the Step button.4. Select the RSCLXCOP line and press ++ to modify that step.5. In the User box, enter the background user *for* that particular system (i.e BGDUSER, SAPBATCH, BATCHSAP).6. Press +S to save the changes7. Press to go back to the main job screen.8. Press the Start condition button.9. Press the Immediate button.10. Press +S to save the changes11. Press +S again to save all the changes to the job.12. Job will start immediately once saved. Press to refresh the list of jobs13. Continue to press every once in a *while* to update the status of the job. Do not *continue* until the job is completed sucessfully.1.11 SCC41. From the Table view menu, select Display -> Change2. When warned that the table is cross-client, press the checkmark button.3. Double click on one of the non-system clients (i.e. not client 000, 001 or 066)4. Set the Protection to Protection level 15. Press +S to save.6. Repeat steps 3 through 5 *for* any additional clients1.12 Deleting Source System ProfilesRZ101. From the Utilities menu, select Import Profiles then Of Active Servers.(Note: All application servers of the target system must be started)2. If the Display Profile Check Log screen is displayed, press to leave *this* screen.3. Select the Profile field and press to bring up a list of profiles.4. From the list select one of the profiles associated with the source production system.5. From the Profile menu, select Delete, then All versions, then of a profile.6. When prompted, press the Yes button to delete all version of the profile7. When prompted to delete the file at the operating system level, press the No button.8. Repeat steps 3 through 7 *for* all additional profiles associated with the source system1.13 Reconfigure Operation ModesRZ041. From the Operation Mode menu, select Timetable2. Select Normal Operation and press the Change button.3. Highlight 00:00 in the left hand column and press the Delete Assignment button4. If all the assignments are not deleted, then highlight the start time of the outstanding assignment and press the Delete Assignment button.5. Once all the assignments are deleted, press +S to save.6. If warned about an empty timetable, press the checkmark button and then press Yes to save the empty timetable.7. Press to go back to the main RZ04 screen.8. Right click on one of the listed Operation modes and select Delete9. Press the Yes button to confirm the deletion.10. Repeat steps 8 through 9 *for* any additional operation modes11. Press to create a *new* operation mode.12. Enter a name and *short* description *for* the operation mode13. Press +S to save.14. Press to create a *new* Instance15. From the Settings menu, select Based on current settings, then New Instances, then Set16. Press to go back to the main RZ04 screen.17. Press the Yes button to save18. From the Operation Mode menu, select Timetable19. Select Normal Operation and press the Change button.20. Highlight the 00:00 at the top and press21. Highlight the 00:00 at the bottom and press22. Press the Assign button.23. Press to select the operation mode created above.24. Press +S to save.1.14 Delete Update FailuresSM131. Set the fields as followsClient: *User: *From data: 01/01/0001From time: 00:00:002. Press to display the list of outstanding update requests3. If ALL the outstanding update requests have a status of ERR, then it is safe to delete these requests by pressing to select all records, then selecting the Update Records menu, then Delete.4. Press the Continue button to confirm the deletion.1.15 Delete Batch Input SessionsSM351. From the Edit menu, select Select All2. Press + to delete all the batch input sessions.3. Press the checkmark button to confirm4. Press the Yes button to start the delete.1.16 Reorganize SpoolSPAD1. From the Administration menu select Clean-up Spool2. Check all check boxes and enter 0 *for* minimum age3. Press the Execute button4. Once complete, press twice to get back to the main SPAD screen5. From the Administration menu select Check Consistency6. Press the Delete All button.SP121. From the TemSe database menu, select Consistency check2. When the check is complete, press the Delete All button.1.17 Delete Invalid Background Control ObjectsSM611. Press to *switch* in to change mode2. Press the Cleanup List button.1.18 Restrict Outgoing Email and FaxesSCOT1. Double click on the green Fax entry2. From the Supported Address Types area, press the Set button that is beside Fax3. In the Address area, ADJUST AS NECESSARY4. Double click on the green SMTP entry5. From the Supported Address Types area, press the Set button that is beside Internet6. In the Address area, ADJUST AS NECESSARY1.19 Adjust RFC connections.SM591. Expand the TCP/IP connections section2. Double click on the first entry listed3. Check the gateway host and gateway server to make sure it points to the appropriate NON-PRODUCTION system.Make changes as necessary.4. Press the Test Connection button to test the connection5. Press Press +S and then to save and *return* to the list of RFCs.6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 *for* each additional RFC connection1.20 Convert Logical SystemsUnder no circumstances perform *this* procedure on a Production systemBDLS1. When warned to read the documentation, press the checkmark button.2. In the Old logical system name box, press .3. Select one of the production Logical System names that needs be changed (i.e. WIIPRD400)4. In the New logical system name, enter what that logical system name should be called on *this* newly refreshed system (i.e.WIITRN400) Note: Ignore Error/Warning about duplicate system by clicking on the check mark.5. De-select the T est Run and Existence check on *new* names in tables options6. From the Program menu, select Execute in background7. Press the checkmark button when asked to select a spool device8. Press the Immediate button when asked *for* the schedule9. Press +S to save10. Use SM37 to monitor the job11. When job is complete, repeat steps 2 through 10 *for* any additional logical system names that need to be changed.1.21 Adjust Logical Systems namesSALE1. Expand Sending and Receiving Systems, then Logical Systems2. Click on the execute icon beside Define Logical System3. Press the checkmark button to confirm that the change is cross client4. …1.22 Allow Certains Settings to be modifiable(Refer to Note 356483 *for* more Details)SM541. Enter V_T001B in the Table/View box.2. Select the Generated Objects option.3. Press the Create/Change button.4. Enter any access keys *if* requested5. Change the Recording routine to no, or user, recording routine.6. Press +S to save7. Press *if* warned that you are changing a function group that doesn't belong to you.8. You are prompted *for* transport. Create a *new* local transport.9. Repeat steps 1 through 8 *for* the following objects. You can specify the same transport you created above.V_T001B_GLV_T093B_01V_T093B_021.23 BSI Configuration (R3 HR Systems only)SM591. Expand TCP/IP Connections2. Highlight BSI70-US-TAX and press the Change button3. Change the program field to \\\\\\sapmnt\\\\SYS\\EXE\\RUN\\TF60SERVER.EXE4. Double check the target host and gateway point to the correct server5. Press +S to save6. Press the Test connection button to test. If the connect is not successful, take the necessary steps to resolve the issue.1.24 SE381. In the Program field, enter RPUBTCU02. Press to execute3. Select option BSI version 7.04. Press to execute5. BSI should *return* tax calculations. If there are errors, take the necessary steps to resolve.1.25 Reconfigure DB13 scheduleDB131. Using the print out created before the refresh, recreate the DB13 calendar.1.26 Client ConfigurationSCC41. From the Table view menu, select Display -> Change2. When warned that the table is cross-client, press the checkmark button.3. Double click on one of the non-system clients (i.e. notclient 000, 001 or 066)4. Define clients as follows depending on client roleDevelopmentClient role: CustomizingChanges and transports *for* client-specific object: Automatic recording of changes Client-independent object changes: Changes to repository and cross-client customizing allowedProtection: Client copier and comparison tool: Protection level 0Restrictions when starting CATT and eCATT: eCATT and CATT allowedQuality AssuranceClient role: TestChanges and transports *for* client-specific object: No changes allowedClient-independent object changes: No Changes to repository and cross-client customizing allowedProtection: Client copier and comparison tool: Protection level 0Restrictions when starting CATT and eCATT: eCATT and CATT allowedTrainingClient role: EducationChanges and transports *for* client-specific object: No changes allowedClient-independent object changes: No Changes to repository and cross-client customizing allowedProtection: Client copier and comparison tool: Protection level 0Restrictions when starting CATT and eCATT: eCATT and CATT allowedSandboxClient role: TestChanges and transports *for* client-specific object: Changes without automatic recordingClient-independent object changes: Changes to repository and cross-client customizing allowedProtection: Client copier and comparison tool: Protection level 0Restrictions when starting CATT and eCATT: eCATT and CATT allowed5. Press +S to save.6. Repeat steps 4 through 6 *for* any additional clientsSet System Change OptionSkip *this* section of the system is a Development or Sandbox System.SE061. Press the System Change Option button.2. Set the global setting to Not Modifiable3. Press +S to save.Release Background JobsCurrently, all background jobs, except *for* system standard jobs have been placed on hold (status scheduled).2 积累2.1 修改sap*或者DDIC的密码方法1：有其中某Client的登录帐号1. 用已有帐号登录某个Client2. 运行Tcode SE303. 单击“tips and tricks“按钮4. 在Performance Tips and Tricks for ABAP Objects屏幕最右边输入框内输入如下代码，然后点击“Measure runtime”执行：Tables: USR02.Select * from usr02 where bname = 'DDIC'. “DDIC或SAP* usr02-mandt = '001'. “帐号所在的ClientModify usr02 client specified.Endselect.重置后的密码，火星人都知道的，19920706、pass啥的。
投资学第7版Test Bank答案14
Multiple Choice Questions1. The current yield on a bond is equal to ________.A) annual interest divided by the current market priceB) the yield to maturityC) annual interest divided by the par valueD) the internal rate of returnE) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: A is current yield and is quoted as such in the financial press.2. If a 7% coupon bond is trading for $975.00, it has a current yieldof ____________ percent.A) 7.00B) 6.53C) 7.24D) 8.53E) 7.18Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: 70/975 = 7.18.3. If a 6% coupon bond is trading for $950.00, it has a current yieldof ____________ percent.A) 6.5B) 6.3C) 6.1D) 6.0E) 6.6Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: 60/950 = 6.3.4. If an 8% coupon bond is trading for $1025.00, it has a current yield of ____________ percent.A) 7.8B) 8.7C) 7.6D) 7.9E) 8.1Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: 80/1025 = 7.8.5. If a 7.5% coupon bond is trading for $1050.00, it has a current yield of ____________ percent.A) 7.0B) 7.4C) 7.1D) 6.9E) 6.7Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: 75/1050 = 7.1.6. A coupon bond pays annual interest, has a par value of $1,000, matures in 4 years, has a coupon rate of 10%, and has a yield to maturity of 12%. The current yield on this bond is ___________.A) 10.65%B) 10.45%C) 10.95%D) 10.52%E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, n = 4, PMT = 100, i = 12, PV= 939.25; $100 / $939.25 = 10.65%.7. A coupon bond pays annual interest, has a par value of $1,000, matures in 12 years, has a coupon rate of 11%, and has a yield to maturity of 12%. The current yield on this bond is ___________.A) 10.39%B) 10.43%C) 10.58%D) 10.66%E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, n = 12, PMT = 110, i = 12, PV= 938.06; $100 / $938.06 = 10.66%.8. Of the following four investments, ________ is considered the safest.A) commercial paperB) corporate bondsC) U. S. Agency issuesD) Treasury bondsE) Treasury billsAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Only Treasury issues are insured by the U. S. government; the shorter-term the instrument, the safer the instrument.9. To earn a high rating from the bond rating agencies, a firm should haveA) a low times interest earned ratioB) a low debt to equity ratioC) a high quick ratioD) B and CE) A and CAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: High values for the times interest and quick ratios and a low debt to equity ratio are desirable indicators of safety.10. At issue, coupon bonds typically sell ________.A) above par valueB) below parC) at or near par valueD) at a value unrelated to parE) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the investment banker has appraised the market and the quality of the bond correctly, the bond will sell at or near par (unless interest rates have changed very dramatically and very quickly around the time of issuance).11. Accrued interestA) is quoted in the bond price in the financial press.B) must be paid by the buyer of the bond and remitted to the sellerof the bond.C) must be paid to the broker for the inconvenience of selling bondsbetween maturity dates.D) A and B.E) A and C.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Accrued interest must be paid by the buyer, but is not included in the quotations page price.12. The invoice price of a bond that a buyer would pay is equal toA) the asked price plus accrued interest.B) the asked price less accrued interest.C) the bid price plus accrued interest.D) the bid price less accrued interest.E) the bid price.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The buyer of a bond will buy at the asked price and will also be invoiced for any accrued interest due to the seller.13. An 8% coupon U. S. Treasury note pays interest on May 30 and November 30 and is traded for settlement on August 15. The accrued interest on the $100,000 face value of this note is _________.A) $491.80B) $800.00C) $983.61D) $1,661.20E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 76/183($4,000) = $1,661.20. Approximation:.08/12*100,000=666.67 per month. 666.67/month * 2.5 months =1.666.67.14. A coupon bond is reported as having an ask price of 113% of the $1,000 par value in the Wall Street Journal. If the last interest payment was made two months ago and the coupon rate is 12%, the invoice price of the bond will be ____________.A) $1,100B) $1,110C) $1,150D) $1,160E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $1,130 + $20 (accrued interest) = $1,150.15. The bonds of Ford Motor Company have received a rating of "D" by Moody's. The "D" rating indicatesA) the bonds are insuredB) the bonds are junk bondsC) the bonds are referred to as "high yield" bondsD) A and BE) B and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: D ratings are risky bonds, often called junk bonds (or high yield bonds by those marketing such bonds).16. The bond marketA) can be quite "thin".B) primarily consists of a network of bond dealers in the over thecounter market.C) consists of many investors on any given day.D) A and B.E) B and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: The bond market, unlike the stock market, can be a very thinly traded market. In addition, most bonds are traded by dealers.17. Ceteris paribus, the price and yield on a bond areA) positively related.B) negatively related.C) sometimes positively and sometimes negatively related.E) not related.E) indefinitely related.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Bond prices and yields are inversely related.18. The ______ is a measure of the average rate of return an investor will earn if the investor buys the bond now and holds until maturity.A) current yieldB) dividend yieldC) P/E ratioD) yield to maturityE) discount yieldAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: The current yield is the annual interest as a percent of current market price; the other choices do not apply to bonds.19. The _________ gives the number of shares for which each convertible bond can be exchanged.A) conversion ratioB) current ratioC) P/E ratioD) conversion premiumE) convertible floorAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The conversion premium is the amount for which the bond sells above conversion value; the price of bond as a straight bond provides the floor. The other terms are not specifically relevant to convertible bonds.20. A coupon bond is a bond that _________.A) pays interest on a regular basis (typically every six months)B) does not pay interest on a regular basis but pays a lump sum atmaturityC) can always be converted into a specific number of shares ofcommon stock in the issuing companyD) always sells at parE) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: A coupon bond will pay the coupon rate of interest on a semiannual basis unless the firm defaults on the bond. Convertible bonds are specific types of bonds.21. A ___________ bond is a bond where the bondholder has the right to cash in the bond before maturity at a specified price after a specific date.A) callableB) couponC) putD) TreasuryE) zero-couponAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: Any bond may be redeemed prior to maturity, but all bonds other than put bonds are redeemed at a price determined by the prevailing interest rates.22. Callable bondsA) are called when interest rates decline appreciably.B) have a call price that declines as time passes.C) are called when interest rates increase appreciably.D) A and B.E) B and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Callable bonds often are refunded (called) when interest rates decline appreciably. The call price of the bond (approximately par and one year's coupon payment) declines to par as time passes and maturity is reached.23. A Treasury bond due in one year has a yield of 5.7%; a Treasury bond due in 5 years has a yield of 6.2%. A bond issued by Ford Motor Company due in 5 years has a yield of 7.5%; a bond issued by Shell Oil due in one year has a yield of 6.5%. The default risk premiums on the bonds issued by Shell and Ford, respectively, areA) 1.0% and 1.2%B) 0.7% and 1.5%C) 1.2% and 1.0%D) 0.8% and 1.3%E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Shell: 6.5% - 5.7% = .8%; Ford: 7.5% - 6.2% = 1.3%. 24. A Treasury bond due in one year has a yield of 4.6%; a Treasury bond due in 5 years has a yield of 5.6%. A bond issued by Lucent Technologies due in 5 years has a yield of 8.9%; a bond issued by Mobil due in one year has a yield of 6.2%. The default risk premiums on the bonds issued by Mobil and Lucent Technologies, respectively, are:A) 1.6% and 3.3%B) 0.5% and .7%C) 3.3% and 1.6%D) 0.7% and 0.5%E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Mobil: 6.2% - 4.6% = 1.6%; Lucent Technologies: 8.9% - 5.6% = 3.3%.25. A Treasury bond due in one year has a yield of 6.2%; a Treasury bond due in 5 years has a yield of 6.7%. A bond issued by Xerox due in 5 years has a yield of 7.9%; a bond issued by Exxon due in one year has a yield of 7.2%. The default risk premiums on the bonds issued by Exxon and Xerox, respectively, areA) 1.0% and 1.2%B) 0.5% and .7%C) 1.2% and 1.0%D) 0.7% and 0.5%E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Exxon: 7.2% - 6.2% = 1.0%; Xerox: 7. 9% - 6.7% =1.2%.26. Floating-rate bonds are designed to ___________ while convertible bonds are designed to __________.A) minimize the holders' interest rate risk; give the investor theability to share in the price appreciation of the company's stockB) maximize the holders' interest rate risk; give the investor theability to share in the price appreciation of the company's stockC) minimize the holders' interest rate risk; give the investor theability to benefit from interest rate changesD) maximize the holders' interest rate risk; give investor the abilityto share in the profits of the issuing companyE) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Floating rate bonds allow the investor to earn a rate of interest income tied to current interest rates, thus negating one of the major disadvantages of fixed income investments. Convertible bonds allow the investor to benefit from the appreciation of the stock price, either by converting to stock or holding the bond, which will increase in price as the stock price increases.27. A coupon bond that pays interest annually is selling at par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and has a coupon rate of 9%. The yield to maturity on this bond is:A) 8.0%B) 8.3%C) 9.0%D) 10.0%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: When a bond sells at par value, the coupon rate is equal to the yield to maturity.28. A coupon bond that pays interest annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and has a yield to maturity of 10%. The intrinsic value of the bond today will be ______ if the coupon rate is 7%.A) $712.99B) $620.92C) $1,123.01D) $886.28E) $1,000.00Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, PMT = 70, n = 5, i = 10, PV = 886.28. 29. A coupon bond that pays interest annually, has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and has a yield to maturity of 10%. The intrinsic value of the bond today will be _________ if the coupon rate is 12%.A) $922.77B) $924.16C) $1,075.82D) $1,077.20E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, PMT = 120, n = 5, i = 10, PV = 1075.82 30. A coupon bond that pays interest semi-annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and has a yield to maturity of 10%. The intrinsic value of the bond today will be __________ if the coupon rate is 8%.A) $922.78B) $924.16C) $1,075.80D) $1,077.20E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, PMT = 40, n = 10, i = 5, PV = 922.7831. A coupon bond that pays interest semi-annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and has a yield to maturity of 10%. The intrinsic value of the bond today will be ________ if the coupon rate is 12%.A) $922.77B) $924.16C) $1,075.80D) $1,077.22E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, PMT = 60, n = 10, i = 5, PV = 1077.2232. A coupon bond that pays interest of $100 annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and is selling today at a $72 discount from par value. The yield to maturity on this bond is__________.A) 6.00%B) 8.33%C) 12.00%D) 60.00%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, PMT = 100, n = 5, PV = -928, i = 11.997% 33. You purchased an annual interest coupon bond one year ago that now has 6 years remaining until maturity. The coupon rate of interest was 10% and par value was $1,000. At the time you purchased the bond, the yield to maturity was 8%. The amount you paid for this bond one year ago wasA) $1,057.50.B) $1,075.50.C) $1,088.50.D) $1.092.46.E) $1,104.13.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, PMT = 100, n = 7, i = 8, PV = 1104.1334. You purchased an annual interest coupon bond one year ago that had 6 years remaining to maturity at that time. The coupon interest rate was 10% and the par value was $1,000. At the time you purchased the bond, the yield to maturity was 8%. If you sold the bond after receiving the first interest payment and the yield to maturity continued to be 8%, your annual total rate of return on holding the bond for that year would have been _________.A) 7.00%B) 7.82%C) 8.00%D) 11.95%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: DifficultRationale: FV = 1000, PMT = 100, n = 6, i = 8, PV = 1092.46; FV = 1000, PMT = 100, n = 5, i = 8, PV = 1079.85; HPR = (1079.85 -1092.46 + 100) / 1092.46 = 8%35. Consider two bonds, A and B. Both bonds presently are selling at their par value of $1,000. Each pays interest of $120 annually. Bond A will mature in 5 years while bond B will mature in 6 years. If the yields to maturity on the two bonds change from 12% to 10%,____________.A) both bonds will increase in value, but bond A will increase morethan bond BB) both bonds will increase in value, but bond B will increase morethan bond AC) both bonds will decrease in value, but bond A will decrease morethan bond BD) both bonds will decrease in value, but bond B will decrease morethan bond AE) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The longer the maturity, the greater the price change when interest rates change.36. A zero-coupon bond has a yield to maturity of 9% and a parvalue of $1,000. If the bond matures in 8 years, the bond should sell for a price of _______ today.A) 422.41B) $501.87C) $513.16D) $483.49E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $1,000/(1.09)8 = $501.8737. You have just purchased a 10-year zero-coupon bond with a yield to maturity of 10% and a par value of $1,000. What would your rate of return at the end of the year be if you sell the bond? Assume the yield to maturity on the bond is 11% at the time you sell.A) 10.00%B) 20.42%C) 13.8%D) 1.4%E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $1,000/(1.10)10 = $385.54; $1,000/(1.11)9 = $390.92; ($390.92 - $385.54)/$385.54 = 1.4%.38. A Treasury bill with a par value of $100,000 due one month from now is selling today for $99,010. The effective annual yield is__________.A) 12.40%B) 12.55%C) 12.62%D) 12.68%E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $990/$99,010 = 0.01; (1.01)12 - 1.0 = 12.68%.39. A Treasury bill with a par value of $100,000 due two months from now is selling today for $98,039, with an effective annual yield of _________.A) 12.40%B) 12.55%C) 12.62%D) 12.68%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $1,961/$98,039 = 0.02; (1.02)6 - 1 = 12.62%.40. A Treasury bill with a par value of $100,000 due three months from now is selling today for $97,087, with an effective annual yield of _________.A) 12.40%B) 12.55%C) 12.62%D) 12.68%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $2,913/$97,087 = 0.03; (1.03)4 - 1.00 = 12.55%.41. A coupon bond pays interest semi-annually, matures in 5 years, has a par value of $1,000 and a coupon rate of 12%, and an effective annual yield to maturity of 10.25%. The price the bond should sell for today is ________.A) $922.77B) $924.16C) $1,075.80D) $1,077.20E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (1.1025)1/2 - 1 = 5%, N=10, I=5%, PMT=60, FV=1000, PV=1,077.22.42. A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000 and a current market price of $850. The current price of the issuing firm's stock is $29 and the conversion ratio is 30 shares. The bond's market conversion value is ______.A) $729B) $810C) $870D) $1,000E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: 30 shares X $29/share = $870.43. A convertible bond has a par value of $1,000 and a currentmarket value of $850. The current price of the issuing firm's stock is $27 and the conversion ratio is 30 shares. The bond's conversionpremium is _________.A) $40B) $150C) $190D) $200E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $850 - $810 = $40.Use the following to answer questions 44-47:Consider the following $1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds:44. The yield to maturity on bond A is ____________.A) 10%B) 11%C) 12%D) 14%E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($1,000 - $909.09)/$909.09 = 10%.45. The yield to maturity on bond B is _________.A) 10%B) 11%C) 12%D) 14%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($1,000 - $811.62)/$811.62 = 0.2321; (1.2321)1/2 - 1.0 = 11%.46. The yield to maturity on bond C is ____________.A) 10%B) 11%C) 12%D) 14%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($1,000 - $711.78)/$711.78 = 0.404928; (1.404928)1/3 -1.0 = 12%.47. The yield to maturity on bond D is _______.A) 10%B) 11%C) 12%D) 14%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($1,000 - $635.52)/$635.52 = 0.573515; (1.573515)1/4 -1.0 = 12%.48. A 10% coupon bond, annual payments, 10 years to maturity is callable in 3 years at a call price of $1,100. If the bond is selling today for $975, the yield to call is _________.A) 10.26%B) 10.00%C) 9.25%D) 13.98%E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1100, n = 3, PMT = 100, PV = -975, i = 13.98%.49. A 12% coupon bond, semiannual payments, is callable in 5 years. The call price is $1,120; if the bond is selling today for $1,110, what is the yield to call?A) 12.03%.B) 10.86%.C) 10.95%.D) 9.14%.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: YTC = FV = 1120, n = 10, PMT = 60, PV = -1,110m i = 5.48%, 5.48*2=10.9550. A 10% coupon, annual payments, bond maturing in 10 years, is expected to make all coupon payments, but to pay only 50% of par value at maturity. What is the expected yield on this bond if the bond is purchased for $975?A) 10.00%.B) 6.68%.C) 11.00%.D) 8.68%.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 500, PMT = 100, n = 10, PV = -975, i = 6.68% 51. You purchased an annual interest coupon bond one year ago with 6 years remaining to maturity at the time of purchase. The coupon interest rate is 10% and par value is $1,000. At the time you purchased the bond, the yield to maturity was 8%. If you sold the bond after receiving the first interest payment and the bond's yield to maturity had changed to 7%, your annual total rate of return on holding the bond for that year would have been _________.A) 7.00%B) 8.00%C) 9.95%D) 11.95%E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: FV = 1000, PMT = 100, n = 6, i = 8, PV = 1092.46; FV = 1000, PMT = 100, n = 5, i = 7, PV = 1123.01; HPR = (1123.01 -1092.46 + 100) / 1092.46 = 11.95%.52. The ________ is used to calculate the present value of a bond.A) nominal yieldB) current yieldC) yield to maturityD) yield to callE) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: Yield to maturity is the discount rate used in the bond valuation formula. For callable bonds, yield to call is sometimes the more appropriate calculation for the investor (if interest rates are expected to decrease).53. The yield to maturity on a bond is ________.A) below the coupon rate when the bond sells at a discount, andequal to the coupon rate when the bond sells at a premium.B) the discount rate that will set the present value of the paymentsequal to the bond price.C) based on the assumption that any payments received arereinvested at the coupon rate.D) none of the above.E) A, B, and C.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The reverse of A is true; for C to be true payments must be reinvested at the yield to maturity.54. A bond will sell at a discount when __________.A) the coupon rate is greater than the current yield and the currentyield is greater than yield to maturityB) the coupon rate is greater than yield to maturityC) the coupon rate is less than the current yield and the current yieldis greater than the yield to maturityD) the coupon rate is less than the current yield and the current yieldis less than yield to maturityE) none of the above is true.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: In order for the investor to earn more than the current yield the bond must be selling for a discount. Yield to maturity will be greater than current yield as investor will have purchased the bond at discount and will be receiving the coupon payments over the life of the bond.55. Consider a 5-year bond with a 10% coupon that has a present yield to maturity of 8%. If interest rates remain constant, one year from now the price of this bond will be _______.A) higherB) lowerC) the sameD) cannot be determinedE) $1,000Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: This bond is a premium bond as interest rates have declined since the bond was issued. If interest rates remain constant, the price of a premium bond declines as the bond approaches maturity.56. A bond has a par value of $1,000, a time to maturity of 20 years,a coupon rate of 10% with interest paid annually, a current price of $850 and a yield to maturity of 12%. Intuitively and without the use calculations, if interest payments are reinvested at 10%, the realized compound yield on this bond must be ________.A) 10.00%B) 10.9%C) 12.0%D) 12.4%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: In order to earn yield to maturity, the coupons must be reinvested at the yield to maturity. However, as the bond is selling at discount the yield must be higher than the coupon rate. Therefore, B is the only possible answer.57. A bond with a 12% coupon, 10 years to maturity and selling at88 has a yield to maturity of _______.A) over 14%B) between 13% and 14%C) between 12% and 13%D) between 10% and 12%E) less than 12%Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: YTM = 14.33%.58. Using semiannual compounding, a 15-year zero coupon bond that has a par value of $1,000 and a required return of 8% would be priced at approximately ______.A) $308B) $315C) $464D) $555E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: FV = 1000, n = 30, I = 4, PV = 308.3259. The yield to maturity of a 20-year zero coupon bond that is selling for $372.50 with a value at maturity of $1,000 is ________.A) 5.1%B) 8.8%C) 10.8%D) 13.4%E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: [$1,000/($372.50]1/20 - 1 = 5.1%.60. Which one of the following statements about convertibles is true?A) The longer the call protection on a convertible, the less thesecurity is worth.B) The more volatile the underlying stock, the greater the value ofthe conversion feature.C) The smaller the spread between the dividend yield on the stockand the yield-to-maturity on the bond, the more the convertible is worth.D) The collateral that is used to secure a convertible bond is onereason convertibles are more attractive than the underlying stock. E) Convertibles are not callable.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The longer the call protection the more attractive the bond. The smaller the spread (c), the less the bond is worth. Convertibles are debentures (unsecured bonds). All convertibles are callable at the option of the issuer.61. Consider a $1,000 par value 20-year zero coupon bond issued ata yield to maturity of 10%. If you buy that bond when it is issued and continue to hold the bond as yields decline to 9%, the imputed interest income for the first year of that bond isA) zero.B) $14.87.C) $45.85.D) $7.44.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $1,000/(1.10)20 = $148.64; $1,000/(1.10)19 = $163.51; $194.49 - $148.64 = $14.87.62. The bond indenture includesA) the coupon rate of the bond.B) the par value of the bond.C) the maturity date of the bond.D) all of the above.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: The bond indenture includes the coupon rate, par value and maturity date of the bond as well as any other contractual features.63. A Treasury bond quoted at 107:16 107:18 has a bid price of_______ and an asked price of _____.A) $107.16, $107.18B) $1,071.60, $1,071.80C) $1,075.00, $1,075.63D) $1,071.80, $1,071.60E) $1,070.50, $1,070.56Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Treasury bonds are quoted as a percentage of par value ($1,000) with the number after the colon representing the fractions of a point in 32nds. The bid price is quoted first and is the lower of the two.64. Bearer bonds areA) bonds traded without any record of ownership.B) helpful to tax authorities in the enforcement of tax collection.C) rare in the United States today.D) all of the above.E) both A and C.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Bearer bonds are not registered so there is no record of ownership. They are rare in the United States today. Tax authorities find registered bonds helpful in tax enforcement but not bearer bonds.65. Most corporate bonds are tradedA) on a formal exchange operated by the New York StockExchange.B) by the issuing corporation.C) over the counter by bond dealers linked by a computer quotationsystem.D) on a formal exchange operated by the American Stock Exchange.E) on a formal exchange operated by the Philadelphia StockExchange.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Most corporate bonds are traded in a loosely organized network of bond dealers linked by a computer quote system. Only a small proportion is traded on the New York Exchange.66. The process of retiring high-coupon debt and issuing new bonds at a lower coupon to reduce interest payments is calledA) deferral.B) reissue.C) repurchase.D) refunding.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The process of refunding refers to calling high-coupon bonds and issuing new, lower coupon debt.67. Convertible bondsA) give their holders the ability to share in price appreciation of theunderlying stock.B) offer lower coupon rates than similar nonconvertible bonds.C) offer higher coupon rates than similar nonconvertible bonds.D) both A and B are true.E) both A and C are true.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Convertible bonds offer appreciation potential through the ability to share in price appreciation of the underlying stock but。
hofstede et al
University of Limburg
Bram Neuijen
University of Groningen
Denise Davat Ohayv
Institute for Research on intercultural Cooperation
Geert Sanders
UniverΒιβλιοθήκη ity of GroningenThis paper presents the results of a study on organizational cultures in twenty units from ten different organizations in Denmark and the Netherlands. Data came from in-depth interviews of selected informants and a questionnaire survey of a stratified random sample of organizational members. Data on task, structure, and control characteristics of each unit were collected separately. Quantitative measures of the cultures of the twenty units, aggregated at the unit level, showed that a targe part of the differences among these twenty units could be explained by six factors, related to established concepts from organizational sociology, that measured the organizational cultures on six independent dimensions. The organizational culture differences found resided mainly at the levei of practices as perceived by members. Scores of the units on the six dimensions were partly explainable from organizational idiosyncrasies but were also significantly correlated with a variety of task, structural, and control-system characteristics of the units. INTRODUCTION The "Organizational Culture" Construct The term "organizational cultures" entered the U.S. academic literature, as far as we know, with an article in Administrative Science Quarterly by Pettigrew in 1979 ("On Studying Organizational Cultures") and is thus a relatively recent addition. In the U.S. managennent literature, the same term, in the singular, had been casually used by Blake and Mouton (1964) to denote what others then called "climate." More customary became "corporate culture," a term that had already figured in an article by Silverzweig and Allen in 1976 but which gained popularity after a book carrying this title, by Deal and Kennedy, appeared in 1982 and especially after the success of its companion volume, from the same McKinsey-Harvard Business School team, Peters and Waterman's In Search of Excellence, which appeared in the same year. Since then, an extensive literature has developed on the topic, which has also spread to the European language areas accessible to us. "Culture" has become a fad, among managers, among consultants, and among academics, with somewhat different concems. Fads pass, and this one is no exception. Nevertheless, we believe it has left its traces on organization theory. Organizational/corporate culture has acquired a status similar to structure, strategy, and control. Weick (1985) has even argued that "culture" and "strategy" are partly overlapping constructs. There is no consensus about its definition, but most authors will probably agree on the following characteristics of the organizational/cofporate culture construct: it is (1) holistic, (2) historically determined, (3) related to anthropological concepts, (4) socially constructed, (5) soft, and (6) difficult to change. All of these characteristics of organizations have been separately recognized in the literature in the previous decades: what was new about organizational culture was their integration into one construct. The literature on organizational cultures consists of a remarkable collection of pep talks, waf stories, and some insightful in-depth case studies. There is, we believe, a dearth of ordi28&Admim8trative Science Quarteriy, 35 (1990): 286-316
basis问题专区
BASIS问题专区1\ OSS是怎么用的？OSS帐号是否还可以登录到一个论坛上去？从internet：/notes，不过刚改版，我以前可以下载很多资料的地方没有了，不知道迁移到什么地方了，痛苦，真后悔当时没有多下载点. sapnet里：我这里没有画面，忘了怎么进入了，事务代码，oss1。
OSS 是通过SAPROUTER 将用户的系统同SAP的系统连接起来（以前就安装saprouter就可以，现在SAP推荐用solution manager）。
用户可以查notes，发消息等（这和通过sapservice网站连接实现的功能基本相同）另外通过oss可以得到go live check，earlywatch 服务, SAP consultant也可登录到用户的系统为用户解决问题。
ABAP資料區有文件，大家可以參考看看... /bbsxp/ShowPost.asp?id=1001用法是很简单，但前提是要有环境，通常正式用SAP生产的企业都会有OSS系统（注：OSS的目的也主要是为生产系统服务的）. 没有这样的环境，学习者是不可能有办法来模拟的。
2\ 我新装了一台打印机,是EPSON LQ-670K+T,但设备类型里面没有这个型号的,请问该怎么办?我现在没办法打印.是打中文吗，通用CNSAPWIN; 打印的话直接CNSAPWIN就可以乐，你说的没有这个型号是没有安装设备驱动嘛？3\ 我在R/3系统里面打印时总是说:系统不能打印报表的最后45 列.所以我在系统里一直不能打印东西,什么都不行.不管我打印什么都是出来上面的信息,但我在系统外,在WINDOWS中打印就没有问题.请问是什么缘故呢?是代码中line-size设置太大了.我把line-size 300 改成line-size 200;line-size>255在打印的时候就会提示你。
4\ 安装过4.7 200 ／I386？安装时提示创建目录无权限而失败，如何处理？这个问题非常简单，但是又非常烦：只要把sap transport host设置为自己的电脑名，就一切解决！我曾经在这个问题上烦恼了好几天，事后觉得太简单了，sap4.7安装的时候就不会这样了。
金融市场学双语题库及答案(第三章)米什金金融市场与机构
B) future value
C) interest
D) deflation
Answer: A
Topic: Chapter 3.1 Measuring Interest Rates
Question Status: Previous Edition
12) Dollars received in the future are worth ________ than dollars received today. The process of calculating what dollars received in the future are worth today is called ________.
A) 5 percent.
B) 8 percent.
C) 10 percent.
D) 40 percent.
Answer: A
Topic: Chapter 3.1 Measuring Interest Rates
Question Status: Previous Edition
11) The concept of ________ is based on the notion that a dollar paid to you in the future is less valuable to you than a dollar today.
B) U.S. Treasury bonds and notes are examples of coupon bonds.
C) Corporate bonds are examples of coupon bonds.
D) All of the above.
运筹学第3版熊伟编著习题答案
产品
资源
A
B
C
资源限量
材料<kg>
1.5
1.2
4
2500
设备<台时>
3
1.6
1.2
1400
利润<元/件>
10
14
12
根据市场需求,预测三种产品最低月需求量分别是150、260和120,最高月需求是250、310和130.试建立该问题的数学模型,使每月利润最大．
[解]设x1、x2、x3分别为产品A、B、C的产量,则数学模型为
-16
对应的顶点：
基可行解
可行域的顶点
X<1>=〔0,0,6,10,4〕、
X<2>=〔0,2.5,1,0,1.5,〕、
X<3>=〔2,2,0,0,0〕
X<4>=〔2,2,0,0,0〕
〔0,0〕
〔0,2.5〕
<2,2>
〔2,2〕
最优解：X=〔2,2,0,0,0〕；最优值Z＝－16
该题是退化基本可行解,5个基本可行解对应4个极点.
第2章线性规划的对偶理论P74
第3章整数规划P88
第4章目标规划P105
第5章运输与指派问题P142
第6章网络模型P173
第7章网络计划P195
第8章动态规划P218
第9章排队论P248
第10章存储论P277
第11章决策论P304
第12章多属性决策品P343
第13章博弈论P371
全书420页
第
1.1工厂每月生产A、B、C三种产品,单件产品的原材料消耗量、设备台时的消耗量、资源限量及单件产品利润如表1－23所示．
Basis学习手册
1 Basis1. Unix操作更改口令passwd eg. passwd orap34看当前路径 pwd 看sap或者oracle的进程e g. ps -ef|grep sap或者 ora看命令的使用方法，相当于DOS中的help命令eg. man xxx更改当前用户su eg. su – orap34查看cluster lssrc –g cluster看文件大小df –k看有哪些用户who看文件内容morevi编辑器vi查看服务器地址netstat –in新建目录mkdir192.167.17.1 db内部地址192.167.17.2 app内部地址192.167.17.3 tsm内部地址进入tsm管理界面dsmadmc(admin : admin)使用orap34 用户运行sapdba,以扩展表空间: su –orap34sapdbac-----a-----……当数据库备份失败,oracle启动不了的时候sapdba----j---a----a----y当sap*用户密码忘记时:sqlplus /nologconnect sapr3/sap 或者connet system/managerdesc r02;delete from r02 where mandt = ‗420‘ and bname = ‗sap*‘；commit；登陆sqlplus ：sqlplus /nologconnect /as sysdba在PC机上从app上以二进制方式获取文件：c:ftp 10.124.4.71cd xxxbinget xxx生成错误报告：erppt –a|> xxx.txt将系统面板警告灯熄灭：diag-----task selection-----identify and attention indicat ors-----setsystem attention indicators tonormal回车-----F7使用p34adm用户关停sap ，改系统参数时使用root用户开关h a ,当选择takeover时,ha会自动切换(从db切换到app)当选择graceful时,ha不会自动切换IBM中国24小时服务热线：800-8106677 / 800-8101818-5100AIX 系统命令物理卷命令命令名称说明lsdev 列出ODM中的设备chdev 改变设备的属性mkdev 增加一个设备chpv 改变物理设备的状态lspv 列出卷组中一个物理卷的信息migratepv 将分配好的物理分区从一个物理卷移动到另外一个或多个物理卷中卷组命令命令名称说明mkvg 创建一个新卷组extendvg 将一个物理卷加到一个卷组中reducevg 在一个卷组中删除物理卷chvg 改变一个卷组lsvg 显示一个卷组的信息importvg 安装一个卷组exportvg 删除一个卷组reorgvg 重组织一个卷组syncvg 同步一个卷组varyonvg 使一个卷组可用varyoffvg 使一个卷组不可用逻辑卷命令命令名称说明mklv 创建一个逻辑卷lslv 显示一个逻辑卷的信息rmlv 删除一个逻辑卷extendlv 扩大一个逻辑卷chlv 改变一个逻辑卷mklvcopy 对一个逻辑卷增加拷贝rmlvcopy 对一个逻辑卷删除拷贝文件系统命令命令名称说明chfs 改变一个文件系统的属性crfs 增加一个文件系统lsfs 显示一个文件系统的属性rmfs 删除一个文件系统mount 设置一个可用文件系统fsck 检查和修复文件系统umount 卸载一个可用文件系统、目录或文件df 显示一个文件系统空间使用情况交换空间管理命令名称说明chps 改变一个交换空间的属性lsps 显示一个交换空间的属性mkps 创建一个附加的交换空间rmps 删除一个不活动的交换空间swapon 激活一个交换空间用户管理命令名称说明mkuser 创建一个新用户chuser 改变用户属性（密码除外）lsuser 显示用户属性rmuser 删除一个用户chsec 改变安全属性dtconfig 改变自动启动桌面的特性其他命令名称说明startsrc 启动一个子系统或子系统群或子服务stopsrc 停止一个子系统或子系统群或子服务refresh 告诉一个子系统或子系统群进行自我更新lpstat 显示当前打印机信息qchk 显示当前打印任务或打印队列的状态信息1.1. 小型机开停机操作手册开机：1. 打开主阵列电源开关，间隔三分钟之后打开从阵列电源开关2. 打开扩展磁带机（两台），然后开磁带库3. 先开DB（570），然后开APP（570）4. 最后开TSMSERVER（520）关机：1. 关闭TSMSERVER2. 关闭APP，随后关闭DB3. 关闭磁带库，关闭两台扩展磁带机4. 先关闭从阵列电源开关，间隔三分钟关闭主电源开关启动HACI和DB会随着cluster一块被启动起来：telnet 10.124.4.70smitty clstartlssrc –g clusterAI也会被带起来：telnet 10.124.4.71smitty clstartlssrc –g cluster停止HAtelnet 10.124.4.71smitty clstop 选择gracefulshutdown –Ftelnet 10.124.4.70smitty clstop选择gracefulshutdown –F当db想要切换到app时，app不做任何动作，注意千万不能停cluster,应该直接在db上以takeover的方式停掉db的cluster，则db上的db和ci就会自动切换到app上了，与此同时，ai被杀掉了。
宏观问答题完整版
Chapter 1QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW1. Explain the difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics .how are these two fields related?Microeconomics is the study of how individual firms and households make decisions, and how they interact with one another. Microeconomic models of firms and households are based on principles of optimization—firms and households do the best they can given the constraints they face. For example, households choose which goods to purchase in order to maximize their utility, whereas firms decide how much to produce in order to maximize profits. In contrast, macroeconomics is the study of the economy as a whole; it focuses on issues such as how total output, total employment and the overall price level are determined. These economy-wide variables are based on the interaction of many households and many firms; therefore, microeconomics forms the basis for macroeconomics.3. What is a market –clearing model? When is it appropriate to assume that markets clear?A market-clearing model is one in which prices adjust to equilibrate supply and demand. Market-clearing models are useful in situations where prices are flexible. Yet in many situations, flexible prices may not be a realistic assumption. For example, labor contracts often set wages for up to three years. Or, firms such as magazine publishers change their prices only every three to four years. Most macroeconomists believe that price flexibility is a reasonable assumption for studying long-run issues.Over the long run, prices respond to changes in demand or supply, even though in the short run they may be slow to adjust.Chapter 2QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW1. List the two things that GDP measures. How can GDP measure two things at once? GDP measures the total income earned from the production of the new final goods and services in the economy, and it measures the total expenditures on the new final goods and services produced in the economy. GDP can measure two things at once because the total expenditures on the new final goods and services by the buyers must be equal to the income earned by the sellers of the new final goods and services. As the circular flow diagram in the text illustrates, these are alternative, equivalent ways of measuring the flow of dollars in the economy.PROBLEMS AND APPLICATIONS3. Suppose a woman marries her butler. After they are married, her husband continues to wait on her as before, and she continues to support him as before (but as a husband rather than as an employee). How does the marriage affect GDP? How should it affect GDP?When a woman marries her butler, GDP falls by the amount of the butler’s salary. This happens because measured total income, and therefore measured GDP, falls by the amount of the butler’s loss in salary. If GDP truly measur ed the value of all goods and services, then the marriage would not affect GDP since the total amount of economic activity is unchanged. Actual GDP, however, is an imperfect measure of economic activity because the value of some goods and services is left out. Once the butler’s work becomes part of his household chores, his services are no longer counted in GDP. As this example illustrates, GDP does not include the value of any output produced in the home. Similarly, GDP does not include other goods and services, such as the imputed rent on durable goods (e.g., cars and refrigerators) and any illegal trade.4. Place each of the following transactions in one of the four components of expenditure: consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports.a. Boeing sells an airplane to the Air Force.b. Boeing sells an airplane to American Airlines.c. Boeing sells an airplane to Air France.d. Boeing sells an airplane to Amelia Earhart.e. Boeing builds an airplane to be sold next year.a. The airplane sold to the Air Force counts as government purchases because the Air Force is part of the government.b. The airplane sold to American Airlines counts as investment because it is a capital good sold to a private firm.c. The airplane sold to Air France counts as an export because it is sold to a foreigner.d. The airplane sold to Amelia Earhart counts as consumption because it is sold to a private individual.e. The airplane built to be sold next year counts as investment. In particular, the airplane is counted as inventory investment, which is where goods that are produced in one year and sold in another year are countedChapter 3QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW1.What determines the amount of output an economy produces?The factors of production and the production technology determine the amount of output an economy can produce. The factors of production are the inputs used to produce goods and services: the most important factors are capital and labor. The production technology determines how much output can be produced from any given amounts of these inputs. An increase in one of the factors of production or an improvement in technology leads to an increase in the economy’s output.Chapter 4QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW1.Describe the functions of moneyMoney has three functions: it is a store of value, a unit of account, and a medium of exchange. As a store of value, money provides a way to transfer purchasing power from the present to the future. As a unit of account, money provides the terms in which prices are quoted and debts are recorded. As a medium of exchange, money is what we use to buy goods and services.4. Write the quantity equation and explain itThe quantity equation is an identity that expresses the link between the number of transactions that people make and how much money they hold. We write it asMoney ×Velocity = Price ×TransactionsM×V= P×T.The right-hand side of the quantity equation tells us about the total number of transactions that occur during a given period of time, say, a year. T represents the total number of transactions. P represents the price of a typical transaction. Hence, the product P × T represents the number of dollars exchanged in a year.The left-hand side of the quantity equation tells us about the money used to make these transactions. M represents the quantity of money in the economy. V represents the transactions velocity of money—the rate at which money circulates in the economy.Because the number of transactions is difficult to measure, economists usually use a slightly different version of the quantity equation, in which the total output of the economy Y replaces the number of transactions T:Money ×Velocity = Price ×OutputM×V= P×Y.P now represents the price of one unit of output, so that P ×Y is the dollar value of output—nominal GDP. V represents the income velocity of money—the number of times a dollar bill becomes a part of someone’s income.8. List all the costs of inflation you can think of, and rank them according to how important you think they are.The costs of expected inflation include the following:a. Shoe leather costs. Higher inflation means higher nominal interest rates, which mean that people want to hold lower real money balances. If people hold lower money balances, they must make more frequent trips to the bank to withdraw money. This is inconvenient (and it causes shoes to wear out more quickly).b. Menu costs. Higher inflation induces firms to change their posted prices more often. This may be costly if they must reprint their menus and catalogs.c. Greater variability in relative prices. If firms change their prices infrequently, then inflation causes greater variability in relative prices. Since free-market economies rely on relative prices to allocate resources efficiently, inflation leads to microeconomic inefficiencies.d. Altered tax liabilities. Many provisions of the tax code do not take into account the effect of inflation. Hence, inflation can alter individuals’ and firms’ tax liabilities, often in ways that lawmakers did not intend.e. The inconvenience of a changing price level. It is inconvenient to live in a world with a changing price level. Money is the yardstick with which we measure economic transactions. Money is a less useful measure when its value is always changing.There is an additional cost to unexpected inflation:f. Arbitrary redistributions of wealth. Unexpected inflation arbitrarily redistributes wealth among individuals. For example, if inflation is higher than expected, debtors gain and creditors lose. Also, people with fixed pensions are hurt because their dollars buy fewer goods.Chapter 6QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW2. Describe the difference between frictional unemployment and structural unemployment.Frictional unemployment is the unemployment caused by the time it takes to match workers and jobs. Finding an appropriate job takes time because the flow of information about job candidates and job vacancies is not instantaneous. Because different jobs require different skills and pay different wages, unemployed workers may not accept the first job offer they receive.In contrast, structural unemployment is the unemployment resulting from wage rigidity and job rationing. These workers are unemployed not because they are actively searching for a job that best suits their skills (as in the case of frictional unemployment), but because at the prevailing real wage the supply of labor exceeds the demand. If the wage does not adjust to clear the labor market, then these workers must wait for jobs to become available. Structural unemployment thus arises because firms fail to reduce wages despite an excess supply of labor.3. Give three explanations the real wage may remain above the level that equilibrates labor supply and labor demand.The real wage may remain above the level that equilibrates labor supply and labor demand because of minimum wage laws, the monopoly power of unions, and efficiency wages.Minimum-wage laws cause wage rigidity when they prevent wages from falling to equilibrium levels. Although most workers are paid a wage above the minimum level, for some workers, especially the unskilled and inexperienced, the minimum wage raises their wage above the equilibrium level. It therefore reduces the quantity of their labor that firms demand, and an excess supply of workers—that is, unemployment—results.The monopoly power of unions causes wage rigidity because the wages of unionized workers are determined not by the equilibrium of supply and demand but by collective bargaining between union leaders and firm management. The wage agreement often raises thewage above the equilibrium level and allows the firm to decide how many workers to employ. These high wages cause firms to hire fewer workers than at the market-clearing wage, so structural unemployment increases.Efficiency-wage theories suggest that high wages make workers more productive. The influence of wages on worker efficiency may explain why firms do not cut wages despite an excess supply of labor. Even though a wage reduction decreases the firm’s wage bill, i t may also lower worker productivity and therefore the firm’s profits.Chapter 71. In the Solow model, how does the saving rate affect the steady-state level of income? How does it affect the steady-state rate of growth?In the Solow growth model, a high saving rate leads to a large steady-state capital stock and a high level of steady-state output. A low saving rate leads to a small steady-state capital stock and a low level of steady-state output. Higher saving leads to faster economic growth only in the short run. An increase in the saving rate raises growth until the economy reaches the new steady state. That is, if the economy maintains a high saving rate, it will also maintain a large capital stock and a high level of output, but it will not maintain a high rate of growth forever. In the steady state, the growth rate of output (or income) is independent of the saving rate.4. In the Solow model, how does the rate of population growth affect the steady-state level of income? How does it affect the steady-state rate of growth?The higher the population growth rate is, the lower the steady-state level of capital per worker, and therefore there is a lower level of steady-state income per worker. For example, Figure 7–1 shows the steady state for two levels of population growth, a low level n1 and a higher level n2. The higher population growth n2 means that the line representing population growth and depreciation is higher, so the steady-state level of capital per worker is lower.In a model with no technological change, the steady-state growth rate of total income is n: the higher the population growth rate n is, the higher the growth rate of total income. Income per worker, however, grows at rate zero in steady state and, thus, is not affected by population growth.Chapter 8QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW1. In the Solow model, what determines the steady-state rate of growth of income per worker?In the Solow model, we find that only technological progress can affect the steady-state rate of growth in income per worker. Growth in the capital stock (through high saving) has no effect on the steady-state growth rate of income per worker; neither does population growth. But technological progress can lead to sustained growth.2. In the steady state of the Solow model, at what rate does output per person grow? At what rate does capital per person grow? How does this compare with the U.S. experience?In the steady state, output per person in the Solow model grows at the rate of technological progress g. Capital per person also grows at rate g. Note that this implies that output and capital per effective worker are constant in steady state. In the U.S. data, output and capital per worker have both grown at about 2 percent per year for the past half-century.（注意：中英不符）6. How does endogenous growth theory explain persistent growth without the assumption of exogenous technological progress? How does this differ from the Solow model? Endogenous growth theories attempt to explain the rate of technological progress by explaining the decisions that determine the creation of knowledge through research anddevelopment. By contrast, the Solow model simply took this rate as exogenous. In the Solow model, the saving rate affects growth temporarily, but diminishing returns to capital eventually force the economy to approach a steady state in which growth depends only on exogenous technological progress. By contrast, many endogenous growth models in essence assume that there are constant (rather than diminishing) returns to capital, interpreted to include knowledge. Hence, changes in the saving rate can lead to persistent growth.Chapter 9QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW3. Why does the aggregate demand curve slope downward?Aggregate demand is the relation between the quantity of output demanded and the aggregate price level. To understand why the aggregate demand curve slopes downward, we need to develop a theory of aggregate demand. One simple theory of aggregate demand is based on the quantity theory of money. Write the quantity equation in terms of the supply and demand for real money balances aswhere k = 1/V. This equation tells us that for any fixed money supply M, a negative relationship exists between the price level P and output Y, assuming that velocity V is fixed: the higher the price level, the lower the level of real balances and, therefore, the lower the quantity of goods and services demanded Y. In other words, the aggregate demand curve slopes downward, as in Figure 9–1.One way to understand this negative relationship between the price level and output is to note the link between money and transactions. If we assume that V is constant, then the money supply determines the dollar value of all transactions: MV = PY.An increase in the price level implies that each transaction requires more dollars. For the above identity to hold with constant velocity, the quantity of transactions and thus the quantity of goods and services purchased Y must fall. （注意：中英不符）4. Explain the impact of an increase in the money supply in the short run and in the long run.If the Fed increases the money supply, then the aggregate demand curve shifts outward, as in Figure 9–2. In the short run, prices are sticky, so the economy moves along the short-run aggregate supply curve from point A to point B. Output rises above its natural rate level Y: the economy is in a boom. The high demand, however, eventually causes wages and prices to increase. This gradual increase in prices moves the economy along the new aggregate demandcurve AD2 to point C. At the new long-run equilibrium, output is at its natural-rate level, but prices are higher than they were in the initial equilibrium at point A.Chapter 102. Use the theory of liquidity preference to explain why an increase in the money supply lowers the interest rate. What does this explanation assume about the price level?3. Why does the IS curve slope downward?4. Why does the LM curve slope upward?Chapter 11QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW: 11. Explain why the aggregate demand curve slopes downward.Chapter 13QUESTIONS FOR REVIEW: 4,5,64. Explain the differences between demand-pull inflation and cost-push inflation.5. Under what circumstances might it be possible to reduce inflation without causing a recession?The Phillips curve relates the inflation rate to the expected inflation rate and to the difference between unemployment and its natural rate. So one way to reduce inflation is to have a recession, raising unemployment above its natural rate. It is possible to bring inflation down without a recession, however, if we can costlessly reduce expected inflation.According to the rational-expectations approach, people optimally use all of the information available to them in forming their expectations. So to reduce expected inflation, we require, first, that the plan to reduce inflation be announced before people form expectations (e.g., before they form wage agreements and price contracts); and second, that those setting wages and prices believe that the announced plan will be carried out. If both requirements are met, then expected inflation will fall immediately and without cost, and this in turn will bring down actual inflation.6. Explain two ways in which a recession might raise the natural rate of unemployment.One way in which a recession might raise the natural rate of unemployment is by affecting the process of job search, increasing the amount of frictional unemployment.For example, workers who are unemployed lose valuable job skills. This reduces their ability to find jobs after the recession ends because they are less desirable to firms.Also, after a long period of unemployment, individuals may lose some of their desire to work, and hence search less hard.Second, a recession may affect the process that determines wages, increasing wait unemployment. Wage negotiations may give a greater voice to “insiders,” those who actuallyhave jobs. Those who become unemployed become “outsiders.” If the smaller group of insiders cares more about high real wages and less about high employment, then the recession may permanently push real wages above the equilibrium level and raise the amount of wait unemployment. This permanent impact of a recession on the natural rate of unemployment is called hysteresis.Calculation QuestionsChapter 2 PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 21. A farmer grows a bushel of wheat and sells it to a miller for $1.00. The miller turns thewheat into flour and then sells the flour to a baker for $3.00. The baker uses the flour to make bread and sells the bread to an engineer for $6.00. The engineer eats the bread. What is the value added by each person? What is GDP?Value added by each person is the value of the good produced minus the amount the person paid for the materials necessary to make the good. Therefore, the value added by the farmer is $1.00 ($1 – 0 = $1). The value added by the miller is $2: she sells the flour to the baker for $3 but paid $1 for the flour. The value added by the baker is $3: she sells the bread to the engineer for $6 but paid the miller $3 for the flour. GDP is the total value added, or $1 + $2 + $3 = $6Chapter 3 PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 7,97. The government raises taxes by $100 billion. If the marginal propensity to consume is 0.6, what happens to the following? Do they rise or fall? By what amounts?a. Public saving.b. Private saving.c. National saving.d. Investment.National Saving = [Private Saving] + [Public Saving]= [Y – T – C(Y – T)] + [T – G] = Y – C(Y – T) – G.a.Public Saving—The tax increase causes a 1-for-1 increase in public saving. T increases by$100 billion and, therefore, public saving increases by $100 billion.b.Private Saving—The increase in taxes decreases disposable income, Y – T, by $100 billion.Since the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is 0.6, consumption falls by 0.6 $100 billion, or $60 billion. Hence,ΔPrivate Saving = – $100b – 0.6 ( – $100b) = –$40b. Private saving falls $40 billion.c.National Saving—Because national saving is the sum of private and public saving, we canconclude that the $100 billion tax increase leads to a $60 billion increase in national saving.d.Investment—To determine the effect of the tax increase on investment, recall the nationalaccounts identity: Y = C(Y – T) + I(r) + G. Rearranging, we find Y – C(Y – T) – G = I(r).The left-hand side of this equation is national saving, so the equation just says the national saving equals investment. Since national saving increases by $60 billion, investment must also increase by $60 billion.9. Consider an economy described by the following equations:Y C I G Y 5,000 G 1,000 T 1,000 C 250 0.75(Y −T) I 1,000 −50 r.a. In this economy, compute private saving, public saving, and national saving.b. Find the equilibrium interest rate.c. Now suppose that G rises to 1,250. Compute private saving, public saving, and national saving.d. Find the new equilibrium interest rate.Chapter 4 PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 22. In the country of Wiknam, the velocity of money is constant. Real GDP grows by 5 percent per year, the money stock grows by 14 percent per year, and the nominal interest rate is 11 percent. What is the real interest rate?The real interest rate is the difference between the nominal interest rate and the inflation rate. The nominal interest rate is 11 percent, but we need to solve for the inflation rate. We do this with the quantity equation expressed in percentage-change form:% Change in M + % Change in V = % Change in P + % Change in Y.Rearranging this equation tells us that the inflation rate is given by:% Change in P = % Change in M + % Change in V – % Change in Y.Substituting the numbers given in the problem, we thus find:% Change in P = 14% + 0% – 5%= 9%.Thus, the real interest rate is 2 percent: the nominal interest rate of 11 percent minus the inflation rate of 9 percent.Chapter 7 PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 1（a,b,c）1. Country A and country B both have the production function Y = F(K, L) = K1/2L1/2.a. Does this production function have constant returns to scale? Explain.b. What is the per-worker production function, y = f(k)?c. Assume that neither country experiences population growth or technological progress and that 5 percent of capital depreciates each year. Assume further that country A saves 10 percent of output each year and country B saves 20 percent of output each year. Using your answer from part (b) and the steady-state condition that investment equals depreciation, find the steady-state level of capital per worker for each country. Then find the steady-state levels of income per worker and consumption per worker.a. A production function has constant returns to scale if increasing all factors of production by an equal percentage causes output to increase by the same percentage. Mathematically, a production function has constant returns to scale if zY = F(zK,zL) for any positive number z. That is, if we multiply both the amount of capital and the amount of labor by some amount z, then the amount of output is multiplied by z. For example, if we double the amounts of capital and labor we use (setting z = 2), then output also doubles.To see if the production function has constant returns to scale, we write: Therefore, the production function Y = K1/2L1/2 has constant returns to scale.b. To find the per-worker production function, divide the production functionIf we define y = Y/L, we can rewrite the above expression as:Defining k = K/L, we can rewrite the above expression as:c. We know the following facts about countries A and B:y=is the per-worker production function derived in part (b) for countries A and B.The growth of the capital stock Δk equals the amount of investment sf(k), less the amount of depreciation δk. That is, Δk = sf(k) –δk. In steady state, the capital stock does not grow, so we can write this as sf(k) = δk.To find the steady-state level of capital per worker, plug the per-worker production function into the steady-state investment condition, and solve for :PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 3 (a,b)3.Consider an economy described by the production function:a. What is the per-worker production function?b. Assuming no population growth or technological progress, find the steady-state capital stock per worker, output per worker, and consumption per worker as a function of the saving rate and the depreciation rate.Chapter 8 PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 11. An economy described by the Solow growth model has the following productionfunction:a. Solve for the steady-state value of y as a function of s, n, g, and d.b. A developed country has a saving rate of 28 percent and a population growth rate of 1 percent per year. A less developed country has a saving rate of 10 percent and a population growth rate of 4 percent per year. In both countries, g = 0.02 andd = 0.04. Find the steady-state value of y for each country.c. What policies might the less developed country pursue to raise its level of income?Chapter 10 PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 22. In the Keynesian cross, assume that the consumption function is given byC = 200 + 0.75 (Y − T ).Planned investment is 100; government purchases and taxes are both 100.a. Graph planned expenditure as a function of income.b. What is the equilibrium level of income?c. If government purchases increase to 125, what is the new equilibrium income?d. What level of government purchases is needed to achieve an income of 1,600?PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 55. Suppose that the money demand function is (M/P)d = 1,000 – 100r, where r is the interest rate in percent. The money supply M is 1,000 and the price level P is 2.a. Graph the supply and demand for real money balances.b. What is the equilibrium interest rate?c. Assume that the price level is fixed. What happens to the equilibrium interest rate if the supply of money is raised from 1,000 to 1,200?d. If the Fed wishes to raise the interest rate to 7 percent, what money supply should it set?Chapter 11 PROBLEMS AND APPLICATION: 33. Consider the economy of Hicksonia.a. The consumption function is given by C = 200 + 0.75(Y − T ).The investment function is I = 200 − 25r. Government purchases and taxes are both100. For this economy, graph the IS curve for r ranging from 0 to 8.b. The money demand function in Hicksonia is (M/P)d = Y − 100r. The money supply M is1,000 and the price level P is 2. For this economy, graph the LM curve for r ranging from 0 to 8.c. Find the equilibrium interest rate r and the equilibrium level of income Y.d. Suppose that government purchases are raised from 100 to 150. How much does the IS curve shift? What are the new equilibrium interest rate and level of income?e. Suppose instead that the money supply is raised from 1,000 to 1,200. How much does the。
金融市场学双语题库及答案(第二章)米什金金融市场与机构
Answer: D
Topic: Chapter 2.1 Function of Financial Markets
Question Status: Previous Edition
7) Financial markets improve economic welfare because
Topic: Chapter 2.2 Structure of Financial Markets
Question Status: Previous Edition
13) Which of the following are primary markets?
A) The New York Stock Exchange
Question Status: Previous Edition
14) Which of the following are secondary markets?
A) The New York Stock Exchange
B) The U.S. government bond market
C) The over-the-counter stock market
C) experience economic hardship and financial crises.
D) increase its standard of living.
Answer: C
Topic: Chapter 2.1 Function of Financial Markets
Question Status: Previous Edition
Answer: D
Topic: Chapter 2.1 Function of Financial Markets
词汇学第四章考试题
CHAPTER 41. The expansion of vocabulary in modern English depends chiefly on_______.A. borrowingB. word-formationC. conversionD. the number of the people speaking English2. _______ doesn't belong to the most productive means of word-formation.A. AffixationB. CompoundingC. ConversionD. Blending3. Conversion gives us _______ of the new vocabulary.A. 30%B. 28%C. 26%D. 28% to 30%4. Word formation excludes _______.A. affixation and compoundingB. conversion and shorteningC. chipping, acronymy and blendingD. repetition and alliteration5. The most productive word formation are _______.A. affixationB. compoundingC. conversionD. all the above6. Of the following word-formation processes, _______ is the most productive.A. clippingB. blendingC. initialismD. derivation7. 30% to 40% of the total number of new words in English are produced through _______.A. compoundingB. affixationC. conversionD. shortening8. The prefixes in the words of irresistible, nonclassical and apolitical are called _______.A. reversative prefixesB. negative prefixesC. pejorative prefixesD. locative prefixes9. Affixation is generally defined as the formation of words by adding word-forming or _______ to stems.A. affixesB. suffixes and prefixesC. inflectional affixesD. derivational affixes10. The words formed by affixation are called _______.A. affixesB. derivationsC. derivativesD. derivationals11. According to the _______ which affixes occupy in words, affixation falls into two subclasses: prefixation and suffixation.A. functionsB. positionsC. waysD. none of the above12. Prefixes do not generally change the _______ of the stem but only modify its meaning.A. word-classB. meaningC. formD. structure13. Accordingly, prefixes are classified on a semantic basis into _______ groups.B. 8D. 1014. These are negative prefixes except _______.A. dis-B. in-C. non-D. under-15. "Ex-" in the word "ex-prisoner" is _______.A. free rootB. bound rootC. inflectional affixD. derivational affix16. All of the following are pejorative prefixes except _______.A. mal-B. arch¬C. pseudo-D. mis-17. The "de -" in "decompose" is _______.A. a negative prefixB. a pejorative prefixC. a reversative prefixD. an orientation prefix18. The prefixes contained in the following words are called _______:pseudo, friend, malpractice, mistrust.A. reversative prefixedB. negative prefixesC. pejorative prefixesD. locative prefixes19. The prefixes in words anti-government, pro-student and contraflow are _______.A. prefixes of degree or sizeB. prefixes of orientation and attitudeC. prefixes of time and orderD. miscellaneous prefixes20. The prefixed contained in unwrap, de-compose and disallow are _______.A. reversative prefixedB. negative prefixesC. pejorative prefixesD. locative prefixes21. The prefixes in words extra-strong, overweight and archbishop are _______.A. negative prefixesB. prefixes of degree or sizeC. pejorative prefixesD. locative prefixes22. A subcutaneous infection is _______ the skin.A. on the surface ofB. aboveC. underD. below23. Some doctors prescribe medication to treat hyperactive children, because the children are extremely _______.A. activeB. passiveC. lazyD. diligent24. _______ of the given prefixes indicates number.A. fore-B. anti-C. semi-D. pan-25. The primary function of suffixes is to _______.A. change the word-class of rootsB. change the meaning of stemsC. change the grammatical function of stemsD. change the structure of roots26. The "auto" in "autobiography" is _______.A. a negative prefixB. a pejorative prefixC. a reversative prefixD. a miscellaneous prefix27. The prefixes in words bilingual, uniform and hemisphere are _______.A. number prefixesB. prefixes of degree or sizeC. pejorative prefixesD. locative prefixes28. _______ are contained in words trans-world, intra-party and forehead.A. Prefixes of orientation and attitudeB. Prefixes of time and orderC. Locative prefixesD. Prefixes of degree or size29. The prefixes in words new-Nazi, autobiography and pan-European are _______.A. negative prefixesB. prefixes of degree or sizeC. prefixes of time and orderD. miscellaneous prefixes30. Ex-student, foretell and post-election contain _______.A. negative prefixesB. prefixes of degree or sizeC. prefixes of time and orderD. locative prefixes31. Which of the following prefixes can not be used to indicate time and orderA. Ex-.B. Fore-.C. Post-.D. Para-.32. Which of the following is a case of suffixationA. HemisphereB. AttemptC. NATOD. Respondent33. A multiplied insect has _______ feet.A. twoB. fourC. sixD. many34. A tricycle has _______ wheels.A. oneB. twoC. threeD. Four35. Which of the following belongs to number prefixesA. Auto-.B. Mis-.C. Hemi-.D. Pre-.36. We usually group suffixes on a _______ basis into noun suffixes, verb suffixes, adjective suffixes, etc.A. grammatical C. meaningfulB. structural D. practical37. -eer, -er, -ess, -ette, -let are all suffixes added to noun bases to produce _______ nouns.A. abstract C. concreteB. de-verbal D. de-adjective38. These are adjective suffixes except _______.A. -ishB. -iveC. -aiD. -ance39. The word "courageous" is created by _______.A. noun suffixesB. adverb suffixesC. adjective suffixesD. verb suffixes40. The meanings of "comic" and "comical" are _______.A. sameB. identicalC. similarD. different41. Which of the following suffixes can be used to form both nouns and adjectivesA. -ion.B. -ism.C. -ity.D. -ist.42. The following are all denominal suffixes EXCEPT _______.A. -fulB. -wiseC. -lessD. -like43. _______ of the following is not a verb suffix.A. -ateB. -enC. -ed44. The suffixes in words heighten, symbolize are _______.A. noun suffixesB. verb suffixesC. adverb suffixesD. adjective suffixes45. The suffixes in words clockwise, homewards are _______.A. noun suffixesB. verb suffixesC. adverb suffixesD. adjective suffixes46. The differences between compounds and free phrases show in _______ aspects.A. phonetic featuresB. semantic featuresC. grammatical featuresD. all the above47. There are _______ major classes of compounds.A. twoB. fourC. threeD. five48. " Washing machine" is a word formed by _______.A. prefixationB. compoundingC. conversionD. blending49. "Law-abiding" belongs to _______.A. adjective compoundB. noun compoundC. verb compoundD. none of the above50. "up-bringing" belongs to _______.A. adjective compoundB. noun compoundB. verb compound D. none of the above51. Verb compounds are created either through _______ or _______.A. affixation; conversionB. clipping; affixationC. conversion; backformationD. backformation; borrowing52. Which of the following is not through backformationA. To mass-produce.B. To lip-read.C. To nickname.D. To chain-smoke.53. Conversion is a method _______.A. of turning words of one part of speech to those of a different part of speechB. of converting words of one meaning into different meaningC. of deriving words through grammatical meansD. of changing words in morphological structure54. In a derivational process, an item is converted to a new word class without the addition of an affix. The name is _______.A. full conversionB. partial conversionC. functional shiftD. zero-derivation55. Words involved in conversion are primarily _______.A. nouns, verbs and adverbsB. nouns, adjectives and verbsC. nouns, prepositions and verbsD. adjectives, adverbs and verbs56. Almost all monomorphemic _______ can be conversed into nouns, which are semantically related to the original verbs in various ways.A. verbsB. adjectivesC. adverbsD. prepositions57. Nouns converted from adjectives have all the characteristics of nouns and achieve a full noun status, thus known as _______.A. partial conversionB. full conversionC. speech shiftD. grammatical shift58. Nouns partially converted from adjectives do not possess all the qualities a noun does. Theymust be used together with _______.A. plural formsB. single formsC. adjectivesD. definite articles59. In most cases a noun can be converted to a verb _______.A. with some changesB. without any changeC. with some changes in spellingD. without any change in pronunciation60. The "house" in "the peasant housed him" belongs to the conversion _______.A. between noun and adjectiveB. between noun and verbC. between verb and adjectiveD. none of the above61. The conversion of two-syllable nouns into verbs involves a change of _______.A. spellingB. pronunciationC. stressD. function62. "Empty" in the sentence "The meeting was over and the meeting-room began to empty" is _______.A. adjectiveB. verbC. nounD. four63. Which of the following words is NOT formed through clippingA. Dorm.B. Motel.C. Gent.D. Zoo.64. _______ are words pronounced letter by letter.A. InitialismsB. AcronymsC. BlendsD. Clips65. Of the following words, _______ is an initialism.A. UNB. NATOC. BASICD. UNESCO66. "BBC" is formed in the way of _______.A. acronymyB. clippingC. back-formationD. prefixation67. "TV" is a (n) _______.A. initialismB. acronymC. derivativeD. compound68. Back-formation is considered to be the opposite process of _______.A. prefixationB. suffixationC. acronymy D- conversion69. Back-formation is the method of creating new words by _______ the supposed suffixes.( )A. removingB. combiningC. shorteningD. considering70. Back-formation usually involves _______ types of words.A. threeB. fourC. fiveD. two71. Stylistically, back-formed words are largely some of them have not gained public acceptance.A. formalB. adjectivesC. human nounsD. informal72. The word "sandwich" which now denotes a popular fast food originates from _______.A. FaradayB. John MontagueC. BloomersD. Thomas More73. Mackintosh, bloomers and cherub are from _______.A. names of booksB. names of placesC. names of peopleD. trade-names74. Rugby, afghan and champagne are words coming from _______.A. names of booksB. names of placesC. names of peopleD. tradenames75. Utopia, odyssey and Babbit are words from _______.A. names of booksB. names of placesC. names of peopleD. tradenames76. Which of the following words is NOT from ChineseA. Tea.B. Ketchup.C. Kungfu.D. Czar.77. Omega, Xerox and orlon are words from _______.A. names of booksB. names of placesC. names of peopleD. tradenames78. _______ are affective words as they are expressions of emotions such as oh, dear, me, alas.A. PrepositionsB. InterjectionsC. ExclamationsD. Explanations79. 30% to 40% of the total number of new words in English are produced through _______A. compoundingB. affixationC. conversionD. shortening80. The prefixes mal- in maltreat, mis- in misleading and pseudo- in pseudo- scientific are ______ prefixes.A. negativeB. reversativeC. pejorativeD. locative81. The prefixes like un- and dis- can be regarded both as negative prefixes and as privative prefixes. The justification of their category lies in _______.A. meaningB. functionC. collocationD. word-class82. Some prefixes are categorized as _______ since their chief function is to change the base from one word class to another.A. conversion prefixesB. prefixes of orientation and attitudeC. inflectional prefixesD. prefixes of time and order83. The word employer is composed of " employ+er", of which -er is the so-called _______ suffix.A. verbB. deverbal nounC. denominalD. denominal noun84. As a suffix, _______ means "receiver of the action".A. -eerB. -essC. -erD. -ee85. The suffix -or in actor is a(n) _______ suffix and -ance in performance is a(n) _______noun suffix.A. concrete; concreteB. abstract; concreteC. abstract; abstractD. concrete; abstract86. The suffix -ful in mouthful is a suffix and in graceful is a _______ suffix.A. denominal adjective; denominal adjectiveB. denominal noun; denominal adjectiveC. denominal noun; denominal nounD. denominal adjective; denominal noun87. Of the three words, _______ refers to the physical or heroic qualities of a man, _______ is applied to nonhumans and _______ implies unwelcome masculine attributes usually in a woman.A. manly; manlike; mannishB. manly; mannish; manlikeC. mannish; manlike; manlyD. mannish; manly; manlike88. The pattern of deadline and blueprint is _______ in formation.A. n. + n.B. n. + v.C. adj. + n.D. adj. + v.89. The grammatical relationship between the elements in fist-fighting is _______.A. subject-}-verbB. verb+objectC. verb ~h adverbialD. subject+adverbial90. The conversion of two syllable nouns into verbs usually involves a change of _______.A. spellingB. pronunciationC. stressD. function91. Through _______, we get lip-read out of lip-reading.A. lexicalizatjonB. conversionC. rearrangementD. backformation92. The process in which nouns converted from adjectives do not possess all the qualities a noun does is called a _______ conversion.A. functionalB. fullC. partialD. miscellaneous93. The word motel comes from "motor-f-hotel". This is an example of _______ in terms of word formation.A. backformationB. conversionC. blendingD. acronym94. The words socio-linguistic and psycho-analysis are _______ according to the bases with which they are coined.A. compoundsB. blendsC. derivativesD. acronyms96. The case of exec derived from executive is an instance of _______ clipping.A. frontB. backC. front and backD. phrase97. AIDS, which is an instance of _______, is short for "acquired immune deficiency syndrome".A. pure acronymsB. hybrid acronymsC. syllabic acronymsD. initialisms98. The word medicare comes from "medical+care", so its structure is _______.A. head+wordB. word+tailC. head+headD. head+tail99. Almost all the back-formed words are _______.A. nounsB. verbsC. adjectivesD. adverbs100. Words produced through affixation constitute _______ of all the new words.A. 20% to 30%B. 30% to 40%C. 40% to 50%D. 10% to 20%101. The most productive word formation is _______.A. affixationB. compoundingC. conversionD. acronymy102. The expansion of vocabulary in modern English depends chiefly on . [ ]A. word-formationB. prefixationC. suffixationD. compounding103. _______ is the formation of words by adding word-forming or derivational affixes to stems.A. PrefixationB. DerivationC. SuffixationD. Compounding104. According to the positions which affixes occupy in words, affixation falls into two subclasses: _______ and _______.A. clipping, blendingB. compounding, conversionC. conversion, derivationD. prefixation, suffixation105. We shall classify prefixes on semantic basis intoA. sevenB. eightC. nineD. eleven106. The prefix "pseudo" is _______.A. a negative prefixB. a reversative prefixC. a locative prefixD. a pejorative prefix107. The "de-" in "decompose" is _______.A. a negative prefixB. a pejorative prefixC. a reversative prefixD. an orientation prefix108. The chief function of prefixation is to _______.A. change meanings of the stemB. change the word-class of the stemC. change grammatical functionD. all the above109. The "auto" in "autobiography" is _______.A. a negative prefixB. a locative prefixC. a reversative prefixD. a miscellaneous prefix110. The chief function of suffixation is to _______.A. change meanings of the stemB. change the word class of the stemC. change the lexical meaningD. all the above111. The word "courageous" is created by _______.A. noun suffixesB. adverb suffixesC. adjective suffixesD. verb suffixes112. The meanings of "comic" and "comical" are _______.A. sameB. identicalC. similarD. different113. For the word "political”, its negative form is " _______.A. apoliticalB. ilpoliticalC. inpoliticalD. impolitical114. The differences between compounds and free phrases show in _______.A. phonetic featuresB. semantic featuresC. grammatical featuresD. all the above115. _______ is the formation of new words by joining two or more stems.A. SuffixationB. CompositionC. ConversionD. Clipping116. " Law-abiding" belongs to _______.A. adjective compoundB. noun compoundC. verb compoundD. none of the above117. "Sit-in" belongs to _______.A. adjective compoundB. noun compoundC. verb compoundD. none of the above118. "up-bringing" belongs to _______.A. adjective compoundB. noun compoundC. verb compoundD. none of the above119. Verb compounds are created either through _______ or _______.A. affixation/conversionB. clipping/affixationC. conversion/backformationD. back-formation/borrowing120. In compounds, the word stress usually occurs on _______ whereas in noun phrase _______ is generally stressed if there is only one stress.A. the first element/the second elementB. the second element/the first elementC. the first element/the first elementD. the second element/the second element121. Most compounds consist of only _______ stems.A. threeB. twoC. fourD. five122. Words mainly involved in conversion are _______.A. nouns, verbs and adverbsB. nouns, adjectives and verbsC. nouns, prepositions and verbsD. adjectives, adverbs and verbs123. The derivational process, in which an item is converted to a new word class without the addition of an affix, is called _______.A. full conversionB. partial-conversionC. semantic shiftD. zero-derivation124. The "house" in "the peasant housed him" belongs to the conversion _______.A. between noun and adjectiveB. between noun and verbC. between verb and adjectiveD. none of the above125. Nouns converted from adjectives have all the characteristics of nouns and achieve a full noun status, thus known as _______.A. partial conversionB. full conversionC. functional shiftD. grammatical shift126. Nouns partially converted from adjectives do not possess all the qualities a noun does. They must be used together with _______.A. plural formsB. single formsC. adjectivesD. definite articles127. The conversion of two syllable nouns into verbs involves a change of _______.A. spellingB. pronunciationC. stressD. function128. Words produced by conversion are primarily _______.A. nounsB. adjectivesC. verbsD. all the above129. The most productive conversion is the conversion that takes place _______.A. between nouns and verbsB. between nouns and adjectivesC. between verbs and adjectivesD. none of the above130. The overwhelming majority of blends are _______.A. verbsB. nounsC. adjectivesD. adverbs131. Back-formation is therefore the method of creating words by _______ the supposed suffixes.A. removingB. shorteningC. addingD. writing132. Back-formation is considered to be the opposite process of _______.A. prefixationB. suffixationC. acronymyD. conversion133. Words formed by acronymy can be divided into initialisms and acronyms depending on _______.A. the grammatical functionB. the pronunciation of the wordsC. the spelling wayD. none of the above134. Word formation excludes _______.A. affixation and compoundingB. conversion and shorteningC. chipping, acronymy and blendingD. repetition and alliteration135. Which of the following is a case of suffixationA. Hemisphere.B. Disunite.C. NATO.D. Respondent.136. A tricycle has _______ wheels.A. twoB. fourC. sixD. three137. The prefixes in the words*, irresistible, non-classical and apolitical are called _______.A. reversative prefixesB. negative prefixesC. pejorative prefixesD. locative prefixes138. Rugby, afghan and champagne are words coming from _______.A. names of booksB. names of placesC. names of peopleD. tradenames139. Some doctors prescribe medication to treat hyperactive children, because the children are extremely _______ .A. activeB. passiveC. lazyD. diligent140. Ex-student, foretell and post-election contain _______.A. negative prefixesB. prefixes of degree or sizeC, prefixes of time and order D. locative prefixes141. _______are words pronounced letter by letterA. InitialismsB. AcronymsC. BlendsD. Compounds142. What does the neo-mean in neo-NaziA. Old.B. Poor.C. New.D. Rich.143. Which of the following words is NOT formed through clippingA. Dorm.B. Slurb.C. Gent.D. Zoo.144. Which of the following belongs to number prefixesA. Fore-.B. Pro-.C. Hemi-.D. Pre-.145. There are _______ major classes of compounds.A. twoB. fourC. threeD. five146. Mackintosh, bloomers and cherub are from _______.A. names of booksB. names of placesC. names of peopleD. tradenames147. The suffixes in words clockwise, homewards are _______.A. noun suffixesB. verb suffixesC. adverb suffixesD. adjective suffixes148. The suffixes in words heighten, symbolize are _______.A. noun suffixesB. verb suffixesC. adverb suffixesD. adjective suffixes149. Of the following words, _______ is an initialism.A. UNB. NATOC. BASICD. UNESCO150. Of the following word-formation processes, is the _______ most productive.A. clippingB. blendingC. initialismD. affixation151. The prefixes in words neo-Nazi, autobiography and pan-European are _______.A. negative prefixesB. prefixes of degree or sizeC. prefixes of time and orderD. miscellaneous prefixes152. Which of the following words is NOT from ChineseA. Tea.B. Ketchup.C. Kungfu.D. Czar.153. Which of the following suffixes can be used to form both nouns and adjectivesA. -ion.B. -ism.C. -ity.D. -ist.154. Utopia, odyssey and Babbit are words from _______.A. names of booksB. names of placesC. names of peopleD. tradenames1. Affixes and compounding processes may become _______ on one time.2. Not all the words that are produced by applying the word-forming rule are _______ .3. Words produced through compounding yields _______ of all the new word.4. New words which are created by adding affixes to stems are called _______.5. _______ is the formation of new words by adding prefixes to stems.6. The majority of prefixes are _______ by their non-class-changing nature.7. Affixation, also called _______, is one of the word formations.8. Derivational affixes can be further divided into _______ and suffixes.9. Prefixes are those affixes that added to the head of words, which primarily change the _______ of the stem.10. The formation of words by adding word-forming affixes to stems is called _______.11. The chief function of _______ is not to change the word class of the stem, but to change its meaning.12. Suffixation is the formation of new word by adding _______ to stems.13. In the word "post-war" , "post-" is a prefix of _______.14. Compounding is the formation of new words by joining _______.15. Compounds and derived words are _______ words and the meanings of many are the sum total of the morphemes combined.16. The open _______ are the same in form as free phrases.17. The stress patterns of compounds are not _______.18. Compounds are different from free phrases in _______ unit.19. A compound tends to play a single _______ role in a sentence.20. An alternative for conversion is _______.21. _______ is the formation of new words by converting words of one class to another class.22. Almost all monomorphemic verbs can be used as nouns, which are _______ related to the original verbs in various ways according to Quirk et al.23. Such words as "the richer”, "the poor”, "the most corrupt" are all examples of _______.24. The words "autocide" and "telex" are formed by _______.25. With the development of market economy psywar becomes more and more popular. "Psywar" means _______.26. _______ is the formation of new words by combining parts of two words or a word plus a part of another word.27. A common way of making a word is to shorten a longer word by cutting a part off the original and using what remains instead. This is called _______.28. _______ is the process of forcing new words by joining the initial letters of names of social and political organizations or special phrases and technical terms.29. _______ is considered to be the opposite process of suffixation.30. A word is the _______ of form and meaning.31. Modern English expands its vocabulary chiefly through _______.32. The three main means of creating new words in modern English are _______, compounding and conversion.33. Shortening including clipping and _______ is also a way of forming new words in modern English.34. Affixation falls into two subcategories prefixation and _______.35. Affixation is also known as _______.36. The prefixes bi-, multi- and tri- are all _______ prefixes.37. Compounds can be written solid, _______ and open.38. A compound is a unit consisting of more than one base and functioning both grammatically and _______ as a single word.39. The words sit-in and handshake are both _______ compounds.40. Verb compounds are generally created either through _______or back-formation.41. Compounds are largely the results of _______ of phrases.42. If we need a word which is not found, we can easily make one through _______ or rearrangement of word-forming elements.43. Conversion is also known as _______ since it does not change the morphological structure of words but their function.44. Regarded as a derivational process without the addition of an affix, conversion can be called as _______.45. Words formed through acronymy can be divided into _______ and acronyms depending on the pronunciation of the words.46. Such words as goody-goody, willy-nilly and fiddle-faddle are known as _______ in terms of word formation.47. The process is called _______ when proper names are changed into common words in use.48. Words like nylon, orlon and rayon come from _______, a type of proper names.49. The overwhelming majority of blends are _______.50. Words imitating natural sounds are _______words.51. Affixation, also called _______, is one of the word formations.52. In modem times, the expansion of _______ is mainly through word-formation.53. The number of inflectional affixes is _______and stable, which makes English one of the easiest language to learn.54. According to suffixation theory, “villager" is called denominal noun and “employer" is called _______noun.55. Derivational affixes can be further divided into _______and suffixes.56. Prefixes do not generally change the _______of the stem but only modify its meaning.57. Not all the words that are produced by applying the word-forming rule are _______.58. Compounding is the formation of _______ by joining two or more stems.59. Words produced through compounding yields _______ of all the new words.60. _______ conversion and _______ conversion are concerned with adjectives when converted to nouns.61. An alternative for conversion is _______.。
SAP-BASIS基础操作
1:)要用scc4定义一个新的client，同时定义好类型（T,P,D等）2:)用user/pasword: (sap*/pass）Login到新的client中去，做sccl做一个Local client copy本地CLIENT COPY使用事物代码SCCL，用SCC3查看日志。
具体操作如下：6.1.1创建逻辑系统1运行事物代码SALE 2选择“应用程序连接”—“发送和接收系统”—“逻辑系统”—“定义逻辑系统”，然后单击运行按钮3对“跨集团更改”的提示做确认4在弹出的逻辑系统窗口点击“新条目”5在弹出的窗口中输入逻辑系统的名字及描述。
逻辑系统的命名规范为<SID>CLNT<CLIENTNUMBER>，如TSTCLNT5006将创建的逻辑系统记入一个REQUEST，然后保存，逻辑系统定义完成。
6.1.2创建CLIENT 1登陆系统，运行事物代码SCC4。
2在弹出的窗口中点击改写按钮。
3确认系统提示—“更改是跨CLIENT的”。
4点击新条目5输入创建的新CLIENT 的设置：集团：3位数字，由002-999任选，066保留逻辑系统：点右侧下拉按钮，找到上面创建的逻辑系统，如TSTCLNT5006标准货币：选择人民币7集团角色：根据实际情况选取，如生产或测试由于是新CLIENT，暂时将更改并传输集团对象标记为自动记录修改；与集团无关的对象修改设置为允许对资源库和跨集团定制的更改。
8保存确认6.1.3 LOCALE CLIENT COPY 1登陆新创建的CLIENT，默认用户名、密码为SAP*/PASS。
2运行事物代码SCCL3选择参数文件：参数文件的说明见本章开始部分，根据需要选取4选择源集团5选择要拷贝的用户主数据源集团，一般与2的选择相同6点击后台作业计划，定义集团拷贝的开始时间。
7选择调度作业8检查弹出窗口的内容，确认后继续9如果立即开始运行LOCALE CLIENT COPY，选择立刻，否则定义开始时间。
365 table topic questions
365 Table Topics Questions:1.When was the last time you tried something new?2.Who do you sometimes compare yourself to?3.What’s the most sensible thing you’ve ever heard someone say?4.What gets you excited about life?5.What life lesson did you learn the hard way?6.What do you wish you spent more time doing five years ago?7.Do you ask enough questions or do you settle for what you know?8.Who do you love and what are you doing about it?9.What’s a belief that you hold with which many people disagree?10.What can you do today that you were not capable of a year ago?11.Do you think crying is a sign of weakness or strength?12.What would you do differently if you knew nobody would judge you?13.Do you celebrate the things you do have?14.What is the difference between living and existing?15.If not now, then when?16.Have you done anything lately worth remembering?17.What does your joy look like today?18.Is it possible to lie without saying a word?19.If you had a friend who spoke to you in the same way that you sometimes speak to yourself, how long wouldyou allow this person to be your friend?20.Which activities make you lose track of time?21.If you had to teach something, what would you teach?22.What would you regret not fully doing, being or having in your life?23.Are you holding onto something that you need to let go of?24.When you are 80-years-old, what will matter to you the most?25.When is it time to stop calculating risk and rewards and just do what you know is right?26.How old would you be if you didn’t know how old you are?27.Would you break the law to save a loved one?28.What makes you smile?29.When it’s all said and done, will you have said more than you’ve done?30.If you had the opportunity to get a message across to a large group of people, what would your message be?31.If the average human lifespan was 40 years, how would you live your life differently?32.What do we all have in common besides our genes that makes us human?33.If you could choose one book as a mandatory read for all high school students, which book would youchoose?34.Would you rather have less work or more work you actually enjoy doing?35.What is important enough to go to war over?36.Which is worse, failing or never trying?37.When was the last time you listened to the sound of your own breathing?38.What’s something you know you do differently than most peop le?39.What does ‘The American Dream’ mean to you?40.Would you rather be a worried genius or a joyful simpleton?41.If you could instill one piece of advice in a newborn baby’s mind, what advice would you give?42.What is the most desirable trait another person can possess?43.What are you most grateful for?44.Is stealing to feed a starving child wrong?45.What do you want most?46.Are you more worried about doing things right, or doing the right things?47.What has life taught you recently?48.What is the one thing you would most like to change about the world?49.Where do you find inspiration?50.Can you describe your life in a six word sentence?51.If we learn from our mistakes, why are we always so afraid to make a mistake?52.What impact do you want to leave on the world?53.What is the most defining moment of your life thus far?54.In the haste of your daily life, what are you not seeing?55.If life is so short, why do we do so many things we don’t like and like so many things we don’t do?56.What lifts your spirits when life gets you down?57.Have you ever regretted something you did not say or do?58.Has your greatest fear ever come true?59.Why do we think of others the most when they’re gone?60.What is your most beloved childhood memory?61.Is it more important to love or be loved?62.If it all came back around to you, would it help you or hurt you?63.If you had the chance to go back in time and change one thing would you do it?64.If a doctor gave you five years to live, what would you try to accomplish?65.What is the difference between falling in love and being in love?66.Who do you think stands between you and happiness?67.What is the difference between innocence and ignorance?68.What is the simplest truth you can express in words?69.What gives your life meaning?70.Can there be happiness without sadness? Pleasure without pain? Peace without war?71.What’s the one thing you’d like others to remember about you at the end of your life?72.Is there such a thing as perfect?73.To what degree have you actually controlled the course your life has taken?74.What does it mean to be human?75.If you looked into the heart of your enemy, what do you think you would find that is different from what is inyour own heart?76.What do you love most about yourself?77.Where would you most like to go and why?78.Is it more important to do what you love or to love what you are doing?79.What do you imagine yourself doing ten years from now?80.What small act of kindness were you once shown that you will never forget?81.What is your happiest childhood memory? What makes it so special?82.Do you own your things or do your things own you?83.Would you rather lose all of your old memories or never be able to make new ones?84.How do you deal with someone in a position of power who wants you to fail?85.What do you have that you cannot live without?86.When you close your eyes what do you see?87.What sustains you on a daily basis?88.What are your top five personal values?89.Why must you love someone enough to let them go?90.Do you ever celebrate the green lights?91.What personal prisons have you built out of fears?92.What one thing have you not done that you really want to do?93.Why are you, you?94.If you haven’t achieved it yet what do you have to lose?95.What three words would you use to describe the last three months of your life?96.Is it ever right to do the wrong thing? Is it ever wrong to do the right thing?97.How would you describe ‘freedom’ in your own words?98.What is the most important thing you could do right now in your personal life?99.If you could ask one person, alive or dead, only one question, who would you ask and what would you ask? 100.If happiness was the national currency, what kind of work would make you rich?101.What is your number one goal for the next six months?102.Would you ever give up your life to save someone else?103.Are you happy with yourself?104.What is the meaning of ‘peace’ to you?105.What are three moral rules you will never break?106.What does it mean to allow another person to truly love you?107.Who or what do you think of when you think of love?108.If your life was a novel, what would be the title and how would your story end?109.What would you not give up for $1,000,000 in cash?110.When do you feel most like yourself?111.When you help someone do you ever think, “What’s in it for me?”112.What is your greatest challenge?113.How do you know when it’s time to continue holding on or time to let go?114.How do you define success?115.If someone could tell you the exact day and time you are going to die, would you want them to tell you?116.If I could grant you one wish what would you wish for?117.What have you read online recently that inspired you?118.Why do religions that advocate unity divide the human race?119.If you could live one day of your life over again, what day would you choose?120.What can money not buy?121.If you left this life tomorrow, how would you be remembered?122.Beyond the titles that others have given you, who are you?123.If you could live the next 24 hours and then erase it and start over just once, what would you do? 124.Is it possible to know the truth without challenging it first?125.What word best describes the way you’ve spent the last month of your life?126.What makes everyone smile?127.What do you owe yourself?128.What would your ‘priceless’ MasterCard-style commercial be?129.Can you think of a time when impossible became possible?130.Why do you matter?131.How have you changed in the last five years?132.What are you sure of in your life?133.When you think of ‘home,’ what, sp ecifically, do you think of?134.What’s the difference between settling for things and accepting the way things are?135.How many of your friends would you trust with your life?136.What’s your definition of heaven?137.What is your most prized possession?138.How would you describe yourself in one sentence?139.What stands between you and happiness?140.What makes a person beautiful?141.Is there ever a time when giving up makes sense?142.What makes you proud?143.How do you find the strength to do what you know in your heart is right?144.Where do you find peace?145.When have you worked hard and loved every minute of it?146.How short would your life have to be before you would start living differently today?147.Is it better to have loved and lost or to have never loved at all?148.What would you do if you made a mistake and somebody died?149.Who do you trust and why?150.If you were forced to eliminate every physical possession from your life with the exception of what could fit into a single backpack, what would you put in it?151.When does silence convey more meaning than words?152.How do you spend the majority of your free time?153.Who do you think of first when you think of ‘success?’154.What did you want to be when you grew up?155.How will today matter in five years from now?156.How have you helped someone else recently?157.What is your greatest skill?158.Do you see to believe or believe to see?159.How are you pursuing your dreams right now?160.What’s the next big step you need to take?161.If today was the last day of your life, would you want to do what you are about to do today? 162.If today was the last day of your life, who would you call and what would you tell them?163.Who do you dream about?164.What do you have trouble seeing clearly in your mind?165.What are you looking forward to?166.What is the number one thing you want to accomplish before you die?167.When is love a weakness?168.What has been the most terrifying moment of your life thus far?169.Who is the strongest person you know?170.If you could take a single photograph of your life, what would it look like?171.Is the reward worth the risk?172.For you personally, what makes today worth living?173.What have you done in the last year that makes you proud?174.What did you learn recently that changed the way you live?175.What is your fondest memory from the past three years?176.What are the primary components of a happy life?177.How would the world be different if you were never born?178.What is your favorite song and why?179.With the resources you have right now, what can you do to bring yourself closer to your goal? 180.What are your top three priorities?181.Why do we idolize sports players?182.What is the nicest thing someone has ever done for you?183.What do you see when you look into the future?184.What makes you angry? Why?185.What is the most valuable life lesson you learned from your parents?186.What does love feel like?187.What are your favorite simple pleasures?188.If you could go back in time and tell a younger version of yourself one thing, what would you tell? 189.What do you do to deliberately impress others?190.What will you never do?191.Excluding romantic relationships, who do you love?192.What is your earliest childhood memory?193.What book has had the greatest influence on your life?194.What three questions do you wish you knew the answers to?195.What is the greatest peer pressure you’ve ever felt?196.What’s the biggest lie you once believed was true?197.In your lifetime, what have you done that hurt someone else?198.What’s the best part of growing older?199.What’s been on your mind most lately?200.What do you think is worth waiting for?201.What chances do you wish you had taken?202.Where else would you like to live? Why?203.What motivates you to go to work each day?204.What do you wish you had done differently?205.What is your greatest strength and your greatest weakness?206.When was the last time you lied? What did you lie about?207.What made you smile this week?208.What do you do with the majority of your money?209.What motivates you to be your best?210.When was the last time you lost your temper? About what?211.What will you never give up on?212.When you look into the past, what do you miss the most?213.How would you describe the past year of your life in one sentence?214.What is th e most spontaneous thing you’ve ever done?215.What makes you uncomfortable?216.If you had to move 3000 miles away, what one thing would you miss the most?217.What worries you about the future?218.What one ‘need’ and one ‘want’ will you strive to achieve in the next tw elve months?219.What life lessons did you have to experience firsthand before you fully understood them?220.Do you like the city or town you live in? Why or why not?221.What’s the best part of being you?222.When you look back over the past month, what single moment stands out?223.What do you do to relieve stress?224.What is your happiest memory?225.What is your saddest memory?226.What would you like to change?227.How many people do you love?228.What’s the best decision you’ve ever made?229.What’s your favorite true story that you enjoy s haring with others?230.Right now, at this moment, what do you want most?231.What are you waiting for? How are you writing your life’s story?232.What makes love last?233.What good comes from suffering?234.What’s the most important lesson you’ve learned in the last year?235.Based on you current daily actions and routines, where would you expect to be in five years? 236.What was your last major accomplishment?237.Through all of life’s twists and turns who has been there for you?238.What or who has been distracting you?239.What are you looking forward to in the upcoming week?240.Who is your mentor and what have you learned from them?241.What are you uncertain about?242.What do you think about when you lie awake in bed?243.What’s something most people don’t know about you?244.When you have a random hour of free time, what do you usually do?245.What makes you weird?246.If you could relive yesterday what would you do differently?247.What do you do over and over again that you hate doing?248.Would you rather your child be less attractive and extremely intelligent or extremely attractive and less intelligent?249.What white lies do you often tell?250.What is the biggest change you have made in your life in the last year?251.What do you understand today about your life that you did not understand a year ago?252.Whose life have you had the greatest impact on?253.What did life teach you yesterday?254.Who impresses you?255.What have you done that you are not proud of?256.When should you reveal a secret that you promised you wouldn’t reveal?257.How would you spend your ideal day?258.What is the one primary quality you look for in a significant other?259.What do you admire most about your mother and father?260.What is the best advice you have ever received?261.If you could live forever, would you want to? Why?262.If you had to be someone else for one day, who would you be and why?263.What positive changes have you made in your life recently?264.Who makes you feel good about yourself?265.What is your biggest regret?266.Which one of your responsibilities do you wish you could get rid of?267.What’s something you don’t like to do that you are still really good at?268.What type of person angers you the most?269.What is missing in your life?270.What is your most striking physical attribute?271.What has fear of failure stopped you from doing?272.Who would you like to please the most?273.If you could go back in time and change things, what would you change about the week that just passed?274.When you meet someone for the very first time what do you want them to think about you? 275.Who would you like to forgive?276.At what point during the last five years have you felt lost and alone?277.What is one opportunity you believe you missed out on when you were younger?278.What do you want more of in your life?279.What do you want less of in your life?280.Who depends on you?281.Who has had the greatest impact on your life?282.Are you happy with where you are in your life? Why?283.In one year from today, how do you think your life will be different?284.How have you sabotaged yourself in the past five years?285.Other than money, what else have you gained from your current job?286.Whom do you secretly envy? Why?287.In twenty years, what do you want to remember?288.What are you most excited about in your life right now – today?289.What experience from this past year do you appreciate the most?290.What is the most enjoyable thing your family has done together in the last three years?291.How many hours of television do you watch in a week? A month? A year?292.What is the biggest obstacle that stands in your way right now?293.What do you sometimes pretend you understand that you really don’t?294.What do you like most about your job? What do you dislike most about your job?295.What’s something new you recently learned about yourself?296.In one sentence, how would you describe your relationship with your mother?297.What was the most defining moment in your life during this past year?298.What’s the number o ne change you need to make in your life in the next twelve months? 299.What makes you feel secure?300.What is your favorite sound?301.What are the top three qualities you look for in a friend?302.What simple gesture have you recently witnessed that renewed your hope in humanity?303.What is your favorite smell?304.What recent memory makes you smile the most?305.In one word, how would you describe your childhood?306.What celebrities do you admire? Why?307.What is the number one motivator in your life right now?308.What music do you listen to to lift your spirits when you’re feeling down?309.If I gave you $1000 and told you that you had to spend it today, what would you buy? 310.What was the last thing that made you laugh out loud?311.What is your biggest pet peeve?312.Who was th e last person you said “I love you” to?313.What is your biggest phobia?314.What are some recent compliments you’ve received?315.How many friends do you have in real life that you talk to regularly?316.How much money per month is enough for you to live comfortably?317.When was your first impression of someone totally wrong?318.How many hours a week do you spend online?319.What do you love to do?320.What specific character trait do you want to be known for?321.Are you more like your mom or your dad? In what way?322.What is the number one quality that makes someone a good leader?323.What bad habits do you want to break?324.What is your favorite place on Earth?325.What do you love to practice?326.What questions do you often ask yourself?327.What are you an expert at?328.How would an extra $1000 a month change your life?329.What things in life should always be free?330.What is your favorite time of the year?331.What is something you have always wanted since you were a kid?332.What is the most recent dream you remember having while sleeping?333.What confuses you?334.In what way are you your own worst enemy?335.When did you not speak up when you should have?336.What is your favorite quote?337.What is your favorite fictional story? (novel, movie, fairytale, etc.)338.Where or who do you turn to when you need good advice?339.What artistic medium do you use to express yourself?340.Who or what is the greatest enemy of mankind?341.What’s something you wish you had done earlier in life?342.What is the closest you have ever come to fearing for your life?343.How do you deal with isolation and loneliness?344.What do you know well enough to teach to others?345.What’s a quick decision you once made that changed your life?346.What have you lost interest in recently?347.What makes life easier?348.What was the last thing you furiously argued about with someone?349.What job would you never do no matter how much it paid?350.What is the number one solution to healing the world?351.What could society do without?352.What stresses you out?353.Now that it’s behind you, what did you do last week that was memorable?354.Where do you spend most of your time while you’re awake?355.What makes someone a hero?356.When in your life have you been a victim of stereotyping?357.When was the last time you felt lucky?358.When did you first realize that life is short?359.What is the most insensitive thing a person can do?360.What can someone do to grab your attention?361.What do you usually think about on your drive home from work?362.What’s one downside of the modern day world?363.What simple fact do you wish more people understood? 364.If you could do it all over again, would you change anything? 365.How would you describe your future in three words?。
电化学常见问题问答
What is cyclic voltammetry, and why is it so commonly used?In a cyclic voltammetry experiment, as in other controlled potential experiments, a potential is applied to the system, and the faradaic current response is measured (a faradaic current is the current due to a redox reaction). The current response over a range of potentials (a potential window) is measured, starting at an initial value and varying the potential in a linear manner up to a pre-defined limiting value. At this potential (often referred to as a switching potential), the direction of the potential scan is reversed, and the same potential window is scanned in the opposite direction (hence the term cyclic). This means that, for example, species formed by oxidation on the first (forward) scan can be reduced on the second (reverse) scan. This technique is commonly used, since it provides an fast and simple method for initial characterization of a redox-active system. In addition to providing an estimate of the redox potential, it can also provide information about the rate of electron transfer between the electrode and the analyte, and the stability of the analyte in the electrolyzed oxidation states (e.g., do they undergo any chemical reactions).What is potentiostatic control of an electrode?A control voltage is fed into the control input CI. This control voltage forces a current through the counter electrode exactly as high as to achieve the wanted potential difference between working electrode and reference electrode. The control voltage may be produced by the internal potential control source of the potentiostat, or by an external signal generator, e.g. a ramp generator or a sine wave generator. While for a constant potential the internal potential control source is sufficient, time-dependent signals are to be fed from external sources (except our scanning potentiostats that also have built-in voltage scanners).Figure: Scheme of thepotentiostatic controlloop. RE Referenceelectrode, WE workingelectrode, CE counterelectrode, CI controlinputWhy are the peaks in a cyclic voltammogram asymmetric (tailed)?The asymmetry is due to the diffusion of analyte from the bulk solution to the electrode surface during the experiment. In experiment where the analyte is attached (adsorbed) to the electrode surface, the peaks are symmetric. Actually, even for monolayer modified electrodes the peaks are not symmetrical, unless the system is completely reversible.Why can cyclic voltammograms of the same system look inverted when done by different groups?This is due to the existence of different conventions for plotting current and potential. For any voltammogram, current is plotted along the y-axis, and potential along the x-axis. In one convention (called classical or polarographic), potentials become more negative along the (positive) x-axis, and reduction (cathodic) currents are positive. In the other convention (IUPAC), the opposite is applies. If you don't want problems with your papers, you have to use the IUPAC convention: anodic current is positive and positive potentials are right-hand plotted.What are the characteristic parameters of a cyclic voltammogram?The parameters of a cyclic voltammogram are the peak potential and the peak current (the peak width at half the peak current is also sometimes measured). Since there are two peaks associated with a redox reaction (one on the forward scan and one on the reverse scan), it is standard practice to quote the difference of the peak potentials and the ratio of the peak currents.How can I measure a redox potential from a cyclic voltammogram?For a reversible system, it is common to quote the mean of the peak potentials as the redox potential. If the diffusion coefficients of the oxidized and reduced species are similar, this is a good approximation to the formal redox potential. If the system is irreversible, the approximation is not valid, particularly if there is only one peak.What is meant by reversible?For a redox reaction to be reversible, the concentrations of the oxidized and reduced species at the electrode surface must be maintained at the values required by the Nernst equation. In practical terms, a redox reaction is reversible if the rate of electron transfer is fast relativeto the scan rate (the rate of change of potential) and if the oxidized and reduced species are stable on the experimental time scale (i.e., they do not undergo any significant chemical reactions).How can we tell from a cyclic voltammogram whether the system is reversible or irreversible?One advantage of cyclic voltammetry is that it is relatively easy to see from a cyclic voltammogram whether a system is reversible. The peak potential difference for a reversible system is about 60 - 70 mV (the theoretical value is about 58–59 mV, depending on the temperature and the switching potential), and the peak currents are equal. In addition, the peak potential difference does not change with scan rate. If the electron transfer kinetics are slow, the peak potential separation is larger, and increases with increasing scan rate. It should be noted that this behavior is also characteristic of uncompensated solution resistance; the two causes can be distinguished by running cyclic voltammograms at different analyte concentrations. If the redox reaction is coupled to chemical reactions, both the peak currents and peak potentials can be affected. For example, if there is a chemical reaction following the electron transfer reaction, the peak current on the reverse scan is decreased.Why are different scan rates used?The reversibility of a system (i.e., the effect of electron transfer kinetics and coupled chemical reactions) depends upon the time scale of the experiment, which is determined by the scan rate. Therefore, for example, increasing the scan rate can decrease the effect of a coupled chemical reaction, since the reaction has less time to occur. Reversibility can also vary with temperature.Can I obtain electron transfer and chemical reaction rate constants directly from a cyclic voltammogram?This is possible for very simple redox mechanisms. However, for more complicated mechanisms, it is generally not possible to separate the effects of different variables. For such systems, simulation software (e.g., DigiSim) has to be used, where the user proposes a mechanism, and the PC calculates what the cyclic voltammogram should look like.Why my cyclic voltammogram particularly at a slow potential scanrate has some oscillations?This is not actually noise, but raise instability of thecell/potentiostate system. Such instability results from several reasons related to your reference electrode (mainly from too high resistance of the reference). The links below describe some methods of troubleshooting for this problem. If you find these explanations too complicated, just try to decrease resistance between the working and reference electrodes. It should help.The current is directly proportional to the rate of electrolysis at the electrode surface. Electrolysis occurs at the electrode surface in response to a change in potential in order to try and maintain the surface concentrations of the oxidized and reduced species at the values required by the Nernst equation. Therefore, the faster the rate of change of potential (i.e., the scan rate), the faster the rate of electrolysis, and hence the larger the current.How is the redox potential related to the HOMO and LUMO frontier orbitals?In a reduction process, an electron is added to the LUMO (Lowest Unoccupied Molecular Orbital), and whereas in an oxidation process, an electron is removed from the HOMO (Highest Occupied Molecule Orbital). Therefore, there should be a correlation between changes in the frontier orbitals and redox potentials due to changes in substitutents.What is charging current, and why is it so important?The interface between the electrolyte and the working electrode acts like a capacitor. Therefore, a current is required to change the potential applied to the working electrode, and this is referred to as the charging current. Since the potential in a cyclic voltammetry experiment is constantly changing, there is an (approximately) constant charging current throughout the experiment that makes a major contribution to the background current. This charging current restricts the detection limit for cyclic voltammetry to about 10-5 M, which limits its value as a technique for quantitative concentration measurements. In addition, the charging current directly proportional to the scan rate, whereas the peak current is proportional to the square root of the scan rate. Therefore, the charging current also limits the maximum scan rate that can be used.How can charging current be minimized?Charging current is minimized using a potential step; that is, the potential is stepped from an initial value to a new value, and it is held at this new value for a set time period. There is a charging current spike following the initial potential step; however, since there is no further change, the charging current decays exponentially. Since the faradaic current decays more slowly (e.g., with 1/(square root of time) for a diffusion-controlled process), the charging current can be eliminated by measuring the current after the charging current has decayed to zero. This is the basis of pulse and square wave techniques. Phase-selective and second harmonic phase-selective AC voltammetry can also be used to decrease or eliminate charging current.How do pulse techniques and potential step techniques (e.g., chronoamperometry and chroncoulometry) differ?They differ in the size of the potential step. For chronoamperometry and chronocoulometry, the potential step can be up to several hundred mV; that is, the potential window of the experiment is defined by the potential step. For pulse (and square wave) techniques, the magnitude of the potential step (or potential pulse) is much smaller (typically 25 – 50 mV). These potential pulses are combined with a linear or staircase wave form in order to scan the potential range. Different pulse technique use different combinations of linear and pulse wave forms, and different current sampling protocols.What detection limits are possible with pulse or square wave techniques?Different pulse techniques decrease the charging current to different extents, and hence the detection limits differ. The lowest detection limits (10-7–10-8M) are obtained using differential pulse voltammetry and Osteryoung square wave voltammetry, and therefore these techniques are most commonly used for quantitative concentration measurements (using either a calibration curve or the method of standard additions).What are stripping techniques?In a stripping experiment, the analyte is preconcentrated in the working electrode or on the surface of the working electrode. Therefore, the concentration of the analyte is higher at the working electrode than inthe bulk solution. This concentration is measured by electrolyzing the analyte (stripping) from the electrode. Provided that the relationship between the electrode concentration and the solution concentration is constant, stripping techniques can be routinely used for quantitative measurement down to low parts-per-billion (ppb) concentrations.What is electrochemical impedance spectroscopy (EIS)?In a controlled-potential EIS experiment, the system is held at equilibrium at a fixed DC potential, and a small amplitude (5–10 mV) AC wave form is superimposed on the DC potential. The response of the system to this perturbation from equilibrium is measured in terms of the impedance Z of the system. The frequency of the AC wave form is varied, and hence the impedance of the system is obtained as a function of frequency.What is imaginary impedance?Since an AC potential is applied to the cell, there will probably be a phase shift between the applied AC potential and the AC current response. Therefore, the impedance can be represented using a vector diagram displaying the in-phase (Z') and out-of-phase (Z") impedances, the total impedance, and the phase angle. Since complex number terminology is also used when analyzing impedance spectra, the in-phase and out-of-phase impedances are often referred to as real and imaginary impedances.What are the Nyquist and Bode plots?The Nyquist plots displays the imaginary impedance vs. real impedance (Z" vs. Z') at each frequency (the positive y-axis generally correspond to -Z"). The Bode plots displays both the logarithm of the total impedance and the phase angle as a function of the logarithm of the frequency. Although the Nyquist plots is more commonly displayed for historical reasons, the data in a Nyquist plot is often poorly resolved (particularly at high frequencies), and the explicit frequency dependence is not displayed. In contrast, the Bode plot directly displays the frequency dependence; in addition, the data is well resolved at all frequencies, since a logarithmic frequency scale is used.What factors contribute to the impedance of a system?The total impedance of a system is determined by the impedances of the various components of the electrochemical cell; for example, electron transfer kinetics, diffusion, passivating layers, etc. The relative contributions of the various components typically varies with frequency; for example, electron transfer kinetics may dominate at high frequencies, whereas diffusion may dominate at lower frequencies. Measuring over a wide frequency range allows processes with different time scales to be detected within the same experiment.How is quantitative data obtained from EIS?One common method is based on the principle of equivalent circuit; that is, the various cell components can be modeled using electronic components (e.g., a resistor for electron transfer kinetics and solution resistance, and a capacitor for the interfacial (double layer) capacitance), and an electronic circuit can be built that gives the same impedance spectrum as the electrochemical cell. When using this approach, it is important that each equivalent circuit element corresponds to a component of the electrochemical cell, otherwise the equivalent circuit has no meaning.Most electrochemical cells I've seen have only two electrodes. Why do I need 3 electrodes for cyclic voltammetry and related techniques?All electrochemical cells require at least two electrodes, since the potential of a given electrode can only be measured relative to another electrode, the potential of which must be constant (a reference electrode). In potentiometric measurements (such as measurement of pH), there is no current through the cell, and these two electrodes are sufficient (it should be noted that many pH and ion-selective electrodes used in potentiometric measurements are combination electrodes – both electrodes are contained within the same body). However, in a cyclic voltammetry experiment, an external potential is applied to the cell, and the current response is measured. Precise control of the external applied potential is required, but this is not possible with a two electrode system, due to the potential drop across the cell due to the solution resistance (potential drop (E) = current (i) x solution resistance (R)) and polarization of the counter electrode that is required to complete the current measuring circuit. Better potential control is achieved using a potentiostat and a three electrode system, in which the potential of one electrode (the working electrode) is controlled relative to the reference electrode, and the current passes between the working electrode and the third electrode (the auxiliary electrode).What are the requirements for a working electrode material, and which material should I choose?A working electrode acts as a source or sink of electrons for exchange with molecules in the interfacial region (the solution adjacent to the electrode surface), and must also be an electronic conductor. They must also be electrochemically inert (i.e., do not generate a current in response to an applied potential) over a wide potential range (the potential window). Commonly used working electrode materials for cyclic voltammetry include platinum, gold, mercury, and glassy carbon. Other materials (e.g., semi-conductors, for example ITO, indium-tin oxide, and other metals) are also used, for more specific applications. The choice of material depends upon the potential window required (e.g., mercury can only be used for negative potentials, due to oxidation of mercury at more positive potentials), as well as the rate of electron transfer (slow electron transfer kinetics can affect the reversibility of redox behavior of the system under study). The rate of electron transfer can vary considerably from one material to another, even for the same analyte, due to, for example, catalytic interactions between the analyte and active species on the electrode surface. For example, most of quinones show irreversible electrochemical reduction in aqueous solutions at gold and platinum electrodes, however, the same quinones demonstrate perfectly reversible cyclic voltammograms at a mercury electrode.Is there a difference between glassy carbon and pyrolytic graphite?Glassy carbon is an amorphous form of carbon, whereas pyrolytic graphite has a more ordered structure, with distinct planes - the basal plane and the edge plane. The edge plane is considerably more conducting than the basal plane. Glassy carbon is mechanically more durable than pyrolytic graphite. The difference is much more important if you need to modify the carbon electrode surface. The glassy carbon electrode surface is oxidized and has many functional groups (mainly carboxylic functions) that allows easy covalent modification of the surface. The basal plane of a pyrolytic graphite electrode is highly hydrophobic and has no functional groups. It could be modified by adsorption of polyaromatic units. The edge plane of a pyrolytic graphite electrode has functional groups like the glassy carbon electrode (usually smaller amount) and can be covalently modified in the same way as a glassy carbon electrode.Do I need to clean the surface of the working electrode between experiments, and, if so,how?If material adsorbs to the surface of a working electrode, then the current response will degrade, and the electrode surface needs to be cleaned. Such adsorption occurs more readily for some analytes than for other, and hence the required cleaning frequency varies. In many cases, the only cleaning required is light polishing with a fine polish, such as 1 mm diamond, or 0.05 mm alumina. A few drops of polish are placed on a polishing pad (brown Texmet for alumina, and white nylon for diamond), and the electrode is held vertically and rubbed on the polish in a figure of eight pattern for 30 seconds to a few minutes (depending upon the condition of the electrode surface). After polishing, the electrode surface is rinsed thoroughly with water (for alumina) or methanol (for diamond), and allowed to air dry (electrodes polished with alumina may also need to be sonicated in distilled water for a few minutes to remove any residual alumina particles). The choice of polish depends upon the analyte and the electrode – use the polishing method that gives the best results (i.e., reproducible current response) for a given system. More pronounced surface defects (e.g., a scratch) may need to be polished with a more coarse polish. Once the defect has been removed, the electrode must then be polished with successively finer polish to obtain a mirror-like surface. Electrochemical cleaning (applying large anodic or cathodic potentials to the electrode) has also been shown to be effective in some instances. Much more seriuos cleaning is required if the electrode surface has been modified with some materials. Each kind of the modification requires a special cleaning procedure.What applications are mercury drop electrodes used for, and what special requirement are needs for such electrodes?Mercury drop electrodes have two major advantages over solid electrode materials such as platinum and glassy carbon:a) a more reproducible surfaceb) more negative potentials can be attained in aqueous systemsc) amalgamation with heavy metals (e.g., lead and cadmium)Therefore, mercury drop electrodes are used for determination of trace metals using stripping voltammetry (where reproducibility is critical) and measurements at negative potentials in aqueous systems. Mercury drop electrodes consists of a mercury drop at the end of the capillary. The other end of the capillary is attached to a reservoir of mercury, and control of the flow of mercury from the reservoir is controlled by a valve.The simplest mercury electrode is the Dropping Mercury Electrode (DME), for which the valve is held open throughout the experiment. The mercury drop is therefore dynamic, growing to a certain size before falling of the capillary under its own weight (the drop can also be displaced at set time intervals using a drop knocker). An alternative mercury electrode is the Static Mercury Drop Electrode (SMDE), for which the valve is held open for a set length of time. The size of the mercury drop generated is constant once the valve is closed. The drop is displaced using a drop knocker. In the Controlled Growth Mercury Electrode (CGME), which is only available from BAS, the drop is grown incrementally, using a user-defined series of valve openings. The timing of the valve openings and drop knocks for the SMDE and CGME, and their coordination with changes in the applied potential and the current measurement require microprocessor control. An electrochemical experiment can use one mercury drop (a Hanging Mercury Drop Electrode – HMDE) (e.g., stripping experiments) or a series of mercury drops coordinated with potential pulses (e.g., pulse polarographic experiments).What are the pros and cons of mercury drop electrodes and mercury film electrodes for stripping voltammetry?Mercury film electrodes consists of a thin "film" of mercury deposited on an electrode surface (typically glassy carbon) by reduction of a mercury(II) salt in solution. It can be difficult to obtain a reproducible film, and this can affect the reproducibility of the results, particularly when compared to the reproducibility obtained using a mercury drop electrode. However, the surface area/volume ratio is larger for the mercury film electrode, and this electrode is more stable, which allows a faster stirring rate to be used in the deposition step. Both these factors decrease the deposition time required for the mercury film electrode. In addition, the resolution for adjacent peaks is better for the mercury film electrodes, due to sharper peaks.Does the size of my working electrode matter?The standard working electrodes for voltammetry are a disk with a diameter of 1.6 – 3 mm or a wire 0.5 mm diameter and ca. 20 mm length. Decreasing the size of the electrode to micron dimensions (microelectrodes) decreases the iR drop at the electrode, decreases the electrode capacitance (which allows a faster scan rate to be used for cyclic voltammetry), and changes the diffusion to the electrode surface from linear to radial.What properties are required for a reference electrode?The major requirement for a reference electrode is that the potential does not change with time. Since the passage of current through an electrode can alter the potential, such effects are minimized for the reference electrode in the three electrode system by a) having a high input impedance for the reference electrode (thereby decreasing the current passing through the reference electrode to negligible levels) and b) using a non-polarizable electrode as the reference electrode (i.e., the passage of small currents does not alter the potential).What are the differences between the silver/silver chloride reference electrode and the saturated calomel reference electrode?These reference electrodes are similar, and consist of a redox reaction between a sparingly soluble chloride) and the metallic element in an aqueous chloride solution. They can be used interchangeably, BUT it is extremely important to specify which is used, since their potentials are different (e.g., the potential of the silver/silver chloride reference electrodes is –35 mV relative to the saturated calomel electrode). Since potential values are relative to the reference electrode, failure to specify the reference electrode makes any quoted potential values meaningless.What are liquid junction potentials, and how do they affect measured potentials?The salt solution required for a reference electrode must be separated from the analyte solution by a frit that allows ionic conduction between the two solutions, but does not allow appreciable contamination of the analyte solution by the reference electrode solution (or vice versa). This frit is usually made of either a ceramic material or of porous polymer membrane. Typically, the solutions separated by the frit do not contain the same ions, and the different rates of diffusion across the frit by the different ions gives rise to a potential across the frit – the junction potential. This is a further contribution to the potential between the working and reference electrodes. Since the junction potential is different for solutions of different ionic compositions, strictly speaking, redox potentials measured in different solutions (e.g., different organic solvents) cannot be compared directly, and an internal standard is required.What factors can affect the potential of a reference electrode?The potential of a reference electrode varies with temperature (typically 0.5 – 1.0 mV/o C). Therefore, precise measurement of redox potentials requires the use of a constant temperature bath for the cell. The potential of the silver/silver chloride and calomel reference electrode are also affected by the concentration of chloride in the electrode solution, which must therefore be maintained at a constant value by proper storage.How do I store reference electrodes?Since the potential of a chloride-containing reference electrode is sensitive to chloride concentration, the electrode must be stored with the frit immersed in a solution that is identical in composition and concentration to the reference electrode solution (e.g., 3 M sodium chloride for the silver/silver chloride reference electrode). Since this solution can corrode the electrode connectors, the electrodes must be stored in a appropriate storage vial that protects the connectors from the solution. When commercial reference electrodes are shipped, the frit is usually covered with plastic to maintain electrode integrity during shipping. This plastic should be carefully removed upon receipt of the electrodes, which should then be stored in the appropriate solution. During shipping, air bubbles can become lodged at the inside of the Vycor tip. These must be dislodged (by flicking the end of the electrode) before the electrode can be used, other wise artefacts (e.g., excessive noise) may be seen in the experimental data.Can I use aqueous reference electrodes for non-aqueous solutions?Aqueous reference electrodes can be used in non-aqueous solutions in many instances, but problems can arise. First, junction potentials can be quite large for non-aqueous solutions, so comparison of redox potentials between aqueous and non-aqueous solutions (and between differentnon-aqueous solutions) requires an internal standard. Second, salts from the electrolyte solutions can precipitate in the frit, leading to increased noise in the current response. For example, if a perchlorate salt is used in the analyte solution, and a potassium solution is used in the reference electrode, potassium perchlorate can precipitate in the frit. This problem could be decreased using sodium chloride insilver/silver chloride reference electrode, since sodium perchlorate is more soluble than potassium perchlorate. Third, since water and chloride ions can diffuse through the frit into the analyte solution (albeit。
题目
Unit1 The country（）1. The United States stretches from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Pacific Ocean in the east.（）2. The Mississippi river is the longest river in the United States.（）3. The Appalachian region is both complicated and varied, containing some of the highest mountains in North America, but also a vast expanse of intermontane basins, plateaus, and isolated ranges.（）4. Western Washington and Oregon receive plenty of rain and central California is noticeably drier in winter.( )5. New England is sometimes called the birthplace of America.( )6. Washington D. C. is located in the Southern States Region.( )7. Many Southerners have a strong sense of regional loyalty and take pride in the South’s history and tradition.( )8. The Midwestern States Region is a vast area of generally flat land that covers much of the center of the United States.( )9. Las Vegas and Reno stand out as “American dreamland”, for they primarily find wealth through the gambling and entertainment industries.( )10. Hawaii has the largest land area of all the states, and Alaska has one of the smallest land areas.1. The United States of America is the ____________ country in the world in size.A. LargestB. second-largestC. third-largestD. fourth-largest2. ____________ extend from the northern tip of Maine southwestern to Alabama.A. The Rocky MountainsB. The Appalachian HighlandsC. The Coast MountainsD. The Blue Mountains3. The climate of the United States is influenced by ____________.A. the Atlantic and Pacific OceansB. the Gulf of MexicoC. the Great LakesD. All of the above4. What is the leading commercial crop of the south?A. Cotton.B. Tobacco.C. Sugar cane.D. Rice.5. What Midwestern city is the automobile capital of the world?A. Chicago.B. Detroit.C. Milwaukee.D. Cleveland.6. One of the most important lakes in the United States is _________, which is the largest fresh water lake in the world.A. Lake SuperiorB. Lake MichiganC. Lake HuronD. Lake Ontario7. New England lies in __________ of the United States.A. the northern partB. the southern partC. the northeastern partD. the southeastern part8. The southern part of the Pacific coast in California has a ___________ climate.A. subtropicalB. continental desertC. maritimeD. Mediterranean9. The smallest state in the United States is ___________.A. WashingtonB. Rhode IslandC. HawaiiD. Maryland10. In the United States, the largest city along the Pacific coast is ___________.A. Los AngelesB. San FranciscoC. SeattleD. PortlandUnit2 History（)1. The first English colony in America was founded at Jamestown, Virginia, in 1607.( )2. The early British settlers organized the east coast of North America into 17 colonies.( )3. When many thousands of Southerners saw the triumph of Abraham Lincoln in the 1860 election as not simply a political defeat but also a threat to all southern institutions and the southern way of life, they decided to secede from the Confederacy.（）4. The Progressive Movement was a well-organized, unified movement, demanding government regulation of economy and social condition.（)5. The Stock Market collapse occurred in 1928 in the United States.( )6. The Marshall Plan refers to the military and economic aid to Greece and Turkey in the 1950s.( )7. Nixon was the second President in American history who resigned.（)8. The black-white racial chasm in post-Civil-Rights-Movement America was highlighted by the savage beating of Martin Luther King by white police officers in 1992.1. The British established 13 colonies along _________.A. the west coast of North AmericaB. the west coast of South AmericaC. the east coast of North AmericaD. the east coast of South America2. In the early 1850s, with the westward movement, the slavery became a serious political issue endangering the unity of the country because _________.A. whether or not slavery would expand into the future states formed as a result of the westward movement would affect the balance of power in the SenateB. the South insisted that slavery should be allowed to spread into all new territoriesC. the North refused to let slavery spread into new territoriesD. the North wanted to put an end to slavery3. The Progressive Movement wanted to ________ in order to stop big business control.A. initiate strict government regulationB. have the government fix pricesC. break up all the big businessesD. do away with rebates4. The 1920s in the United States has been described as a period of ____________ .A. cultural revivalB. loss of purposeC. development in science and technologyD. material success and spiritual frustration5. The serious economic crisis in the late 1920s and 1930s was first brought about by _____________.A. bank failuresB. serious unemploymentC. farm foreclosuresD. the stock market crash6. The purpose of the New Deal measures was to __________.A. save American democracy and the capitalist systemB. check the worsening of the economic situationC. help people tide over the difficultyD. increase American export7. On June 5, 1947, ________ suggested that the U.S. should offer economic aid to Western Europe so as to protect the region from Soviet expansion.A. George MarshallB. Franklin D. RooseveltC. George KennanD. Harry Truman8. At the time of Cuban Missile Crisis, the President of the U.S. was ____________.A. TrumanB. EisenhowerC. KennedyD. Johnson9. New Frontier and Great Society were programs initiated by _______.A. President KennedyB. President JohnsonC. Presidents Kennedy and Johnson respectivelyD. Presidents Johnson and Kennedy respectively10. The conservatism during Reagan’s administration was known as _____________.A. the New LeftB. the New RightC. the New FrontierD. the New FreedomUnit3 The American identity（）1. In the United States, the major source of population growth is the rising birth rate.（）2. In the United States, the largest minority group is the African-American group.（）3. In the United States, the fastest-growing group is the Asian-American group.（）4. Native Americans have a low school dropout rate.（）5. The three major Hispanic groups are the Mexican-Americans, the Puerto Ricans and the Cuban-Americans.（）6. The Puerto Ricans are American citizens.（）7. The first Asians to arrive in the United States in significant numbers were the Japanese.（）8. Today the Indians are only allowed to live on reservations.（）9. Traditionally, the mainstream Americans were called WASP.1.The current situation of African-Americans presents_______.A. a favorable pictureB. a negative pictureC. a mixed pictureD. a positive picture2. Although discrimination has been legally abolished, ________.A. discrimination in employment still existsB. discrimination in university admission still existsC. poverty rate of the blacks is the highest among all racial and ethnic groupsD. inequality and subtle discrimination still exist3. The Cuban-Americans mainly live in ______.A. FloridaB. TexasC. LouisianaD. Alabama4. Some people say Asian-Americans owe their success to the Asian tradition of the following EXCEPT ________.A. familyB. hard workC. educationD. Discrimination5. Now about 80% to 90% of immigration to the UnitedStates is from _______.A. Asian and Hispanic countriesB. African countriesC. European countriesD. Central and South American countries6. The first immigrants in American history came from __________.A. England and the NetherlandsB. IrelandC. West GermanyD. East Europe7. Among the major Hispanic groups in the UnitedStates, the largest group is _______.A. the Puerto RicansB. the Mexican-AmericansC. the Cuban-AmericansD. the Central and South American immigrants8. Among the major Hispanic groups in the UnitedStates, ________ have the highest social status.A. the ChicanosB. the Cuban-AmericansC. the Puerto-RicansD. the Latin American immigrants9. The Native Americans are __________.A. the IndiansB. the whitesC. the blacksD. the HispanicsUnit4 political institutions（）1. The Constitution of the United States, after its adoption, has never been revised.（）2. According to the Constitution, the federal government is responsible for addressing questions that affect the nation as a whole as well as individual states.（）3. Separation of power is designed to prevent the government from being too strong.（）4. The U.S. government is divided into four branches: the legislative, the presidency, the bureaucracy and the judiciary.（）5. The Supreme Court has the right to declare laws and actions of the federal, state, and local governments unconstitutional.（）6. Candidates for the presidency can only be chosen from political parties.（）7. The U.S. President has great executive power but no legislative power.（）8. Congressmen serve a term of six years while Senators serve a term of two years.（）9. The Democrats are thought of as associated with business, Anglo-Americans, and the rich.（）10. The number of Senators from each state is based upon its population.1. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in ________.A. all kinds of casesB. cases involving foreign citizensC. cases involving a stateD. Both B and C2. Political parties are the basis of the American politicalsystem, _________.A. but there is no provision in the Constitution forpolitical partiesB. and the Constitution has clear provisionC. but the founding fathers had strong apprehensionof political partiesD. Both A and C3. The two major parties today have ______differences in policy concentration.A. noB. littleC. someD. Great4. The writers of the Constitution worked out the checks and balances in order to _______.A. prevent the government from misusing its powerB. prevent the government from being strongC. pacify those who opposed the ConstitutionD. meet the demands of small states5. The President of the United States is elected _____.A. indirectly by the electors B by CongressC. directly by the votersD. None of the above.6. U.S. President can serve ________ term(s).A. only oneB. twoC. more than twoD. as many as four7. The U.S. President’s appointments have to beapproved by ________.A. the House of RepresentativesB. the SenateC. the CabinetD. the Supreme Court8. The Supreme Court of the United States consists ofone Chief Justice and ______ Associate Justices.A. 6B. 7C. 8D. 109. The two major political parties in the United Statesare _______.A. the Democratic Party and the Labor PartyB. the Federalist Party and the Democratic PartyC. the Federalist Party and the Republican PartyD. the Democratic Party and the Republican Party10. The U.S. Congress has the power to override thepresident’s veto by a _____ majority.A. 2/3B. 3/4C. 3/5D. 4/5Unit5 Economy（）1. Since the U.S. economy is based on free enterprise, there is little government involvement in the economy.（）2. The United States is the world’s leading maker of industrial goods.（）3. In the 18th century, the New England colonies specialized in producing tobacco from plantations.（）4. While most Americans embraced the idea of money-making and held successful businessmen in great admiration, they resented big businesses monopolizing any industry in any form.（）5. By 1956, a majority of U.S. workers held blue-collar rather than white-collar jobs.（）6. Many urban Americans, particularly Blacks and Hispanics, found the postwar prosperity inaccessible to them.（）7. The American West is now an important region for corn and wheat.（）8. While manufacturing giants such as IBM and General Electronic enjoy worldwide reputation as the pillars of the American economy, the U.S. economy is by no means one dominated by giant corporations.（）9. As the number of workers employed in the traditional manufacturing industries has declined, union membership has dropped in recent years.1. The United States ranks ________ in the world in thetotal value of its economic production.A. firstB. secondC. thirdD. Fourth2. The following are the factors that have contributed tothe development of the U.S. economy EXCEPT__________.A. the vast space and resources of the landB. the ideals of freedom and economic opportunityC. English as its national languageD. hard work by the people3. What is America’s most important food crop?A. Corn.B. Rice.C. BarleyD. Oat.4. Service industries account for more than _________ of the U.S. gross domestic product.A. a thirdB. halfC. two thirdsD. three fourth5. The westward expansion is a demonstration ofAmerican ________.A. IndividualismB. patriotismC. LiberalismD. Expansionism6. Hamilton believed that the United States shouldpursue economic growth through the followingEXCEPT ________.A. shippingB. manufacturingC. bankingD. slavery7. With the arrival of the 20th century, the United Statesbecame increasingly urbanized, particularly in the_________ cities.A. NortheastB. NorthwestC. SoutheastD. Southwest8. The American South is a center of the followingtraditional crops EXCEPT _________.A. tobaccoB. cornC. cottonD. wheat9. As the world’s leading maker of industrial goods, theU.S. now produces around _________ of the world’sindustrial products.A. 20%B. 25%C. 30%D. 35%10. In the United States, the following areas tend tospecialize in high-tech and computer industriesEXCEPT ________.A. NortheastB. MidwestC. NorthwestD. SouthwestUnit6 social service（）1. In the United States, the social security system provides assistance to people with financial problems.（）2. In the United States, Medicare provides virtually free treatment for all American citizens.（）3. Social security is the nearly universal retirement program for Americans, with about 92 percent of people aged 60 and over receiving benefits.（）4. Since 1996, welfare responsibility under AFDC has been passed to the states, which receive federal grants to run their own programs.（）5. The Social Security Administration organizes the distribution of food and food stamps through state and local governments.（）6. Since government-sponsored welfare programs are essential to the needy and the poor, they are quite adequate in confronting the poverty issue.（）7. Child Welfare League of America is the largest privately-funded childcare agency in the United States, providing shelter and service to homeless and runaway youth.（）8. In the United States, most employees and their families are normally insured for health care through public insurance programs.（）9. Medicaid program provides federal grants to states for the free treatment of the elderly.（）10. In the United States, two-thirds of the housing units in the private sector are “single-family dwellings”.1. The American social security system includes thefollowing programs EXCEPT _________.A. OASDHIB. MedicareC. MedicaidD. Unemployment Compensation2. Americans may start receiving their pensions at the age of _________.A. 55B. 60C. 65D. 703. The main federal welfare programs in the USAconsist of the following programs EXCEPT_________.A. MedicaidB. AFDCC. Food StampsD. Medicare4. Which of the following belongs to the religious welfare organization?A. NCH.B. CWLA.C. CCHD. D. Ford Foundation.5. Among private foundations, which has becomeincreasingly prominent in private charity activity?A. Rockefeller Foundation.B. Ford Foundation.C. Buffett Foundation.D. Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation.6. Which of the following statement is NOT true aboutAmerican health care services?A. A sizable number of Americans still remain uninsured.B. The U.S. has top-quality medical facilities.C. Medicaid covers only about 40 percent of the poor nationwide.D. Compared with other developed countries, theUnited States spends less on health care.7. According to the healthcare reform proposed duringthe Obama administration, the government will requiremost Americans to have health insurance by _______.A. 2011B. 2012C. 2013D. 20148. Homes and houses give Americans the followingsense EXCEPT ________.A. possessionB. material satisfactionC. personal identificationD. freedomUnit7 the legal system（）1. The U.S. Constitution defines the organization of a court system, including a Supreme Court and inferior courts.（）2. In the United States, each state has one district court.（）3. District courts are the only national courts that use grand juries and petit juries.（）4. All national courts can review decisions of state courts.（）5. At the national level, government prosecution is the responsibility of the Supreme Court.（）6. The U.S. attorneys are appointed for life terms to the district courts.（）7. Anglo-American Common Law is based on the supposed reasonable person’s view of what is right and fair.（）8. In the United States, all cases should be tried with a jury.（）9. A unanimous decision is needed for a grand jury to make a decision.（）10. Federal crimes are mainly the responsibility of theFederal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).1. There are currently ________ district courts in the United States.A. 52B. 54C. 92D. 942. There are currently _______ courts of appeals in the United States.A. 10B. 11C. 12D. 133. __________ argues cases for the government before the Supreme Court.A. Chief Justice of Supreme CourtB. Attorney GeneralC. Solicitor GeneralD. President of the United States4. District judgeships are filled by the President with the consent of _________.A. Chief Justice of Supreme CourtB. Attorney GeneralC. the SenateD. the House of Representatives5. Generally, the trial jury consists of _______ ordinary citizens.A. 1－6B. 6－12C. 12－23D. 23－306. Generally, the grand jury consists of _______ ordinary citizens.A. 1－6B. 6－12C. 12－23D. 23－307. The Supreme Court consists of a chief justice and _______ associate justices.A. 7B. 8C. 9D. 108. In the United States, people between the ages of _______ are the most inclined age group to commit crimes.A. 11－19B. 19－24C. 24－45D. 45－549. In some urban areas in the United States, murder is the main cause of death among non-White males between the ages of ________.A. 11－19B. 19－24C. 24－45D. 45－5410. As a rule, the implementation of state law is carried out by the police and detectives in the city, and by _______ in rural areas.A. SheriffsB. ConstablesC. MagistratesD. both A and BUnit8 Education（）1. Americans generally hold that everyone is entitled to education.（）2. Americans believe that education is beneficial to individuals and society as a whole.（）3. In the United States, public education at elementary and secondary level is free.（）4. American education system is characterized by diversity.（）5. According to the U.S. Constitution, education is the responsibility of the federal government.（）6. There is little similarity in the education system of the 50 states.（）7. The state board of education is responsible for the education policy of the state.（）8. The oldest institution of higher learning in the United States is Harvard University.（）9. Junior colleges offer only B.A. degrees.（）10. The affirmative action program aims to help ethnic and racial minorities in elementary and secondary education.1. To many Americans, education is important because _____________.A. it contributes to the success of individualsB. it contributes to the strengthening of national strengthC. it prepares the young people for future developmentD. Both A and B2. In the United States, public schools at the elementary and secondary level are______________.A. freeB. compulsoryC. open to allD. Both A and C3. American schools fall into two categories, namely, _______________.A. public and private schoolsB. academic and vocational schoolsC. coeducation and single sex schoolsD. national and state-run schools4. In the United States, education policies are made by ______________.A. the federal governmentB. the state board of educationC. local school districtD. board of trustees5. The governing board of school district is responsible for _______________.A. the hiring of teachers and staffB. the designing of a suitable curriculumC. the compiling and approving of budgetD. All of the above6. There is _______________ difference(s) in tuition rates between public and private institutions of higher learning in the U.S.A. noB. significantC. SomeD. not much7. The community college _______________.A. offers bachelor degreesB. offers associate degreesC. offers master degreesD. Both A and B8. Elementary and secondary education in the U.S. covers _______ years.A. 9B. 11C. 12D. 149. Admission to an educational institution in the U. S. is determined by ______________.A. the institution itselfB. the state board of educationC. the local authorityD. the federal government10. The following are the public policies and legal decisions emphasizing special rights for ethnic and linguistic minorities in the area of education EXCEPT _______________.A. Bilingual Education ActB. Proposition 227C. affirmative action programD. No Child Left Behind ActUnit9 Religion in American life（）1. In comparison with other Western countries, America is less religious in terms of church attendance and financial commitment to church organizations.（）2. At the time when the United States was founded, it was the Catholic branch of the Christian faith that had the strongest influence on the development of the religious climate in the United States.（）3. The Pilgrims tried to create a community in which life would be guided by God’s will and deviations from His will in any shape or form would never be tolerated.（）4. America became “the Kingdom of God”by the end of the 17th century.（）5. In the 19th century, Americans stopped talking about the importance of religious values for their national identity.（）6. According to the U.S. Constitution, church and state are separate in their role and function.（）7. Historically, church and state in the United States has never interacted to each other.（）8. A growing trend in American religious life is that religion has become increasingly secularized.（）9. In the United States, mainstream Protestant denominations have lost ground to Catholic denominations.（）10. Post-war Evangelism has attempted to use its influence to restore some sense of community in a society.1. The Catholic faith was first brought to the North American continent by ______________.A. the PortugueseB. the EnglishC. the FrenchD. the Spanish2. The great waves of Jewish immigration started in ______________ and made the United States a major center of Judaism.A. 1836B. 1863C. 1936D. 19633. By the end of the 17th century, ______________ had already begun to lose its energies.A. ProtestantismB. CatholicismC. PuritanismD. Judaism4. The First Great Awakening of ______________ provided the opportunity for a fresh reaffirmation of God’s role in directing the fortunes of His chosen people.A. the 17th centuryB. the 18th centuryC. the 19th centuryD. the 20th century5. The Second Great Awakening of ______________ exerted a profound impact both on the scale of church membership and on the range of American sectarianism.A. the 17th centuryB. the 18th centuryC. the 19th centuryD. the 20th century6. The _______________ Amendment of Constitution states that “Congress shall make no law respecting the establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof.”A. FirstB. SecondC. TenthD. Twentieth7. Which of the following minority religions is deemed by the mainstream religion to advocate or practice kinds of beliefs against the public interest?A. Islam.B. Hinduism.C. Mormonism.D. Zenism.8. The following mainstream Protestant denominations have recently witnessed significant loss of members EXCEPT ________________.A. MethodistsB. EpiscopaliansC. PresbyteriansD. Evangelistsv9. Post-war Evangelicalism has made effective use of __________ to reach massive audiences.A. telephoneB. musicC. televisionD. Movies10. Which of the following contemporary religious groups is relying upon big rallies to draw Christian men together?A. “Saved”Christians.B. Fundamentalists.C. Promise Keepers.D. Seventh-Day Adventists.Unit10 Private life in American（）1. Most Americans have an ambition to own their own house on a little piece of property, but it’s difficult for them to have that ambition materialized.（０2. After the arrival of the so-called post-industrial society, Americans started to moveto the city.（）3. Most Americans live in mobile homes which function as prefabricated housing units in stationary settings.（）4. Many poor American families expect their children to find part-time jobs, especially as they enter their teens.（）5. Parties for children and for grown-ups are constantly occupying the leisure hours of Americans.（）6. In the United States, high-brow arts get most of the financial backing from the government.（）7. In the United States, popular culture outshines classical culture in audience size and in public influence.（）8. Today’s preeminent spectator game in America is baseball.（）9. American football was derived from the British game of soccer.（）10. Baseball is adapted by the Americans from the English cricket to their own tastes.1. For most Americans, one of the first activities at home is to _______________.A. watch TVB. do repair workC. surf on the InternetD. drink coffee2. The following are “chores”assigned to the children in American families EXCEPT ________________.A. washing and waxing floorsB. mowing the lawnC. keeping the car(s) cleanD. Babysitting3. The following are part-time jobs expected to be done by American children EXCEPT _________.A. mowing lawnsB. delivering newspapersC. taxi drivingD. Babysitting4. The following are the leisure activities outside the home for American adults EXCEPT ___________. A. playing bowling B. playing soccerC. attending public service activitiesD. attending church-related activities5. The following are the leisure activities outside the home for American children EXCEPT ________.A. taking lessonsB. traveling overseasC. horseback ridingD. Swimming6. One out of every ______ Americans donates some part of their time as volunteers.A. 3B. 4C. 5D. 67. The following belong to high-brow culture EXCEPT ___________.A. classical musicB. BalletC. operaD. Movies8. The following remain high on the domestic vocational destination list in the minds of most Americans EXCEPT ________________.A. Walt Disney WorldB. New YorkC. the Yellowstone National ParkD. the Grand Canyon9. The following are the “four major sports”in the United States EXCEPT _______________.A. basketballB. footballC. baseballD. Volleyball10. The Super Bowl is a game for _______________.A. basketballB. footballC. baseballD. volleyball。