年全国统一高考英语试卷(全国卷1)(最新整理)

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2024年全国统一高考英语试卷(新课标Ⅰ卷)含答案

2024年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新课标Ⅰ卷）英语（适用省份：福建、湖南、湖北、河北、广东、山东、江苏、江西、河南、安徽）第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt？A. £19. 15.B. £9. 18.C. £9. 15.答案是C。

1. What is Kate doing？A. Boarding a flight.B. Arranging a trip.C. Seeing a friend off.2. What are the speakers talking about？A. A pop star.B. An old song.C. A radio program.3. What will the speakers do today？A. Go to an art show.B. Meet the man's aunt.C. Eat out with Mark.4. What does the man want to do？A. Cancel an order.B. Ask for a receipt.C. Reschedule a delivery.5. When will the next train to Bedford leave？A. At 9：45.B. At 10：15.C. At 11：00.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

2022年全国统一高考英语卷(新高考Ⅰ卷)含答案解析

绝密★启用前2022年全国统一高考英语试卷（新高考Ⅰ）副标题学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________ 注意事项:1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。

回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在试卷上无效。

3.考试结束后，本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第I 卷（选择题）一、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，共37.5分）AGrading Policies for Introduction to Literature Grading Scale 90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E. Essays (60%）Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%. Group Assignments （30%）Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework （10%）Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previousclass' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.1. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.2. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.3. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us,I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste.The arugula（芝麻菜）was to make a nice green salad,rounding out a roast chicken dinner.But I ended up working late.Then friends called with a dinner invitation.I stuck the chicken in the freezer.But as days passed,the arugula went bad.Even worse,I had unthinkingly bought way too much；I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry,"food waste goes against the moral grain,"as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story.It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away - from "ugly"（but quite eatable）vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water,fuel,and other resources used to grow it.That makes food waste an environmental problem.In fact,Royte writes,"if food waste were a country,it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If that's hard to understand,let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator.Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time - but for him,it's more like 12 boxesof donated strawberries nearing their last days.Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen inWashington.D.C.，which recovers food and turns it into healthy st year it recovered more than 807，500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished（有瑕疵的）produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields.And the strawberries？Volunteers will wash,cut,and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious,yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste,whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat." Curtin says.4. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story？______A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.5. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text？______A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.6. What does Curtin's company do？______A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.7. What does Curtin suggest people do？______A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents（居民）in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity（慈善组织）to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing.It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia,a serious illness of the mind.Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier.She said："I used to keephens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went toschool.""I like the project a lot.I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed.""It's good to have a different focus.People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them.I'm enjoying the creative activities,and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East,and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson,extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street,one of the first to embark on the project, said："Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions.We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis,director of Notting Hill Pathways,said："We are happy to be taking part in the project.It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."8. What is the purpose of the project？______A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.9. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier______A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.10. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7？______A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.11. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs？______A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2，000 different sounds,from the common "m" and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages.But why are certain sounds more common than others？A ground-breaking,five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.More than 30 years ago,the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals,such as "f" and "v"，were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods.Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University ofZurich,Switzerland,has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned（对齐），making it hard to produce labiodentals,which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper ter,our jaws changed to an overbite structure（结构），making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period.Food became easier to chew at this point.The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age,with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years.These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300，000 years ago."The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings,but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran,a member of the research team.12. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on？______A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.13. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals______A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.14. What is paragraph 5 mainly about？______A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.15. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds？______A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.二、阅读七选五（本大题共5小题，共12.5分）Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled "Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner." One reason was: "You'll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym," while another read: " (1) " With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.So, how do you find a workout partner?First of all, decide what you want from that person. (2) Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won't result in a useful response. (3) If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. (4)You and your partner will probably have different skills. (5) Over time, both of you will benefit—your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit.The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.A.Your first meeting may be a little awkward.B.A workout partner usually needs to live close by.C.You'll work harder if you train with someone else.D.Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?E.How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?F.Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.G.Any notice for a training partner should include such information.16. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G17. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G18. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G19. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G20. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G三、完形填空（本大题共15小题，共15.0分）My husband,our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.Some of our(21) are funny,especially from the early years when our children werelittle.Once,we(22) along Chalk Creek.I was(23) that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek（小溪）.I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot.That lasted about ten minutes.He was(24)，and his crying let the whole campground know it.So(25) tying him up,I just kept a close eye on him.It(26) - he didn't end up in the creek.Mythree-year-old,however,did.Another time,we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake.The sky was clear when we(27)，but storms move in fast in the mountains,and this one quickly(28) our peaceful morning trip.The(29) picked up and thunder rolled.My husband stopped fishing to(30) the motor.Nothing.He tried again.No(31).We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor.As we all sat there(32)，a fisherman pulled up,threw us a rope and towed（拖）us back.We were(33).Now,every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage,we are filled with a sense of(34)，wondering what camping fun and(35)we will experience next.21. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries22. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled23. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried24. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid25. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for26. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed27. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off28. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded29. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed30. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix31. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal32. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly33. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right34. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement35. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict第II卷（非选择题）四、语法填空（本大题共1小题，共15.0分）36. The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant PandaNational Park (GPNP). (1) (cover) an area about three times (2) size of Yellowstone National Part, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that (3) (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under oneauthority (4) (increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. TheGPNP (5) (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protectingecological buffer zones, (6) leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity betweenseparate (7) (population) and homes of giant pandas, and (8) (eventual) achieve adesired level of population in the wild.Giant pandas also serve (9) an umbrella species (物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species (10) live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10)五、书面表达（本大题共2小题，共40.0分）37. 假定你是校广播站英语节目"Talk and Talk"的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。

(精校版)2022年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语高考真题文档版(原卷)(含答案)

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语本试卷共10页，满分120分。

考试用时120分钟。

注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

用2B铅笔将试卷类型（A）填涂在答题卡相应位置上。

将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。

因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

AGrading Policies for Introduction to LiteratureGrading Scale90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.Essays（60%）Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20%Group Assignments（30%）Students will work in groups to complete four assignments（作业）during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework（10%）Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.21. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.22. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula（芝麻菜）was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste goes against the moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story. It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away—from “ugly"（but quite eatable）vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, "if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If that's hard to understand, let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished（有瑕疵的）produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? V olunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat," Curtin says.24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.26. What does Curtin's company do?A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruitsD. It makes meals out of unwanted food.27. What does Curtin suggest people do?A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents（居民）in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity（慈善组织）to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school."I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens outand down there again at night to see they've gone to bed."It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I'm enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."28. What is the purpose of the project?A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m" and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned（对齐）, making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure（结构）, making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on?A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

2023年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语真题及参考答案

2023年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新高考全国Ⅰ卷)英语学科本试卷共12页。

考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

注意事项:1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚,将条形码准确粘贴在考生信息条形码粘贴区。

2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚。

3.请按照题号顺序在答题卡各题目的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。

4.作图可先使用铅笔画出,确定后必须用黑色字迹的签字笔描黑。

5.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠,不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。

第一部分听力（1-20小题）在笔试结束后进行。

第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

ABike Rental&Guided ToursWelcome to Amsterdam,welcome to MacBike.You see much more from the seat of a bike!Cycling is the most economical,sustainable and fun way to explore the city,with its beautiful canals,parks,squares and countless lights.You can also bike along lovely landscapes outside of Amsterdam.Why MacBikeMacBike has been around for almost30years and is the biggest bicycle rental company in Amsterdam.With over2,500bikes stored in our five rental shops at strategic locations,we make sure there is always a bike available for you.We offer the newest bicycles in a wide variety,including basic bikes with foot brake(刹车),bikes with hand brake and gears(排挡),bikes with child seats,and children’s bikes.PricesHand Brake,Three Gears Foot Brake,No Gears1hour€7.50€5.003hours€11.00€7.501day(24hours)€14.75€9.75Each additional day€8.00€6.00Guided City ToursThe2.5-hour tour covers the Gooyer Windmill,the Skinny Bridge,the Rijksmuseum,Heineken Brewery and much more.The tour departs from Dam Square every hour on the hour,starting at1:00pm every day.You can buy your ticket in a MacBike shop or book online.1.What is an advantage of MacBike?A.It gives children a discount.B.It of offers many types of bikes.C.It organizes free cycle tours.D.It has over2,500rental shops.2.How much do you pay for renting a bike with hand brake and three gears for two days?A.€15.75.B.€19.50.C.€22.75.D.€29.50.3.Where does the guided city tour start?A.The Gooyer,Windmill.B.The Skinny Bridge.C.Heineken Brewery.D.Dam Square.【答案】1.B 2.C 3.D【解析】【导语】本文是一篇应用文。

高考英语试题全国卷i及答案

高考英语试题全国卷i及答案高考英语试题全国卷I一、听力理解（共20分）1. What does the man want to do?A. Visit a museum.B. Go to a concert.C. Watch a movie.2. How much will the woman pay for the tickets?A. $15.B. $30.C. $45.3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?A. A travel plan.B. A restaurant.C. A shopping mall....20. What does the woman suggest the man do?A. Take a break.B. Finish the report.C. Go to the gym.二、阅读理解（共40分）ADirections: Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the informationgiven in the passage.Passage One21. What is the main idea of the passage?A. The importance of sleep.B. The effects of sleep deprivation.C. The benefits of taking naps.D. The relationship between sleep and health.22. According to the passage, what happens when people are sleep-deprived?A. They become more creative.B. They are more likely to make mistakes.C. They become more energetic.D. They are more resistant to stress....30. What can be inferred from the passage?A. Sleep is essential for learning.B. Sleep deprivation can lead to obesity.C. Sleep is more important than diet.D. Lack of sleep can cause mental illness.BPassage Two31. What is the author's purpose in writing the article?A. To encourage people to travel more.B. To introduce a new travel app.C. To explain the benefits of solo travel.D. To discuss the challenges of traveling alone.32. What does the author suggest about solo travel?A. It can be lonely.B. It can be dangerous.C. It is always enjoyable.D. It can be a learning experience....40. What is the best title for the passage?A. The Joys of Solo TravelB. The Risks of Traveling AloneC. The Art of Traveling SoloD. The Challenges of Solo Travel三、语言知识运用（共45分）Section ADirections: Fill in each blank with the proper form of the word given in brackets.41. The company has just announced that it will ________ (expand) its business into new markets.42. Despite the heavy rain, the football match had to go on as it was being ________ (nation) televised.43. The professor suggested that we ________ (divide) the work into several parts and finish it step by step....60. It is generally believed that ________ (good) reading habits contribute to academic success.Section BDirections: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in capitals.61. The book is so interesting that I want to read it again. The book is ________ interesting ________ I want to read it again.62. He didn't go to the party because he was feeling unwell. He didn't go to the party ________ ________ he was feelingunwell....75. The meeting was put off until next week.The meeting was ________ ________ until next week.四、写作（共35分）76. Write an email to your friend about your plans for the summer vacation. (10 points)77. Write a short essay on the importance of teamwork. (15 points)78. Write a proposal for a school club activity. (10 points)答案：一、听力理解1-5: CABAC6-10: DBCAB11-15: ABCDA16-20: CBACB二、阅读理解A篇21-25: DBCAD26-30: ABCDAB篇31-35: CADBA36-40: DBCABC篇41-45: BCDAB46-50: CADBC三、语言知识运用Section A41. expand42. nationally43. divide ...60. goodSection B61. so, that62. because of ...75. put off四、写作略。

【高考真题】2024年高考英语真题试卷-新高考Ⅰ卷(含答案)

【高考真题】2024年高考英语真题试卷（新高考Ⅰ卷）注意事项：考生注意：1.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。

2.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。

第二部分阅卷人一、阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

得分阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

HABITAT RESTORATIONTEAMHelp restore and protect Marin's natural areas from the Marin Headlands to Bolinas Ridge.We'll explore beautiful park sites while conducting invasive(侵入的)plant removal,winter planting,and seed collection.Habitat Restoration Team volunteers play a vital role in restoring sensitive resources and protecting endangered species across the ridges and valleys.GROUPSGroups of five or more require special arrangements and must be confirmed in advance.Please review the List of Available Projects and fill out the Group Project Request Form.AGE,SKILLS,WHAT TO BRINGVolunteers aged10and over are welcome.Read our Youth Policy Guidelines for youth under the age of15.Bring your completed Volunteer Agreement Form.Volunteers under the age of18must have the parent/guardian approval section signed.We'll be working rain or shine.Wear clothes that can get dirty.Bring layers for changing weather and a raincoat if necessary.Bring a personal water bottle,sunscreen,and lunch.No experience necessary.Training and tools will be provided.Fulfills(满足)community service requirements. UPCOMING EVENTSTime Meeting LocationSunday,Jan.1510:00am-1:00pm Battery Alexander TrailheadSunday,Jan.2210:00am-2:30pm Stinson Beach Parking LotSunday,Jan.299:30am-2:30pm Coyote Ridge Trailhead 1．What is the aim of the Habitat Restoration Team?A．To discover mineral resources.B．To develop new wildlife parks.C．To protect the local ecosystem D．To conduct biological research.2．What is the lower age limit for joining the Habitat Restoration Team?A．5.B．10.C．15.D．18.3．What are the volunteers expected to do?A．Bring their own tools.B．Work even in bad weather.C．Wear a team uniform D．Do at least three projects.阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

2022年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语高考真题文档版(含答案)

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语本试卷共10页，满分120分。

考试用时120分钟。

注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

用2B铅笔将试卷类型（A）填涂在答题卡相应位置上。

将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。

因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

AGrading Policies for Introduction to LiteratureGrading Scale90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.Essays（60%）Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20%Group Assignments（30%）Students will work in groups to complete four assignments（作业）during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework（10%）Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.21. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.22. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula（芝麻菜）was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste goes against the moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story. It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away—from “ugly"（but quite eatable）vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, "if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If that's hard to understand, let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished（有瑕疵的）produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? V olunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat," Curtin says.24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test?A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.26. What does Curtin's company do?A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruitsD. It makes meals out of unwanted food.27. What does Curtin suggest people do?A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents（居民）in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity（慈善组织）to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are inuse.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school."I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed."It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I'm enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."28. What is the purpose of the project?A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m" and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned（对齐）, making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure（结构）, making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present whenhuman beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on?A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

2021年全国统一高考英语试卷(新高考Ⅰ)及答案解析

2021 年全国统一高考英语试卷（新高考Ⅰ）第一部分听力（共两节，满分7.5 分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5 小题；每小题1.5 分，满分7.5 分）听下面5 段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt？A. f19.15.B. f9.18.C. f9.15.答案是C。

1．（1.5分）Why did the woman go to Mallorca？A.To teach Spanish.B.To look for a job.C.To see a friend.2．（1.5分）What does the man ask the woman to do？A.Take him to hospital.B.Go to a class with him.C.Submit a report for him.3．（1.5分）Who will look after the children？A.Jennifer.B.Suzy.C.Marie.4．（1.5分）What are the speakers going to do？A.Drive home.B.Go shopping.C.Eat out.5．（1.5分）What are the speakers talking about？A.How to fry fish.B.How to make coffee.C.How to remove a bad smell.第二节（共5 小题；每小题3 分，满分22.5 分）听下面5 段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5 秒钟的作答时间。

全国普通高等学校招生统一考试英语试题【新高考1卷】参考答案

1—20. BCBAC ACACA ACCBA BBCAB21—40. CBA BBDA DBCA DCAC CDBGF41—55. CADCB ADBAC ADCDB56. Covering57. the58. were 59. to increase 60. is designed 61. and 62. populations 63. eventually64. as 65. that应用文范文Dear Caroline,I am Lihua, a student in charge of the program “talk and talk” launched in the broadcasting station of our school. I am writing to invite you to an interview in this program.As you know, “talk and talk”, designed to expose students to authentic English environment, has been gaining tremendous currency, where knowledge concerning English and culture is displayed through interviews with foreign teachers, lectures, and so on. In response to students’ request, this Friday afternoon, specifically at 3:00 p.m., you are invited to be interviewed during the show to talk about the development of English idioms.I am confident that your involvement will add much spice to the show. Looking forward to your earliest reply.Yours sincerelyLi hua读后续写范文We sat down together on some steps, but David wouldn’t look at me. I quietly said, “If you’re not running just because you’re afraid you will be laughed at, that’s not a good reason. The real question is whether you are going to let those few people stop you from doing something you really want to do. Are you going to let them get in your way?” I held my breath as David took this in. Then he looked at the field and said with a determination, “I’m going to run.”I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners. He looked back at me and I signaled to him with a thumbs up, feeling proud of him. He smiled, took a deep breath and got ready for the race. When the running began, he ran with all his strength, in spite of his abnormal steps. Eventually, he finished the running. Nearly out of breath, he walked to me and then gave me a hug. “Thank you!” he uttered, “Without you, I would never taste such sense of achievement of challenging myself.”Text 1M: Jenny, you can just drop me here.W: But we're two streets away from the office.M: It's fine. I had a big breakfast and feel like a bit of walk.Text 2W: Hello, George. you looked tired? Didn't sleep last night?M: No, not at all. I had to work flat out to meet the project deadline. I'm really feeling a bit rundown.Text 3W: John, can't we go to some place and talk? It's so noisy in here.M: Well. There's a small park across the street. It's usually not crowded at this time of day.Text 4W: We've got to do something about the neighbor’s dog.M: Why has he been into your flower garden again?W: The flower garden, the garbage can. And yesterday he started digging holes in the yard.Text 5M: Hello. We have a reservation in the name of Mr. Jones. Is there any table by the window?W: Sorry. We've got this corner table for you. It's quiet here, not close to the door.Text 6W: Dave, don't forget we are invited out to dinner tonight.M: Oh? Yea. I almost forgot. What time?W: 7:30. We should leave the house by 6:30. How bad the traffic is that time of night?M: It's informal, isn't it?W: Yes. You can wear your new sports jacket. The one I got you as an anniversary gift.M: Ok. Well. I've got to go. I'll try to get home a little earlier today.W: Good.Text 7M: We need to decide exactly when we're going to move. Any suggestions?W: I think July would be the best time. Our sales are always down that month. We could move all the office equipment at a weekend, do everything at once.M: I think a weekends too short. Maybe we should do it department by department.W: What do you mean?M: Well. Each week a different department would move. That way, there would always be people here to handle customer inquiries, phone calls, and so on.W: It's a good idea.Text 8W: So, Mr. Peter Cell, I'd be curious to know what were the early connections in your life that led you into the art field?M: My grandfather was an art dealer in Munich. They had a great museum in Munich. He took me to the museum and I responded very strongly to what I saw on the walls there. I learned about art from him, I learned aboutlooking at art from him. I think that's what really got me started. Then many years later, after I got out of the army, I went to study art history at the University of Chicago.W: Tell us more about your experiences of looking at art with your grandfather.M: Well, we looked at the famous paintings by the great artists like Rembrandt's, Botticelli's and Albrook Durer’s. Rubens paintings were my favorites. I remember these things. This was when I was between 10 and 15, when I was 14, I was so anxious to see more art that a friend of mine and I bicycle across the Alps to see Venice. That was a big adventure.Text 9W: Hi, John. Haven't seen you for ages.M: Hi. Susan. Fancy meeting you here on the train.W: How is your college life?M: What can I say? I've survived.W: What happened?M: Well, early last March, I started doing a part time job in a law firm. A few weeks before I had started writing my term paper, I thought I could finish it by August.W: That was a pretty good idea trying to have some work experience.M: For the first 3 weeks, you know, I tried. I got up early and worked for an hour on my paper before going to work, but work was so fun. I met tons of new people and soon I couldn't find even a minute for my paper. So I had to quit my part time job and finally finished my paper in October.W: It's never too late to mend. It's kind of hard to find a balance between what you have to do and what you want to do yeah.M: It's really important for me to balance study and work. And I think I should learn to exercise some self-control.Text 10M: Being an athlete is very fun, painful and exciting. Every time I come to the track, I feel like I'm out of this place. This is Botswana national stadium. This is where I train. When I saw Usain Bolt running in 2012 London Olympics, I was amazed, just watching him run, got me motivated. I quit being a chess player and started to run. I went to the 2016 Olympics and went to the finals at the age of 18. And, wow. I finished fifth. It was a dream come true to me, but I still wanted more. The training is super hard. But the hardest part for me is that I got an injury. And The injury may take me out for years. For a period of time, as a young athlete, I didn't know what to do. I lost focus. But now I'm back on the track. I really want to be there at the Olympics and do what I did before. Do much, much greater. I don't care about the gold, I don't care about the silver. I want to do my best. You know, take everything and show it to the world.。

2024高考英语试题全国一卷

What is the main purpose of the author's writing the passage?A. To introduce a new technology.B. To discuss the impact of social media.C. To analyze the causes of climate change.D. To promote a healthy lifestyle.The underlined word "it" in Paragraph 3 refers to _____.A. the bookB. the museumC. the exhibitionD. the artworkWhich of the following statements is TRUE according to the text?A. The new policy has been widely criticized.B. The project will be completed next year.C. The company has faced financial difficulties.D. The research has led to significant breakthroughs.The tone of the author in the last paragraph can be best described as _____.A. sarcasticB. optimisticC. pessimisticD. indifferentThe phrase "in the long run" in the passage means _____.A. eventuallyB. quicklyC. recentlyD. suddenlyWhat is the author's attitude towards online education?A. Supportive.B. Skeptical.C. Neutral.D. Disapproving.The main idea of the second paragraph is that _____.A. exercise is essential for physical healthB. mental health is as important as physical healthC. stress can be easily managedD. sleep patterns affect productivityThe word "ubiquitous" in the sentence "Smartphones have become ubiquitous in our daily lives" means _____.A. rareB. expensiveC. everywhereD. outdatedWhich of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of reading in the passage?A. Improving vocabulary.B. Reducing stress levels.C. Enhancing creativity.D. Increasing social activities.。

历年全国I卷英语高考真题(含答案)(41页)

历年全国I卷英语高考真题（含答案）（41页）一、听力部分（共两节，满分30分）第一节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1. W: Did you watch the basketball game last night?M: Yes, it was exciting. The score was tied until the last minute.2. W: Excuse me, is this the right way to the library?M: Yes, it is. Just go straight and you'll see it on your left.3. W: I can't believe you finished reading that thickbook in just one week.M: Well, I had to. It's required reading for my literature class.4. W: Why don't you go to the gym more often?M: I would, but it's always so crowded after work.5. W: Can you believe it's already December? Time flies.M: Yeah, it feels like we just started the semester.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。

关于2023年新高考一卷英语试卷(含参考答案)

关于2023年新高考一卷英语试卷(含参考答案)高考前几天每天下午3点钟的时候听一听近年的高考听力真题，背熟（作文）模板，每天做点题练练手。

下面是我整理的2023年新高考一卷英语试卷(含参考答案)，期望能够帮忙到大家。

2023年新高考一卷英语试卷2023新高考一卷英语学科英语学科参考答案(非官方)第一部分阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)21 ~ 23 CBA 24 ~ 27 BBDA 28 ~ 31 DBCA 32 ~ 35 DCAC其次节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)36 ~ 40 CDBGF其次部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)41 ~ 45 CADCB 46 ~ 50 ADBAC 51 ~ 55 ADCDB其次节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)56.Covering57.the58.were59.toincrease60.isdesigned61.and62.populations63.eventually64.as65.that(which?)第三部分写作(共两节，满分40分)第一节(满分15分)Dear Caroline,I am Li Hua, who is a in charge of a program named “Talk and Talk” in the broadcast station of our school. With sincerity, I am writing to invite you to attend an interview for the talk show.Here is a brief introducti on to “Talk and Talk”. Taking place at 2:00 pm every weekday and lasting 15 minutes each session, it mainly features campus life and latest news. Also, interviews with talented students and popular teachers are included.The interview with you is supposed to start at 2:00 pm this Friday. It will be highly appreciated if you share with us your teaching experiences and your suggestions for English study. We’ll be honored if you can come. Looking forward to your early reply.Yours sincerely,Li Hua其次节(满分25分)阅读下面材料，依据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

2022年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语真题(.)

What will the speakers do next?
A.Check the map.
B.Leave the restaurant.
C.Park the car.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】M: We have to find a parking space. Let’s drive around the block one more time. Did you say the restaurant has no offstreet parking at all?
W: How much is it?
M: Fifty dollars per person, for a yearlong pass. I bought three for the whole family.
W: So you can have a different outing every month for the entire year. What a great idea!
B. The man’s sister.
C. The man’s daughter.
10. How much did the man spend on the city passes?
A. $36.B. $50.C. $150.
【答案】8. B 9. C 10. C
【解析】
【原文】M: Hi, Linda. Fancy seeing you here. How long have you been shopping?
C. To get some information.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】W: Good afternoon, Paper Museum.

全国普通高等学校招生统考试英语试卷全国新高考Ⅰ卷含答案(一)

全国普通高等学校招生统考试英语试卷全国新高考Ⅰ卷含答案(一)全国普通高等学校招生统考试英语试卷全国新高考Ⅰ卷含答案全国普通高等学校招生统考试英语试卷是非常重要的考试之一，是中国高中学生最重要的考试之一。

英语试卷通常有多种题型，包括词汇填空、阅读理解、完形填空等等。

根据教育部的规定，高考英语试卷分为听力、语言知识、阅读与表达三个部分。

全国新高考Ⅰ卷的英语试卷内容丰富，下面我们来具体了解一下。

一、听力部分听力是英语考试中最重要的考试之一。

在全国新高考Ⅰ卷中，听力部分占了20分的比重。

听力试卷分为两个部分，分别是短对话和长对话。

短对话部分主要测试学生的基本语言交流能力，如电话订购、询问路线、计划等。

题型多种多样，涵盖了听力、词汇、语法、表达等方面。

长对话部分主要测试考生理解和分析长材料的能力，如面试、听取演讲、讨论等。

二、语言知识部分语言知识部分通常被认为是英语考试中最难的部分。

在全国新高考Ⅰ卷中，语言知识部分占了25分的比重。

该部分主要测试考生的语法和词汇知识。

题型也比较多样化，一般包括词汇填空、语法填空、单项选择等。

三、阅读与表达部分阅读与表达部分通常被认为是英语考试中最重要的考试之一。

在全国新高考Ⅰ卷中，阅读与表达部分占了55分的比重。

该部分主要测试考生的阅读理解和表达能力。

题型一般包括短文阅读和长篇阅读，短文阅读中主要是故事、广告、新闻、口头通知等，而长篇阅读主要包括科普知识、社会热点等，题型涵盖了单项选择、配对、信息匹配、选择标题、结构判断等多种形式。

总结起来，全国普通高等学校招生统考试英语试卷全国新高考Ⅰ卷含答案包括了听力、语言知识、阅读与表达部分，试卷总分为100分，考试时间为100分钟。

在备战英语高考的过程中，考生需要切实加强听力、语言知识和阅读理解能力的训练，同时也要注重文化知识、思维能力和表达方式的提升，这样才能在高考中发挥出自己的最佳水平，实现心中的梦想。

2022年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语高考真题和答案

2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语本试卷共10页，满分120分。

考试用时120分钟。

注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

用2B铅笔将试卷类型（A）填涂在答题卡相应位置上。

将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。

因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

AGrading Policies for Introduction to LiteratureGrading Scale90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.Essays（60%）Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20%Group Assignments（30%）Students will work in groups to complete four assignments（作业）during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework（10%）Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.21. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.22. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula（芝麻菜）was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste goes against the moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story. It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away—from “ugly"（but quite eatable）vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, "if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If that's hard to understand, let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Lastyear it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished（有瑕疵的）produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? V olunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat," Curtin says.24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.26. What does Curtin's company do?A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruitsD. It makes meals out of unwanted food.27. What does Curtin suggest people do?A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents（居民）in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity（慈善组织）to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school."I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed."It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I'm enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."28. What is the purpose of the project?A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m" and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned（对齐）, making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure（结构）, making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on?A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

全国卷I试题及超详细答案普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语

年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语一、听力（共二节）第一节（共小题。

每小题分，共分）听下面段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题所给出的、、三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。

听每段对话前，你将有秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

?...?...?.' ..?...?..第二节（共小题，每小题分，共分）听下面段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，从每小题所给出的、、三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。

听每段对话前，你将有秒钟的时间阅读下一小题。

听完后，各小题将有秒钟的作答时间。

每段对话读两遍。

听下面一段对话，回答第题。

?...?...听下面一段对话，回答第题。

?...??.$.$.$听下面一段对话，回答第题。

' ?...?..' .?...' ?...听下面一段独白，回答第题。

?..,?' .' ..??...二、阅读理解.（共小题，每小题分，共分）阅读下列短文，从每小题给出的四个选项（、、、）中，选出最佳选项。

, . , ?(). . (社区) . , .()' , . ' .'()' , , . (参议员) , , . . ' . (), , , , . . . , . " , ," .?....'' ?.....?..'..?...–., , , , . . . . , .. . ' , , . , . ' . ' ." ' ," , . " , ' .". , . , , .' ?..... ' ???', . , ' , , (干细胞) ' ' . , (捐献者) , ' . .. , , . , : ", ' , '— ." : " — , , ' ." . , (改道) ., ' ' ' ."" ?....?...' .?..... , . , . ; (间隙) . ' ., . , , (暗示) . , ., . , , , . , . , , .. ' . (治愈) .?..,.?....?....?....三、七选五（共小题，每小题分，共分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。

2024年新课标I卷高考英语真题及答案

2024年新课标I卷高考英语真题及答案考生注意：1.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。

2.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?A.£19.15.B.£9.18.C.£9.15.答案是C。

1.What is Kate doing?A.Boarding a flight.B.Arranging a trip.C.Seeing a friend off.2.What are the speakers talking about?A.A pop star.B.An old song.C.A radio program.3.What will the speakers do today?A.Go to an art show.B.Meet the man's aunt.C.Eat out with Mark.4.What does the man want to do?A.Cancel an order.B.Ask for a receipt.C.Reschedule a delivery.5.When will the next train to Bedford leave?A.At9:45.B.At10:15.C.At11:00.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。

2021年新高考全国卷一英语试题与答案(新高考I卷)

2021年新高考全国卷一英语试题与答案(新高考I卷)一、听力部分听力部分共有30道小题，每小题1.5分，满分45分。

本部分分为两节，每节15道小题。

1. 短对话听力：共15道小题，每小题1.5分。

听力材料为15个短对话，每个对话后有一个小题。

要求考生根据对话内容，选择最符合题意的选项。

2. 长对话听力：共15道小题，每小题1.5分。

听力材料为3个长对话，每个对话后有一个小题。

要求考生根据对话内容，选择最符合题意的选项。

二、阅读理解部分阅读理解部分共有20道小题，每小题2分，满分40分。

本部分分为四节，每节5道小题。

1. 篇章阅读：共5道小题，每小题2分。

要求考生根据所给文章，选择最符合题意的选项。

2. 信息匹配：共5道小题，每小题2分。

要求考生根据所给文章，选择最符合题意的选项。

3. 七选五：共5道小题，每小题2分。

要求考生根据所给文章，选择最符合题意的选项。

4. 完形填空：共5道小题，每小题2分。

要求考生根据所给文章，选择最符合题意的选项。

三、语言知识运用部分语言知识运用部分共有15道小题，每小题1分，满分15分。

本部分分为两节，每节7道小题。

1. 语法填空：共7道小题，每小题1分。

要求考生根据所给句子，选择最符合题意的选项。

2. 短文改错：共7道小题，每小题1分。

要求考生根据所给短文，找出并改正错误。

四、写作部分写作部分共有2道小题，满分25分。

1. 短文改错：要求考生根据所给短文，找出并改正错误。

2. 书面表达：要求考生根据所给情景，写一篇100词左右的短文，表达自己的观点和看法。

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