国际财务管理答案Chap020
国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2
CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management？Answer：We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions，i.e., consumption, production，and investment，are highly globalized。
It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management。
This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago. At that time, most professors customarily （and safely, to some extent) ignored international aspects of finance。
This mode of operation has become untenable since then。
2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management？Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance。
国际财务管理（英文版）课后习题答案2
IM-1 CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS 1. Why is it important to study international financial management? Answer: We We are are are now now now living living living in in in a a a world world world where where where all all all the the the major major major economic economic economic functions, functions, functions, i.e., i.e., i.e., consumption, consumption, production, production, and and and investment, investment, investment, are are are highly highly highly globalized. globalized. It It is is is thus thus thus essential essential essential for for for financial financial financial managers managers managers to to to fully fully understand understand vital vital vital international international international dimensions dimensions dimensions of of of financial financial financial management. management. This This global global global shift shift shift is is is in in in marked marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago. At that time, most professors customarily (and safely, to some extent) ignored international aspects of finance. This mode of operation has become untenable since then. 2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management? Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are: 1. foreign exchange and political risks, 2. market imperfections, and 3. expanded opportunity set. 3. Discuss the three major trends that have prevailed in international business during the last two decades. Answer: The 1980s brought a rapid integration of international capital and financial markets. Impetus for globalized financial markets initially came from the governments of major countries that had begun to deregulate their foreign exchange and capital markets. The economic integration and globalization that began in the eighties is picking up speed in the 1990s via privatization. Privatization is the process by which a country divests itself of the ownership and operation of a business venture by turning it over to the free market system. Lastly, trade liberalization and economic integration continued to proceed at both the regional and global levels. IM-2 4. How How is is is a a a country‟s country‟s economic economic well well well-being -being -being enhanced enhanced enhanced through through through free free free international international international trade trade trade in in in goods goods goods and and services? Answer: According According to to to David David David Ricardo, Ricardo, Ricardo, with with with free free free international international international trade, trade, trade, it it it is is is mutually mutually mutually beneficial beneficial beneficial for for for two two countries to each specialize in the production of the goods that it can produce relatively most efficiently and and then then then trade trade trade those those those goods. goods. By By doing doing doing so, so, so, the the the two two two countries countries countries can can can increase increase increase their their their combined combined combined production, production, which which allows allows allows both countries both countries to to consume consume consume more more more of of of both both both goods. goods. This This argument argument argument remains remains remains valid even valid even if if a a country country can can can produce produce produce both both both goods goods goods more more more efficiently efficiently efficiently than than than the the the other other other country. country. International International trade trade trade is is is not not not a a …zero …zero--sum‟ game in which one country benefits at the expense of another country. Rather, international trade could be an …increasing -sum‟ game at which all players become winners.5. What considerations might limit the extent to which the theory of comparative advantage is realistic? Answer: The The theory theory theory of of of comparative comparative comparative advantage advantage advantage was was was originally originally originally advanced advanced advanced by by by the the the nineteenth nineteenth nineteenth century century economist David Ricardo as an explanation for why nations trade with one another. The theory claims that economic well-being is enhanced if each country‟s citizens produce what they have a comparative advantage in producing relative to the citizens of other countries, and then trade products. Underlying the the theory theory theory are are are the the the assumptions assumptions assumptions of of of free free free trade trade trade between between between nations nations nations and and and that that that the the the factors factors factors of of of production production production (land, (land, buildings, labor, technology, and capital) are relatively immobile. To the extent that these assumptions do not hold, the theory of comparative advantage will not realistically describe international trade. 6. What are multinational corporations (MNCs) and what economic roles do they play? Answer: A A multinational multinational multinational corporation corporation corporation (MNC) (MNC) (MNC) can can can be be be defined defined defined as as as a a a business business business firm firm firm incorporated incorporated incorporated in in in one one country country that that that has has has production production production and and and sales sales sales operations operations operations in in in several several several other other other countries. countries. countries. Indeed, Indeed, Indeed, some some some MNCs MNCs MNCs have have operations in dozens of different countries. MNCs obtain financing from major money centers around the the world world world in in in many many many different different currencies currencies to to to finance finance finance their their their operations. operations. Global Global operations operations operations force force force the the treasurer‟s office office to to to establish establish establish international international international banking banking banking relationships, relationships, relationships, to to to place place place short short short-term -term -term funds funds funds in in in several several currency denominations, and to effectively manage foreign exchange risk. IM-3 7. Mr. Ross Perot, a former Presidential candidate of the Reform Party, which is a third political party in the the United United United States, States, States, had had had strongly strongly strongly objected objected objected to to to the the the creation creation creation of of of the the the North North North American American American Trade Trade Trade Agreement Agreement (NAFTA), which nonetheless was inaugurated in 1994, for the fear of losing American jobs to Mexico where it is much cheaper to hire workers. What are the merits and demerits of Mr. Perot‟s position on NAFTA? Considering the recent economic developments in North America, how would you assess Mr. Perot‟s position on NAFTA?Answer: Answer: Since Since Since the the the inception inception inception of of of NAFTA, NAFTA, NAFTA, many many many American American American companies companies companies indeed indeed indeed have have have invested invested invested heavily heavily heavily in in Mexico, Mexico, sometimes relocating production from the United sometimes relocating production from the United States States to Mexico. Although this to Mexico. Although this might have temporarily temporarily caused caused caused unemployment unemployment unemployment of of of some some some American American American workers, workers, workers, they they they were were were eventually eventually eventually rehired rehired rehired by by by other other industries often for higher wages. Currently, the unemployment rate in the U.S. is quite low by historical standard. At the same time, Mexico has been experiencing a major economic boom. It seems clear that both both Mexico Mexico Mexico and and and the the the U.S. U.S. U.S. have have have benefited benefited benefited from from from NAFTA. NAFTA. NAFTA. Mr. Mr. Mr. Perot‟s Perot‟s concern concern appears appears appears to to to have have have been been been ill ill founded. 8. In 1995, a working group of French chief executive officers was set up by the Confederation of French Industry (CNPF) and the French Association of Private Companies (AFEP) to study the French corporate governance governance structure. structure. structure. The The The group group group reported reported reported the the the following, following, following, among among among other other other things things things “The “The “The board board board of of of directors directors should not simply aim at maximizing share values as in the U.K. and the U.S. Rather, its goal should be to serve serve the the the company, company, company, whose whose whose interests interests interests should should should be be be clearly clearly clearly distinguished distinguished distinguished from from from those those those of of of its its its shareholders, shareholders, employees, creditors, suppliers and clients but still equated with their general common interest, which is to safeguard the prosperity and continuity of the company”. Evaluate the above recommendation of the working group. Answer: Answer: The The The recommendations recommendations recommendations of of of the the the French French French working working working group group group clearly clearly clearly show show show that that that shareholder shareholder shareholder wealth wealth maximization is not a universally accepted goal of corporate management, especially outside the United States and possibly a few other Anglo-Saxon countries including the United Kingdom and Canada. To some extent, this may reflect the fact that share ownership is not wide spread in most other countries. In France, about 15% of households own shares. IM-4 9. Emphasizing the importance of voluntary compliance, as opposed to enforcement, in the aftermath of corporate scandals, e.g., Enron and WorldCom, U.S. President George W. Bush stated that while tougher laws might help, “ultimately, the ethics of American business depends on the conscience of America‟s business leaders.” Describe your view on this statement. Answer: There can be different answers to this question. If business leaders always behave with a high ethical standard, many of the corporate scandals we have seen lately might not have happened. Since we cannot cannot fully fully fully depend depend depend on on on the the the ethical ethical ethical behavior behavior behavior on on on the part the part of of business business business leaders, leaders, leaders, the the the society society society should should should protect protect itself itself by by by adopting adopting adopting the the the rules/regulations rules/regulations rules/regulations and and and governance governance governance structure that structure that would would induce induce induce business business business leaders leaders leaders to to behave in the interest of the society at large. 10. Suppose you are interested in investing in shares of Nokia Corporation of Finland, which is a world leader leader in in in wireless wireless wireless communication. communication. communication. But But But before before before you you you make make make investment investment investment decision, decision, decision, you you you would would would like like like to to to learn learn about the company. Visit the website of CNN Financial network () and collect information information about about about Nokia, Nokia, Nokia, including including including the the the recent recent recent stock price stock price history history and and and analysts‟ analysts‟ views views of the of the compa company. ny. Discuss what you learn about the company. Also discuss how the instantaneous access to information via internet would affect the nature and workings of financial markets. Answer: As students might have learned from visiting the website, information is readily available even for for foreign foreign foreign companies companies companies like like like Nokia. Nokia. Nokia. Ready Ready Ready access access access to to to international international international information information information helps helps helps integrate integrate integrate financial financial markets, dismantling barriers to international investment and financing. Integration, however, may help a financial shock in one market to be transmitted to other markets. IM-5 MINI CASE: NIKE‟S DE CISION Nike, a U.S.-based company with a globally recognized brand name, manufactures athletic shoes in such such Asian Asian Asian developing developing developing countries countries countries as as as China, China, China, Indonesia, Indonesia, Indonesia, and and and Vietnam Vietnam Vietnam using using using subcontractors, subcontractors, subcontractors, and and and sells sells sells the the products in the U.S. and foreign markets. The company has no production facilities in the United States. In In each each each of of of those those those Asian Asian Asian countries countries countries where where where Nike Nike Nike has has has production production production facilities, facilities, facilities, the the the rates rates rates of of of unemployment unemployment unemployment and and underemployment underemployment are are are quite quite quite high. high. high. The The The wage wage wage rate rate rate is is is very very very low low low in in in those those those countries countries countries by by by the the the U.S. U.S. U.S. standard; standard; hourly wage rate in the manufacturing sector is less than one dollar in each of those countries, which is compared with about $18 in the U.S. In addition, workers in those countries often are operating in poor and unhealthy environments and their rights are not well protected. Understandably, Asian host countries are are eager eager eager to to to attract attract attract foreign foreign foreign investments investments investments like like like Nike‟s Nike‟s Nike‟s to to to develop develop develop their their their economies economies economies and and and raise raise raise the the the living living standards of their citizens. Recently, however, Nike came under a world-wide criticism for its practice of hiring workers for such a low pay, “next to nothing” in the words of critics, and condoning poor working conditions in host countries. Evaluate Evaluate and and and discuss discuss discuss various various various …ethical‟ …ethical‟ as as well well well as as as economic economic economic ramifications ramifications ramifications of of of Nike‟s Nike‟s decision decision to to invest in those Asian countries. Suggested Solution to Nike‟s DecisionObviously, Obviously, Nike‟s Nike‟s investments investments in in in such such such Asian Asian Asian countries countries countries as as as China, China, China, Indonesia, Indonesia, Indonesia, and and and Vietnam Vietnam Vietnam were were motivated to take advantage of low labor costs in those countries. While Nike was criticized for the poor working working conditions conditions conditions for for for its its its workers, workers, workers, the the the company company company has has has recognized recognized recognized the the the problem problem problem and and and has has has substantially substantially improved the working environments recently. Although Nike‟s workers get paid very low wages by t he Western standard, they probably are making substantially more than their local compatriots who are either under- or unemployed. While Nike‟s detractors may have valid points, one should not ignore the fact that the company is making contributions to the economic welfare of those Asian countries by creating job opportunities. IM-6 CHAPTER 1A THEORY OF COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGESUGGESTED SOLUTIONS TO APPENDIX PROBLEMSPROBLEMS 1. Country C can produce seven pounds of food or four yards of textiles per unit of input. Compute the the opportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles. opportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles. Similarly, compute the opportunity cost of producing textiles instead of food. Solution: The opportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles is one yard of textiles per 7/4 = 1.75 pounds of food. A pound of food has an opportunity cost of 4/7 = .57 yards of textiles. 2. Consider the no-trade input/output situation presented in the following table for Countries X and Y. Assuming that free trade is allowed, develop a scenario that will benefit the citizens of both countries. IM-7 INPUT/OUTPUT WITHOUT TRADE _______________________________________________________________________ Country X Y Total ________________________________________________________________________ I. Units of Input (000,000) _______________________ ______________________________ Food 70 60 Textiles 40 30 ________________________________________________________________________ II. Output per Unit of Input (lbs or yards) ______________________ ______________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ Food 17 5 Textiles 5 2 ________________________________________________________________________ III. Total Output (lbs or yards) (000,000) ______________________ ______________________ ______________________________ ______________________________ Food 1,190 300 1,490 Textiles 200 60 260 ________________________________________________________________________ IV . Consumption (lbs or yards) (000,000) _____________________ ______________________________ Food 1,190 300 1,490 Textiles 200 60 260 ________________________________________________________________________ IM-8 Solution: Examination of the no-trade input/output input/output table table indicates that Country X X has has has an an absolute advantage advantage in in in the the the production production production of of of f f ood ood and and and textiles. textiles. Country Country X X X can can can “trade “trade “trade off” off” off” one one one unit unit unit of of of production production needed needed to to to produce produce produce 17 17 17 pounds pounds pounds of of of food food food for for for five five five yards yards yards of of of textiles. textiles. Thus, Thus, a a a yard yard yard of of of textiles textiles textiles has has has an an opportunity cost of 17/5 = 3.40 pounds of food, or a pound of food has an opportunity cost of 5/17 = .29 yards of textiles. Analogously, Country Y has an opportunity cost of 5/2 = 2.50 pounds of food per yard of textiles, or 2/5 = .40 yards of textiles per pound of food. In terms of opportunity cost, it is clear that Country X is relatively relatively more more more efficient in producing food and efficient in producing food and Country Y is relatively more efficient in producing producing textiles. textiles. textiles. Thus, Thus, Thus, Country Country Country X X X (Y) (Y) (Y) has has has a a a comparative comparative comparative advantage advantage advantage in in in producing producing producing food food food (textile) (textile) (textile) is is comparison to Country Y (X). When there are no restrictions or impediments to free trade the economic-well being of the citizens of both countries is enhanced through trade. Suppose that Country X shifts 20,000,000 units from the production of textiles to the production of food where it has a comparative advantage and that Country Y shifts shifts 60,000,000 60,000,000 60,000,000 units units units from from from the the the production production production of of of food food food to to to the the the production production production of of of textiles textiles textiles where where where it it it has has has a a comparative comparative advantage. advantage. Total output will now be (90,000,000 x 17 =) 1,530,000,000 pounds of food and [(20,000,000 x 5 =100,000,000) + (90,000,000 x 2 =180,000,000) =] 280,000,000 yards of textiles. Further suppose that Country X and Country Y agree on a price of 3.00 pounds of food for one yard of textiles, and that Country X sells Country Y 330,000,000 pounds of food for 110,000,000 yards of textiles. Under Under free free free trade, trade, trade, the the the following following following table table table shows shows shows that that that the the the citizens citizens citizens of of of Country Country Country X X X (Y) (Y) (Y) have have have increased increased increased their their consumption of food by 10,000,000 (30,000,000) pounds and textiles by 10,000,000 (10,000,000) yards. IM-9 INPUT/OUTPUT WITH FREE TRADE __________________________________________________________________________ Country X Y Total __________________________________________________________________________ I. Units of Input (000,000) _______________________ ________________________________ Food 90 0 Textiles 20 90 __________________________________________________________________________ II. Output per Unit of Input (lbs or yards) ______________________ ______________________ ________________________________ ________________________________ Food 17 5 Textiles 5 2 __________________________________________________________________________ III. Total Output (lbs or yards) (000,000) _____________________ ________________________________ Food 1,530 0 1,530 Textiles 100 180 280 __________________________________________________________________________ IV . Consumption (lbs or yards) (000,000) _____________________ ________________________________ Food 1,200 330 1,530 Textiles 210 70 280 __________________________________________________________________________ 。
国际财务管理课后答案
1/Banker`s AcceptancesA. Describe how foreign trade would be affected if banks did not provide trade services.Foreign trade would be reduced without the trade-related services by banks, because some trade can only occur if banks back the transaction with bankers acceptances.B. How can a banker`s acceptance be beneficial to an exporter, an importer, and a bank?The exporter does not need to worry about the credit risk of the importer and can therefore penetrate new foreign markets without concern about the credit risk of potential customer.The importer benefit from a banker`s acceptance by obtaining greater access to foreign markets when purchasing supplies and other products. Without banker`s acceptances, exporters may be unwilling to accept credit risk of importers.The bank accepting the draft benefits in that it can earns a commission for creating an acceptance.A banker’s acceptance guarantees payment to the exporter so that credit risk of the importer is not worrisome. It allows the importers to import goods without being turned down due to uncertainty about their credit standing. It is a revenue generator for the bank since a fee is received by the bank for this service.2/Export Financing.a. Why would an exporter provide financing for an importer?b. Is there much risk in this activity? Explain.ANSWER: An exporter could increase sales by allowing the importer to pay at a future date. Importers may not be able to afford to pay. There may be high credit risk incurred by the exporter here, especially if the importer is an unknown small company.3/ Role of Factors. What is the role of a factor in international trade transactions? ANSWER: A factor can relieve the exporter of the worry about the credit risk of the importer. In return, the factor is rewarded by being able to purchase the accounts receivables at a lower price than their cash value.5/What are bills of lading, and how do they facilitate international trade transactions?A bill of lading is a document issued by a carrier which details a shipment of merchandise and gives title of that shipment to a specified party.Bills of lading are one of three important documents used in international trade to help guarantee that exporters receive payment and importers receive merchandise.6/Forfaiting. What is forfaiting? Specify the type of traded goods for which forfaiting is applied.Forfaiting is a type of trade finance. Forfaiting is refers to the purchase of financial obligations, such as bills of exchange or promissory notes, without recourse to the original holder, usually the exporter. In a forfaiting transaction, the importer issues a promissory note to pay the exporter for the importer for the importer goods over aperiod that generally ranges from 3 to 7years. The exporter then sells the notes, without recourse, to the forfaiting bank.Like mechanical, electronic or complete sets of equipment and other capital goods trading, the amount of the transaction is large. The longer importer’s deferred payment period is, the more suitable for Forfaiting is.9/ Countertrade. What is countertrade?The term countertrade denotes all types of foreign trade transaction in which the sale of goods to one country is linked to t/he purchase or exchange of goods from that same country. Countertrade can be classified into three broad categories-barter, compensation and counterpurchase. Barter is the exchange of goods between two parties without the use of any currency as a medium of exchange. In a compensation, the delivery of goods to one party is compensated for by the seller's buying back a certain amount of the product from the same party. The counterpurchase means that the exchange of goods between two parties under two distinct contracts expressed in monetary terms.。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter
C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMS QUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness. Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ￥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ￥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ￥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ￥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ￥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ￥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ￥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ￥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ￥245,700,245.70 ￥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ￥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t e xpect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate.Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. AirFrance will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forward rate is $1.10/€. The annualinterest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and 5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with thevolatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure. (a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why? (b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). T hus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free $ Cost Options hedge Forward hedge $3,453.75$3,150 0 0.579 0.64(strikeprice)$/SF $253.75option for the Swiss client?(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure? Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ￥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides tohedge using a forward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action doesAirbus need to take? What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the‘expected’ euro proceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent betweenthe option and money market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging: €28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”ProfitsCallPayoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,4541.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,4541.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,0611,742,846 0 60,606,0611.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,9641,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,241,742,846 0 59,880,2401.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,811,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,5981,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,5291.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,5291.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,5291.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,521,742,846 0 58,823,52991,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,521,742,846 0 58,823,52991,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,521,742,846 0 58,823,52991,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,521,742,846 0 58,823,52991,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 – 0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoffAustralian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”PrincipalCallPayoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,0075,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,0075,573 0 74,000,241 0.75 (75,332) 75,000,0075,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,0075,573 0 76,000,24175,573 0 77,000,241 0.77 (75,332) 77,000,000.78 (75,332) 78,000,0075,573 0 78,000,24175,573 0 79,000,241 0.79 (75,332) 79,000,000.80 (75,332) 80,000,0075,573 0 80,000,24180,250,241 0.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,0080,250,24180,250,241 0.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,0080,250,24180,250,241 0.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,004. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. Fora premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (wh ich would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ￥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120￥/$) / ￥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ￥1,250,000)($0.0001275/￥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499￥/$ = 128.15￥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000￥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ￥/$ rate. The following tablesummarizes the payoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit 120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010 121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564 122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666 123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986 124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204 125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010 126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105 127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360 128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360 129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360 130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360 131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360 132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360 133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360 134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360 135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360 136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360 137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360 138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360 139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360 140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360 141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360 142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360 143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360 144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360 145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360 146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360 147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360 148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360 149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360。
国际财务管理课后习题答案
C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure How is it different from economic exposureAnswer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same resultAnswer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contractAnswer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this resultAnswer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge Why or why notAnswer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable Why or why not(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case Why or why not Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000 –= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ￥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ￥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ￥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ￥250 million, .,250m/ = ￥245,700,So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ￥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340, = ￥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340, as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,with dollars ￥245,700,2. Invest in Japan - ￥245,700, ￥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ￥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference.You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $SF and the three-month forward rate is $SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $SF for the premium of $ per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $ = $250. At the expected future spot rate of $SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $, ., $3,.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + , where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3, = $3,200 + $.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and the one -year forward rateis $€. The annual interest rate is % in the U.S. and % in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend Why(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methodsSolution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, ., 20,000,000/ =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($€) = $20,000,000, which can be in vested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000 = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = / = $€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000. 6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the .$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,$3,1500 (strike price)$/SF$PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000/(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000 = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ￥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,.The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When t he option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on . dollars with a strike price of €$ for a premium of € per . dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is % in the euro zone and % in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to takeWhat would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this casec.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on . dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedgeSolution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million for ward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, ., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to ke ep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, ., €< €, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x . Thus the net europroceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, ., €$, or $€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) .Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above . They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of . If the spot rate rises above , they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/ DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/ DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM. If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price , the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between and . If the rate rises above , the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below , the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/ DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/ DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$SpotPut Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit(1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529(1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x –= A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @Buy puts for $/A$ @# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below , fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above , fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,241(75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,241(75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,241(75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,241(75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,241(75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,241(75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,241(75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241 4. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar strike vs. forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to , and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen ., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ￥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120￥/$) / ￥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ￥1,250,000)($￥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium￥/$ = ￥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000￥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ￥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for the DM loan, because it has a known quantity and maturity, but the Lira exposure would retain some of its uncertainty because these factors are not assured.The parent could buy DM calls and Lira puts. This would allow them to take advantage of favorable。
国际财务管理习题及答案
01
3. 国际融资风险管理
02
• 国际融资风险的识别与评估
03
• 国际融资风险的控制与防范措施
国际营运资金管理的答案
1. 国际营运资金管理概述 • 国际营运资金管理的定义和目标
• 国际营运资金管理的主要内容和方法
国际营运资金管理的答案
2. 国际现金管理
• 国际现金流入与流出的管理
• 国际现金预算与控制的方法和 步骤
国际投资决策
1. 简答题
简述国际投资的优势和风险。
4. 案例题
分析某公司如何进行国际投资决策。
2. 论述题
论述国际投资决策需要考虑的因素。
3. 计算题
计算国际投资组合的预期收益率和风险。
国际融资决策
1. 简答题
简述国际融资的渠道和方式。
3. 计算题
计算国际融资的成本和效益。
2. 论述题
论述国际融资决策需要考虑的因 素。
国际财务管理涉及多国经济环境、货 币汇率变动、国际税务法规、政治风 险等因素，需要综合考虑多种因素， 制定合适的财务策略。
国际财务管理的重要性
1. 全球化经营的需要
随着全球化进程加速，跨国公司需要有效的国际财务管理来整合全 球资源，优化资源配置，提高经营效率。
2. 降低财务风险
国际财务管理有助于跨国公司识别、评估和控制财务风险，降低经 营风险。
国际营运资金管理的答案
3. 国际应收账款管理
• 国际应收账款的信用政策制定与执 行
• 国际应收账款的催收与保理业务
04 国际财务管理案例分析
跨国公司外汇风险管理案例
案例背景
某跨国公司在多个国家设有子公 司，由于各国的汇率波动，公司 面临外汇风险。
国际财务管理(填有答案)
《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案第一章绪论一、单选题1. 关于国际财务管理学与财务管理学的关系表述正确的是(C)。
A. 国际财务管理是学习财务管理的基础B. 国际财务管理与财务管理是两门截然不同的学科C. 国际财务管理是财务管理的一个新的分支D. 国际财务管理研究的范围要比财务管理的窄2. 凡经济活动跨越两个或更多国家国界的企业，都可以称为( A )。
A. 国际企业B. 跨国企业C. 跨国公司D. 多国企业3.企业的（C）管理与财务管理密切结合，是国际财务管理的基本特点A.资金B.人事C.外汇D成本4.国际财务管理与跨国企业财务管理两个概念( D) 。
A. 完全相同B. 截然不同C. 仅是名称不同D. 内容有所不同4.国际财务管理的内容不应该包括( C )。
A. 国际技术转让费管理B. 外汇风险管理C. 合并财务报表管理D. 企业进出口外汇收支管理5.“企业生产经营国际化”和“金融市场国际化”的关系是( C )。
A. 二者毫不相关B. 二者完全相同C. 二者相辅相成D. 二者互相起负面影响二、多选题1.国际企业财务管理的组织形态应考虑的因素有（）。
A.公司规模的大小B.国际经营的投入程度C.管理经验的多少D.整个国际经营所采取的组织形式2.国际财务管理体系的内容包括（）A.外汇风险的管理B.国际税收管理C.国际投筹资管理D.国际营运资金管3.国际财务管理目标的特点（）。
A.稳定性B.多元性C.层次性D.复杂性4.广义的国际财务管理观包括（）。
A.世界统一财务管理观B.比较财务管理观C.跨国公司财务管理观D.国际企业财务管理观5. 我国企业的国际财务活动日益频繁，具体表现在( )。
A. 企业从内向型向外向型转化B. 外贸专业公司有了新的发展C. 在国内开办三资企业D. 向国外投资办企业E. 通过各种形式从国外筹集资金三、判断题1.国际财务管理是对企业跨国的财务活动进行的管理。
（）2.国际财务管理学是着重研究企业如何进行国际财务决策，使所有者权益最大化的一门科学。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter
CHAPTER 10 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSLATION EXPOSURESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the difference in the translation process between the monetary/nonmonetary method and the temporal method.Answer: Under the monetary/nonmonetary method, all monetary balance sheet accounts of a foreign subsidiary are translated at the current exchange rate. Other balance sheet accounts are translated at the historical rate exchange rate in effect when the account was first recorded. Under the temporal method, monetary accounts are translated at the current exchange rate. Other balance sheet accounts are also translated at the current rate, if they are carried on the books at current value. If they are carried at historical value, they are translated at the rate in effect on the date the item was put on the books. Since fixed assets and inventory are usually carried at historical costs, the temporal method and the monetary/nonmonetary method will typically provide the same translation.2. How are translation gains and losses handled differently according to the current rate method in parison to the other three methods, that is, the current/noncurrent method, the monetary/nonmonetary method, and the temporal method?Answer: Under the current rate method, translation gains and losses are handled only as an adjustment to net worth through an equity account named the “cumulative translation adjustment〞 account. Nothing passes through the ine statement. The other three translation methods pass foreign exchange gains or losses through the ine statement before they enter on to the balance sheet through the accumulated retained earnings account.3. Identify some instances under FASB 52 when a foreign entity’s functional currency would be the same as the parent firm’s currency.Answer: Three examples under FASB 52, where the foreign entity’s functional currency will be the same as the parent firm’s currency, are: i) the foreign entity’s cash flows directly affect the parent’s cash flows and are readily available for remittance to the parent firm; ii) the sales prices for the foreign entity’s products are responsive on a short-term basis to exchange rate changes, where sales prices are determined through worldwide petition; and, iii) the sales market is primarily located in the parent’s country or sales contracts are denominated in the parent’s currency.4. Describe the remeasurement and translation process under FASB 52 of a wholly owned affiliate that keeps its books in the local currency of the country in which it operates, which is different than its functional currency.Answer: For a foreign entity that keeps its books in its local currency, which is different from its functional currency, the translation process according to FASB 52 is to: first, remeasure the financial reports from the local currency into the functional currency using the temporal method of translation, and second, translate from the functional currency into the reporting currency using the current rate method of translation.5. It is, generally, not possible to pletely eliminate both translation exposure and transaction exposure. In some cases, the elimination of one exposure will also eliminate the other. But in other cases, the elimination of one exposure actually creates the other. Discuss which exposure might be viewed as the most important to effectively manage, if a conflict between controlling both arises. Also, discuss and critique the mon methods for controlling translation exposure.Answer: Since it is, generally, not possible to pletely eliminate both transaction and translation exposure, we remend that transaction exposure be given first priority since it involves real cash flows. The translationprocess, on-the-other hand, has no direct effect on reporting currency cash flows, and will only have a realizable effect on net investment upon the sale or liquidation of the assets.There are two mon methods for controlling translation exposure: a balance sheet hedge and a derivatives hedge. The balance sheet hedge involves equating the amount of exposed assets in an exposure currency with the exposed liabilities in that currency, so the net exposure is zero. Thus when an exposure currency exchange rate changes versus the reporting currency, the change in assets will offset the change in liabilities. To create a balance sheet hedge, once transaction exposure has been controlled, often means creating new transaction exposure. This is not wise since real cash flow losses can result. A derivatives hedge is not really a hedge, but rather a speculative position, since the size of the “hedge〞 is based on the future expected spot rate of exchange for the exposure currency with the reporting currency. If the actual spot rate differs from the expected rate, the “hedge〞 may result in the loss of real cash flows.PROBLEMS1. Assume that FASB 8 is still in effect instead of FASB 52. Construct a translation exposure report for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates that is the counterpart to Exhibit 10.7 in the text. Centralia and its affiliates carry inventory and fixed assets on the books at historical values.Solution: The following table provides a translation exposure report for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates under FASB 8, which is essentially the temporal method of translation. The difference between the new report and Exhibit 10.7 is that nonmonetary accounts such as inventory and fixed assets are translated at the historical exchange rate if they are carried at historical costs. Thus, these accounts will not change values when exchange rates change and they do not create translation exposure.Examination of the table indicates that under FASB 8 there is negative net exposure for the Mexican peso and the euro, whereas under FASB 52 the net exposure for these currencies is positive. There is no change in net exposure for the Canadian dollar and the Swiss franc. Consequently, if the euro depreciates against the dollar from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00, as the text exa mple assumed, exposed assets will now fall in value by a smaller amount than exposed liabilities, instead of vice versa. The associated reporting currency imbalance will be $239,415, calculated as follows:Reporting Currency Imbalance=-€3,949,0000€1.1786/$1.00--€3,949,0000€1.1000/$1.00=$239,415.Translation Exposure Report under FASB 8 for Centralia Corporation and its Mexican and Spanish Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)Canadian Dollar MexicanPeso EuroSwissFrancAssetsCash CD200 Ps 6,000 € 825SF 0 Accounts receivable 0 9,000 1, 0Inventory 0 0 0 0Net fixed assets 0 0 0 0Exposed assets CD200 Ps15,000 € 1,870SF 0LiabilitiesAccounts payable CD 0 Ps 7,000 € 1,364SF 0Notes payable 0 17,000 935 1,400Long-term debt 0 27,000 3,520 0Exposed liabilities CD 0 Ps51,000 € 5,819SF1,400Net exposure CD200 (Ps36,000) (€3,949)(SF1,400)2. Assume that FASB 8 is still in effect instead of FASB 52. Construct a consolidated balance sheet for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates after a depreciation of the euro from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00 that is the counterpart to Exhibit 10.8 in the text. Centralia and its affiliates carr y inventory and fixed assets on the books at historical values.Solution: This problem is the sequel to Problem 1. The solution to Problem 1 showed that if the euro depreciated there would be a reporting currency imbalance of $239,415. Under FASB 8 this is carried through the ine statement as a foreign exchange gain to the retained earnings on the balance sheet. The following table shows that consolidated retained earnings increased to $4,190,000 from $3,950,000 in Exhibit10.8. This is an increase of $240,000, which is the same as the reporting currency imbalance after accounting for rounding error.Consolidated Balance Sheet under FASB 8 for Centralia Corporation and its Mexican and Spanish Affiliates, December 31, 2005: Post-Exchange Rate Change (in 000 Dollars)a This includes CD200,000 the parent firm has in a Canadian bank, carried as $150,000. CD200,000/(CD1.3333/$1.00) = $150,000.b$1,750,000 - $300,000 (= Ps3,000,000/(Ps10.00/$1.00)) intrapany loan = $1,450,000.c,d Investment in affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.e The Spanish affiliate owes a Swiss bank SF375,000 (÷ SF1.2727/€1.00 = €294,649). This is carried on the books,after the exchange rate change, as part of €1,229,649 = €294,649 + €935,000. €1,229,649/(€1.1786/$1.00) = $1,043,313.3. In Example 10.2, a forward contract was used to establish a derivatives “hedge〞 to protect Centralia from a translation loss if the euro depreciated from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00. Assume that an over-the-counter put option on t he euro with a strike price of €1.1393/$1.00 (or $0.8777/€1.00) can be purchased for $0.0088 per euro. Show how the potential translation loss can be “hedged〞 with an option contract.Solution: As in example 10.2, if the potential translation loss is $110,704, the equivalent amount in functional currency that needs to be hedged is €3,782,468. If in fact the euro does depreciate to €1.1786/$1.00 ($0.8485/€1.00), €3,782,468 can be purchased in the spot market for $3,209,289. At a striking price of €1.1393/$1.00, the €3,782,468 can be sold through the put for $3,319,993, yielding a gross profit of $110,704. The put option cost $33,286 (= €3,782,468 x $0.0088). Thus, at an exchange rate of €1.1786/$1.00, the put option will effectively hedge $110,704 - $33,286 = $77,418 of the potential translation loss. At terminal exchange rates of €1.1393/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00, the put option hedge will be less effective. An option contract does not have to be exercised if doing so is disadvantageous to the option o wner. Therefore, the put will not be exercised at exchange rates of less than €1.1393/$1.00 (more than $0.8777/€1.00), in which case the “hedge〞 will lose the $33,286 cost of the option.MINI CASE: SUNDANCE SPORTING GOODS, INC.Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc., is a U.S. manufacturer of high-quality sporting goods--principally golf, tennis and other racquet equipment, and also lawn sports, such as croquet and badminton-- with administrative offices and manufacturing facilities in Chicago, Illinois. Sundance has two wholly owned manufacturing affiliates, one in Mexico and the other in Canada. The Mexican affiliate is located in Mexico City and services all of Latin America. The Canadian affiliate is in Toronto and serves only Canada. Each affiliate keeps its books in its local currency, which is also the functional currency for the affiliate. The current exchange rates are: $1.00 = CD1.25 = Ps3.30 = A1.00 = ¥105 = W800. The nonconsolidated balance sheets for Sundance and its two affiliates appear in the acpanying table.Nonconsolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and Its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)a The parent firm is owed Ps1,320,000 by the Mexican affiliate. This sum is included in the parent’s accounts receivable as $400,000, transl ated at Ps3.30/$1.00. The remainder of the parent’s (Mexican affiliate’s) accounts receivable (payable) is denominated in dollars (pesos).b The Mexican affiliate is wholly owned by the parent firm. It is carried on the parent firm’s books at $2,400,000. This represents the sum of the mon stock (Ps4,500,000) and retained earnings (Ps3,420,000) on the Mexican affiliate’s books, translated at Ps3.30/$1.00.c The Canadian affiliate is wholly owned by the parent firm. It is carried on the parent firm’s books at $3,600,000. This represents the sum of the mon stock (CD2,900,000) and the retained earnings (CD1,600,000) on the Canadian affiliate’s books, translated at CD1.25/$1.00.d The parent firm has outstanding notes payable of ¥126,000,000 due a Japanese ba nk. This sum is carried on the parent firm’s books as $1,200,000, translated at ¥105/$1.00. Other notes payable are denominated in U.S. dollars.e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This sum is carried on the Mexican affiliate’s books as Ps396,000, translated at A1.00/Ps3.30. Other accounts receivable are denominated in Mexican pesos.f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This sum is c arried on the Canadian affiliate’s books as CD300,000, translated at W800/CD1.25. Other accounts receivable are denominated in Canadian dollars.You joined the International Treasury division of Sundance six months ago after spending the last two years receiving your MBA degree. The corporate treasurer has asked you to prepare a report analyzing all aspects of the translation exposure faced by Sundance as a MNC. She has also asked you to address in your analysis the relationship between the firm’s trans lation exposure and its transaction exposure. After performing a forecast of future spot rates of exchange, you decide that you must do the following before any sensible report can be written.a. Using the current exchange rates and the nonconsolidated balance sheets for Sundance and its affiliates, prepare a consolidated balance sheet for the MNC according to FASB 52.b. i. Prepare a translation exposure report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc., and its two affiliates.ii. Using the translation exposure report you have prepared, determine if any reporting currency imbalance will result from a change in exchange rates to which the firm has currency exposure. Your forecast is that exchange rates will change from $1.00 = CD1.25 = Ps3.30 = A1.00 = ¥105 = W800 to $1.00 = CD1.30 =Ps3.30 = A1.03 = ¥105 = W800.c. Prepare a second consolidated balance sheet for the MNC using the exchange rates you expect in the future. Determine how any reporting currency imbalance will affect the new consolidated balance sheet for the MNC.d. i. Prepare a transaction exposure report for Sundance and its affiliates. Determine if any transaction exposures are also translation exposures.ii. Investigate what Sundance and its affiliates can do to control its transaction and translation exposures. Determine if any of the translation exposure should be hedged.Suggested Solution to Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc.Note to Instructor: It is not necessary to assign the entire case problem. Parts a. and b.i. can be used as self-contained problems, respectively, on basic balance sheet consolidation and the preparation of a translation exposure report.a. Below is the consolidated balance sheet for the MNC prepared according to the current rate method prescribed by FASB 52. Note that the balance sheet balances. That is, Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Net Worth equal one another. Thus, the assumption is that the current exchange rates are the same as when the affiliates were established. This assumption is relaxed in part c.Consolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005: Pre-Exchange Rate Change (in 000 Dollars)Sundance, Inc. (parent) MexicanAffiliateCanadianAffiliateConsolidatedBalance Sheeta$2,500,000 - $400,000 (= Ps1,320,000/(Ps3.30/$1.00)) intrapany loan = $2,100,000.b,c The investment in the affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.d The parent owes a Japanese bank ¥126,000,000. This is carried on the books as $1,200,000 (=¥126,000,000/(¥105/$1.00)).e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This is carried on the Mexican affiliate’s books as Ps396,000 (= A120,000 x Ps3.30/A1.00).f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This is carried on the Canadian affiliate’s books as CD300,000 (= W192,000,000/(W800/CD1.25)).b. i. Below is presented the translation exposure report for the Sundance MNC. Note, from the report that there is net positive exposure in the Mexican peso, Canadian dollar, Argentine austral and Korean won. If any of these exposure currencies appreciates (depreciates) against the U.S. dollar, exposed assets denominated in these currencies will increase (fall) in translated value by a greater amount than the exposed liabilities denominated in these currencies. There is negative net exposure in the Japanese yen. If the yen appreciates (depreciates) against the U.S. dollar, exposed assets denominated in the yen will increase (fall) in translated value by smaller amount than the exposed liabilities denominated in the yen.Translation Exposure Report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)b. ii. The problem assumes that Canadian dollar depreciates from CD1.25/$1.00 to CD1.30/$1.00 and that the Argentine austral depreciates from A1.00/$1.00 to A1.03/$1.00. To determine the reporting currency imbalance in translated value caused by these exchange rate changes, we can use the following formula:Net Exposure Currency i S(i/reporting)-Net Exposure Currency i S(i/reporting)new old = Reporting Currency Imbalance.From the translation exposure report we can determine that the depreciation in the Canadian dollar will cause aCD4,200,000 CD1.30/$1.00-CD4,200,000CD1.25/$1.00= -$129,231reporting currency imbalance.Similarly, the depreciation in the Argentine austral will cause aA120,000 A1.03/$1.00-A120,000A1.00/$1.00= -$3,495reporting currency imbalance.In total, the depreciation of the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral will cause a reporting currency imbalance in translated value equal to -$129,231 -$3,495= -$132,726.c. The new consolidated balance sheet for Sundance MNC after the depreciation of the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral is presented below. Note that in order for the new consolidated balance sheet to balance after the exchange rate change, it is necessary to have a cumulative translation adjustment account balance of -$ thousand, which is the amount of the reporting currency imbalance determined in part b. ii (rounded to the nearest thousand).Consolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005: Post-Exchange Rate Change (in 000 Dollars)a$2,500,000 - $400,000 (= Ps1,320,000/(Ps3.30/$1.00)) intrapany loan = $2,100,000.b,c The investment in the affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.d The parent owes a Japanese bank ¥126,000,000. This is carried on the books as $1,200,000 (=¥126,000,000/(¥105/$1.00)).e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This is carried on the Mexican affiliate’s books as Ps384,466 (= A120,000 x Ps3.30/A1.03).f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This is carried on the Canadian affiliate’s books as CD312,000 (=W192,000,000/(W800/CD1.30)).d. i. The transaction exposure report for Sundance, Inc. and its two affiliates is presented below. The report indicates that the Ps1,320,000 accounts receivable due from the Mexican affiliate is not also a translation exposure because this is netted out in the consolidation. However, the ¥126,000,000 notes payable of the parent is also a translation exposure. Additionally, the A120,000 accounts receivable of the Mexican affiliate and the W192,000,000 accounts receivable of the Canadian affiliate are both translation exposures.Transaction Exposure Report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. andits Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005not have an immediate direct effect on operating cash flows, we will first address the transaction exposure that confronts Sundance and its affiliates. The analysis assumes the depreciation in the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral have already taken place.The parent firm can pay off the ¥126,000,000 loan from the Japanese bank using funds from the cash account and money from accounts receivable that it will collect. Additionally, the parent firm can collect the accounts receivable of Ps1,320,000 from its Mexican affiliate that is carried on the books as $400,000. In turn, the Mexican affiliate can collect the A120,000 accounts receivable from the Argentine importer, valued at Ps384,466 after the depreciation in the austral, to guard against further depreciation and to use to partially pay off the peso liability to the parent. The Canadian affiliate can eliminate its transaction exposure by collecting the W192,000,000 accounts receivable as soon as possible, which is currently valued at CD312,000.The elimination of these transaction exposures will affect the translation exposure of Sundance MNC.A revised translation exposure report follows.Revised Translation Exposure Report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)Note from the revised translation exposure report that the elimination of the transaction exposure will also eliminate the translation exposure in the Japanese yen, Argentine austral and the Korean won. Moreover, the net translation exposure in the Mexican peso has been reduced. But the net translation exposure in the Canadian dollar has increased as a result of the Canadian affiliate’s collection of the won receivable.The remaining translation exposure can be hedged using a balance sheet hedge or a derivatives hedge. Use of a balance sheet hedge is likely to create new transaction exposure, however. Use of a derivatives hedge is actually speculative, and not a real hedge, since the size of the “hedge〞is based on one’s expectation as to the future spot exchange rate. An incorrect estimate will result in the “hedge〞 losing money for the MNC.。
国际财务管理答案Chap020
CHAPTER 20 INTERNATIONAL TRADE FINANCESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Discuss some of the reasons why international trade is more difficult and risky from the exporter’s perspective than is domestic trade.Answer: International trade is more difficult and risky for a firm than is domestic trade. In foreign trade, the exporter may not be familiar with the buyer, and thus not know if the importer is creditworthy. If merchandise is exported abroad and the buyer does not pay, it may prove difficult, if not impossible, for the exporter to have any legal recourse. Additionally, political instability makes it risky to ship merchandise abroad to certain parts of the world.2. What three basic documents are necessary to conduct a typical foreign commerce trade? Briefly discuss the purpose of each.Answer: The three basic documents necessary to conduct a typical foreign commerce trade are: letter of credit, time draft, and a bill of lading. A letter of credit (L/C)is a guarantee from the importer’s bank that it will act on behalf of the importer and pay the exporter for the merchandise if all relevant documents specified in the L/C are presented according to the terms of L/C. A time draft is a written order instructing the importer or his agent, the importer’s bank, to pay the amount specified on its face on a certain date. A bill of lading (B/L) is a document issued by the common carrier specifying that it has received the goods for shipment; it can serve as title to the goods.3. How does a time draft become a banker’s acceptance?Answer: When the goods are shipped by the exporter via common carrier, the exporter’s bank presents the shipping documents and the time draft to the importer’s bank. After taking title to the goods via the bill of lading, the importer’s bank accepts the time draft, creating at this point a banker’s acceptance (B/A). A B/A is a money market instrument for which a secondary market exists.4. Discuss the various ways the exporter can receive payment in a foreign trade transaction after the importer’s bank accepts the exporter’s time draft and it becomes a banker’s acceptance.Answer: The exporter can hold the B/A until maturity and present it to the importer’s b ank for payment at face value. Alternatively, the exporter can receive the discounted value at inception from its bank, or sell it at its current discounted value in the money market prior to maturity.5. What is a forfaiting transaction?Answer: Forfaiting is a form of medium-term trade financing used to finance the sale of capital goods. A forfaiting transaction involves the sale by the exporter of promissory notes signed by the exporter in favor of the importer. The forfait, usually a bank, buys the notes at a discount from face value. The forfait does not have recourse against the exporter in the event of default by the importer. The promissory notes typically extend out in a series over a period of three to five years, with a note in the series maturing every six months.6. What is the purpose of the Export-Import Bank?Answer: The Export-Import Bank (Eximbank) of the United States was founded as an independent government agency to facilitate and finance U.S. export trade. Eximbank’s purpose is to provide financing in situations where private financial institutions are unable or unwilling because: i) the loan maturity was too long; ii) the amount of the loan was too large; iii) the loan risk was too great; and, iv) where the importing firm had difficulty obtaining hard currency for payment. To meet its objectives, Eximbank provides service through three types of programs: direct loans to foreign borrowers, loan guarantees, and credit insurance.7. Do you think that a country’s government should assist private business in the conduct of international trade through direct loans, loan guarantees, and/or credit insurance?Answer: When a country’s government offers below-market financing directly to foreign importers, or offers loan guarantees to domestic banks financing the foreign import, or provides low cost credit insurance to U.S. exporters to alleviate the commercial and political risk in the sale, it is using taxpayers’ money to subsidize foreign trade. Consequently, the foreign trade is not paying for itself. Nevertheless, if most governments of developed countries offer such assistance to their domestic exporters, it is difficultfor one to refuse if the country desires to have its export-oriented industries remain competitive.8. Briefly discuss the various types of countertrade.Answer: Countertrade is an umbrella term used to describe six types of international trade: barter, clearing arrangement, switch trading, buy-back, counterpurchase, and offset. The first three do not involve the use of money, whereas the later three do.Barter is the direct exchange of goods between two parties. While money does not exchange hands in a barter transaction, it is common to value the goods each party exchanges in an agreed-upon currency.A clearing arrangement is a form of barter in which the counterparties contract to purchase a certain amount of goods and services from one another. Both parties set up accounts with each other that are debited whenever one country imports from the other. The clearing arrangement introduces the concept of credit to barter transactions, and means bilateral trade can take place that does not have to be immediately settled. A switch trade is the purchase by a third party of one country’s clearing agreement imbalance for hard currency, which is in turn resold. The second buyer uses the account balance to purchase goods and services from the original clearing agreement counterparty that had the account imbalance.A buy-back transaction involves a technology transfer via the sale of a manufacturing plant. As part of the transaction, the seller agrees to purchase a certain portion of the plant output once it is constructed. First, the plant buyer borrows hard currency in the capital market to pay the seller for the plant. Second, the plant seller agrees to purchase enough of the plant output over a period of time to enable the buyer to pay back the borrowed funds. A counterpurchase is similar to a buy-back transaction, but with some notable differences. The major difference between a buy-back and a counterpurchase transaction is that in the latter, the seller agrees to purchase unrelated merchandise that has not been produced on the exported equipment. The seller agrees to purchase goods from a list drawn up by the importer at prices set by the importer. The list frequently includes items the buyer may be experiencing difficulty in selling. An offset transaction can be viewed as a counterpurchase trade agreement involving the aerospace/defense industry.9. Discuss some of the pros and cons of countertrade from the country’s perspective and the firm’s perspective.Answer: Arguments both for and against countertrade transactions can be made. There are both negative and positive incentives for a country to be in favor of countertrade. Negative incentives are those that areforced upon a country or corporations whether or not they desire to engage in countertrade. Negative reasons include: the conservation of cash and hard currency, the improvement of trade imbalances, and the maintenance of export prices. Positive reasons from both the country and corporate perspectives include: enhanced economic development, increased employment, technology transfer, market expansion, increased profitability, less costly sourcing of supply, reduction of surplus goods from inventory, and the development of marketing expertise.Those against countertrade transactions claim that such transactions tamper with the fundamental operation of free markets, and therefore, resources are used inefficiently. Opponents claim that transaction costs are increased, that multilateral trade is restricted through fostering bilateral trade agreements, and that, in general, transactions that do not make use of money represent a step backwards in economic development.10. What is the difference between a buy-back transaction and a counterpurchase?Answer: A buy-back transaction involves a technology transfer via the sale of a manufacturing plant. As part of the transaction, the seller agrees to purchase a certain portion of the plant output once it is constructed to enable the buyer to pay back the borrowed funds. In a counterpurchase, the seller agrees to purchase unrelated merchandise that has not been produced on the exported equipment. Generally, the seller agrees to purchase goods from a list drawn up by the importer at prices set by the importer. The list frequently includes items the buyer may be experiencing difficulty in selling.PROBLEMS1. Assume the time from acceptance to maturity on a $2,000,000 banker’s acceptance is 90 days. Further assume that the importing bank’s acceptance commission is 1.25 percent and that the market rate for 90-day B/As is 7 percent. Determine the amount the exporter will receive if he holds the B/A until maturity and also the amount the exporter will receive if he discounts the B/A with the importer’s bank.Solution: The exporter will receive $1,993,750 = $2,000,000 x [1 - (.0125 x 90/360)] if he holds the B/A to maturity. The acceptance commission is $6,250. The exporter will receive $1,958,750 = $2,000,000 x [1 - ((.0700 + .0125) x 90/360)] if he discounts the B/A with the importer’s bank.2. The time from acceptance to maturity on a $1,000,000 banker’s acceptance is 120 days. The imp orter’s bank’s acceptance commission is 1.75 percent and the market rate for 120-day B/As is 5.75 percent. What amount will the exporter receive if he holds the B/A until maturity? If he discounts the B/A with the importer’s bank? Also determine the bond equivalent yield the importer’s bank will earn from discounting the B/A with the exporter. If the exporter’s opportunity cost of capital is 11 percent, should he discount the B/A or hold it to maturity?Solution: If the exporter holds the B/A until maturity, he will receive $994,166.67 = $1,000,000 x [1 - (.0175 x 120/360)]. Thus, the acceptance commission is $5,833.33.If the exporter discounts the B/A he will receive $975,000 = $1,000,000x [1 - ((.0575 + .0175) x 120/360)].The importer’s bank rec eives a discount rate of interest of 7.5 percent (= 5.75 + 1.75 percent) on its investment. At maturity it will receive $1,000,000 from the importer. The bond equivalent yield the importer’s bank earns on its investment is 7.8 percent, or .078 = ($1,000,000/$975,000 - 1) x 365/120.The exporter pays the acceptance commission regardless of whether he discounts the B/A or holds it to maturity. The bond equivalent rate the exporter receives from discounting the B/A is 5.98 percent, or .0598 = ($994,166.67/$975,000 - 1) x 365/120. Since the exporter’s opportunity cost of capital is 11 percent, which is greater than 5.98 percent compounded tri-annually (an effective annual rate of 6.10 percent), he should discount the B/A.MINI CASE: AMERICAN MACHINE TOOLS, INC.American Machine Tools is a mid-western manufacturer of tool-and-die-making equipment. The company has had an inquiry from a representative of the Estonian government about the terms of sale for a $5,000,000 order of machinery. The sales manager spoke with the Estonian representative, but he is doubtful that the Estonian government will be able to obtain enough hard currency to make the purchase. While the U.S. economy has been growing, American Machine Tools has not had a very good year. An additional $5,000,000 in sales would definitely help. If something cannot be arranged, the firm will likely be forced to lay off some of its skilled workforce.Is there a way that you can think of that American Machine Tools might be able to make the machinery sale to Estonia?Suggested Solution to American Tools, Inc.American Machine Tools needs a manager in charge of countertrade. This manage would be skilled in negotiating trades for his firm’s machine tools. Since the U.S. economy is fairly strong, th ere are two types of countertrades that might work with the Estonian government and help American Machine Tools consummate the sale: a buy-back transaction or a countertrade.In a buy-back transaction, the Estonian government would issue debt denominated in a hard currency to obtain the funds to purchase the equipment from American Machine Tools. It should be able to obtain hard currency debt financing if it is likely that it can service the debt. American Machine Tools, in turn, would agree to buy in dollars from the Estonian tool and die manufacturer enough of the output produced on the machinery to enable it to meet the debt service obligations. A countertrade works similarly, except that American Machine Tools would agree to purchase enough other goods produced in Estonia to enable the hard currency debt service obligations to be met. Either of these two types of countertrade would work if American Machine Tools has the sales ability to market the Estonia output in the U.S., or elsewhere.。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapterCHAPTER 10 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSLATION EXPOSURESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the difference in the translation process between the monetary/nonmonetary method and the temporal method. Answer: Under the monetary/nonmonetary method, all monetary balance sheet accounts of a foreign subsidiary are translated at the current exchange rate. Other balance sheet accounts are translated at the historical rate exchange rate in effect when the account was first recorded. Under the temporal method, monetary accounts are translated at the current exchange rate. Other balance sheet accounts are also translated at the current rate, if they are carried on the books at current value. If they are carried at historical value, they are translated at the rate in effect on the date the item was put on the books. Since fixed assets and inventory are usually carried at historical costs, the temporal method and the monetary/nonmonetary method will typically provide the same translation.2. How are translation gains and losses handled differently according to the current rate method in comparison to the other three methods, that is, the current/noncurrent method, the monetary/nonmonetary method, and the temporal method? Answer: Under the current rate method, translation gains and losses are handled only as an adjustment to net worth through an equity account named the “cumulative translation adjustment” account. Nothing passes through the income statement. Th e other three translation methods pass foreign exchange gains or losses through the income statement before they enter on to the balance sheet through the accumulated retained earnings account.3. Identify some instances under FASB 52 when a foreign enti ty’s functional currency would be the same as the parent firm’s currency.Answer: Three examples under FASB 52, where the foreign entity’s functional currency will be the same as the parent firm’s currency, are: i) the foreign entity’s cash flows directly affect the parent’s cash flows and are readily available for remittance to the parent firm; ii) the sales prices for the foreign entity’s products are responsive on a short-term basis to exchange rate changes, where sales prices are determined through worldwide competition; and, iii) the sales market is primarily located in the parent’s country or sales contracts are denominated in the parent’s currency.4. Describe the remeasurement and translation process under FASB 52 of a wholly owned affiliate that keeps its books in the local currency of the country in which it operates, which is different than its functional currency.Answer: For a foreign entity that keeps its books in its local currency, which is different from its functional currency, the translation process according to FASB 52 is to: first, remeasure the financial reports from the local currency into the functional currency using the temporal method of translation, and second, translate from the functional currency into the reporting currency using the current rate method of translation.5. It is, generally, not possible to completely eliminate both translation exposure and transaction exposure. In some cases, the elimination of one exposure will also eliminate the other. But in other cases, the elimination of one exposure actually creates the other. Discuss which exposure might be viewed as the most important to effectively manage, if a conflict between controlling both arises. Also, discuss and critique the common methods for controlling translation exposure.Answer: Since it is, generally, not possible to completely eliminate both transaction and translation exposure, we recommend that transaction exposure be given first priority since it involves real cash flows. The translation process, on-the-other hand, has no direct effect on reporting currency cash flows, and will only have a realizable effect on net investment upon the sale or liquidation of the assets.There are two common methods for controlling translation exposure: a balance sheet hedge and a derivatives hedge. The balance sheet hedge involves equating the amount of exposed assets in an exposure currency with the exposed liabilities in that currency, so the net exposure is zero. Thus when an exposure currency exchange rate changes versus the reporting currency, the change in assets will offset the change in liabilities. To create a balance sheet hedge, once transaction exposure has been controlled, often means creating new transaction exposure. This is not wise since real cash flow losses can result. A derivatives hedge is not really a hedge, but rather a speculative position, since the size of the “hedge” is based on the future expected spot rate of exchange for the exposure currency with the reporting currency. If the actual spot rate differs from the expected rate, the “hedge” may result in the loss of real cash flows.PROBLEMS1. Assume that FASB 8 is still in effect instead of FASB 52. Construct a translation exposure report for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates that is the counterpart to Exhibit 10.7 in the text. Centralia and its affiliates carry inventory and fixed assets on the books at historical values.Solution: The following table provides a translation exposure report for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates under FASB 8, which is essentially the temporal method of translation. The difference between the new report and Exhibit 10.7 is that nonmonetary accounts such as inventory and fixed assets are translated at the historical exchange rate if they are carried at historical costs. Thus, these accounts will not change values when exchange rates change and they do not create translation exposure.Examination of the table indicates that under FASB 8 there is negative net exposure for the Mexican peso and the euro, whereas under FASB 52 the net exposure for these currencies is positive. There is no change in net exposure for the Canadian dollar and the Swiss franc. Consequently, if the euro depreciates against the dollar from €1.1000/$1.00 to€1.1786/$1.00, as the text example assumed, exposed assets will now fall in value by a smaller amount than exposed liabilities, instead of vice versa. The associated reporting currency imbalance will be $239,415, calculated as follows: Reporting Currency Imbalance=-€3,949,0000€1.1786/$1.00--€3,949,0000€1.1000/$1.00=$239,415.Translation Exposure Report under FASB 8 for Centralia Corporation and its Mexican and Spanish Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)Canadian Dollar MexicanPeso EuroSwissFrancAssetsCash CD200 Ps 6,000 € 825SF 0 Accounts receivable 0 9,000 1,045 0Inventory 0 0 0 0Net fixed assets 0 0 0Exposed assets CD200 Ps15,000 € 1,870SF 0LiabilitiesAccounts payable CD 0 Ps 7,000 € 1,364SF 0 Notes payable 0 17,000 935 1,400Long-term debt 0 27,000 3,520ExposedliabilitiesCD 0 Ps51,000 € 5,819SF1,400Net exposure CD200 (Ps36,000) (€3,949)(SF1,400)2. Assume that FASB 8 is still in effect instead of FASB 52. Construct a consolidated balance sheet for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates after a depreciation of the euro from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00 that is the counterpart to Exhibit 10.8 inthe text. Centralia and its affiliates carry inventory and fixed assets on the books at historical values.Solution: This problem is the sequel to Problem 1. The solution to Problem 1 showed that if the euro depreciated there would be a reporting currency imbalance of $239,415. Under FASB 8 this is carried through the income statement as a foreignexchange gain to the retained earnings on the balance sheet. The following table shows that consolidated retained earnings increased to $4,190,000 from $3,950,000 in Exhibit 10.8. This is an increase of $240,000, which is the same as the reporting currency imbalance after accounting for rounding error.Consolidated Balance Sheet under FASB 8 for Centralia Corporation and its Mexican anda This includes CD200,000 the parent firm has in a Canadian bank, carried as $150,000. CD200,000/(CD1.3333/$1.00) = $150,000.b$1,750,000 - $300,000 (= Ps3,000,000/(Ps10.00/$1.00)) intracompany loan = $1,450,000.c,d Investment in affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.e The Spanish affiliate owes a Swiss bank SF375,000 (÷ SF1.2727/€1.00 = €294,649). This is carried on the books,after the exchange rate change, as part of €1,229,649 = €294,649 + €935,000. €1,229,649/(€1.1786/$1.00) = $1,043,313.3. In Example 10.2, a f orward contract was used to establish a derivatives “hedge” to protect Centralia from a translation loss if the euro depreciated from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00. Assume that an over-the-counter put option on the euro with a strike price of €1.1393/$1.00 (or $0.8777/€1.00) can be purchased for $0.0088 per euro. Show how the potential translation loss can be “hedged” with an option contract.Solution: As in example 10.2, if the potential translation loss is $110,704, the equivalent amount in functiona l currency that needs to be hedged is €3,782,468. If in fact the euro does depreciate to €1.1786/$1.00 ($0.8485/€1.00), €3,782,468 can be purchased in the spot market for $3,209,289. At a striking price of €1.1393/$1.00, the €3,782,468 can be sold throu gh the put for $3,319,993, yielding a gross profit of $110,704. The put option cost $33,286 (= €3,782,468 x $0.0088). Thus, at an exchange rate of €1.1786/$1.00, the put option will effectively hedge $110,704 - $33,286 = $77,418 of the potential translation loss. At terminal exchange rates of €1.1393/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00, the put option hedge will be less effective. An option contract does not have to be exercised if doing so is disadvantageous to the option owner. Therefore, the put will not be exercised at exchange rates of less than €1.1393/$1.00 (more than $0.8777/€1.00), in which case the “hedge” will lose the $33,286 cost of the option.MINI CASE: SUNDANCE SPORTING GOODS, INC.Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc., is a U.S. manufacturer of high-quality sporting goods--principally golf, tennis and other racquet equipment, and also lawn sports, such as croquet and badminton-- with administrative offices and manufacturing facilities in Chicago, Illinois. Sundance has two wholly owned manufacturing affiliates, one in Mexico and the other in Canada. The Mexican affiliate is located in Mexico City and services all of Latin America. The Canadian affiliate is in Toronto and serves only Canada. Each affiliate keeps its books in its local currency, which is also the functional currency for the affiliate. The current exchange rates are: $1.00 = CD1.25 = Ps3.30 = A1.00 = ￥105 = W800. The nonconsolidated balance sheets for Sundance and its two affiliates appear in the accompanying table.Nonconsolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and Its Mexican anda The parent firm is owed Ps1,320,000 by the Mexican affiliate. This sum is included in the parent’s accounts receivable as $400,000, translated at Ps3.30/$1.00. The remainder of the parent’s (Mexican affiliate’s) accounts receivable (payable) is denominated in dollars (pesos).b The Mexican affiliate is wholly owned by the parent firm. It is carried on the parent firm’s books at $2,400,000. This represents the sum of the comm on stock (Ps4,500,000) and retained earnings (Ps3,420,000) on the Mexican affiliate’s books, translated at Ps3.30/$1.00.c The Canadian affiliate is wholly owned by the parent firm. It is carried on the parent firm’s books at $3,600,000. This represents the sum of the common stock (CD2,900,000) and the retained earnings (CD1,600,000) on the Canadian affiliate’s books, translated at CD1.25/$1.00.d The parent firm has outstanding notes payable of ￥126,000,000 due a Japanese bank. This sum is carried on th e parent firm’s books as $1,200,000, translated at￥105/$1.00. Other notes payable are denominated in U.S. dollars.e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This sum is carried on the Mexican affi liate’s books as Ps396,000, translated at A1.00/Ps3.30. Other accounts receivable are denominated in Mexican pesos.f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This sum is carried on the Canadian affilia te’s books as CD300,000, translated at W800/CD1.25. Other accounts receivable are denominated in Canadian dollars.You joined the International Treasury division of Sundance six months ago after spending the last two years receiving your MBA degree. The corporate treasurer has asked you to prepare a report analyzing all aspects of the translation exposure faced by Sundance as a MNC. She has also asked you to address in your analysis the relationship between the firm’s translation exposure and its transa ction exposure. After performing a forecast of future spot rates of exchange, you decide that you must do the following before any sensible report can be written.a. Using the current exchange rates and the nonconsolidated balance sheets for Sundance and its affiliates, prepare a consolidated balance sheet for the MNC according to FASB 52.b. i. Prepare a translation exposure report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc., and its two affiliates.ii. Using the translation exposure report you have prepared, determine if any reporting currency imbalance will result from a change in exchange rates to which thefirm has currency exposure. Your forecast is that exchange rates will change from $1.00 = CD1.25 = Ps3.30 = A1.00 = ￥105 = W800 to $1.00 = CD1.30 = P s3.30 = A1.03 = ￥105 = W800.c. Prepare a second consolidated balance sheet for the MNC using the exchange rates you expect in the future. Determine how any reporting currency imbalance will affect the new consolidated balance sheet for the MNC.d. i. Prepare a transaction exposure report for Sundance and its affiliates. Determine if any transaction exposures are also translation exposures.ii. Investigate what Sundance and its affiliates can do to control its transaction and translation exposures. Determine if any of the translation exposure should be hedged.Suggested Solution to Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc.Note to Instructor: It is not necessary to assign the entire case problem. Parts a. and b.i. can be used as self-contained problems, respectively, on basic balance sheet consolidation and the preparation of a translation exposure report.a. Below is the consolidated balance sheet for the MNC prepared according to the current rate method prescribed by FASB52. Note that the balance sheet balances. That is, Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Net Worth equal one another. Thus, the assumption is that the current exchange rates are the same as when the affiliates were established. This assumption is relaxed in part c.Consolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates,December 31, 2005: Pre-Exchange Rate Change (in 000 Dollars) Sundance, Inc.Mexican Affiliate Canadian AffiliateConsolidated Balance a$2,500,000 - $400,000 (= Ps1,320,000/(Ps3.30/$1.00)) intracompany loan = $2,100,000.b,c The investment in the affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.d The parent owes a Japanese bank ￥126,000,000. This is carried on the books as $1,200,000 (=￥126,000,000/(￥105/$1.00)).e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This is carried on the Mexican affiliate’s books as Ps396,000 (= A120,000 xPs3.30/A1.00).f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This is carried on the Canadian affiliate’s books as CD300,000 (= W192,000,000/(W800/CD1.25)).b. i. Below is presented the translation exposure report for the Sundance MNC. Note, from the report that there is net positive exposure in the Mexican peso, Canadian dollar, Argentine austral and Korean won. If any of these exposure currencies appreciates (depreciates) against the U.S. dollar, exposed assets denominated in these currencies will increase (fall) in translated value by a greater amount than the exposed liabilities denominated in these currencies. There is negative net exposure in the Japanese yen. If the yen appreciates (depreciates) against the U.S. dollar, exposed assets denominated in the yen will increase (fall) in translated value by smaller amount than the exposed liabilities denominated in the yen. Translation Exposure Report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)b. ii. The problem assumes that Canadian dollar depreciates from CD1.25/$1.00 to CD1.30/$1.00 and that the Argentine austral depreciates from A1.00/$1.00 to A1.03/$1.00. To determine the reporting currency imbalance in translated value caused by these exchange rate changes, we can use the following formula:Net Exposure Currency i S(i/reporting)-Net Exposure Currency i S(i/reporting)new old = Reporting Currency Imbalance.From the translation exposure report we can determine that the depreciation in the Canadian dollar will cause aCD4,200,000 CD1.30/$1.00-CD4,200,000CD1.25/$1.00= -$129,231reporting currency imbalance.Similarly, the depreciation in the Argentine austral will cause aA120,000 A1.03/$1.00-A120,000A1.00/$1.00= -$3,495reporting currency imbalance.In total, the depreciation of the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral will cause a reporting currency imbalance in translated value equal to -$129,231 -$3,495= -$132,726.c. The new consolidated balance sheet for Sundance MNC after the depreciation of the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral is presented below. Note that in order for the new consolidated balance sheet to balance after the exchange rate change, it is necessary to have a cumulative translation adjustment account balance of -$133 thousand, which is the amountof the reporting currency imbalance determined in part b. ii (rounded to the nearest thousand).。
国际财务管理填有答案
《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案第一章绪论一、单选题1. 关于国际财务管理学与财务管理学的关系表述正确的是(C)。
A. 国际财务管理是学习财务管理的基础B. 国际财务管理与财务管理是两门截然不同的学科C. 国际财务管理是财务管理的一个新的分支D. 国际财务管理研究的范围要比财务管理的窄2. 凡经济活动跨越两个或更多国家国界的企业，都可以称为( A )。
A. 国际企业B. 跨国企业C. 跨国公司D. 多国企业3.企业的（ C）管理与财务管理密切结合，是国际财务管理的基本特点A.资金B.人事C.外汇 D成本4.国际财务管理与跨国企业财务管理两个概念( D) 。
A. 完全相同B. 截然不同C. 仅是名称不同D. 内容有所不同4.国际财务管理的内容不应该包括( C )。
A. 国际技术转让费管理B. 外汇风险管理C. 合并财务报表管理D. 企业进出口外汇收支管理5.“企业生产经营国际化”和“金融市场国际化”的关系是( C )。
A. 二者毫不相关B. 二者完全相同C. 二者相辅相成D. 二者互相起负面影响二、多选题1.国际企业财务管理的组织形态应考虑的因素有（）。
A.公司规模的大小B.国际经营的投入程度C.管理经验的多少D.整个国际经营所采取的组织形式2.国际财务管理体系的内容包括（）A.外汇风险的管理B.国际税收管理C.国际投筹资管理D.国际营运资金管3.国际财务管理目标的特点（）。
A.稳定性B.多元性C.层次性D.复杂性4.广义的国际财务管理观包括（）。
A.世界统一财务管理观B.比较财务管理观C.跨国公司财务管理观D.国际企业财务管理观5. 我国企业的国际财务活动日益频繁，具体表现在( )。
A. 企业从内向型向外向型转化B. 外贸专业公司有了新的发展C. 在国内开办三资企业D. 向国外投资办企业E. 通过各种形式从国外筹集资金三、判断题1.国际财务管理是对企业跨国的财务活动进行的管理。
（）2.国际财务管理学是着重研究企业如何进行国际财务决策，使所有者权益最大化的一门科学。
国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2
CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions，i。
e。
，consumption，production, and investment，are highly globalized。
It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management。
This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago. At that time, most professors customarily （and safely, to some extent）ignored international aspects of finance. This mode of operation has become untenable since then。
2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management？Answer：There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are:1. foreign exchange and political risks，2。
国际财务管理课后习题答案
国际财务管理
第四章 外汇汇率预测
• 1、
St 5
1 8%
1 5% • 2、 iA =（1+6%）×（1+5%）－1≈11.3% iB =（1+6%）×（1+8%）－1≈14.48%
SF 5 1 14 . 48 % 1 11 . 3 % 5 . 1429
108
1
110
1
9月1日，98 100 0 . 010204 0 . 01 0 . 000204 由此造成收益为：6250×（0.000204-0.0001683）≈0.23万美元
5、
卖出应收款100万英镑应收美元数
执行汇率 应收款到期日的 期权协 即期汇率 定价格 （汇率） 1英镑=1.58美元 1英镑=1.60美元 1英镑=1.63美元 1英镑=1.65美元 1英镑=1.67美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.65美元 1.67美元
第六章 外汇风险管理的策略 与方法
外汇现货市场
外汇期货市场
3月1日，
6250 110 56 . 82 万美元 62 . 5 万美元
3月1日，
9月1日，
6250 108
57 . 87 万美元
9月1日，
6250 100
6250 98
63 . 78 万美元
损失：62.5－56.82=5.68万美 收益：63.78－ 57.87－0.5 元 =5.41万美元 • 现货市场的损失没有全部被期货市场的收益所抵补，相差 0.27万美元，其原因是： （1）支付外汇期货交易佣金0.5万美元 （2）期汇市场与现汇市场的汇率变动幅度不一致 3月1日，1 1 0 . 0092592 0 . 0090099 0 . 0001683
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter
国际财务管理课后习题答案c h a p t e rLast updated on the afternoon of January 3, 2021C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure How is it different from economic exposureAnswer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its re ceivable. Explain in what sense this is so. Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge Why or why notAnswer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Us ing an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that th e spot rate is likely to be $€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable Why or why not(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case Why or why notSolution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000 –= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ￥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ￥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ￥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ￥250 million, .,250m/ = ￥245,700,So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ￥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340, = ￥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340, as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,with dollars ￥245,700,2. Invest in Japan - ￥245,700, ￥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ￥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $SF and the three-month forward rate is $SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $SF for the premium of $ per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $ = $250. At the expected future spot rate of $SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $, ., $3,.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + , where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3, = $3,200 + $.This is the maximum you will pay. 4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed€20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and the one -year forward rate is $€. The annual interest rate is % in the U.S. and % in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure. (a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borroweuros from theCredit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend Why(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, ., 20,000,000/ =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000 = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:F = / = $€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive $ Cost Options hedge Forward hedge$3, $3,150 0 (strike price) $/SF $SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the . PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000/(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000 = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ￥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,.The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on . dollars with a strike price of €$ f or a premium of € per . dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is % in the euro zone and % in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge usinga forward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need totake What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this casec.d.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on . dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American salee.Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of thefuture spot exchange rate.f.g.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, ., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, ., €< €, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x . Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, ., €$, or $€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) .Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above . They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of . If the spot rate rises above , they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/ DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/ DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price , the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between and . If the rate rises above , the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below , the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/ DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/ DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit(1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x –= A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$. Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @Buy puts for $/A$ @# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below , fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above , fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,241(75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,241(75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,241(75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,241(75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,241(75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,241(75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,241(75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241 4. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract. Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of: 12 million STG x = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will notdiminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar strike vs. forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to , and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen ., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ￥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120￥/$) / ￥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ￥1,250,000)($￥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium￥/$ = ￥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000￥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ￥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards,。
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CHAPTER 20 INTERNATIONAL TRADE FINANCESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Discuss some of the reasons why international trade is more difficult and risky from the exporter’s perspective than is domestic trade.Answer: International trade is more difficult and risky for a firm than is domestic trade. In foreign trade, the exporter may not be familiar with the buyer, and thus not know if the importer is creditworthy. If merchandise is exported abroad and the buyer does not pay, it may prove difficult, if not impossible, for the exporter to have any legal recourse. Additionally, political instability makes it risky to ship merchandise abroad to certain parts of the world.2. What three basic documents are necessary to conduct a typical foreign commerce trade? Briefly discuss the purpose of each.Answer: The three basic documents necessary to conduct a typical foreign commerce trade are: letter of credit, time draft, and a bill of lading. A letter of credit (L/C)is a guarantee from the importer’s bank that it will act on behalf of the importer and pay the exporter for the merchandise if all relevant documents specified in the L/C are presented according to the terms of L/C. A time draft is a written order instructing the importer or his agent, the importer’s bank, to pay the amount specified on its face on a certain date. A bill of lading (B/L) is a document issued by the common carrier specifying that it has received the goods for shipment; it can serve as title to the goods.3. How does a time draft become a banker’s acceptance?Answer: When the goods are shipped by the exporter via common carrier, the exporter’s bank presents the shipping documents and the time draft to the importer’s bank. After taking title to the goods via the bill of lading, the importer’s bank accepts the time draft, creating at this point a banker’s acceptance (B/A). A B/A is a money market instrument for which a secondary market exists.4. Discuss the various ways the exporter can receive payment in a foreign trade transaction after the importer’s bank accepts the exporter’s time draft and it becomes a banker’s acceptance.Answer: The exporter can hold the B/A until maturity and present it to the importer’s b ank for payment at face value. Alternatively, the exporter can receive the discounted value at inception from its bank, or sell it at its current discounted value in the money market prior to maturity.5. What is a forfaiting transaction?Answer: Forfaiting is a form of medium-term trade financing used to finance the sale of capital goods. A forfaiting transaction involves the sale by the exporter of promissory notes signed by the exporter in favor of the importer. The forfait, usually a bank, buys the notes at a discount from face value. The forfait does not have recourse against the exporter in the event of default by the importer. The promissory notes typically extend out in a series over a period of three to five years, with a note in the series maturing every six months.6. What is the purpose of the Export-Import Bank?Answer: The Export-Import Bank (Eximbank) of the United States was founded as an independent government agency to facilitate and finance U.S. export trade. Eximbank’s purpose is to provide financing in situations where private financial institutions are unable or unwilling because: i) the loan maturity was too long; ii) the amount of the loan was too large; iii) the loan risk was too great; and, iv) where the importing firm had difficulty obtaining hard currency for payment. To meet its objectives, Eximbank provides service through three types of programs: direct loans to foreign borrowers, loan guarantees, and credit insurance.7. Do you think that a country’s government should assist private business in the conduct of international trade through direct loans, loan guarantees, and/or credit insurance?Answer: When a country’s government offers below-market financing directly to foreign importers, or offers loan guarantees to domestic banks financing the foreign import, or provides low cost credit insurance to U.S. exporters to alleviate the commercial and political risk in the sale, it is using taxpayers’ money to subsidize foreign trade. Consequently, the foreign trade is not paying for itself. Nevertheless, if most governments of developed countries offer such assistance to their domestic exporters, it is difficultfor one to refuse if the country desires to have its export-oriented industries remain competitive.8. Briefly discuss the various types of countertrade.Answer: Countertrade is an umbrella term used to describe six types of international trade: barter, clearing arrangement, switch trading, buy-back, counterpurchase, and offset. The first three do not involve the use of money, whereas the later three do.Barter is the direct exchange of goods between two parties. While money does not exchange hands in a barter transaction, it is common to value the goods each party exchanges in an agreed-upon currency.A clearing arrangement is a form of barter in which the counterparties contract to purchase a certain amount of goods and services from one another. Both parties set up accounts with each other that are debited whenever one country imports from the other. The clearing arrangement introduces the concept of credit to barter transactions, and means bilateral trade can take place that does not have to be immediately settled. A switch trade is the purchase by a third party of one country’s clearing agreement imbalance for hard currency, which is in turn resold. The second buyer uses the account balance to purchase goods and services from the original clearing agreement counterparty that had the account imbalance.A buy-back transaction involves a technology transfer via the sale of a manufacturing plant. As part of the transaction, the seller agrees to purchase a certain portion of the plant output once it is constructed. First, the plant buyer borrows hard currency in the capital market to pay the seller for the plant. Second, the plant seller agrees to purchase enough of the plant output over a period of time to enable the buyer to pay back the borrowed funds. A counterpurchase is similar to a buy-back transaction, but with some notable differences. The major difference between a buy-back and a counterpurchase transaction is that in the latter, the seller agrees to purchase unrelated merchandise that has not been produced on the exported equipment. The seller agrees to purchase goods from a list drawn up by the importer at prices set by the importer. The list frequently includes items the buyer may be experiencing difficulty in selling. An offset transaction can be viewed as a counterpurchase trade agreement involving the aerospace/defense industry.9. Discuss some of the pros and cons of countertrade from the country’s perspective and the firm’s perspective.Answer: Arguments both for and against countertrade transactions can be made. There are both negative and positive incentives for a country to be in favor of countertrade. Negative incentives are those that areforced upon a country or corporations whether or not they desire to engage in countertrade. Negative reasons include: the conservation of cash and hard currency, the improvement of trade imbalances, and the maintenance of export prices. Positive reasons from both the country and corporate perspectives include: enhanced economic development, increased employment, technology transfer, market expansion, increased profitability, less costly sourcing of supply, reduction of surplus goods from inventory, and the development of marketing expertise.Those against countertrade transactions claim that such transactions tamper with the fundamental operation of free markets, and therefore, resources are used inefficiently. Opponents claim that transaction costs are increased, that multilateral trade is restricted through fostering bilateral trade agreements, and that, in general, transactions that do not make use of money represent a step backwards in economic development.10. What is the difference between a buy-back transaction and a counterpurchase?Answer: A buy-back transaction involves a technology transfer via the sale of a manufacturing plant. As part of the transaction, the seller agrees to purchase a certain portion of the plant output once it is constructed to enable the buyer to pay back the borrowed funds. In a counterpurchase, the seller agrees to purchase unrelated merchandise that has not been produced on the exported equipment. Generally, the seller agrees to purchase goods from a list drawn up by the importer at prices set by the importer. The list frequently includes items the buyer may be experiencing difficulty in selling.PROBLEMS1. Assume the time from acceptance to maturity on a $2,000,000 banker’s acceptance is 90 days. Further assume that the importing bank’s acceptance commission is 1.25 percent and that the market rate for 90-day B/As is 7 percent. Determine the amount the exporter will receive if he holds the B/A until maturity and also the amount the exporter will receive if he discounts the B/A with the importer’s bank.Solution: The exporter will receive $1,993,750 = $2,000,000 x [1 - (.0125 x 90/360)] if he holds the B/A to maturity. The acceptance commission is $6,250. The exporter will receive $1,958,750 = $2,000,000 x [1 - ((.0700 + .0125) x 90/360)] if he discounts the B/A with the importer’s bank.2. The time from acceptance to maturity on a $1,000,000 banker’s acceptance is 120 days. The imp orter’s bank’s acceptance commission is 1.75 percent and the market rate for 120-day B/As is 5.75 percent. What amount will the exporter receive if he holds the B/A until maturity? If he discounts the B/A with the importer’s bank? Also determine the bond equivalent yield the importer’s bank will earn from discounting the B/A with the exporter. If the exporter’s opportunity cost of capital is 11 percent, should he discount the B/A or hold it to maturity?Solution: If the exporter holds the B/A until maturity, he will receive $994,166.67 = $1,000,000 x [1 - (.0175 x 120/360)]. Thus, the acceptance commission is $5,833.33.If the exporter discounts the B/A he will receive $975,000 = $1,000,000x [1 - ((.0575 + .0175) x 120/360)].The importer’s bank rec eives a discount rate of interest of 7.5 percent (= 5.75 + 1.75 percent) on its investment. At maturity it will receive $1,000,000 from the importer. The bond equivalent yield the importer’s bank earns on its investment is 7.8 percent, or .078 = ($1,000,000/$975,000 - 1) x 365/120.The exporter pays the acceptance commission regardless of whether he discounts the B/A or holds it to maturity. The bond equivalent rate the exporter receives from discounting the B/A is 5.98 percent, or .0598 = ($994,166.67/$975,000 - 1) x 365/120. Since the exporter’s opportunity cost of capital is 11 percent, which is greater than 5.98 percent compounded tri-annually (an effective annual rate of 6.10 percent), he should discount the B/A.MINI CASE: AMERICAN MACHINE TOOLS, INC.American Machine Tools is a mid-western manufacturer of tool-and-die-making equipment. The company has had an inquiry from a representative of the Estonian government about the terms of sale for a $5,000,000 order of machinery. The sales manager spoke with the Estonian representative, but he is doubtful that the Estonian government will be able to obtain enough hard currency to make the purchase. While the U.S. economy has been growing, American Machine Tools has not had a very good year. An additional $5,000,000 in sales would definitely help. If something cannot be arranged, the firm will likely be forced to lay off some of its skilled workforce.Is there a way that you can think of that American Machine Tools might be able to make the machinery sale to Estonia?Suggested Solution to American Tools, Inc.American Machine Tools needs a manager in charge of countertrade. This manage would be skilled in negotiating trades for his firm’s machine tools. Since the U.S. economy is fairly strong, th ere are two types of countertrades that might work with the Estonian government and help American Machine Tools consummate the sale: a buy-back transaction or a countertrade.In a buy-back transaction, the Estonian government would issue debt denominated in a hard currency to obtain the funds to purchase the equipment from American Machine Tools. It should be able to obtain hard currency debt financing if it is likely that it can service the debt. American Machine Tools, in turn, would agree to buy in dollars from the Estonian tool and die manufacturer enough of the output produced on the machinery to enable it to meet the debt service obligations. A countertrade works similarly, except that American Machine Tools would agree to purchase enough other goods produced in Estonia to enable the hard currency debt service obligations to be met. Either of these two types of countertrade would work if American Machine Tools has the sales ability to market the Estonia output in the U.S., or elsewhere.。