公司理财第九版课后案例Conch Republic Electronics.pptx

合集下载

罗斯《公司理财》(第9版)课后习题(第13~15章)【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）课后习题第13章风险、资本成本和资本预算一、概念题1．资产贝塔（asset beta）答：资产贝塔是指企业总资产的贝塔系数。

除非完全依靠权益融资，否则不能把资产贝塔看作普通股的贝塔系数。

其公式为：其中，β权益是杠杆企业权益的贝塔。

公式包括两部分，即负债的贝塔乘以负债在资本结构中的百分比；权益的贝塔乘以权益在资本结构中的百分比。

这个组合包括企业的负债和权益，所以组合贝塔就是资产贝塔。

在实际中，负债的贝塔很低，一般假设为零。

若假设负债的贝塔为零，则：对于杠杆企业，权益／（负债+权益）一定小于1，所以β资产<β权益，将上式变形，有：有财务杠杆的情况下，权益贝塔一定大于资产贝塔。

2．经营杠杆（operating leverage）答：经营杠杆是指由于固定成本的存在而导致息税前利润变动大于产销业务量变动的杠杆效应。

对经营杠杆的计量最常用的指标是经营杠杆系数或经营杠杆度。

经营杠杆系数，是指息税前利润变动率相当于销售量变动率的倍数。

用公式可以表示为：式中，EBIT为息税前利润；F为固定成本。

经营杠杆系数不是固定不变的。

当企业的固定成本总额、单位产品的变动成本、销售价格、销售数量等因素发生变动时，经营杠杆系数也会发生变动。

经营杠杆系数越高，对经营杠杆利益的影响就越强，经营杠杆风险也就越高。

经营杠杆越大，企业的贝塔系数就越大。

3．权益资本成本（cost of equity capital）答：权益资本成本就是投资股东要求的回报率，用CAPM模型表示股票的期望收益率为：其中，R F是无风险利率；是市场组合的期望收益率与无风险利率之差，也称为期望超额市场收益率或市场风险溢价。

所以要估计企业权益资本成本，需要知道以下三个变量：①无风险利率；②市场风险溢价；③公司权益的贝塔系数。

4．加权平均资本成本（weighted average cost of capital，r WACC）答：平均资本成本是权益资本成本和债务资本成本的加权平均，所以，通常称之为加权平均资本成本，r WACC，其计算公式如下：式中的权数分别是权益占总价值的比重，即和负债占总价值的比重，即。

公司理财第九版课后案例Conch-Republic-Electronics

Conch Republic Electronics AnalysisAnalysis of Conch Republic ElectronicsThe new PDA:The existing model:There is no initial outlay for NWC; and Net Working Capital for the PDAs will be 20% of sales.The value of the equipment in five years will be $4.1 million.Introducing the new PDA, it causes the exiting PDA sales fall down and the price fall down.Therefore: sales for year 1=74000*$360-15000*$290-(80000-15000)*($290-$255)=$20015000Variable cost for year 1=74000*$155-15000*$120=$9670000Sales for year 2=95000*$360-15000*$290-(60000-15000)*($290-$255)=$28275000Variable cost for year 2=95000*$155-15000*$120=$12925000Project cash flow=Project operating cash flow-Project changes in net workingcapital-project capital spendingOperating cash flow=EBIT+Depreciation-Taxes$5,265,350-$3,760,350-$2,685,350-$1,919,950=$4796650Pretax salvage value of equipment=$4100000Part11 What is the payback period of the project?=3.16 years2. What is the profitability index of the project?PI= (the present value of the future cash flow)/(initial investment)PV of the future cash flow=$662,118.30+$5,670,737.01+$8,236,986.17+$8,462+$11,451,133.56=$34,483,611.62PI=$34,483,611.62 /$21500000=1.603. What is the IRR of the project?IRR is the return that makes the NPV=0.Therefore:NPV=0=-$21500000+($741,572.50/(1+IRR)^1)+($7,113,372.50/(1+IRR)^2)+ ($11,572,372.50/(1+IRR)^3)+ ($13,316,122.50/(1+IRR)^4) ($20180810 / (1+IRR) ^5)Use the EXCEL we can get the IRR=27.62%4. What is the NPV of the project?NPV=-$21500000+$662,118.30+$5,670,737.01+$8,236,986.17+$8,462,636.58 +$11,451,133.56 =$12,983,611.62Part25. How sensitive is the NPV to change in the price of the new PDA?We suppose the price increase $10, so the price will be$370 per unitNPV=-$21500000+$959,439.73+$6,129,522.08+$8,772,600.80+$8,921,798.39+$11,865,355.17=$15,148,716.18Therefore:The coefficient of price sensitive= ($15,148,716.18 -$12,983,611.62)/ ($370-$360)=$216510.46From the coefficient of the price sensitive, we can know that if the price increase $1,the NPV increase S216510.46.6. How sensitive is the NPV to change in quantity sold of the New PDA?We suppose the quantity increase 1000 per year.NPV=-$21500000+$716,805.80+$5,776,963.09+$8,331,830.88+$8,547,319.37+$11,567,597.93=$13,440,517.07Therefore:The coefficient of price sensitive= ($13,440,517.07-$12,983,611.62)/1000=$456.91From the coefficient of the quantity sensitive, we can know that if the quantity increases 1, the NPV increase $456.91.ReferenceRoss, Stephen. (2010). Fundamentals of corporate finance: Chapter 10 and Chapter11 Minicase. Asia: McGraw-Hill Education.。

[公司理财]公司理财原书第九版中文版课后答案

(公司理财)公司理财原书第九版中文版课后答案答案大部分是计算题，参考英文答案翻译，便于理解就好，每章前面几个小题和第八版一样的（附上第八版答案）我自己翻译的，我上传到我的新浪微博上了，你自己去看，我的新浪微博ID：一直在奋斗的大洪这是部分翻译习题答案：第1、2、3、4、5、6、7、8、9、10、14、15、16、17、18、26、27、28章案例答案：第2、3、4、5、15、18章第1章1、在所有权形式的公司中，股东是公司的所有者。

股东选举公司的董事会,董事会任命该公司的管理层。

企业的所有权和控制权分离的组织形式是导致的代理关系存在的主要原因。

管理者可能追求自身或别人的利益最大化，而不是股东的利益最大化。

在这种环境下，他们可能因为目标不一致而存在代理问题。

2、非营利公司经常追求社会或政治任务等各种目标。

非营利公司财务管理的目标是获取并有效使用资金以最大限度地实现组织的社会使命。

3、这句话是不正确的。

管理者实施财务管理的目标就是最大化现有股票的每股价值，当前的股票价值反映了短期和长期的风险、时间以及未来现金流量。

4、有两种结论。

一种极端，在市场经济中所有的东西都被定价。

因此所有目标都有一个最优水平，包括避免不道德或非法的行为，股票价值最大化。

另一种极端，我们可以认为这是非经济现象,最好的处理方式是通过政治手段。

一个经典的思考问题给出了这种争论的答案：公司估计提高某种产品安全性的成本是30美元万。

然而,该公司认为提高产品的安全性只会节省20美元万。

请问公司应该怎么做呢?”5、财务管理的目标都是相同的，但实现目标的最好方式可能是不同的，因为不同的国家有不同的社会、政治环境和经济制度。

6、管理层的目标是最大化股东现有股票的每股价值。

如果管理层认为能提高公司利润，使股价超过35美元,那么他们应该展开对恶意收购的斗争。

如果管理层认为该投标人或其它未知的投标人将支付超过每股35美元的价格收购公司,那么他们也应该展开斗争。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题(含考研真题)详解[视频详解](折现现金流量估价)【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第4章折现现金流量估价[视频讲解]4.1复习笔记当前的1美元与未来的1美元的价值是不同的，因为当前1美元用于投资，在未来可以得到更多，而且未来的1美元具有不确定性。

这种区别正是“货币的时间价值”。

货币的时间价值概念是金融投资和融资的基石之一，资本预算、项目决策、融资管理和兼并等领域均有涉及。

因此有必要理解和掌握相关的现值、终值、年金和永续年金的概念和计算公式。

1．现值与净现值现值是未来资金在当前的价值，是把未来的现金流按照一定的贴现率贴现到当前的价值。

以单期为例，一期后的现金流的现值：其中，C1是一期后的现金流，r是适当贴现率。

在多期的情况下，求解PV的公式可写为：其中，C T是在T期的现金流，r是适当贴现率。

净现值的计算公式为：NPV=-成本+PV。

也就是说，净现值NPV是这项投资未来现金流的现值减去成本的现值所得的结果。

一种定量的财务决策方法是净现值分析法。

产生N期现金流的投资项目的净现值为：NPV=其中，-C0是初始现金流，由于它代表了一笔投资，即现金流出，因而是负值。

2．终值一笔投资在多期以后终值的一般计算公式可以写为：FV=C0×（1+r）T其中，C0是期初投资的金额，r是利息率，T是资金投资持续的期数。

一项投资每年按复利计息m次的年末终值为：其中：C0是投资者的初始投资；r是名义年利率。

当m趋近于无限大时，则是连续复利计息，这时T年后的终值可以表示为：C0×e rT。

连续复利在高级金融中有广泛的应用。

3．名义利率和实际利率名义年利率是不考虑年内复利计息的，不同的银行或金融机构有不同的称谓，比较通用的是年百分比利率（APR）；实际利率（EAR）是指在年内考虑复利计息的，然后折算成一年的利率。

名义利率和实际利率之间的差别在于名义利率只有给出计息间隔期下才有意义。

4．年金年金是指一系列稳定有规律的，持续一段固定时期的现金收付活动，即在一定期间内，每隔相同时期（一年、半年或一季等）收入或支出相等金额的款项。

罗斯《公司理财》(第9版)课后习题(第1~3章)【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）课后习题第1章公司理财导论一、概念题1．资本预算（capital budgeting）答：资本预算是指综合反映投资资金来源与运用的预算，是为了获得未来产生现金流量的长期资产而现在投资支出的预算。

资本预算决策也称为长期投资决策，它是公司创造价值的主要方法。

资本预算决策一般指固定资产投资决策，耗资大，周期长，长期影响公司的产销能力和财务状况，决策正确与否影响公司的生存与发展。

完整的资本预算过程包括：寻找增长机会，制定长期投资战略，预测投资项目的现金流，分析评估投资项目，控制投资项目的执行情况。

资本预算可通过不同的资本预算方法来解决，如回收期法、净现值法和内部收益率法等。

2．货币市场（money markets）答：货币市场指期限不超过一年的资金借贷和短期有价证券交易的金融市场，亦称“短期金融市场”或“短期资金市场”，包括同业拆借市场、银行短期存贷市场、票据市场、短期证券市场、大额可转让存单市场、回购协议市场等。

其参加者为各种政府机构、各种银行和非银行金融机构及公司等。

货币市场具有四个基本特征：①融资期限短，一般在一年以内，最短的只有半天，主要用于满足短期资金周转的需要；②流动性强，金融工具可以在市场上随时兑现，交易对象主要是期限短、流动性强、风险小的信用工具，如票据、存单等，这些工具变现能力强，近似于货币，可称为“准货币”，故称货币市场；③安全性高，由于货币市场上的交易大多采用即期交易，即成交后马上结清，通常不存在因成交与结算日之间时间相对过长而引起价格巨大波动的现象，对投资者来说，收益具有较大保障；④政策性明显，货币市场由货币当局直接参加，是中央银行同商业银行及其他金融机构的资金连接的主渠道，是国家利用货币政策工具调节全国金融活动的杠杆支点。

货币市场的交易主体是短期资金的供需者。

需求者是为了获得现实的支付手段，调节资金的流动性并保持必要的支付能力，供应者提供的资金也大多是短期临时闲置性的资金。

Cha07罗斯公司理财第九版原版书课后习题

Cha07罗斯公司理财第九版原版书课后习题to abandon, and timing options.4. Decision trees represent an approach for valuing projects with these hidden, or real, options.Concept Questions1. Forecasting Risk What is forecasting risk? In general, would the degree of forecasting risk begreater for a new product or a cost-cutting proposal? Why?2. Sensitivity Analysis and Scenario Analysis What is the essential difference betweensensitivity analysis and scenario analysis?3. Marginal Cash Flows A coworker claims that looking at all this marginal this and incrementalthat is just a bunch of nonsense, and states, “Listen, if our average revenue doesn’t exceed our average cost, then we will have a negative cash flow, and we will go broke!” How do you respond?4. Break-Even Point As a shareholder of a firm that is contemplating a new project, would yoube more concerned with the accounting break-even point, the cash break-even point (the point at which operating cash flow is zero), or the financial break-even point? Why?5. Break-Even Point Assume a firm is considering a new project that requires an initialinvestment and has equal sales and costs over its life. Will the project reach the accounting, cash, or financial break-even point first? Which will it reach next? Last? Will this order always apply?6. Real Options Why does traditional NPV analysis tend to underestimate the true value of acapital budgeting project?7. Real Options The Mango Republic has just liberalized its markets and is now permittingforeign investors. Tesla Manufacturing has analyzed starting a project in the country and has determined that the project hasa negative NPV. Why might the company go ahead with the project? What type of option is most likely to add value to this project?8. Sensitivity Analysis and Breakeven How does sensitivity analysis interact with break-evenanalysis?9. Option to Wait An option can often have more than one source of value. Consider a loggingcompany. The company can log the timber today or wait another year (or more) to log the timber.What advantages would waiting one year potentially have?10. Project Analysis You are discussing a project analysis witha coworker. The project involvesreal options, such as expanding the project if successful, or abandoning the project if it fails. Your coworker makes the following statement: “This analysis is ridiculous. We looked at expanding or abandoning the project in two years, but there are many other options we should consider. For example, we could expand in one year, and expand further in two years. Or we could expand in one year, and abandon the project in two years. There are too many options for us to examine.Because of this, anything this analysis would give us is worthless.” How would you evaluate this statement? Considering that with any capital budgeting project there are an infinite number of real options, when do you stop the option analysis on an individual project?Questions and Problems: connect?BASIC (Questions 1–10)1. Sensitivity Analysis and Break-Even Point We are evaluating a project that costs$724,000, has an eight-year life, and has no salvage value. Assume that depreciation is straight-line to zero over the life of the project. Sales are projected at 75,000 units per year. Price per unit is $39, variable cost per unit is $23, and fixed costs are $850,000 per year. The tax rate is 35 percent, and we require a 15 percent return on this project.1. Calculate the accounting break-even point.2. Calculate the base-case cash flow and NPV. What is the sensitivity of NPV to changes inthe sales figure? Explain what your answer tells you about a 500-unit decrease in projected sales.3. What is the sensitivity of OCF to changes in the variable cost figure? Explain what youranswer tells you about a $1 decrease in estimated variable costs.2. Scenario Analysis In the previous problem, suppose the projections given for price, quantity,variable costs, and fixed costs are all accurate to w ithin ±10 percent. Calculate the best-case and worst-case NPV figures.3. Calculating Breakeven In each of the following cases, find the unknown variable. Ignoretaxes.4. Financial Breakeven L.J.’s Toys Inc. just purchased a $250,000 machine to produce toy cars.The machine will be fully depreciated by the straight-line method over its five-year economic life.Each toy sells for $25. The variable cost per toy is $6, and the firm incurs fixed costs of $360,000 each year. The corporate tax rate for the company is 34 percent. The appropriate discount rate is12 percent. What is the financial break-even point for the project?5. Option to Wait Your company is deciding whether to invest in a new machine. The newmachine will increase cash flow by $340,000 per year. You believe the technology used in the machine has a 10-year life; in other words, no matter when you purchase the machine, it will be obsolete 10 years from today. The machine is currently priced at $1,800,000. The cost of the machine will decline by $130,000 per year until it reaches $1,150,000, where it will remain. If your required return is 12 percent, should you purchase the machine? If so, when should you purchase it?6. Decision Trees Ang Electronics, Inc., has developed a new DVDR. If the DVDR is successful,the present value of the payoff (when the product is brought to market) is $22 million. If the DVDR fails, the present value of the payoff is $9 million. If the product goes directly to market, there is a50 percent chance of success. Alternatively, Ang can delay the launch by one year and spend $1.5million to test market the DVDR. Test marketing would allow the firm to improve the product and increase the probability of success to 80 percent. The appropriate discount rate is 11 percent.Should the firm conduct test marketing?7. Decision Trees The manager for a growing firm is considering the launch of a new product. Ifthe product goes directly to market, there is a 50 percent chance of success. For $135,000 the manager can conduct a focus group that will increase the product’s chance of success to 65 percent. Alternatively, the manager has the option to pay a consulting firm $400,000 to research the market and refine the product. The consulting firm successfully launches new products 85 percent of the time. If the firm successfully launches the product, the payoff will be $1.5 million. If the product is a failure, the NPV is zero. Which action will result in the highest expected payoff to the firm?8. Decision Trees B&B has a new baby powder ready to market. If the firm goes directly to themarket with the product, there is only a 55 percent chance of success. However, the firm can conduct customer segment research, which will take a year and cost $1.8 million. By going through research, B&B will be able to better target potential customers and will increase the probability of success to 70 percent. If successful, the baby powder will bring a present value profit (at time of initial selling) of $28 million. If unsuccessful, the present value payoff is only $4 million. Should the firm conduct customer segment research or go directly to market? The appropriate discount rate is15 percent.9. Financial Break-Even Analysis You are considering investing in a company that cultivatesabalone for sale to local restaurants. Use the following information:The discount rate for the company is 15 percent, the initial investment in equipment is $360,000, and the project’s economic life is seven years. Assume the equipment is depreciated on a straight-line basis over the project’s life.1. What is the accounting break-even level for the project?2. What is the financial break-even level for the project?10. Financial Breakeven Niko has purchased a brand new machine to produce its High Flight lineof shoes. The machine has an economic life of five years. The depreciation schedule for the machine is straight-line with no salvage value. The machine costs $390,000. The sales price per pair of shoes is $60, while the variable cost is $14. $185,000 of fixed costs per year are attributed to the machine. Assume that the corporate tax rate is 34 percent and the appropriate discount rate is 8 percent. What is the financial break-even point?INTERMEDIATE (Questions 11–25)11. Break-Even Intuition Consider a project with a required return of R percent that costs $I andwill last for N years. The project uses straight-line depreciation to zero over the N-year life; there are neither salvage value nor net working capital requirements.1. At the accounting break-even level of output, what is the IRR of this project? The paybackperiod? The NPV?2. At the cash break-even level of output, what is the IRR of this project? The paybackperiod? The NPV?3. At the financial break-even level of output, what is the IRR of this project? The paybackperiod? The NPV?12. Sensitivity Analysis Consider a four-year project with the following information: Initial fixedasset investment = $380,000; straight-line depreciation to zero over the four-year life; zero salvage value; price = $54; variable costs = $42; fixed costs = $185,000; quantity sold = 90,000 units; tax rate = 34 percent. How sensitive is OCF to changes in quantity sold?13. Project Analysis You are considering a new product launch. The project will cost $960,000,have a four-year life, and have no salvage value; depreciation is straight-line to zero. Sales are projected at 240 units per year; price per unit will be $25,000; variable cost per unit will be $19,500; and fixed costs will be $830,000 per year. The required return on the project is 15 percent, and the relevant tax rate is 35 percent.1. Based on your experience, you think the unit sales, variable cost, and fixed costprojections given here are probably accurate to within ±10 percent. What are the upper and lower bounds for these projections? What is the base-case NPV? What are the best-case and worst-case scenarios?2. Evaluate the sensitivity of your base-case NPV to changes in fixed costs.3. What is the accounting break-even level of output for this project?14. Project Analysis McGilla Golf has decided to sell a newline of golf clubs. The clubs will sell for$750 per set and have a variable cost of $390 per set. The company has spent $150,000 for a marketing study that determined the company will sell 55,000 sets per year for seven years. The marketing study also determined that the company will lose sales of 12,000 sets of its high-priced clubs. The high-priced clubs sell at $1,100 and have variable costs of $620. The company will also increase sales of its cheap clubs by 15,000 sets. The cheap clubs sell for $400 and have variable costs of $210 per set. The fixed costs each year will be $8,100,000. The company has also spent $1,000,000 on research and development for the new clubs. The plant and equipment required will cost $18,900,000 and will be depreciated on a straight-line basis. The new clubs will also require an increase in net working capital of $1,400,000 that will be returned at the end of the project. The tax rate is 40 percent, and the cost of capital is 14 percent. Calculate the payback period, the NPV, and the IRR.15. Scenario Analysis In the previous problem, you feel that the values are accurate to withinonly ±10 percent. What are the best-case and worst-case NPVs? (Hint: The price and variable costs for the two existing sets of clubs are known with certainty; only the sales gained or lost are uncertain.)16. Sensitivity Analysis McGilla Golf would like to know the sensitivity of NPV to changes in theprice of the new clubs and the quantity of new clubs sold. What is the sensitivity of the NPV to each of these variables?17. Abandonment Value We are examining a new project. We expect to sell 9,000 units per yearat $50 net cash flow apiece for the next 10 years. In otherwords, the annual operating cash flow is projected to be $50 × 9,000 = $450,000. The relevant discount rate is 16 percent, and the initial investment required is $1,900,000.1. What is the base-case NPV?2. After the first year, the project can be dismantled and sold for $1,300,000. If expectedsales are revised based on the first year’s performance, when would it make sense to abandon the investment? In other words, at what level of expected sales would it make sense to abandon the project?3. Explain how the $1,300,000 abandonment value can be viewed as the opportunity cost ofkeeping the project in one year.18. Abandonment In the previous problem, suppose you think it is likely that expected sales willbe revised upward to 11,000 units if the first year is a success and revised downward to 4,000 units if the first year is not a success.1. If success and failure are equally likely, what is the NPV of the project? Consider thepossibility of abandonment in answering.2. What is the value of the option to abandon?19. Abandonment and Expansion In the previous problem, suppose the scale of the project canbe doubled in one year in the sense that twice as many units can be produced and sold. Naturally, expansion would be desirable only if the project were a success. This implies that if the project is a success, projected sales after expansion will be 22,000. Again assuming that success and failure are equally likely,what is the NPV of the project? Note that abandonment is still an option if the project is a failure. What is the value of the option to expand?20. Break-Even Analysis Your buddy comes to you with a sure-fire way to make some quickmoney and help pay off your student loans. His idea is to sell T-shirts with the words “I get” on them. “You get it?” He says, “You see all those bumper stickers and T-shirts that say ‘got milk’ or ‘got surf.’ So this says, ‘I get.’ It’s funn y! All we have to do is buy a used silk screen press for $3,200 and we are in business!” Assume there are no fixed costs, and you depreciate the $3,200 in the first period. Taxes are 30 percent.1. What is the accounting break-even point if each shirt costs $7 to make and you can sellthem for $10 apiece?Now assume one year has passed and you have sold 5,000 shirts! You find out that the Dairy Farmers of America have copyrighted the “got milk” slogan and are requiring you to pay $12,000 to continue operations. You expect this craze will last for another three years and that your discount rate is 12 percent.2. What is the financial break-even point for your enterprise now?21. Decision Trees Young screenwriter Carl Draper has just finished his first script. It has action,drama, and humor, and he thinks it will be a blockbuster. He takes the script to every motion picture studio in town and tries to sell it but to no avail. Finally, ACME studios offers to buy the script for either (a) $12,000 or (b) 1 pe rcent of the movie’s profits. There are two decisions the studio will have to make. First is to decide if the script is good or bad, and second if the movieis good or bad. First, there is a 90 percent chance that the script is bad. If it is bad, the studio does nothing more and throws the script out. If the script is good, they will shoot the movie. After the movie is shot, the studio will review it, and there is a 70 percent chance that the movie is bad. If the movie is bad, the movie will not be promoted and will not turn a profit. If the movie is good, the studio will promote heavily; the average profit for this type of movie is $20 million. Carl rejects the $12,000 and says he wants the 1 percent of profits. Was this a good decision by Carl?22. Option to Wait Hickock Mining is evaluating when to open a gold mine. The mine has 60,000ounces of gold left that can be mined, and mining operations will produce 7,500 ounces per year.The required return on the gold mine is 12 percent, and it will cost $14 million to open the mine.When the mine is opened, the company will sign a contract that will guarantee the price of gold for the remaining life of the mine. If the mine is opened today, each ounce of gold will generate an aftertax cash flow of $450 per ounce. If the company waits one year, there is a 60 percent probability that the contract price will generate an aftertax cash flow of $500 per ounce and a 40 percent probability that the aftertax cash flow will be $410 per ounce. What is the value of the option to wait?23. Abandonment Decisions Allied Products, Inc., is considering a new product launch. The firmexpects to have an annual operating cash flow of $22 million for the next 10 years. Allied Products uses a discount rate of 19 percent for new product launches. The initial investment is $84 million.Assume that the project has no salvage value at the end of its economic life.1. What is the NPV of the new product?2. After the first year, the project can be dismantled and sold for $30 million. If theestimates of remaining cash flows are revised based on the first year’s experience, at what level of expected cash flows does it make sense to abandon the project?24. Expansion Decisions Applied Nanotech is thinking about introducing a new surface cleaningmachine. The marketing department has come up with the estimate that Applied Nanotech can sell15 units per year at $410,000 net cash flow per unit for the next five years. The engineeringdepartment has come up with the estimate that developing the machine will take a $17 million initial investment. The finance department has estimated that a 25 percent discount rate should beused.1. What is the base-case NPV?2. If unsuccessful, after the first year the project can be dismantled and will have an aftertaxsalvage value of $11 million. Also, after the first year, expected cash flows will be revised up to 20 units per year or to 0 units, with equal probability. What is the revised NPV?25. Scenario Analysis You are the financial analyst for a tennis racket manufacturer. Thecompany is considering using a graphitelike material in its tennis rackets. The company has estimated the information in the following table about the market for a racket with the newmaterial. The company expects to sell the racket for six years. The equipment required for the project has no salvage value. The required return for projects of this type is 13 percent, and the company has a 40 percent tax rate. Should you recommend the project?CHALLENGE (Questions 26–30)26. Scenario Analysis Consider a project to supply Detroit with 55,000 tons of machine screwsannually for automobile production. You will need an initial $1,700,000 investment in threading equipment to get the project started; the project will last for five years. The accounting department estimates that annual fixed costs will be $520,000 and that variable costs should be $220 per ton;accounting will depreciate the initial fixed asset investment straight-line to zero over the five-year project life. It also estimates a salvage value of $300,000 after dismantling costs. The marketing department estimates that the automakers will let the contract at a selling price of $245 per ton.The engineering department estimates you will need an initial net working capital investment of $600,000. You require a 13 percent return and face a marginal tax rate of 38 percent on this project.1. What is the estimated OCF for this project? The NPV? Should you pursue this project?2. Suppose you believe that the accounting department’sinitial cost and salvage valueprojections are accurate only to within ±15 percent; the marketing department’s price estimate is accurate only to within ±10 percent; and the engineering department’s net working capital estimate is accurate only to within ±5 p ercent. What is your worst-case scenario for this project? Your best-case scenario? Do you still want to pursue the project? 27. Sensitivity Analysis In Problem 26, suppose you’re confident about your own projections, butyou’re a little unsure about Detroit’s actual machine screw requirements. What is the sensitivity of the project OCF to changes in the quantity supplied? What about the sensitivity of NPV to changes in quantity supplied? Given the sensitivity number you calculated, is there some minimum level of output below which you wouldn’t want to operate? Why?28. Abandonment Decisions Consider the following project for Hand Clapper, Inc. The companyis considering a four-year project to manufacture clap-command garage door openers. This project requires an initial investment of $10 million that will be depreciated straight-line to zero over the project’s life. An initial investment in net working capital of $1.3 million is required to support spare parts inventory; this cost is fully recoverable whenever the project ends. The company believes it can generate $7.35 million in pretax revenues with $2.4 million in total pretax operating costs. The tax rate is 38 percent, and the discount rate is 16 percent. The market value of the equipment over the life of the project is as follows:Lumber is sold by the company for its “pond value.” Pond value is the amount a mill will pay for a log delivered to the mill location. The price paid for logs delivered to a mill is quoted in dollars per thousands of board feet (MBF), and the price depends on the grade of the logs. The forest Bunyan Lumber is evaluatingwas planted by the company 20 years ago and is made up entirely of Douglas fir trees. The table here shows the current price per MBF for the three grades of timber the company feels will come from the stand:Steve believes that the pond value of lumber will increase at the inflation rate. The company is planning to thin the forest today, and it expects to realize a positive cash flow of $1,000 per acre from thinning. The thinning is done to increase the growth rate of the remaining trees, and it is always done 20 years following a planting.The major decision the company faces is when to log the forest. When the company logs the forest, it will immediately replant saplings, which will allow for a future harvest. The longer the forest is allowed to grow, the larger the harvest becomes per acre. Additionally, an older forest has a higher grade of timber. Steve has compiled the following table with the expected harvest per acre in thousands of board feet, along with the breakdown of the timber grades:The company expects to lose 5 percent of the timber it cuts due to defects and breakage.The forest will be clear-cut when the company harvests the timber. This method of harvesting allows for faster growth of replanted trees. All of the harvesting, processing, replanting, andtransportation are to be handled by subcontractors hired by Bunyan Lumber. The cost of the logging is expected to be $140 per MBF. A road system has to be constructed and is expected to cost $50 per MBF on average. Sales preparation and administrative costs, excluding office overhead costs, are expected to be $18 per MBF.As soon as the harvesting is complete, the company will reforest the land. Reforesting costs include the following:All costs are expected to increase at the inflation rate.Assume all cash flows occur at the year of harvest. For example, if the company begins harvesting the timber 20 years from today, the cash flow from the harvest will be received 20 years from today. When the company logs the land, it will immediately replant the land with new saplings. The harvest period chosen will be repeated for the foreseeable future. The company’s nominal required return is 10 percent, and the inflation rate is expected to be 3.7 percent per year. Bunyan Lumber has a 35 percent tax rate.Clear-cutting is a controversial method of forest management. To obtain the necessary permits, Bunyan Lumber has agreed to contribute to a conservation fund every time it harvests the lumber. If the company harvested the forest today, the required contribution would be $250,000. The company has agreed that the required contribution will grow by 3.2 percent per year. When should the company harvest the forest?。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版英文原书课后部分章节答案

罗斯《公司理财》第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案详细»1 / 17 CH5 11，13，18，19，20 11. To find the PV of a lump sum, we use: PV = FV / (1 + r) t PV = $1,000,000 / (1.10) 80 = $488.19 13. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for r, we get: r = (FV / PV) 1 / t –1 r = ($1,260,000 / $150) 1/112 – 1 = .0840 or 8.40% To find the FV of the first prize, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $1,260,000(1.0840) 33 = $18,056,409.94 18. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $4,000(1.11) 45 = $438,120.97 FV = $4,000(1.11) 35 = $154,299.40 Better start early! 19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years, so the number of periods is six. FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.33 20. To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is: FV = PV(1 + r) t Solving for t, we get: t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r) t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31 So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait: 2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 years CH6 16，24，27，42，58 16. For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation: FV = PV(1 + r) t 2 / 17 It is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get: FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)] 34 = $8,505.93 24. This problem requires us to find the FV A. The equation to find the FV A is: FV A = C{[(1 + r) t – 1] / r} FV A = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ] 360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.38 27. The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate the EAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m – 1 EAR = [1 + (.11/4)] 4 – 1 = .1146 or 11.46% And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.1146 2 + $1,360 / 1.1146 4 = $2,320.36 42. The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, the present value of the $1,150 monthly payments is: PV A = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]} 360 ) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42 The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is: $240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58 This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be: Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)] 360 = $368,936.54 58. To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we are purchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is the same as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is: PV = $99 + $450{1 –[1 / (1 + .07/12) 12(3) ]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91 The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is: PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $18,654.82 The PV of the decision to purchase is: $32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18 3 / 17 In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be: $32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91 PV of resale price = $17,327.09 The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV ofthis value, so: Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)] 12(3) = $21,363.01 CH7 3，18，21，22，31 3. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)] 10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875) 10 ] = $918.89 We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PV A equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as: PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r) t which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor PVIFA R,t = ({1 – [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) which stands for Present V alue Interest Factor of an Annuity These abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key. 18. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18 ) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 4.06% This is thesemiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12% The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406) 2 – 1 = .0829 or 8.29% 20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33 And we calculate the clean price as: 4 / 17 Clean price = Dirty price –Accrued interest = $968 –12.33 = $955.67 21. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.67 22. To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P 0 P 0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60 Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072) t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072 t We can solve this equation for t as follows: $1,059.60(1.072) t = $1,111.11(1.072) t –1,111.11 + 1,000 111.11 = 51.51(1.072) t2.1570 = 1.072 t t = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 years The bond has 11 years to maturity.31. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = $1,100(PVIFA 3.5%,16 )(PVIF 3.5%,12 ) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12 )(PVIF 3.5%,28 ) + $20,000(PVIF 3.5%,40 ) P M = $19,018.78 Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PV A for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today. Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40 ) = $5,051.45 CH8 4，18，20，22，244. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R – g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.22 5 / 17 18. The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Y ear 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 19 = $20.00 / .064 P 19 = $312.50 The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = $312.50 / (1.064) 19 P 0 = $96.15 20. We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is: P 0 = [D 0 (1 + g 1 )/(R – g 1 )]{1 – [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T }+ [(1 + g 1 )/(1 + R)] T [D 0 (1 + g 2 )/(R –g 2 )] P0 = [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 –.28)][1 –(1.28/1.13) 8 ] + [(1.28)/(1.13)] 8 [$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)] P 0 = $69.55 22. We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of the stocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield. W: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9% Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10% X: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19% Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0% Y: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R – g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24% Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5% Z: P 2 = D 2 (1 + g) / (R – g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 2 (1 +g 2 )/(R – g 2 ) = $4.50(1.20) 2 (1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68 P 0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50(1.20) 2 / (1.19) 2 + $103.68 / (1.19) 2 = $82.33 Dividend yield = D 1 /P 0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6% Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4% In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time. 24. Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year for the first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Y ear 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Y ear 3 will be the dividend in Y ear 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Y ear 3 will be: 6 / 17 P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08 The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Y ear 3, so: P 0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.11 2 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.11 3 + $65.08/1.11 3 P 0 = $55.70 CH9 3，4，6，9，15 3. Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Y ear 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is: Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 years Project B has cash flows of: Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000 during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is: B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 years Using the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B. 4. When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The value today of the project cash flows for the first four years is: V alue today of Y ear 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21 V alue today of Y ear 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.14 2 = $4,078.18 V alue today of Y ear 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.14 3 = $4,117.33 V alue today of Y ear 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.14 4 = $4,381.39 To findthe discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is: Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 years For an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 –3,684.21 –4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 years Notice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Y ear 1 and Y ear 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Y ear 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback. If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is: Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 7 / 17 6. Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The average net income for this project is: A verage net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325 And the average book value is: A verage book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000 So, the AAR for this project is: AAR = A verage net income / A verage book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9. The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cash inflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 8%, 9 ) = $40,036.31 At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project. The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA 20%, 9 ) = –$23,117.45 At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project. We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is: 0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9 ) IRR = 14.59% 15. The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cash outflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.1 2 + $5,700/1.1 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.187 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.15 2 + $5,700/1.15 3 ] / $14,000 = 1.094 The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is: PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.22 2 + $5,700/1.22 3 ] / $14,000 = 0.983 8 / 17 We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解-第8篇理财专题【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解-第8篇理财专题【圣才出品】第8篇理财专题第29章收购、兼并与剥离29.1 复习笔记企业间的并购是一项充满不确定性的投资活动。

在并购决策中必须运用的基本法则是：当一家企业能够为并购企业的股东带来正的净现值时才会被并购。

因此确定目标企业的净现值显得尤为重要。

并购具有以下几个特点：并购活动产生的收益被称作协同效应；并购活动涉及复杂的会计、税收和法律因素；并购是股东可行使的一种重要控制机制；并购分析通常以计算并购双方的总价值为中心；并购有时涉及非善意交易。

1．收购的基本形式收购是指一个公司（收购方）用现金、债券或股票购买另一家公司的部分或全部资产或股权，从而获得对该公司的控制权的经济活动。

收购的对象一般有两种：股权和资产。

企业可以运用以下三种基本法律程序进行收购，即：①吸收合并或新设合并；②收购股票；③收购资产。

吸收合并是指一家企业被另一家企业吸收，兼并企业保持其名称和身份，并且收购被兼并企业的全部资产和负债的收购形式。

吸收合并的目标企业不再作为一个独立经营实体而存在。

新设合并是指兼并企业和被兼并企业终止各自的法人形式，共同组成一家新的企业。

收购股票是指用现金、股票或其他证券购买目标企业具有表决权的股票。

2．并购的分类兼并通常是指一个公司以现金、证券或其他形式购买取得其他公司的产权，使其他公司丧失法人资格或改变法人实体，并取得对这些企业决策控制权的经济行为。

兼并和收购虽然有很多不同，但也存在不少相似之处：①兼并与收购的基本动因相似。

要么为扩大企业的市场占有率；要么为扩大企业生产规模，实现规模经营；要么为拓宽企业经营范围，实现分散经营或综合化经营。

总之，企业兼并或收购都是增强企业实力的外部扩张策略或途径。

②企业兼并与收购都以企业产权交易为对象，都是企业资本营运的基本方式。

正是由于两者有很多相似之处，现实中，两者通常统称为“并购”。

按照并购双方的业务性质可以分为：（1）横向并购。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]（股票估值）【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]（股票估值）【圣才出品】罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第9章股票估值9.1复习笔记1．不同类型股票的估值（1）零增长股利股利不变时，一股股票的价格由下式给出：在这里假定Div1=Div2=…=Div。

（2）固定增长率股利如果股利以恒定的速率增长，那么一股股票的价格就为：式中，g是增长率；Div是第一期期末的股利。

（3）变动增长率股利2．股利折现模型中的参数估计（1）对增长率g的估计有效估计增长率的方法是：g=留存收益比率×留存收益收益率（ROE）只要公司保持其股利支付率不变，g就可以表示公司的股利增长率以及盈利增长率。

（2）对折现率R的估计对于折现率R的估计为：R=Div/P0+g该式表明总收益率R由两部分组成。

其中，第一部分被称为股利收益率，是预期的现金股利与当前的价格之比。

3．增长机会每股股价可以写做：该式表明，每股股价可以看做两部分的加和。

第一部分（EPS/R）是当公司满足于现状，而将其盈利全部发放给投资者时的价值；第二部分是当公司将盈利留存并用于投资新项目时的新增价值。

当公司投资于正NPVGO的增长机会时，公司价值增加。

反之，当公司选择负NPVGO 的投资机会时，公司价值降低。

但是，不管项目的NPV是正的还是负的，盈利和股利都是增长的。

不应该折现利润来获得每股价格，因为有部分盈利被用于再投资了。

只有股利被分到股东手中，也只有股利可以加以折现以获得股票价格。

4．市盈率即股票的市盈率是三个因素的函数：（1）增长机会。

拥有强劲增长机会的公司具有高市盈率。

（2）风险。

低风险股票具有高市盈率。

（3）会计方法。

采用保守会计方法的公司具有高市盈率。

5．股票市场交易商：持有一项存货，然后准备在任何时点进行买卖。

经纪人：将买者和卖者撮合在一起，但并不持有存货。

9.2课后习题详解一、概念题1．股利支付率（payout ratio）答：股利支付率一般指公司发放给普通股股东的现金股利占总利润的比例。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题(含考研真题)详解[视频详解](跨国公司财务)【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第31章跨国公司财务31.1复习笔记随着经济全球化的发展，跨国公司越来越多。

跨国公司经营必须考虑各种因素，其中包括外币汇率、各国不同的利率、国外经营所用的复杂会计方法、外国税率和外国政府的干涉等等。

公司财务的基本原理仍然适用于跨国公司。

外汇问题是跨国财务中最重要、最复杂的难题。

当跨国公司进行资本预算决策或融资决策时，外汇市场能为其提供信息和机会。

外汇、利率和通货膨胀三者的相互关系构成了汇率基本理论。

即：购买力平价理论、利率平价理论和预期理论。

跨国公司融资决策通常有以下三种基本途径：将本国货币用于国外经营业务、向投资所在国借贷和向第三国借贷。

三种途径各有优缺点。

1．有关专业术语（1）美国存托凭证（ADR）。

美国存托凭证是指在美国发行的一种代表外国股权的证券。

外国公司运用以美元发行的ADR实现外国股票在美国上市交易，来吸引更多的潜在的美国投资者群体。

这些ADR通常由投资银行持有并为其做市，它以两种形式存在：一是在交易所挂牌交易的ADR，称为公司保荐形式；另一种是非保荐形式。

这两种形式的ADR均可由个人投资和买卖。

ADR解决了美国与国外证券交易制度、惯例、语言、外汇管理等不尽相同所造成的交易上的困难，是外国公司在美国市场上筹资的重要金融工具，同时也是美国投资者最广泛接受的外国证券形式。

（2）交叉汇率。

交叉汇率是指两种货币之间（通常都不是美元）通过第三种货币联系起来的汇率。

美元是决定交叉汇率的中介货币。

例如，如果投资者想卖出日元买进瑞士法郎，他可能先卖出日元买入美元，随后又卖出美元买入瑞士法郎。

所以，虽然该交易只涉及日元与瑞士法郎，但是美元汇率起到了基准作用。

（3）欧洲货币单位。

欧洲货币单位是指1979年设计的由10种欧洲货币组成的一揽子货币，它是欧洲货币体系（EMS）的货币单位。

根据章程，EMS成员国每五年或者当出现某种货币权重发生25％或以上的变动时，都要重新估算一次ECU的组成。

公司理财第九版课后案例Conch-Republic-Electronics

Conch Republic Electronics AnalysisAnalysis of Conch Republic ElectronicsThe new PDA:The existing model:There is no initial outlay for NWC; and Net Working Capital for the PDAs will be 20% of sales.The value of the equipment in five years will be $4.1 million.Introducing the new PDA, it causes the exiting PDA sales fall down and the price fall down.Therefore: sales for year 1=74000*$360-15000*$290-(80000-15000)*($290-$255)=$20015000Variable cost for year 1=74000*$155-15000*$120=$9670000Sales for year 2=95000*$360-15000*$290-(60000-15000)*($290-$255)=$28275000Variable cost for year 2=95000*$155-15000*$120=$12925000Net working capital=sales*20%Project cash flow=Project operating cash flow-Project changes in networking capital-project capital spendingOperating cash flow=EBIT+Depreciation-TaxesChange in NWC=Ending NWC-Beginning NWCThe book value of equipment after the depreciation=$21500000-$3,072,350 - $5,265,350-$3,760,350-$2,685,350-$1,919,950=$4796650Pretax salvage value of equipment=$4100000After-tax cash flow of equipment=$4100000+($4796650-$4100000)*35%=$4343827.5Part11 What is the payback period of the project?Payback period=3+ ($13,316,122.50-$11,243,440.00)/ $13,316,122.50 =3.16 years2. What is the profitability index of the project?PI= (the present value of the future cash flow)/(initial investment)PV of the future cash flow=$662,118.30+$5,670,737.01+$8,236,986.17+$8,462+$11,451,133.56=$34,483,611.62PI=$34,483,611.62 /$21500000=1.603. What is the IRR of the project?IRR is the return that makes the NPV=0.Therefore:NPV=0=-$21500000+($741,572.50/(1+IRR)^1)+($7,113,372.50/(1+IRR)^2)+ ($11,572,372.50/(1+IRR)^3)+ ($13,316,122.50/(1+IRR)^4) ($20180810 / (1+IRR) ^5)Use the EXCEL we can get the IRR=27.62%4. What is the NPV of the project?NPV=-$21500000+$662,118.30+$5,670,737.01+$8,236,986.17+$8,462,636.5 8+$11,451,133.56 =$12,983,611.62Part25. How sensitive is the NPV to change in the price of the new PDA?We suppose the price increase $10, so the price will be$370 per unitTherefore:NPV=-$21500000+$959,439.73+$6,129,522.08+$8,772,600.80+$8,921,798.39+$11,865,355.17=$15,148,716.18Therefore:The coefficient of price sensitive= ($15,148,716.18 -$12,983,611.62)/ ($370-$360)=$216510.46From the coefficient of the price sensitive, we can know that if the price increase $1,the NPV increase S216510.46.6. How sensitive is the NPV to change in quantity sold of the New PDA? We suppose the quantity increase 1000 per year. Therefore:NPV=-$21500000+$716,805.80+$5,776,963.09+$8,331,830.88+$8,547,319.37 +$11,567,597.93=$13,440,517.07Therefore:The coefficient of price sensitive= ($13,440,517.07-$12,983,611.62)/1000=$456.91From the coefficient of the quantity sensitive, we can know that if the quantity increases 1, the NPV increase $456.91.ReferenceRoss, Stephen. (2010). Fundamentals of corporate finance: Chapter 10 and Chapter11 Minicase. Asia: McGraw-Hill Education.Welcome To Download !!!欢迎您的下载，资料仅供参考！。

罗斯公司理财第9版精要版英文原书课后部分章节答案

CH5 11，13，18，19，2011.To find the PV of a lump sum, we use:PV = FV / (1 + r)tPV = $1,000,000 / (1.10)80 = $488.1913.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for r, we get:r = (FV / PV)1 / t– 1r = ($1,260,000 / $150)1/112– 1 = .0840 or 8.40%To find the FV of the first prize, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $1,260,000(1.0840)33 = $18,056,409.9418.To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $4,000(1.11)45 = $438,120.97FV = $4,000(1.11)35 = $154,299.40Better start early!19. We need to find the FV of a lump sum. However, the money will only be invested for six years,so the number of periods is six.FV = PV(1 + r)tFV = $20,000(1.084)6 = $32,449.3320.To answer this question, we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the sameanswer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:FV = PV(1 + r)tSolving for t, we get:t = ln(FV / PV) / ln(1 + r)t = ln($75,000 / $10,000) / ln(1.11) = 19.31So, the money must be invested for 19.31 years. However, you will not receive the money for another two years. From now, you’ll wait:2 years + 19.31 years = 21.31 yearsCH6 16，24，27，42，5816.For this problem, we simply need to find the FV of a lump sum using the equation:FV = PV(1 + r)tIt is important to note that compounding occurs semiannually. To account for this, we will divide the interest rate by two (the number of compounding periods in a year), and multiply the number of periods by two. Doing so, we get:FV = $2,100[1 + (.084/2)]34 = $8,505.9324.This problem requires us to find the FVA. The equation to find the FVA is:FVA = C{[(1 + r)t– 1] / r}FVA = $300[{[1 + (.10/12) ]360 – 1} / (.10/12)] = $678,146.3827.The cash flows are annual and the compounding period is quarterly, so we need to calculate theEAR to make the interest rate comparable with the timing of the cash flows. Using the equation for the EAR, we get:EAR = [1 + (APR / m)]m– 1EAR = [1 + (.11/4)]4– 1 = .1146 or 11.46%And now we use the EAR to find the PV of each cash flow as a lump sum and add them together: PV = $725 / 1.1146 + $980 / 1.11462 + $1,360 / 1.11464 = $2,320.3642.The amount of principal paid on the loan is the PV of the monthly payments you make. So, thepresent value of the $1,150 monthly payments is:PVA = $1,150[(1 – {1 / [1 + (.0635/12)]}360) / (.0635/12)] = $184,817.42The monthly payments of $1,150 will amount to a principal payment of $184,817.42. The amount of principal you will still owe is:$240,000 – 184,817.42 = $55,182.58This remaining principal amount will increase at the interest rate on the loan until the end of the loan period. So the balloon payment in 30 years, which is the FV of the remaining principal will be:Balloon payment = $55,182.58[1 + (.0635/12)]360 = $368,936.5458.To answer this question, we should find the PV of both options, and compare them. Since we arepurchasing the car, the lowest PV is the best option. The PV of the leasing is simply the PV of the lease payments, plus the $99. The interest rate we would use for the leasing option is thesame as the interest rate of the loan. The PV of leasing is:PV = $99 + $450{1 – [1 / (1 + .07/12)12(3)]} / (.07/12) = $14,672.91The PV of purchasing the car is the current price of the car minus the PV of the resale price. The PV of the resale price is:PV = $23,000 / [1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $18,654.82The PV of the decision to purchase is:$32,000 – 18,654.82 = $13,345.18In this case, it is cheaper to buy the car than leasing it since the PV of the purchase cash flows is lower. To find the breakeven resale price, we need to find the resale price that makes the PV of the two options the same. In other words, the PV of the decision to buy should be:$32,000 – PV of resale price = $14,672.91PV of resale price = $17,327.09The resale price that would make the PV of the lease versus buy decision is the FV of this value, so:Breakeven resale price = $17,327.09[1 + (.07/12)]12(3) = $21,363.01CH7 3，18，21，22，313.The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice thisproblem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be:P = $75({1 – [1/(1 + .0875)]10 } / .0875) + $1,000[1 / (1 + .0875)10] = $918.89We would like to introduce shorthand notation here. Rather than write (or type, as the case may be) the entire equation for the PV of a lump sum, or the PVA equation, it is common to abbreviate the equations as:PVIF R,t = 1 / (1 + r)twhich stands for Present Value Interest FactorPVIFA R,t= ({1 – [1/(1 + r)]t } / r )which stands for Present Value Interest Factor of an AnnuityThese abbreviations are short hand notation for the equations in which the interest rate and the number of periods are substituted into the equation and solved. We will use this shorthand notation in remainder of the solutions key.18.The bond price equation for this bond is:P0 = $1,068 = $46(PVIFA R%,18) + $1,000(PVIF R%,18)Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find:R = 4.06%This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is:YTM = 2 4.06% = 8.12%The current yield is:Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = $92 / $1,068 = .0861 or 8.61%The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter:Effective annual yield = (1 + 0.0406)2– 1 = .0829 or 8.29%20. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $74/2 × 2/6 = $12.33And we calculate the clean price as:Clean price = Dirty price – Accrued interest = $968 – 12.33 = $955.6721. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that haspassed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months untilthe next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is:Accrued interest = $68/2 × 4/6 = $22.67And we calculate the dirty price as:Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = $1,073 + 22.67 = $1,095.6722.To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Sincewe already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield = .0755 = $80/P0P0 = $80/.0755 = $1,059.60Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is:P = $1,059.60 = $80[(1 – (1/1.072)t ) / .072 ] + $1,000/1.072tWe can solve this equation for t as follows:$1,059.60(1.072)t = $1,111.11(1.072)t– 1,111.11 + 1,000111.11 = 51.51(1.072)t2.1570 = 1.072tt = log 2.1570 / log 1.072 = 11.06 11 yearsThe bond has 11 years to maturity.31.The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even thoughBond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is:P M= $1,100(PVIFA3.5%,16)(PVIF3.5%,12) + $1,400(PVIFA3.5%,12)(PVIF3.5%,28) + $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40)P M= $19,018.78Notice that for the coupon payments of $1,400, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a $20,000 par value, therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or:P N= $20,000(PVIF3.5%,40) = $5,051.45CH8 4，18，20，22，24ing the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is:P0 = D1 / (R– g) = $3.04 / (.11 – .038) = $42.2218.The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return.We know the dividend payment in Year 20, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 19, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get:P19 = $20.00 / .064P19 = $312.50The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P0 = $312.50 / (1.064)19P0 = $96.1520.We can use the two-stage dividend growth model for this problem, which is:P0 = [D0(1 + g1)/(R –g1)]{1 – [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T}+ [(1 + g1)/(1 + R)]T[D0(1 + g2)/(R –g2)]P0= [$1.25(1.28)/(.13 – .28)][1 – (1.28/1.13)8] + [(1.28)/(1.13)]8[$1.25(1.06)/(.13 – .06)]P0= $69.5522.We are asked to find the dividend yield and capital gains yield for each of the stocks. All of thestocks have a 15 percent required return, which is the sum of the dividend yield and the capital gains yield. To find the components of the total return, we need to find the stock price for each stock. Using this stock price and the dividend, we can calculate the dividend yield. The capital gains yield for the stock will be the total return (required return) minus the dividend yield.W: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1.10)/(.19 – .10) = $55.00Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.10)/$55.00 = .09 or 9%Capital gains yield = .19 – .09 = .10 or 10%X: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50/(.19 – 0) = $23.68Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50/$23.68 = .19 or 19%Capital gains yield = .19 – .19 = 0%Y: P0 = D0(1 + g) / (R–g) = $4.50(1 – .05)/(.19 + .05) = $17.81Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(0.95)/$17.81 = .24 or 24%Capital gains yield = .19 – .24 = –.05 or –5%Z: P2 = D2(1 + g) / (R–g) = D0(1 + g1)2(1 + g2)/(R–g2) = $4.50(1.20)2(1.12)/(.19 – .12) = $103.68P0 = $4.50 (1.20) / (1.19) + $4.50 (1.20)2/ (1.19)2 + $103.68 / (1.19)2 = $82.33Dividend yield = D1/P0 = $4.50(1.20)/$82.33 = .066 or 6.6%Capital gains yield = .19 – .066 = .124 or 12.4%In all cases, the required return is 19%, but the return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. High growth stocks have an appreciable capital gains component but a relatively small current income yield; conversely, mature, negative-growth stocks provide a high current income but also price depreciation over time.24.Here we have a stock with supernormal growth, but the dividend growth changes every year forthe first four years. We can find the price of the stock in Year 3 since the dividend growth rate is constant after the third dividend. The price of the stock in Year 3 will be the dividend in Year 4, divided by the required return minus the constant dividend growth rate. So, the price in Year 3 will be:P3 = $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)(1.05) / (.11 – .05) = $65.08The price of the stock today will be the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 3, so:P0 = $2.45(1.20)/(1.11) + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)/1.112 + $2.45(1.20)(1.15)(1.10)/1.113 + $65.08/1.113 P0 = $55.70CH9 3，4，6，9，153.Project A has cash flows of $19,000 in Year 1, so the cash flows are short by $21,000 ofrecapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project A is:Payback = 1 + ($21,000 / $25,000) = 1.84 yearsProject B has cash flows of:Cash flows = $14,000 + 17,000 + 24,000 = $55,000during this first three years. The cash flows are still short by $5,000 of recapturing the initial investment, so the payback for Project B is:B: Payback = 3 + ($5,000 / $270,000) = 3.019 yearsUsing the payback criterion and a cutoff of 3 years, accept project A and reject project B.4.When we use discounted payback, we need to find the value of all cash flows today. The valuetoday of the project cash flows for the first four years is:Value today of Year 1 cash flow = $4,200/1.14 = $3,684.21Value today of Year 2 cash flow = $5,300/1.142 = $4,078.18Value today of Year 3 cash flow = $6,100/1.143 = $4,117.33Value today of Year 4 cash flow = $7,400/1.144 = $4,381.39To find the discounted payback, we use these values to find the payback period. The discounted first year cash flow is $3,684.21, so the discounted payback for a $7,000 initial cost is:Discounted payback = 1 + ($7,000 – 3,684.21)/$4,078.18 = 1.81 yearsFor an initial cost of $10,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 2 + ($10,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18)/$4,117.33 = 2.54 yearsNotice the calculation of discounted payback. We know the payback period is between two and three years, so we subtract the discounted values of the Year 1 and Year 2 cash flows from the initial cost. This is the numerator, which is the discounted amount we still need to make to recover our initial investment. We divide this amount by the discounted amount we will earn in Year 3 to get the fractional portion of the discounted payback.If the initial cost is $13,000, the discounted payback is:Discounted payback = 3 + ($13,000 – 3,684.21 – 4,078.18 – 4,117.33) / $4,381.39 = 3.26 years 6.Our definition of AAR is the average net income divided by the average book value. The averagenet income for this project is:Average net income = ($1,938,200 + 2,201,600 + 1,876,000 + 1,329,500) / 4 = $1,836,325And the average book value is:Average book value = ($15,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $7,500,000So, the AAR for this project is:AAR = Average net income / Average book value = $1,836,325 / $7,500,000 = .2448 or 24.48% 9.The NPV of a project is the PV of the outflows minus the PV of the inflows. Since the cashinflows are an annuity, the equation for the NPV of this project at an 8 percent required return is: NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA8%, 9) = $40,036.31At an 8 percent required return, the NPV is positive, so we would accept the project.The equation for the NPV of the project at a 20 percent required return is:NPV = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA20%, 9) = –$23,117.45At a 20 percent required return, the NPV is negative, so we would reject the project.We would be indifferent to the project if the required return was equal to the IRR of the project, since at that required return the NPV is zero. The IRR of the project is:0 = –$138,000 + $28,500(PVIFA IRR, 9)IRR = 14.59%15.The profitability index is defined as the PV of the cash inflows divided by the PV of the cashoutflows. The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 10 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.1 + $6,900/1.12 + $5,700/1.13] / $14,000 = 1.187The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 15 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.15 + $6,900/1.152 + $5,700/1.153] / $14,000 = 1.094The equation for the profitability index at a required return of 22 percent is:PI = [$7,300/1.22 + $6,900/1.222 + $5,700/1.223] / $14,000 = 0.983We would accept the project if the required return were 10 percent or 15 percent since the PI is greater than one. We would reject the project if the required return were 22 percent since the PI is less than one.CH10 9，13，14，17，18ing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF (Remember the approach is irrelevant; the finalanswer will be the same no matter which of the four methods you use.), we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = ($2,650,000 – 840,000)(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($3,900,000/3)OCF = $1,631,50013.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = $560,000/5Annual depreciation = $112,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero.So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = $85,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = $56,100Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = $165,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34($112,000)OCF = $146,980Now we can find the project NPV. Notice we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –$560,000 – 29,000 + $146,980(PVIFA10%,5) + [($56,100 + 29,000) / 1.105]NPV = $21,010.2414.First we will calculate the annual depreciation of the new equipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = $720,000/5Annual depreciation charge = $144,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $75,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = $48,750Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = $260,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($144,000)OCF = $219,400Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project.Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of the project, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its levelbefore the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$720,000 + 110,000 + $219,400(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [($48,750 – 110,000) / (1+IRR)5] IRR = 21.65%17.We will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment to compute the EAC. Even though theequipment for each product has a different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. The aftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $40,000(1 – 0.35) = $26,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = –$67,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($290,000/3) = –9,716.67NPV = –$290,000 – $9,716.67(PVIFA10%,3) + ($26,000/1.103) = –$294,629.73EAC = –$294,629.73 / (PVIFA10%,3) = –$118,474.97And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = –$35,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($510,000/5) = $12,950NPV = –$510,000 + $12,950(PVIFA10%,5) + ($26,000/1.105) = –$444,765.36EAC = –$444,765.36 / (PVIFA10%,5) = –$117,327.98The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.18.To find the bid price, we need to calculate all other cash flows for the project, and then solve forthe bid price. The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = $70,000(1 – 0.35) = $45,500Now we can solve for the necessary OCF that will give the project a zero NPV. The equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = 0 = –$940,000 – 75,000 + OCF(PVIFA12%,5) + [($75,000 + 45,500) / 1.125]Solving for the OCF, we find the OCF that makes the project NPV equal to zero is:OCF = $946,625.06 / PVIFA12%,5 = $262,603.01The easiest way to calculate the bid price is the tax shield approach, so:OCF = $262,603.01 = [(P – v)Q – FC ](1 – t c) + t c D$262,603.01 = [(P – $9.25)(185,000) – $305,000 ](1 – 0.35) + 0.35($940,000/5)P = $12.54CH14 6、9、20、23、246. The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company’s bonds, so:P0 = $1,070 = $35(PVIFA R%,30) + $1,000(PVIF R%,30)R = 3.137%YTM = 2 × 3.137% = 6.27%And the aftertax cost of debt is:R D = .0627(1 – .35) = .0408 or 4.08%9. ing the equation to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = .60(.14) + .05(.06) + .35(.08)(1 – .35) = .1052 or 10.52%b.Since interest is tax deductible and dividends are not, we must look at the after-tax cost ofdebt, which is:.08(1 – .35) = .0520 or 5.20%Hence, on an after-tax basis, debt is cheaper than the preferred stock.ing the debt-equity ratio to calculate the WACC, we find:WACC = (.90/1.90)(.048) + (1/1.90)(.13) = .0912 or 9.12%Since the project is riskier than the company, we need to adjust the project discount rate for the additional risk. Using the subjective risk factor given, we find:Project discount rate = 9.12% + 2.00% = 11.12%We would accept the project if the NPV is positive. The NPV is the PV of the cash outflows plus the PV of the cash inflows. Since we have the costs, we just need to find the PV of inflows. The cash inflows are a growing perpetuity. If you remember, the equation for the PV of a growing perpetuity is the same as the dividend growth equation, so:PV of future CF = $2,700,000/(.1112 – .04) = $37,943,787The project should only be undertaken if its cost is less than $37,943,787 since costs less than this amount will result in a positive NPV.23. ing the dividend discount model, the cost of equity is:R E = [(0.80)(1.05)/$61] + .05R E = .0638 or 6.38%ing the CAPM, the cost of equity is:R E = .055 + 1.50(.1200 – .0550)R E = .1525 or 15.25%c.When using the dividend growth model or the CAPM, you must remember that both areestimates for the cost of equity. Additionally, and perhaps more importantly, each methodof estimating the cost of equity depends upon different assumptions.Challenge24.We can use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights of equity and debt. The debt of thecompany has a weight for long-term debt and a weight for accounts payable. We can use the weight given for accounts payable to calculate the weight of accounts payable and the weight of long-term debt. The weight of each will be:Accounts payable weight = .20/1.20 = .17Long-term debt weight = 1/1.20 = .83Since the accounts payable has the same cost as the overall WACC, we can write the equation for the WACC as:WACC = (1/1.7)(.14) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)WACC + (1/1.2)(.08)(1 – .35)]Solving for WACC, we find:WACC = .0824 + .4118[(.20/1.2)WACC + .0433]WACC = .0824 + (.0686)WACC + .0178(.9314)WACC = .1002WACC = .1076 or 10.76%We will use basically the same equation to calculate the weighted average flotation cost, except we will use the flotation cost for each form of financing. Doing so, we get:Flotation costs = (1/1.7)(.08) + (0.7/1.7)[(.20/1.2)(0) + (1/1.2)(.04)] = .0608 or 6.08%The total amount we need to raise to fund the new equipment will be:Amount raised cost = $45,000,000/(1 – .0608)Amount raised = $47,912,317Since the cash flows go to perpetuity, we can calculate the present value using the equation for the PV of a perpetuity. The NPV is:NPV = –$47,912,317 + ($6,200,000/.1076)NPV = $9,719,777CH16 1，4，12，14，171. a. A table outlining the income statement for the three possible states of the economy isshown below. The EPS is the net income divided by the 5,000 shares outstanding. The lastrow shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in a recession or anexpansion economy.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 0 0 0NI $14,000 $28,000 $36,400EPS $ 2.80 $ 5.60 $ 7.28%∆EPS –50 –––+30b.If the company undergoes the proposed recapitalization, it will repurchase:Share price = Equity / Shares outstandingShare price = $250,000/5,000Share price = $50Shares repurchased = Debt issued / Share priceShares repurchased =$90,000/$50Shares repurchased = 1,800The interest payment each year under all three scenarios will be:Interest payment = $90,000(.07) = $6,300The last row shows the percentage change in EPS the company will experience in arecession or an expansion economy under the proposed recapitalization.Recession Normal ExpansionEBIT $14,000 $28,000 $36,400Interest 6,300 6,300 6,300NI $7,700 $21,700 $30,100EPS $2.41 $ 6.78 $9.41%∆EPS –64.52 –––+38.714. a.Under Plan I, the unlevered company, net income is the same as EBIT with no corporate tax.The EPS under this capitalization will be:EPS = $350,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $2.19Under Plan II, the levered company, EBIT will be reduced by the interest payment. The interest payment is the amount of debt times the interest rate, so:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $126,000And the EPS will be:EPS = $126,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $1.58Plan I has the higher EPS when EBIT is $350,000.b.Under Plan I, the net income is $500,000 and the EPS is:EPS = $500,000/160,000 sharesEPS = $3.13Under Plan II, the net income is:NI = $500,000 – .08($2,800,000)NI = $276,000And the EPS is:EPS = $276,000/80,000 sharesEPS = $3.45Plan II has the higher EPS when EBIT is $500,000.c.To find the breakeven EBIT for two different capital structures, we simply set the equationsfor EPS equal to each other and solve for EBIT. The breakeven EBIT is:EBIT/160,000 = [EBIT – .08($2,800,000)]/80,000EBIT = $448,00012. a.With the information provided, we can use the equation for calculating WACC to find thecost of equity. The equation for WACC is:WACC = (E/V)R E + (D/V)R D(1 – t C)The company has a debt-equity ratio of 1.5, which implies the weight of debt is 1.5/2.5, and the weight of equity is 1/2.5, soWACC = .10 = (1/2.5)R E + (1.5/2.5)(.07)(1 – .35)R E = .1818 or 18.18%b.To find the unlevered cost of equity we need to use M&M Proposition II with taxes, so:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C).1818 = R U + (R U– .07)(1.5)(1 – .35)R U = .1266 or 12.66%c.To find the cost of equity under different capital structures, we can again use M&MProposition II with taxes. With a debt-equity ratio of 2, the cost of equity is:R E = R U + (R U– R D)(D/E)(1 – t C)R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(2)(1 – .35)R E = .2001 or 20.01%With a debt-equity ratio of 1.0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(1)(1 – .35)R E = .1634 or 16.34%And with a debt-equity ratio of 0, the cost of equity is:R E = .1266 + (.1266 – .07)(0)(1 – .35)R E = R U = .1266 or 12.66%14. a.The value of the unlevered firm is:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $92,000(1 – .35)/.15V U = $398,666.67b.The value of the levered firm is:V U = V U + t C DV U = $398,666.67 + .35($60,000)V U = $419,666.6717.With no debt, we are finding the value of an unlevered firm, so:V U = EBIT(1 – t C)/R UV U = $14,000(1 – .35)/.16V U = $56,875With debt, we simply need to use the equation for the value of a levered firm. With 50 percent debt, one-half of the firm value is debt, so the value of the levered firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(.50)($56,875)V L = $66,828.13And with 100 percent debt, the value of the firm is:V L = V U + t C(D/V)V UV L = $56,875 + .35(1.0)($56,875)V L = $76,781.25c.The net cash flows is the present value of the average daily collections times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per day, so:Net cash flow per day = $1,276,275(.0002) – $0.50(385)Net cash flow per day = $62.76The net cash flow per check is the net cash flow per day divided by the number of checks received per day, or:Net cash flow per check = $62.76/385Net cash flow per check = $0.16Alternatively, we could find the net cash flow per check as the number of days the system reduces collection time times the average check amount times the daily interest rate, minus the transaction cost per check. Doing so, we confirm our previous answer as:Net cash flow per check = 3($1,105)(.0002) – $0.50Net cash flow per check = $0.16 per checkThis makes the total costs:Total costs = $18,900,000 + 56,320,000 = $75,220,000The flotation costs as a percentage of the amount raised is the total cost divided by the amount raised, so:Flotation cost percentage = $75,220,000/$180,780,000 = .4161 or 41.61%8.The number of rights needed per new share is:Number of rights needed = 120,000 old shares/25,000 new shares = 4.8 rights per new share.Using P RO as the rights-on price, and P S as the subscription price, we can express the price per share of the stock ex-rights as:P X = [NP RO + P S]/(N + 1)a.P X = [4.8($94) + $94]/(4.80 + 1) = $94.00; No change.b. P X = [4.8($94) + $90]/(4.80 + 1) = $93.31; Price drops by $0.69 per share.c. P X = [4.8($94) + $85]/(4.80 + 1) = $92.45; Price drops by $1.55 per share.To get EBITD (earnings before interest, taxes, and depreciation), the numerator in the cash coverageratio, add depreciation to EBIT:EBITD = EBIT + Depreciation = $23,556.52 + 2,382 = $25,938.52Now, simply plug the numbers into the cash coverage ratio and calculate:。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题(含考研真题)详解[视频详解](风险分析、实物期权和资本预算)【

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第7章风险分析、实物期权和资本预算7.1复习笔记从某种意义上来说，公司的战略分析可以看作“寻找净现值为正值的投资项目”的过程。

分析正NPV来源的过程通常被称作公司的战略分析。

在实际操作中，可以使用决策树、场景分析、敏感性分析和盈亏平衡分析等分析工具来评估不确定性对项目增量现金流量的影响。

1．敏感性分析和场景分析（1）敏感性分析。

敏感性分析是指它在确定性分析的基础上，进一步分析不确定性因素对投资项目的最终经济效果指标的影响及影响程度。

敏感性因素一般可选择主要参数（如销售收入、经营成本、生产能力、初始投资、寿命期、建设期、达产期等）进行分析。

若某参数的小幅度变化能导致经济效果指标的较大变化，则称此参数为敏感性因素，反之则称其为非敏感性因素。

（2）场景分析。

敏感性分析只是孤立地处理每个变量的变化，而实际上不同变量之间很有可能是相互联系的。

场景分析经常被用来消除敏感性分析所存在问题的影响。

所谓的场景分析简单来说就是考察一些可能出现的不同场景，其中每个场景都综合了各种变量的影响。

2．盈亏平衡分析盈亏平衡分析是指根据成本、销售收入、利润等因素之间的函数关系，确定企业实现盈亏平衡时所需达到的销售量，它是敏感性分析方法的有效补充。

盈亏平衡分析包括会计利润和净现值的盈亏平衡点分析。

两者的计算公式如下：现值的盈亏平衡点=其中EAC代表约当平均成本，T C代表公司所得税税率。

3．蒙特卡罗模拟蒙特卡罗模拟是指在投资测算基本财务模型的基础上，考虑风险变量因素的动态变化（即不确定性），将风险变量（或子变量）原有的静态取值通过随机抽样实现动态取值，得到可以计算动态经济评价指标的模拟试验。

利用风险评估模型，可以模拟计算经济指标的N 个值，用来反映经济指标的变化规律，并对此规律加以评价。

4．实物期权实物期权是指标的物为非证券资产的期权。

相对于“金融期权”，实物期权具有以下四个特性：（1）非交易性。

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题(含考研真题)详解[视频详解](公司理财导论)【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》第9版笔记和课后习题（含考研真题）详解[视频详解]第1章公司理财导论[视频讲解]1.1复习笔记公司的首要目标——股东财富最大化决定了公司理财的目标。

公司理财研究的是稀缺资金如何在企业和市场内进行有效配置，它是在股份有限公司已成为现代企业制度最主要组织形式的时代背景下，就公司经营过程中的资金运动进行预测、组织、协调、分析和控制的一种决策与管理活动。

从决策角度来讲，公司理财的决策内容包括投资决策、筹资决策、股利决策和净流动资金决策；从管理角度来讲，公司理财的管理职能主要是指对资金筹集和资金投放的管理。

公司理财的基本内容包括：投资决策（资本预算）、融资决策（资本结构）、短期财务管理（营运资本）。

1．资产负债表资产负债表是总括反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表，它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系，按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序，把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列，并对日常工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。

资产负债表可以反映资本预算、资本支出、资本结构以及经营中的现金流量管理等方面的内容。

2．资本结构资本结构是指企业各种资本的构成及其比例关系，它有广义和狭义之分。

广义资本结构，亦称财务结构，指企业全部资本的构成，既包括长期资本，也包括短期资本（主要指短期债务资本）。

狭义资本结构，主要指企业长期资本的构成，而不包括短期资本。

通常人们将资本结构表示为债务资本与权益资本的比例关系（D/E）或债务资本在总资本的构成（D/A）。

准确地讲，企业的资本结构应定义为有偿负债与所有者权益的比例。

资本结构是由企业采用各种筹资方式筹集资本形成的。

筹资方式的选择及组合决定着企业资本结构及其变化。

资本结构是企业筹资决策的核心问题。

企业应综合考虑影响资本结构的因素，运用适当方法优化资本结构，从而实现最佳资本结构。

资本结构优化有利于降低资本成本，获取财务杠杆利益。

3．财务经理财务经理是公司管理团队中的重要成员，其主要职责是通过资本预算、融资和资产流动性管理为公司创造价值。

罗斯《公司理财》(第9版)课后习题(第22~24章)【圣才出品】

罗斯《公司理财》（第9版）课后习题第22章期权与公司理财一、概念题1．期权（option）答：期权是指在预先约定的日期，以事先确定的价格买卖某种特定商品、金融工具或相关期货合约的权利。

期权实质上是一种选择权，其交易是一种权利的买卖。

期权对于买方来说，只是一种权利，即拥有在一定时间内以一定价格出售或购买一定数量的商品、金融工具或相关期货合约的权利，不承担必须买进或卖出的义务，其损失为购买期权的费用。

对于期权的卖方来说，由于收取了期权费，则须承担到期时或到期前由买方所选择的交割履约义务和责任。

其固定收益为期权费，而损失则是不确定的。

期权价格的变动是以其基础商品、金融工具或相关期货价格的变动为基础的。

其变动规律是：基础期货价格上涨时，买进期权的价格上涨，而卖出期权的价格下跌；反之，当基础期货价格下跌时，买进期权的价格下跌，而卖出期权的价格上涨。

期权按照交易性质可分为看涨期权（买入期权）、看跌期权（卖出期权）和双重期权三种类型；按照履约期限可分为美式期权和欧式期权。

2．美式期权（American options）答：美式期权是指买入期权的一方在合约到期日前的任何工作日包括到期日当天都可以行使的期权，其结算日在履约日之后的一天或两天。

大多数的美式期权允许持有者在交易日到履约日之间随时履约，但也有一些合同规定一段比较短的时间可以履约，如“到期日前两周”。

3．买入期权（call option）答：买入期权又称“买方期权”、“看涨期权”、“多头期权”、“敲进”。

它是期权买方在合约到期日或有效期内按照预先敲定的交割价格从期权卖方手中买入某种金融资产或商品的权利，是期权交易的种类之一。

购买这种期权以人们预测市场价格将有上涨趋势为前提。

投资者在支付一定的期权费取得该种期权后，在合约到期日或到期日之前的有效期限内，若市场价格超过协定价格与期权费之和的水平，则可通过行使期权以协定价格买入合约规定的一定数量的金融资产或商品，再以市场价格卖出，从而获利。

公司理财Corporate_Finance_第九版_CASE答案(完整资料).doc

【最新整理，下载后即可编辑】Case SolutionsFundamentals of Corporate FinanceRoss, Westerfield, and Jordan9th editionCHAPTER 1THE McGEE CAKE COMPANY1.The advantages to a LLC are: 1) Reduction of personal liability. A soleproprietor has unlimited liability, which can include the potential loss of all personal assets. 2) Taxes. Forming an LLC may mean that more expenses can be considered business expenses and be deducted from the company’s income. 3) Improved credibility. The business may have increased credibility in the business world compared to a sole proprietorship. 4) Ability to attract investment. Corporations, even LLCs, can raise capital through the sale of equity. 5) Continuous life. Sole proprietorships have a limited life, while corporations have a potentially perpetual life. 6) Transfer of ownership. It is easier to transfer ownership in a corporation through the sale of stock.The biggest disadvantage is the potential cost, although the cost of forminga LLC can be relatively small. There are also other potential costs, includingmore expansive record-keeping.2.Forming a corporation has the same advantages as forming a LLC, but thecosts are likely to be higher.3.As a small company, changing to a LLC is probably the most advantageousdecision at the current time. If the company grows, and Doc and Lyn are willing to sell more equity ownership, the company can reorganize as a corporation at a later date. Additionally, forming a LLC is likely to be less expensive than forming a corporation.CHAPTER 2CASH FLOWS AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AT SUNSET BOARDS Below are the financial statements that you are asked to prepare.1.The income statement for each year will look like this:Income statement2008 2009Sales $247,259 $301,392Cost of goods sold 126,038 159,143Selling & administrative 24,787 32,352Depreciation 35,581 40,217EBIT $60,853 $69,680Interest 7,735 8,866EBT $53,118 $60,814Taxes 10,624 12,163Net income $42,494 $48,651Dividends $21,247 $24,326Addition to retainedearnings 21,247 24,3262.The balance sheet for each year will be:Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2008C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSCash $18,187 Accounts payable $32,143 Accountsreceivable 12,887 Notes payable 14,651 Inventory 27,119 Current liabilities $46,794 Current assets $58,193Long-term debt $79,235 Net fixed assets $156,975 Owners' equity 89,139Total assets $215,168 Total liab. &equity $215,168In the first year, equity is not given. Therefore, we must calculate equity as a plug variable. Since total liabilities & equity is equal to total assets, equity can be calculated as:Equity = $215,168 – 46,794 – 79,235Equity = $89,139CHAPTER 2 C-5Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2009Cash $27,478 Accounts payable $36,404 Accountsreceivable 16,717 Notes payable 15,997 Inventory 37,216 Current liabilities $52,401 Current assets $81,411Long-term debt $91,195 Net fixed assets $191,250 Owners' equity 129,065Total assets $272,661 Total liab. &equity $272,661The owner’s equity for 2009 is the beginning of year owner’s equity, plus the addition to retained earnings, plus the new equity, so:Equity = $89,139 + 24,326 + 15,600Equity = $129,065ing the OCF equation:OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesThe OCF for each year is:OCF2008 = $60,853 + 35,581 – 10,624OCF2008 = $85,180OCF2009 = $69,680 + 40,217 – 12,163OCF2009 = $97,734C-26 CASE SOLUTIONS4.To calculate the cash flow from assets, we need to find the capital spendingand change in net working capital. The capital spending for the year was: Capital spendingEnding net fixed assets $191,250– Beginning net fixedassets 156,975+ Depreciation 40,217Net capital spending $74,492And the change in net working capital was:Change in net working capitalEnding NWC $29,010– Beginning NWC 11,399Change in NWC $17,611CHAPTER 2 C-5 So, the cash flow from assets was:Cash flow from assetsOperating cash flow $97,734– Net capital spending 74,492– Change in NWC 17,611Cash flow from assets $ 5,6315.The cash flow to creditors was:Cash flow to creditorsInterest paid $8,866– Net new borrowing 11,960Cash flow to creditors –$3,0946.The cash flow to stockholders was:Cash flow tostockholdersDividends paid $24,326– Net new equityraised 15,600Cash flow tostockholders $8,726Answers to questions1.The firm had positive earnings in an accounting sense (NI > 0) and hadpositive cash flow from operations. The firm invested $17,611 in new netC-26 CASE SOLUTIONSworking capital and $74,492 in new fixed assets. The firm gave $5,631 to its stakeholders. It raised $3,094 from bondholders, and paid $8,726 to stockholders.2.The expansion plans may be a little risky. The company does have a positivecash flow, but a large portion of the operating cash flow is already going to capital spending. The company has had to raise capital from creditors and stockholders for its current operations. So, the expansion plans may be too aggressive at this time. On the other hand, companies do need capital to grow. Before investing or loaning the company money, you would want to know where the current capital spending is going, and why the company is spending so much in this area already.CHAPTER 3RATIOS ANALYSIS AT S&S AIR1.The calculations for the ratios listed are:Current ratio = $2,186,520 / $2,919,000Current ratio = 0.75 timesQuick ratio = ($2,186,250 – 1,037,120) / $2,919,000Quick ratio = 0.39 timesCash ratio = $441,000 / $2,919,000Cash ratio = 0.15 timesTotal asset turnover = $30,499,420 / $18,308,920Total asset turnover = 1.67 timesInventory turnover = $22,224,580 / $1,037,120Inventory turnover = 21.43 timesReceivables turnover = $30,499,420 / $708,400Receivables turnover = 43.05 timesTotal debt ratio = ($18,308,920 – 10,069,920) / $18,308,920 Total debt ratio = 0.45 timesDebt-equity ratio = ($2,919,000 + 5,320,000) / $10,069,920C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSDebt-equity ratio = 0.82 timesEquity multiplier = $18,308,920 / $10,069,920Equity multiplier = 1.82 timesTimes interest earned = $3,040,660 / $478,240Times interest earned = 6.36 timesCash coverage = ($3,040,660 + 1,366,680) / $478,420 Cash coverage = 9.22 timesProfit margin = $1,537,452 / $30,499,420Profit margin = 5.04%Return on assets = $1,537,452 / $18,308,920Return on assets = 8.40%Return on equity = $1,537,452 / $10,069,920Return on equity = 15.27%CHAPTER 3 C-11 2. Boeing is probably not a good aspirant company. Even though bothcompanies manufacture airplanes, S&S Air manufactures small airplanes, while Boeing manufactures large, commercial aircraft. These are two different markets. Additionally, Boeing is heavily involved in the defense industry, as well as Boeing Capital, which finances airplanes.Bombardier is a Canadian company that builds business jets, short-range airliners and fire-fighting amphibious aircraft and also provides defense-related services. It is the third largest commercial aircraft manufacturer in the world. Embraer is a Brazilian manufacturer than manufactures commercial, military, and corporate airplanes. Additionally, the Brazilian government is a part owner of the company. Bombardier and Embraer are probably not good aspirant companies because of the diverse range of products and manufacture of larger aircraft.Cirrus is the world's second largest manufacturer of single-engine, piston-powered aircraft. Its SR22 is the world's best selling plane in its class. The company is noted for its innovative small aircraft and is a good aspirant company.Cessna is a well known manufacturer of small airplanes. The company produces business jets, freight- and passenger-hauling utility Caravans, personal and small-business single engine pistons. It may be a good aspirant company, however, its products could be considered too broad and diversified since S&S Air produces only small personal airplanes.3. S&S is below the median industry ratios for the current and cash ratios.This implies the company has less liquidity than the industry in general.However, both ratios are above the lower quartile, so there are companiesC-26 CASE SOLUTIONSin the industry with lower liquidity ratios than S&S Air. The company may have more predictable cash flows, or more access to short-term borrowing.If you created an Inventory to Current liabilities ratio, S&S Air would havea ratio that is lower than the industry median. The current ratio is below theindustry median, while the quick ratio is above the industry median. This implies that S&S Air has less inventory to current liabilities than the industry median. S&S Air has less inventory than the industry median, but more accounts receivable than the industry since the cash ratio is lower than the industry median.The turnover ratios are all higher than the industry median; in fact, all three turnover ratios are above the upper quartile. This may mean that S&S Air is more efficient than the industry.The financial leverage ratios are all below the industry median, but above the lower quartile. S&S Air generally has less debt than comparable companies, but still within the normal range.The profit margin, ROA, and ROE are all slightly below the industry median, however, not dramatically lower. The company may want to examine its costs structure to determine if costs can be reduced, or price can be increased.Overall, S&S Air’s performance seems good, although the liquidity ratios indicate that a closer look may be needed in this area.CHAPTER 3 C-11 Below is a list of possible reasons it may be good or bad that each ratio is higher or lower than the industry. Note that the list is not exhaustive, but merely one possible explanation for each ratio.Ratio Good BadCurrent ratio Better at managingcurrent accounts. May be having liquidity problems.Quick ratio Better at managingcurrent accounts. May be having liquidity problems.Cash ratio Better at managingcurrent accounts. May be having liquidity problems.Total asset turnover Better at utilizing assets. Assets may be older anddepreciated, requiringextensive investmentsoon.Inventory turnover Better at inventorymanagement, possibly dueto better procedures.Could be experiencinginventory shortages.Receivables turnover Better at collectingreceivables.May have credit termsthat are too strict.Decreasing receivablesturnover may increasesales.Total debt ratio Less debt than industrymedian means thecompany is less likely toexperience creditproblems. Increasing the amount of debt can increase shareholder returns. Especially notice that it will increase ROE.Debt-equity Less debt than industry Increasing the amount ofC-26 CASE SOLUTIONSratio median means thecompany is less likely toexperience creditproblems. debt can increase shareholder returns. Especially notice that it will increase ROE.Equity multiplier Less debt than industrymedian means thecompany is less likely toexperience creditproblems.Increasing the amount ofdebt can increaseshareholder returns.Especially notice that itwill increase ROE.TIE Higher quality materialscould be increasing costs. The company may have more difficulty meeting interest payments in a downturn.Cash coverage Less debt than industrymedian means thecompany is less likely toexperience creditproblems. Increasing the amount of debt can increase shareholder returns. Especially notice that it will increase ROE.Profit margin The PM is slightly belowthe industry median. Itcould be a result of higherquality materials or bettermanufacturing. Company may be having trouble controlling costs.ROA Company may have newerassets than the industry. Company may have newer assets than the industry.ROE Lower profit margin maybe a result of higherquality. Profit margin and EM are lower than industry, which results in the lower ROE.CHAPTER 4PLANNING FOR GROWTH AT S&S AIR1.To calculate the internal growth rate, we first need to find the ROA and theretention ratio, so:ROA = NI / TAROA = $1,537,452 / $18,309,920ROA = .0840 or 8.40%b = Addition to RE / NIb = $977,452 / $1,537,452b = 0.64Now we can use the internal growth rate equation to get:Internal growth rate = (ROA × b) / [1 – (ROA × b)]Internal growth rate = [0.0840(.64)] / [1 – 0.0840(.64)]Internal growth rate = .0564 or 5.64%To find the sustainable growth rate, we need the ROE, which is:ROE = NI / TEROE = $1,537,452 / $10,069,920ROE = .1527 or 15.27%C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSUsing the retention ratio we previously calculated, the sustainable growth rate is:Sustainable growth rate = (ROE × b) / [1 – (ROE × b)]Sustainable growth rate = [0.1527(.64)] / [1 – 0.1527(.64)]Sustainable growth rate = .1075 or 10.75%The internal growth rate is the growth rate the company can achieve with no outside financing of any sort. The sustainable growth rate is the growth rate the company can achieve by raising outside debt based on its retained earnings and current capital structure.CHAPTER 4 C-21 2.Pro forma financial statements for next year at a 12 percent growth rate are:Income statementSales $ 34,159,35COGS 24,891,530 Other expenses 4,331,600 Depreciation 1,366,680EBIT $ 3,569,541Interest 478,240Taxable income $ 3,091,301Taxes (40%) 1,236,520Net income $ 1,854,78Dividends $ 675,583C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSAdd to RE 1,179,197Balance sheetAssets Liabilities & EquityCurrent Assets Current LiabilitiesCash $ 493,92AccountsPayable $ 995,680Accounts rec. 793,408 Notes Payable 2,030,000 Inventory 1,161,574 Total CL $ 3,025,680 Total CA $ 2,448,902Long-term debt $ 5,320,000ShareholderEquityCommon stock $ 350,000Fixed assets Retainedearnings 10,899,117Net PP&E $ 18,057,088 Total Equity $ 11,249,117Total Assets $ 20,505,990 Total L&E $ 19,594,787CHAPTER 4 C-21 So, the EFN is:EFN = Total assets – Total liabilities and equityEFN = $20,505,990 – 19,594,797EFN = $911,193The company can grow at this rate by changing the way it operates. For example, if profit margin increases, say by reducing costs, the ROE increases, it will increase the sustainable growth rate. In general, as long as the company increases the profit margin, total asset turnover, or equity multiplier, the higher growth rate is possible. Note however, that changing any one of these will have the effect of changing the pro forma financial statements.C-26 CASE SOLUTIONS3.Now we are assuming the company can only build in amounts of $5 million.We will assume that the company will go ahead with the fixed asset acquisition. To estimate the new depreciation charge, we will find the current depreciation as a percentage of fixed assets, then, apply this percentage to the new fixed assets. The depreciation as a percentage of assets this year was:Depreciation percentage = $1,366,680 / $16,122,400Depreciation percentage = .0848 or 8.48%The new level of fixed assets with the $5 million purchase will be:New fixed assets = $16,122,400 + 5,000,000 = $21,122,400So, the pro forma depreciation will be:Pro forma depreciation = .0848($21,122,400)Pro forma depreciation = $1,790,525We will use this amount in the pro forma income statement. So, the pro forma income statement will be:Income statementSales $ 34,159,35COGS 24,891,530 Other expensesCHAPTER 4 C-214,331,600Depreciation 1,790,525EBIT $ 3,145,696Interest 478,240Taxable income $ 2,667,456Taxes (40%) 1,066,982Net income $ 1,600,473Dividends $ 582,955Add to RE 1,017,519C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSThe pro forma balance sheet will remain the same except for the fixed asset and equity accounts. The fixed asset account will increase by $5 million, rather than the growth rate of sales.Balance sheetAssets Liabilities & EquityCurrent Assets Current LiabilitiesCash $ 493,92AccountsPayable $ 995,680Accounts rec. 793,408 Notes Payable 2,030,000 Inventory 1,161,574 Total CL $ 3,025,680 Total CA $ 2,448,902Long-term debt $ 5,320,000ShareholderEquityCommon stock $ 350,000Fixed assets Retainedearnings 10,737,439Net PP&E $ 21,122,400 Total Equity $ 11,087,439Total Assets $ 23,571,302 Total L&E $ 19,433,119CHAPTER 4 C-21 So, the EFN is:EFN = Total assets – Total liabilities and equityEFN = $23,581,302 – 19,433,119EFN = $4,138,184Since the fixed assets have increased at a faster percentage than sales, the capacity utilization for next year will decrease.CHAPTER 6THE MBA DECISION1. Age is obviously an important factor. The younger an individual is, the moretime there is for the (hopefully) increased salary to offset the cost of the decision to return to school for an MBA. The cost includes both the explicit costs such as tuition, as well as the opportunity cost of the lost salary.2. Perhaps the most important nonquantifiable factors would be whether ornot he is married and if he has any children. With a spouse and/or children, he may be less inclined to return for an MBA since his family may be less amenable to the time and money constraints imposed by classes. Other factors would include his willingness and desire to pursue an MBA, job satisfaction, and how important the prestige of a job is to him, regardless of the salary.3.He has three choices: remain at his current job, pursue a Wilton MBA, orpursue a Mt. Perry MBA. In this analysis, room and board costs are irrelevant since presumably they will be the same whether he attends college or keeps his current job. We need to find the aftertax value of each, so:Remain at current job:Aftertax salary = $55,000(1 – .26) = $40,700CHAPTER 6 C-27 His salary will grow at 3 percent per year, so the present value of his aftertax salary is:PV = C {1 – [(1 + g)/(1 + r)]t} / (r–g)]PV = $40,700{[1 – [(1 +.065)/(1 + .03)]38} / (.065 – .03)PV = $836,227.34Wilton MBA:Costs:Total direct costs = $63,000 + 2,500 + 3,000 = $68,500PV of direct costs = $68,500 + 68,500 / (1.065) = $132,819.25PV of indirect costs (lost salary) = $40,700 / (1.065) + $40,700(1 + .03) / (1 + .065)2 = $75,176.00Salary:PV of aftertax bonus paid in 2 years = $15,000(1 –.31) / 1.0652= $9,125.17Aftertax salary = $98,000(1 – .31) = $67,620C-26 CASE SOLUTIONSHis salary will grow at 4 percent per year. We must also remember that he will now only work for 36 years, so the present value of his aftertax salary is: PV = C {1 – [(1 + g)/(1 + r)]t} / (r–g)]PV = $67,620{[1 – [(1 +.065)/(1 + .04)]36} / (.065 – .04)PV = $1,554,663.22Since the first salary payment will be received three years from today, so we need to discount this for two years to find the value today, which will be: PV = $1,544,663.22 / 1.0652PV = $1,370,683.26So, the total value of a Wilton MBA is:Value = –$75,160 – 132,819.25 + 9,125.17 + 1,370,683.26 =$1,171,813.18Mount Perry MBA:Costs:Total direct costs = $78,000 + 3,500 + 3,000 = $86,500. Note, this is also the PV of the direct costs since they are all paid today.PV of indirect costs (lost salary) = $40,700 / (1.065) = $38,215.96Salary:CHAPTER 6 C-27 PV of aftertax bonus paid in 1 year = $10,000(1 – .29) / 1.065 = $6,666.67 Aftertax salary = $81,000(1 – .29) = $57,510His salary will grow at 3.5 percent per year. We must also remember that he will now only work for 37 years, so the present value of his aftertax salary is: PV = C {1 – [(1 + g)/(1 + r)]t} / (r–g)]PV = $57,510{[1 – [(1 +.065)/(1 + .035)]37} / (.065 – .035)PV = $1,250,991.81Since the first salary payment will be received two years from today, so we need to discount this for one year to find the value today, which will be:PV = $1,250,991.81 / 1.065PV = $1,174,640.20So, the total value of a Mount Perry MBA is:Value = –$86,500 – 38,215.96 + 6,666.67 + 1,174,640.20 = $1,056,590.90C-26 CASE SOLUTIONS4.He is somewhat correct. Calculating the future value of each decision willresult in the option with the highest present value having the highest future value. Thus, a future value analysis will result in the same decision. However, his statement that a future value analysis is the correct method is wrong since a present value analysis will give the correct answer as well.5. To find the salary offer he would need to make the Wilton MBA asfinancially attractive as the as the current job, we need to take the PV of his current job, add the costs of attending Wilton, and the PV of the bonus on an aftertax basis. So, the necessary PV to make the Wilton MBA the same as his current job will be:PV = $836,227.34 + 132,819.25 + 75,176.00 – 9,125.17 = $1,035,097.42This PV will make his current job exactly equal to the Wilton MBA on a financial basis. Since his salary will still be a growing annuity, the aftertax salary needed is:PV = C {1 – [(1 + g)/(1 + r)]t} / (r–g)]$1,035,097.42 = C {[1 – [(1 +.065)/(1 + .04)]36} / (.065 – .04)C = $45,021.51This is the aftertax salary. So, the pretax salary must be:Pretax salary = $45,021.51 / (1 – .31) = $65,248.576.The cost (interest rate) of the decision depends on the riskiness of the use offunds, not the source of the funds. Therefore, whether he can pay cash orCHAPTER 6 C-27 must borrow is irrelevant. This is an important concept which will be discussed further in capital budgeting and the cost of capital in later chapters.CHAPTER 7FINANCING S&S AIR’S EXPANSION PLANS WITH A BOND ISSUEA rule of thumb with bond provisions is to determine who benefits by theprovision. If the company benefits, the bond will have a higher coupon rate.If the bondholders benefit, the bond will have a lower coupon rate.1. A bond with collateral will have a lower coupon rate. Bondholders have theclaim on the collateral, even in bankruptcy. Collateral provides an asset that bondholders can claim, which lowers their risk in default. The downside of collateral is that the company generally cannot sell the asset used as collateral, and they will generally have to keep the asset in good working order.2.The more senior the bond is, the lower the coupon rate. Senior bonds getfull payment in bankruptcy proceedings before subordinated bonds receive any payment. A potential problem may arise in that the bond covenant may restrict the company from issuing any future bonds senior to the current bonds.3. A sinking fund will reduce the coupon rate because it is a partial guaranteeto bondholders. The problem with a sinking fund is that the company must make the interim payments into a sinking fund or face default. This means the company must be able to generate these cash flows.4. A provision with a specific call date and prices would increase the couponrate. The call provision would only be used when it is to the company’s advantage, thus the bondholder’s disadvantage. The downside is theCHAPTER 7 C-29 higher coupon rate. The company benefits by being able to refinance at a lower rate if interest rates fall significantly, that is, enough to offset the call provision cost.5. A deferred call would reduce the coupon rate relative to a call provision witha deferred call. The bond will still have a higher rate relative to a plain vanillabond. The deferred call means that the company cannot call the bond for a specified period. This offers the bondholders protection for this period. The disadvantage of a deferred call is that the company cannot call the bond during the call protection period. Interest rates could potentially fall to the point where it would be beneficial for the company to call the bond, yet the company is unable to do so.6. A make-whole call provision should lower the coupon rate in comparison toa call provision with specific dates since the make-whole call repays thebondholder the present value of the future cash flows. However, a make-whole call provision should not affect the coupon rate in comparison to a plain vanilla bond. Since the bondholders are made whole, they should be indifferent between a plain vanilla bond and a make-whole bond. If a bond with a make-whole provision is called, bondholders receive the market value of the bond, which they can reinvest in another bond with similar characteristics. If we compare this to a bond with a specific call price, investors rarely receive the full market value of the future cash flows.CASE 3 C-30 7. A positive covenant would reduce the coupon rate. The presence of positivecovenants protects bondholders by forcing the company to undertake actions that benefit bondholders. Examples of positive covenants would be: the company must maintain audited financial statements; the company must maintain a minimum specified level of working capital or a minimum specified current ratio; the company must maintain any collateral in good working order. The negative side of positive covenants is that the company is restricted in its actions. The positive covenant may force the company into actions in the future that it would rather not undertake.8. A negative covenant would reduce the coupon rate. The presence ofnegative covenants protects bondholders from actions by the company that would harm the bondholders. Remember, the goal of a corporation is to maximize shareholder wealth. This says nothing about bondholders.Examples of negative covenants would be: the company cannot increase dividends, or at least increase beyond a specified level; the company cannot issue new bonds senior to the current bond issue; the company cannot sell any collateral. The downside of negative covenants is the restriction of the company’s actions.9.Even though the company is not public, a conversion feature would likelylower the coupon rate. The conversion feature would permit bondholders to benefit if the company does well and also goes public. The downside is that the company may be selling equity at a discounted price.10. The downside of a floating-rate coupon is that if interest rates rise, thecompany has to pay a higher interest rate. However, if interest rates fall, the company pays a lower interest rate.CHAPTER 8STOCK VALUATION AT RAGAN, INC.1.The total dividends paid by the company were $126,000. Since there are100,000 shares outstanding, the total earnings for the company were: Total earnings = 100,000($4.54) = $454,000This means the payout ratio was:Payout ratio = $126,000/$454,000 = 0.28So, the retention ratio was:Retention ratio = 1 – .28 = 0.72Using the retention ratio, the company’s growth rate is:g = ROE × b = 0.25*(.72) = .1806 or 18.06%The dividend per share paid this year was:= $63,000 / 50,000D= $1.26DNow we can find the stock price, which is:C-84 CASE SOLUTIONSP 0 = D 1 / (R – g )P 0 = $1.26(1.1806) / (.20 – .1806)P 0 = $76.752.Since Expert HVAC had a write off which affected its earnings per share, we need to recalculate the industry EPS. So, the industry EPS is:Industry EPS = ($0.79 + 1.38 + 1.06) / 3 = $1.08Using this industry EPS, the industry payout ratio is:Industry payout ratio = $0.40/$1.08 = .3715 or 37.15%So, the industry retention ratio isIndustry retention ratio = 1 – .3715 = .6285 or 62.85%。

罗斯《公司理财》中文版第九版课件

名义利率和实际利率的换算：将名义利率调整为次利率，再转换为实际利率，然后按实际利率计算资金时间价值；不计算实际利率，而是调整有关指标。
。
2.1资金时间价值观念
利率（折现率）的确定：
对于复利来说，若已知P，F，n，可不用查表而直接计算出i；
但对普通年金问题，首先要根据等额的款项A、相应的终值FA或现值PA，计算出相应系数（FA/A, i, n）或（PA/A, i, n），然后，根据该系数和已知的基数n去查相应的系数表，或用插值法计算所要求的利率。
复利终值计算公式为如下形式：
其中，现值为P，利率为i，第n年的终值为Fn 复利现值是复利终值的逆运算
2.1资金时间价值观念
年金是指在一定时期内，每隔相同的时间，发生的相同数额的系列收（或付）款项，年金具有连续性和等额性。
年金按照收（或付）款的时间分为普通年金、预付年金、递延年金和永续年金等几种形式。
2.2风险与收益权衡观念
协方差的计算。证券报酬率的协方差可以用来衡量它们之间共同变动的程度。
式中：是证券j和证券k报酬率之间的预期相关系数；是第j种证券的标准差；是第k种证券的标准差。
组合资产之间的相关系数
2.2风险与收益权衡观念
两种证券组合的投资有效集
图2—7描绘出随着对两种证券投资比例的改变，期望报酬率与风险之间的关系。
方法一：把递延年金视为n期普通年金，求出递延期末的年金现值，然后再将此现值用复利调整到第一期期初。
方法二：假设递延期中也有收付款项，则应先求出（m+n）期的年金现值，然后扣除实际并未发生收付的递延期（m）的年金现值，即可得出递延年金的现值。
2.1资金时间价值观念
永续年金是指无限期等额支付的年金。实际经济生活中可以将利率较高、持续期较长的年金视为永续年金。

公司理财第九版课后习题答案(英文)(上册)

Solutions ManualCorporate FinanceRoss, Westerfield, and Jaffe9th editionCHAPTER 1INTRODUCTION TO CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concept Questions1. In the corporate form of ownership, the shareholders are the owners of the firm. The shareholderselect the directors of the corporation, who in turn appoint the firm‘s management. This separation of ownership from control in the corporate form of organization is what causes agency problems to exist. Management may act in its own or someone else‘s best interests, rather than those of the shareholders. If such events occur, they may contradict the goal of maximizing the share price of the equity of the firm.2.Such organizations frequently pursue social or political missions, so many different goals areconceivable. One goal that is often cited is revenue minimization; i.e., provide whatever goods and services are offered at the lowest possible cost to society. A better approach might be to observe that even a not-for-profit business has equity. Thus, one answer is that the appropriate goal is to maximize the value of the equity.3.Presumably, the current stock value reflects the risk, timing, and magnitude of all future cash flows,both short-term and long-term. If this is correct, then the statement is false.4.An argument can be made either way. At the one extreme, we could argue that in a market economy,all of these things are priced. There is thus an optimal level of, for example, ethical and/or illegal behavior, and the framework of stock valuation explicitly includes these. At the other extreme, we could argue that these are non-economic phenomena and are best handled through the political process. A classic (and highly relevant) thought question that illustrates this debate goes something like this: ―A firm has estimated that the cost of improving the safety of one of its products is $30 million. However, the firm believes that improving the safety of the product will only save $20 million in product liability claims. What s hould the firm do?‖5.The goal will be the same, but the best course of action toward that goal may be different because ofdiffering social, political, and economic institutions.6.The goal of management should be to maximize the share price for the current shareholders. Ifmanagement believes that it can improve the profitability of the firm so that the share price will exceed $35, then they should fight the offer from the outside company. If management believes that this bidder or other unidentified bidders will actually pay more than $35 per share to acquire the company, then they should still fight the offer. However, if the current management cannot increase the value of the firm beyond the bid price, and no other higher bids come in, then management is not acting in the interests of the shareholders by fighting the offer. Since current managers often lose their jobs when the corporation is acquired, poorly monitored managers have an incentive to fight corporate takeovers in situations such as this.7.We would expect agency problems to be less severe in other countries, primarily due to the relativelysmall percentage of individual ownership. Fewer individual owners should reduce the number of diverse opinions concerning corporate goals. The high percentage of institutional ownership might lead to a higher degree of agreement between owners and managers on decisions concerning risky projects. In addition, institutions may be better able to implement effective monitoring mechanisms on managers than can individual owners, based on the institutions‘ deeper resources and experiences with their own management.8.The increase in institutional ownership of stock in the United States and the growing activism ofthese large shareholder groups may lead to a reduction in agency problems for U.S. corporations anda more efficient market for corporate control. However, this may not always be the case. If themanagers of the mutual fund or pension plan are not concerned with the interests of the investors, the agency problem could potentially remain the same, or even increase since there is the possibility of agency problems between the fund and its investors.9. How much is too much? Who is worth more, Ray Irani or Tiger Woods? The simplest answer is thatthere is a market for executives just as there is for all types of labor. Executive compensation is the price that clears the market. The same is true for athletes and performers. Having said that, one aspect of executive compensation deserves comment. A primary reason executive compensation has grown so dramatically is that companies have increasingly moved to stock-based compensation.Such movement is obviously consistent with the attempt to better align stockholder and management interests. In recent years, stock prices have soared, so management has cleaned up. It is sometimes argued that much of this reward is simply due to rising stock prices in general, not managerial performance. Perhaps in the future, executive compensation will be designed to reward only differential performance, i.e., stock price increases in excess of general market increases.10. Maximizing the current share price is the same as maximizing the future share price at any futureperiod. The value of a share of stock depends on all of the future cash flows of company. Another way to look at this is that, barring large cash payments to shareholders, the expected price of the stock must be higher in the future than it is today. Who would buy a stock for $100 today when the share price in one year is expected to be $80?CHAPTER 2FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND CASH FLOWAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.True. Every asset can be converted to cash at some price. However, when we are referring to a liquidasset, the added assumption that the asset can be quickly converted to cash at or near market value is important.2.The recognition and matching principles in financial accounting call for revenues, and the costsassociated with producing those revenues, to be ―booked‖ when the revenue process is essentially complete, not necessarily when the cash is collected or bills are paid. Note that this way is not necessarily correct; it‘s the way accountants have chosen to do it.3.The bottom line number shows the change in the cash balance on the balance sheet. As such, it is nota useful number for analyzing a company.4. The major difference is the treatment of interest expense. The accounting statement of cash flowstreats interest as an operating cash flow, while the financial cash flows treat interest as a financing cash flow. The logic of the accounting statement of cash flows is that since interest appears on the income statement, which shows the operations for the period, it is an operating cash flow. In reality, interest is a financing expense, which results from the company‘s choice of debt and equity. We will have more to say about this in a later chapter. When comparing the two cash flow statements, the financial statement of cash flows is a more appropriate measure of the company‘s performance because of its treatment of interest.5.Market values can never be negative. Imagine a share of stock selling for –$20. This would meanthat if you placed an order for 100 shares, you would get the stock along with a check for $2,000.How many shares do you want to buy? More generally, because of corporate and individual bankruptcy laws, net worth for a person or a corporation cannot be negative, implying that liabilities cannot exceed assets in market value.6.For a successful company that is rapidly expanding, for example, capital outlays will be large,possibly leading to negative cash flow from assets. In general, what matters is whether the money is spent wisely, not whether cash flow from assets is positive or negative.7.It‘s probably not a good sign for an established company to have negative cash flow from operations,but it would be fairly ordinary for a start-up, so it depends.8.For example, if a company were to become more efficient in inventory management, the amount ofinventory needed would decline. The same might be true if the company becomes better at collecting its receivables. In general, anything that leads to a decline in ending NWC relative to beginning would have this effect. Negative net capital spending would mean more long-lived assets were liquidated than purchased.9.If a company raises more money from selling stock than it pays in dividends in a particular period,its cash flow to stockholders will be negative. If a company borrows more than it pays in interest and principal, its cash flow to creditors will be negative.10.The adjustments discussed were purely accounting changes; they had no cash flow or market valueconsequences unless the new accounting information caused stockholders to revalue the derivatives. Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1.To find owners‘ equity, we must construct a balance sheet as follows:Balance SheetCA $ 5,300 CL $ 3,900NFA 26,000 LTD 14,200OE ??TA $31,300 TL & OE $31,300We know that total liabilities and owners‘ equity (TL & OE) must equal total assets of $31,300. We also know that TL & OE is equal to current liabilities plus long-term debt plus owner‘s equity, so owner‘s equity is:O E = $31,300 –14,200 – 3,900 = $13,200N WC = CA – CL = $5,300 – 3,900 = $1,4002. The income statement for the company is:Income StatementSales $493,000Costs 210,000Depreciation 35,000EBIT $248,000Interest 19,000EBT $229,000Taxes 80,150Net income $148,850One equation for net income is:Net income = Dividends + Addition to retained earningsRearranging, we get:Addition to retained earnings = Net income – DividendsAddition to retained earnings = $148,850 – 50,000Addition to retained earnings = $98,8503.To find the book value of current assets, we use: NWC = CA – CL. Rearranging to solve for currentassets, we get:CA = NWC + CL = $800,000 + 2,100,000 = $2,900,000The market value of current assets and net fixed assets is given, so:Book value CA = $2,900,000 Market value CA = $2,800,000Book value NFA = $5,000,000 Market value NFA = $6,300,000Book value assets = $7,900,000 Market value assets = $9,100,0004.Taxes = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($25K) + 0.39($246K – 100K)Taxes = $79,190The average tax rate is the total tax paid divided by net income, so:Average tax rate = $79,190 / $246,000Average tax rate = 32.19%The marginal tax rate is the tax rate on the next $1 of earnings, so the marginal tax rate = 39%.5.To calculate OCF, we first need the income statement:Income StatementSales $14,900Costs 5,800Depreciation 1,300EBIT $7,800Interest 780Taxable income $7,020Taxes 2,808Net income $4,212OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = $7,800 + 1,300 – 2,808OCF = $6,292 capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + DepreciationNet capital spending = $1,730,000 – 1,650,000 + 284,000Net capital spending = $364,0007.The long-term debt account will increase by $10 million, the amount of the new long-term debt issue.Since the company sold 10 million new shares of stock with a $1 par value, the common stock account will increase by $10 million. The capital surplus account will increase by $33 million, the value of the new stock sold above its par value. Since the company had a net income of $9 million, and paid $2 million in dividends, the addition to retained earnings was $7 million, which will increase the accumulated retained earnings account. So, the new long-term debt and stockholders‘ equity portion of the balance sheet will be:Long-term debt $ 82,000,000Total long-term debt $ 82,000,000Shareholders equityPreferred stock $ 9,000,000Common stock ($1 par value) 30,000,000Accumulated retained earnings 104,000,000Capital surplus 76,000,000Total equity $ 219,000,000Total Liabilities & Equity $ 301,000,0008.Cash flow to creditors = Interest paid – Net new borrowingCash flow to creditors = $118,000 – (LTD end– LTD beg)Cash flow to creditors = $118,000 – ($1,390,000 – 1,340,000)Cash flow to creditors = $118,000 – 50,000Cash flow to creditors = $68,0009. Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends paid – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = $385,000 – [(Common end + APIS end) – (Common beg + APIS beg)]Cash flow to stockholders = $385,000 – [($450,000 + 3,050,000) – ($430,000 + 2,600,000)]Cash flow to stockholders = $385,000 – ($3,500,000 – 3,030,000)Cash flow to stockholders = –$85,000Note, APIS is the additional paid-in surplus.10. Cash flow from assets = Cash flow to creditors + Cash flow to stockholders= $68,000 – 85,000= –$17,000Cash flow from assets = –$17,000 = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending–$17,000 = OCF – (–$69,000) – 875,000Operating cash flow = –$17,000 – 69,000 + 875,000Operating cash flow = $789,000Intermediate11. a.The accounting statement of cash flows explains the change in cash during the year. Theaccounting statement of cash flows will be:Statement of cash flowsOperationsNet income $105Depreciation 90Changes in other current assets (55)Accounts payable (10)Total cash flow from operations $170Investing activitiesAcquisition of fixed assets $(140)Total cash flow from investing activities $(140)Financing activitiesProceeds of long-term debt $30Dividends (45)Total cash flow from financing activities ($15)Change in cash (on balance sheet) $15b.Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg= (CA end– CL end) – (CA beg– CL beg)= [($50 + 155) – 85] – [($35 + 140) – 95)= $120 – 80= $40c.To find the cash flow generated by the firm‘s assets, we need the operating cash flow, and thecapital spending. So, calculating each of these, we find:Operating cash flowNet income $105Depreciation 90Operating cash flow $195Note that we can calculate OCF in this manner since there are no taxes.Capital spendingEnding fixed assets $340Beginning fixed assets (290)Depreciation 90Capital spending $140Now we can calculate the cash flow generated by the firm‘s assets, which is:Cash flow from assetsOperating cash flow $195Capital spending (140)Change in NWC (40)Cash flow from assets $ 1512.With the information provided, the cash flows from the firm are the capital spending and the changein net working capital, so:Cash flows from the firmCapital spending $(15,000)Additions to NWC (1,500)Cash flows from the firm $(16,500)And the cash flows to the investors of the firm are:Cash flows to investors of the firmSale of long-term debt (19,000)Sale of common stock (3,000)Dividends paid 19,500Cash flows to investors of the firm $(2,500)13. a. The interest expense for the company is the amount of debt times the interest rate on the debt.So, the income statement for the company is:Income StatementSales $1,200,000Cost of goods sold 450,000Selling costs 225,000Depreciation 110,000EBIT $415,000Interest 81,000Taxable income $334,000Taxes 116,900Net income $217,100b. And the operating cash flow is:OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = $415,000 + 110,000 – 116,900OCF = $408,10014.To find the OCF, we first calculate net income.Income StatementSales $167,000Costs 91,000Depreciation 8,000Other expenses 5,400EBIT $62,600Interest 11,000Taxable income $51,600Taxes 18,060Net income $33,540Dividends $9,500Additions to RE $24,040a.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = $62,600 + 8,000 – 18,060OCF = $52,540b.CFC = Interest – Net new LTDCFC = $11,000 – (–$7,100)CFC = $18,100Note that the net new long-term debt is negative because the company repaid part of its long-term debt.c.CFS = Dividends – Net new equityCFS = $9,500 – 7,250CFS = $2,250d.We know that CFA = CFC + CFS, so:CFA = $18,100 + 2,250 = $20,350CFA is also equal to OCF – Net capital spending – Change in NWC. We already know OCF.Net capital spending is equal to:Net capital spending = Increase in NFA + DepreciationNet capital spending = $22,400 + 8,000Net capital spending = $30,400Now we can use:CFA = OCF – Net capital spending – Change in NWC$20,350 = $52,540 – 30,400 – Change in NWC.Solving for the change in NWC gives $1,790, meaning the company increased its NWC by$1,790.15.The solution to this question works the income statement backwards. Starting at the bottom:Net income = Dividends + Addition to ret. earningsNet income = $1,530 + 5,300Net income = $6,830Now, looking at the income statement:EBT – (EBT × Tax rate) = Net incomeRecognize that EBT × tax rate is simply the calculation for taxes. Solving this for EBT yields: EBT = NI / (1– Tax rate)EBT = $6,830 / (1 – 0.65)EBT = $10,507.69Now we can calculate:EBIT = EBT + InterestEBIT = $10,507.69 + 1,900EBIT = $12,407.69The last step is to use:EBIT = Sales – Costs – Depreciation$12,407.69 = $43,000 – 27,500 – DepreciationDepreciation = $3,092.31Solving for depreciation, we find that depreciation = $3,092.3116.The balance sheet for the company looks like this:Balance SheetCash $183,000 Accounts payable $465,000 Accounts receivable 138,000 Notes payable 145,000 Inventory 297,000 Current liabilities $610,000 Current assets $618,000 Long-term debt 1,550,000Total liabilities $2,160,000 Tangible net fixed assets 3,200,000Intangible net fixed assets 695,000 Common stock ??Accumulated ret. earnings 1,960,000 Total assets $4,513,000 Total liab. & owners‘ equity$4,513,000 Total liabiliti es and owners‘ equity is:TL & OE = Total debt + Common stock + Accumulated retained earningsSolving for this equation for equity gives us:Common stock = $4,513,000 – 1,960,000 – 2,160,000Common stock = $393,00017.The market value of sharehol ders‘ equity cannot be negative. A negative market value in this casewould imply that the company would pay you to own the stock. The market value of shareholders‘ equity can be stated as: Shareholders‘ equity = Max [(TA – TL), 0]. So, if TA is $9,700, equity is equal to $800, and if TA is $6,800, equity is equal to $0. We should note here that while the market value of equity cannot be negative, the book value of shareholders‘ equity can be negative.18. a. Taxes Growth = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($3K) = $14,770Taxes Income = 0.15($50K) + 0.25($25K) + 0.34($25K) + 0.39($235K) + 0.34($7.465M)= $2,652,000b. Each firm has a marginal tax rate of 34% on the next $10,000 of taxable income, despite theirdifferent average tax rates, so both firms will pay an additional $3,400 in taxes.19.Income StatementSales $740,000COGS 610,000A&S expenses 100,000Depreciation 140,000EBIT ($115,000)Interest 70,000Taxable income ($185,000)Taxes (35%) 0 income ($185,000)b.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = ($115,000) + 140,000 – 0OCF = $25,000 income was negative because of the tax deductibility of depreciation and interest expense.However, the actual cash flow from operations was positive because depreciation is a non-cash expense and interest is a financing expense, not an operating expense.20. A firm can still pay out dividends if net income is negative; it just has to be sure there is sufficientcash flow to make the dividend payments.Change in NWC = Net capital spending = Net new equity = 0. (Given)Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spendingCash flow from assets = $25,000 – 0 – 0 = $25,000Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = $30,000 – 0 = $30,000Cash flow to creditors = Cash flow from assets – Cash flow to stockholdersCash flow to creditors = $25,000 – 30,000Cash flow to creditors = –$5,000Cash flow to creditors is also:Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDSo:Net new LTD = Interest – Cash flow to creditorsNet new LTD = $70,000 – (–5,000)Net new LTD = $75,00021. a.The income statement is:Income StatementSales $15,300Cost of good sold 10,900Depreciation 2,100EBIT $ 2,300Interest 520Taxable income $ 1,780Taxes 712Net income $1,068b.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = $2,300 + 2,100 – 712OCF = $3,688c.Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg= (CA end– CL end) – (CA beg– CL beg)= ($3,950 – 1,950) – ($3,400 – 1,900)= $2,000 – 1,500 = $500Net capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg + Depreciation= $12,900 – 11,800 + 2,100= $3,200CFA = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending= $3,688 – 500 – 3,200= –$12The cash flow from assets can be positive or negative, since it represents whether the firm raised funds or distributed funds on a net basis. In this problem, even though net income and OCF are positive, the firm invested heavily in both fixed assets and net working capital; it had to raise a net $12 in funds from its stockholders and creditors to make these investments.d.Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTD= $520 – 0= $520Cash flow to stockholders = Cash flow from assets – Cash flow to creditors= –$12 – 520= –$532We can also calculate the cash flow to stockholders as:Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equitySolving for net new equity, we get:Net new equity = $500 – (–532)= $1,032The firm had positive earnings in an accounting sense (NI > 0) and had positive cash flow from operations. The firm invested $500 in new net working capital and $3,200 in new fixed assets. The firm had to raise $12 from its stakeholders to support this new investment. It accomplished this by raising $1,032 in the form of new equity. After paying out $500 of this in the form of dividends to shareholders and $520 in the for m of interest to creditors, $12 was left to meet the firm‘s cash flow needs for investment.22. a.Total assets 2009 = $780 + 3,480 = $4,260Total liabilities 2009 = $318 + 1,800 = $2,118Owners‘ equity 2009= $4,260 – 2,118 = $2,142Total assets 2010 = $846 + 4,080 = $4,926Total liabilities 2010 = $348 + 2,064 = $2,412Owners‘ equity 2010 = $4,926 – 2,412 = $2,514b.NWC 2009 = CA09 – CL09 = $780 – 318 = $462NWC 2010 = CA10 – CL10 = $846 – 348 = $498Change in NWC = NWC10 – NWC09 = $498 – 462 = $36c.We can calculate net capital spending as:Net capital spending = Net fixed assets 2010 – Net fixed assets 2009 + DepreciationNet capital spending = $4,080 – 3,480 + 960Net capital spending = $1,560So, the company had a net capital spending cash flow of $1,560. We also know that net capital spending is:Net capital spending = Fixed assets bought – Fixed assets sold$1,560 = $1,800 – Fixed assets soldFixed assets sold = $1,800 – 1,560 = $240To calculate the cash flow from assets, we must first calculate the operating cash flow. The operating cash flow is calculated as follows (you can also prepare a traditional income statement):EBIT = Sales – Costs – DepreciationEBIT = $10,320 – 4,980 – 960EBIT = $4,380EBT = EBIT – InterestEBT = $4,380 – 259EBT = $4,121Taxes = EBT ⨯ .35Taxes = $4,121 ⨯ .35Taxes = $1,442OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = $4,380 + 960 – 1,442OCF = $3,898Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spending.Cash flow from assets = $3,898 – 36 – 1,560Cash flow from assets = $2,302 new borrowing = LTD10 – LTD09Net new borrowing = $2,064 – 1,800Net new borrowing = $264Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDCash flow to creditors = $259 – 264Cash flow to creditors = –$5Net new borrowing = $264 = Debt issued – Debt retiredDebt retired = $360 – 264 = $9623.Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2009Cash $2,739 Accounts payable $2,877Accounts receivable 3,626 Notes payable 529Inventory 6,447 Current liabilities $3,406Current assets $12,812Long-term debt $9,173 Net fixed assets $22,970 Owners' equity $23,203Total assets $35,782 Total liab. & equity $35,782Balance sheet as of Dec. 31, 2010Cash $2,802 Accounts payable $2,790Accounts receivable 4,085 Notes payable 497Inventory 6,625 Current liabilities $3,287Current assets $13,512Long-term debt $10,702 Net fixed assets $23,518 Owners' equity $23,041Total assets $37,030 Total liab. & equity $37,030 2009 Income Statement 2010 Income Statement Sales $5,223.00Sales $5,606.00 COGS 1,797.00COGS 2,040.00 Other expenses 426.00Other expenses 356.00 Depreciation 750.00Depreciation 751.00 EBIT $2,250.00EBIT $2,459.00 Interest 350.00Interest 402.00 EBT $1,900.00EBT $2,057.00 Taxes 646.00Taxes 699.38 Net income $1,254.00Net income $1,357.62 Dividends $637.00Dividends $701.00 Additions to RE 617.00Additions to RE 656.62 24.OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – TaxesOCF = $2,459 + 751 – 699.38OCF = $2,510.62Change in NWC = NWC end– NWC beg = (CA – CL) end– (CA – CL) begChange in NWC = ($13,512 – 3,287) – ($12,812 – 3,406)Change in NWC = $819Net capital spending = NFA end– NFA beg+ DepreciationNet capital spending = $23,518 – 22,970 + 751Net capital spending = $1,299Cash flow from assets = OCF – Change in NWC – Net capital spendingCash flow from assets = $2,510.62 – 819 – 1,299Cash flow from assets = $396.62Cash flow to creditors = Interest – Net new LTDNet new LTD = LTD end– LTD begCash flow to creditors = $402 – ($10,702 – 9,173)Cash flow to creditors = –$1,127Net new equity = Common stock end– Common stock begCommon stock + Retained earnings = Total owners‘ equityNet new equity = (OE – RE) end– (OE – RE) begNet new equity = OE end– OE beg + RE beg– RE endRE end= RE beg+ Additions to RENet new equity = OE end– OE beg+ RE beg– (RE beg + Additions to RE)= OE end– OE beg– Additions to RENet new equity = $23,041 – 23,203 – 656.62 = –$818.62Cash flow to stockholders = Dividends – Net new equityCash flow to stockholders = $701 – (–$818.62)Cash flow to stockholders = $1,519.62As a check, cash flow from assets is $396.62.Cash flow from assets = Cash flow from creditors + Cash flow to stockholdersCash flow from assets = –$1,127 + 1,519.62Cash flow from assets = $392.62Challenge25.We will begin by calculating the operating cash flow. First, we need the EBIT, which can becalculated as:EBIT = Net income + Current taxes + Deferred taxes + InterestEBIT = $144 + 82 + 16 + 43EBIT = $380Now we can calculate the operating cash flow as:Operating cash flowEarnings before interest and taxes $285Depreciation 78Current taxes (82)Operating cash flow $281The cash flow from assets is found in the investing activities portion of the accounting statement of cash flows, so:Cash flow from assetsAcquisition of fixed assets $148Sale of fixed assets (19)Capital spending $129The net working capital cash flows are all found in the operations cash flow section of the accounting statement of cash flows. However, instead of calculating the net working capital cash flows as the change in net working capital, we must calculate each item individually. Doing so, we find:Net working capital cash flowCash $42Accounts receivable 15Inventories (18)Accounts payable (14)Accrued expenses 7Notes payable (5)Other (2)NWC cash flow $25Except for the interest expense and notes payable, the cash flow to creditors is found in the financing activities of the accounting statement of cash flows. The interest expense from the income statement is given, so:Cash flow to creditorsInterest $43Retirement of debt 135Debt service $178Proceeds from sale of long-term debt (97)Total $81And we can find the cash flow to stockholders in the financing section of the accounting statement of cash flows. The cash flow to stockholders was:Cash flow to stockholdersDividends $ 72Repurchase of stock 11Cash to stockholders $ 83Proceeds from new stock issue (37)Total $ 46。

公司理财原书第九版中文版课后答案

公司理财原书第九版中文版课后答案第1章1、在所有权形式的公司中，股东是公司的所有者。